DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION

Region XIII- CARAGA

FLORITA HERRERA IRIZARI NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Lanuza, Surigao del Sur

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN GRADE 10 SCIENCE

Directions: Write the letter of the best answer in your answer sheet.

1. If you visit a place in the Pacific known to be along converging plates, which of these should you not
expect to see?
A. active volcanoes B. mountain ranges
C. rift valleys D. volcanic islands
2. In a hotspot, volcano A is on top of the mantle plume, volcano B is 10 km farther from A while
volcano C is the farthest. What can you infer about the ages of volcanoes?
A.volcano A is older than C B.volcano B is the oldest
C.volcano B is the youngest D.volcano B is younger than C
3. What makes up the lithosphere?
A.continental crust B.crust and upper mantle
C.oceanic and continental crust D.upper mantle
4. How do you compare the densities of the Earth's crust, mantle and core?
A. The mantle is less dense than the core but denser than the crust.
B. The mantle is less dense than both the core and the crust.
C. The mantle is denser than the core but less dense than the crust.
D. The mantle is denser than both the core and the crust.
5. Which of the following can you infer from the continuous movement of the lithospheric plates over
the asthenosphere?
A. All the continents will cease to exist.
B. All the volcanoes in the Philippines will become inactive.
C. The continents will not be located in the same place as they are now.
D. The island of the Philippines will become scattered all over the world.
6. In transform fault boundary, the movement is horizontal - slides or grinds each other. Which
situation is associated with this type of fault?
A. Converging B. Diverging
C. Both converging and diverging D. Without converging and diverging
7. Which plate boundary is formed between the Philippine plate and the Eurasian plate?
A.Convergent B.Divergent
C.Reverse Fault D.Transform Fault
8. Which is the best example of the strike-slip fault?
A. Mountain Ridge B.Rift Valley Fault
C. San Andreas Fault D. San Nicolas Fault

9. Which chemical reaction is unbalanced?

A. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
B. AgNO3 + 2NaI → AgI + NaNO3
C. 2Ag + H2S → Ag2S + H2
D. 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl
10. Which of the following layers best described by a weak, soft and plastic-like layer?
A. asthenosphere B. atmosphere C. lithosphere D .mantle
11. During the 1960s, scientists were already equipped with gadgets needed to explore the deep
ocean. What discovery about the ocean floor is associated with the seafloor spreading?
A.Mountains are denser than the mantle.
B.The rotational poles of the Earth have migrated.
C.The crust of the continents is denser than the crust of the ocean.
D.The crust of the ocean is very young relative to the age of the crust of the continents.

12. Which of the following substances fastens chemical reactions?

A. catalyst B. inhibitor C. product D. reactant
13. As a new seafloor is formed at the mid-ocean ridge, the old seafloor farthest from the ridge is
destroyed. Which of the stated processes describes how the oceanic crust plunge into the Earth
and destroyed at the mantle?
A.Convection B.Construction C.Diversion D.Subduction
14. If you are a cartographer, what will give you an idea that the continents were once joined?
A.Ocean depth B.Position of the South Pole
C.Shape of the continents D.Size of the Atlantic Ocean
15. Which observation was not instrumental in formulating the hypothesis of seafloor spreading?
A.Depth of the ocean B.Identifying the location of glacial
deposits
C.Magnetization of the oceanic crust D.Thickness of the seafloor sediments
16. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust at the subduction zone?
A. The oceanic crust has a greater density.
B. The oceanic crust is pulled downward by the Earth's magnetic field.
C. The oceanic crust is pushed from ridge.
D. The continental crust has a denser composition.
17. If the Atlantic Ocean is widening at a rate of 3 cm per year, how far (in kilometers) will it spread in a
million years?
A.3 kilometers B.30 kilometers C.300 kilometers D.3000 kilometers
18. Which among the choices shows the correct order of EM waves in increasing frequency?
A. Radiowaves - Microwave – infrared – Ultraviolet – Visible light
B. Infrared – Visible Light – Ultraviolet – X rays – Gamma rays
C. Gamma rays – X rays – Ultraviolet – visible light – Infrared
D. X ray – Ultraviolet – Infrared – Microwave – Radiowaves
19. What type of electromagnetic (EM) wave is used in radars?
A.infrared rays B.microwaves C.radiowaves D.ultra violet rays
20. Why is an infrared camera capable of "seeing" in dark places?
A. it cannot. It's just a myth
B. The camera has a light source
C. It emits infrared light which the camera is sensitive to
D. The monitor connected to the camera allows for this function
21. Sunblocks preven our skin from darkening. Which type of radiation does sunblock protect us from?
A. Microwave B. X ray C. UV rays D. Gamma rays
22. What does a concave lens do?
A. converges, or spreads apart, rays of light.
B. diverges, or brings together, rays of light.
C. does different things depending on what the object is.
D. diverges, or spreads apart, rays of light.
23. Which type of mirror makes objects appear smaller, but the area of view larger?
A. Convex B. Concave C. Parabolic D. Plane
24. Which of the following devices makes use of a concave mirror?
A. Security Mirrors on convenience stores and malls
B. Motorcycle side mirrors
C. Blind curve mirrors
 D. Microscope mirror

25. Which of the following words can be read properly both with and without a mirror?
A. MEM B. WOW C. DID D. BIB
26. A candle is placed just beyond the center of curvature of a concave mirror. Where will the
image be found?
A.Between F and V
B. At F
C. Between F and C
D. At C
27. A marble is placed between the vertex of a concave mirror and its focus. Where will the image be
found?
A. At F
B. Between C and F
C. Between F and V
D. Behind the mirror
28. In which device is a magnetic field present?
A. charged balloon B. Cooling soldering iron
C. A very hot horse shoe magnet D. A microphone undergoing soundcheck
29. A neodimium magnet is placed at rest inside a coil of wire which is connected to a galvanometer.
How will the galvanometer react?
A. It will deflect to the left.
B. It will deflect to the right.
C. There will be no deflection
D. It will periodically deflect to the left then to the right
30. What basic principle enables ALL electric generators to operate?
A. Iron is the only element that is magnetic
B. Opposite electric charges attract and like charges repel
C. A closed loop conductor within a changing magnetic field will have an induced electromotive
force
D. A current carrying conductor placed within a magnetic field will experience a magnetic force
31. Which of the following organs are not correctly grouped?
A. testes, scrotum, vagina B. uterus, oviduct, ovary
C. seminal vesicle, prostate gland and bulbourethral gland D. fallopian tube, uterus, vagina
32. What gland is responsible for the production of parathyromone?
A. Thymus gland B. Pituitary gland C. Parathyroid gland D. pancreas
33. What do you call the monthly shedding of the endometrium of the uterus?
A. Fertilization B. Maturation C. Menstruation D. Reproduction
34. What is the process through which the level of one substance influences the level of another?
A. Feedback Mechanism B. Negative Feedback
C. Positive Feedback D. Stimulating Feedback
35. What is the correct sequence of protein sysnthesis?
A.Replication-Transcription-Translation B. Replication-Translation-Transcription
C.Transcription-TransLation-Replication D.Translation-Replication-Transcription
36. Complete the diagram below to show the sequence of protein synthesis.

A. mRNA links to ribosome

B. Polypeptide chain assembles C. Amino Acids separates from RNA
D. mRNA encounters stop codon
37. What will take place if there is a change in the sequence of DNA?
A. Mutation B. Replication C. Transcription D. Translation
38. Which of the following is not a chromosomal aberration?
A. Deletion B. Inversion C. Replication D. Translocation
39. Identify which definite characteristic shows relatedness of two organisms.
A. Similarity in development B. Similarity in courting behavior
C. Similarity in structure D. Similarity in genomic DNA
40. Which of the following statements does not describe evolution?
A.Evolution is continuous. B.Evolution refers to change
C.The world is stable and unchanging D.If there is mutation, there is evolution.
41. Identify which statement best explains Lamarck's Theory of Use and Disuse.
A. Body structures develop because they are used extensively.
B. Body structures develop because they are not in use.
C. Body structures develop because of competition.
D. Body structures develop because of mutation
42. Cocolisap infestation outbreak has been declared in some parts of the Philippines. The cocolisap
feeds on the sap of the coconut tree and inject toxic enzymes resulting in discolored leaves and
deformed plant tissues that retard its group. Analyze among the following limiting factors causes the
decreases of the survival rate of coconut trees.
A. disease and parasites B. Emigration
C. predation D. Competition for resource
43. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid molecules are ______.
A.hydrophilic B.neutral
C.hydrophobic D.zwitter ions
44. Birth rate in India is higher than many other countries of the world. As many as 34 births are
registered in India every minute. India is the second most populated country of the world. What is
the relationship between the birth rate and population?
A. As birth rate increases, population also increases.
B. As birth rate increases, population decreases.
C. As birth rate decreases, population increases.
D. There is no relationship.
45. How should human use rainforest to conserve its resources?
A. Cut the trees into logs. B. Make timber from trees.
C. Get only minor forest products. D. Advertise it as a camping site.
46. In response to Boyle's Law, the pressure of a gas increases as the volume decreases because
A.the gas particles strike the walls of the container more often
B. the kinetic energy of the gas particles increases
C.the temperature of the gas increases
D. the gas particles strike the walls slowly
47. What will be the volume of a gas sample if it is heated from 125°C to 250°C. The initial volume is
7,500 mL? Pressure is constant.
A.1330 mL C. 3455 mL
B. 2699 mL D. 9855 mL
48. What will be the volume, if there is an addition of 0.10 mole Helium gas to a 245 K Hydrogen gas
and the pressure is held constant at 1 atm (R= 0.0821 L/atm/mol.K)
A.1.83 L C. 4.74 L
B. 2.01 L D. 6.48 L
49. The following nitrogenous base is a component of DNA except
A. Adenine B. Guanine
C. Thymine D. Uracil
50. Which of the following Biomolecule is made up of fatty acids?
A. Carbohydrates C. Protein
B. Lipids D. Nucleic Acids
 SCIENCE 10 DIAGNOSTIC TEST KEY TO CORRECTION

1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. A
16. C
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. C
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. C
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. C
31. A
32. C
33. C
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. C
39. D
40. C
41. A
42. A
43. C
44. A
45. C
46. A
47. D
48. B
49. D
50. B