1.

With the auto pilot (AP) engaged in cruise, the yaw damper actuator is
controlled through the: hal 26 ch 22
a. Yaw damper order provided by ELAC
b. AP yaw order calculated by the FMGC, via the FAC. LAND MODE
C. AP ROLL order calculated by FMGC via FAC
d. Normal law order calculated by the FAC
When the AP is engaged, the FAC calculates the yaw damper order except in LANDing mode where it is
computed by the Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC).

2. Pressing the reset pushbutton enables to return the rudder to the neutral
position hal 27 ch 22
a. When the API and AP2 in land mode
b. When the AP is not engaged
c. When the AP is engaged
d. At any time

3. The auto thrust become engaged and active when .. hal 45 ch 22

a. Put thrust lever on TOGA position wait until reduction altitude appear, lever move to CLIMB position.
b. One of thrust lever on TOGA detent and the another lever on FLX MCT detent
C. Put both thrust lever on FLX MCT detent
d. Put thrust lever on TOGA position and immediately autothrust will be engange and active
THRUST REDUCTION ALTITUDE
At the thrust reduction altitude, a message on the FMAs indicates to the pilot that he has to set the thrust
levers into the CL detent. As soon as the thrust levers are in the CL detent, the A/THR is active.

4.What will happen when AP engage on the ground and both engines are running? Hal 16 ch 22
a. AP remain engage and active
b. AP disengage automatically
c. AP remain engage but not Active
 d. AP should be manually disconnected
For maintenance purposes, the AP can be engaged on ground with both engines shut down. Hydraulic
power is not required. When an engine is started, the AP disengages.

5. What is the consequence of an alpha floor detection hal 34 ch 22

a. The autopilot engages
b. The autopilot disengages
C. The autothrust automatically engages with the last position lever
d. The autothrust automatically engages with full thrust
If this threshold is exceeded, the FAC sends a signal to the FMGC to engage the A/THR function and apply
full thrust.

6. What is the basic function of the MCDUs for the autopilot system on A 320: hal 4 ch 22
a. To give a short-term interface between RMP and FMGCS.
b. To give a long-term Interface between crew and FMGCS.
C. To give a long-term interface between crew and the FACs.
d. To give a short-term interface between crew and FMGCS.
The FCU and the MCDUs let the pilots control the functions of the FMGCs. The FAC engagement P/BSWs
and the RUDder TRIM control panel are connected to the FACs. The MCDUs are used for long-term control
of the aircraft and do the interface between the crew and the FMGC allowing the management of the
flight. The FCU is used for short-term control of the aircraft and is the interface required for transmission of
engine data from the FMGC to the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC).

7. The A/C is in flight, the AP is engaged and the A/THR system is active, the A/THR mode depend on: hal
44 ch 22
a. The AP/FD vertical (PITCH) mode.
b. The pilot selection on the MCDU.
C. The AP/FD lateral (ROLL) mode.
d. When Auto land is ARM
MODES DESCRIPTION
The choice of the mode is automatically made by the FMGCs according to the active AP or Flight Director
(FD) vertical mode.

8. Which computer have active FIDS function? Hal 9 ch 22

a. FMGC #1
 b. FAC # 2
C. FMGC # 2
d. FAC #1
For maintenance purposes, the FIDS centralizes the failure information from the various BITE of the AFS
computers and provides an interface between these BITEs and the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit
(CFDIU). The FIDS function is only active in FAC 1

9. The A/THR function is active, and the thrust levers are in the CLIMB (CL) detent, if the A/THR system
fails, the thrust on the engines is: hal 45 ch 45
a. Maintain at idle position
b. Frozen at its last value before the disconnection (memo mode).
c. Smoothly adapted to the thrust lever position.
d. Quickly adapted to the thrust lever position.
When the disconnection is made by the instinctive disconnect P/B, the thrust is immediately adjusted to
the thrust lever position. In other cases, after FCU P/BSW disconnection, or failure:
• when a thrust lever is in its detent, the thrust on the corresponding engine is frozen at its last value
just before the disconnection (memo mode).
• as soon as a thrust lever is moved out the detent, or if it is not in a detent, the thrust on the
corresponding engine is smoothly adapted to the thrust lever position..

10. The Flight guidance (FG) part gives the function: hal 14 ch 22
a. A/P, FD and A/THR.
b. Flight plan; Lateral and Vertical.
c. Elevator; spoiler and Altitude.
d. A/P, FD and Rudder.
The FG part gives the AP, FD and A/THR functions. These functionswork according to modes generally
chosen on the FCU. The normal way to operate the aircraft is to use the management part as reference
sourcefor the guidance part.

11. Data information about speed computation on the PFD normally supplied by hal 32 ch 22
a. FAC via DMC
b. DMC via FAC
C. FMGC via DMC
d. DMC via FMGC
The speeds computed by the FAC are sent to the PFD and the speed limits to the FMGCs. In normal
operation, FAC 1 data are displayed on the CAPT PFD and the FAC 2 data on the F/O PFD.

12. Where is location of the RA Transceiver?

a. AFT cabin area
b. AFT equipment compartment.
C. MEC
d. AFT cargo compartment

13. How to get present position, when GPS is not available, and we didn't know about the airport point
coordinate
a. Printout PFR and typing CITY/PAIR ON INIT page
b. On MSU select knob to OFF position, back again to NAV position and not more than 5 second
c. Type on COROUTE, automatically present position will be appear
d. Make sure BAT ON is illuminate on MSU

14. Alternate law of Dutch roll damping will be active when: hal 26 ch 22
a. Both FAC has a failure
b. Both ELAC has a failure
C. ELAC computer is not available and autopilot is engaged
d. Both FMGC has a failure
If both ELACs fail, only the dutch roll damping (alternate law) is computed by the Flight Augmentation
Computer (FAC) using the Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) data.

15. The flight interphone jack is located:

a. Cargo compartment
b. External power panel
c. Nose wheel compartment
d. Avionic compartment
16. Where is indication of the ILS 2 data?
a. FO PFD and FO ND
b. CAPT PFD and CAPT ND
C. FO PFD and CAPT ND
d. CAPT PFD and FOND

17. What will happen when LS and BUG push button on Isis are pushed simultaneously for at least 2
second? Hal 56 ch 34
a. Menu mode (test and other data) page sown on ISIS
b. BUG menu shown on ISIS
c. Initial page will show on ISIS (4 yellow flag)
d. Localizer and glide slope indicator shown on ISIS

18. What the main function of cockpit door surveillance system hal 190 ch 23
a. To monitor cockpit crew and passenger in door 1
b. To identify cabin crew in door 1 area and cockpit door area.
c. To identify a person in front of the cockpit door and to monitor the hidden area in door 1
d. To identify passenger in the door 1 area
A Cockpit Door Surveillance System (CDSS) is installed on top of the wiring provisions to let the flight crew
identify a person in front of the cockpit door and to monitor the hidden cross section in the door number 1
area.

19. No 1 ADIRU normally supply data in to the... hal 31 ch 34

a. Captain EFIS only
b. FO EFIS and DDRMI
c. Captain EFIS and DDRMI
d. FO EFIS only ADIRU 2
20. The purpose of Air Data Module is.......hal 14 ch 34
a. Convert the pressure into the nav data.
b. Changing the air pressure into the digital signals.
c. Changing the electrical signals into the air pressure.
d. Changing the air pressure into discrete data.

21. What is main function of the SUPRPRESSOR on the ATC/TCAS and DME system: hal 171 ch 34
a. To prevent simultaneous transmission and interrupt other reception
b. To prevent simultaneous reception and interrupt other transmission
C. To allow DME and ATC receive at same time
d. To allow DME and TCAS transmit at same time
SUPPRESSOR
The DME, the Air Traffic Control (ATC) and the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) operate
in the same frequency range. A suppressor coaxial between the ATC transponders, the TCAS and DME
interrogators is necessary to prevent simultaneous transmission and to interrupt reception of the other
systems.

22. Water drain on the pitot and static system is installed on the:
a. FO static line
b. Captain and FO stattic line.
c. STBY static line
d. Captain static line
23. Weather radar tranceiver is received pitch and roll data to stabilization and control the antenna
from...... hal 31 ch 34
a. ADIRU 1 and 3
b. ADIRU 1
C. ADIRU 2
d. ADIRU 3

24. The PWs indication and warning/caution alert will be displayed on hal 94 ch 34
a. Captain PFD and ND.
b. Both EFIS
C. F/o and Captain ND.
d. F/O PFD and ND.
PWS INDICATING
The predictive windshear indications and warning/caution alerts are shown on the CAPT and F/O PFDs and
NDs. The windshear phenomenon is indicated by an icon superimposed on the radar image in the different
EFIS modes, ARC and ROSE except in PLAN mode.

25. HF coupler are located: hal 11 ch 23

a. Avionic compartment
b. Vertical stabilizer area
 C. Aft pressure bulkhead area
d. Upper ceiling in Aft cabin area

26. How to make ILS data appear on PFD and ND? Hal 78 ch 34
a. Press LS push button on EFIS control panel for PFD and select rose LS page for ND
b. Selected from MCDU nav page.
c. Tune frequency from RMPS
d. Press LS push button on EFIS control panel for PFD and select plan page for ND.
The ILS data appears on the PFD as soon as the LS P/BSW on the EFIS control panel has been pressed in,
and on the ND when ROSE/LS mode has been selected

27. The RMP (radio management panel) function are?

a. Navigation function only.
b. Radio communication function only.
c. Radio communication function and backup navigation function.
d. Radio communication function and primary navigation function.

28. If the VOR station is manually tune from MCDU: hal 6 ch 34

a. Nav RAD page will be BLANK
b. The VOR station identifier show in BIG font
c. No VOR station identiifer appear on NAV RAD
d. The VoR station identifier show in small font

29. When CAPT push button is press fronm Attendant Handset: hal 36 ch 23
a. MECH light flashes for 60 second and buzzer on loudspeaker.
 b. MECH lght flashes continuously and buzzer on loudspeaker
c.ATT light flashes for 60 second and buzzer on loudspeaker.
d. ATT light flashes continuously and buzzer on loudspeaker.

30. What a main function of the top line cut off relay during electrical emergency configuration?129 ch23
a. Supply power to DEU B when PA is present
b. CUT OFF the power for DEU A when PA is present
c. Supply power to DEU A when PA is present
d. CUT OFF the power for DEU B when PA is present
TOP LINE CUT-OFF RELAY
The top line cut-off relay discrete signal is used to activate or deactivate the top line cut-off relays when
the emergency mode is activated, in order to cut the supply of the type A DEUs and decrease the power
consumption.
31. How we can perform self test of the TAWS? Hal 145 ch 34
a. From the test push button on the TAWS computer
b. From the PULL UP/GPWS pushbutton
c. From the MCDU
d. From the TAWS test pushbutton
PULL UP/GPWS P/BSWs: on the main instrument panel, when pushed, have 2 functions:
- to cancel the Glide Slope (G/S) alert or,
- to initiate the self test sequence.

32. The signals exchanged between the Audio Control Panels (ACP) and the Audio Management Unit
(AMU) are: hal 24 ch 23
a. Digital signals (ARINC 429).
b. Audio and digital signals.
C. Audio signals.
 d. Digital signals (RS 232).
They are linked by an ARINC 429 bus to the related audio cards installed in the Audio Management Unit
(AMU). ACP-AMU link is done by ARINC 429 buses. Only digital data are exchanged between the AMU and
the ACPs.

33. PWS system function will automatically active if: hal 101 ch 34
a. WXR on, RA below 2300 feet and all qualifiers are valid
b. WXR on, RA below 2300 feet and both qualifiers B are valid
c. WXR on, RA below 2300 feet and both qualifiers A are valid
d. WXR on, RA below 2300 feet and one on each qualifier are valid
The windshear function is automatically activated below 2300 ft RA and one of each qualifier A and one of
each qualifier B have to be valid.

34. The Active Director normally supplied power by: hal 71 ch 23

a. DC service and DC Essential BUS
b. DC Essential BUS
C. DC Service BUS
d. DC BAT BUS

35. How to make PA announcement from Cockpit with the fast way? Hal 91 ch 23
a. By Boom mike and PA transmit key on ACP
b. By hand mike and PA transmit key on ACP
C. By pressing PTT switch on the cockpit handset
d. By oxygen mask and PA transmit key on ACP
The fastest way to make a PAX announcement from the cockpit is, to pick-up the handset, push the PTT SW
and talk.

36. To get the best reception and transmission, SATCOM system receive input aircraft relative azimuth
from: hal 44 ch 23
 A. ADIRU via Amplifier
b. ADIRU via BSU
C. ADIRU via DLNA
d. ADIRU via Attenuator
the Air Data/Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) to send the relative azimuth and relative elevation
command to the Beam Steering Unit (BSU) to point the steerable beam of the HGA for best reception and
transmission,

37. Cargo smoke detector connected with DIRI and DIR2 via? Hal 71 ch 23
a. CAN bus
b. Ethernet
C. MID line bus
d. TOP line bus

38. Very High Frequency (VHF) tranceiver No. 2 can be tuned from: hal 21 ch 23
a. RMP 1, 2 or 3.
b. RMP 1 or 3 only
C. RMP No. 2 only.
d. RMP 1 or 2 only.

39. The cabin loudspeakers are connected to: hal 90

a. The Type A Decoder-Encoder Units.
b. The Audio Management Unit.
c. Direcly with DIRECTOR 1 and 2
d. The Type B Decoder-Encoder Units.