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Total Quality Management (Set 4)

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16 views23 pages

Total Quality Management (Set 4)

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fatima.bata2020
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
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Total Quality Management (TQM)

4 of 6 sets

301. A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:
A. Rejection region
B. Acceptance region
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:A

302. The chi-square goodness-of-fit test can be used to test for:


A. significance of sample statistics
B. difference between population means
o m
C. normality
. c
D. probability
te
Answer:C a
q M
c
303. What do ANOVA calculate?
A. Z-scores
B. F ratios
M
C. Chi square
D. T-scores
Answer:B

304. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it


can be compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to
determine the critical value?
A. Sample size, number of groups
B. Mean, sample standard deviation
C. Expected frequency, obtained frequency
D. MSTR The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE)
Answer:A
305. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control,
experimental A, or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three
groups are compared. The appropriate statistical test for comparing these means
is:
A. the correlation coefficient
B. chi square
C. the t-test
D. the analysis of variance
Answer:D

306. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 0.9, the result is statistically
significant
A. Always
B. Sometimes
C. Never
D. Illogical Question
Answer:C

307. Which statement is true of an experiment of factorial design?


A. Independence or orthogonality is unaffected by the sizes of the participant samples in the
various treatment combinations.
B. There are always at least two control groups.
C. Control over an independent variable is achieved by orthogonal variation with respect to the
other independent variables.
D. There is always a single control group.
Answer:C

308. What would the levels of the independent variables be for a two-way ANOVA
investigating the effect of four different treatments for depression and gender?
A. 4 and 1
B. 2
C. 4 and 2
D. 6
Answer:C

309. In ANOVA, a factor is defined as the:

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A. Dependent variable.
B. Independent variable.
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Answer:A

310. A 2 X 2 factorial design


A. Is called a one-way ANOVA.
B. Results in a four-cell matrix.
C. Cannot yield interactions.
D. Must include an organism independent variable.
Answer:B

311. Which of the following distributions is suitable to model the length of time
that elapses before the first employee passes through the security door of a
company?
A. Exponential
B. Normal
C. Poisson
D. Binomial
Answer:A

312. Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in support of:


A. the null hypothesis
B. the alternative hypothesis
C. the quality of the researcher
D. further testing
Answer:B

313. Analysis of variance is a statistical method of comparing the ______________


of several populations.
A. standard deviations
B. variances
C. means
D. proportions
Answer:C

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314. If the Mean Square Error MSE of an ANOVA for six treatment groups is
known, you can compute
A. degrees of freedom, df1
B. the standard deviation of each treatment group
C. the pooled standard deviation
D. all answers are correct
Answer:C

315. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control,
experimental A, or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three
groups are compared. The appropriate statistical test for comparing these means
is:
A. the correlation coefficient
B. chi square
C. the t-test
D. the analysis of variance
Answer:D

316. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 5.0, the result is statistically
significant
A. Always
B. Sometimes
C. Never
D. Illogical Question
Answer:B

317. What is the Effect of Memory (MIPS)?


A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
Answer:B

318. Which of these characterizes a factorial design?


A. One in which there is a single independent variable.
B. One in which there is more than one independent variable

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C. One in which the researcher wants to investigate the interactions between variables
D. Both B and C
Answer:D

319. What statistic is used to check the significance of the Kruskal-Wallis test?
A. Mean rank
B. Partial
C. t-value
D. Chi squared
Answer:D

320. What is the appropriate statistical test for a factorial design?


A. the Modes test
B. ANOVA
C. t-test
D. chi-square
Answer:B

321. Give the F test for the interaction effect of factors A and B.
A. F = (SSABB )/MSE
B. F = (SSA)/MSE + (SSB)/MSE
C. F = (MSA)/MSE + (MSB)/MSE
D. F = (MSAB)/MSE
Answer:D

322. The Kruskal-Wallis is based upon the ______________ test.


A. Pearson's r
B. Wilcoxon
C. Mann Whitney
D. Friedman
Answer:C

323. In a factorial experiments, we


A. test one factor at a time
B. cannot estimate interactions

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C. test all possible combination of factor levels are tested
D. all of these
Answer:C

324. What is the Variation due to Memory?


A. 84%
B. 76%
C. 19%
D. 5%
Answer:B

325. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables


indicates that the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels
of the other independent variable.
A. main effect
B. factorial effect
C. interaction
D. moderation
Answer:C

326. What is the Sum of Squares of the interaction (AB)?


A. 6.075
B. 39.48
C. 7.19
D. 3.89
Answer:D

327. How many replicates of the experiment were performed?


A. 1 Replicate
B. 2 Replicates
C. 3 Replicates
D. 4 Replicates
Answer:C

328. You conduct a hypothesis test and you observe values for the sample mean
and sample standard deviation when n = 25 that do not lead to the rejection of Ho

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(null hypothesis). You calculate a p-value of 0.0667. What will happen to the p-
value if you observe the same sample mean and standard deviation for a sample
n>25?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Stay the same
D. May either increase or decrease
Answer:B

329. What does a beta of 0.478 mean?


A. That the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is not linear
B. That the regression is not significant
C. That the correlation is significant
D. This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent variable
increases by 0.478 units
Answer:D

330. Which of the following points are not true when conducting a multiple
regression?
A. Multiple regression can be used to assess quadratic relationships
B. Data must be homogeneous for a multiple regression
C. Data must be normally distributed for multiple regression
D. Multiple regression can be used to assess linear relationships
Answer:A

331. Which of the following definitions is correct?


A. An activity, which results in an outcome, is called an event.
B. The probability of an event is expressed in decimal form ranging from -1 to +1.
C. The sample space refers to all possible outcomes of an experiment.
D. The probability that an event will occur is called the experiment.
Answer:C

332. The discrete random variable X has the probability function (k is a constant):
Answer question 8 - 10 based on the information given above. The value of k is:
A. 1 point
B. 1/18

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C. 1/12
D. 1/6
Answer:B

333. A larger standard deviation for a normal distribution with an unchanged


mean indicates that ‘the distribution becomes:
A. narrower and more peaked
B. flatter and wider
C. more skewed to the right or left
D. a change in the standard deviation does not change the shape of the distribution
Answer:B

334. When the k population means are truly different from each other, it is likely
that the average error deviation:
A. Is relatively large compared to the average treatment deviations.
B. Is relatively small compared to the average treatment deviations.
C. Is about equal to the average treatment deviation.
D. Differ significantly between at least two of the populations.
Answer:B

335. ______________ designs are research designs with more than one independent
variable.
A. Simple
B. Monotonic
C. Factorial
D. Multi
Answer:C

336. What statistical procedure is used to assess the statistical significance of the
main effects and the interaction(s) in a factorial design?
A. t-test
B. correlation
C. analysis of covariance
D. analysis of variance
Answer:D

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337. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables
indicates that the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels
of the other independent variable.
A. main effect
B. factorial effects
C. interaction
D. collaboration
Answer:C

338. Scatter diagrams show the relationship between:


A. Two variables
B. The dependent variable along the y axis
C. The dependent variable along the x axis
D. None of these
Answer:A

339. How would an interaction be indicated in a line graph? 2/5


A. as parallel lines
B. as intersecting lines
C. as overlapping lines
D. as diagonal lines
Answer:B

340. What is the Effect of Cache (MIPS)?


A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
Answer:C

341. What is the Variation due to Interaction?


A. 84%
B. 76%
C. 19%
D. 5%

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Answer:D

342. Dr. AB is designing a 3 x 7 factorial experiment. Which of the following is true


about AB's study?
A. Dr. AB has 21 subjects.
B. Dr. AB's study has 2 independent variables: one with 3 levels and one with 7 levels
C. Dr. AB's study has 21 independent variables.
D. Dr. AB's study has 3 independent variables: one with 3 levels, one with 7 levels, and one with
21 levels.
Answer:B

343. How many levels were used for factor B?


A. 1 Level
B. 2 Levels
C. 3 Levels
D. 4 Levels
Answer:C

344. This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your
dependent variable increases b 0.478 units What degrees of freedom do you report
in a multiple regression?
A. Residual degree of freedom
B. Error and residual degree of freedom
C. Regression and residual degrees of freedom
D. Adjusted R squared and regression degrees of freedom
Answer:C

345. Our forecasted value of y is


A. 7
B. 9
C. 25
D. impossible to determine
Answer:B

346. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it


can be compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to

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determine the critical value?
A. Sample size, number of groups
B. Mean, sample standard deviation
C. Expected frequency, obtained frequency
D. MSTR The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE)
Answer:A

347. The mean square is the sum of squares divided by


A. the total number of observations
B. its corresponding degrees of freedom - 1
C. its corresponding degrees of freedom
D. none of these
Answer:C

348. Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA)


A. Total Quality Management
B. International Standard Organization
C. Total Productive Maintenance
D. Total Quality Control
Answer:A

349. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?


A. Top level management
B. Middle level management
C. Frontline management
D. All of the above
Answer:A

350. Service Assurance is


A. Confidence with customer
B. Customer has trust
C. Employee has knowledge
D. All of the above
Answer:D

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351. Common elements of winners are i. Senior management was actively involved
ii. Control of overall process iii. Focus on customer The correct order is
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. i, ii & iii
D. None of the above
Answer:C

352. For Cpk (Process capability index) value of 1.33, the PPM is
A. 1
B. 63
C. 2700
D. 45500
Answer:B

353. Continual improvement is in i. Environmental objective ii. Audit Result iii.


Corrective action The correct order is
A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. i, ii & iii
D. None of the above
Answer:C

354. The process mapping is a ______________ diagram.


A. Data flow
B. Work flow
C. Circular
D. Audit
Answer:B

355. By applying basic principle the process improvement will be in organizations


i. Focus on work process ii. Maintain self esteem of other iii. Tone initiative The
correct order is
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii

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D. i, ii & iii
Answer:B

356. Diamond represents ______________ while plotting flow chart.


A. Step in activity
B. Decision making
C. Direction of flow
D. None of the above
Answer:B

357. PP & PPK is calculated for i. Initial production run ii. Future production iii.
Initial process setting The correct order is
A. i & ii
B. ii & iii
C. i & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer:C

358. According to Deming, Quality problems are


A. Due to management
B. Due to method
C. Due to machine
D. Due to material
Answer:A

359. Common features of CMM is how to produce software product which are i.
Consistence ii. Repeatable iii. Predictable The correct order is
A. i only
B. ii only
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer:D

360. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.


A. Customer need
B. Organizational need

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C. Supplier need
D. Worker need
Answer:A

361. When cpk is less than one


A. Process is not capable
B. Process is stable
C. Process if highly capable
D. None of the above
Answer:A

362. ISO emphasis on


A. Prevention
B. Inspection
C. Rejection
D. All of the above
Answer:A

363. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.


A. Material quality
B. Customer need
C. Market demand
D. All of the above
Answer:B

364. The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is


A. Customer satisfaction
B. Employee satisfaction
C. Skill enhancement
D. Environmental issues
Answer:A

365. Control chart is i. Process monitoring tool ii. Process control tool iii. Process
planning tool The correct order is
A. i only
B. i & ii

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C. i, ii & iii
D. None of the above
Answer:B

366. Employee should be involved in i. Decision making ii. Participation iii. Union
The correct order is
A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. i, ii & iii
D. None of the above
Answer:A

367. Does TQM approach have relevance to Indian industry in context to i.


Customer satisfaction ii. People involvement iii. Policy management The correct
order is
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer:B

368. The following is (are) the machine down time.


A. Waste
B. No material
C. Breakdown
D. All of the above
Answer:D

369. Special characteristic means i. Product characteristic which affect fit/ function
/ Regulation ii. Characteristic of product which are regulatory requirement iii.
Characteristic in Specification The correct order is
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer:B

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370. HRD at organizational level talks of i. Organization’s manpower planning ii.
Training iii. Performance appraisal The correct order is
A. i only
B. I & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer:D

371. Match the following The correct order is


A. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
B. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
C. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Answer:D

372. Benefit(s) of model based improvement is (are) i. Establish common language


ii. Models are comprehensive The correct order is
A. i only
B. ii only
C. i & ii
D. None of the above
Answer:C

373. Reliability of product means i. Consistency of performance ii. Performance


over period iii. Free of technical errors The correct order is
A. i & iii
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer:D

374. Which of the following is for Environment management?


A. ISO-9000
B. ISO-14000
C. ISO-26000
D. ISO-31000

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Answer:B

375. Rectangle represents ______________ While plotting flow chart.


A. Step in activity
B. Decision making
C. Direction of flow
D. None of the above
Answer:A

376. ISO - 14001 gives stress on


A. Plan - Do -check -Act
B. Environmental protection
C. Prevention rather than detection
D. All of the above
Answer:D

377. The customer requirement to be reviewed i. Before supply of product ii. After
supply of product iii. Before commitment of supply of product The correct order is
A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. ii & iii
D. None of the above
Answer:B

378. Process evaluation is to identify i. Validation of product ii. Potential failure


prevention iii. Correctness of product The correct order is
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. None of the above
Answer:C

379. Cause & Effect diagram used to i. Identify & organize possible causes of
problem ii. Identify possible causes of solution iii. Identify possible causes of
problem & determining its relation The correct order is
A. i only

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B. i & iii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer:B

380. CIP is:


A. Continuous improvement process
B. A sustained, gradual change
C. Includes constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focus
D. all of the above
Answer:D

381. Cost of quality includes:


A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
B. Training programs
C. Cost of all work resulting from nonconformance to the requirements
D. all of the above
Answer:D

382. Cost of quality includes:


A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
B. Training programs
C. a and b
D. all of the above
Answer:D

383. Control chart theory is based on the differences of the causes of variations in
quality. Variations in quality may be produced by assignable causes. All of the
following are examples of assignable causes except:
A. Differences among machines
B. Differences among workers
C. Differences among materials
D. None of the above (all are examples)
Answer:D

384. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?

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A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications
B. The costs of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are manufacturing the
product
C. Quality control programs should only be implemented when the costs of quality is low
D. A and B
Answer:A

385. In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality
control is:
A. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time" to avoid quality problems
B. The company's quality control manager who must work with the project members to ensure the
quality control program is effective
C. The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control responsibility for all
the company's projects
D. The project manager who has ultimately responsibility for the entire project
Answer:D

386. Most quality problems


A. originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality rests
B. originate on the shop floor because of waste and product rework
C. are the result of management's lack of attention to potential quality improvement ideas
D. could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their workers more closely
Answer:C

387. Quality assurance is


A. top management's intention regarding quality
B. functions determining implementation of the quality policy
C. actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements
D. responsibilities and processes which implement quality management
Answer:C

388. Quality planning is:


A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy
them

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B. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards
and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance
C. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project
will satisfy the relevant quality standards
D. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added
benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer
Answer:A

389. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
A. increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased cost risk
B. reduced productivity and no change to cost effectiveness or cost risk
C. reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost
D. increased productivity and cost-effectiveness
Answer:A

390. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
A. increased productivity, increased costeffectiveness, and decreased cost risk
B. reduced productivity and no change to costeffectiveness or cost risk
C. reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost
D. increased productivity and cost-effectiveness
Answer:A

391. Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation, can be


directly reduced by:
A. improving the overall system of production
B. increasing the number of quality inspectors
C. making use of run charts
D. identifying patterns of variance using control charts
Answer:D

392. Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ______________


costs.
A. manufacturing / building
B. advertising
C. post-completion support
D. A and C

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Answer:D

393. The primary components of quality management are quality ______________.


A. inspections, certifications, and validations
B. philosophy, assurance, and control
C. form, fit, and function
D. reliability, maintainability, and availability
Answer:B

394. Self-inspection by the individual performing the work is used to achieve


quality in a product. The advantages of self-inspection include ______________.
A. immediate feedback to permit adjustments to the process
B. early identification of errors prior to further integration
C. minimization of end product repairs and material waste
D. all of the above
Answer:D

395. Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirement


for some element or product of a project. The advantage of statistical sampling is
that it ______________.
A. does not require an expenditure of resources
B. is accurate enough with a sampling of less than one percent
C. does not require 100 percent sampling of the elements to achieve a satisfactory inference of
the population
D. needs to be conducted only when there is a problem discovered with the end product or when
the customer has some rejects
Answer:C

396. In a project, the common parameters are cost, schedule, and quality. In
relationship to the others, quality should be ranked ______________.
A. first as the prime driver for a project
B. second behind cost but ahead of schedule
C. second behind schedule but ahead of cost
D. equal to cost and schedule
Answer:D

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397. In computing the cost of producing a quality product, the major areas of costs
contribute to the sale price of the product. The ratio of the ______________ costs
determine whether an effective program is fully implemented.
A. direct, indirect, and overhead
B. one-time, recurring, and variable
C. variable, fixed, and semi-fixed
D. prevention, appraisal, and failure
Answer:D

398. Recognition of personnel achievements is an important building block to the


attainment of a superior quality program. The form of recognition should be
______________.
A. an annual bonus increase paid at the end of the year
B. an immediate cash award that is commensurate with the deed
C. a non-monetary award presented in a public forum as soon as the deed is identified
D. a non-monetary award presented in private
Answer:C

399. Quality control includes inspections to ensure the standards of performance


are being met. Inspection includes ______________ examinations of
______________.
A. visual and non-visual; processes and components
B. visual and aural; processes and materials
C. visual and technical; material and end products
D. aural and tactile; materials and end products
Answer:C

400. Process control is distinct and separate from the data gathering function in a
quality program. While process control regulates the functions, data gathering is
used to ______________.
A. collect information on the relative performance standards of the process so the output can be
enhanced through continuous adjustments to the input functions
B. validate the controlling function as performing correctly and provide information on equipment
servicing intervals
C. provide the historical records for production lots as to the specifications and actual
measurements of a product

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D. generate the control charts to determine the variances in the product and the number on
nonconforming products
Answer:B

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