Fee 2025
Fee 2025
Fee 2025
FUNDAMENTALS
of
Engineering
Examination
2025
Content Page
1 Introduction........................................................................................... 2
2 Eligibility To Sit For Examination ............................................................. 2
3 Fees ...................................................................................................... 2
4 Dates Of Examination ............................................................................. 3
5 Venue ................................................................................................... 3
6 Application ............................................................................................ 3
7 Structure Of Examination........................................................................ 3
8 Final Results and Notification…………..…………………………………………….….. 4
9 Examination Appeals .............................................................................. 4
10 Review Courses ..................................................................................... 4
11 Refund Of Fees ...................................................................................... 4
12 Request for Accommodation…………………………………………………………………4
1 INTRODUCTION
The mission of the Professional Engineers Board is to safeguard life, property, and
welfare of the public by setting and maintaining high standards for registering
professional engineers and by regulating and advancing the practice of professional
engineering.
The following sections set out the requirements and details for the Fundamentals of
Engineering Examination 2025 while details on other application requirements are
available on the PEB website at www.peb.gov.sg.
3 FEES
The fees for an application to sit for the Fundamentals of Engineering Examination is
$350.
4 DATES OF EXAMINATION
5 VENUE
6 APPLICATION
7 STRUCTURE OF EXAMINATION
FEE Part 1
• 40 Multiple Choice
Core engineering subjects in *3 hours & 10 mins
Questions (MCQ)
civil/mechanical/electrical/chemical (9.00am – 12.10pm)
engineering
For FEE (Civil) 2025, only answers based on Eurocodes and the relevant Singapore
Annexes will be accepted. For transportation-related questions, AASHTO code is
acceptable. Answers based on other codes and standards will not be accepted.
9 EXAMINATION APPEALS
A candidate who has failed the examination may submit a written appeal to review his
performance. The appeal is to be received by PEB within 2 weeks after date of results
and late appeals would not be considered. The result of the appeal/review will be sent
by written mail to the appeal candidate. The appeal candidate would not be able to
review his examination paper.
10 REVIEW COURSES
The Board does not endorse any review courses or materials provided as study aides.
11 REFUND OF FEES
Where an applicant who has been accepted is unable to sit for the examination
subsequently, the Board may, at its discretion, refund $100 to the applicant if the
applicant submits a medical certificate by mail within 2 weeks after the examination.
There will be no refund if the applicant sends a scanned copy of medical certificate
via email.
A candidate who has disabilities may submit a written request for accommodation.
The request is to be received by PEB not later than 6 weeks before the date of
examination and late request would not be considered. PEB’s decision will be
conveyed to the applicant by written mail not later than one week before the
examination date.
For FEE (Civil) 2025, only answers based on Eurocodes and the relevant
Singapore Annexes will be accepted. For transportation-related questions,
AASHTO code is acceptable. Answers based on other codes and standards will
not be accepted.
Format
Syllabus
▪ Mechanics of Materials
Strength, stiffness and deformability; Stress-strain relations;
ductility and brittle fracture; time-dependent properties; creep,
creep rupture; relaxation; cyclic load behaviour.
▪ Concrete Technology
Concrete-making materials, properties of fresh and hardened
concrete, mixing, placing, and curing, mix design, destructive and
non-destructive tests, quality control, durability, and special
concrete.
▪ Steel
Basic metallurgy, mechanical properties and applications, welding
technology and corrosion.
▪ Structural Mechanics
Statics and kinetics of particles, equilibrium of rigid bodies,
kinematics and plane motion of rigid bodies, analysis of simple
trusses and beams, analysis of structural members subjected to
tension, compression, torsion, and bending, including such
fundamental concepts as stress, strain, and elastic behaviour. Bar
forces in compound and complex trusses. Bending moment,
shear and axial forces of beams and frames.
▪ Structural Analysis
Displacements of elastic determinate structures: principle of
virtual work and energy theorems. Analysis of indeterminate
structures. Deformation of indeterminate structures and
influence line method. Displacement techniques using slope-
deflection and moment distribution methods. Plastic theory and
analysis. Theory and applications of modern structural analysis.
Concepts of equilibrium, compatibility and force-displacement
relationships. Direct stiffness method. Matrix formulation of
trusses, beams and frames. Stability concepts and elastic
stability analysis of framed structures.
▪ Fluid Statics
Fluid properties; hydrostatic pressure and thrust; buoyancy;
stability of floating bodies.
▪ Fluid Motion
Continuity equations; Bernoulli’s equation; linear momentum
equation.
▪ Similitude
Dimensional analysis; design of hydraulic models.
▪ RC Design
Basic structural members and structural systems. Loads and
load effects. Section analysis and design for bending. Design
for shear, torsion and bond. Corbels. Serviceability and
durability requirements. Design of short and slender columns.
Design of slab systems. Concentrated loads on slabs. Design
of foundations. Retaining walls. Reinforced concrete detailing.
▪ Steel Design
Limit state design. Material properties and structural responses.
Local buckling and section classifications. Design of fully
restrained beams. Shear buckling and design of plate girder.
Web bearing and buckling. Design of web stiffeners. Lateral-
torsional buckling and design of laterally unrestrained beams.
Tension and compression members. Axially loaded members
with end moments. Design of steel connections. Plastic design
of portal frames. Continuous multi-storey frames.
▪ Foundation Engineering
Site investigation and interpretation of soil reports; shallow
foundations and deep foundations; selection of appropriate
foundation type; capacity and settlement requirements.
• CE 204 Transportation
▪ Transportation Engineering
Transportation systems, planning and management; geometric
design of roads and intersections; design of flexible and rigid
pavements.
▪ Traffic Engineering
Traffic flow studies; traffic data analysis; traffic management;
highway and intersection capacity; traffic signal control. Parking.
▪ Hydraulics
Friction and minor losses in pipe flow; pipe and pump systems;
pipe network analysis; open channel flow; uniform flow,
Manning’s equation; critical flow; energy and momentum
principles; hydraulic jumps; gradually varied flows, backwater
computation.
▪ Hydrology
Processes in the hydrologic cycle: basic meteorology, rainfall
precipitation, evaporation and transpiration, infiltration, sub-
surface flow, surface runoff, streamflow measurement and
hydrograph analysis; unit hydrograph principles and applications;
frequency analysis of rainfall or flood data; reservoir and channel
flood routing; urban storm drainage design, flood peak
estimation.
▪ Environmental Engineering
Basic physical, chemical and biological water quality parameters;
physical, chemical, and biological processes for water and
wastewater treatment; water treatment principles and design;
water distribution systems; wastewater collection and pumping
systems; wastewater treatment design; pretreatment, primary,
secondary, tertiary treatment, and anaerobic digestion.
CE204 Transportation
1) Mannering F. L. and Washburn, S. S. “Principles of Highway Engineering and Traffic Analysis”
7th Edition, Wiley, 2020.
2) Garber N. and Hoel, L. “Traffic and Highway Engineering” 4th Edition, Cengage Learning,
2010.
3) Papagiannakis, A.T. and Masad, E.A. “Pavement Design and Materials”, Wiley. 2012.
2) Chow, V. T. Maidment, D.R., Mays, L. W., “Applied Hydrology”, McGraw Hill Book Co, 1988.
3) Chadwick, A., Morfett, J., and Borthwick, M., “Hydraulics in Civil and Environmental
Engineering”, 4th Edition, Spon Press, 2004.
For FEE (Civil) 2025, only answers based on Eurocodes and the relevant Singapore
Annexes will be accepted. Answers based on other codes and standards will not be
accepted.
(Actual paper comprises 40 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of 2.5 marks each.
Answer all questions.)
1. A steel bar comprises three sections of three cross sections as shown in Fig. Q1.
The diameters of parts AB, BC and CD are 25 mm, 15 mm and 35 mm
respectively. The bar is subjected to an axial tensile force of 5 kN. If Young’s
modulus of steel is 200 kN/mm2, and the elongations of the three sections of
the bars are Δ1, Δ2 and Δ3 respectively, calculate the ratio of the largest to the
smallest of these three elongations.
(a) 1.96
(b) 2.33
(c) 5.44
(d) 2.77
Fig.Q1
2. Three plane trusses are shown in Fig.Q2. The statical determinacy of the
trusses, (1), (2) and (3) are respectively:
Fig.Q2
3. The static indeterminacy of the beams, (1), (2), (3) and (4) shown in Fig.Q3 are
respectively:
(a) 1, 4, 5, 1
(b) 2, 4, 5, 2
(c) 1, 4, 5, 2
(d) 1, 5, 4, 1
Fig.Q3
(a) 1.96 kN
(b) 2.74 kN
(c) 2.96 kN
(d) 1.74 kN
Fig.Q4
5. If seawater is used in place of potable water to cast OPC concrete, the effect is
to
Of the above,
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
6. Find the position at which the maximum upward deflection for this beam with
an overhang as shown in Fig.Q6 occurs.
Fig.Q6
7. A river is 3m deep and the riverbed consists of a thick deposit of clay with a
saturated unit weight of 20kN/m3. What is the effective stress of the clay layer
at a depth of 3m below the riverbed level?
(a) 30 kN/m2
(b) 60 kN/m2
(c) 90 kN/m2
(d) 120 kN/m2
8. During the site investigation for a deep foundation design, you discover in the
borehole a layer of soft clay 5m deep where you had expected a hard stratum
at the estimated depth of pile toe. Which of the following action would you take?
9. In the figure below, what is the gauge pressure of air inside the closed
container?
10. A 1:20 scale river model is designed based on Froude number similarity. What
is the prototype flow velocity which corresponds to a model measured velocity
V
of 0.5 m/s? Given Froude number Fr =
gL
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 158.1 m/s
(c) 2.24 m/s
(d) None of the above
(Note: For FEE (Civil) 2025, only answers based on Eurocodes and the relevant
Singapore Annexes will be accepted. Answers based on other codes and standards
will not be accepted.)
Q1.
Figure Q1 shows the cross section of a T-shape column, subjected to axial load and
bending moment about y-y axis.
With the following design data, calculate the maximum pure axial capacity,
maximum bending moment capacity and construct N-M interaction diagram for the
cross section.
For tension failure case that is required for the construction of N-M interaction
diagram, you can assume that the neutral axis is 100 mm from extreme compression
face.
4H20
200 Y
Y
4H20
200
2 H25
Q2.
To facilitate excavation for a new underground MRT station, a steel strutting and
waling system together with concrete diaphragm wall are to be used for its
construction. The transverse design strut force to be transmitted to the concrete
wall is 3500 kN as shown in Figure Q2.
(a) Calculate the bearing and buckling resistances of the unstiffened web of the
waler which is subjected to the transverse strut force. The sizes of the strut
and waler as well as the strut-waler connection details are indicated clearly in
the figure.
(10 marks)
(b) Determine whether the unstiffened web of the waler is adequate to transfer
the design strut force or not. Propose an effective strengthening scheme if it is
inadequate. Detailed design of the strengthening scheme is not required.
(10 marks)
You may assume that the strut is not at the end or near the end of the waler. State
clearly your other design assumptions, if any.
Figure Q2
Q3.
(a) A rectangular short column of size 350 mm by 500 mm is required to resist an
axial load of 3600 kN. What is the area of steel required? Provide a sketch
showing the reinforcement details, including the links to be provided.
(8 marks)
(b) Re-design the rectangular column in Part (a), of size 350 mm and 500 mm to
resist an additional bending moment of 300 kNm. Provide a sketch showing
the revised reinforcement details, including the links to be provided.
(12 marks)
Assume a clear cover of 30 mm to the links. Use fck = 32 N/mm2 and fyk = 500
N/mm2. State clearly why the respective reinforcing bar sizes are chosen.
Q4.
(a) A 0.8 m diameter bored pile (weight density = 25 kN/m3) is to be formed in a
clay site with the representative undrained shear strength (cu) profile as shown
in Figure Q4. The groundwater table is at the ground surface. Determine the
ultimate axial load capacity of the pile under undrained condition if the
embedment length of the pile is 20 m.
(14 marks)
(b) If a 1 m thick sand fill is placed on the site, what additional load will the pile
experience? Describe the effect of this load on the load carrying capacity of the
pile and estimate the maximum possible magnitude of this load in the clay.
(6 marks)
5m cu = 30 kPa for z ≤ 5 m
z
Clay
20 m = 18 kN/m3
Bored pile
0.8 m diameter Undrained shear strength profile
= 24 kN/m3
Figure Q4
Q5.
(a) A pair of vertical curves are to connect a series of tangent grades for which
the slopes are shown in Figure Q5. The middle section is 150 metres long.
−3%
+2% +4%
150 m
Figure Q5
(i) The required minimum stopping sight distance for motorists is found to
be 120.0 metres on the crest curve, and 122.7 metres on the sag curve.
Show how the value for the minimum stopping sight distance is obtained
for either the crest curve or the sag curve.
(ii) Calculate the minimum length of the crest curve, and the sag curve, that
satisfies the respective minimum stopping sight distance. Hence, show
that the middle section is too short for the pair of vertical curves to be
fully developed.
(10 marks)
LIST OF FORMULAE
dr = vtr
v2
db =
2g(f G )
AS 2
When S L
(
200 h1 + h2
2
)
Lmin =
(
2 S − 200 h1 + h2 ) 2
When S L
A
AS 2 AS 2
= WhenS L
200 0.6 + S (tan 1 ) 120 + 3.5S
Lmin =
2S −
200 0.6 + S (tan 1 )
= 2S −
120 + 3.5S
WhenS L
A A
Q6.
A sluice gate is installed in a rectangular open channel with a width B = 2 m. The
flow depth measured at a location (Section 1) immediately downstream of the sluice
gate is 0.5 m, and its mean flow velocity is 4 m/s.
(a) What is the flow rate, Q (m3/s) in the channel under this flow condition?
(2 marks)
(b) What is the specific energy, E1 at Section 1 under this flow condition?
(3 marks)
(d) What is the flow regime (i.e., sub-critical, critical, or super-critical flow) at
Section 1?
(2 marks)
(e) A hydraulic jump occurs downstream of the sluice gate. The initial depth of the
jump occurs at Section 1. What is the sequent depth, y2 of the jump?
(5 marks)
(f) If the Manning’s coefficient n of the channel = 0.02, estimate the channel bed
slope, So. State your assumption(s).
(5 marks)
Useful equations:
𝑉2
(a) Specific energy, 𝐸 = 𝑦 + 2𝑔 , where V = velocity, y = flow depth.
3 𝑞2
(c) Critical flow depth, 𝑦𝑐 = √
for a rectangular channel, where q [m2/s] =
𝑔
discharge per unit width = Q/B, Q = flow rate, B = channel width, g =
gravitational acceleration.
1 2/3 1/2
(e) Manning’s equation,𝑄 = 𝐴𝑅ℎ 𝑆𝑜 , where n = Manning’s coefficient, So
𝑛
= channel bed slope, Rh = hydraulics radius (= A/P), A = flow area, P = wetted
perimeter.
Professional Engineers Registration Examination FEE 2025
Page 22
Q7.
(a) A primary clarifier with a surface area overflow rate of 55 m 3/m2.day receives
a wastewater from an equivalent population of 45,000 having a capita flow
rate of 550 L/d and a per capita suspended solids (SS) of 32 g/d.
(i) Determine the clarifier diameter and depth based on a 2-hour hydraulic
retention time.
(4 marks)
(ii) Determine the volume of primary sludge produced daily if 75% of the SS
are removed by the clarification process. Assume that the sludge contains
1.5% SS, the sludge specific gravity is 1.005, and a water density of 1,000
kg/m3.
(4 marks)
(b) An activated sludge process is used to treat a combined wastewater from two
separate sources of seafood processing and raw sugar refining, respectively.
The seafood processing produces a wastewater stream of 200 m3/d with 550
BOD5/L, and the sugar refinery produces another wastewater stream of 320
m3/d with 650 BOD5/L. The activated sludge reactor is operating at an organic
loading rate 0f 4 kg BOD5/m3.d.
(i) Calculate the volume of the reactor and the hydraulic retention time
based on the combined wastewater flow and BOD5 concentration.
(6 marks)
(iii) Estimate the mean cell residence time, assuming an effluent volatile solids
concentration of 20 mg/L and the daily amount of waste sludge is 95 m3
that contains 1% of volatile solids.
(3 marks)
Given:
Where:
Format
Syllabus
▪ Transformers
Ideal transformer. Equivalent circuits. Phasor diagrams.
Determination of parameters. Performance evaluation.
Autotransformers. Three-phase transformers. Phase shift
transformers.
▪ AC and DC Machines
DC Machines: operating principle, voltage and torque equations,
classification, torque-speed characteristics, losses and efficiency.
Three-phase induction motors: operating principle, assist starting,
starting methods, equivalent circuit, torque-speed characteristics,
losses and efficiency. Brushless DC motor, PMSM.
▪ Power Electronics
Introduction to power conversion. Harmonics. AC to DC conversion.
DC to DC conversion. DC to AC conversion. DC servo motor drive
systems. AC variable-speed induction motor drive systems.
Permanent magnet and stepping motor drive systems. Power
Electronics devices.
▪ Fundamental of Power Systems
Professional Engineers Registration Examination FEE 2025
Page 25
▪ Electric Drives
Controlled converter fed DC motor drives. Chopper circuit
configurations in DC drives. Inverter fed AC drives. Variable voltage
and variable frequency operation. Power quality and harmonics.
1) Guru Bhag S and Hiziroglu Huseyin R, Electric Machinery and Transformers, 3rd Edition,
Oxford University Press, 2001.
2) Sen Paresh Chandra, Principles of Electric Machines and Power Electronics, Hoboken,
NJ: John Wiley & Sons, 2014.
3) Chapman Stephen J, Electric Machinery and Power System Fundamentals, 1st Edition,
McGraw-Hill, 2002.
4) Wildi Theodore, Electrical Machines, Drives and Power Systems, 6th Edition,
Pearson/Prentice-Hall, 2006
1) Grainger John J and Stevenson William D, Power System Analysis, McGraw-Hill, 1994.
2) Bergen Arthur R and Vittal Vijay, Power System Analysis, 2nd Edition, Prentice-Hall, 2000.
3) Weedy B M and Cory B J, Jenkins N, Ekanayake J B, Strbac G, Electric Power Systems, 5th
Edition, John Wiley, 2012.
5) Code of Practice for Electrical Installations, (Singapore Standards, CP5 1998), Singapore
Productivity and Standards Board, 1998.
6) Lakervi E and Holmes E J, Electricity Distribution Network Design, (IEE Power Engineering
Series), 2nd Edition, London: Peter Peregrinus, 2003.
7) Paithankar Y G, Transmission Network Protection: Theory and Practice, Mercel Dekker, 1998.
10) Ram Badri and Vishwakarma D N, Power System Protection and Switchgear, McGraw-Hill,
2011.
11) Teo Cheng Yu, Principles and Design of Low Voltage Systems, Revised 2nd Edition,
seventh print, Byte Power Publications, 2012.
12) Blackburn J Lewis, Protective Relaying: Principles and Applications, 4th Edition, CRC Press,
2014.
(Actual paper comprises 40 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of 2.5 marks each.
Answer all questions.)
(a) 480 W
(b) 320 W
(c) 860 W
(d) 240 W
2. A factory uses 3-phase, 400 V commercial power. The principal users of power
are an induction motor operating at 300 kW with a power factor of 0.65 lagging
and an injection moulding machine operating at 600 kVA with a power factor of
0.63 lagging. What is the power factor for the factory?
(a) 0.61
(b) 0.78
(c) 0.59
(d) 0.64
(a) 154 A
(b) 266 A
(c) 200 A
(d) 346 A
4. 1-phase 230 V 50 Hz supply is connected to the coil of Figure Q4. Use the
following parameters of the core and find the current in the coil.
a b
Length of abcd = 80 cm
Figure Q4
2
Cross sectional area of core = 20 cm
N= 180 turns
d c -3
Permeability = 3.1415x10 H/m
5. With reference to Figure Q5, determine the Vrms induced in the coil if a 50 Hz
ac current of 0.3 sin(ωt) A is flowing through the coil. Inductance L is given as
0.24 H..
Mean path
ℓc
Figure Q5
(a) 22.6 V
(b) 16 V
(c) 11.3
(d) 8V
6. What is the flux density in a round iron core if its diameter is 2 cm and flux Φ
is 7 x 10-5 Wb.
(a) 0.056 T
(b) 2.23 x 10-5 T
(c) 3.5 x 10-5 T
(d) 0.223 T
7. A 1,000 KVA transformer has 2,500 watts iron loss, and 11,000 watts copper
loss at full load. The power factor is 0.85 lagging. Calculate the all-day efficiency
of the transformer at daily load cycle of 14 hours half load and 10 hours full
load.
(a) 97.32%
(b) 98.58%
(c) 99.20%
(d) 99.75%
9. The copper losses of a 1,000 kVA, 22/0.4 kV, 3 phase, delta-star connected
transformer are 1.5 kW and 0.6 kW on high voltage and low voltage side
respectively. Find the total resistance in ohms per phase at 22kV side (r1) and
400V side (r2).
(a) No change
(b) Increase by about 10 %
(c) Decrease by about 10 %
(d) Decrease by about 5 %
12. A motor is rated at 200 kW, 970 rev/min. What is the rated torque of the
motor?
(a) 150.8 Nm
(b) 1969 Nm
(c) 1358 Nm
(d) 978.5 Nm
13. In DC-DC converter control loop design, the open loop DC Gain of the
converter
Figure Q14
(a) 100V
(b) 200V
(c) 300V
(d) 400V
15. If VDC = 150V and Q1 has a maximum voltage rating of 220V, what would be
the appropriate breakdown voltage VZ value of the Zener diode used in the
following circuit shown in Figure Q15?
Figure Q15
(a) 50V
(b) 100V
(c) 150V
(d) 200V
(a) 1.08 %
(b) 1.2 %
(c) 1.8 %
(d) 5%
(a) 65.03 kV
(b) 66.97 kV
(c) 68.35 kV
(d) 70.58 kV
18. In the solution algorithm of the power flow problems, what would need to be
computed first before other quantities are calculated?
19. In the power flow studies, a generator can regulate its generator bus voltage
at a specified value because
(a) the generator bus voltage is within the high and low voltage limits.
(b) the generated active power is within the unit’s maximum and minimum P
limits.
(c) the generated reactive power is within the unit’s maximum and minimum
Q limits.
(d) the supplied generator current is within its rated value.
20. If a power system has 10 load buses and 6 generator buses (inclusive of the
slack bus), what is the total number of independent power flow equations
that needs to be set up?
(a) 25
(b) 24
(c) 23
(d) 20
Q1.
A 100-MVA, 22-kV generator with synchronous reactance of 1.7 pu supplies power
to an infinite bus at rated voltage.
(a) Find the induced emf and the power angle when the generator is supplying
50 MW at 0.85 pf lag.
(5 marks)
(b) If the steam input is kept constant and the excitation is increased by 15%,
determine the induced emf, the power angle, the reactive power, and the
power factor of the generator.
(11 marks)
Q2.
A 50-MVA, 12.5 kV generator has a direct-axis sub-transient reactance of 0.25 per
unit. The negative- and zero-sequence reactances are, respectively, 0.35 and 0.10
per unit. The neutral of the generator is solidly grounded. When a single line-to-
ground fault occurs at the generator terminals with the generator operating
unloaded at rated voltage, determine
Q3.
(a) A main switch board is supplied from a 22/0.43 kV, 2.0 MVA transformer
with an impedance of 6%. The impedance of LV cables to the main
switchboard is (0.0006 + j0.0012) . The fault level at the 22 kV intake
point is 800 MVA. Calculate the fault current at the main switchboard.
State major assumptions you made, if applicable.
(8 marks)
Radial configuration
Ring configuration
Mesh configuration
Briefly discuss three (3) main features, three (3) advantages, and three (3)
disadvantages for each of these configurations.
(12 marks)
Q.4
A 400 V three phase Main Switchboard (MSB) as shown in Figure Q4 supplies
to a three phase 150 kW electric motor with power factor of 0.85 lagging and
efficiency of 90% which is located 80 metres away.
The electric circuit from the MSB to the motor is laid horizontally, touching on a
cable tray using single-core, copper conductor, XLPE insulation and PVC sheath
cables. The section of the electric circuit from the MSB in the corridor is 25 metres
long. It shares with another two circuits and the ambient temperature is 35 ℃.
The section of the electric circuit in the furnace room to the motor is 55 metres long
and is on its own. The ambient temperature in the furnace room is 50 ℃. Overload
protection of the cables is by a Triple Pole (TP) MCCB in the MSB. Earth fault
protection is by an Earth Leakage Relay with current setting of 2 A and time setting
of 0.3
sec.
(a) Select the appropriate cable size for the cable to the motor. The cable is
required to be protected against overload. (6 marks)
(b) Calculate the voltage drop in the steady load conditions when the motor is
operating at full load. (3 marks)
(c) During motor starting, the power factor drops to 0.3 and the starting current
is 3 times the full-load current, calculate the voltage drop during motor
starting.
(3 marks)
(d) The earth fault loop impedance measured at the motor is 0.6 Ω, what is the
prospective earth fault current?
(2 marks)
(e) A single core, copper, PVC insulated cable is used as the circuit protective
conductor of the motor, use the Table 5.5 below to determine the cable size of
the circuit protective conductor.
(2 marks)
(f) Check whether the circuit protective conductor size is adequate to withstand
the thermal effect of the earth fault current.
(4 marks)
Available TP MCCB current ratings are 100 A, 200 A, 300 A, 400 A, 600 A, 800 A,
1,000 A
Table 4.1: Current carrying capacity and voltage drop of single core copper cables
having thermosetting insulation, non-armoured, with or without sheath
Thermosetting 90 1.02 1.0 0.96 0.91 0.97 0.82 0.76 0.71 0.65
(e.g. XLPE)
Table 4.2: Correction factors for ambient temperature where protection is against
short circuit
Table 4.3: Correction Factors for groups of more than one circuit of single-core
cables, or more than one multicore cable
16 < S ≤ 35 16 k1
x 16
k2
S > 25 S k1
x
S
k2 2
2
Q5.
(a) A 22kV feeder is protected by an IDMT overcurrent relay with IEC standard
inverse characteristic. The plug setting (PS) is 5A and time multiplier setting
(TMS) is 0.23. Calculate the relay operating time when a current of 10 A and
50 A is injected.
(5 marks)
(10 marks)
Format
Syllabus
▪ Measurement System
Models and classification for measurement systems and their time
and frequency domain behaviours. Performance specifications.
▪ Sensors
Measurement for common engineering applications: position, speed,
stress, strain, temperature, vibration and acceleration, pressure and
flow. Semiconductor sensors and micromechanical devices.
▪ Dynamics
Kinematics of Particle
Uniform rectilinear motion; Uniform accelerated rectilinear motion;
Rectangular components of velocity and acceleration; Motion
relative to a frame in translation; Tangential and normal
components; Radial and transverse components. Newton’s second
law; Equations of motion; Angular momentum of a particle;
Principle of conservation of energy; Principle of conservation of
momentum.
▪ Mechanical Vibrations
Vibration Without Damping
Simple harmonic motion; Energy method; forced vibration.
Damped Vibration
Professional Engineers Registration Examination FEE 2025
Page 41
▪ Basic concepts
Understanding fluids as compared to solids and gases. Properties of
fluids: Density, pressure and viscosity. Pressure measurements.
Buoyant forces and Archimedes’ Principle. Stability of submerged and
floating bodies. Stability of a ship.
▪ Fluid Motion
Real and ideal fluids. Momentum and forces in fluid flow: Continuity
equation, momentum equation, energy equation, Bernoulli’s equation.
▪ Pipe Flow
Laminar and turbulent flows in pipes. Moody diagram, losses and
fittings, energy equation for real laminar flow in pipes. Equation of
motion for turbulent flow. Mixing length hypothesis. Fully turbulent
flow in pipes. Head and flow calculations in pump-piping systems.
▪ Fluid Machinery
Fundamental theory and performance. Pumps and fans, turbines:
Concepts and performance characteristics. Cavitation and surge
phenomena.
▪ Bending of beams
Second moments of area of structural sections, Free body, shear force
and bending moment diagrams. Elastic and inelastic bending of
▪ Buckling of columns
Euler buckling theory, perfect and imperfect columns, effect of end
fixings on critical buckling loads.
▪ Thermal loading
Thermal stresses in beams and cylinders due to a through thickness
temperature gradient, thermal stresses in compound bars of different
materials under uniform temperature.
▪ Introduction
Cutting tool materials. Single and multi-point tools. Types of wear.
Manufacturing processes: cold and hot working, rolling, extrusion,
forging, sheet and metal blanking and forming, cold forming, welding,
brazing, soldering, casting, powder metallurgy, plastics technology.
Non-conventional machining: electro-discharge machining.
▪ Metal Removal
Introduction to machine tools and machining operations – Generating
motions of machine tools, machines using single point tools, machines
using multipoint tools, machines using abrasive wheels. Mechanics of
metal cutting – Chip formation, forces acting on the cutting tool and
their measurement, the apparent mean shear strength of the work
material, chip thickness, friction in metal cutting. Cutting tool materials
– Major tool material types. Tool life and tool wear – Forms of wear in
metal cutting. Economics of metal cutting operations – Choice of feed,
speed and depth of cut, tool life for minimum cost and minimum
production time, estimation of factors needed to determine optimum
conditions.
▪ Metrology
Basic measuring instruments and their applications (Linear and
angular measurement, roundness, flatness and surface finish
measurement).
▪ Manufacturing Processes
Introduction to cold and hot working. Rolling - 2, 3 and 4-high rolls,
cluster and planetary rolls, manufacture of blooms, billets and slabs.
Extrusion - Direct and indirect extrusion, hollow extrusion, hydrostatic
extrusion. Forging - Hammer, press, roll forging, open and closed die
forging. Sheet metal bending and deep-drawing, punch load,
drawability, Crane's constants. Shearing of sheet metal - types of
shearing operation, punch and die clearance, punch force. Cold
forming processes - Marforming, Guerin process, hydroforming.
Welding, brazing, soldering - Arc and gas welding, pressure welding,
MIG, TIG, submerged-arc, friction, resistance, laser and electron-
beam welding. Casting - Sand casting, patterns, defects, die-casting,
centrifugal casting, investment casting, continuous casting. Powder
metallurgy - Production of powders, fabrication processes, sintering,
comparison with other processes. Electro-discharge machining.
Plastics technology – Properties of plastics, thermoplastics and
thermosets, manufacturing of plastics.
▪ Thermodynamics
Fundamental concepts
Simple concept of thermodynamic system. Types of energy
interaction between system and surroundings. Properties of simple
pure substances –understand the general form of property
diagrams. Empirical temperature scales and thermometry. Ideal
and perfect gases. Use of steam tables for substance such as
water.
▪ Heat Transfer
Conduction
Heat transfer by conduction. Steady-state conduction through slab,
compound walls, cylinders and spheres. Unsteady state conduction
in homogeneous solids.
Convection
Heat Transfer by convection, in fluids and films. Overall heat
transfer coefficients. Natural and forced convection on plane
surfaces, fins, pipes and around round bundles. Heat transfer in
extended surfaces- combining conduction and convection.
Radiation
Heat transfer by radiation. Laws of radiant heat transfer, black and
gray bodies, geometric factors, absorptivity.
(Actual paper comprises 40 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of 2.5 marks each.
Answer all questions.)
2. A pump is required to deliver 0.5 m3/s of cooling water through a pipe of 75-
mm diameter to a heat engine which is 200 m away from and 2 m higher than
the pump. Density of water is 1000 kg/m3. What is the power of the pump?
(a) 1000 W
(b) 4905 W
(c) 9810 W
(d) 19620 W
3. The main reason for incorporating an air pre-heater in the furnace of a steam
power plant is
8. Referring to the system shown below, determine the values of K and k such that
the system has a damping ratio ζ of 0.7 and an undamped natural frequency ω
of 4 rad/sec.
(a) 54.8mm
(b) 72mm
(c) 0.144mm
(d) 144mm
Q1.
A combined cycle power plant comprises a natural gas fired, ideal gas-turbine
topping cycle and a bottoming steam-generator for the steam turbine. The air inlet
pressure and temperature to the gas turbine, which has a pressure compression
ratio of 8, are 1 bar and 300K, respectively. The temperature of burned gases from
the combustor to the turbines is 1400K and the flue gas temperature leaving the
steam generator (heat exchanger) is 520K. The bottoming cycle of the power plant
is an ideal reheat Rankine cycle where the steam pressure and temperature supplied
to the high pressure steam turbines are 150 bar and 450 C. Additional natural gas
is fired for the reheating of steam and the conditions of reheated steam supplied to
low-pressure turbine stage are 30 bar and 500o C, respectively.
(a) For the stated steady state conditions, sketch the combined cycle on a T-s
diagram.
(4 marks)
(b) Using the thermodynamic properties of air and steam from the Tables,
determine;
(i) the mass flow rate of air in the gas turbine cycle if the steam generation
rate is 30 kg/s,
(ii) the rate of total heat input, and
(iii) the thermal efficiency of the combined cycle.
Q2.
A solid aluminium shaft 1.0m long and 50mm diameter is to be replaced by a tubular
steel shaft of the same length and same outer diameter so that either shaft could
carry the same torque and have the same angle of twist over the total length (that
is having the same torsional stiffness).
The following properties of steel and aluminium can be used in your calculation.
Steel, Gs= 84 GPa, Aluminium Ga= 28 GPa.).
(20 marks)
Q3.
A mercury-in-bulb thermometer is immersed into a bath of temperature Ti, and the
mercury level in the stem of radius rs rises by a finite height Xo. If the bulb has a
radius rb, and the overall heat transfer coefficient between the bulb and the fluid of
the bath is U, show that the energy balance equation for the temperature of mercury
in the bulb (Tb) is given by
𝑑𝑇𝑏
𝜌𝐶𝑉𝑏 ( ) = 𝑈𝐴𝑏 (𝑇𝑖 − 𝑇𝑏 )
𝑑𝑡
where ρ is the density of mercury in the bulb, C is the specific heat, Ab is the surface
area of the bulb. Assuming that the expanded mercury of the bulb ( βVbT) is equal
to the change of the mercury volume in the stem (XoAs), demonstrate that the output
variable (Xo) to the input variable (Ti) can be expressed as
where As is the cross section area of the hollow stem of thermometer. Using the
operator D or equivalent, demonstrate that the thermometer can be expressed as a
1st order transfer function in terms of Xo to Ti as;
(𝜏𝐷 + 1)𝑋𝑜 = 𝐾 𝑇𝑖
𝛽𝑉𝑏 𝜌𝐶𝑉𝑏
Hence, show that K = , a constant and τ = , is the time constant of the
𝐴𝑆 𝑈𝐴𝑏
thermometer.
Write down the general solution of the output variable, Xo. Sketch the expected
behavior of the thermometer over a finite non-dimensional time internals, t/τ , say
from 0 to 5.
(12 marks)
The following properties of mercury can be used in your calculation: Density (ρ) and
specific heat (C) of mercury are 13500 kg/m3 and 140 J/kg.K, respectively.
(8 marks)
Format
Syllabus
▪ Mass balances
Unit conversion, process flow chart, phase behavior, composition,
purge, bypass, reactive systems, multiple reactions, recycle,
combustion.
▪ Energy balances
Heat capacity, Latent heat, heat of reaction, heat of solution.
▪ Chemical thermodynamics
Phase equilibrium, chemical equilibrium, heats of reaction and mixing.
▪ Momentum transfer
Classification of fluids and their properties. Continuity equation.
Momentum balance equation. Bernoulli equation. Flow of compressible
fluids. Friction losses in flow. Equivalent diameter for non-circular
conduct. Pumps and Compressors: characteristics curves, net positive
suction head (NPSH), cavitation, and selection of pumps and
compressors.
▪ Heat transfer
Basic definitions. Steady state heat conduction. Thermal resistor
models for composite walls. 1-D analysis of unsteady state heat
▪ Mass Transfer
Fick’s laws. Estimation of gas and liquid phase diffusivities. Steady-
state and unsteady state diffusion. Pore diffusion. Convective mass
transfer – calculations of fluxes and mass transfer coefficients. Mass,
heat and momentum transfer analogies.
Phase equilibrium, partition coefficient, driving force and mass transfer rate
in the context of separation processes. Mass and energy balances around
flash distillation, multi-stage distillation, absorption and stripping, and liquid-
liquid extraction and membrane processes. Equilibrium and rate based design
concepts of these separation processes for binary and multi-component
systems. Effects of various operating variables on the separation process
output, troubleshooting and process improvement.
▪ Need for process simulation, design, and optimization. Plant life cycle
and plant design stages. Fundamentals of process simulation, process
simulators and their architecture. Hierarchical approach to preliminary
process synthesis. Heat integration. Process diagrams. Process
optimization. Equipment selection, specification, sizing and costing.
Time value of money. Plant cost estimation and profitability analyses
(payback period, NPV, RORI, …).
Professional Engineers Registration Examination FEE 2025
Page 53
1) Octave Levenspiel, Chemical Reaction Engineering, 3rd Edition (1999), John Wiley
and Sons.
2) H Scott Fogler, Elements of Chemical Reaction Engineering, 4th Edition (2006),
Prentice Hall International Series.
1) Dale E Seborg, Thomas F. Edgar, Duncan A. Mellichamp and Francis J Doyle III,
Process Dynamics and Control, 4th Edition (2016), John Wiley and Sons, Inc.
2) George Stephanopoulos, Chemical Process Control: An Introduction to Theory and
Practice, Paperback Edition (2015), Pearson Education International.
1) Ray Sinnott and Gavin Towler, Chemical Engineering Design, 5th Edition (2009),
Elsevier (Butterworth & Heinemann).
2) R Turton, R C Bailie, W B Whiting, J A Shaeiwitz, D Bhattacharya, Analysis, Synthesis,
and Design of Chemical Processs, 4th Edition (2013), Pearson Educational
International.
3) D Crowl and J F Louvar, Chemical Process Safety: Fundamentals with Applications,
2nd Edition, Prentice Hall, 200
(Actual paper comprises 40 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) of 2.5 marks each.
Answer all questions.)
1. A distillation column strips ethanol from a feed of 3 mol% ethanol in water. The
feed rate is 16000 mol/h. The distillate contains 87 mol% ethanol, and the
bottoms contains 0.05 mol% ethanol. What is the flow rate of the distillate?
2. One mole of ideal gas at 26˚C undergoes isothermal compression from 0.5 bar
to 2.5 bar. What is the work done on the gas?
(a) 350 J
(b) 1950 J
(c) 3000 J
(d) 4000 J
Use the data given to estimate the latent heat of vapourization of benzene.
4. Which of the following governs the diffusion of one species onto another?
CH 4 + H 2O → CO + 3H 2 (1)
The water-gas shift (WGS) reaction also occurs under the steam reforming
conditions.
CO + H 2O → CO2 + H 2 (2)
6. Which one of the following separation methods is the preferred current option
for capture and concentrate of CO2 from a power plant flue gas?
(a) Multi-stage distillation
(b) Extraction
(c) Absorption
(d) Flash distillation
(e) Ion exchange
8. What is the role of a fluid property package in a process simulator such as Aspen
Hysys or Aspen Plus?
Q1.
Methanol is produced commercially from synthesis gas according to the reactions
below:
Fresh feed containing 660 mol/s CO, 260 mol/s CO2, 2200 mol/s H2, and 50 mol/s
inert is mixed with a recycle stream before feeding to a reactor. The feed to the
reactor contains 11 mol% inert. A distillation train separates the components of the
reactor effluent: the product methanol is withdrawn, water is removed, the
remaining gas stream consisting of CO, CO2, H2 and 15 mol% inert is recycled to
mix with the fresh feed before charging to the reactor. In order to prevent the
buildup of inert in the system, a purge stream is withdrawn from the recycle. The
production rate of CH3OH is 870 mol/s.
(b) Calculate the overall conversion of CO, the overall conversion of CO 2 and the
single pass conversion of H2 in the reactor.
(17 marks)
Q2.
A steam power plant operates on the reheat Rankine cycle. Steam enters the high-
pressure turbine at 20 MPa and 600°C and leaves at 3.0 MPa. Steam is then reheated
at constant pressure in the low-pressure turbine and exits with a moisture content
of 15%. The pump and turbines are isentropic. Steam leaves the condenser as a
saturated liquid at a pressure of 10 kPa. The mass flow rate of steam is 35 kg/s.
Determine the thermal efficiency of the cycle and the total power output from the 2
turbines.
(20 marks)
Q3.
A large wall has two layers. The outer layer has a thickness 5 cm and is made of
firebrick (thermal conductivity, k = 0.1 W/m·K). The inner layer has a thickness of
1 cm and is made of insulating brick (k = 1.5 W/m·K). The surface of the outer layer
is exposed to hot air at 100 ºC with a convective heat transfer coefficient of 10
W/m2·K. The inner surface is exposed to cool air at 10 ºC with a convective heat
transfer coefficient of 3 W/m2·K. Calculate the rate of heat transfer across the
thickness of the wall.
(20 marks)
Q4.
A pharmaceutical company is considering a process change from batch
manufacturing to continuous manufacturing using mostly existing resources. You as
the lead process engineer is supposed to carry out a feasibility study and advise the
management for a go/no-go decision. The following are the salient process details:
The production process is based on a 1st order liquid phase reaction carried out to
95% completion. Presently this is done in a large 100 L stirred tank reactor. The
reaction time to achieve 95% conversion in this reactor is 20h. 4h of turnaround is
however needed in between the batches. Feed from the supplier is available at the
strength of 1 mole/Litre.
(20 marks)
Q5.
CO2 capture and concentration from post-combustion power plant flue gas is a
problem of urgent importance. In Singapore, 85% of the electricity is produced from
natural gas, which produces flue gas with relatively low CO2 concentration (5-6%
versus up to 15 % in coal fired power plants). Other components of flue gas are O2,
N2 and moisture. We assume that the flue gas contains 5 mole% CO 2, 10 mole%
and 85 mole% N2. Other relevant information: (i) a 500 MW natural gas based power
plant emits 6500 tonnes/day of CO2, (ii) 1 tonne = 1000 kg, (iii) molecular weight
of CO2 is 44, (iv) molecular weight of N2 is 28 (v) molecular weight of water is 10,
and (vi) gas constant, Rg = 8.314 J/mol K = 82.05 atm cc/mol K.
Design a packed bed absorption process for capturing 90% CO 2 from the flue gas
of a 500 MW natural gas fired power plant in Singapore. You may assume that the
solvent/reagent undergoes very fast reaction with CO2 such that the reagent
concentration may be adjusted to completely eliminate the liquid side mass transfer
resistance. As an approximation, you may assume that gas side mass transfer
coefficient, 𝑘𝑔 = 0.2 cm/s and the area to absorber volume ratio (𝑎) of the packing
used is 2 cm2/cm3. Length to diameter ratio of the absorber should not be more
than 3. Make reasonable assumptions including operating superficial gas velocity (𝑢)
and state them clearly. For a gas side controlled absorption process, absorber length
𝑢 𝑦
is given by 𝐿 = 𝑘 𝑎 𝑙𝑛 𝑦 𝑖𝑛 where 𝑦 is the mole fraction of the absorbable component.
𝑔 𝑜𝑢𝑡
(20 marks)
Q6.
Recycle
Compressor
Fresh Gas Recycle
Hydrogen
Furnace PFR
Fresh Outlet
Toluene
Total PFR
HX PFR Purge
Feed Toluene Inlet
Pump Purge Valve
Separator
Cooler
Recycle Toluene
Recycle Pump
Toluene Benzene
Column Stabilizer
Column
Diphenyl
In the process flow diagram in Figure Q6, hydrogen and toluene are converted into
benzene in the vapour reactor (PFR), with methane and diphenyl as by-products.
The effluent from the adiabatic reactor is quenched with liquid from the separator.
The separation section comprising three multi-stage distillation columns purifies the
benzene product and recovers and recycles unreacted toluene. The partial
condenser in the stabilizer unit removes any remaining hydrogen and methane gas
from the liquid components. The toluene column bottoms is almost pure stream of
diphenyl by-product formed in the reactor.
You are in charge of designing a plant wide control system for the process shown
in Figure 1. Discuss your control system design philosophy, and identify the
controlled and manipulated variables.
(20 marks)
Q7.
You are asked to develop a process to mix two separate feeds (F1 and F2) into one
single product stream. F1 is a pure water stream available at 100 kg/s, 150 kPa, and
40 C. F2 is 80:20 wt% ethanol:water stream available at 150 kg/s, 250 kPa, and 95
C. The process should deliver the product stream at 500 kPa and exactly 50 C.
Assume the three stream pressures are fixed by the upstream and downstream
processes.
(a) The normal boiling points of water and ethanol are 100 C and 78 C
respectively. Describe the main steps of a procedure you can use to
determine if F2 is a liquid, vapour, or vapour-liquid stream. What data will
you need? What tool will you use?
(b) Propose and schematically draw two plausible alternate (different) PFDs
(Process Flow Diagrams) for the process. The PFDs must show all the units
(including any major valves) and utilities (if any) with equipment types,
labels, and reasonable symbols. Indicate only those process conditions you
can compute or estimate.
(c) State roughly which factors will you consider and how you would evaluate
the two PFDs to select one of them.
(20 marks)