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Chapter 04 - Of Tests and Testing

Chapter 04
Of Tests and Testing

Multiple Choice Questions

1. According to a study cited in the text, random error affecting a score on a personality test is
best illustrated with reference to the
A. weather on the day that the personality test was administered.
B. testtaker's general self-concept on the day that the personality test was administered.
C. amount of the specific personality trait that actually exists.
D. All of these

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2. A psychological trait
A. has a real existence.
B. is a construct.
C. has no relation to observed behavior.
D. All of these

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3. Assuming the Sensation Seeking Scale (SSS) is a valid measure, how would you expect
someone who goes parachuting once a month to score on the SSS?
A. average
B. above average
C. below average
D. impossible to say

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Chapter 04 - Of Tests and Testing

4. An assumption in psychological testing and assessment is that psychological traits can be


measured. For this to be true,
A. the reference group used must be people who exhibit and do not exhibit the trait.
B. the test must take into account changes in the trait that can occur over time.
C. test developers must clearly define the trait constructs the test purports to measure.
D. All of these

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5. "Test-related behavior predicts non-test-related behavior." This statement


A. is an assumption on which the assessment enterprise is based.
B. is true only if the test-related behavior mimics the non-test-related behavior.
C. is true only if the non-test-related behavior mimics the test-related behavior.
D. All of these

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6. According to your text, which of the following assumptions inherent in the assessment
enterprise is repeatedly emphasized in the codes of ethics of associations of assessment
professionals?
A. Psychological traits and states can be quantified.
B. Various sources of error are a part of the process.
C. Test-related behavior predicts non-test-related behavior.
D. Tests and other tools have strengths and weaknesses.

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7. When measuring a particular psychological trait, the term error variance refers to
A. the degree to which impression management may influence the obtained score.
B. the variations in score possible if another instrument was employed.
C. the component of a test score attributable to sources other than the trait.
D. All of these

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Chapter 04 - Of Tests and Testing

8. When using trait terms, it is important to keep in mind that


A. there are many synonyms for the trait term that could be used instead.
B. trait terms are relative in that unstated comparisons are always being made.
C. the trait being exhibited is subject to sudden change as in multiple personality.
D. traits, much like most human abilities, are all "in the eye of the beholder."

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9. It is incorrect to conceive of error "creeping into" the measurement process because


A. this implies that it appears slowly when in reality it is instantaneous.
B. to do so is to imply that error is negative when in reality it is positive.
C. error is a well acknowledged part of the measurement process.
D. All of these

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10. Although the question "Is this test fair?" is frequently raised, the underlying and more
pertinent moral question is,
A. "What do we, as a society, wish to accomplish by the use of this test?"
B. "What offensive cultural stereotypes are inherent in the use of this test?"
C. "Can school districts in impoverished areas afford to use this test?"
D. "Does this test discriminate any one or any group in a demonstrable way?"

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11. Students may fantasize about a world without tests. But in reality, a world without tests
would be more of a nightmare than a dream. This is so because
A. nepotism in hiring and promotions would be rampant.
B. professionals would not be properly credentialed.
C. educational difficulties would be more difficult to diagnose.
D. All of these

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12. The term psychometric soundness is typically a reference to a test's reliability and
A. utility.
B. validity.
C. norms.
D. cost-effectiveness.

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13. A prospective test user may ask many questions about a test's validity. Which of the
following is NOT a validity-related question?
A. Do the test items adequately sample the range of areas that should be sampled?
B. What do high scores on this test really tell us about the targeted construct?
C. What do low scores on this test really tell us about the targeted construct?
D. As a tool of measurement, is this test consistent?

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14. "What's a good test?" In part, a good test is one that


A. trained examiners can administer with a minimum of difficulty.
B. is useful in the sense that it yields actionable results.
C. will ultimately benefit individual testtakers or society as a whole.
D. All of these

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15. Norm-referenced testing and assessment is both a method of evaluation and a way of
deriving meaning from tests scores. Individual testtaker scores are evaluated against
A. the scores achieved by a matched group of testtakers on a comparable test.
B. the scores of a comparison group of testtakers.
C. scores from a demographically more diverse group of testtakers.
D. the scores achieved by a guy named norm.

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16. It's a group of people whose performance on a particular test is analyzed for reference in
evaluating the performance of future testtakers. This group is called
A. a normative sample.
B. a test validation group.
C. a stratified random sample.
D. a "back to the future" group.

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17. Norms come in many different forms. Which of the following is NOT correctly referred to
by the term "norms"?
A. trait norms
B. age norms
C. grade norms
D. percentile norms

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18. You are a consultant to a test developer who is in the process of norming a new test of
intelligence. Which type of norms would be LEAST advisable to develop?
A. national norms
B. subgroup norms
C. mental age norms
D. norms from a fixed reference group

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19. In order to conduct research using human subjects, a university requires researchers to
complete an online ethics course, and then correctly respond to all of the items of the test on
that material. This test process could BEST be characterized as
A. norm-referenced testing.
B. criterion-referenced testing.
C. culturally informed assessment.
D. authentic assessment.

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20. In selecting a test for use, the responsible test user does some advance research on
A. how appropriate the available norms are for use with the contemplated testtakers.
B. how appropriate the reading level of the test is for use.
C. cultural factors as they may relate to the administration and scoring of the test.
D. All of these

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21. Measurement can be defined as


A. the assignment of numbers or symbols to characteristics of objects/people.
B. the administering and scoring of psychological tests to members of a defined population.
C. the process of determining the reliability and validity of tests.
D. the observation of behavior in a controlled environment.

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22. A psychological trait can BEST be described as


A. an observable behavior.
B. a biological phenomenon.
C. a construct.
D. what a test measures.

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23. According to your textbook, psychological traits


A. can be seen and touched.
B. can only be inferred.
C. do not exist.
D. exist only in theory.

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24. Psychological traits are present and exhibited to others


A. 100% of the time.
B. 75% of the time.
C. 50% of the time.
D. None of these

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25. The manifestation of behavior associated with a particular psychological trait is to some
extent dependent on
A. the situation the person is in.
B. the financial pressures being exerted.
C. an individual's blood pressure at the time.
D. one's astrological sign.

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26. A trait is typically viewed as "relative." This means that inherent in its definition, a
comparison is being made to:
A. other people.
B. people who are totally lacking in the trait.
C. blood relatives.
D. All of these

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27. Which of the following is the BEST example of a psychological trait?


A. eye color
B. hair color
C. skin color
D. None of these

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28. Which of the following is the BEST example of a psychological trait?


A. eye color
B. aggressiveness
C. skin color
D. None of these

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29. How do states different from traits?


A. A trait is biologically determined, whereas a state in environmentally determined.
B. A trait is measurable, whereas a state is not.
C. A trait is relatively enduring, whereas a state is relatively short-lived.
D. A trait is unchangeable, whereas a state is easily influenced.

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30. Consider the assumption that "the more correct answers an examinee scores on an
intelligence test, the more intelligent is the examinee." Which of the following methods of
scoring is BEST associated with that assumption?
A. a Galtonian model of scoring
B. the cumulative model of scoring
C. an objective method of scoring
D. the subjective method of scoring

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31. A basic assumption of all scaling is that


A. traits and states can be quantified and measured.
B. traits and states can best be understood by those who experience them.
C. traits and states are only measurable in human beings.
D. measures developed in one culture have no meaning in other cultures.

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32. Assigning numbers in accordance with empirical properties of objects or traits is referred
to as
A. measuring.
B. quantifying.
C. scaling.
D. sampling.

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33. Referring to a psychological trait as a construct means that it


A. is an idea whose time has come, gone, and come back again.
B. has few practical "real-world" applications and is used for academic purposes.
C. was developed by naturalistic observation rather than any theory.
D. is a scientific concept developed to describe or explain behavior.

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34. From your reading of Chapter 4 in your textbook, which of the following statements is
NOT true?
A. Overt behavior is observable.
B. Constructs are ideas rather than observable actions.
C. Constructs are only used when behavior is not observable.
D. The existence of a construct can be inferred from overt behavior.

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35. The manifestation of a trait is NOT dependent on


A. the strength of the trait.
B. the situation.
C. lunar cycles.
D. genetics.

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36. In which specialty of psychology would psychological tests be MOST likely be used to
postdict rather than predict behavior?
A. consumer psychology
B. sport psychology
C. engineering psychology
D. forensic psychology

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37. Typically, which of the following is the primary objective of psychological testing and
assessment?
A. to measure a trait
B. to predict future behavior
C. to obtain a score on a test
D. to observe a sample of behavior

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38. From the perspective of test users, a typical objective of testtakers' testtaking behavior,
such as blackening small grids on an answer sheet with a #2 pencil, is to
A. predict how fully circles will be blackened on another test.
B. postdict such behavior on previous tests.
C. predict behavior apart from blackening grids.
D. predict how the test-taker will use seasonings to blacken fish.

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39. Assessment professionals who use tests without understanding the limitations of the tests
they use are
A. violating state and federal laws which mandate such understanding.
B. violating provisions of their profession's ethical codes.
C. well meaning but bumbling in their every day work.
D. psychiatrists rather than psychologists.

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40. Which of the following is TRUE about error in psychological measurement?


A. As with other fields, error is synonymous with "mistake."
B. Error only refers to deliberate misrepresentation of results rather than carelessness.
C. Error is an expected component of measurement.
D. Error can be eliminated only by care and vigilance.

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41. Any influence on psychological test scores from factors other than what the test is
intended to measure is referred to by measurement specialists as
A. spurious artifact.
B. error.
C. bias.
D. construct-irrelevant stimuli.

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42. An assumption inherent in classical test theory (CTT) is that


A. each test-taker has a true score that would have been obtained if not for measurement error.
B. testtakers can be ranked according to the level of the trait or ability that they exhibit in
much the same way that rankings can be made by height.
C. measurement can be perfectly accurate if the measuring tool is well-constructed.
D. All of these

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43. According to Chapter 4 of your text, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Some issues of test fairness are more political than psychometric in nature.
B. Using certain psychological tests with people of some cultural backgrounds can be
controversial.
C. The same test can be fair for use with one population of testtakers, and not fair for use with
another population of testtakers.
D. Most major test developers have been relatively insensitive to issues of test fairness.

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44. Test reliability refers to


A. how accurately a test measures what it purports to measure.
B. how consistently a test measures what it purports to measure.
C. the "depth" of measurement of a particular construct.
D. the "bandwidth" of measurement of a particular construct.

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45. One scale at the deli counter of a local supermarket consistently measures everything that
is placed on it exactly one ounce more than its actual weight. An assessment professional
would describe this scale as
A. valid.
B. reliable.
C. unreliable.
D. not properly normed.

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46. Test validity refers to how


A. "true" the score is in terms of true score theory.
B. rigorous the process of norming the test was.
C. "deep" the depth of trait measurement is.
D. well a test measures what it purports to measure.

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47. When "putting a test to the test" and debating whether or not a particular instrument
should be used for a particular objective, relevant questions to be asked include
A. What is the objective in using this test?
B. Who is this test designed for use with?
C. How is what the test measures defined?
D. All of these

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48. When "putting a test to the test" and attempting to evaluate the suitability of a particular
tool of measurement for a particular purpose, a test user would be well advised to consult
A. published sources such as test manuals and test reviews.
B. unpublished sources such as colleagues who have experience with it.
C. the test publisher through an e-mail or phone call.
D. All of these.

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49. When "putting a test to the test" and researching published guidelines from professional
associations regarding the use of a particular test for a particular objective, a test user is
MOST likely to find that the guidelines recommend
A. "bending the rules" of test administration as specified in the test manual.
B. interpreting the test using the norms developed for a different test.
C. the use of additional measurement tools along with the test.
D. testing all assessors on their proficiency with the instrument.

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50. When "putting a test to the test" and researching the reliability of a particular instrument
such as the Bricklin Perceptual Scales, test users will
A. consult the test's manual and test reviews.
B. discover controversy as to how suitable a measure of reliability is.
C. learn of the need for multiple sources of data.
D. All of these

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51. When "putting tests to the test" and researching the validity of a particular instrument for a
particular purpose, test users
A. will typically consult multiple issues of popular magazines.
B. may need to research which combination of tests best suits a particular purpose.
C. can be satisfied they are using the right instrument if the validity coefficient found is
satisfactorily high.
D. All of these

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52. When "putting a test to the test" and researching the suitability of a particular test for a
particular objective, test users will typically research
A. the reliability of the test.
B. the validity of the test.
C. the utility of the test.
D. All of these

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53. Factors affecting the generalizability of findings from a particular test include
A. the wording of items on the test.
B. the norm group used in the development of a test.
C. the degree to which the test administration conformed to the directions provided in the test
manual.
D. All of these

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54. Based on a careful reading of the "What's a good test?" discussion in Chapter 4's Everyday
Psychometrics feature, the BEST conclusion one could reasonably draw is
A. "you get what you pay for."
B. "sometimes things are neither fish nor fowl."
C. "simple questions do not necessarily have simple answers."
D. "it's an ill wind that blows nobody good."

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55. A norm group is a group of testtakers


A. for whom a particular test is deemed inappropriate.
B. taking a particular test for the very first time.
C. that is typically described in the test manual.
D. Only taking a particular test for the very first time and that is typically described in the test
manual.

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56. The term norms refers to the


A. average score of all test-takers within a standardization sample.
B. the typical performance of the norm group.
C. scores with which the results of subsequent measurement can be compared.
D. transformed scores used to create and improve test items.

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57. A test designed to provide information about whether or not an aviator has mastered the
ability to fly solo is an example of a test that is
A. norm-referenced.
B. criterion-referenced.
C. trait-referenced.
D. All of these

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58. An applicant for a job with the U.S. Postal Service scores in the bottom 5% of all
applicants on a test that measures the ability to sort mail. This is an example of
A. norm-referenced testing.
B. criterion-referenced testing.
C. stress-tolerance testing.
D. an individual who may one day "go postal."

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59. If a controversy exists over the definition of the trait being measured by a psychological
test, questions will MOST likely be raised relative to
A. the reliability of the test.
B. the validity of the test.
C. the standardization of the test.
D. All of these

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60. A test that yields information about a testtaker's relative standing in a group is referred to
as
A. criterion-referenced.
B. norm-referenced.
C. standard-referenced.
D. None of these

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61. The definition of a norm-referenced test as compared to a criterion-referenced test differs


primarily with respect to
A. the error thought to be present in measurement.
B. whether or not the test is theory-based.
C. the score to which testtakers are compared.
D. the reliability of the test in question.

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62. This tool is used to estimate or infer how far an observed score deviates from a true score,
and it called
A. a standard deviation.
B. a measure of central tendency.
C. the variance.
D. a standard error of measurement.

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63. The statistic known as the standard error of measurement is BEST associated with which
of the following?
A. validity
B. reliability
C. test standardization
D. test administration

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64. A test is considered standardized if the manual for the test includes
A. clearly specified procedures for administration.
B. clearly specified procedures for scoring.
C. normative data.
D. All of these

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65. Which of the following is TRUE of a population in the statistical sense?


A. It is the least frequent observable characteristic within a sample.
B. It may include as few as two home-bound students.
C. It has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 0.
D. It has a stanine value of 9.

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66. Which of the following is TRUE of a sample in the statistical sense?


A. It can never be greater in number than the population from which it is drawn.
B. It will have a standard deviation that approximates that of the population.
C. It is normally distributed.
D. It is normally distributed by a greeter at Sam's Club.

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67. Reference to a "standard drink" in the psychology literature conveys information to


knowledgeable readers about
A. how drunk the average person will be after chugging three beers.
B. the number of minutes it will take to get a "buzz" from a glass of wine.
C. the amount of alcohol there is in any beverage.
D. how addictive a particular form of alcohol is.

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68. A test is said to be standardized if the test's manual contains clearly specified procedures
for test
A. administration.
B. scoring.
C. interpretation.
D. All of these

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69. Traditionally, the term test standardization has been used interchangeably with the term
A. test normalization.
B. test utilization.
C. test calibration.
D. None of these

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70. If a standardized test is designed for hand-scoring by the test's user, then the test's manual
will ideally contain an ample number of
A. examples of correct and incorrect responses.
B. examples of partially correct responses.
C. Both examples of correct and incorrect responses and examples of partially correct
responses.
D. None of these

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71. The type of sample that is convenient or available for use is referred to as
A. an incidental sample.
B. a stratified sample.
C. a coincidental sample.
D. a random sample.

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72. An investigator researching behavior of corporate presidents employs college students


enrolled in Introductory Psychology as research subjects. These students are BEST referred to
as
A. an incidental sample.
B. a stratified sample.
C. a coincidental sample.
D. a random sample.

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73. Sampling all different subgroups within a population is an example of


A. random sampling.
B. stratified sampling.
C. incidental sampling.
D. purposive sampling.

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74. The terms percentile and percentage correct


A. are, for all intents and purposes, synonymous.
B. have in common that neither is a converted raw score.
C. both entail calculation by multiplying by 100 and dividing by the number of items.
D. None of these

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75. A distribution of raw scores from a test administration is normally distributed. The test
user wishes to summarize these data using percentiles. A potential problem here is that score
differences in the middle area of the distribution
A. may be minimized.
B. may be exaggerated.
C. may not be accurate if the test is "pass/fail."
D. will only be accurate if scored in a timely fashion.

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76. The concept of mental age as a means of describing performance on an intelligence test
has been
A. criticized for being too narrow.
B. deemed unethical by all state psychological associations.
C. criticized for being too broad.
D. found to be extremely useful in studies of autism.

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77. National anchor norms provide


A. a way to determine precisely how much a score achieved on one nationally administered
test is equal to another.
B. an indication of the equivalency of scores on various tests that are administered nationally.
C. useful grade-equivalent information for adult test-takers sitting for nationally administered
examinations.
D. a way for the U.S. Navy to equate seamanship scores achieved by Marines to that of Navy
SEALS.

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78. Subgroup norms can best be described as a normative sample


A. that has been segmented in some way.
B. that is not representative of the population sampled.
C. with scores below the 60th percentile on a test.
D. for which test administration conditions were not optimal.

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79. If the calculated value of the correlation coefficient for two variables is 0, what would the
resulting scatterplot look like?
A. upward, sloping to the left
B. downward, sloping to the right
C. upward, sloping to the right
D. None of these

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80. Deciles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts.


A. 5
B. 10
C. 100
D. None of these

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81. Percentiles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts.


A. 5
B. 10
C. 1,000
D. 100

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82. A score at the 20th percentile on a high school history test is


A. the score at or below which 80% of the scores in the distribution fall.
B. that point in a distribution at which 80% of the test questions were answered correctly.
C. the score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall.
D. grounds for termination from a varsity team in most high schools.

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83. The term age norms is synonymous with


A. age-equivalent scores.
B. age-standard scores.
C. age-derived scores.
D. age-defying scores.

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84. Age norms enjoy wide acceptance


A. for both physical and psychological characteristics.
B. for physical but not psychological characteristics.
C. for psychological but not physical characteristics.
D. in the teen years but decline in popularity with age.

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85. A third-grade student who earned a grade-equivalent score of 5.0 a standardized test of
mathematics
A. has the same mathematics ability as the average fifth-grade student in that same school.
B. should not be enrolled in a fifth-grade math class.
C. performed similarly to a hypothetical fifth-grade student.
D. will most probably earn a grade of A in the course.

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86. Experts in testing and assessment have expressed reservations about the use of
A. national anchor norms.
B. percentiles.
C. grade norms.
D. television programs for pre-schoolers which purport to teach advanced subjects.

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87. A typical variable of interest in developing contemporary national norms is


A. ethnic background.
B. member/non-member of Lady GaGa fan club.
C. owner/non-owner of smart phone.
D. None of these.

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88. Which term does NOT belong in the group with the others?
A. norm-referenced assessment
B. criterion-referenced assessment
C. domain-referenced assessment
D. mastery assessment

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89. Fixed reference group scoring systems typically


A. contain groups of test-takers who all share a common characteristic, such as personality
type.
B. are used by major test publishers to construct intelligence tests.
C. entail the comparison of one group of testtakers with all future groups of testtakers.
D. entail a comparison between one group of test-takers and another, matched group who took
the same test the year before.

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90. Which of the following standardized tests employs a fixed reference group?
A. SAT
B. ACT
C. MAT
D. TAT

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91. A norm-referenced test yields which type of information?


A. information indicating that the examinee has the eye-hand coordination skills necessary to
operate a particular piece of dangerous machinery
B. information indicating that the examinee scored above 90% of individuals who took the
test
C. Both information indicating that the examinee has the eye-hand coordination skills
necessary to operate a particular piece of dangerous machinery and information indicating
that the examinee scored above 90% of individuals who took the test
D. None of these

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92. Which is the MOST appropriate application of a criterion-referenced test?


A. testing achievement in advanced mathematical logic for a graduate-level course
B. testing knowledge of basic traffic signs and signals for a driver's license
C. a testing program to award college athletic scholarships
D. a testing program to reward a company's top salespeople

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93. In general, criterion-referenced testing


A. is useful for communicating information regarding the mastery of basic skills such as
reading and writing.
B. has been found to be extremely valuable in conveying information about a student's level
of creativity relative to other students.
C. is not a well-accepted method of testing in areas such as mastery of word processing
programs.
D. is a contradiction in terms due to the lack of a valid criterion.

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94. It is an extremely atypical score that can sometimes provide a hint regarding some
deficiency in the testing or scoring procedures. It is
A. a nonlinear plot point.
B. a standard error.
C. an outlier.
D. an error.

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95. A scatterplot of the relationship between two variables is graphed upward and sloping to
the right. This is indicative of
A. a strong positive relationship.
B. a strong negative relationship.
C. a weak inverse relationship.
D. a purely Platonic relationship.

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96. What is the relationship between the correlation coefficient and the standard error of
estimate?
A. It is a positive relationship.
B. It is an inverse relationship.
C. No relationship exists.
D. It is best characterized as "stormy."

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97. Which statistic is used to calculate the exact degree of curvilinearity displayed in graphed
correlation data?
A. coefficient alpha
B. coefficient beta
C. eta squared
D. None of these

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98. Which of the following constitutes a recommended sampling technique for use in
obtaining a standardization sample?
A. volunteer sampling
B. remanded sampling
C. purposive sampling
D. balanced sampling

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99. Which of the following is TRUE of norms?


A. Norms may be thought of as expressed as normalized raw scores.
B. Norms may be expressed as percentiles, age norms, or grade norms.
C. In essence, what norms tell us about any distribution, is what is and is not, "normal."
D. Norms are best expressed in multi-colored graphs in the context of multi-media
presentations.

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100. Raw scores may be converted to norms


A. so that the scores are more easily interpreted.
B. so that scores are easily communicated to others.
C. Both so that the scores are more easily interpreted and so that scores are easily
communicated to others.
D. None of these

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101. "Number of items answered correctly on an achievement test" defines what type of score
on that test?
A. a raw score
B. a standard score
C. a percentile rank
D. a cut-off score

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102. A raw score of 0 on a test suggests to the test user that the testtaker
A. did not possess any of the construct/ability being assessed by the test.
B. did not understand the instructions.
C. was not physically capable of responding appropriately.
D. All of these

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103. The number corresponding to a grade of A on your next psychological measurement


exam is an example of what type of score?
A. raw score
B. standard score
C. percentile rank
D. cut-off score

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104. The number corresponding to a "Pass" on a state teacher certification examination is an


example of what type of score?
A. raw score
B. standard score
C. percentile rank
D. cut-off score

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105. When two tests are normed on the same sample, it is referred to as
A. bi-norming.
B. representative norming.
C. co-norming.
D. None of these

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106. A school psychologist administers a psychological test to a child. For the purposes of her
report, she converts the testtaker's raw scores to percentiles. Age and grade norms are
provided in the manual but she declines to cite them because
A. percentiles are all that are needed for accurate reporting of results.
B. age and grade norms tend to be misinterpreted by the general public.
C. she prefers to report results using only means and standard deviations.
D. that's what they're expecting her to do.

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107. In a norm-referenced approach to testing, a testtaker's scores are compared with


A. the scores of other individuals who were administered the test.
B. a standard of excellence determined by experts in the area.
C. Both the scores of other individuals who were administered the test and a standard of
excellence determined by experts in the area.
D. None of these

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108. Unlike norm-referenced interpretation, criterion-referenced interpretation


A. requires that the test-taker's score be compared with a matched sample.
B. describes test performance in terms of a test-taker's relative standing in a group.
C. relies on percentile as opposed to grade or age norms.
D. describes a test-taker's performance in terms of predetermined standards.

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109. Regarding norm-referenced and criterion-referenced testing


A. norm-referenced testing is recommended.
B. criterion-referenced testing is recommended.
C. each can be appropriate depending on testing objectives.
D. the two approaches can always be used interchangeably.

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110. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a correlation coefficient?


A. A restricted range in either correlated variable makes the correlation lower.
B. A correlation coefficient provides information regarding causation.
C. No meaning is attached to the sign of a correlation coefficient, since the coefficient is
ultimately squared.
D. Restriction of range is now illegal in the 48 contiguous states.

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111. National anchor norms for a test taken by university students allow for comparisons
between
A. students who took the test and applicants who did not.
B. one student and a national sample of others taking the same test.
C. test battery results for international students.
D. doctoral students in psychology and a sample of Peruvian prisoners.

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112. Among school-age children, as age increases, so do reading skills. This relationship
between two variables illustrates
A. a positive correlation between two variables.
B. a negative correlation between two variables.
C. a zero correlation between two variables.
D. why "correlation" is synonymous with "causation".

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113. A correlation coefficient is equal to .30. Using the coefficient of determination, the
variance accounted for by chance, error, and other unexplained factors is
A. approximately 91%.
B. approximately 30%.
C. approximately 3%.
D. None of these

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114. One technical problem that arose with the early use of intelligence quotients on tests such
as the Stanford-Binet was that
A. mental age was difficult to accurately determine.
B. standard deviations were not constant with age.
C. factor analysis was done by hand and highly subject to error.
D. None of these

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115. According to the team of sports psychologist introduced in Chapter 4's Meet An
Assessment Professional, psychological information collected on professional athletes is used
A. to motivate players to do well.
B. in the process of press relations.
C. prepare players for an alternative career.
D. None of these

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116. According to the team of sports psychologist introduced in Chapter 4's Meet An
Assessment Professional, a special challenge of conducting psychological assessments with
professional athletes is
A. time pressure and deadlines for test administration and interpretation.
B. persuading the athlete's that they won't one day find their test protocols for auction on e-
bay.
C. both time pressure and deadlines for test administration and interpretation and persuading
the athlete's that they won't one day find their test protocols for auction on e-bay.
D. None of these

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117. Which of the following tests were used with members of the Chicago Bulls by the sports
psychologists introduced in the Chapter 4's Meet An Assessment Professional?
A. the MMPI
B. the 16-PF
C. the Draw-A-Person test
D. the Rorschach Inkblot test

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118. In general, samples of behavior may be obtained by


A. direct observation.
B. self-report.
C. paper-and-pencil tests.
D. All of these

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