DR.

BABASAHEB AMBEDKAR TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY, LONERE –

RAIGAD -402 103
Mid Semester Examination – October - 2017
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Branch: All courses Sem.:- I

Subject with Subject Code:- Engineering Mathematics –I (MATH101) Marks: 20

Date:-03/10/2017 Time:- 1 Hr.

MODEL SOLUTION
Q.N. Sub.- Marks
Q.N.
1. a) iii) 4 01
b) i) 2 01
c) i) The elements of its principle diagonal 01
d) iv) = 01
e) iii) 0 01
f) ii) − + − ⋯ …. 01
2. a) Step- :To find the eigen values -
We know the charters tics equation of matrix A in is | − | =
0
− + −| |=0
− 8 + 4 + 48 = 0
solving we get = −2, 4, 6 01
Step-II: To find corresponding eigen vectors-
Case-I: For = −2 the matrix equation
[ − ] = 0 reduces
7 0 1 0
0 0 0 = 0
1 0 7 0
By we have
7 +0 + =0 01
+0 +7 =0
0
By Crammers rule = = this gives = 1
0
Case-II: For = 4 the matrix equation [ − ] = 0 reduces 01
1 0 1 0
0 −6 0 = 0
1 0 1 0
By we have
+ 0 + = 0 and − 6 + 0 = 0
1
By Crammers rule = = this gives = 0
01
−1
Case-III: For = 6 the matrix equation [ − ] = 0 reduces
 −1 0 1 0
0 −8 0 = 0
1 0 −1 0 01
By we have
−1 + 0 + = 0
0 −8 +0 =0
1 01
By Crammers rule = = this gives = 0
1
b) Given = (sin ) -----------------------------------------(i)
Differentiating w.r.t and squaring we get
(1 − ) = 4(sin ) = 4 ------------------------- ---------(ii) 01
again differentiating w.r.t and squaring we get
(1 − ) − =2 -----------------------------------------(iii) 01
Apply Leibnitz’s rule for nth differentiation
(1 − ) − (2 + 1) − = 0 ------------------(iv) 01
Put = 0 in all above four equations, this gives
(0) = 0 , (0) = 0, (0) = 2 (0) = (0) -(v)
Put = 1,2,3 … in equation (v) this gives 01
(0) = 0, (0) = 2 2, (0) = 0, (0) = 4 2 2 an so
on
Put all these in Maclaurin’s Theorem 01

( ) = (0) + (0) + (0) + (0) + ⋯ … 01

2! 3!
(sin ) =2 +22 +22 4 + ⋯ ….
2! 4! 6!

3. a)
The given system can be written as
2 −3 6 −5 3 01
0 1 −4 1 = 1
4 −5 8 −9
2 −3 6 −5 3
[ : ] = 0 1 −4 1 1
4 −5 8 −9 01
By applying the row transformations −2 , − we get
2 −3 6 −5 3
= 0 1 −4 1 1
0 0 0 0 −7 01
It is clear that ( ) = 2
(i)For no solution ( ) ≠ ( : ) .
This will require − 7 ≠ 0 ≠7 01
(ii)For infinite no. of solution ( ) = ( : ) < (= 4) .
This will require − 7 = 0 =7

b) From given equation

= cos[ ( ln − ln )]------------------------------(i) 01
 Differentiating w.r.t
= − sin[ ( ln − ln )] ---------------------- (ii) 01
Differentiating again w.r.t
+ =− cos[ ( ln − ln )] =− ------------(iii) 01
Apply Leibnitz’s rule for nth differential and collect the similar
terms
+ (2 + 1) +2 = 0 ------------------(iv) 01

c) We know Taylor theorem state that

( + ℎ) = ( ) + ℎ , ( ) + ,, ( )
+ ,,, ( )
+ ⋯ (A)
! ! 01
( + ℎ) = tan ( + ℎ) and = 1 &ℎ = 0.003
( ) = tan ( )
Differentiating successively w.r.t we get
,( )
1
=
1+
,, ( )
2
=−
(1 + )
,,, ( ( ) 01
)=−
( )
(1) = , (1)
Put = 1 in all above this gives =
1 1 01
,, (1)
= − ,,, (1) =
2 2
Putting all these values in (A) we get
01
1 (0.003) −1
tan (1.003) = + (0.003) +
4 2 2! 2
(0.003) 1
+ +⋯
3! 2
= 0.78690