Rau's IAS PT Test Series 2021 - Test 40

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1. With respect to the “Organization for the Which of the statements given above are
Prohibition of Chemical Weapons”, consider correct?
the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is a specialized agency of the (b) 2 and 3 only
United Nations to oversee the
(c) 1 and 3 only
implementation of the Chemical
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Weapons Convention.
2. Its headquarter is located in The Hague,
Netherlands. 4. With reference to iDEX (Innovation for
3. It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. Defence Excellence), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above are
correct? 1. It aims at the creation of an ecosystem
(a) 1 and 2 only to foster innovation and technology
development in Defence and Aerospace.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. It can provide grants only to start-ups,
(c) 1 and 3 only
individual innovators, R&D institutes
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and academia to carry out R&D.
3. It funds and manages the ‘Defence
2. With respect to the “Mekong River”,
Innovation Organization (DIO)’.
consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code
1. It originates in China and empties into
given below:
the East China Sea.
2. It flows into Myanmar, Laos, Thailand (a) 1 only
and Cambodia. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 5. With reference to the Lunar Polar
(c) Both 1 and 2 Exploration (LUPEX) mission, which of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an ongoing cooperation between
3. With respect to the “UNESCO Global the Indian Space Research Organization
Geoparks”, consider the following (ISRO) and the European Space Agency
statements: (ESA).
1. They are single, unified geographical 2. The mission aims to send a lander and
areas where sites and landscapes are rover to the Moon's North Pole.
managed with a holistic concept of Select the correct answer using the code
protection, education and sustainable given below:
development.
(a) 1 only
2. The designation of the UNESCO Global
(b) 2 only
Geopark is given for a period of 4 years.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Recently, Erra Matti Dibbalu,
Visakhapatnam, was included in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UNESCO Global Geopark list.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 1

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6. Consider the following statements (a) For transforming Indian agriculture for
regarding the “Mobile Integrated Network global environmental benefits.
Terminal (MINT)”: (b) For ‘immunisation for all’ against
1. It exploits the advantage of icy, high- COVID-19.
altitude terrain to deliver unfettered (c) For trust and security in cyberspace.
voice, video, data and remote (d) To accelerate the implementation of
monitoring services at sub-zero energy efficiency initiatives.
temperatures.
2. It is lightweight, portable and easy-to- 9. With respect to the “Yescarta therapy”,
configure. consider the following statements:
1. Yescarta is a treatment for large B-cell
3. It can also create interoperability
lymphoma that has failed conventional
between the LTE handsets and other
treatment.
existing tactical networks.
2. It is a type of gene therapy that turns
Which of the statements given above are cells in the patient’s body into a “living
correct? drug” that targets and kills the cancer
(a) 1 and 2 only cells.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only correct?
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
7. With respect to the “Lokpal (Complaint)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Rules, 2020”, consider the following
statements:
10. Which of the following statements are
1. No complaints can be filed against a
incorrect?
public servant under the Army Act, the
1. The peaty soil is formed under
Navy Act, the Air Force Act and the
conditions of high temperature and
Coast Guard Act.
heavy rainfall with alternate wet and
2. Foreign nationals can also lodge dry periods.
complaints. 2. Peaty soils are poor in organic matter
3. The identity of the complainant or the and have excess amount of iron oxide.
accused official will be protected by the 3. Laterite soils originate in the humid
Lokpal till the conclusion of inquiry or regions, as a result of accumulation of
investigation. large amounts of organic matter in the
Which of the statements given above are soils.

correct? 4. Laterite soils are submerged during the


rainy season and utilized for the
(a) 1 and 2 only
cultivation of rice.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 and 3 only given below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
8. The “Paris Call” is related to which of the (c) 2 and 3 only
following? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 2

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11. Which of the following statements are Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? correct?
1. Tropical cyclones are intense high- (a) 1 only
pressure areas confined to the area (b) 2 only
lying between 30° N and 30° S latitudes. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Strong Coriolis Force is one of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
reasons for the emergence of the
tropical cyclone. 14. Which of the following statements are
3. In India, the force of the cyclone incorrect?
increases with increase in the distance 1. The National Financial Reporting
from the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Authority (NFRA) was constituted under
the Companies Act, 2013.
Sea.
2. The NFRA audits and investigates only
Select the correct answer using the code
those companies which are listed in any
given below:
stock exchange in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. With the constitution of the NFRA, India
(b) 2 and 3 only became a member of the International
(c) 1 and 3 only Forum of Independent Audit Regulators
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (IFIAR).
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
12. Which of the following statements are
(a) 1 and 2 only
incorrect?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Mid-ocean ridges and caldera are the
(c) 1 and 3 only
forms of intrusive volcanic landforms.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The vertical bodies of the intrusive
igneous rocks are called sill.
15. Which of the following statements are
3. Shield type volcanic landforms are correct?
made up of basaltic lava.
1. The Global Foreign Exchange
Select the correct answer using the code Committee (GFXC) has been set up
given below: under the guidance of the Bank for
(a) 1 and 2 only International Settlements (BIS).
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. The GFXC Global Code imposes legal or
regulatory obligations on the market
(c) 1 and 3 only
participants for the good practice in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 foreign exchange market.
3. India and China both are the members
13. Consider the following statements: of the GFXC.
1. The SAARC Development Fund (SDF) Select the correct answer using the code
was established by the Heads of India given below:
and Bhutan for the SAARC member (a) 1 and 2 only
countries. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The SDF’s core objective is to promote (c) 1 and 3 only
green energy in all the member (d) 1, 2 and 3
countries.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 3

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16. Consider the following statements: 4. Its jurisdiction extends to the members
1. The Minamata Convention is a global of All India Services, civilian employees
treaty to protect human health and the of the defence forces and the secretarial
environment from the adverse effects of staff of the Parliament.
CO2 and its compounds. Which of the statements given above are
2. India, the US and Japan have not correct?
ratified the Minamata Convention. (a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1 and 2 only
correct? (c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 19. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Prorogation only terminates a sitting
and not a session of the House.
17. Which of the following aspects are correct 2. Adjournment not only terminates a
regarding the “Representation of the People sitting, but also a session of the House.
Act, 1951”? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Consolidation of delimitation orders. correct?
2. Disqualification on the ground of (a) 1 only
corrupt practices. (b) 2 only
3. Qualifications for the membership of (c) Both 1 and 2
the House of the People. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Allocation of the seats in the House of
the People.
20. With respect to “National Emergency”,
5. Registration with the Commission of consider the following statements:
associations and bodies as political
1. It can be proclaimed only when the
parties.
security of India or part of it is
Select the correct answer using the code threatened by war, external aggression
given below: or armed rebellion.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. The Proclamation of Emergency must
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only be approved by both the Houses of the
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only Parliament within one month from the
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only date of its issue.
3. Every resolution approving the
18. With respect to the “Central Administrative Proclamation of Emergency must be
Tribunal (CAT)”, consider the following passed by either House of the
statements: Parliament by a simple majority.
1. It had been established under Article 4. It has no effect on the Fundamental
323 A of the Constitution. Rights of the citizens.
2. The Chairman has been a sitting or Which of the statements given above are
retired judge of the Supreme Court. correct?
3. The Tribunal is not bound by the (a) 1 and 2 only
procedure prescribed by the Civil (b) 3 and 4 only
Procedure Code of 1908. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 4

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21. Which of the following statements are 3. Project Elephant was launched by the
incorrect? Government of India in 1975.
1. The Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) Select the correct answer using the code
Assessment Report is released by the given below:
World Meteorological Organization (a) 1 and 2 only
(WMO). (b) 1 and 3 only
2. The Tibetan Plateau, the Central (c) 2 and 3 only
Himalayan Range and Karakoram are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
warmer than the HKH.
3. Bangladesh and Myanmar are not
24. Which of the following statements are
covered under the HKH region.
incorrect?
Select the correct answer using the code
1. The National Compensatory
given below:
Afforestation Fund Management and
(a) 1 and 2 only
Planning Authority (NCAFMPA) was
(b) 2 and 3 only established under the Forest
(c) 1 and 3 only (Conservation) Act, 1980.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The National Compensatory
Afforestation Fund (NCAF) and the State
22. Which of the following statements is/are Compensatory Afforestation Fund
correct? (SCAF) both are established under the
1. The Atmosphere and Climate Research- Public Account of India.
Modelling Observing Systems and 3. The NCAF will get 90% of funds
Services (ACROSS) are implemented by collected and the remaining 10% will go
the Ministry of Environment, Forest and to the SCAF.
Climate Change. Select the correct answer using the code
2. The ACROSS scheme addresses given below:
different aspects of weather and climate (a) 1 and 2 only
services which are related to heat wave. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. The ACROSS has approved the (c) 2 and 3 only
establishment of the National Facility (d) 1, 2 and 3
for Airborne Research (NFAR).
Select the correct answer using the code
25. Which of the following statements is/are
given below:
correct?
(a) 1 only
1. The Animal Welfare Board of India
(b) 2 and 3 only (AWBI) was established under the
(c) 3 only Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog is a
high-powered statuary body.
23. Which of the following statements are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
1. The Singphan Elephant Reserve is (a) 1 only
located in Nagaland. (b) 2 only
2. Asian Elephant is a Schedule 1 species (c) Both 1 and 2
under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1972.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 5

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26. It is created when light from a galaxy or 2. The CARE Project is implemented by
star passes by a massive object en-route to the Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre
the Earth. Recently, the Hubble Space (ADPC) and the Regional Integrated
Telescope (HST) has captured a stunning Multi-Hazard Early Warning System for
image of it. It is: Africa and Asia (RIMES).
(a) Cellular Spectrum Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Ring of Fire incorrect?
(c) Einstein Ring (a) 1 only
(d) Black Eye Galaxy (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
27. Which of the following statements are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
1. Black carbon is a part of particulate air
30. Consider the following statements:
pollution PM10.
1. Styrene is a flammable liquid that is
2. Black carbon deposited on ice and snow
used in the manufacturing of
reduce the surface albedo.
polystyrene plastics.
3. Household cooking and heating account
for more than 50% of global black 2. Styrene is found in vehicle exhaust,
carbon emissions. cigarette smoke and in natural foods
like fruits and vegetables.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?

(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only


(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Which of the following is/are the cause(s) of
the Antarctica heatwave? 31. Which of the following statements is/are
1. The weakened state of the Southern incorrect?
Hemisphere westerlies 1. India’s first Dolphin Observatory is
2. Dry and warm foehn winds. setting up in the Vikramshila Gangetic
Select the correct answer using the code Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS).
given below: 2. The annual Ganges River Dolphin
(a) 1 only census was undertaken by the World
(b) 2 only Wide Fund for Nature- India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The Gangetic Dolphin is classified as
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 critically endangered on the IUCN Red
List of Threatened Species.
29. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. The Climate Adaptation and Resilience given below:
for South Asia (CARE) Project assesses (a) 1 only
climate impacts in the districts across (b) 1 and 2 only
Bangladesh, Nepal and India to support (c) 3 only
agriculture, livestock, water and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
transport.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 6

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32. Which of the following statements are Select the correct answer using the code
incorrect regarding the Global Education given below:
Coalition? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is a platform for collaboration and (b) 1 and 3 only
exchange to protect the right to (c) 2 and 3 only
education.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is launched by the United Nations
Development Programme (UNDP) in
35. Consider the following pairs:
2020.
3. It is a closed partnership that includes S.No. Item State
only the international organizations and 1. Chak-Hao Manipur
the non-profit organizations. 2. Kovilpatti Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code Kadalai Mittai
given below:
3. Sohrai Khovar Tamil Nadu
(a) 1 and 2 only Paintings
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. Telia Rumal Andhra
(c) 1 and 3 only Pradesh
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the pairs given above are
incorrectly matched?
33. Which of the following statements are (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct about Dholavira?
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. It was the largest port-town of the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Harappan civilization.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. It is the second largest Harappan site
located within the present borders of
India. 36. Consider the following statements about
the Constitutional Amendments:
3. Water harvesting system and water
reservoir are the important findings in 1. An Amendment of the Constitution can
Dholavira. be initiated only by the introduction of a
Bill for the purpose in either House of
Select the correct answer using the code
the Parliament and not in the State
given below:
Legislatures.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. The Constitutional Amendment Bill can
(b) 1 and 3 only
be introduced only by a minister and
(c) 2 and 3 only does not require the prior permission of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the President.
3. There is a provision for holding a joint
34. Which of the following statements are sitting of the two Houses in case of a
correct? disagreement.
1. The All India Women's Conference 4. The President can withhold his assent
(AIWC) was founded after India’s to the Constitutional Amendment Bill.
independence in Poona in order to Which of the statements given above is/are
promote women and children's correct?
education and social welfare. (a) 1 only
2. Margaret Cousins and Amrit Kaur was (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
the founding members of the AIWC.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Amrit Kaur was the first woman in
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
independent India who joined the
Cabinet as the Health Minister.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 7

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47. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above are
regarding the Long-Term Repo Operation correct?
(LTRO): (a) 2 and 3 only
1. Under the LTRO, the RBI provides loans (b) 1 and 2 only
to the banks at the prevailing repo rate
(c) 1 and 3only
for more than 5 years.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The LTRO helps the RBI ensure that the
banks reduce their marginal cost of
funds-based lending rate, without 50. Which of the following statements are
reducing the policy rates. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Pangong Tso lies in the north-western
correct? Himalayas.
(a) 1 only 2. Zoji La and Photu La are situated in the
(b) 2 only north-western Himalayas.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The higher reaches of the north-western
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Himalayas are inhabited by the Lepcha
tribes.
48. Consider the following statements 4. Duar formations are the main features
regarding the swap ratio: of the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas.
1. A swap ratio is a rate that an acquiring Select the correct answer using the code
company will offer its own shares in given below:
exchange for the target company's (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
shares during a merger or acquisition. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. The goal of the swap ratio is to ensure (c) 3 and 4 only
that the shareholders are not negatively
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
impacted by the merger.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 51. Which of the following statements are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only 1. The Central Highlands Peninsula of
(c) Both 1 and 2 India is bounded to the west by the
Satpura range and in the south by the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Aravalli range.
2. The Central Highlands of India are
49. Consider the following statements
wider in the west, but narrower in the
regarding the ‘Fully Accessible Route’
east.
(FAR):
3. Mushroom rocks and oasis are the
1. It is to enable the non-residents to
invest in specified Government of India main features of the Indian desert land.
dated securities. 4. The lakes and the playas of the Indian
2. Eligible investors can invest in specified desert have brackish water.
government securities without being Select the correct answer using the code
subject to any investment ceilings. given below:
3. Investments by the eligible investors (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
under the route shall be governed by (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
other applicable provisions of the (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(FERA).

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 10

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52. Which of the following statements are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
1. When the rivers originate from a hill (a) 1 only
and flow in all directions, the drainage (b) 2 only
pattern is known as dendritic. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. After entering the plains, the rivers of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Himalayan drainage system form
ox-bow lakes and braided channels. 55. With reference to the Central Consumer
3. The Son and the Gomati rivers are the Protection Authority (CCPA), which of the
tributaries of the Ganga river system. following statements is/are correct?
1. It has been constituted under the
4. Subansiri, Dibang and Lohit are the
Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
major tributaries of the Brahmaputra
2. It aims to protect the rights of the
River.
consumers by cracking down on unfair
Select the correct answer using the code trade practices, as well as false and
given below: misleading advertisements.
(a) 1 and 3 only 3. The CCPA will have the powers to
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only investigate into the matters relating to
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only violations of consumer rights or unfair
trade practices only on a complaint
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 received.
Select the correct answer using the code
53. Which of the following factors are given below.
responsible for the onset of the south-west (a) 1 and 3 only
monsoon? (b) 2 only
1. High-pressure area in the Bay of (c) 2 and 3 only
Bengal. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Permanent high-pressure cells in the
South Indian Ocean. 56. Consider the following statements
3. Intense heating of the Tibetan Plateau regarding the “Emergency Credit Line
during the summer months. Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS)”:
4. Migration of the Inter Tropical 1. It provides 100% guarantee coverage to
the banks and the NBFCs to enable
Convergence Zone to the south of India.
them to provide emergency credit
Select the correct answer using the code facilities to the eligible borrowers.
given below:
2. Under the Scheme, individuals, such as
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only doctors, chartered accountants,
(b) 2 and 3 only lawyers, among others, are also eligible
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only to take loans for professional purposes.
3. The Scheme will assist the MSMEs to
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
control liquidity crisis, generate
employment opportunities and revive
54. Consider the following statements their businesses.
regarding the “Reserve Tranche”: Which of the statements given above are
1. The Reserve Tranche is a segment of an correct?
International Monetary Fund member (a) 1 and 2 only
country’s quota. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. It is accessible without fees or economic (c) 1 and 3 only
reform conditions. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 11

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57. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer using the code
regarding the Hoysalas architecture: given below:
1. The architecture of the Hoysalas is a (a) 1 and 2 only
hybrid of the Nagara style and (b) 2 and 3 only
the Dravidian style of temple (c) 1 and 3 only
architecture.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The temples were built on platforms
and had a star-shaped plan.
60. Which of the following statements are
3. The temples were built of a soft chlorite-
correct?
schist stone, quarried nearby, that was
1. Tropical evergreen forests are well
especially soft when first quarried and
stratified, with layers closer to the
hardened on contact with air.
ground and are covered with shrubs
Which of the statements given above are
and creepers.
correct?
2. Main tree species of tropical semi
(a) 1 and 2 only
evergreen forests are white cedar,
(b) 2 and 3 only hollock and kail.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. Tropical deciduous forests are called the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 monsoon forests of India.
4. Moist deciduous forests have a
58. Consider the following statements parkland landscape with open
regarding the National River Conservation stretches.
Plan (NRCP): Select the correct answer using the code
1. It is an umbrella scheme for river given below:
cleaning in the country. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. (b) 3 and 4 only
3. It is being implemented by the National (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
River Conservation Directorate (NRCD). (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
61. Which of the following statements are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The terrestrial planets were formed in
(c) 1 and 3 only close vicinity of the parent star, where it
(d) 1, 2 and 3 was too warm for gases to condense to
solid particles.
59. In India, a person fulfilling which of the 2. Jovian planets have a thick atmosphere
following conditions would be eligible for of helium and hydrogen.
assistance under the Assistance to 3. Inner planets are composed mainly of
Disabled Persons for Purchase/Fitting of silicates and metals.
Aids and Appliances (ADIP) Scheme? 4. Asteroids are the remnants of planetary
1. Person should be an Indian citizen of formation that circle the Sun in a zone
any age. lying between Mars and Jupiter.
2. Holds a 40% Disablement Certificate. Select the correct answer using the code
3. Persons who have not received given below:
assistance from the government, local (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
bodies and Non-Official Organizations (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
during the last 3 years for the same (c) 1 and 4 only
purpose.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 12

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62. With reference to the Agreement on Trade- 3. The recommendations of the


Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), Commission shall be binding upon the
which of the following statements are Government of India.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. It recognizes that certain investment correct?
measures can restrict and distort (a) 1 and 2 only
trade.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. It states that the WTO members may
(c) 1 only
not apply any measure that
discriminates against foreign products. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The TRIMS Committee monitors the
operation and implementation of the 65. With respect to the “Election Commission
Agreement. of India”, consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Since inception it is a multi-member
given below: body.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. The Constitution has specified the term
(b) 2 and 3 only of the members of the Election
(c) 1 and 3 only Commission.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The Constitution has not debarred the
retiring Election Commissioners from
63. With respect to the “National Commission any further appointment by the
for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)”, consider the government.
following statements: 4. The Chief Election Commissioner
1. It was established by the 91st cannot be removed from his office,
Constitutional Amendment Act. except in the same manner and on the
2. The Chairperson holds office for a term same grounds as a judge of the
of 3 years. Supreme Court.
3. The Commission presents an annual Which of the statements given above are
report to the President. incorrect?
4. The Commission can ensure full (a) 1 and 2 only
implementation of the provisions of the (b) 2 and 3 only
Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Areas) Act, 1996.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only 66. Consider the following statements:

(b) 1 only 1. In Panchayatana style, a temple has a


central shrine surrounded by four other
(c) 2 and 3 only
shrines.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Virupaksha temple is located at Aihole.
Which of the statements given above is/are
64. With respect to the “Finance Commission”,
correct?
consider the following statements:
1. It is a quasi-judicial body established (a) 1 only
under Article 280 of the Constitution. (b) 2 only
2. Its members are eligible for re- (c) Both 1 and 2
appointment. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 13

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67. Consider the following pairs: 70. Consider the following pairs:
S.N. Harappan Site Finding S.No. Vedic River Modern Name
1. Mohenjodaro A piece of woven 1. Vitastata Beas
cotton
2. Vipasha Jhelum
2. Chanhudaro Pottery with the
3. Askini Chenab
painting of ‘clever
fox’ 4. Purushni Ravi
3. Lothal Footprint of a dog
Which of the pairs given above is/are
chasing a cat
correctly matched?
Which of the pairs given above is/are (a) 3 and 4 only
correctly matched? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
71. Consider the following pairs about Medieval
India:
68. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Green Gigaton challenge? 1. Silver Tanka and Copper Jital was
introduced by Iltutmish.
1. It is an initiative of United Nations
REDD Programme (UN-REDD). 2. Sahansah, the largest gold coin, was
2. It brings together a coalition of public, used during Delhi Sultanate.
private and philanthropic partners to Which of the statements given above is/are
reduce emissions from deforestation correct?
and forest degradation (REDD+). (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only
given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 72. Which of the following are considered to be
threats to the coral reefs?

69. Which of the following statements is/are 1. Agricultural fertilizer use


correct about recently launched "New 2. Oxybenzone
Restoration Seed Capital Facility"? 3. Polychlorobiphenyls (PCBs)
1. It aims to boost the contribution of 4. Microplastics
private finance to forest restoration.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. It has been launched by Global
given below:
Environment facility.
(a) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 14

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73. Which of the following statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct about Sulphur pollution? given below:
1. Sulphur pollution can harm trees and (a) 1 only
plants. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. It is a threat to coral reefs.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
76. Who among the following were the
(a) 1 only economic critics of colonialism in India?
(b) 2 only 1. Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Dinshaw Wacha
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. R.C. Dutt
4. G. Subramania Iyer
74. With reference to the tribal revolts, Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
consider the following pairs:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
S.No. Tribal Revolt Leader
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Rampa Alluri Sitarama (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Raju (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Kondh Jatra Bhagat
77. Which of the following forms of struggle
3. Kols Buddho Bhagat
were thrown up by Swadeshi Movement in
4. Bhuyan and Tomma Sora 1905?
Juang 1. Corps of volunteers
2. Use of traditional festivals and
Which of the pairs given above is/are occasions
correctly matched? 3. National education
(a) 1 and 2 only 4. Defence of civil rights
(b) 2 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 only given below.
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
75. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
matched?
S.No. Founder Organization 78. Consider the followings statements:
1. Jyotirao Phule Satyashodhak 1. Carbon stored in coastal and marine
Samaj ecosystems is known as Blue carbon.
2. Coastal ecosystems store more carbon
2. Gopal Ganesh Servants of
per unit area than terrestrial forests.
Agarkar India Society
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Gopal Krishna Deccan correct?
Gokhale Education (a) 1 only
Society (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 15

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79. Which of the following were the main Which of the pairs given above is/are
proposals of the Cripps Mission (1942)? correctly matched?
1. An Indian Union with a Dominion (a) 3 only
Status would be set up. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Any Province unwilling to join the (c) 1 and 3 only
Indian Dominion could form a separate (d) 3 and 4 only
Union and have a separate
Constitution. 82. Fluchloralin, Glyphosate, Bispyribac
3. Expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Sodium are used in agriculture as
Council, which would have a majority of (a) Pesticides
Indians. (b) Herbicide
4. Until the new Constitution came into (c) Fertilisers
force, India’s defence would be (d) Ripening fruits
controlled by the British.
Select the correct answer using the code
83. Which of the following measures can be
given below: used for soil conservation?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. Minimum tillage
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Zero tillage
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. Stubble mulching
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Trash farming
Select the correct answer using the code
80. With reference to Rakhigarhi, consider the given below:
following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is the largest Harappan site in (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
the Indian sub-continent. (c) 3 and 4 only
2. It is located in the Sarasvati River plain. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 84. With reference to the Surat split of 1907,
(a) 1 only consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. In 1907, at the Surat Session of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Indian National Congress was presided
over by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. During the Session, the demand for the
resolution of Swaraj was accepted by
81. Consider the following pairs with reference the moderates.
to the Revolt of 1857:
3. The efforts to bring the Extremists and
S.No. Storm Leaders of the the Moderates together in the aftermath
Centres Revolt of the Surat split, were successful
1. Baghpat Maulvi during the 1908 Allahabad Convention.
Ahmadullah Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
2. Bareilly Shah Mal
(a) 1, 2 and 3
3. Bihar Kunwar Singh (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Lucknow Khan Bahadur (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 16

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85. Consider the following pairs: issue of separate electorate for the
S.No. Organization Leaders depressed classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Berlin Virendranath
Committee for Chattopadhyay correct?
Indian (a) 1 only
Independence (b) 1 and 2 only
2. Swadesh Sevak Shyamji (c) 2 and 3 only
Home Krishnavarma (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Indian Home G.D. Kumar
Rule Society 88. Consider the following statements with
regard to the Solar Energetic Particles:
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched? 1. They provide a good sample of solar

(a) 1 only material.

(b) 2 and 3 only 2. They can endanger life in the outer


space and are one of the main
(c) 1 and 3 only
challenges for the future of human
(d) None of the above.
spaceflight.
3. They originate from the edges of the
86. With respect to the “Second Round Table
active region of Sun, where the
Conference”, consider the following
magnetic field is already open and the
statements?
material can escape directly.
1. The British government accepted to
Which of the statements given above is/are
concede the basic Indian demand of
freedom. correct?

2. It led to the creation of two Muslim (a) 2 only


majority provinces-North-West Frontier (b) 1 and 2 only
Province (NWFP) and Sindh. (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only 89. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 only regard to the National Small Savings Fund:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It has been established in the Public
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Account of India.
2. The Fund is administered by the
87. With respect to the “Communal Award”, Department of Revenue, the Ministry of
consider the following statements: Finance.
1. It was announced by the British Prime Which of the statements given above is/are
Minister, Ramsay MacDonald. correct?
2. The Communal Award of 1932 was (a) 1 only
based on the findings of the
(b) 2 only
Hartog Committee.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. In the Second Round Table Conference,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was against the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 17

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90. Consider the following statements with 94. ‘4 per 1,000’ Initiative is most closely
regard to the Enforcement Directorate: related to which of the following?
1. It is a part of the Department of (a) Afforestation
Revenue, the Ministry of Finance. (b) Reduction in anaemia among women
2. Its prime objective is the enforcement of (c) Prevention of digital payment failure
the Foreign Exchange Management Act (d) Carbon storage in agricultural soils
(FEMA), 1999, and the Prevention of
Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002.
95. Consider the following statements with
Which of the statements given above is/are regard to the Extra Budget Borrowing:
correct? 1. It is excluded from the fiscal deficit
(a) 1 only calculations.
(b) 2 only 2. It is excluded from the total debt
(c) Both 1 and 2 calculation of the government.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
91. Consider the following statements with (a) 1 only
regard to the Development Financial (b) 2 only
Institution: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It will provide long-term credit for (d) Neither 1 nor 2
capital-intensive investments.
2. Initially it will be 100% owned by the 96. Which of the following is/are the
government. similarity/similarities between the
Which of the statements given above is/are Gandhara School and the Mathura School?
correct? 1. Both were patronised by the same
(a) 1 only rulers.
(b) 2 only 2. Both used spotted red sandstone.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Both were indigenously developed.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
92. Consider the following statements about
Cheetah: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. It is the world’s fastest land mammal. (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above.
2. Asiatic Cheetah is extinct all over the
world.
Which of the statements given above is/are 97. Consider the following statements with
correct? regard to the administrative set up in the
Chola Empire:
(a) 1 only
1. ‘Ur’ was the assembly in the villages,
(b) 2 only
which were inhabited predominantly by
(c) Both 1 and 2 the Brahmanas.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. ‘Sabha’ was in the non-Brahmanical
settlements.
93. The Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary is located Which of the statements given above is/are
in which of the following states? correct?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (a) 1 only
(b) Rajasthan (b) 2 only
(c) Gujarat (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Maharashtra (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 18

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98. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above is/are
S.No. Terms used in Description correct?
medieval India (a) 1 and 2 only

1. Muqaddams Land granted to (b) 1 and 3 only


the army (c) 2 and 3 only
officers (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Parauti Headman of a
village 100. The Gupta phase of ancient India is well
known for its art, culture and society.
3. Iqtas Type of land
Which of the following statements is
based on
incorrect regarding the Gupta Empire?
fertility
(a) Eran copper plate talks about the
Which of the pairs given above is/are prevalence of the Sati system.
incorrectly matched? (b) There was rise of a new caste known for
(a) 1 only scribe activities as Kayastha.
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) For the first time, cave structure for
(c) 1 and 3 only religious purpose began to be built in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 India.
(d) Ancient literature saw its golden phase
99. With reference to the cultural aspects of the during the Gupta period.
Mauryans, consider the following
statements:
1. They have been practising the issuance
of the punch marked coins.
2. The Mauryans are known for the
northern black polished ware.
3. Caste system was not established as
seen in the Vedic period.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 19

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF


Full Length Test (FLT)–2
GS Paper-I: (TS21E1040)
1. Answer: (b) Heritage (INTACH) is making efforts to get
Explanation: recognition of a Geopark for
The Organization for the Prohibition of Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)
Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is consisting of Erra Matti Dibbalu (red sand
an intergovernmental organization and dunes), natural rock formations, Borra
the implementing body for the Chemical Caves and volcanic ash deposits.
Weapons Convention. It has its seat in The
Hague, Netherlands. The organization was 4. Answer: (a)
awarded the 2013 Nobel Peace Prize "for its Explanation:
extensive efforts to eliminate chemical iDEX (Innovation for Defence Excellence)
weapons". It is not a specialized agency aims at the creation of an ecosystem to
of the United Nations. It cooperates both foster innovation and technology
on policy and practical issues as a related development in Defence and Aerospace by
organization. engaging industries, including MSMEs,
start-ups, individual innovators, R&D
2. Answer: (b) institutes and academia, and provide them
Explanation: grants/funding and other support to carry
Mekong is a trans-boundary river in East out R&D which has good potential for
Asia and Southeast Asia. It is the world's future adoption for Indian defence and
tenth longest river and the seventh longest aerospace needs.
in Asia. It originates in China and empties iDEX will be funded and managed by a
into the South China Sea in Vietnam. It ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’
flows from China to Myanmar, Laos, which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’
Thailand, Cambodia and Vietnam. company, as per the Companies Act, 2013,
for this purpose, by the two founder
members, i.e., Defence Public Sector
3. Answer: (a)
Undertakings (DPSUs) - Hindustan
Explanation:
Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Bharat
The UNESCO Global Geoparks are single, Electronics Limited. iDEX will function as
unified geographical areas where sites and the executive arm of the DIO, carrying out
landscapes of international geological all the required activities, while the DIO will
significance are managed with a holistic provide high level policy guidance to iDEX.
concept of protection, education and
sustainable development.
5. Answer: (d)
The UNESCO Global Geopark is given this
Explanation:
designation for a period of 4 years, after
which the functioning and quality of each The Indian Space Research Organization
UNESCO Global Geopark is thoroughly re- (ISRO) and the Japan Aerospace
examined during a revalidation process. Exploration Agency (JAXA) have been
While there are 147 UNESCO Global jointly working to launch a joint Lunar
Geoparks spread across 41 countries, Polar Exploration (LUPEX) mission. The
India is yet to have one of its own. The mission aims to send a lander and rover
Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural to the Moon's South Pole around 2024.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 1

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6. Answer: (d) citizens and infrastructure. The Paris Call


Explanation: invites all cyberspace actors to work
Mobile Integrated Network Terminal together and encourage the states to
(MINT) – Long-Term Evolution (LTE) for cooperate with the private sector partners,
High Altitudes: the world of research and civil society. The
MINT exploits the advantage of icy, high- supporters of the Paris Call commit to
altitude terrain to deliver unfettered voice, working together to adopt responsible. It
video, data and remote monitoring services was sent in 2018 by the President of the
at sub-zero temperatures. French Republic, during the Internet
Lightweight, portable and easy-to- Governance Forum, held at UNESCO and
configure, it creates a dedicated high-speed the Paris Peace Forum.
4G network bubble, with on-request
support for interoperability between the 9. Answer: (c)
LTE handsets and other existing tactical
Explanation:
networks. Designed to network over
Yescarta is a treatment for large B-cell
satellite or IP (Internet Protocol) Radio
backhaul to form a robust communication lymphoma that has failed conventional
grid, commanders and on-field soldiers can treatment. T cells are removed from a
use multimedia data - transmitting video, person with lymphoma and genetically
images, maps and other information in engineered to produce a specific T-cell
real-time between the operations centre receptor. The resulting chimeric antigen
and the rest of the field officers, over a mil- receptor T cells or "CAR-Ts", that react to
grade encrypted and fully secure network. cancer, are then given back to the person
to populate the bone marrow. The T-cells
7. Answer: (d) are engineered to target the CD19 receptors
on the cancerous B-cells. It is a treatment
Explanation:
for the adult patients with relapsed or
The notification, under Section 59 of the
refractory diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, lays down the
(DLBCL) and primary mediastinal large B-
rules called the Lokpal (Complaint) Rules,
2020. cell lymphoma (PMBCL), after two or more
lines of systemic therapy.
No complaints can be filed against a public
servant under the Army Act, 1950, the
Navy Act, 1957, the Air Force Act, 1950 10. Answer: (d)
and the Coast Guard Act, 1978. Explanation:
Foreign nationals can also lodge  The laterite soils develop in the areas
complaints. The identity of the complainant with high temperature and high rainfall.
or the accused official will be protected by These are the result of intense leaching
the Lokpal till the conclusion of inquiry or due to tropical rains. With rain, lime
investigation. However, the protection will and silica are leached away, and soils
not be applicable in cases where the
rich in iron oxide and aluminium
complainant herself reveals her identity to
compound are left behind.
any other office or authority while making
the complaint to the Lokpal.  Humus content of the soil is removed
fast by the bacteria that thrive well in
high temperature.
8. Answer: (c)
 These soils are poor in organic matter,
Explanation:
nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while
The Paris Call for Trust and Security in
iron oxide and potash are in excess.
Cyberspace is a call to come together to
Hence, laterites are not suitable for
face the new threats endangering the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 2

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cultivation. However, application of release of latent heat on account of the


manures and fertilizers is required for condensation of moisture that the wind
making the soils fertile for cultivation. gathers after moving over the oceans
 Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra and seas.
Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable  Some initial conditions for the
for tree crops, like cashewnut. emergence of a tropical cyclone are:
 Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for (i) Large and continuous supply of
use in house construction. warm and moist air that can
 These soils have mainly developed in release enormous latent heat.
the higher areas of the Peninsular (ii) Strong Coriolis Force that can
Plateau. prevent filling of low pressure at the
 The laterite soils are commonly found in centre (absence of the Coriolis
Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Force near the Equator prohibits
Pradesh, and the hilly areas of Odisha the formation of tropical cyclones
and Assam. between 0° -5° latitude).

 Peaty soils are found in the areas of (iii) Unstable condition through the
heavy rainfall and high humidity, where troposphere that creates local
there is a good growth of vegetation. disturbances around which a
cyclone develops.
 Thus, large quantity of dead organic
matter accumulates in these areas, and (iv) Finally, absence of strong vertical
wind wedge, which disturbs the
this gives a rich humus and organic
vertical transport of latent heat.
content to the soil.
 It was mentioned that the energy to the
 Organic matter in these soils may go
tropical cyclone comes from the latent
even up to 40-50%. These soils are
normally heavy and black in colour. heat released by the warm moist air.
Hence, with the increase in distance
 At many places, they are alkaline also.
from the sea, the force of the cyclone
They occur widely in the northern part
decreases.
of Bihar, southern part of Uttarakhand,
and the coastal areas of West Bengal,  In India, the force of the cyclone
Odisha and Tamil Nadu. decreases with increase in the
distance from the Bay of Bengal and
 These are generally submerged during
the Arabian Sea.
the rainy season and utilized for the
cultivation of rice.  So, the coastal areas are often struck by
severe cyclonic storms with an average
velocity of 180 km/h. Often, this results
11. Answer: (c)
in abnormal rise in the sea level, known
Explanation: as Storm Surge.
 Tropical cyclones are intense low-
pressure areas confined to the area 12. Answer: (a)
lying between 30° N and 30° S
Explanation:
latitudes, in the atmosphere around
which high velocity winds blow.  Extrusive landforms are formed from
material thrown out to the surface
 Horizontally, it extends up to 500-1,000
during volcanic activity.
km and vertically from surface to 12-14
km.  The materials thrown out include lava
flows, pyroclastic debris, volcanic
 A tropical cyclone or hurricane is like a
bombs, ash, dust and gases, such as
heat engine that is energized by the
nitrogen compounds, Sulphur

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 3

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compounds and minor amounts of o Promote the welfare of the people of


chlorine, hydrogen and argon. the SAARC region;
 Extrusive volcanic landforms o Improve their quality of life; and
o Conical Vent and Fissure Vent o Accelerate economic growth, social
o Mid-ocean Ridges progress and poverty alleviation in
o Composite Type Volcanic Landforms the region.
o Shield Type Volcanic Landforms  To support these objectives, the SDF
o Fissure Type Flood Basalt has the mandate to identify the
Landforms (Lava Plateaus) projects, finance projects, mobilize
o Crater funds, provide financing and technical
o Caldera assistance, including managing of the
o Cinder Cone Fund.
o Lava Dome  The SDF has 3 funding windows: Social
 Intrusive landforms are formed when Window; Economic Window; and
magma cools within the crust. Infrastructure Window.

 The near horizontal bodies of the  The Social Window primarily funds the
projects on poverty alleviation; social
intrusive igneous rocks are called
development focusing on education;
sill. The thinner ones are called sheets.
health; human resource development;
It is a type of intrusive volcanic
support to the
landforms.
vulnerable/disadvantaged segments of
 Shield type volcanic landforms are the society; funding needs of the
mostly made up of basaltic lava (very communities; micro-enterprises; and
fluid). These volcanoes are not steep. rural infrastructure development.
They become explosive if somehow  The Economic Window extends funding
water gets into the vent; otherwise, they to the non-infrastructural projects
are less explosive. related to trade and industrial
development, agriculture, service sector,
13. Answer: (d) science and technology and other non-
Explanation: infrastructure areas. Under the
Economic Window, the SDF proposes to
 The South Asian Association for
fund the Micro, Small and Medium
Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
Enterprises (MSMEs) programme in the
Development Fund (SDF) was SAARC member states. The MSME
established and inaugurated in 2010 by funding scheme is within the Economic
the all the Heads of the Window of the SDF. The MSME funding
states/governments of the member scheme of the SDF has recently been
countries, during the Sixteenth SAARC approved.
Summit, held in Thimphu (Bhutan).  The Infrastructure Window is primarily
 The Fund serves as the umbrella utilized to fund the projects in the
financial institution for the SAARC areas, such as energy, power,
projects and programmes, which are in transportation, telecommunications,
fulfilment of the objectives of the SAARC environment, tourism and other
Charter. It is aimed to contribute to infrastructure areas.
regional cooperation and integration
through project collaboration. 14. Answer: (b)
 The primary objectives of the SDF are Explanation:
to:  The National Financial Reporting
Authority (NFRA) was constituted in

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 4

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2018 by the Government of India, under (a) Companies whose securities are listed
Section 132 of the Companies Act, on any stock exchange in India or
2013. outside India;
 Functions and Duties: (b) Unlisted public companies having paid-
 As per the Companies Act, 2013, the up capital of not less than Rs. 500
duties of the NFRA are to: crores, or having annual turnover of not
o Recommend accounting and less than Rs. 1,000 crores, or having, in
aggregate, outstanding loans,
auditing policies and standards to
be adopted by the companies for debentures and deposits of not less
than Rs. 500 crores as on 31st March of
approval by the Central
Government; the immediately preceding financial
year;
o Monitor and enforce compliance
(c) Insurance companies, banking
with accounting standards and
auditing standards; companies, companies engaged in the
generation or supply of electricity,
o Oversee the quality of service of the
companies governed by any special Act
professions associated with ensuring
for the time being in force or bodies
compliance with such standards
corporate incorporated by an Act.
and suggest measures for
improvement in the quality of (d) Anybody corporate or company or
service; and person, or any class of bodies corporate
or companies or persons, on a reference
o Perform such other functions and
made to the Authority by the Central
duties as may be necessary or
Government in public interest; and
incidental to the aforesaid functions
(e) A body corporate incorporated or
and duties.
registered outside India, which is a
 The NFRA Rules, 2018, provide that the
subsidiary or associate company of any
Authority shall protect the public
company or body corporate
interest and the interests of the
incorporated or registered in India, as
investors, creditors and others
referred to in clauses (a) to (d), if the
associated with the companies or the
income or net worth of such subsidiary
bodies corporate, by establishing high
or associate company exceeds 20% of
quality standards of accounting and
the consolidated income or consolidated
auditing, and exercising effective
net worth of such company or the body
oversight of accounting functions
corporate, as the case may be, referred
performed by the companies and the
to in clauses (a) to (d).
bodies corporate, and auditing
 With the constitution of the NFRA, India
functions performed by the auditors.
is now eligible to become a member of
 Companies and Bodies Corporate
the International Forum of Independent
Governed by the Authority: As per the
Audit Regulators (IFIAR), which was
NFRA Rules,2018, the Authority shall
denied until now for want of an
have the power to monitor and enforce
independent audit oversight body in the
compliance with the accounting
country. This will enhance investor
standards and auditing standards,
confidence, as well as standing of India
oversee the quality of service under
in the global arena.
section 132 or undertake investigation
of such section of the auditors of the  India is not a member of the
International Forum of Independent
following class of companies and bodies
corporate, namely: Audit Regulators (IFIAR).

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15. Answer: (c) management and compliance, as well as


Explanation: confirmation and settlement.
 The Global Foreign Exchange  The Code does not impose legal or
Committee (GFXC) was established in regulatory obligations on the market
2017 as a forum bringing together the participants, nor does it substitute
central banks and the private sector for regulation. It is intended to serve as
participants with the aim to promote a a supplement to any and all local laws,
robust, liquid, open and appropriately rules and regulations by identifying
transparent foreign exchange (FX) global good practices and processes.
market in which a diverse set of  The members of the GFXC include the
participants, supported by resilient central bank-sponsored Foreign
infrastructure, are able to confidently Exchange Committees and similar
and effectively transact at competitive structures in various regions. Each
prices that reflect available information member Foreign Exchange Committee
and in a manner that conforms to the designates a central bank and private
acceptable standards of behaviour. sector representative for the GFXC.
 The Committee has been set up under  Members currently include: Australia
the guidance of the Bank for - The Australian Foreign Exchange
International Settlements (BIS), an Committee; Brazil - The Foreign
international financial organization. Exchange Committee; Canada - The
 The objectives of the GFXC are: Canadian Foreign Exchange Committee;
o To promote collaboration and China - The China Foreign Exchange
communication among the local Committee; Euro Area- The Foreign
foreign exchange committees (FXCs) Exchange Contact Group; Hong Kong -
and non-GFXC jurisdictions with The Treasury Markets Association;
significant FX markets; India - The Foreign Exchange
Committee; Japan - The Tokyo Foreign
o To exchange views on trends and
Exchange Committee; Mexico - The
developments in the global FX
Mexican Foreign Exchange Committee;
markets, including on the structure
Russia - The Moscow Foreign Exchange
and functioning of those markets,
Joint Standing Committee; etc.
drawing on information gathered at
the various FXCs; and
o To promote, maintain and update on 16. Answer: (d)
a regular basis the FX Global Code Explanation:
(the Code) and to consider good  The Minamata Convention on
practices regarding effective Mercury is a global treaty to protect
mechanisms to support adherence. human health and the environment
 The Code is a set of global principles of from the adverse effects of mercury.
good practice in the foreign exchange It was agreed at the Fifth Session of the
market. It contains 55 principles that Intergovernmental Negotiating
provide a common set of guidelines to Committee on Mercury in Geneva
promote the integrity and effective (Switzerland).
functioning of the wholesale foreign  The Minamata Convention entered into
exchange market. force in 2017.
 The principles cover ethics, governance,  The Convention draws attention to a
execution, information sharing, risk global and ubiquitous metal that, while
naturally occurring, has broad uses in

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 6

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everyday objects and is released to the disputes and complaints with respect to
atmosphere, soil and water from a recruitment and conditions of service.
variety of sources. Controlling the The Chairman has been a sitting or retired
anthropogenic releases of mercury judge of a High Court. The Tribunal is
throughout its lifecycle has been a key guided by the principles of natural justice
factor in shaping the obligations under in deciding the cases and is not bound by
the Convention. the procedure prescribed by the Civil
 Major highlights of the Minamata Procedure Code.
Convention include a ban on new At present, the sanctioned strength of the
mercury mines, the phase out of the Chairman is one and the sanctioned
existing ones, the phase out and phase strength of the members is 65. It exercises
down of mercury use in a number of original jurisdiction in relation to
products and processes, control recruitment and all service matters of
measures on emissions to air and on public servants covered by it.
releases to land and water, and the Its jurisdiction extends to All-India
regulation of the informal sector of Services, the Central Civil Services, civil
artisanal and small-scale gold mining. posts under the centre and civilian
 The Convention also addresses interim employees of the defence forces. However,
storage of mercury and its disposal once the members of the defence forces, officers
it becomes waste, sites contaminated by and the servants of the Supreme Court and
mercury, as well as health issues. the secretarial staff of the Parliament are
 More than 140 countries, including not covered by it.
India, the US and Japan, have ratified
the Convention. 19. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
17. Answer: (b) Adjournment: It only terminates a sitting
Explanation: and not a session of the House. It is done
The Representation of the People Act, by the Presiding Officer of the House. It
1950: does not affect the Bills or any other
 Section 3: Allocation of seats in the business pending before the House and the
House of the People. same can be resumed when the House
meets again.
 Section 8: Consolidation of delimitation
orders. Prorogation: It not only terminates a
sitting, but also a session of the House. It is
The Representation of the People Act,
done by the President of India. It does not
1951:
affect the Bills or any other business
 Section 4: Qualifications for the pending before the House. However, all
membership of the House of the People. pending notices (other than those for
 Section 8A: Disqualification on the introducing the Bills) lapse on prorogation
ground of corrupt practices. and fresh notices have to be given for the
 Section 29A: Registration with the next session. In Britain, prorogation brings
Commission of associations and bodies to an end all Bills or any other business
as political parties. pending before the House.

18. Answer: (a) 20. Answer: (a)


Explanation: Explanation:
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) National Emergency (Article 352) – It is
had been established under Article 323 A of declared on the grounds of ‘war’ or ‘external
the Constitution for adjudication of aggression’, it is known as ‘External

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 7

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Emergency’. On the other hand, when it is  They would also provide data sharing
declared on the grounds of ‘armed services, training and capacity-building,
rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal research and development.
Emergency’.  Findings of the Report:
This term ‘armed rebellion’ is inserted from o Even if efforts are made to limit
the 44th Amendment, 1978. Before this global warming to 1.5̊C by the end of
term, it was known as internal disturbance. the century, the Hindu Kush
The Proclamation of Emergency must be Himalaya will warm by around 1.8
approved by both the Houses of the ̊C, the Report has found.
Parliament within one month from the date o The warming will at least be 0.7 ̊C
of its issue. Every resolution approving higher in the northwest Himalaya
the Proclamation of Emergency or its and Karakoram region.
continuance must be passed by either
o The HKH will warm more than the
House of the Parliament by a special
global mean and more rapidly at
majority. It affects the Fundamental
higher elevations.
Rights of the citizens.
o Even the most ambitious goal set by
the Paris Agreement to limit global
21. Answer: (c)
warming would lead to a 2.1 spike in
Explanation: temperature in the HKH region,
 The ‘Hindu Kush Himalaya Assessment’ leading to melting of one-third of the
is released by the Kathmandu-based region’s glaciers.
International Centre for Integrated o It also points out that the Tibetan
Mountain Development (ICIMOD). Plateau, the Central Himalayan
 It provides insights into the changes Range and Karakoram are warmer
affecting one of the greatest mountain than the HKH.
systems in the world.  The HKH region covers 3,500 kms
 At least a third of the ice in the across 8 countries – Afghanistan,
Himalayas and the Hindu Kush will Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India,
melt down this century as temperatures Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan.
rise, disrupting river flows vital for  It is the source of 10 major river basins,
growing crops from China to India. including the Ganges, the Brahmaputra
 And even if the “most ambitious” Paris and the Indus in India.
Agreement goal of limiting global  Two billion people are dependent on the
warming to 1.5° C is achieved, one-third HKH for their water needs across Asia.
of the glaciers would go, says the report.
 Glaciers in the HKH region are a critical
 The India Meteorological Department water source for some 250 million
(IMD) will collaborate with the people in the mountains, as well as to
meteorological agencies in China and 1.65 billion others in the river valleys
Pakistan, among others, to provide below.
climate forecast services to the
countries in the Hindu Kush Himalayan
22. Answer: (b)
(HKH) region.
Explanation:
 The World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) has proposed for the  The Atmosphere and Climate
establishment of the regional climate Research-Modelling Observing
centres in Islamabad, Delhi and Beijing. Systems and Services (ACROSS) will
 These centres are expected to provide be implemented by the Ministry of
forecasting services and climate Earth Sciences, through its institutes,
analyses. namely the India Meteorological

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 8

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Department (IMD), the Indian Institute services, aviation services,


of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), the environmental monitoring services,
National Centre for Medium Range hydro-meteorological services, climate
Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF) and the services, tourism, pilgrimage,
Indian National Centre for Ocean mountaineering etc.
Information Service (INCOIS).  ACROSS has also approved the
 The scheme will provide improved establishment of the National Facility
weather, climate and ocean forecast and for Airborne Research (NFAR), which
services, thereby ensuring transfer of will serve the purpose of airborne
commensurate benefits to various measurements in respect of aerosol
services, like public weather services, sampling, measurement of cloud
disaster management, agro- properties, cloud physics, Convective
meteorological services, aviation Tropical Convergence Zone (CTCZ),
services, environmental monitoring atmospheric chemistry, etc., to address
services, hydro-meteorological services, all relevant scientific issues.
climate services, tourism, pilgrimage,
power generation, water management, 23. Answer: (a)
sports and adventure etc.
Explanation:
 A sizable number of scientific and
 The official declaration of the Singphan
technical staff along with requisite
Wildlife Sanctuary as the Singphan
administrative support, thereby
Elephant Reserve got approved by the
generating employment.
government in 2018. The Singphan
 To ensure last-mile connectivity of the Elephant Reserve is the 30th Elephant
weather-based services to the end -user, Reserve in the country and is situated
a large number of agencies, like the in the state of Nagaland, which has an
Krishi Vigyana Kendras of the Indian elephant population of 446, as per the
Council of Agricultural Research, Census Report (2017) conducted in the
universities and local municipalities are state.
roped in, thus generating employment
 An important reserve in the north
opportunities to many people.
eastern states, the Singphan Elephant
 The ACROSS scheme pertains to the Reserve has huge tracts of forests,
atmospheric science programmes of the strategically located in contiguity with
Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and the Abhaypur Reserve Forest of Assam,
addresses different aspects of weather which is frequented by moving herds of
and climate services, which include elephants. Elephant distribution habitat
warnings for cyclones, storm surges, in the state of Nagaland is a continuous
heat waves, thunderstorms etc. stretch, starting from Peren district
 As the objective of the ACROSS scheme running all along the foothills north –
is to provide a reliable weather and westerly, until it enters Tirap district of
climate forecast for betterment of the Arunachal Pradesh.
society, the scheme will aim at  The Singphan Elephant Reserve is
improving the skill of weather and located in Mon district of Nagaland.
climate forecast through sustained This forms an important forest
observations, intensive R & D and by connecting the fragmented and isolated
adopting effective dissemination and patches of forests in the states of
communication strategies to ensure its Nagaland and Assam.
timely reach to the end-user of all
 The declaration of the Singphan
services, like agro-meteorological
Elephant Reserve in the state of
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Nagaland will boost the elephant Compensatory Afforestation Fund


conservation in the country, especially Act, 2016, for utilizing the corpus
in the north eastern region. The created in pursuance of the apex
creation of the new Elephant Reserve court's 2006 order.
will facilitate in the conservation  The Compensatory Afforestation
strategies that the government must
Fund Act, 2016 (CAF):
employ, so that the remaining
o It seeks to establish the National
population is not put at risk and cared
for adequately. Compensatory Afforestation Fund
under the Public Account of India
 The Indian sub-continent is considered
and a State Compensatory
to be the last remaining stronghold of
Afforestation Fund under the
the Asian elephants.
Public Account of each state.
 There are 3 sub-species of Asian
o It extends to the whole of India.
elephants, which are the Indian,
Sumatran and Sri Lankan. o The National Fund will get 10% of
 The IUCN Red List Status: funds collected and the remaining
Endangered. 90% will go to the respective
State Fund.
 The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
Schedule I. o The Act also seeks to establish the
National and State Compensatory
 Project Elephant was launched by the
Government of India in the year 1992 Afforestation Fund Management and
as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Planning Authorities (CAMPA) to
manage the funds. The
 The Ministry of Environment, Forest
determination of the NPV will be
and Climate Change provides the
delegated to an expert committee,
financial and technical support to the
major elephant range states in the constituted by the Central
country through Project Elephant. Government.

 The Project is being implemented in 16


states / UTs, viz., Andhra Pradesh, 25. Answer: (d)
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Explanation:
Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka,  The Animal Welfare Board of India is a
Kerala, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, statutory advisory body on the animal
Nagaland, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Tripura,
welfare laws and promotes animal
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and West
welfare in the country. It was
Bengal.
established in 1962, under the
 Objectives: Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,
o To protect elephants, their habitat 1960.
and corridors.
 The Animal Welfare Board of India was
o To address the issues of man-animal started under the stewardship of Late
conflict.
Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, a well-
o Welfare of captive elephants. known humanitarian.
 From ensuring that animal welfare laws
24. Answer: (d) in the country are diligently followed, to
Explanation: provide grants to the animal welfare
 The National Compensatory organizations and advising the
Afforestation Fund Management and Government of India on animal welfare
Planning Authority (NCAFMPA) has issues, the Board has been the face of
been created under the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 10

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the animal welfare movement in the curved around a spherical companion,


country for the last 50 years. depicting a highly rare phenomenon.
 The Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog was  The GAL-CLUS-022058s is located in
constituted in 2019. It is a high- Fornax or the Furnace’s southern
powered permanent apex advisory body hemisphere constellation.
with the mandate to help the Central  The space agency has called this one of
Government to develop appropriate the most complete, as well as the
programmes for conservation, largest Einstein Ring that has ever been
sustainable development and genetic discovered by us in the vast universe.
upgradation of the indigenous breeds of  The astronomers, who have been
cows.
observing this particular Einstein Ring,
 It comes under the Ministry of have started calling it the “Molten Ring”,
Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and alluding to both its appearance, as well
Dairying. as the host constellation.
 The Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog will  The phenomenon was first theorized by
function as an integral part of the the great scientist Albert Einstein in his
Rashtriya Gokul Mission. General Theory of Relativity.
 The object has an unusual shape due to
26. Answer: (c) the gravitational lensing, a process that
Explanation: causes light coming from a far-away
 An Einstein Ring, also known as an place to bend due to an object’s gravity
Einstein–Chwolson Ring or Chwolson between the source of the light and the
Ring (named for Orest Khvolson), is observer.
created when light from a galaxy or star  In this particular case, the agency said,
passes by a massive object en-route to the light was originating from the galaxy
the Earth. Due to gravitational lensing, in the background and it was distorted
the light is diverted, making it seem to and made into a curve due to the
come from different places. If source, gravitational pull of the galaxy cluster
lens and observer are all in perfect in front of it.
alignment, the light appears as a ring.  It is almost the exact alignment of the
 An important example of the galaxy in the background with the
gravitational lens effect is the Einstein cluster’s central elliptical galaxy that
Ring phenomenon. According to general has caused the image of the
relativity, gravity causes a deflection of background galaxy to be warped and
light by the gravitational field of a magnified it to look like an almost
massive body. In this case a galaxy perfect ring.
bends the light emanating from a galaxy
that is directly behind it, focusing the 27. Answer: (b)
otherwise divergent light into a visible Explanation:
ring.
 Black carbon, or soot, is a part of fine
 The National Aeronautics and Space
particulate air pollution (PM 2.5) and
Administration (NASA) and the contributes to climate change.
European Space Agency (ESA) operated
 Black carbon is formed by the
Hubble Space Telescope (HST) has
incomplete combustion of fossil fuels,
captured the GAL-CLUS-022058s in a
wood and other fuels.
stunning image. The narrow galaxy is
 Complete combustion would turn all
carbon in the fuel into carbon dioxide

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 11

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(CO2), but combustion is never Antarctic Oscillation, is a big factor,


complete and CO2, carbon monoxide, as it normally shields warm weather
volatile organic compounds, and from being transported from the Earth’s
organic carbon and black carbon temperate regions to the Antarctic
particles are all formed in the process. Peninsula.
 The complex mixture of the particulate  The polar cyclone is at its maximum
matter, resulting from incomplete intensity during the winter and it
combustion, is often referred to as soot. reaches its weakest during the summer,
 Black carbon is a short-lived climate weakening the westerlies.
pollutant with a lifetime of only days to  Dry and warm foehn winds may have
weeks after release in the atmosphere. also contributed as they release heat
During this short period of time, black into the air.
carbon can have significant direct and  High-temperature trends in the
indirect impacts on the climate, the Antarctic Peninsula give a clearer
cryosphere (snow and ice), agriculture depiction of the continent’s climate,
and human health. which is essential in observing the
 Several studies have demonstrated that rising sea levels and global warming
measures to prevent black carbon conditions. An increase in these trends
emissions can reduce near-term will cause further melting of the
warming of the climate, increase crop glaciers, which intensifies extreme
yields and prevent premature deaths. events brought about by the climate
 When suspended in the atmosphere, crisis.
black carbon contributes to warming by  The pace of warming from global climate
converting the incoming solar radiation change has been generally slower in
to heat. It also influences cloud East Antarctica, compared with West
formation, and impacts regional Antarctica and the Antarctic Peninsula.
circulation and rainfall patterns.  This is in part due to the ozone hole,
 When deposited on ice and snow, black which has occurred in the spring over
carbon and co-emitted particles reduce Antarctica since the late 1970s.
surface albedo (the ability to reflect  The hole has tended to strengthen the
sunlight) and heat the surface. The jet stream winds over the Southern
Arctic and glaciated regions, such as Ocean, promoting a generally more
the Himalayas, are particularly ‘positive’ state of the Southern Annular
vulnerable to melting as a result. Mode in summer.
 Black carbon has a warming impact on  This means that the Southern Ocean’s
climate 460-1,500 times stronger than westerly wind belt has tended to stay
CO2 per unit of mass. close to the Antarctica at that time of
 The average atmospheric lifetime of the year creating a seasonal ‘shield’,
black carbon particles is 4-12 days. reducing the transfer of warm air from
 Household cooking and heating account the Earth’s temperate regions to the
for 58% of global black carbon Antarctica.
emissions.  A strong warming of the stratosphere
over the Antarctica significantly reduced
28. Answer: (c) the size of the ozone hole. This helped
to support a more ‘negative’ state of the
Explanation:
Southern Annular Mode and weakened
 The weakened state of the Southern
the shield.
Hemisphere westerlies, due to the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 12

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29. Answer: (a) polystyrene plastics, fibreglass, rubber


Explanation: and latex.
 The Climate Adaptation and Resilience  It is also found in vehicle exhaust,
for South Asia Project, or CARE for cigarette smoke and in natural foods
South Asia, supports the region in like fruits and vegetables.
building resilience to climate change by  A short-term exposure to the substance
improving the availability of regional can result in respiratory problems,
data and knowledge, developing irritation in the eyes, irritation in the
guidelines, tools and capacities, and mucous membrane and gastrointestinal
promoting climate-resilient decisions, issues.
policies and investments across key  Long-term exposure could drastically
sectors in the beneficiary countries. affect the central nervous system and
 The Project is implemented by the Asian lead to other related problems, like
Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) peripheral neuropathy.
and the Regional Integrated Multi-  It could also lead to cancer and
Hazard Early Warning System for Africa depression in some cases, though there
and Asia (RIMES), and supported by the is not much evidence to indicate there
World Bank. may be an association between styrene
 The Project will build resilience to exposure and an increased risk of
climate threats and disasters by sharing leukaemia.
regional data and knowledge.  Styrene is included in the Schedule of
 It will fund a public domain platform, the Manufacture, Storage and Import of
known as the Regional Resilience Data Hazardous Chemical Rules, 1989. The
and Analytics Service, with information Rules lay down strict norms on how it
about weather hazards, climate should be handled and stored.
variability and sector-specific data to
help the policymakers assess climate 31. Answer: (c)
risks.
Explanation:
 It will also assess climate impacts in
 The Bihar Government is setting up
districts across Bangladesh, Nepal
India’s first observatory (Vikramshila
and Pakistan to support agriculture,
Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary - VGDS)
livestock, water and transport.
for the Gangetic Dolphin in Bhagalpur
district.
30. Answer: (c)
 The structural design of the observatory
Explanation: is such that it will promote eco-tourism.
 In 2020, gas leak at the LG Polymers It will give people an incentive to visit
Pvt. Ltd.’s Visakhapatnam plant will the place and see dolphins in the
have severe long-term ecological effects. sanctuary without disturbing them.
 The styrene gas leak resulted in impacts  The observatory is being built on the
on the health of the people who lived in Sultanganj-Aguwani Ghat Bridge over
5 villages near the plant and posed a the Ganga.
risk to the flora and fauna as well.  The annual Ganges River Dolphin
 It also resulted in the drying up of the census was undertaken by the World
trees in the vicinity of the tank from Wide Fund for Nature- India, in
where the gas leaked. collaboration with the Uttar Pradesh
 Styrene is a flammable liquid that is Forest Department, along about 250
used in the manufacturing of km. long riverine stretch of the Upper

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 13

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Ganga river basin, between the this unprecedented disruption and


Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary and the beyond.
Narora Ramsar site.  It brings together more than 140
 The tandem boat survey method members from the UN family, civil
replaced the previous direct counting society, academia and the private sector
method, in order to provide a more to ensure that ‘LearningNeverStops’.
accurate count of the endangered  It is an open partnership that
species. includes the international
 In the ‘tandem boat survey’ method, the organizations (ILO, UNICEF, WB
officials use 2 inflated boats which move among others), the private sector
in tandem to count the dolphins. After partners (Facebook, Google) and
collating the data, statistical tools are philanthropic and non-profit
employed to arrive at the final count. organizations.
 The Gangetic Dolphin is India’s national  Coalition members rally around three
aquatic animal found in parts of the flagships, namely connectivity, teachers
Ganges, Meghna and Brahmaputra and gender, as well as support specific
river systems in India, Nepal and causes, including the educational
Bangladesh. recovery following the deadly explosion
 They are locally known as Susu, which in Beirut.
refers to the noise the dolphin is said to  All Coalition members are encouraged
make when it breathes. to pledge for the protection of the
 They can be an indicator of the health learners’ personal information, privacy
of the freshwater ecosystem, as they and security.
can only live in freshwater.
 IUCN Red List: Endangered. 33. Answer: (d)
 The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Explanation:
Schedule I.  Dholavira in Gujarat is a site of an
 CITES: Appendix I. ancient metropolitan town of the
 Threats: Declining water level, climate Harappan period.
change, poaching and increase in  Dholavira was the largest port-town of
pollution level. the Harappans and is the second
largest Harappan site located within the
present borders of India.
32. Answer: (b)
Explanation:  Water harvesting system and water
reservoir are found in the Dholavira
 More than 1.5 billion students and
site.
youth across the planet are or have
 This well-planned urban settlement
been affected by school and university
flourished for about 1,500 years from
closures due to the COVID-19
pandemic. about 5,000 to 3,450 years before the
present. Archaeological excavations
 The Global Education Coalition,
show that the township comprised of 3
launched by the United Nations
parts of the castle, the middle town and
Educational, Scientific and Cultural
the lower town.
Organization (UNESCO), is a platform
for collaboration and exchange to  A unique feature of Dholavira is the
presence of a 14-18 metre thick wall,
protect the right to education during
apparently built as a protective
measure.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 14

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 Intriguingly, walls of such thickness are  The organization was involved in


not found even in the historic times lobbying the Parliament to pass new
when the conflicts have been more laws to protect women in India and also
common and the weapons have become to help expand voting rights.
increasingly more destructive.  A central office for the AIWC was set up
 The soil samples have been found to in 1946. Also, in 1946, a "Skippo
contain the fossils of ‘foraminifera’ Committee" was set up to help provide
microscopic organisms that build the villages with medical treatment.
calcareous shells and live only in  Amrit Kaur was the first woman in
seawater. independent India who joined the
 This presence of shells of marine Cabinet as the Health Minister and
organisms in the soil strongly suggests remained in that position for 10 years.
an episodic deposition of marine  Born into the Kapurthala royal family,
sediments in the area. This deposition she was educated in Oxford and
could have occurred as a result of a returned to India in 1918 and began to
massive tsunami. be drawn towards the work and
teachings of M.K. Gandhi.
34. Answer: (c)
Explanation: 35. Answer: (c)
 The All India Women's Conference Explanation:
(AIWC) was founded in 1927 in Poona  Chak-Hao, scented glutinous rice,
in order to promote women and popularly known as Black Rice, which
children's education and social is cultivated in Manipur since centuries
welfare. and popular to people apart from the
 Margaret Cousins had called for the state, has got the GI (Geographical
creation of an organization as early as Indications) registration after almost a
late 1925 by writing to other women's year-long battle for registration
groups and to friends to come together competing with other states of India.
to discuss education for women.  Chak-Hao is aromatic rice cultivated in
 The first meeting held in Poona saw Manipur.
2,000 attendees who met at the  Well known candy, 'Kovilpatti Kadalai
Fergusson College Hall of the Poona Mittai', produced in the Kovilpatti
University. region of Tamil Nadu, was recently
 Most of the attendees were observers, given the GI tag.
but others were women that the  Kovilpatti Kadalai Mittai is a candy
Cousins had brought together to help made of peanuts held together with
create the AIWC. glistening syrup and topped with wisps
 Margaret Cousins and Amrit Kaur were of grated coconut dyed pink, green and
the founding members of the AIWC. yellow.
 One of the first secretaries of the AIWC  It is made using all-natural ingredients,
was Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay. such as the traditional and special
 The AIWC was registered in 1930 under ‘vellam’ (jaggery), and groundnuts and
the Societies Registration Act of 1860. water from the river Thamirabarani is
 The AIWC created a journal, Roshni, in used in the production, which enhances
the taste naturally.
1941, which was published in both
English and Hindi.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 15

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 It is manufactured in Kovilpatti and  The Telia fabrics were used by the


adjacent towns and villages in nobles (Nizam’s dynasty) in Hyderabad.
Thoothukudi district.  The fabric was exported to the Persian
 It is produced by using both Gulf, Middle East, Aden, East Africa,
groundnuts and jaggery (organic Singapore and Burma.
jaggery), in carefully selected quantities
from selected specific locations in Tamil 36. Answer: (a)
Nadu.
Explanation:
 Jharkhand’s Sohrai Khovar painting
The procedure for the Amendment of the
has been given the Geographical
Constitution, as laid down in Article 368, is
Indication (GI) tag.
as follows:
 The Sohrai Khovar painting is a
 An Amendment of the Constitution can
traditional and ritualistic mural art. A
be initiated only by the introduction of a
mural is any piece of artwork painted or
Bill for the purpose in either House of
applied directly on a wall, ceiling or
the Parliament and not in the State
other permanent surfaces.
Legislatures.
 It is being practised by the local tribal
 The Bill can be introduced either by a
women during local harvest and
minister or by a private member and
marriage seasons, using local, naturally does not require the prior permission
available soils of different colours in the of the President.
area of Hazaribagh district of
 The Bill must be passed in each House
Jharkhand.
by a special majority, i.e., a majority of
 Style features a profusion of lines, dots,
the total membership of the House and
animal figures and plants, often
a majority of two-thirds of the members
representing religious iconography, i.e.,
of the House present and voting.
visual images and symbols.
 Each House must pass the Bill
 It has been painted on the walls of
separately. In case of a disagreement
important public places in Jharkhand,
between the two Houses, there is no
such as the Birsa Munda Airport in
provision for holding a joint sitting of
Ranchi.
the two Houses for the purpose of
 Telangana’s Telia Rumal has been deliberation and passage of the Bill.
given the Geographical Indication  If the Bill seeks to amend the federal
(GI) tag.
provisions of the Constitution, it must
 Telia Rumal cloth involves intricate also be ratified by the Legislatures of
handmade work with cotton loom half of the states by a simple majority,
displaying a variety of designs and i.e., a majority of the members of the
motifs in 3 particular colours – red, House present and voting.
black and white.
 After duly passed by both the Houses of
 It is an art of Ikkat tradition using the Parliament and ratified by the State
natural vegetable dyes. Ikkat is a dyeing Legislatures, where necessary, the Bill
technique used to pattern textiles. is presented to the President for assent.
 Telia Rumal can only be created using  The President must give his assent to
the traditional handloom process and the Bill. He can neither withhold his
not by any other mechanical means as assent to the Bill nor return the Bill
otherwise, the very quality of the Rumal for reconsideration of the Parliament.
would be lost.
 After the President’s assent, the Bill
becomes an Act (i.e., a Constitutional

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 16

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Amendment Act) and the Constitution The centre had amended the Right to
stands amended in accordance with the Information Act, 2005, ending the parity
terms of the Act. enjoyed by the Chief Information
Commissioner and the Information
Commissioners with the Chief Election
37. Answer: (b)
Commissioner and the Election
Explanation:
Commissioners on terms and conditions of
The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution their service and tenure.
provides for the administration of the
tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, 39. Answer: (b)
Tripura and Mizoram, to safeguard the
Explanation:
rights of the tribal population in these
Article 130 - The Seat of the Supreme
states.
Court (SC): The Supreme Court shall sit in
 This special provision is provided Delhi or in such other place or places, as
under Article 244(2) and Article the Chief Justice of India may, with the
275(1) of the Constitution. approval of the President, from time to
 The Sixth Schedule provides for time, appoint.
autonomy in the administration of these The original jurisdiction of the SC does
areas through the Autonomous District not include river water dispute. Further,
Councils (ADCs). Article 262 (2) also bars the SC from
 These Councils are empowered to make hearing inter-state river-water dispute,
laws in respect of the areas under their till the matter is heard by a Tribunal
jurisdiction, which cover the land, constituted under the Inter-State River
Water Dispute Act, 1956.
forest, cultivation, inheritance,
indigenous customs and traditions of Article 131 - The original jurisdiction of
the tribals, and also to collect land the Supreme Court: Subject to the
revenues and certain other taxes. provisions of this Constitution, the SC
shall, to the exclusion of any other court,
have original jurisdiction in any dispute –
38. Answer: (a) (a) between the Government of India and
Explanation: one or more states; or (b) between the
The Central Information Commission Government of India and any state or
consists of a Chief Information states on one side and one or more other
Commissioner and not more than 10 states on the other; or (c) between two or
Information Commissioners. The more states.
Commission, when constituted initially, Article 262 – Adjudication of disputes
had 5 Commissioners, including the Chief relating to waters of inter-state rivers or
Information Commissioner. river valleys: Notwithstanding anything in
this Constitution, the Parliament may by
The Chief Information Commissioner is
law provide that neither the SC nor any
appointed by the
other court shall exercise jurisdiction in
President, on the recommendation of a respect of any such dispute or complaint as
Committee consisting of the Prime Minister is referred to in clause (1).
as the Chairperson.
Under the original rules, the CIC had a
40. Answer: (a)
fixed tenure of 5 years or till he turned 65,
Explanation:
whichever came earlier. This changed in
2019, when the government reduced the The Prevention of Corruption (Amendment)
fixed tenure from 5 years to 3. Act, 2018, did help India to improve its
ranking from 95 in 2011 to 40 in 2020.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 17

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However, the Corruption Perceptions constituents will be the Indian private


Index is released by Transparency entities and the state governments.
International. The SPVs under the Scheme will be
registered under the Companies Act, 2013,
41. Answer: (c) and shall also operate and maintain all
Explanation: assets under the Scheme, in a self-
sustainable manner by collecting user
‘Right to a nationality’ and ‘Right to own
charges. The equipment/systems tested
property’ cannot be said to be part of the
will be certified as per appropriate
Fundamental Rights.
accreditation.
Equality in dignity and rights – Article 14.
While majority of the test facilities are
Right to life, liberty and security of person –
expected to come up in the two Defence
Article 21.
Industrial Corridors (DICs), the Scheme is
Right to freedom of peaceful assembly and not limited to setting up the test
association – Article 19(1)(b). facilities in the DICs only.
Right to a nationality – The part of
Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11) is not part of
43. Answer: (d)
the Fundamental Rights.
Explanation:
Right to own property – The Right to
The National Investment and Infrastructure
Property was removed from Article 19 by
Fund Limited (NIIFL) is a collaborative
the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment)
investment platform for international and
Act, 1978.
Indian investors, anchored by the
Freedom of thought, conscience and
Government of India.
religion – Articles 25 and 26.
The NIIFL invests across asset classes,
such as infrastructure, private equity and
42. Answer: (a) other diversified sectors in India, with the
Explanation: objective to generate attractive risk-
In order to give a boost to domestic defence adjusted returns for its investors. The
and aerospace manufacturing, the Defence NIIFL thinks long-term, believes in
Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS) has generating returns through efficiently
been launched with an outlay of Rs. 400 operating its investments through
crore. economic cycles and is committed to
The Scheme would run for the duration of sustainable investing principles.
5 years and envisages to setup 6 to 8 new The NIIFL manages over USD 4.4 billion of
test facilities in partnership with the equity capital commitments across its three
private industry. funds – Master Fund; Fund of Funds; and
This will facilitate indigenous defence Strategic Opportunities Fund, each with its
production, consequently reduce imports of distinct investment strategy.
military equipment and help make the NIIF Master Fund primarily invests in
country self-reliant. operating assets in core infrastructure
The projects under the Scheme will be sectors, such as transportation and energy.
provided with up to 75% government NIIF Fund of Funds invests in funds
funding in the form of ‘Grant-in-Aid’. managed by best-in-class fund managers,
The remaining 25% of the project cost focused on some of the most dynamic
will have to be borne by the Special sectors in India, such as climate
Purpose Vehicle (SPV) whose infrastructure, middle-income and

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 18

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affordable housing, digital consumer Initiative, it builds on its predecessor, the


platforms and other allied sectors. Energy Architecture Performance Index.
NIIF Strategic Opportunities Fund is a The ETI does not only benchmark the
private equity fund which aims to build countries on their current energy system
scalable businesses across a range of performance, but also provides a forward
opportunity long, but capital short sectors. looking lens as it measures their readiness
for the energy transition.
44. Answer: (b) Note: Sweden remains on the top on this
annual list compiled by the Geneva-based
Explanation:
World Economic Forum (WEF) and is
The Eastern Waterways Connectivity
followed by Switzerland and Norway in the
Transport Grid (EWaCTG) Project aims to
top 3, as per its latest report.
provide seamless connectivity between
The WEF said that energy systems have
National Waterway-1 (NW-1) and NW-2,
globally become less affordable and less
through the Indo-Bangladesh Protocol (IBP)
environmentally sustainable than they were
routes.
5 years ago, though access to energy has
It will develop an economic corridor of
improved with less than 1 billion now living
4,200 km of waterways and coastal
without access to electricity.
shipping for Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
It said that India is amongst the countries
Jharkhand, West Bengal and the North-
with high pollution levels and has a
Eastern States.
relatively high CO2 intensity in its energy
The aim is to pave the way for the regional
system.
integration of 5 countries – India, Nepal,
China is ranked even lower than India at
Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar – in the
82nd position, though it ranks very high at
South Asian region.
seventh place in the world for regulation
India will seek a technical assistance
and political commitment.
grant of $70 million from the World
Despite its low ranking, India is the second
Bank to build a transport connectivity grid
best in the BRICS block of emerging
linking the waterways in the eastern region
economies, with Brazil being the best at
with its South Asian neighbours.
46th place globally. However, India is the
only amongst the five economies to improve
45. Answer: (b) its rank since last year.
Explanation:
The Energy Transition Index (ETI), a 46. Answer: (a)
composite score of 40 indicators,
Explanation:
benchmarks 115 countries on the current
The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides
performance of their energy system and
rapid concessional financial assistance
their readiness for transition to a secure,
with limited conditionality to the low-
sustainable, affordable and inclusive future
income countries (LICs) facing an urgent
energy system.
balance of payments need.
The ETI is a fact based ranking, intended to
The RCF was created under the Poverty
enable the policy makers and businesses to
Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part
plot the course for a successful energy
of a broader reform to make the Fund’s
transition.
financial support more flexible and better
The benchmarking of energy systems is
tailored to the diverse needs of the LICs,
carried out annually across the countries.
including in times of crisis.
Part of the World Economic Forum’s
Fostering Effective Energy Transition

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 19

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The RCF places emphasis on the country’s Government of India dated securities.
poverty reduction and growth objectives. Eligible investors can invest in specified
Financing under the RCF carries a zero government securities without being
interest rate, has a grace period of 5½ subject to any investment ceilings. This
years and a final maturity of 10 years. scheme shall operate along with the two
It is a tool of the IMF (The International existing routes, viz., the Medium Term
Monetary Fund). Framework (MTF) and the Voluntary
Retention Route (VRR).
Investments by the eligible investors
47. Answer: (b)
under the route shall be governed by
Explanation:
other applicable provisions of the
Under the Long-Term Repo Operation Foreign Exchange Management Act,
(LTRO), the RBI provides longer term 1999 (FEMA), and the rules, regulations
(one- to three-year) loans to the banks at and directions issued thereunder by the
the prevailing repo rate. RBI from time to time, unless otherwise
As the banks get long-term funds at lower specified.
rates, their cost of funds falls. In turn, they
reduce interest rates for the borrowers.
50. Answer: (b)
The LTRO helps the RBI ensure that the
Explanation:
banks reduce their marginal cost of funds-
 Kashmir, or the north-western
based lending rate, without reducing policy
rates. Himalayas, comprises a series of
ranges, such as the Karakoram,
Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal. The
48. Answer: (c)
north-eastern part of the Kashmir
Explanation: Himalayas is a cold desert, which lies
A swap ratio is a rate that an acquiring between the Greater Himalayas and the
company will offer its own shares in Karakoram ranges.
exchange for the target company's shares  Between the Great Himalayas and the
during a merger or acquisition. Pir Panjal range, lie the world-famous
The swap ratio is determined through a valley of Kashmir and the famous Dal
variety of factors, such as debt levels, Lake.
dividends paid, earnings per share and  Important glaciers of South Asia, such
profits. as the Baltoro and Siachen, are also
The goal of the swap ratio is to ensure that found in this region.
the shareholders are not negatively  The Kashmir Himalayas are also
impacted by the merger and maintain the
famous for Karewa formations, which
same value as before.
are useful for the cultivation of Zafran,
The swap ratio can also be applied to a a local variety of saffron.
debt/equity swap.
 Some of the important passes of the
region are Zoji La on the Great
49. Answer: (b) Himalayas, Banihal on the Pir Panjal,
Explanation: Photu La on the Zaskar and Khardung
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in La on the Ladakh range.
consultation with the Government of India,  The important fresh water lakes, such
introduces a separate channel, called the as Dal and Wular, and salt water lakes,
‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR), to enable the such as Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri,
non-residents to invest in specified are also located in this region.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 20

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 This region is drained by the Indus  It is a classic example of the relict


River and its tributaries, such as the mountains, which are highly denuded
Jhelum and the Chenab. and form discontinuous ranges.
 The Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas  The extension of the Peninsular Plateau
are flanked by the Nepal Himalayas in can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the
the west and the Bhutan Himalayas in west, where it has been covered by the
the east. longitudinal sand ridges and crescent-
 It is relatively small, but is the most shaped sand dunes, called barchans.
significant part of the Himalayas.  This region has undergone
Known for its fast-flowing rivers, such metamorphic processes in its geological
as Tista, it is a region of high mountain history, which can be corroborated by
peaks, like Kanchenjunga (Kanchengiri) the presence of the metamorphic rocks,
and deep valleys. such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc.
 The higher reaches of this region are  The part of the Peninsular Plateau lying
inhabited by the Lepcha tribes, while to the north of the Narmada river,
the southern part, particularly the covering a major area of the Malwa
Darjeeling Himalayas, has a mixed Plateau, is known as the 'Central
population of Nepalis, Bengalis and Highlands'.
tribals from Central India.  Its 3 characteristics are:
 The British, taking advantage of the (i) They stretch from the north-west
physical conditions, such as moderate with the Aravalli, further merging
slope, thick soil cover with high organic with the sandy and rocky desert of
content, well distributed rainfall Rajasthan.
throughout the year and mild winters, (ii) They are wider in the west, but
introduced tea plantations in this narrower in the east.
region.
(iii) The eastward extension of this
 As compared to other sections of the plateau is locally known as
Himalayas, these, along with the 'Bundelkhand' and 'Baghelkhand'.
Arunachal Himalayas, are conspicuous The Chotanagpur Plateau' is the
by the absence of the Shiwalik eastern-most part of this plateau,
formations. which is drained by river Damodar.
 In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar  The general elevation of the Central
formations’ are important, which have Highlands ranges between 700-1,000 m
also been used for the development of above the mean sea level and it slopes
the tea gardens. towards the north and north-eastern
directions.
51. Answer: (b)  Most of the tributaries of river Yamuna
Explanation: have their origin in the Vindhyan and
 The Central Highlands are bounded the Kaimur ranges. Banas is the only
to the west by the Aravalli range. The significant tributary of river Chambal
Satpura range is formed by a series of that originates from the Aravalli in the
scarped plateaus on the south, west.
generally at an elevation varying  An eastern extension of the Central
between 600-900 m above the mean sea Highlands is formed by the Rajmahal
level. hills, to the south of which lies a large
 This forms the northern-most boundary reserve of mineral resources in the
of the Deccan Plateau. Chotanagpur Plateau.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 21

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 The Indian Desert lies in the north-west  When the rivers originate from a hill
of the Aravalli hills. and flow in all directions, the
 It is a land of undulating topography drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’.
dotted with longitudinal dunes and The rivers originating from the
barchans. This region receives low Amarkantak range present a good
rainfall below 150 mm per year, hence, example of it.
it has arid climate with low vegetation  The Himalayan drainage system has
cover. evolved through a long geological
 It is because of these characteristic history. It mainly includes the Ganga,
features that this is also known as the Indus and the Brahmaputra river
Marusthali. basins.
 The underlying rock structure of the  Since these are fed both by melting of
desert is an extension of the Peninsular snow and precipitation, the rivers of
Plateau, yet due to extreme arid this system are perennial.
conditions, its surface features have  These rivers pass through the giant
been carved by physical weathering and gorges, carved out by the erosional
wind actions. activity, carried on simultaneously with
 Some of the well pronounced desert the uplift of the Himalayas. Besides
land features present here are deep gorges, these rivers also form V-
mushroom rocks, shifting dunes and shaped valleys, rapids and waterfalls in
oasis (mostly in its southern part). their mountainous course.
 On the basis of the orientation, the  While entering the plains, they form
desert can be divided into two parts: the depositional features, like flat valleys,
northern part is sloping towards Sindh ox-bow lakes, flood plains, braided
and the southern towards the Rann of channels and deltas near the river
Kachchh. mouth. In the Himalayan reaches, the
 Most of the rivers in this region are course of these rivers is highly tortuous,
ephemeral. The Luni River, flowing in but over the plains they display a strong
meandering tendency and shift their
the southern part of the desert, is of
courses frequently.
some significance.
 The Indus system is one of the largest
 Low precipitation and high evaporation
make it a water deficit region. There are river basins of the world. The Indus,
also known as the Sindhu, is the
some streams which disappear after
western-most of the Himalayan Rivers
flowing for some distance and present a
in India.
typical case of inland drainage by
joining a lake or playa.  It originates from a glacier near Bokhar
Chu, in the Tibetan region in the
 The lakes and the playas have brackish
water, which is the main source of Kailash Mountain range. In Tibet, it is
obtaining salt. known as ‘Singi Khamban, or Lion’s
Mouth’.
 After flowing in the north-west
52. Answer: (c)
direction, between the Ladakh and
Explanation:
Zaskar ranges, it passes through
 The drainage pattern resembling the Ladakh and Baltistan. It cuts across the
branches of a tree is known as Ladakh range, forming a spectacular
“dendritic”, the examples of which are gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and
the rivers of the northern plain. Kashmir.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 22

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 The river flows southwards and receives  The river emerges from the foothills
‘Panjnad’ a little above Mithankot. The under the name of Siang or Dihang. It
Panjnad is the name given to the 5 enters India west of Sadiya town in
rivers of Punjab, viz., the Sutlej, the Arunachal Pradesh.
Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the  Flowing south-west, it receives its main
Jhelum. left bank tributaries, viz., Dibang or
 The Ganga is the most important river Sikang and Lohit. Thereafter, it is
of India, both from the point of view of known as the Brahmaputra.
its basin and cultural significance. It  The Brahmaputra receives numerous
rises in the Gangotri glacier, near tributaries in its 750 km long journey
Gaumukh, in the Uttarkashi district of through the Assam valley.
Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the  Its major left bank tributaries are the
Bhagirathi.
Burhi Dihing and Dhansari (South),
 It cuts through the Central and the whereas the important right bank
Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges. At tributaries are the Subansiri, Kameng,
Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Manas and Sankosh. The Subansiri,
Alaknanda. Hereafter, it is known as which has its origin in Tibet, is an
the Ganga. antecedent river.
 The Ganga river system is the largest in
India, having a number of perennial and 53. Answer: (b)
non-perennial rivers, originating in the
Explanation:
Himalayas in the north and the
 The onset of the south-west monsoon is
Peninsula in the south, respectively.
a seasonal event over the Indian sub-
 The Son is its major right bank
continent.
tributary.
 There are several factors that influence
 The important left bank tributaries are
the onset, as well as the progress of
the Ramganga, the Gomati, the
monsoon. The onset of monsoon needs
Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi and
triggers in the form of a variety of
the Mahananda. The river finally
weather systems. These weather
discharges itself into the Bay of Bengal
systems are seen in the monsoons
near the Sagar Island.
season, which are mostly ocean borne
 The Brahmaputra, one of the largest to activate the monsoon surge.
rivers of the world, has its origin in the
 The low-pressure area, or a
Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash
depression, in the Bay of Bengal,
range, near the Mansarovar Lake.
which forms in the Bay during the last
 From here, it traverses eastward few days of May or the beginning of
longitudinally for a distance of nearly June.
1,200 km in a dry and flat region of
 Permanent high-pressure cell in the
southern Tibet, where it is known as the
South Indian Ocean (east to north-east
Tsangpo, which means ‘the purifier.’
of Madagascar in summer). The
 The Rango Tsangpo is the major right presence of the high-pressure area, east
bank tributary of this river in Tibet. It of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S
emerges as a turbulent and dynamic over the Indian Ocean. The intensity
river after carving out a deep gorge in and position of this high-pressure area
the Central Himalayas near Namcha affect the Indian monsoon.
Barwa (7,755 m).
 The Tibetan Plateau gets intensely
heated during summer, which results in

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 23

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strong vertical air currents and the  The Reserve Tranches that the
formation of low pressure over the countries hold with the IMF are
Plateau at about 9 km above the sea considered their facilities of first resort,
level. meaning they will tap into them before
 The movement of the westerly jet stream seeking a Formal Credit Tranche that
to the north of the Himalayas and the charges interest.
presence of the tropical easterly jet
stream over the Indian Peninsula 55. Answer: (b)
during summer. Explanation:
 Tropical Easterly Jet (African Easterly The Central Consumer Protection
Jet). Authority (CCPA) has been constituted
 Southern Oscillation (SO): Normally, under the Consumer Protection Act,
when the tropical eastern south Pacific 2019. The Act replaced the Consumer
Ocean experiences high pressure, the Protection Act, 1986, and seeks to widen its
tropical eastern Indian Ocean scope in addressing consumer concerns.
experiences low pressure. But in certain The CCPA aims to protect the rights of the
years, there is a reversal in the pressure consumers by cracking down on unfair
conditions and the eastern Pacific has trade practices, and false and misleading
lower pressure in comparison to the advertisements that are detrimental to the
eastern Indian Ocean. This periodic interests of the public and the consumers.
change in pressure conditions is known The CCPA will have the powers to inquire
as the Southern Oscillation. or investigate into matters relating to
 Factors responsible for north-east violations of consumer rights or unfair
monsoon formation: trade practices suo motu, or on a
o Formation and strengthening of complaint received, or on a direction from
high-pressure cells over the Tibetan the Central Government.
Plateau and the Siberian Plateau in
winter. 56. Answer: (d)
o Westward migration and subsequent Explanation:
weakening of high-pressure cells in
The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee
the Southern Indian Ocean.
Scheme (ECLGS), from the Government of
 Migration of the ITCZ (The Inter India (GOI), provides 100% guarantee
Tropical Convergence Zone) to the coverage to the banks and the NBFCs to
south of India. enable them to provide emergency credit
facilities to eligible borrowers to meet their
54. Answer: (c) working capital requirements.
Explanation: The Scheme comes with a pre-approved
 The Reserve Tranche is a segment of an credit sanction of 20% of the borrower’s
International Monetary Fund (IMF) total outstanding credit of up to Rs. 50
member country’s quota that is crore as at February, 2020, and annual
accessible without fees or economic turnover of up to Rs. 250 crore in financial
reform conditions. year 2019-20, without any requirement of
providing additional collateral.
 Initially, member nations’ Reserve
The tenor of the loans provided would be 4
Tranches are 25% of their quota, but
years from the date of disbursement,
this position can change according to
including a moratorium period of one year.
any lending that the IMF does with its
In addition to the MSMEs, individuals,
holdings of the member’s currency.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 24

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such as doctors, chartered accountants, iconography, depicting gods and goddesses,


lawyers, among others, are also eligible to wars and victories, dance and music,
take loans for professional purposes. hunting, games, processions, and the
Note: As part of the Aatma Nirbhar Bharat dress, jewelry, and daily life of the people
reforms, the GOI extended the Scheme and scenes from the Ramayana,
until March, 2021, and included 26 Mahabharata and the Bhagavatham.
stressed (including aviation, power, The temples were built of a soft chlorite-
construction, roads and real estate, as schist stone, quarried nearby, that was
identified by the K.V. Kamath Committee) especially soft when first quarried and
and healthcare sectors as beneficiaries hardened on contact with air. Other
under the Scheme. smaller temples, shrines and Mantapa dot
Companies with outstanding dues of Rs. the town. Mantapas that are pavilions or
50-200 crore as at February, 2020, are pillared halls of all sizes are a typical
eligible to apply. Tenor of the additional feature and occurred with temples.
credit will be 5 years, including one-year Kalyani or stepped wells are commonly
moratorium. The Scheme, aimed at found in the Hoysala sacred ensembles.
providing relief to the Indian economy, will Open Mantapas, present around the water
assist the MSMEs to control liquidity crisis, bodies, provided shelter to the visitors.
generate employment opportunities and A Pushkarani or well was often located
revive their businesses. within the temple premises and a tank or
lake adjacent to the temple.
57. Answer: (d) The towns were planned on a cosmic
Explanation: diagram, with main axes in the cardinal
The most remarkable architectural directions and the main temple at the
achievement of the Hoysalas is the centre of the town at the intersection of the
numerous intricately carved stone temples axes.
in star-shaped plans. The architecture of Note: The sacred ensembles of the
the Hoysalas is a hybrid of the Nagara style Hoysalas at Belur and Halebid are the
of temple architecture of north India and finest, most exquisite and most
the Dravidian style from the south. representative examples of the artistic
The temples were built on platforms and genius and cultural accomplishments of
had a star-shaped plan. A Navaranga was the Hoysalas remaining today.
usually included as a place for the people
to gather and participate in cultural 58. Answer: (d)
programmes, such as music and dance Explanation:
performances, story-telling from mythology The objective of the National River
and religious discourses. Visual elements, Conservation Plan (NRCP) is to improve the
such as a gently curving bell shaped Chajja water quality of the rivers, which are the
and lathe turned stone pillars with circular major water sources in the country,
rings carved on them are typical stylistic through the implementation of the
elements of the Hoysala architecture. Rich pollution abatement works.
sculptural decoration is a mark of the
The National River Conservation
highest artistic achievement of the
Directorate (NRCD), in the Ministry of
Hoysalas.
Environment, Forest and Climate Change,
The exterior walls of the numerous temples is implementing the Centrally Sponsored
were intricately decorated with stone Schemes of National River Conservation
sculptures and carving. These sculptures Plan (NRCP) and National Plan for
are rich with religious and cultural

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 25

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Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA) Aids and Appliances (ADIP) Scheme,


for the conservation of rivers, lakes and through authorized agencies:
wetlands in the country. 1. He/she should be an Indian citizen of
The NRCD is only providing financial any age.
assistance under the National River 2. Should be certified by a Registered
Conservation Plan to the state Medical Practitioner that he/she is
governments/local bodies to set up disabled and fit to use the prescribed
infrastructure for pollution abatement of aid/appliance. Holds a 40%
the rivers in identified polluted river Disablement Certificate.
stretches, based on the proposals received
3. Person who is employed/self-employed
from the state governments/local bodies.
or getting pension and whose monthly
The work relating to Ganga and its
income from all sources does not exceed
tributaries, along with NMCG (National
Rs. 20,000/- per month.
Mission for Clean Ganga) /NGRBA
(National Ganga River Basin Authority), has 4. In case of dependents, the income of
been transferred to the Ministry of Jal parents/guardians should not exceed
Shakti (erstwhile the Ministry of Water Rs. 20,000/- per month.
Resources, River Development and Ganga 5. Persons who have not received
Rejuvenation). assistance from the government, local
Note: The Central Government started the bodies and Non-Official Organizations
river pollution abatement programme with during the last 3 years for the same
the launching of the Ganga Action Plan purpose. However, for children below 12
(GAP-I) in 1985. Subsequently, the GAP years of age, this limit would be 1 year.
Phase II was launched in 1993 for pollution Note: The Assistance to Disabled Persons
abatement of river Yamuna and Gomati, for Purchase/Fitting of Aids and Appliances
major tributaries of river Ganga. Scheme is in operation since 1981, with the
The river pollution abatement programme main objective to assist the needy disabled
was further expanded to include other persons in procuring durable, sophisticated
major rivers of the country in 1995 under and scientifically manufactured, modern,
the aegis of the National River Conservation standard aids and appliances that can
Plan (NRCP). promote their physical, social and
psychological rehabilitation by reducing the
Finally, in1996, GAP Phase II was also
effects of disabilities and enhance their
merged with the NRCP and all projects for
economic potential.
river cleaning in the country were brought
under one umbrella scheme of the NRCP. The aids and appliances supplied under the
Scheme must have due certification. The
The objective of the NRCP is to reduce the
scheme also envisages conduct of corrective
pollution load in the rivers through
surgeries, wherever required, before
implementation of various pollution
providing an assistive device. Under the
abatement works, thereby improving their
Scheme, grants-in-aid are released to
water quality.
various implementing agencies (Artificial
Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India
59. Answer: (d) (ALIMCO) / National Institutes/Composite
Explanation: Regional Centres / District Disability
A person with disabilities fulfilling the Rehabilitation Centres / State Handicapped
following conditions would be eligible for Development Corporations / NGOs, etc.) for
assistance under the Assistance to purchase and distribution of aids and
Disabled Persons for Purchase/Fitting of assistive devices.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 26

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60. Answer: (d)  Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua,


Explanation: amla, semul, kusum and sandalwood
 Tropical evergreen forests are found in etc., are the main species of these
the western slopes of the Western forests.
Ghats, hills of the north-eastern region  Dry deciduous forests cover vast areas
and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. of the country, where rainfall ranges
 They are found in warm and humid between 70 -100 cm.
areas with an annual precipitation of  On the wetter margins, it has a
over 200 cm and mean annual transition to the moist deciduous, while
temperature above 22 degrees C. on the drier margins to the thorn
 Tropical evergreen forests are well forests.
stratified, with layers closer to the  These forests are found in the rainier
ground and are covered with shrubs areas of the Peninsula and the plains of
and creepers, with short-structured Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
trees followed by tall variety of trees.  In the higher rainfall regions of the
 In these forests, trees reach great Peninsular Plateau and the northern
heights of upto 60 m or above. There is Indian plain, these forests have a
no definite time for trees to shed their parkland landscape with open stretches
leaves, flowering and fruition. As such in which teak and other trees
these forests appear green all the year interspersed with patches of grass are
round. common.
 Species found in these forests include  As the dry season begins, the trees shed
rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc. their leaves completely and the forest
 The semi evergreen forests are found in appears like vast grassland with naked
the less rainy parts of these regions. trees all around.

 Such forests have a mixture of  Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair,


evergreen and moist deciduous trees. axlewood, etc., are the common trees of
these forests.
 The undergrowing climbers provide an
evergreen character to these forests.  In the western and southern parts of
Main species are white cedar, hollock Rajasthan, vegetation cover is very
and kail. scanty, due to low rainfall and
overgrazing.
 Tropical deciduous forests are the most
widespread forests in India. They are
also called the monsoon forests. 61. Answer: (d)
 They spread over the regions which Explanation:
receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. On  The terrestrial planets were formed in
the basis of the availability of water, close vicinity of the parent star, where it
these forests are further divided into was too warm for gases to condense to
moist and dry deciduous. solid particles. Jovian planets were
 The moist deciduous forests are more formed at quite a distant location.
pronounced in the regions which record  The solar wind was most intense nearer
rainfall between 100-200 cm. the Sun; so, it blew off lots of gas and
 These forests are found in the north- dust from the terrestrial planets. The
eastern states along the foothills of the solar winds were not all that intense to
Himalayas, eastern slopes of the cause similar removal of gases from the
Western Ghats and Odisha. Jovian planets.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 27

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 The terrestrial planets are smaller and restrict and distort trade. It states that the
their lower gravity could not hold the WTO members may not apply any measure
escaping gases. that discriminates against foreign products
 Out of the 8 planets, Mercury, Venus, or that leads to quantitative restrictions,
Earth and Mars are called as the inner both of which violate the basic WTO
planets, as they lie between the Sun principles. A list of prohibited TRIMS, such
and the belt of asteroids. The other 4 as local content requirements, is part of the
planets are called the outer planets. Agreement. The TRIMS Committee
monitors the operation and implementation
 Alternatively, the first four are called
of the Agreement and allows the members
terrestrial, meaning Earth-like, as they
the opportunity to consult on any relevant
are made up of rocks and metals, and
matters.
have relatively high densities.
 They are composed mainly of silicates
and metals. 63. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The rest 4 are called Jovian or Gas
Giant planets. The National Commission for Scheduled
Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs)
 Jovian means Jupiter-like. Most of
came into being consequent upon passing
them are much larger than the
of the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act
terrestrial planets and have thick
of 1990.
atmosphere, mostly of helium and
hydrogen. The Commission was established under
Article 338 of the Constitution with the
 Asteroids are the remnants of planetary
objective of monitoring all the safeguards
formation that circle the Sun in a zone
provided for the SCs and the STs under the
lying between Mars and Jupiter.
Constitution.
 The circular chain of asteroids is called
Later, separate National Commission for
the Asteroid Belt. The remnants of
the STs came into existence in 2004
planetary formation failed to coalesce
under Article 338-A. This was done by
because of the gravitational interference
passing the 89th Constitutional
of Jupiter.
Amendment Act of 2003. It consists of a
 Asteroids (planetoids ― another term for Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and 3
an asteroid) are composed mainly of other members who are appointed by the
refractory rocky and metallic minerals, President by warrant under his hand and
with some ice. seal. The Chairperson, the Vice-
 Asteroids range in size from hundreds Chairperson and the other members hold
of kilometres across to microscopic. office for a term of 3 years. The
 All asteroids, except the largest, Ceres, Commission presents an annual report to
are classified as small solar system the President. The Commission can ensure
bodies. Fragments of asteroids break off full implementation of the provisions of the
to form meteoroids, which can reach the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
Earth’s surface. Areas) Act, 1996.

62. Answer: (d) 64. Answer: (a)


Explanation: Explanation:
The Agreement on Trade-Related The Finance Commission is appointed by
Investment Measures (TRIMS) recognizes the President under Article 280 of the
that certain investment measures can Constitution, mainly to give its
recommendations on the distribution of tax

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 28

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72. Answer: (d) conditions. Coral disease occurs in


Explanation: healthy ecosystems, but the input of
Coral reefs face many threats from local pathogen-containing pollution can
sources, including – exacerbate the frequency and intensity
of disease outbreaks.
 Physical damage or destruction from
coastal development, dredging,  Toxic substances, including metals,
quarrying, destructive fishing practices organic chemicals and pesticides found
and gear, boat anchors and groundings, in industrial discharges, sunscreens,
and recreational misuse (touching or urban and agricultural runoff, mining
removing corals). activities, and runoff from landfills
Pesticides can affect coral reproduction,
 Pollution that originates on land but
growth, and other physiological
finds its way into coastal waters. There
processes. Herbicides, in particular, can
are many types and sources of pollution
affect the symbiotic algae (plants). This
from land-based activities, for example:
can damage their partnership with coral
 Sedimentation from coastal
and result in bleaching. Metals, such as
development, urban stormwater runoff,
mercury and lead, and organic
forestry, and agriculture
chemicals, such as polychlorobiphenyls
Sedimentation has been identified as a
(PCBs), oxybenzone and dioxin, are
primary stressor for the existence and
suspected of affecting coral
recovery of coral species and their
reproduction, growth rate, feeding, and
habitats. Sediment deposited onto reefs
defensive responses.
can smother corals and interfere with
 Trash and micro-plastics from
their ability to feed, grow, and
improper disposal and stormwater runoff
reproduce.
Trash such as plastic bags, bottles, and
 Nutrients (nitrogen and phosphorous)
discarded fishing gear (also called
from agricultural and residential fertilizer
marine debris) that makes its way into
use, sewage discharges (including
the sea can snag on corals and block
wastewater treatment plants and septic
the sunlight needed for photosynthesis,
systems), and animal waste
or entangle and kill reef organisms and
Nutrients are generally recognized as
break or damage corals. Degraded
beneficial for marine ecosystems;
plastics and microplastics (e.g., beads
however, coral reefs are adapted to low
in soap) can be consumed by coral, fish,
nutrient levels; so an excess of
sea turtles, and other reef animals,
nutrients can lead to the growth of
blocking their digestive tracts and
algae that blocks sunlight and
potentially introducing toxics.
consumes oxygen corals need for
 Overfishing can alter food-web
respiration. This often results in an
structure and cause cascading effects,
imbalance affecting the entire
such as reducing the numbers of
ecosystem. Excess nutrients can also
grazing fish that keep corals clean of
support growth of microorganisms, like
algal overgrowth. Blast fishing (i.e.,
bacteria and fungi, that can be
using explosives to kill fish) can cause
pathogenic to corals.
physical damage to corals as well.
 Pathogens from inadequately treated
 Coral harvesting for the aquarium
sewage, stormwater, and runoff from
trade, jewellery, and curios can lead to
livestock pens
over-harvesting of specific species,
Although rare, bacteria and parasites
destruction of reef habitat, and reduced
from fecal contamination can cause
biodiversity.
disease in corals, especially if they are
stressed by other environmental

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 31

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73. Answer: (c) expansion of the British rule on their lands


Explanation: and transfer of their lands to the outsiders;
At high concentrations, gaseous SOx can the revolt was suppressed. Kondh
harm trees and plants by damaging foliage Uprisings led by Chakra Bisnoi (1837-56
and decreasing growth. and later in 1914; hilly region extending
from Tamil Nadu to Bengal; in Orissa in
SO2 and other sulphur oxides can
1914); against interference in the tribal
contribute to acid rain which can harm
customs and imposition of new taxes.
sensitive ecosystems.
Bhuyan and Juang Rebellions by the
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions from ships
Bhuyans, Juangs and Kals; first uprising
can further ocean acidification with a rate
was led by Ratna Nayak; second uprising
that is twofold with respect to that caused
was led by Dharni Dhar Nayak (1867-68;
by carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.
1891-93; Kheonjhar, Orissa); against the
Increased ocean temperatures and installation of a British protege on the
changing ocean chemistry are the greatest throne after the death of their Raja in
global threats to coral reef ecosystems. 1867. Rampa Revolts led by Alluri Sitarama
These threats are caused by warmer Raju of the Koyas (1916, 1922-1924;
atmospheric temperatures and increasing Rampa region in Andhra Pradesh); against
levels of carbon dioxide in seawater. British interference; capture and execution
Increases in ocean acidity (measured by of Raju in 1924. Koya Revolts by the Koyas
lower pH values) reduce the availability of and the Khonda Sara Chiefs – led by
dissolved salts and ions needed by corals to Tomma Sora in 1879-80 – led by Raja
form the calcium carbonate structure. Anantayyar in 1886 (eastern Godavari
Consequently, coral growth and reef growth region, Andhra Pradesh); against
can be slowed, with some species affected oppression by the police, moneylenders;
more than others. If acidification becomes new regulations and denial of their rights
severe, coral skeletons can actually over the forest areas.
dissolve. On a local level, nutrient
enrichment due to run-off from human
75. Answer: (a)
activities on land can also cause increased
Explanation:
acidity in coastal waters, exacerbating the
effects of ocean acidification. Jyotirao Phule founded the Satyashodhak
Samaj (The Truth Seekers’ Society) in 1873,
with the leadership of the Samaj coming
74. Answer: (d)
from the backward classes, malis, telis,
Explanation: kunbis, saris and dhangars. The main aims
S.No. Tribal Revolt Leader of the movement were (i) social service; and
1. Rampa Alluri Sitarama (ii) spread of education among women and
Revolts Raju lower caste people. Phule’s works,
Sarvajanik Satyadharma and Gulamgiri,
2. Kondh Chakra Bisnoi
became sources of inspiration for the
Uprisings
common masses.
3. Kols Buddho Bhagat Gopal Ganesh Agarkar (1856-1895) was an
4. Bhuyan and Ratna Nayak educationist and social reformer from
Juang Maharashtra. A strong advocate of the
Rebellions power of human reason, he criticised the
blind dependence on tradition and false
Kol Uprisings by the Kols of Chotanagpur
glorification of the past. He was a co-
led by Buddho Bhagat (1831); against the founder of the New English School, the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1040 32

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Deccan Education Society and Fergusson local masses. Imaginative use of the
College. He was the Principal of Fergusson traditional popular festivals and melas. For
College. instance, Tilak’s Ganapati and Shivaji
Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1866-1915), a festivals became a medium of Swadeshi
liberal leader of the Indian National propaganda, not only in western India, but
Congress, founded the Servants of India also in Bengal. Programme of Swadeshi or
Society in 1905, with the help of M.G. National Education, like Bengal National
Ranade. The aim of the Society was to train College, inspired by Tagore’s Shanti
the national missionaries for the service of Niketan, was set up with Aurobindo Ghosh
India; to promote, by all constitutional as its Principal. On August 15, 1906, the
means, the true interests of the Indian National Council of Education was set up
people; and to prepare a cadre of selfless to organize a system of education – literary,
workers, who were to devote their lives to scientific and technical—on national lines
the cause of the country in a religious and under national control.
spirit. Swadeshi or Indigenous Enterprises: The
Swadeshi spirit also found expression in
76. Answer: (d) the establishment of the Swadeshi textile
mills, soap and match factories, tanneries,
Explanation:
banks, insurance companies, shops, etc.
The early nationalists, led by Dadabhai
V.O. Chidambaram Pillai’s venture into a
Naoroji, R.C. Dutt, Dinshaw Wacha,
national shipbuilding enterprise – Swadeshi
G.Subramania Iyer and others, carefully
Steam Navigation Company – at Tuticorin,
analysed the political economy of British
however, gave a challenge to the British
rule in India and put forward the “Drain
Indian Steam Navigation Company.
Theory” to explain British exploitation of
India. They opposed the transformation of a
basically self-sufficient Indian economy into 78. Answer: (c)
a colonial economy. Thus, the Moderates Explanation:
were able to create an all-India public  Blue carbon is the carbon stored in
opinion that British rule in India was the coastal and marine ecosystems.
major cause of India’s poverty and  Coastal ecosystems such as mangroves,
economic backwardness. tidal marshes and seagrass
meadows sequester and store more
77. Answer: (a) carbon per unit area than terrestrial
Explanation: forests and are now being recognised
The militant nationalists put forward for their role in mitigating climate
several fresh ideas at the theoretical, change.
propaganda and programme levels. Among  These ecosystems also
the several forms of struggle thrown up by provide essential benefits for climate
the movement were the following: change adaptation, including coastal
Corps of volunteers or ‘Samitis’ – Samitis, protection and food security for many
such as the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti of coastal communities.
Ashwini Kumar Dutta (in Barisal) emerged  However, if the ecosystems
as a very popular and powerful means of are degraded or damaged, their carbon
mass mobilisation. In Tirunelveli (Tamil sink capacity is lost or adversely
Nadu), V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, affected, and the carbon stored is
Subramania Siva and some lawyers formed released, resulting in emissions of
the Swadeshi Sangam, which inspired the

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carbon dioxide (CO2) that contribute the Indian sub-continent. It is a 5,000-


to climate change. year-old site that showcases continuity
 Dedicated conservation efforts can from the Harappan age to the present
ensure that coastal ecosystems times. The village also has havelis that are
continue to play their role as long-term a couple of hundred years old. The site is
carbon sinks. located in the Sarasvati river plain, some
27 km from the seasonal Ghaggar River. In
May, 2012, the Global Heritage
79. Answer: (c)
Fund declared Rakhigarhi one of the 10
Explanation:
most endangered heritage sites in Asia.
The Cripps Mission was headed by Stafford
Cripps.
81. Answer: (a)
The main proposals of the Mission were as
Explanation:
follows:
The Revolt of 1857 was a major uprising in
An Indian Union with a Dominion Status
India during 1857-58 against the British
would be set up; it would be free to decide
regime. It is also known as India’s First
its relations with the Commonwealth and
War of Independence, Sepoy Mutiny, etc.
free to participate in the United Nations
The Revolt began on May 10, 1857, at
and other international bodies.
Meerut as a Sepoy Mutiny. It was initiated
After the end of the war, a Constituent
by the sepoys in the Bengal Presidency
Assembly would be convened to frame a
against the British officers.
new Constitution. The members of this
The main centres of Revolt in these regions,
Assembly would be partly elected by the
namely Kanpur, Lucknow, Bareilly, Jhansi,
Provincial Assemblies, through proportional
Gwalior and Arrah in Bihar.
representation, and partly nominated by
the princes. Bihar: The Revolt was led by Kunwar
Singh, who belonged to a royal house of
The British government would accept the
Jagdispur (Bihar). Lucknow: Begum Hazrat
new Constitution, subject to two
Mahal, one of the begums of the ex-king of
conditions: (i) Any Province not willing to
Awadh, took up the leadership of the
join the Union could have a separate
Revolt. Delhi: Bahadur Shah II and
Constitution and form a separate Union;
General Bakht Khan led the Revolt.
and (ii) The new Constitution making body
Baghpat: Shah Mal led the Revolt.
and the British government would negotiate
Faizabad: Maulvi Ahmadullah led the
a treaty to effect the transfer of power, and
Revolt. Kanpur: The Revolt was led
to safeguard racial and religious minorities.
by Nana Saheb, the adopted son of Peshwa
In the meantime, defence of India would
Baji Rao II. Jhansi: The twenty-two-year-
remain in the British hands and the
old Rani Lakshmi Bai led the rebels when
Governor-General’s powers would remain
the British refused to accept the claim of
intact.
her adopted son to the throne of Jhansi. At
Bareilly, Khan Bahadur, a descendant of
80. Answer: (c) the former ruler of Rohilkhand, was placed
Explanation: in command.
Rakhigarhi, in Haryana, became an
archaeological hotspot when Amarendra 82. Answer: (b)
Nath, the former director of the
Explanation:
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI),
Soil herbicides; e.g: Fluchloralin
undertook excavations at the site in 1997.
Rakhigarhi is the largest Harappan site in Foliar herbicide: e.g. Glyphosate

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Pre-plant: Before sowing or along sowing instead of Lala Lajpat Rai, the Moderates
E.g. Glyphosate for Hariyali, Basalin for supported Rash Behari Ghosh as the
groundnut President.
The efforts by eminent persons, like
Ravindra Nath Tagore, to bring the
Extremist and the Moderates together in
Pre-emergence: Before weeds germinate; the aftermath of the Surat split, were in
E.g. Thiobencarb vain and further in the 1908 Allahabad
Convention, the adoption of resolutions by
the Moderates for permanently
disqualifying the Extremist section of the
Congress led to the significant decline of
Post-emergence: applied after weeds nationalism in India.
germinate Unfortunately, neither the Moderates nor
i) E.g. bispyribac Sodium. the Extremists understood the purpose
behind the strategy. The Surat split
suggested that the policy of carrot and stick
had brought rich dividends to the British
India government.

83. Answer: (d)


85. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Important soil conservation measures
The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary group
are:
organized around a weekly newspaper, ‘The
• Conservation Tillage
Ghadr’, with its headquarters at San
• Minimum tillage Francisco and branches along the US coast
• Zero tillage and in the Far East. Pre-Ghadr
• Stubble mulching revolutionary activity had been carried on
• Trash farming by Ramdas Puri, G.D. Kumar, Taraknath
Das, Sohan Singh Bhakna and Lala
84. Answer: (d) Hardayal, who reached there in 1911. To
carry out the revolutionary activities, the
Explanation:
earlier activists had set up a ‘Swadesh
The struggle between various trends within
Sevak Home’ at Vancouver and ‘United
the nationalist articulation of freedom
India House’ at Seattle.
struggle was fought out and culminated in
Shyamji Krishnavarma had started in
the Surat split of December, 1907. Rash
London in 1905 an Indian Home Rule
Behari Ghosh was the President of the
Society — ‘India House’ as a centre for the
Surat Congress Session in 1907. The
Indian students, a scholarship scheme to
Extremists wanted the 1907 Session to be
bring the radical youth from India and a
held in Nagpur (Central Provinces), with
journal ‘The Indian Sociologist’. The Berlin
Tilak or Lajpat Rai as the President.
Committee for Indian Independence was
In the Surat Session of Congress, the two
established in 1915 by Virendranath
main objectives placed by the Extremists
Chattopadhyay, Bhupendranath Dutta,
were: Lala Lajpat Rai to be made the
Lala Hardayal and others, with the help of
President of the INC; and demand for the
the German foreign office under the
resolution of Swaraj. These two demands
‘Zimmerman Plan’.
were not accepted by the Moderates and

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86. Answer: (b) Congress, as another manifestation of the


Explanation: British policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.
The Second Round Table Conference was In the Second Round Table Conference held
held in London from September, 1931 to in London, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar again
December, 1931. By this time, Lord Irwin raised the issue of separate electorate for
had been replaced by Lord Willingdon as the depressed classes. Earlier in the
the Viceroy in India. The Indian National Conference, Ambedkar had attempted to
Congress nominated Gandhi as its sole compromise with Gandhi on reserved seats
representative. A. Rangaswami Iyengar and in a common electorate, but Gandhi, who
Madan Mohan Malaviya were also there. had declared himself the sole
The Government of India was represented representative of India’s oppressed masses,
by C.P. Ramaswami Iyer, Narendra Nath rejected Ambedkar’s proposal and
Law and M. Ramachandra Rao. denounced the other delegates as
The lack of agreement among the many unrepresentative.
delegate groups meant that no substantial
results regarding India’s constitutional 88. Answer: (b)
future would come out of the Conference. Explanation:
The session ended with MacDonald’s Zipping through space at close to the speed
announcement of: (i) Two Muslim majority of light, the ‘Solar Energetic Particles’, or
provinces—North-West Frontier Province SEPs, are one of the main challenges for
(NWFP) and Sindh; (ii) The setting up of an the future of human spaceflight. Clouds of
Indian Consultative Committee; (iii) The these tiny solar projectiles can make it to
setting up of three expert committees— the Earth – a 93 million mile journey – in
finance, franchise and states; and (iv) The under an hour. They can fry sensitive
prospect of a unilateral British Communal spacecraft electronics and pose serious
Award if the Indians failed to agree. The risks to human astronauts. But, their onset
government refused to concede the basic is extraordinarily hard to predict, in part
Indian demand of freedom. Gandhi because we still do not know exactly where
returned to India on December 28, 1931. on the Sun they come from.
The SEPs are high-energy particles coming
87. Answer: (a) from the Sun. They were first observed in
Explanation: the early 1940s. They consist of protons,
The Communal Award was announced by electrons and HZE ions; with energy
the British Prime Minister, Ramsay ranging from a few tens of keV to many
MacDonald, on August 16, 1932. The GeV (The fastest particles can reach a large
Communal Award, based on the findings fraction of the speed of light, as in a
of the Indian Franchise Committee (also "ground-level enhancement", a sudden
called the Lothian Committee), increase in cosmic ray intensity observed
established separate electorates and by the ground‐based detectors, first
reserved seats for the minorities, including observed by Scott Forbush). They are of
the depressed classes, which were granted particular interest and importance,
78 reserved seats. Thus, this Award because they can endanger life in outer
accorded separate electorates for the space (especially particles above 40 MeV).
Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian The greatest mystery about the gradual
Christians, Anglo-Indians, depressed SEPs is not what speeds them up, but
classes and even to the Marathas for some where they come from in the first place. For
seats in Bombay. The Award was perceived reasons still not fully understood, the SEPs
by the national leaders, led by the contain a different mix of particles, than

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the other solar material streaming off the Territory (with legislature) are being
Sun in the solar wind – fewer carbon, invested in special securities issued by the
sulphur and phosphorous ions, for concerned State/Union Territory
instance. Some scientists suspect they are Government. The sums received in the
cut from an entirely different cloth, forming NSSF, on redemption of special securities,
in a different feature or layer of the Sun, are being reinvested in special Central
than the rest of the solar wind. Government securities. The debt servicing
Many scientists thought that the SEPs of the Central/State Government securities
would be found at the edges of the active is an income of the Fund, while the cost of
region where the magnetic field is already the interest paid to the subscribers and the
open and the material can escape directly. cost of management of the Small Savings
But, the fingerprint matched only in the Schemes are the expenditure of the Fund.
regions where the magnetic field is still The Fund is administered by the
closed. Government of India, the Ministry of
The SEPs had somehow broken free from Finance (Department of Economic
the strong magnetic loops connected to the Affairs), under the National Small Savings
Sun at both ends. These loops trap the Fund (Custody and Investment) Rules,
material near the top of the chromosphere, 2001, framed by the President, under
one layer below where solar flares and Article 283(1) of the Constitution.
coronal mass ejections erupt. The special Central Government securities
issued to the NSSF constitute a part of the
89. Answer: (a) internal debt of the Government of India.
Interest at the rate of 9.50% per annum is
Explanation:
payable on the special securities issued by
The National Small Savings Fund: All
the State/UT Governments since 1st April,
deposits under the Small Savings Schemes
2003, against their share of net collections.
are credited to the 'National Small Savings
Fund' (NSSF), established in the Public
Account of India, with effect from 90. Answer: (c)
01.04.1999. All withdrawals by the Explanation:
depositors are made out of the The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a
accumulations in this Fund. The balance in law enforcement agency and economic
the Fund is invested in special government intelligence agency responsible for
securities, as per the norms decided from enforcing economic laws and fighting
time to time by the Central Government. economic crime in India. It is a part of the
The liability of outstanding balances under Department of Revenue, the Ministry of
various Small Savings Schemes, at the Finance (Government of India). It is
close of 31st March, 1999, was borne by composed of officers from the Indian
the Central Government by treating the Revenue Service, Indian Corporate Law
same as the investment of the NSSF in Service, Indian Police Service and Indian
special Central Government securities. The Administrative Service, as well as promoted
net small savings collections (deposits officers from its own cadre. The total
minus withdrawals by the subscribers) strength of the department is less than
from 1999-2000 to 2001-02 were shared by 2,000 officers, out of which around 70% of
the Central and the State Governments the officials came from deputation from
through investment in special securities other organizations, while ED has its own
issued as per their respective share. cadre too. The Assistant Enforcement
However, with effect from 1st April, 2002, Officers (AEOs) are recruited for ED cadre.
the entire net collections in a State/Union These officers are the only departmental

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staff that serves the ED. The AEOs are To promote long-term financing for the
promoted to various levels of the hierarchy infrastructure projects and industry, the
and they are the backbone of this small Industrial Development Bank of India
department. (IDBI) was formed in 1964.
The prime objective of the Enforcement During the 1970-80s, non-performing
Directorate is the enforcement of two key assets mounted for the DFIs, allegedly
Acts of the Government of India, namely, caused by politically motivated lending and
the Foreign Exchange Management Act inadequate professionalism.
(FEMA), 1999, and the Prevention of Money The Narsimhan Committee (1991)
Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002. recommended disbanding of the DFIs and
the existing DFIs were converted into
91. Answer: (c) Commercial Banks.
The Budget 2021 has signalled that the
Central Government is banking on long- 92. Answer: (a)
term infrastructure creation to lift India’s Explanation:
economic growth rate sustainably. In this African Cheetah – In May 2012, SC stalled
pursuit, the government has proposed to go the plan to initiate African cheetahs into
back to the Development Finance Kuno-Palpur sanctuary. There were various
Institution (DFI) idea. reasons behind the judgement –
Right now, it will be a government owned  Cheetah may come into conflict with a
DFI. It will be through legislation, which parallel project to reintroduce lions into
will also enable the setting up of private the same sanctuary.
DFIs. There will be a provision that if, in
 Priority has to be given for preservation
the later stages, the DFI wants to diversify
of our own species.
its equity, it will be able to do that. The DFI
will be able to access low-cost funds, so  Favourable climate and abundance of
that it can lend competitively for prey for African cheetahs was under
infrastructure financing needs. question.

The DFIs provide long-term credit for  Concern over man-animal conflict.
capital-intensive investments spread over a Supreme Court has lifted seven year stay
long period and low yielding rates of return, on a proposal to introduce African cheetahs
such as urban infrastructure, mining and from Namibia into the Indian habitat on an
heavy industry, and irrigation systems. experimental basis.
The Development Banks are different from About Cheetah
the Commercial Banks, which mobilize  Keystone species of dry forests, scrub
short- to medium-term deposits and lend forests, and savannahs.
for similar maturities to avoid a maturity  It was officially declared extinct in India
mismatch (a potential cause for a bank’s in 1952.
liquidity and solvency).
 It is also the world’s fastest land
In India, the first DFI was operationalized mammal.
in 1948 with the setting up of the
 IUCN status:
Industrial Finance Corporation of India
o African Cheetah – Vulnerable
(IFCI).
o Asiatic Cheetah – Critically
Subsequently, the Industrial Credit and
endangered (surviving only in Iran).
Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) was
set up with the World Bank’s backing in Cheetahs went extinct in India once the
ruler of an erstwhile princely state in
1955.
Koriya, Chhattisgarh gunned down the last

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three Asiatic cheetahs in 1947. Some 95. Answer: (a)


though reported spotting a female cheetah Explanation:
in 1951. Asiatic Cheetahs are found only
According to the Budget document, “Extra
in Iran now, that too a few. Former Prime
Budgetary Resources (EBRs) are those
Minister Indira Gandhi had signed an
financial liabilities that are raised by the
agreement with Iran to exchange Asiatic
Public Sector Undertakings for which
lions for Asiatic cheetahs in the late 1970s.
repayment of entire principal and interest
At the time, there were around 250 Asiatic
cheetahs in Iran. Now, there are only is done from the Government budget”.
around 28. Such borrowings are made by the state-
owned firms to fund government schemes,
93. Answer: (c) but are not part of the official budget
calculations.
Explanation:
Extra Budget Borrowing is excluded from
The Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, also known
the fiscal deficit calculations, but at the
as the Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary, is
located in the Little Rann of Kutch in the same time, is added to the total debt of the
Gujarat state of India. It is spread over an government.
area of 4,954 km². In the recent years, several CPSUs have
The Wildlife Sanctuary was established in raised resources from the market by
1972 and came under the Wildlife issuing the Government of India-Fully
(Protection) Act of 1972. The Sanctuary is Serviced Bonds (GoIFSB), for which the
one of the last places on the Earth where repayment of both principal and interest is
the endangered wild ass sub-species, the to be done from the Budget.
Indian Wild Ass (Khur) (Equus hemionus This means that though the borrowing is
khur), belonging to the Asiatic Wild Ass not a part of the Consolidated Fund of
species Onager (Equus hemionus), can be India, the interest payment for such
spotted. borrowings is made out of the Consolidated
Easily spotted in big groups in the vast Fund.
span of desert throughout the year, this
population of wild ass is the only gene pool
96. Answer: (a)
of Indian Wild Ass in the entire world and
one of the six geographical varieties or sub- Explanation:
species surviving on the Earth. The Gandhara School – The Gandhara
School of Art developed in the western
94. Answer: (d) frontiers of Punjab, near modern day
Explanation: Peshawar and Afghanistan. The Greek
invaders brought with them the traditions
The ‘4 per 1,000’ Initiative was launched by
of the Greek and Roman sculptors, which
the French Government at the COP21 Paris
Climate Summit in 2015. It aims to boost influenced the local traditions of the region.
carbon storage in agricultural soils by 0.4% Thus, the Gandhara School also came to be
each year, to help mitigate climate change known as the Greco-Indian School of Art.
and increase food security. Despite the Early Gandhara School used bluish-grey
global importance of these societal sandstone, while the later period saw the
imperatives, soil-carbon sequestration is use of mud and stucco.
still not on the political agenda and was not The Mathura School:
formally discussed at the Bonn COP23
 The Mathura School flourished on the
meeting in Germany in November, 2017.
banks of river Yamuna, in the period
Increased organic-carbon sequestration in between 1st and 3rd centuries B.C.
soil underpins several Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) and directly  The sculptures of the Mathura School
contributes to SDG2 ‘Zero Hunger’; SDG13 were influenced by the stories and
‘Climate Action’; and SDG15 ‘Life on Land’. imageries of all 3 religions of the Ume –

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Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism. The hereditary. However, it could also be


images were modelled on the earlier bought and sold.
Yaksha images found during the Iqta, in medieval India, meant land granted
Mauryan period. to the army officials for limited periods in
 The Mathura School showed a striking lieu of a regular wage. The holders of these
use of symbolism in the images. The Iqtas were the trustful agents of the Sultan.
Hindu Gods were represented using The officer entitling the Iqta collected
their Avayudhas (weapons) and the kharaj from the owner and paid a part of it
Halo of Buddha was larger than that of to the emperor and kept the rest as salary.
the Gandhara School. In the Mughal period, land revenue system
 The sculptures of the Mathura School was based on the quality of land (fertility).
were made using spotted red This system was working under the
sandstone. guidelines of Todar Mal. Land was divided
The Mathura and the Gandhara arts were under 4 quality parameters: Polaj, Parauti,
patronaged by the Kushana rulers. Chachar and Banjar. Banjar was the least
fertile and generated the lowest revenue.

97. Answer: (d)


99. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
In the Chola kingdom in South India, the
structure of administration was slightly The Mauryans are well known for issuing
different. Here at the village level, a great the punch marked coins. These coins had
amount of autonomy was enjoyed by the 4-5 various symbols depicting different
local people. They looked after their capitals of the empire. These coins were of
administration with the help of the self- irregular shape.
elected local bodies. Two types of village Northern ochre polished ware: There is no
assemblies are mentioned in the records. such pottery in the Indian sub-continent.
These were known as Sabha and Ur. Sabha The Mauryans are known for the northern
was the assembly in the villages, which black polished ware.
were inhabited predominantly by the The caste system, started during the early
Brahmanas, whereas ‘Ur’ was in the non- Vedic phase, got well established during
Brahmanical settlements. These assemblies the Mauryan phase. As per the evidence
looked after the local public works, tax from Kautilya’s Arthashastra, the Varana
collection, temple management etc., with system was based on the 4 major caste
the help of the members elected through a groups, including Brahmin, Kshatriya,
procedure set by the villagers. It was a Vaishya and Shudra.
unique feature of the Chola administration,
as it represented a harmonious balance 100. Answer: (c)
between the central authority and the local
Explanation:
self-government.
Cave temples are supposed to be built first
time during the Mauryan phase, where the
98. Answer: (d) cave temple at the Barabar Hills of Bihar
Explanation: was built. Well known among these is the
As per the Persian documents of medieval Lomasa Rishi cave. Other cave structures
India, a muqaddam was the headman of a included those of Udaigiri and Khandgiri.
village. He was, by profession, a peasant of Cave structure of the Gupta phase includes
the village which he headed. He could sell that of the Bagh cave of Madhya Pradesh.
and buy land for the village and settle the
common treasury. His position was

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