1 BASIC NUMBFER OPERATION

SECTION A

1. Given a sequence of two digit numbers grouped in brackets as follows :

(10), (11, 20), (12, 21, 30), (13, 22, 31, 40) ... (89, 98), (99).
The digital sum of the numbers in the bracket having maximum numbers is
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 9 or 10 (4) 18
2. Using the digit 2 and 7, and addition or subraction operations only, the number 2010 is written. The
maximum number of 7 that can be used, so that the total numbers used is a minimum is
(1) 284 (2) 286 (3) 288 (4) 290
3. You join a job. Your pay for the first day is Rs. 5/-. Each day after that your pay will be twice as much
as it was the day before. Your pay on the tenth will be :
(1) Rs. 100 (2) Rs. 250 (3) Rs. 5120 (4) Rs. 2560
4. Using all the digits 1 to 9 only once, how many nine digit prime numbers can you write ?
(1) 1 (2) None (3) 9 (4) More than 100
5. You have five pieces of 6 cm rods and 4 pieces of 7 cm rods. Using some or all of them, which one
of the following lengths you cannot measure ?
(1) 30 (2) 29 (3) 31 (4) 33
6. How many two digit numbers divide 109 with a remainder of 4?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) None

7. The highest power of 2 that divides the sum of the numbers 4 + 44 + 444 + ... + 444.........4
14243 is
100 fours

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

8. Which of the following can never be a common factor of 287 + x and 378 + x where x can be any
natural number?
(1) 26 (2) 13 (3) 91 (4) 7
9. How many 4 digit numbers with middle digits 97 are divisible by 45?
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1
10. The product of three consecutive odd numbers is 357627. What is their sum ?
(1) 213 (2) 243 (3) 153 (4) 209
11. The number of positive integers whose square is a factor of 2000 is
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 12
12. Sum of all integers less than 100 which leave a remainder 1 when divided by 3 and leave a remainder
2 when divided by 4 is
(1) 416 (2) 1717 (3) 1250 (4) 1314
13. The number of prime numbers less than 1 lakh, whose digital sum is 2 (digital sum of a number is
the sum of its digits) is
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) None of these
14. The quotient of 100100 and 5050 is
(1) 5050 (2) 50100 (3) 20050 (4) 40050
15. The least number of numbers to be deleted from the set {1, 2, 3, ..., 13, 14, 15} so that the product
of the remaining numbers is a perfect square is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
16. The digit 1 is attached to the right of a 3 digit number making it a 4 digit number which is 7777 more
than the given number. The sum of the digits of the number is
(1) 23 (2) 18 (3) 17 (4) 16
17. A number is formed by writing the first 10 primes in the increasing order. Half of the digits are now
crossed out, so that the number formed by the remaining digits without changing the order, is as large
as possible. The second digit from the left of the new number is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7
18. Nine numbers are written in ascending order. The middle number is also the average of the nine
numbers. The average of the 5 larger number is 68 and the average of the 5 smaller numbers is 44.
The sum of all the number is
(1) 540 (2) 450 (3) 504 (4) 501
19. The largest positive integer n for which n200 < 6300 is
(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 17 (4) 14
20. The sum of two numbers is 1215 and their GCD is 81. How many pairs of such numbers are possible?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
21. The number of digits in 815540 (when written in base 10 form) is
(1) 42 (2) 45 (3) 55 (4) 2007
22. The number of two digits numbers whose digit sum is divisible by 6 is
(1) 11 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 22
23. A number when divided by 899 gives a remainder 63. What is the remainder when the number is divided
by 29?
(1) 5 (2) 28 (3) 16 (4) 12
24. A six digit number is formed by repeating a three digit number twice (like 245245). Such numbers
are always divisible by
(1) 1001 (2) 25 (3) 101 (4) 111
25. The number AT389B where A, B are digits is divisible by 72, then (A, B) is
(1) (6, 3) (2) (3, 6) (3) (4, 7) (4) (7, 5)
26. The remainder when the number
(2 × 3 × 4 × 2014 × 2015 × 2016) – 2015 is divided by 2016 is
(1) 0 (2) 2008 (3) 1 (4) 2007
27. The number of non negative integers which are less than 1000 and end with only one zero is
(1) 90 (2) 99 (3) 91 (4) 100
28. In a queue, Amar is 10th from the front while Akbar is 25th from behind and Antony is just in the middle
of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue, then the position occupied by Antony from the front is
(1) 16th (2) 18th (3) 19th (4) 30th
29. The digits of the year 2000 add up to 2. In how many years has this happened since the year 1 till
the year 2004 ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 10
30. The sum of seven consecutive natural numbers is 84. The difference between the largest and the smallest
among them is
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 14 (4) 21
31. n
The sum of the digits of the number 10 – 1 is 3798. The value of n is
(1) 431 (2) 673 (3) 422 (4) 501
32. The units digit of the sum of the first 99 whole numbers (that is, 0 + 1 + 2 + ..... + 98) is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) – 5 (4) 9
33. Here is a magic square, created using the four numbers 10, 20, 30, 40 once in each row, column or
diagonal. The value of A + B is
C 10 D E
(1) 10
(2) 20 A 30 F G
(3) 30 B H 20 K
(4) 40
34. The number of whole numbers between Ö8 and Ö80 is :- L M N 10
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
æ 5 ö æ 2001ö ö
35. The value of the product æç 2 - æç 1 ö÷ ö÷ × æç 2 - æç 3 ö÷ ö÷ × ç 2 - æç ö÷ ÷ × .... × ç 2 - æç ÷ ÷ is
è è 3ø ø è è 5ø ø è è ø
7 ø è è 2003 ø ø
1 2005 2005
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
2003 2003 3
36. I multiplied a natural number by 18 and another natural number by 21. Then I added the products.
Which one of the following could be the sum of the two products ?
(1) 2002 (2) 2003 (3) 2004 (4) 2005
37. Ram divides a number by 1209 and gets a remainder 62. If Shyam divides the same number by 31,
then what is the remainder ?
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 0 (4) 4
38. A transport company’s vans each carry a maximum load of 12 tonnes. 24 sealed boxes each weighing
5 tonnes have to be transported to a factory. The number of van loads needed to do this is
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12
39. The GCD and LCM of two numbers a, b are respectively 27 and 2079. If a is divided by 9, the quotient
is 21. Then b is
(1) 243 (2) 297 (3) 189 (4) 11
40. 146 is a natural number whose “digit-product” is 1 × 4 × 6 = 24. How many such three-digit numbers
are possible with “digit-product” 24?
(1) 4 (2) 18 (3) 21 (4) 16
41. A four digit number of the from abaa (a’s and b’s are the digits of the four digit number) is divisible
by 33. The number of such four digit numbers is
(1) 36 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 1
42. The number of three-digit number each of which leaves a reminder 6 when divides 2002 is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 10
43. Three boys P, Q, R agree to divide a bag of marbles as follows :
P takes one more than half of the marbles;
Q takes a third of the remaining marbles;
R takes the marbles left out now in the bag.
The original number of marbles found at the beginning in the bag must be
(1) a multiple of 6 (2) one more than a multiple of 6
(3) two more than a multiple of 6 (4) three more than a multiple of 6

SECTION B
44. We multiply the consecutive even positive integers until the product 2 × 4 × 6 × 8 × ......... × n, where
n is the first number, for which the product is divisible by 2015. Find the value of n ?
45. By using the digits 1,2,3 and 4 we can form numbers of four digits number such as 1234, 2134, 4321,
3142 and so on. There are 24 four-digit numbers with distinct digits that can formed, by using each
of the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4. Find out the sixth largest number.
46. Amrita has written down four whole numbers. If she chooses three of her numbers at a time and adds
up each triple, she obtains total of 115, 153, 169 and 181. What is the largest of Amrita's number.
47. What is the remainder when 1099 is divided by 9 ?
48. My house number is a three-digit number. The sum of this number and its three individual digits is
429. What is the product of the three digits which make up the house number ?
49. If we add 5 with the ten's digit and subtract 3 from the unit digit of a two digit number then the resulting
number is twice the original number. Find out the original two digit number ?
50. What is the quotient if the least common multiple of the first 40 positive integers divided by the least
common multiple of the first 30 positive integers.
51. A square of area 125 is divided into five parts of equal area-four squares and one L-shaped figure
as shown in the picture. What is the length of the shortest side of the L-shaped figure ?

52. In a football tournament 10 teams participated. Each team played with every other team exactly twice.
Find the total number of games played.
53. Find the unit digit of 2727.
54. How can you use four 4's to create an expression that has a value equal to 1 ?
55. The sum of the first 100 positive whole number is 5050. Using this find out the sum of the first 100
positive odd whole numbers. We have to find the sum 1 + 3 + 5 ...... + 199 = ?
56. How many digits will be there when (999999999999)2 is expanded ?
57. How many zeros are there in the product of the first 100 positive integers.
58. How many positive numbers less than 10000 are both squares of integers and divisible by 10 ?
59. The number 49800 is said to end in two '0's. In how many '0's does 21998 × 51999 × 102000 end in ?
60. For some number n, the sum of the first n positive integer is 240 less then the sum of the 1st
(n + 5) positive integer. Then n itself is the sum of how many positive integer ?
61. The sum of the odd positive numbers from 1 to n is 9409. What is the value of n ?
62. It takes 852 digits to number the pages of a book consecutively. How many pages are there in the
book.
63. Find out the sum of all natural numbers less than 45, which are not divisible by 3.
64. Let 'm' be the smallest four digit number such that the three digit number obtained by removing the
left most digit is one ninth of the original number. What is the value of 'm' ?

1 1 1 1 1
65. Find the sum of + + + + ...... +
1´ 2 2 ´ 3 3 ´ 4 4 ´5 10 ´ 11

66. Find the last digit of 5789 when it is expanded.

ANSWERS

SECTION A
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 3 4 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 1 1 1 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 4 2 3
Que. 41 42 43
Ans. 3 1 3

SECTION B
44. n = 62 45. 4123 46. 91 47. 1 48. 28

49. 47 50. 2292 51. 5 5 – 10 52. 90 53. 3

44
54. Many solutions For eg. =1 55. 10000 56. 24 digits 57. 24
44
58. 9 59. 3998 zeros 60. First nine numbers 61. n = 193 62. 320 pages
10
63. 675 64. m = 1125 65. 66. 7
11
 2 PATTERN DETECTION

SECTION A
1. A student starts at the year 2001 and counts backwards, 8 at a time, giving the sequence of years :
2001, 1993, 1985, ....
A year which she will count is
(1) 1841 (2) 1901 (3) 1923 (4) 1903

2. In the sequence 1, 22, 333, 4444, · · ·, the nth term has n number of n’s. then the sum of the number
of digits in the 100th term is

(1) 100 (2) 300 (3) 10000 (4) 100100

3. The adjacent table defines an operation *. For example,
form the table we find * a b c d
a b c d a
a * c = d and b * d = b. If b * x = a, then x * x is
b c d a b
(1) a (2) b c d a b c
d a b c d
(3) c (4) d
4. Figure out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent
sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

5. What comes next in the series given below?

, , ,

(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. Choose the suitable figure, so that a series is formed by the figures A, B, C, D taken in order

(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these

 SECTION B
7. Natural numbers are written in a sequence as follows :
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 .....
What is the 2003rd digit in this sequence ?
8. The diagram shows 6 small squares made with matchsticks. How many matchsticks must be removed
to leave precisely 3 small squares which touch only at corners ?

9. The numbers 1 to 9 are to be placed so that there is one number in each square and the row and column
totals are as shown ? What number goes in the central square ?

18

13

24
11 14 20
10. Pradipta counted upto 1000 by 6's beginning with 6, Dropadi counted upto 1000 by 4's beginning
with 4 and Maricha counted upto 1000 by 5's beginning with 5. How many of the numbers were counted
by all of them
11. The integers from 1 to 20 are listed below in such a way that the sum of each adjacent pair is a prime
number. Missing numbers are marked as _____ 20, _ 16, 15, 4, _ 12, _ 10, 7, 6, _ 2, 17, _ 14, 9, 8,
5, 18, _. Which number goes in place of _ ?
12. In this unusal game of noughts and crosses the first play to form a line or three Os or three Xs loses.
It is X's turn. Where should she place her cross to make sure that she does not lose ?
A O B
C X D
E X O

13. Find out the 200th term in the sequence 1, 1, 1, 2, 1, 3, 1, 4, 1, 5 .........

14. A contest among n ³ 2 players is held over a period of 4 days. On each day each player receives a
score of 1 or 2 or 3 ..... or n, points with no two players getting the same score on the same day. At
the end of the contest it is discovered that every player recived the same total of 26 points. How many
players participated ?

ANSWERS

SECTION A
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6
Ans. 1 1 2 4 1 2

SECTION B
7. 0 8. 5 9. 4 10. 16
11. a = 3, b = 19, c = 1, d = 1, e = 11 12. The correct place is to start with A
13. 100 14. 12
 3 RATIO AND PERCENTAGE

SECTION A
1. The percentage of natural numbers form 10 to 99 both inclusive which are the product of consecutive
natural number is

7 7
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 10 (4) 9
9 9

2. Two regular polygons have the number of sides in the ratio 3 : 2 and the interior angle in the ratio
10 : 9 in that order. The number of sides of the polygon are respectively
(1) 6 and 4 (2) 9 and 6 (3) 12 and 8 (4) 15 and 10

1 2 3 n
3. 1 + 2 + 3 + ...n , on complete simplification has the denominator ___________.
2 3 4 n +1

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

10a
4. The biggest value of (a Î N) is never greater than ____________.
10 + a

(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 5 (4) None of these

1 3
5. The value of z satisfying the equation = is
1 4
1+
1
1+
1
1+
z

(1) –2 (2) 2 (3) –1 (4) 1

6. 20% of 50% is what percent of 25% of 40% ?
(1) 80% (2) 60% (3) 65% (4) 100%

16 16
7. A boy on being asked what of a fraction was made the mistake of dividing the fraction by ,
17 17

33
and got an answer which exceeded the correct answer by . The correct answer is
340

64 65 32
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
85 84 17
8. In a school, there are 5 times as many boys as girls, and 6 times as many girls as teachers. If b, g,
t represent the boys, girls and teachers respectively the total number of boys, girls and teachers in the
school is

37
(1) 37 b (2) b (3) 30 g (4) 37 g
30

9. When the price of an article is increased by 15%, the number of articles sold decreases by 20%. What
is the percentage change in the sales revenue ? (Sales revenue = price of each article × number of
articles sold).
(1) 5% increase (2) 3% decrease (3) 8% increase (4) 8% decrease
10. By selling a cap for Rs. 34.40, a man gains 7.5%. What will be the CP of the cap?
(1) Rs. 32.80 (2) Rs. 32 (3) Rs. 32.40 (4) Rs. 28.80
11. 6 men can do piece of work in 12 days. How many men are needed to do the work in 18 days?
(1) 3 men (2) 6 men (3) 4 men (4) 2 men
12. 4 men and 3 women finish a job in 6 days. And 5 men and 7 women can do the same job in 4 days.
How long will 1 man and 1 women take to do the work?

æ2ö æ1ö æ1ö æ 7 ö

(1) 22 ç ÷ days (2) 25 ç ÷ days (3) 5 ç ÷ days (4) 12 ç ÷ days
è7ø è2ø è7ø è 22 ø

3 5
13. A student multiplied a number by instead of . What is the percentage error in the calculation?
5 3
(1) 34% (2) 44% (3) 54% (4) 64%
14. If x is 80% of y, then what percent of 2x is y?
1 2
(1) 40% (2) 62 % (3) 66 % (4) 80%
2 3
15. Ajay sold two motorbikes for Rs. 40000 each. He sold one at 20% profit and the other at 20% loss.
Find the profit or loss percentage in the whole transaction.
(1) 2% profit (2) 3% loss
(3) 4% loss (4) No profit, no loss

4ay - 3bx
16. If a : b = 2 : 3 and x : y = 3: 4, then the value of 5ax - 2by is :

5 5 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 6 5 4

17. If (2x + 3y) : (3x + 5y) = 18 : 29 then x : y is equal to :

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 5
 27
18. What number must be taken from each term of the fraction that it may 2 : 3 ?
35

(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12

19. 20 men working 9 hours per day can complete a work in 12 days. To complete the same work in 15
days working 12 hours a day, the number of men required is
(1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 11
20. If 6 men or 8 women can finish a work in 12 days, 9 men and 12 women will finish the work in nearly
(1) 4 days (2) 3 days (3) 6 days (4) 5 days

21. If a + 2a + 3a + · · · + 1000a = 2b + 4b + 6b + · · · + 2000b = 3c + 6c + 9c + · · · + 3000c then

a : b : c is as
(1) 1:2:3 (2) 3:2:1 (3) 2:3:6 (4) 6:3:2
22. Scientist A has invented a device for cars to save petrol by 20%; Scientist B’s invention saves 30%;
invention of scientist C save 40%. The three inventions are independent in effect. if all the three devices
are used, how much petrol can one save ?
(1) 90% (2) 140% (3) 66.4% (4) 33.6%
23. Given X is 50% larger than Z and y is 25% larger than Z. Then X is what percent larger than Y ?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 75% (4) 50%
24. A chocolate drink is 8% pure chocolate, by volume. If 5 litres of pure milk are added to 25 litres of
this drink, the percent of chocolate in the new drink is nearly
(1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 15 (4) 13
25. If the price of an article is increased by 15% and the total number of articles sold is decreased by 10%,
the profit on income is
(1) 5% (2) 1.5% (3) 3.5% (4) 2.5%
26. In an examination 60% passed in English, 52% passed in Maths while 32% failed in both. If 220
candidates passed in both, then the total number of candidates was
(1) 200 (2) 300 (3) 400 (4) 500

5 5
27. If x is of 490, then of x is
7 7
(1) 350 (2) 250 (3) 70 (4) 420
28. Four points P, Q, R, S are on a line segment, as shown,

P Q R S
If PQ = QR = 1 : 2, QR : RS = 8 : 5, then PQ : QS is
(1) 3 : 13 (2) 1 : 7 (3) 1 : 13 (4) 4 : 13
29. S1, S2, S3 are three sums of money such that S2 is the simple interest on S1 and S3 is the simple interest
on S 2 for the same rate and same period. Then
(1) S12 = S2S3 (2) S32 = S1S2 (3) S22 = S1S3 (4) S1S2S3 = 1
30. If 5 men can build a wall in 12 days. How many men can build it in 10 days?
(1) 6 men (2) 7 men (3) 8 men (4) 4 men

x 3 3x - y
31. If = , then the value of is ______
y 5 2x + 3y

4 5 7 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
21 21 21 21

SECTION B
32. Candles A and B are lit together. Candle A lasts eleven hours, candle B lasts seven hours. After three
hours the two candles have equal lengths remaining. Find the ratio of their original lengths.
33. The monthly income of A is 20% more than the monthly income of B. Then how much percent B's
monthly income is less than that of A ?
34. A car salesman sells two types of cars : Maruti and Indica. A Maruti is sold at 40% profit, whereas
an Indica is sold at 60% profit. The salesman has calculated than if he sells the same number of each
car his overall profit will be 48%. In reality, he sells 50% more Indica than Maruti. What is the % of
profit ? (If a car is bought for 200,000 and is sold for 300,000, he has 50% profit as the difference
is 50% of the price he paid.)
35. There are 2 red, 3 blue and 4 green marbles in a bag. I take one marble at a time out of the bag without
looking to it. What is the least number of marbles I must take out to be sure that I have 3 marbles
of the same colour. What is the least number of marbles I must take to get 3 green marbles ?
36. Given A is 50% larger than C and B is 25% larger than C then A is what percent larger than B ?
37. A store prices an item in rupees and paise so that when 4% sales tax is added no rounding is necessary
because the result is exactly n dollars, where n is a positive integer. Find the smallest value of n ?

ANSWERS

SECTION A
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
Ans. 4 3 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 1 1

SECTION B
2
32. 14 : 11 33. x = 16 % 34. 50% 35. 8 marbles
3
36. 20% 37. n = 13
 4 CLOCK, TIME AND DISTANCE

1. The time on an electronic digital watch is 11.11. How many minutes before this would the watch have
shown a time with all digits identical ?
(1) 72 (2) 144 (3) 216 (4) 316
2. A watch is set right at 3 pm. It loses 20 minutes in 24 hours. The true time when the watch shows
2 pm on the fourth day is
(1) 3pm (2) 4.19pm (3) 3.19pm (4) 4pm
3. In a kilometer race, A beats B by 1 minute and beats C by 375 meters. If B beats C by 30 seconds,
the time taken by C to run 1 km is
(1) 150 sec (2) 210 sec (3) 240 sec (4) 200 sec
4. Sound travels at 330 m/s. How many kilometers away is a thunder cloud when its sound follows the
flash after 10 seconds ?
(1) 3.3 (2) 33 (3) 0.33 (4) 3.33
5. Which one of the following distance time level graphs is not possible ?

d A d B d d D
C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
t t t t
6. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through :
(1) 145º (2) 150º (3) 155º (4) 160º
7. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day,
when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o'clock, the true time is:

9 9 3
(1) 59 min past 3 (2) 4 pm (3) 58 min past 3 (4) 2 min past 3
12 11 11
8. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes?

8 5
(1) 32 min (2) 36 min (3) 90 min (4) 96 min
11 11
9. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but, not
together?

2 3 5
(1) 5 min. past 7 (2) 5
min (3) 5 min. past 7 (4) 5 min
11 11 11
10. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be at right angles?
5 7
(1) 43 min. past 5 (2) 43 min. past 5
11 11
(3) 40 min. past 5 (4) 45 min. past 5
11. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 4.20, is:
(1) 0º (2) 10º (3) 5º (4) 20º
12. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?

1 1 1
(1) 58 ° (2) 64° (3) 67 ° (4) 72 °
2 2 2
13. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of:
(1) 120º (2) 125º (3) 130º (4) 135º
14. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?
(1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 44 (4) 48
15. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is:
(1) 80º (2) 75º (3) 60º (4) 105º
16. How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in straight line but opposite in direction?
(1) 20 (2) 22 (3) 24 (4) 48
17. At what time between 4 and 5 o'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
(1) 45 min. past 4 (2) 40 min. past 4
4 6
(3) 50 min. past 4 (4) 54 min. past 4
11 11
18. At what time between 9 and 10 o'clock will the hands of a watch be together?
(1) 45 min. past 9 (2) 50 min. past 9
1 2
(3) 49 min. past 9 (4) 48 min. past 9
11 11
19. At what time, in minutes, between 3 o'clock and 4 o'clock, both the needles will coincide each other?
1 4 4 4
(1) 5 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 16
11 11 11 11
20. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?
(1) 20 (2) 21 (3) 22 (4) 24
21. How many times in a day, the hands of a clock are straight?
(1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 44 (4) 48
22. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2
p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?
(1) 2 p.m. on Tuesday (2) 2 p.m. on Wednesday
(3) 3 p.m. on Thursday (4) 1 p.m. on Friday

ANSWERS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

Ans. 4 3 3 1 4 3 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 3 2
 5 INDICES

1. What is half of 440 ?

(1) 240 (2) 440 (3) 279 (4) 220
1
2. The value of of 15 27 is
3
(1) 527 (2) 159 (3) 5 × 1526 (4) 5 × 39
3. Which one of the following number is perfect square ?
(1) 455466 (2) 465465 (3) 445566 (4) 445665
4. If a2bc3 = 53 and ab2 = 56, then abc equals
(1) 5 (2) 52 (3) 53 (4) 54.5
5. If 444 + 444 + 444 + 444 = 4x then x is
(1) 45 (2) 44 (3) 176 (4) 11
45 + 45 + 45 + 45 65 + 65 + 65 + 65 + 65 + 65
6. If × = 8n then, n is :-
25 + 25 35 + 35 + 35
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
a
7. If 2a × 3b = 576 then is
b
1 1
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) (4)
2 3
8. Given n is a natural number,
2 2 2 2 2
If n + n + n + n + · · · + n = 64, then
n times
n3 + n3 + n3 + n3 + · · · + n3 = ?
n 2 times
(1) 512 (2) 256 (3) 1024 (4) 2048
9. The total number of powers of prime factors in the expression 67 × 3517 × 3327 is
(1) 24 (2) 44 (3) 121 (4) 102
10. –1 –1 –1
If x = 4 + 5 , then x is

20 1 9 11
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 9 20 9

1 æ 4 1ö
11. ¸ +
15 çè 15 3 ÷ø
The expression is equivalent to

1 1
(1) (2) 9 (3) (4) 5
9 5

12. The value of [2 - 3(2 - 3)1 ]-1 is ______

-1 1
(1) (2) (3) –5 (4) 5
5 5
 2 2
æ p + 1 ö æ p -1 ö
13. p is an odd prime. Then ç ÷ -ç ÷ is
è 2 ø è 2 ø

(1) a fraction less than p (2) a fraction greater than p

(3) a natural number not equal to p (4) a natural number equal to p

é 1ù é 1 ù é 1 ù
14. n ê1 + ú ê1 + n +1 ú ... ê1 + n + m ú = ________
ë nû ë û ë û
(1) n + m (2) n + m + 1 (3) m (4) None of these
9 1
15. If 27k = , then the value of is
k
3 k2
(1) 4 (2) 0 (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these

ANSWERS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 1 3 1 4 2 3 4 1 1 2 4 2 1
 6 ALGEBRA

SECTION A
1. a, b, c, d are natural numbers such that a = bc, b = cd, c = da and d = ab. Then (a + b) (b + c)
(c + d) (d + a) is equal to
(1) (a + b + c + d)2 (2) (a + b)2 + (c + d)2
(3) (a + d)2 + (b + c)2 (4) (a + c)2 + (b + d)2

1
2. If a2 + a + 1 = 0 then a2 + is a
a2

(1) Positive integer

(2) Positive fraction which is not an integer
(3) Negative integer
(4) Negative fraction which is not an integer
3. If 36a4 = a6, then a3 is equal to

1 6 1 2
(1) a (2) 6a4 (3) a (4) 6a2
6 6

4. Let n be a 3 digit number such that n = sum of the squares of the digits of n. The number of such
n is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) more than two

5. It is given that x = 4 , which one of the following is incorrect

y 5

x+y 9 y + 2x 13 x 2 + y 2 41 2x 2 - y 2 9
(1) y = 5 (2) = (3) = (4) =
x 4 xy 20 xy 20

6. If a, b, c, d are positive integers such that a = bcd, b = cda, c = dab and d = abc, then the value of

(a + b + c + d)4
is
(ab + bc + cd + da)2

1
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 16 (4)
2
1- a - b
2(1- b)
7. If 60a = 3 and 60b = 5 then the value of 12 is equal to

(1) 60 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2

8. Consider the equation x2 + y2 = 2007. Given x is a real number and y is a natural number, the number
of solutions of the equation is
(1) 0 (2) 2006 (3) 88 (4) 44

th th
æaö æbö
9. A man gets ç ÷ of Rs. 100 and ç ÷ of Rs. 100 again. He gives away Rs. 200. Then the man
èbø èaø

(1) loses by the transaction

(2) will not lose by the transaction
(3) loss or gain depends on whether a > b or a < b respectively
(4) loss or gain depends on whether a < b or a > b respectively
10. A three digit number ab7 = a 3 + b3 + 73. Then a is
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8

1 1 1
11. + = where a, b are natural numbers.
a b 13

(A) a = b = 26 (B) a = 13, b = 13 × 14

(C) a = 14, b = 13 × 14
Of these statement the correct statements are
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C) (3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) (B) and (C)
12. p is a prime number greater than 3. When p2 is divided by 12 the remainder is
(1) always an odd number greater than 2
(2) always 1
(3) 1 or 11
(4) always an even number
13. a is a real number such that a3 + 4a – 8 = 0. Then the value of a7 + 64a2 is
(1) 128 (2) 164 (3) 256 (4) 180

1 2 3 n
14. 1 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ ...n , on complete simplification has the denominator _________.
2 3 4 n +1

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

15. In the addition problem shown, different letters represent different digits. If the carry over from adding
the units digit is 2, then (A + I) cannot be
DID
+ I
+ S AY
MATH
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8
16. If a – 1 = b + 2 = c – 3 = d + 4 then the largest among a, b, c, d is
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
17. If a* = a + 1 and *a = a – 1, then 1* – *1 + 2* – *2 + 3* – *3 + ...... + 1000* – *1000 is equal to
(1) 1000 (2) – 1000 (3) 2000 (4) –2000

b2 + c 2 + a 2
18. If a + b + c = 0, then is
b 2 - ca
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3b
y
19. If x > 2y and z < then
3
6 6
(1) x > 6z (2) x < 6z (3) y < (4) z >
x x

1 1
20. If x = 9 + 4Ö5 and xy = 1 then + is
x2 y2
(1) 81 (2) 322 (3) 97 (4) 2
21. At the end of the year 2002, Ram was half old as his grandpa. The sum of the years in which they
were born is 3854. Age of Ram at the end of year 2003 is
(1) 50 (2) 35 (3) 51 (4) 36
22. ‘a’ and ‘b’ are two natural numbers with a + b = 8. If a ³ b and a2 + b2 has minimum value, then
a and b are given by
(1) 7, 1 (2) 6, 2 (3) 4, 4 (4) 5, 2
23. The product of Hari’s age in years on his last birthday and his age now in complete months is 1800.
Hari’s age on his last birth day was
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 15
24. Ram is 7 years younger than Ravi. In four years time, Ram will be half of Ravi’s age. The sum of
their ages now is
(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 19
25. Let a * b = a + b + ab where a, b are rational numbers, neither of them equal to – 1. For example
6 * 2 = 6 + 2 + (6 × 2) = 20

1 1 1 1
–2* =–2+ + (– 2 × ) = -2 .
4 4 4 4
If a * x = 0, then x is

a a -a -a
(1) (2) (3) (4)
a +1 a -1 a -1 a +1

8 8
26. Instead of multiplying a given number by , a student divided it by . His answer was 297 more
19 19
than the correct answer. The given number was
(1) 8 (2) 19 (3) 152 (4) 64
1 1
27. If x + = -1 then the value of x3 - 3 is
x x
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) 2
28. a,b where a > b are natural numbers each less than 10 such that (a2 – b2) is a prime number. The number
of such pairs (a,b) is
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
29. 7 3
f(x) = ax + bx + cx – 5 where a, b, c are constants. If f(–7) = 7, then f(7) equals to
(1) –17 (2) –7 (3) 14 (4) 21
1
30. If y – 2 and y - are the factors of py2 + 5y + r then
2
(1) p > r (2) p = r (3) p < r (4) none
31. a, b, c are positive reals such that a(b + c) = 32, b(c + a) = 65, and c(a + b) = 77. Then abc =
(1) 100 (2) 110 (3) 220 (4) 130
32. a, b, c, d, e are five integers such that a + b = b + c = c + d = d + e = 2012, a + b + c + d + e = 5024.
Then the value of (d – a) is
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 4
33. There exists positive integers x, y such that both the expressions (3x + 2y) and (4x – 3y) are exactly
divisible by
(1) 11 (2) 7 (3) 23 (4) 17
34. If 3a + 1 = 2b – 1 = 5c + 3 = 7d + 1 = 15, then the value of (3a – b + 5c – 9d) is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
x+y x 2 + y2
35. If x > y > 0 and = 2 , the value of is.
x-y xy
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 6
36. a, b, c are real numbers and none of them zero and
2 2 2
æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1 ö æ 1 öæ 1 öæ 1ö
E = ç a + ÷ + ç b + ÷ + ç ab + ÷ - ç a + ÷ç b + ÷ç ab + ÷ . Then E is equal to
è aø è bø è ab ø è a øè b øè ab ø
(1) 2012 when a = b = 2012
(2) 2012 when ab = 2012
(3) 4 for all real values of a and b
(4) 2012 for all real values of a and b
37. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 7. The length of the smallest side is 2012 cm. The radius
of the circum circle of the triangle (in cm) is
(1) 2013 (2) 2011 (3) 4024 (4) 2012
a4 b4 c4
38. If a = 2012, b = –1005, c = –1007, then the value of + + + 3abc is
b+c c+a a +b
(1) 2012 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) (2012)3
39. If one root of a - x + b + x = a + b is 2012, then a possible value of a, b is.
(1) (2000, 2012) (2) (4024, 2012) (3) (1000, 1012) (4) (1012, 1000)
40. If a = 2012, b = 2011, c = 2010 then the value of a + b + c2 – ab – bc – ca is
2 2

(1) 0 (2) 2012 (3) 3 (4) 4024

41. If a + b + c = 0 where a, b, c are non zero real numbers, then the value of
(a2 – bc)2 – (b2 – ca) (c2 – ab) is
(1) 1 (2) abc (3) a2 + b2 + c2 (4) 0
42. Aruna, Bhanu and Rita have some amount of money. The ratio of the money of Aruna to that of Bhanu
is 7 : 15 and the ratio of the money of Bhanu and Rita is 7 : 16. If Atuna has Rs. 490, the amount
of money Rita has is (in Rupees)
(1) 1500 (2) 1600 (3) 2400 (4) 3600
43. x and y are real numbers such that 7x – 16y = 0 and 4x – 49y = 0, then the value of (y – x) is
5 19 4115 1569
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2013 784
44. The number of real solutions of the equation x + x 2 + x 3 + 1 = 1 is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0

SECTION B
45. a = 1+ 3 + 5 + 7 + ______ + 2009
b = 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + ... + 2010 then the value of (a – b)2 is __________.
46. The number of terms in the expansion (a + b + c)3 is __________.
47. A predator beast weighs 2008 kg at the beginning of a year. During the first month of the year its
1
weight is increased by 33 % and in the second month decreased by 25% and in the third month
3

1 2
increased by 50%, in the fourth month decreased by 33 % , in the fifth month increased by 16 %
3 3

and in the sixth month decreased by 21 3 % . This increase and decrese of the weight continued in
7
the next 6 months in the same order with the same percentage. Find the weight of the predator at the
end of the year.
48. When a barrel is 40% empty it contains 80 litres more than when it is 20% full. Find the full capacity
of the barrel (in litres).
49. If a2 – b2 = 2011 where a, b are integers, then find the most negative value of (a + b).
x
50. x and y are real numbers such that xy = x + y = (x ¹ 0, y ¹ 0). Then find the numerical value of
y
(x–y).
51. p is the difference between a real number and its reciprocal. q is the difference between the square
of the same real number and the square of the reciprocal. Then the value of p4 + q2 + 4p2 is.

y a-2 x y
52. If x = and y = the value of x(y + 2) + + when a = 2012 is.
y +1 2 y x

53. If a, b, c, d, satisfy the equations

a + 7b + 3c + 5d = 0, 8a + 4b + 6c + 2d = – 16, 2a + 6b + 4c + 8d = 16, 5a + 3b + 7c + d = – 16
then find the value of (a + d) (b + c).
54. x, y, z are real numbers such that (x + y)2 = 16, (y + z)2 = 36, (z + x)2 = 81, x + y + z > 3. Then number
of possible values of (x + y + z) is.
55. The combined age of a man and his wife is six times the combined ages of their children. Two years ago
their united ages were ten times the combined ages of their children. Six years hence their
combined age will be three times the combined age of the children. The number of children they have is.
3
x2
56. The sum of the roots of the equation x = ( x)x is.
57. There are four non-zero numbers x, y, x and u. If x = y – z, y = z – u, z = u – x, then calculate the
x y z u
value of + + + .
y z u x
58. A sum of money is divided between two persons in the ratio 3 : 5. If the share of one person is
Rs. 2000 more than that of the other, then find the sum of money (in rupees).

æ ö
a - a -2 1 - a -2
1

59. The value of the expression ç 1 - - a 2 ÷ is 2 where a = (2013)2. The value of K is.
ç 2 -
1 1
-
1
÷ K3
è a - a 2 a2 + a 2 ø

60. There is a famine in a place. But there is sufficient food for 400 people for 31 days. After 28 days
280 of them left the place. Assuming that each person consumes the same amount of food per day,
the number of days for which the rest of the food would last for the remaining people is.

61. Given a ¹ 0, b ¹ 0. Find the number of real numbers pairs (a, b) which satisfy the equation
a4 + b4 = (a + b)4

62. The sum of five unequal whole number is 90. What can be the second largest number of the five atmost?

63. In a running competition of 200 meters A defeats B by 40 meters and B defeats C by 10 meters. Find
out in how many meters A will defeat C in a running competition of 375 meters ?

64. If x = 12 + 22 + 32 + .... + 20052 and y = 1 × 3 + 2 × 4 + 3 × 5 + ...... + 2004 × 2006, then the value
of x – y = ?

65. Five years ago, the average age of A, B, C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average
age of all the five is 49 years. Find the present age of E ?

66. x men working x hours a day for each of x days produce x articles. How many articles will be
produced by y men working y hours a day for each of y days ?

67. In a 300 meter race, A defeats B by 40 meters and in a 500 meter race, B defeats C by 50 meter. Then
in a 100 meter race A defeat C by how many meter ?

68. In her purse, Jayasree has 20 coins, with a total value of Rs.5/-. There are three denominations of
coin-10p, 20p and 50p- in her house and she has more 50 p coins than 10p coins. How many of each
type of coin-does she have ?

69. (i) Seven women and five men attended a party. At this party each man shake hands with every other person.
Each women shakes hands only with men. How many handshakes took place at the party ?

(ii) At a party, every two people shake hands once. How many people attended the party if there were
66 handshares.

70. Three friends have a tradition of buying each other a gift once a year. Each person is presented a gift
by the other two persons who split the price equally. So A and B each pay half the cost of the gift
for C, B and C each pay half the cost of gift for A and C and A pay half the cost of the gift for B.
The final rule is that each person spends all the money he brings. If A brings Rs. 50, B brings
Rs.58 and C bring Rs.62 what is the purchase amount for A's gift ?

71. A small school has 100 students and rooms A, B and C. After the first period, half of the students in
room A move to room B, one-fifth of the students in room B move to room C, and one-third of the
students in room C move to room A. After the move, the total number of students in each room is
the same as its was before. How many students are in room A ?
72. The machines P, Q and R, working together, can do a job in x hours. When working alone P needs
an additional 6 hours to do the job ; Q, one additional hour ; and R, x additional hours. Find the value
of x ?
73. The number 13 is prime. If you reverse it you also obtain a prime number 31. What is the larger of
the pair of primes that satisfies this condition and has a sum 110.

ANSWERS

SECTION A
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 4 1 4 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 1 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
Ans. 2 2 4 1 4 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 4 1

SECTION B
5
45. 10052 46. 10 47. 1687 kg 48. 200 litres 49. –2011 50. 3/2
18
51. 2q2 52. 2012 53. –16 54. 3 55. 3 56. 9

57. 1/2 58. 8000 59. 2013 60. 10 61. 0 62. 43

y3
63. 90 meters 64. 2005 65. 45 years 66. 67. 22 meters
x2
68. 2 ® 10p coins, 14 ® 20p coins, 4 ® 50p coins, 69. (i) 45 handshakes, (ii) 12 people
2
70. Rs. 70 71. 20 72. x = 73. 73 is larger number
3
 7 GEOMETRY

SECTION A
1. In the adjoining rangoli design each of the four sided figures is a rhombus and the distance between
any two dots is 1 unit. The total area of the design is

(1) 36 3 sq. units

(2) 9 3 sq. units

(3) 24 3 sq. units

(4) 18 3 sq. units

2. In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a square of side 4 units. Semicircles are drawn outside the squares
with diameter 2 units as shown. The area of the shaded portion in square units is
(1) 8 A B

(2) 16
(3) 16 – 2p
D C
(4) 8 – p
3. A cube of edge 4 cm is painted externally with red colar. If is then cut into one cm cubes. How many
of these do not have red point on any face ?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 56
(4) 16
4. In the adjacent figure BA and BC are produced to meet CD and AD produced is E and F. Then
ÐAED + ÐCFD is B
(1) 80º A 50º

(2) 50º 90º

E D C
(3) 40º
F
(4) 160º
5. In an isosceles triangle ABC, AC = BC, ÐBAC is bisected by AD where D lies on BC. It is found that
AD = AB. Then ÐACB equals
(1) 72º
(2) 54º
(3) 36º
(4) none of these
6. ABC is a right angled triangle with ÐBAC = 90º. AH is drawn perpendicular to BC where H lies on
BC. If AB = 60 and AC = 80, then BH =

(1) 36

(2) 32

(3) 24

(4) 30

7. Three identical rectangles are overlapping as in the diagram. The length and breadth of each rectangle
are respectively 2007 cm and 10 cm. The area of each of the shaded square portions is 16 cm2.

The perimeter of the outer boundary of the figure in cm is

(1) 10070
2007 cm
(2) 12070 10 cm

(3) 14070

(4) 11070

8. In the adjoining figure A = 60º, C = 50º. ÐBDG = 30º, ÐGEF = 20º, Then
A
(1) EG = 2FG
F 60º
(2) EG > FG º
20G
E
(3) EG = FG D
30º 50º C
B
(4) EG < FG

9. The lengths of the altitudes of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Then

(1) one angle of the triangle must be 60º

(2) the triangle is a right angled triangle

(3) the triangle is an obtuse angled triangle

(4) such a triangle does not exist

10. Three circles C1, C2, C3 with radii r1, r2, r3 where r1 < r2 < r3 are placed as in the figure. Then r2

(1) r3 - r1

r3 r2
(2) r3 + r1 M r1
C3 C2 C1 P

(3) r32 - r12

(4) r3 r1
11. Two circles of different radii touch externally. APQB is the line of
diameter as shown in the diagram. AD, BC and DRC are tangents so
that the area of the rectangle ABCD is 16 cm2. The area of the triangle
PQR is _____ cm2.
(1) 4cm2 P O
A B
(2) 6cm2
(3) 9cm2
D R C
(4) 14cm2
12. Two of the altitudes of the scalene triangle ABC have lengths 4 and 12. If the length of the third altitude
is also an integer, then its greatest value can be ____________.
(1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 6
13. Which one of the following angles cannot be constructed using an unmarked ruler and compass only?
1
(1) 75° (2) 90° (3) 50° (4) 22 °
2
2
14. In triangle ABC, BD bisect angle B. If mÐA = mÐB and mÐB = 3mÐC them mÐBDC is:-
3
(1) 75° B
(2) 105°
(3) 90°
A D C
(4) 120°
15. In the adjoining figure, DABC is right angled at A; mÐB = mÐC. The bisectors of angles B and C
meet at I. Then mÐBIC is :-
(1) 135° (2) 115° (3) 100° (4) 90°
16. The number of isosceles triangles in which one angle is 4 times another angle is :-
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) Infinitely many (4) 4
17. ABCD is a square. P is a point in its interior such that DPAB is equilateral. Then measure of ÐPCB is :-
(1) 45° (2) 30° (3) 60° (4) 75°
18. A rhombus has one diagonal double the other. If the area of rhombus is kcm 2 then the legnth of its
side is
5 k 5k 5k k 5
(1) cm (2) cm (3) cm (4) cm
4 4 4 4
19. The adjoining figure is formed by two squares. The side of each square is a whole number.

If the area of the figure is 58 square centi-meters, its perimeter is :-

(1) 58 cm

(2) 34 cm

(3) 29 cm
(4) 116 cm
20. A rectangle with perimeter 44 is partitioned into 5 congruent rectangles, as indicated in the diagram.
The perimeter of each of the congruent rectangle is :-
(1) 10

(2) 20

(3) 24
(4) 48
21. The small square is surrounded by four congruent rectangles as shown, to form a large square. If the
perimeter of each rectangle is 16, the area of the large square is :-

(1) 64

(2) 256 x

(3) 32
y
(4) 224 x y
22. The area of the quadrilateral shown in the figure is :-

(1) 6 2

(2) 2 + 6 6 2

(3) 2 + 8
6
(4) 12

23. If all the diagonals of a regular hexagon are drawn, then number of points of intersection, not count-
ing the corners of the hexagon is :-

(1) 6 (2) 13 (3) 7 (4) 12

24. The area of the shaded region in the diagram is :-

(1) 9 6

(2) 3 2
3
(3) 18

(4) 6 3 - 3 2
3

25. The altitude drawn to the base of an isosceles triangle is of length 8 and the perimeter is 32. The area
of the triangle is :-

(1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 48 (4) 56

26. A circle is added to the equally spaced grid alongside. The largest number of dots that the circle can
pass through is :-
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10
27. D,A,O,B and C are points on a line. Circles are drawn with O, A and B as centres as shown. If the
radius of the smallest circle is 1 cm, then the length CD is :-
(1) 3 cm
(2) 4 cm D C
A O B
(3) 5 cm
(4) 6 cm
28. In the triangle ABC, D is a point on the line segment BC such that AD = BD = CD. The measure of
angle BAC is :-
(1) 60° (2) 75° (3) 90° (4) 120°
29. Point P,Q,R and S divide the sides of a rectangle ABCD in the ratio 1 : 2, as shown in the figure. What
fraction of area of the rectangle is the area of the parallelogram PQRS?
R
D C

A B
P
2 3 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 9 9
30. Suppose a mirror stands on the Y-axis drawn on a graph sheet. Then the reflection of the point (–2,4)
the mirror will be
Y
(1) (2,4)
(–2,A) (2,A)
(2) (2, –4)
X
(3) (4,2) O

(4) (4, –2)

31. In the adjoining figure l1 and l2 are parallel lines. t is a transversal which cuts l1, l2 at A,B respectively.
The angles at A, B are trisected. The measures of the angles ACB and ADB are respectively

t
1
2
A
l1

C D

B
l2

(1) 60°, 120° (2) 120°, 60° (3) x – y, x + y (4) 2(x – y), 2(x + y)
32. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC = 2008 cm. ADC is drawn as an equilateral triangle on
AC outside DABC. AD is parallel to BC. The bisector of D meets AB in E, say. Then BE is equal to
(1) 1004 cm (2) 2008 cm (3) 0 (4) 502 cm
33. In the adjoining figure ABC, DEF are equilateral triangles. AB = 8 cm and DE = 3 cm. Then the possible
value of AE + BD + CF is

8 cm E 8 cm
m
3c
D F

B C
8 cm
(1) 6.9 cm (2) 7.1 cm (3) 5.2 cm (4) 8.3 cm
34. The measure of one of the angles of a right triangle is five times that of a second angle. Then the
possibility of the second largest angle is
(1) 72° (2) 75° (3) 72° or 75° (4) None of these
35. A rectangular sheet of paper is folded so that the corners A, B go to A', B' as in the figure. Then ÐZXY
is

Z A

A' X'
B'

Y
B
(1) an acute angle
(2) an obtuse angle
(3) a right angle
(4) a variable angle depending on the point X
36. On a line segment AB = 2008 cm a square and a regular hexagon are drawn as shown in the diagram.
The distance between their centres P, Q, in cm is

Q P
R
B

(1) 1004 3 (2) 1004( 3 + 1) (3) 2008 3 (4) 1004 ( 3 - 1)

37. Two sqaures 17 cm × 17 cm overlap to form a rectangle 17 cm × 30 cm. The area of the over lapping
region is

H G D H C G D C

17 17

E 17 F A E B F A 17 B

(1) 289 (2) 68 (3) 510 (4) 85

38. In the figure, PQRS is a rectangle of area 2011 square units. K, L, M, N are the mid points of the
respective sides. O is the midpoint of MN. The area of the triangle OKL is equal to (in square units)

S N
R
O

K M

P L Q

2011 2(2011) 2011 3(2011)

(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 4 8

39. PQRS is a parallelogram. MP and NP divide ÐSPQ into three equal parts (ÐMPQ > ÐNPQ) and MQ
and NQ divide ÐRQP into 3 equal parts (ÐMQP > ÐNQP). If k (ÐPNQ) = (ÐPMQ) then k =

1 3 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) (4)
2 2 3

40. A point P inside a rectangle ABCD is joined to the angular points. Then
(1) Sum of the areas of two of the triangles so formed is equal to the sum of the other two
(2) The sum of the areas of the triangles so formed is a whole number whatever may be the
dimensions of the rectangle.
(3) The sum of the areas of a pair of opposite triangles is greater than half the area of the rectangle.
(4) None of these
41. In the adjoining figure ABCD and BGFE are rhombus. AB = 10 cm, GF = 3 cm. GE meets DC at H.
ÐA = 60°. The perimeter of ABEHD is (in cm)

D H C

E F

A B G

(1) 47 (2) 40 (3) 39 (4) 33

42. The perimeter of an isosceles right angled triangle is 2012. Its area is
(1) 2012(3 – 2 ) (2) (1006)2 (3 – 2 2 )
(3) (2012)2 (4) (1006)2
43. Two regular polygons of same number of sides have sides 40 cm and 9 cm in legnth. The lengths
of the side of another regular polygon of the same number of sides and whose area is equal to the
sum of the areas of the given polygons is (in cm)
(1) 49 (2) 31 (3) 41 (4) 360
1
44. AX and BX are two adjacent sides of a regular polygon. If ÐABX = ÐAXB, then the number of
3
sides of the polygon is
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 5
45. A rectangular block of dimensions 16 × 10 × 8 units is painted. It is cut into cubes of dimensions
1 × 1 × 1. The number of cubes which are not painted at all is
(1) 945 (2) 672 (3) 812 (4) 796
46. The radius of a circle is increased by 4 units and the ratio of the areas of the original and the increased
circle is 4 : 9. The radius of the original circle is
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 12 (4) 8
47. Two sides of a triangle are 10 cm and 5 cm in length and the length of the median to the third side
1
is 6 cm. The area of the triangle is 6 x cm 2 . The value of x is
2
A

10
5
1
6
2

B D C
(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14 (4) 15
48. ABCD is a rectangle. Through C a variable line is drawn so as to cut AB at X and DA produced at
Y. Then BX × DY is
Y

X
A B

D C
(1) Twice the area of the rectangle ABCD
(2) Equal to the area of the rectangle ABCD
(3) A variable quantity which lies between the area of rectangle ABCD and twice the area of the rectangle
ABCD
(4) Always a constant less than the area of rectangle ABCD
49. In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of the circle. ACOB is a square with A on the circle. Through
B a line parallel to OA is drawn to cut the circle at D nearer to A. Then ÐBOD =

B O
D

A C
1°
(1) 20° (2) 18° (3) 15° (4) 22
2
50. In the figure below, AB is a diameter of a circle. AB is produced to P such that BP = radius of the
circle. PC is a tangent to the circle. The tangent at B and AC produced cut a E. Then DCDE is
E
C

90° D

90°
A r r
O B r P

(1) isosceles with EC = ED (2) isosceles with EC = CD

(3) equilateral (4) a scalene triangle

SECTION B
51. ABC is a right angled triangle with B = 90º. BDEF is a square. BE is perpendicular to AC. The measure
of ÐDEC is __________.
A

F E

B C
D
52. From a point within an equilateral triangle perpendiculars are drawn to the three sides and are 5, 7
and 9cms is length. The perimeter of the triangle is _________ cm.
53. ABCD is a rectangle rotated clockwise about A by 90º as shown. The rotation takes B to B', C to C',
D to D'. AB = 6 cm, BC' = 10 cm. The breadth of the rectangle ABCD is __________.
A B
D'

D C
C' B'
54. AB is a line segment 2000 cm long. The following design of semicircle is drawn on AB, with AP =
5 cm and repeating the designs. The area enclosed by the semicircular designs from A to B is ________.

P
A B

55. ABCD is a square. E and F are points respectively on BC and CD such that ÐEAF = 45°. AE and AF
Area of DAEF
cut the diagonal BD at P, Q respectively. Then find value of
Area of D APQ
A D
45°
Q
F

45° P 45°
45°
C
B E
56. In the adjoining figure BAC is a 30° – 60° – 90° triangle with AB = 20. D is the midpoint of AC. The
perpendicular at D to AC meets the line parallel to AB through C at E. The line through E perpen-
dicular to DE meets BA produced at F. If DF = 5 x , find x.
E C

90° 90°
90°
D

60° 30°
F B
A
ÐQPR
57. PR and PQ are tangents to a circle and QS is a diameter. Find
ÐRQS

90°–q
q P
2q
90°–q

S R

58. ABCD is a trapezium such that AB||CD. AB = 10 cm ; BC = 8 cm ; CD = DA = 5 cm. Find the height
of the trapezium and also find AC and BD.
59. ABCD is a convex pentagon with ÐA = ÐB = ÐD = 90° ; ÐC = ÐE. Sides AB, BC, CD, DE and EA
are extended to K, L, M, N and O respectively. The exterior angles ÐOAB, ÐKBC, ÐLCD, ÐMDE
and ÐNEA are bisected and the bisectors are produced in either direction to form the pentagon PQRST.
Find the angles of this pentagon.
60. All sides of the convex pentagon ABCDE are equal in length ÐA = ÐB = 90°. Then find the value
of ÐE.
61. A bar code is formed using 25 black and certain white bars. White and black bars alternate. The first
and the last are black bars. Some of the black bars are thin and others are wide. The number of white
bars is 15 more than the thin black bars. Then find the number of thick black bars.

62. By drawing 10 lines of which 4 are horizontal and 6 are vertical crossing each other as in the figure,
one can get 15 cells. With the same 10 lines of which 3 are vertical and 7 horizontal we get 12 cells.
Find the maximum number of cells that could be got by drawing 20 lines (some horizontal and some
vertical) is

63. The angle of a polygon are in the ratio 2 : 4 : 5 : 6 : 6 : 7. Calculate the difference between the greatest
and least angle of the polygon.
64. The perimeter of a right angled triangle is 132. The sum of the square of all its sides is 6050. Find
the sum of the legs of the triangle.
65. Nine squares are arranged to form a rectangle ABCD. The smallest square P has an area 4 sq.units.
Find the areas of Q and R.
A B
(F)
(R)
(Q)
(E)
(P)
(D)
(C)
(A) (B)
D C

66. ABCD is a trapezium with AB and CD parallel. If AB = 16 cm, BC = 17 cm, CD = 8 cm, DA = 15 cm

then the area of the trapezium (in cm2) will be ?
67. A square is inscribed in another square each of whose four vertices lines on each side of the square.
25
The area of the smaller square is times the area of the bigger one. Then calculate the ratio with
49
which each vertex of the smaller square divides the side of the bigger square.
68. PSR is an isosceles triangle in which PS = PR. SP is produced to O such that PO = SP. Then the value
of ÐSRO is equal to ?
69. CAB is an angle whose measure is 70°. ACFG and ABDE are squares drawn outside the angle. The
diagonal FA meets BE at H. Then calculate the measure of the ÐEAH.
70. In rectangle ABCD, AB = 2BC = 4 cm E and F are midpoints of AB and CD respectively. ESD and
ETC are arcs of circles centred at A and B respectively. If the perpendicular bisector line l of EF cuts
the arcs at S and T as in the diagram, then ST is equal to (in cm)

A B

S T
l

D F C

71. Triangle ABC is equilateral of side length 8 cm. Each arc shown in the diagram is an arc of a circle
with the opposite vertex of the triangle as its centre. Calculate the total area enclosed within the entire
figure shown (in cm2).
A

B C

72. ABCD is a square. A line AX meets the diagonal BD at X and AX = 2016 cm. The length of CX
(in cm) is equal to ?
73. O is the centre of a circle of radius 15 cm. M is a point at a distance of 5 cm from O. AMB is any
chord of the circle through M, then calculate the value of AM × MB.

A B
M
C

74. An isosceles trapezoid is circumscribed about a circle of radius 2 cm and the area of the trapezoid
is 20 cm2. Find the length of equal sides of the trapezoid.
75. A triangle has sides with lengths 13 cm, 14 cm, and 15 cm. A circle whose centre lies on the longest
side touches the other two sides. Find the radius of the circle (in cm).
76. ABC and ADE are two secants of a circle of radius 3 cm. A is at a distance of 5 cm from the centre
of the circle. The secants include an angle of 30°. The area of the DACE is 10 cm2. Then calculate
the area of the DADB (in cm 2).
77. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle with sides 24 units, 32 units. SKL, PLN, QNM, RNL are congruent
right angled triangles, then calculate the area of each triangle.

D R C
M
L
S Q
N
K
A P O B

78. AB and AC are two straight line segments enclosing an angle 70°. Squares ABDE and ACFG are drawn
outside the angle BAC. The diagonal FA is produced to meet the diagonal EB in H, calculate the value
of ÐEAH.
79. In the pentagon ABCDE, ÐD = 2 ÐB and the other angles are each equal to half the sum of the angles
ÐB and ÐD. What will be the largest interior angle of the pentagon.
80. A triangle whose sides are integers has a perimeter 8. The area of the triangle is.
81. ABC and ADC are isosceles triangles with AB = AC = AD. ÐBAC = 40°, ÐCAD = 70°. Calculate the
value of ÐBCD + ÐBDC
82. In the figure below two equal circles S1, S2 of radii 2 units each touch each other. AB is the common
diameter. The tangent at B meets the tangent from A to the circle S 2 at C as shown. If BC = K 2 then
the value of K is.

C
P

A B
O

S1 S2

83. In the figure below, DABC is equilateral AD, BE and CF are respectively perpendicular to AB, BC
Area of DDEF
and AC. Calculate
Area of DABC
D
A
90°

90° F
B
90° C

E
 AP 1
84. ABCD is a parallelogram P is a point on AD such that = . Q is the point of intersection of
AD 2015
AQ
AC and BP. Calculate .
AC
D C

Q
P

A B

ANSWERS

SECTION A
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 3 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 2 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 3

SECTION B
51. 45° 52. 42 3 cm 53. 2 cm 54. 1250 p sq. cm 55. 2 56. 7 57. 2

24
58. Height = cm , AC = 6 cm, BD = 3 17 cm 59. 112 1 ° ,90°, 112 1 °, 112 1 °, 112 1 ° 60. ÐE = 150°
5 2 2 2 2
61. 16 62. 81 63. 120° 64. 77 units 65. Area of Q = 8, Area of R = 1296

66. 180 cm2 67. 4/3 68. 90° 69. 25° 70. (4 - 2 3) 71. 32( p - 3)

72. 2016 73. 200 74. 5 cm 75. 56/9 76. 8/5 77. 48 sq. units

78. 25° 79. 144° 80. 2 2 81. 145° 82. K = 2 83. 3

84. 1/2016
 8 LOGICAL ARGUMENTS

1. Rahim wants to arrange a party of a certain number of people such that no two of participants (whose
dates of birth he knows) of the party will have birthday in the same month. The number of people
to be invited for the party cannot exceed.

(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 364 (4) 23

2. Today is Saturday. What day of the week is 100 days from now?

(1) Friday (2) Tuesday (3) Monday (4) Sunday

3. If 15th January 1997 was a Wednesday, then 15th February 2006 will be a

(1) Wednesday (2) Tuesday (3) Sunday (4) Friday

4. One hundred and twenty students take an examination which is marked out of a total 100 (with no
fractional marks). No three students are awarded the same mark. The smallest possible number of pairs
of students who are awarded the same rank is :-

(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 19

5. The cost of a single two-litre bottle of juice is 5 times the cost of 1 cup of juice. If a single two-litre
bottle of juice costs Rs.6 more than 3 cups of juice, how much does a single two-litre bottle of juice
cost?

(1) Rs. 10 (2) Rs. 12 (3) Rs. 15 (4) Rs. 18

6. Which one of the following is true?

(i) If A is a brother of B, then B is a brother of A

(ii) If A likes B and B likes C, then A likes C

(iii) If A ¹ B, and B ¹ C, then A ¹ C

(1) Both (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) only

(3) All the three (4) None of the three

7. For an integer n, a student states the following:

I. If n is odd, (n + 1)2 is even

II. If n is even, (n–1)2 is odd

III. If n is even, (n - 1) is irrational.

Which of the above would be true?

(1) 1 & III (2) I & II (3) All (4) II & III
8. In a magic square, each row and each column and both main diagonals have the same total. The number
that should replace x in this partically completed magic square is :-
(1) more information needed
13
(2) 9
5 15
(3) 10
x
(4) 12
9. The image of INMO when reflected in a mirror is :-
(1) I WO (2) OMNI (3) INWO (4) OWNI
10. Nine dots are arranged such that they are equally spaced horizontally and vertically as in the figure.
The number of triangles which are not right angled triangles that can be formed with the above dots
as vertices is :-
(1) 18
(2) 21
(3) 40
(4) 32
11. Rengu and Dingu are friends. One of them lies on Mondays, Tuesdays and Wednesdays and tells the
truth on the other days of the week. The other fellow lies on Thursdays, Fridays and Saturdays and
tells the truth on the other days of the week.
On a particular noon, the two had the following conversation :
Rengu : I lie on Saturdays
Dingu : I will lie tomorrow
Rengu : I lie on Sundays
On which day of the week did this conversation take place ?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Thursday (4) Wednesday
12. The last two digits of 32012, when represented in decimal notation, will be
(1) 81 (2) 01 (3) 41 (4) 21
13. In a foot ball league, a particular team played 50 games in a season. The team never lost three games
consecutively and never won four games consecutively, in that season. If N is the number of games
the team won in that season, then N satisfies.
(1) 25 £ N £ 30 (2) 25 £ N £ 36
(3) 16 £ N £ 38 (4) 16 £ N £ 30
14. Here is a sequence of composite numbers having only one prime factor, written in ascending order
4, 8, 9, 16, 25, 27, 32,......... The 15th number of this sequence is ________.
(1) 342 (2) 348 (3) 242 (4) 343
15. A says: "I am a 6-digit number and all my middle digits are made of zeros." B says to A: "I am your
successor. My digit in the tens place is the same as your starting digit". The value of the whole number
A is________.
(1) 100008 (2) 100009 (3) 100006 (4) 10009

ANSWERS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 4 1 4 4 3 3 4 2
 9 NUMBER THEORY

SECTION A
1. A certain number has exactly eight factors including 1 and itself. Two of its factors are 21 and 35.
The number is
(1) 105 (2) 210 (3) 420 (4) 525
2. The largest positive integer which cannot be written in the form 5m + 7n, where m and n are positive
integers is
(1) 25 (2) 35
(3) greater than 100 (4) greater than 350
2016
æ1ö
3. The last digit in the finite decimal representation of the number ç ÷ is
è 5ø
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
4. Three people each think of a number, which is the product of two different primes. The product of
the three numbers which are thought of is
(1) 120 (2) 12100 (3) 240 (4) 3000
5. The number of three digit numbers that are divisible by 2 but not divisible by 4 is
(1) 200 (2) 225 (3) 250 (4) 450
6. Two sequences S1 and S 2 are as under :
2 4 6
S1 : , , ,...........
1 3 5
1 3 5
S2 : , , ,...........
2 4 6
2n 2n - 1
The nth term of S1 is and the nth tern of S2 is . The value of the difference between the
2n - 1 2n
2016th terms of S 1 and S2 is
4023 8063 8063 8047
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2015 ´ 2016 4032 ´ 4031 4024 ´ 4023 4031 ´ 4032
7. The least number which when divided by 25, 40 and 60 leaves a remainder 7 in each case is
(1) 607 (2) 1007 (3) 807 (4) 507
2 2
æ p + 1 ö æ p -1 ö
8. p is an odd prime. Then ç ÷ -ç ÷ is
è 2 ø è 2 ø
(1) a fraction less than p (2) a fraction greater than p
(3) a natural number not equal to p (4) a natural number equal to p
y a -2 x y
9. If x = and y = the value of x(y + 2) + + when a = 2012 is
y +1 2 y x

1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2012
2 3 4
 1 1
10. If x + = -1 then the value of x3 + 3 is
x x
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) 2

11.
3
The number of natural numbers a(< 100) such that a - a
2
( ) is a square of a natural number is

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10

12. Find the smallest number which when divided by 10 leaves a remainder of 9, when divided by 9 leaves
a remainder of 8, when divided by 8 leaves a remainder of 7,.... etc. down to where, when divided
by 2 it leaves a remainder 1.
(1) 2500 (2) 2519 (3) 3500 (4) 3519
13. The years of 20th century and 21th century are of 4 digits. The number of years which are divisible
by the product of the four digits of the year is
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) none of these
14. The sum of two natural numbers is 100. Their product cannot be greater than.
(1) 2500 (2) 1500 (3) 100 (4) 3151
15. The number of digits when 2008 is written in the decimal form is
(1) 2008 (2) 1004 (3) 74 (4) 19
2008
16. The units digit of the number 2 2 is
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
17. If a, b are natural numbers such that a + b = 2008, then (–1)a + (–1)b is
(1) 1 (2) –1 (3) 2 (4) 2 or –2
18. If n = 1010 –1, the number of digits in n3 is
(1) 30 (2) 28 (3) 32 (4) 27
19. Anu, Babu and Chitra have 51 balls altogether. Babu gives 7 balls to Chitra and Chitra gives 5 balls
to Anu and Anu gives 4 balls to Babu. If all the three have finally equal number of balls, then the
number of balls Anu had at the start is
(1) 17 (2) 20 (3) 16 (4) 19
20. The number of ordered triples (a, b, c) 1 £ a, b, c £ 9 such that ac = b2 – 1 is
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 14 (4) 18
21. Let 'm' be the number of perfect squares in 1,2,3, ......... 1000000. Let 'n' be the number of perfect
n
cubes in 1, 2, 3, ........ 1000000. Then the value of is
m
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.1 (3) 10 (4) 100
22. The difference of the squares of two consecutive natural numbers is 2008.
(1) Only one such pair exists (2) Infinitely many such pairs exist
(3) No such pair exists (4) Exactly two such pairs exist
23. The value of a commodity is increased by x% first and again increased by x%. The total increase is

æ x2 ö
(1) 2x% (2) 4x% (3) ç 2x + ÷% (4) x2%
è 100 ø
 th rd
æ 1ö 3 æ 1ö 1
24. x is ç 1 ÷ of 3 and y is ç 2 ÷ of 2 . Then
è 6ø 4 è 3ø 6
(1) 2x = y (2) y < x (3) x < y (4) x = y
25. a, b, c are three non-zero digits. The sum of all the numbers formed by these three digits is always
divisible by
(A) a + b + c (B) 222 (C) 9(a + b + c)
(1) Only (A) is true (2) Only (A) and (B) are true
(3) Only (B) and (C) are true (4) Only (A) and (C) are true
26. A leap year started on a Monday. The days appearing 53 times are
(1) Sunday and Monday (2) Monday and Tuesday
(3) Tuesday and Wednesday (4) Saturday and Sunday
27. The number 1612 is obtained from the number 84 by raising the smaller number to the power n. Then
n is

16 8
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) (4)
3 3
28. The tens place of two three digits numbers is 8 and both the numbers are divisible by 4. Then the
difference between the biggest and the smallest such numbers is
(1) 888 (2) 808 (3) 708 (4) 788

æ n ö
29. Given 63.63 = m ç 21 + , m, n positive integers with n < 100. The value of (m + n) is
è 100 ÷ø
(1) 21 (2) 24 (3) 104 (4) 101
30. n is a natural number and (n + 2) (n + 4) is odd. Then the biggest power of 2 that divides
(n + 1) (n + 3) for any n is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
31. Aruna and Baskar wrote the three digit number 888 and Aruna changed two of its digits and wrote
the biggest three digit number divisible by 8. Bhaskar too changed two of the digits of 888 and wrote
the smallest three number divisible by 8. The difference of the new numbers obtained is
(1) 848 (2) 856 (3) 864 (4) 872
32. n is a negative integer. The expression having the greatest value is
(1) –2n2 + 2n (2) –2n2 – 2n (3) 2n2 + 2n (4) 2n2 – 2n
33. Five positive integers are written around a circle so that no two or three adjacent number have a sum
divisible by 3. In this collection the number of numbers divisible by 3 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
34. A number is called a palindrome if it reads the same forward or backward. For example 13531 is a
palindrome. The difference between the biggest 10 digit palindrome and the smallest 9 digit
palindrome is
(1) 976666666 (2) 9888888888 (3) 9899999998 (4) 9777777777
35. A computer is printing a list of the seventh powers of all natural numbers, that is the sequence
17, 27, 37, ..... The number of terms (or numbers) between 521 and 428 are
(1) 12 (2) 130 (3) 14 (4) 150
36. A natural number n has exactly two divisors and (n + 1) has three divisors. The number of divisors
of (n + 2) is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) depends on the value of n
p q
37. + = r where p, q, r are positive integers and p = q. The biggest value of r less than 100 is
9 10
(1) 19 (2) 57 (3) 76 (4) 95
38. In the grid shown in the diagram A and B erase 4 numbers each from the table. The sum of the numbers
erased by them are in the ratio 10 : 11. After erasing the numbers, the number left out on the table is

13 14 15
20 21 22
27 28 29

(1) 21 (2) 14 (3) 22 (4) 13

39. The positive integers p,q, p – q and p + q are all prime numbers. The sum of all these numbers is
(1) divisible by 3 (2) divisible by 5 (3) divisible by 7 (4) prime
40. 100th term of the sequence 1,3,3,3,5,5,5,5,5,7,7,7,7,7,7,7
(1) 15 (2) 13 (3) 17 (4) 19
41. In a foot ball league, a particular team played 50 games in a season. The team never lost three games
consecutively and never won four games consecutively, in that season. If N is the number of games
the team won in that season, then N satisfies
(1) 25 £ N £ 30 (2) 25 £ N £ 36 (3) 16 £ N £ 38 (4) 16 £ N £ 30
42. The last two digits of 32012, when represented in decimal notation, will be
(1) 81 (2) 01 (3) 41 (4) 21
43. The years of 20th century and 21st century are of 4 digits. The number of years which are divisible
by the product of the four digits of the year is
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) None of these
44. Let n be the smallest nonprime number greater than 1 with no prime factor less than 10. Then
(1) 100 < n £ 110 (2) 110 £ n £ 120 (3) 120 < n £ 130 (4) 130 < n £ 140
45. Five two digit numbers (none of the digits is zero) add up to 100. If each digit is replaced by its 9
complement, then the sum of these five new numbers is
(1) 295 (2) 195 (3) 380 (4) 395
46. In the adjoining incomplete magic square the sum of all numbers in any row or column or digonals
is a constant value. The value of x is.

17
23 5
6 13 20 x
10 21
11 9

(1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 22 (4) 16

47. The sum of three different prime numbers is 40. What is the difference between the two biggest ones
among them ?
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 20 (4) 24
48. Peter has written down four natural numbers. If he chooses three of his numbers at a time and adds
up each triple, he obtains totals of 186, 206, 215 and 194. The largest number Peter has written is
(1) 93 (2) 103 (3) 81 (4) 73
49. The natural numbers from 1 to 20 are listed below in such way that the sum of each adjacent pair
is a prime number 20, A, 16, 15, 4, B, 12, C, 10, 7, 6, D, 2, 17, 14, 9, 8, 5, 18, E. number D is
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 11 (4) 13
50. How many ordered pairs of natural numbers (a, b) satisfy a + 2b =100 ?
(1) 33 (2) 49 (3) 50 (4) 99

51. The value of ( 5 + 6 + 7 )( 5 + 6 - 7) ´ ( 5 - 6 + 7)( 6 + 7 - 5) is

(1) 3 210 (2) 210 (3) 4 210 (4) 104

52. The least number which, when divided by 52 leaves a remainder 33, when divided by 78 leaves a
remainder 59 and when divided by 117 leaves a remainder 98 is
(1) 553 (2) 293 (3) 468 (4) 449
53. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. What percent of the second
number is the first number ?
(1) 70% (2) 30% (3) 80% (4) 60%
54. There are some toys. One third of them are sold at a profit of 15%, one fourth of the total are sold
at a profit of 20% and the rest for 24% profit. The total profit is Rs. 3200. The total price of the toys
is (in rupees)
(1) 32000 (2) 64000 (3) 16000 (4) 48000
55. a, b are positive integers such that
(i) the sum of their squares is S
(ii) the sum of their cubes is C times the sum of the numbers
(iii) S – C = 28.
The number of such pairs (a, b) is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6
56. The number of numbers of the form 30a0b03 that are divisible by 13, where a, b are digits, is
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 0
57. The number of positive integral values of (x, y) which satisfy the equations
3
x + 3 y = 4 , x + y = 28 simultaneously is.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 3
58. The number of ordered triples (x, y, z) such that x, y, z are primes and xy + 1 = z is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) infinitely many
59. a, b, c are digits of a 3-digit number such that 64a + 8b + c = 403, then the value of a + b + c + 2013 is
(1) 2024 (2) 2025 (3) 2034 (4) 2035
60. What is the sum of the digits of (9999999999)3
(1) 99 (2) 108 (3) 180 (4) 199
61. The number of three digit numbers which are divisible by 3 and have the additional property that the
sum of their digits is 4 times their middle digit is
(1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 11 (4) 10
62. Nine numbers are written in ascending order. The middle number is the average of the nine numbers.
The average of the five largest numbers is 68 and the average of the five smallest numbers is 44. The
sum of all numbers is.
(1) 560 (2) 504 (3) 112 (4) 122
63. n = 1 + 11 + 111 + ... + 1111111111. The digital sum of n is
(1) 39 (2) 38 (3) 37 (4) 36
64. If A + B = C, B + C = D, D + A = E then A + B + C is
(1) E (2) D + E (3) E – D (4) B – D + C
65. 3 3 3
A three digit number ab7 = a + b + 7 . Then a is
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8
66. a + b = p1 × p2, a – b = p3, where p1, p2, p3 are prime numbers a > b, 2 £ a, b £ 5.
3 3 3 3

The following statement are also given :

(1) p1 + p2 + p3 is a prime number.
(2) p3 – (p1 + p2) is a prime number.
(3) p1 ~ p2 is a prime number. Then the values of a and b are respectively.
(1) (3, 4) (2) (4, 3) (3) (3, 2) (4) (2, 3)

SECTION B
67. a, b, c are the digits of a nine digit number abcabcabc. Calculate the quotient when this number is
divided by 1001001.

æ2ö æ1- x ö
68. The first term of a sequence is ç ÷ . Each new term is calculated using the formula ç ÷ where
è7ø è1+ x ø
x is the preceding term. What will be the sum of the first 2011 terms ?

n
69. Find the number of integers n for which is the square of an integer.
20 - n

70. Give the units digit of the number 32011.

71. The number of digits used to write all page numbers in a book is 192. Find the total number of pages
in the book.
1
72. When x = 2011. Find the value of .
1
1+
1
1+
1
1+
x
73. After the school final exams are over, all students in a class exchange their photographs. Each
students gives his photograph to each of the remaining students and gets the photograph of all his
friends. There are totally 870 exchange of photos. Find the number of students in the class.
74. Find all three digit and four digit natural numbers such that the product of the digits is a prime number.
Find the sum of all such three digit numbers and the sum of all such four digit numbrs. Find the biggest
prime factor of each sum.
75. Let a sequence of number be denoted as t1,t2,t3,....., where t1 = 1 and tn = tn–1 + n. (n is a natural number).
Find t2,t3,t4,t10,t2011.
76. When written out completely 162011 has m digits and 6252011has n digits. Find the value of (m + n).
77. Falguni puts 12 plastic bags inside another plastic bag. Each of these 12 bags is either empty or contains
12 other plastic bags. All together if 12 bags were non-empty, find the total number of bags.
78. The sum of two natural numbers is 484. Their HCF is 11. Find the number of such possible pairs.
79. Find the number of multiples of 9 less than 2012 and having sum of the digits as 18.
80. AB, CD, EF, GH and IJ are five 2-digit numbers such that each letter stands for a different digit. Calculate
the largest possible sum of these five numbers.
81. Two consecutive natural numbers are respectively divisible by 4 and 7. The sum of their respective
quotient is 8. Find the sum between the numbers.
82. a, b, c are three positive numbers. The second number is greater than the first by the amount the third
number is greater than the second. The product of the two smaller numbers is 85 and that of the two
bigger numbers is 115. Calculate the value of (2012a – 1006c).
83. A class contains three girls and four boys. Every Saturday, five students go on a picnic, a different
group is sent each week. During the picnic, each person (boy or girl) is given a Cake by the
accompanying teacher. After all possible groups of five have gone once, find the total number of cakes
received by the girls during the picnic.
84. Find the number of prime numbers p for which p + 2 and p + 5 are also prime numbers.
85. Find the number of positive integer pairs (m, n) which satisfies m (n2 + 1) = 48.

86. Find the value of 3

5 + 2 13 + 3 5 - 2 13 .
87. A two digit number is 6 times the sum of its digits. The number formed by interchanging the digits
is k times the sum of the digits. Then calculate the value of k.
88. A two digit number is less than the sum of the squares of its digits by 11 and exceeds twice the product
of its digits by 5. Find the two digit number.
89. Find the value of x which satisfies the equation 52. 54. 56 .... 52x = (0.04)–28 .
90. A natural number less than 100 has remainder 2 when divided by 3, remainder 3 when divided by
4 and remainder 4 when divided by 5. Find the remainder when the number is divided by 7.
91. Find the units digit of (2013)2013 .

(n + 2)(n + 2)
92. Find the number of natural numbers n for which is a natural number.
(n - 3)
93. The product of two natural numbers a and b divides 48. a, b are not relatively prime to each other.
Find the number of pairs (a, b) where 1 < a + b < 48, (a ¹ b).
94. The ratio of a two digit number and the sum of its digit is 4 : 1. If the digit in the units place is 3 more
than the digit in the tens place, then find the number.

95. If (102016 + 25)2 – (102016 – 25)2 = ( 10 )n then the value of n is.

96. There are three persons Samrud, Saket and Vishwa. Samrud is twice the age of Saket and Saket is twice
the age of Vishwa. Their total ages will be trebled in 28 years. Find the present age of Samrud.
97. Find the number of three digit numbers of the form ab5 which are divisible by 9.
98. Find the least value of the positive integer n such that (n + 20) + (n + 21) + (n + 22) + .... + (n + 100)
is a perfect square.
99. Find the number of three digit numbers such that the product of their digits is a prime number.
100. If f(x) = ax + b and f(f(f(x))) = 27x + 26 then find a + b.
101. The eight digits 6, 5, 5, 4, 4, 3, 2 and 1 are used to form two 3-digit numbers and one 2-digit number.
Find the largest possible sum of these numbers.
102. Find the number of integers greater than 2 and less than 70 that can be written as ab(where b ¹ 1).
103. m, n are natural numbers. Find the number of pairs (m, n) for which
m2 + n2 + 2mn – 2013n – 2013m – 2014 = 0.

104. p is prime number and p = a2 – 1. The number of divisors of a + p is _______.

ANSWERS

SECTION A
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 4 4 3 2 4 1 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 1 3 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 1 4 4 3 3 3 3 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 4 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 2 2 1 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. 4 2 3 1 2 3

SECTION B
16
67. 100a + 10b + c 68. 845 69. 3 70. 7 71. 100 pages
21
4023
72. 73. 30 74. For 3 digit number = 37, for 4 digit number = 101
6035
75. t2 = 3, t3 = 6, t4 = 10, t10 = 55, t2011 = 2023066 76. 8045 77. 145 bags 78. 10
79. 109 80. 360 81. 41 82. 5533 83. 45
84. 0 85. (24, 1), (48, 0) 86. 1 87. 5 88. 95
89. 7 90. 3 91. 3 92. 3 93. 16
94. 36 95. 4036 96. 24 years 97. 10 98. 4
99. 12 100. 5 101. 1236 102. 10 103. 2013
104. 2
 10 DATA HANDILING

1 1
1. The number halfway between and is :-
4 8
1 1 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 32 16 15
2. Five years ago, the average age of A,B, C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average
age of all the five is 49 years. The present age of E is :-
(1) 40 (2) 45 (3) 42 (4) 48
3. The median of the numbers –4, 2, 0, –6, 5, 8 is :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) –4
4. A class contains three girls and four boys. Every Saturday, five students go on a picnic, a different
group is sent each week. During the picnic, each person (boy or girl) is given a Cake by the accom-
panying teacher. After all possible groups of five have gone once; the total number of cakes received
by the girls during the picnic is _____.
(1) 46 (2) 45 (3) 28 (4) 30
5. A box contains 100 balls of different colours: 28 Red, 17 Blue, 21 Green, 10 white, 12 Yellow and
12 Black. The smallest number of balls drawn from the box so that at least 15 balls are of the same
colour is
(1) 73 (2) 77 (3) 81 (4) 85
6. The average of twenty-five numbers is 18, the average of first twelve is 14 and that of last twelve is
17. The thirteenth number is
(1) 72 (2) 78 (3) 85 (4) 28
7. In a survey of 200 ladies, it was found that 82 like coffee while 118 dislike it. From these ladies, one
is chosen at random. The probability that the chosen lady dislikes coffee is
59 51 61
(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these
100 100 100
8. In the given diagram circle A represents teachers who can teach physics, circle B represents teachers
who can teach chemistry and circle 'C' represents teachers who can teach mathematics. Among the
regions marked p,q,r.------ the one which represents teachers who can teach Physics and Mathematics
but not chemistry is ______
B A
q s o
v
t u
e

C
(1) t (2) s (3) v (4) u
9. Appu has 6 marks (all integers) on his Report Card.
(i) The mean of the 6 marks is 74
(ii) The mode of the 6 marks is 76
(iii) The median of the 6 marks is 76
(iv) The lowest mark is 50
(v) The highest mark is 94
(vi) Only one mark appears twice and no mark appears more than twice.
Find the number of possibilities for his second lowest mark
(1) 17 (2) 20 (3) 16 (4) 18
10. Vasanth read a eleven page article in an Encyclopedia. The sum of the page numbers he read is 1 less
than 2003. What is the eleventh page number?
(1) 187 (2) 177 (3) 186 (4) 180
11. The mean of 25 observations is 36. Out of these observations, the mean of first 13 observations is
32 and that of the last 13 observations is 40. Find the 13th observation.
(1) 32 (2) 36 (3) 40 (4) 25
12. A class consists of 50 students. Out of which 30 are girls. The mean of marks scored by girls in a
test is 73 and that of boys is 71. Find the mean score of the whole class.
(1) 70 (2) 72 (3) 72.2 (4) 71
13. The mean age of 20 students is 15 years. If the age of teacher is included then mean age becomes
17 years. Find the age of the teacher.
(1) 47 (2) 50 (3) 56 (4) 57
14. The mean of 20 observations is 50. If the observation 50 is replaced by 140, what will be the resulting
mean?
(1) 54 (2) 54.5 (3) 55 (4) 53

ANSWERS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 3 2 1 2 2 2 1 4 1 1 2 3 4 2