IMAT MOCK EXAM

BIOLOGY
COMPLETE SYLLABUS
TOTAL TIME : 100 MINS
T-QUESTIONS : 23

PY
NOTE : EACH QUESTION CONTAINS 1.5 POINTS FOR EACH
CORRECT ANSWER, MINUS 0.4 POINTS FOR EACH IN-CORRECT

O
ANSWER. 0 POINTS FOR THE UNANSWERED ONES.

C
Question 1:

T
A patient presents with symptoms of chronic fatigue and muscle cramps.
O
Laboratory results show a significant accumulation of lactic acid in the
blood following minimal physical exertion. Genetic testing reveals a
N
mutation in an enzyme critical for converting pyruvate to acetyl-CoA.
O

Which pathway is primarily disrupted in this patient, and what secondary

D

effect would you expect on the electron transport chain's function?

ED

a) Glycolysis; Increased electron flow

b) Krebs cycle; Reduced NADH production
c) Electron transport chain; Increased ATP synthesis
VA

d) Fermentation; Decreased oxygen consumption

O

Question 2:
IN

During the G2 phase of the cell cycle, a critical checkpoint ensures the
H

integrity of DNA before mitosis. A defect in the tumor suppressor gene

leads to cells with damaged DNA proceeding to mitosis, resulting in
genomic instability. Which of the following proteins, if mutated, would
most likely cause this phenotype, and what is the downstream effect on
CDK activity?

a) Cyclin B; Uncontrolled CDK activation

b) p53; Inhibition of CDK activity
c) p21; Increased CDK activity
d) Rb; Constant activation of E2F

Question 3:
In a dihybrid cross of plants with round yellow seeds (RrYy) and wrinkled
green seeds (rryy), the offspring exhibit a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. Given
that one of the genes shows incomplete dominance, what is the
expected phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation if the incomplete

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dominance affects seed shape but not color?

O
a) 1:2:1:2:1:2:1:1:1
b) 9:3:3:1

C
c) 6:2:3:1:1:1:2:1
d) 1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1

T
Question 4:
O
N
A genetic disorder characterized by the inability to metabolize a specific
O

amino acid follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. The

disorder leads to severe intellectual disability if untreated. If both parents
D

are carriers, what is the probability that their first two children will both be
unaffected, and what biochemical pathway is most likely impaired?
ED

a) 1/16; Urea cycle

VA

b) 9/16; Phenylalanine metabolism

c) 3/16; Glycolysis
d) 1/4; Fatty acid oxidation
O
IN

Question 5:
In a population of beetles, two color morphs exist: dark and light.
H

Predation pressure varies with environmental changes, leading to

fluctuating frequencies of these morphs over generations. Which
evolutionary mechanism best explains these oscillations, and what
genetic phenomenon is most likely maintaining both morphs in the
population?

a) Genetic drift; Bottleneck effect

b) Gene flow; Founder effect
c) Natural selection; Balancing selection
d) Sexual selection; Genetic hitchhiking

Question 6:
A biotechnological advancement involves the use of CRISPR-Cas9 to
create a transgenic plant resistant to a specific pathogen. The guide
RNA targets a sequence adjacent to a protospacer adjacent motif
(PAM), ensuring precise cleavage by Cas9. What is the primary

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challenge in achieving specificity in this gene-editing process, and what
unintended consequence could arise from off-target effects?

O
a) Designing the guide RNA; Genetic mosaicism

C
b) PAM sequence selection; Off-target cleavage
c) Cas9 delivery; Epigenetic modifications

T
d) Gene integration; Somatic mutations
O
N
Question 7:
O

Comparative anatomy reveals that the forelimbs of humans, birds, and

whales share a similar bone structure, despite their different functions.
D

This structural similarity supports which evolutionary concept, and how

does this relate to the genetic regulation of limb development?
ED

a) Convergent evolution; Differential gene expression

VA

b) Divergent evolution; Homologous genes

c) Adaptive radiation; Gene duplication
d) Coevolution; Parallel evolution
O
IN

Question 8:
In a physiological study, a drug is administered to inhibit calcium
H

channels in cardiac muscle cells. The expected outcome is a decrease

in both heart rate and contractility. However, an unexpected increase in
blood pressure is observed. Which compensatory mechanism is most
likely responsible for this observation?

a) Increased venous return

b) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
c) Renal sodium retention
d) Vasodilation of peripheral arteries

Question 9:
A histological analysis of an epithelial tissue sample shows the presence
of goblet cells and ciliated columnar cells. This tissue type is commonly
found lining which organ, and what is its primary function in this location?

a) Stomach; Secretion of digestive enzymes

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b) Trachea; Removal of mucus and debris
c) Intestines; Absorption of nutrients

O
d) Bladder; Stretching to accommodate urine

C
Question 10:
The regulation of calcium levels in the blood involves a delicate balance

T
between bone resorption and deposition. When blood calcium levels
O
drop, which hormone is secreted to stimulate osteoclast activity, and how
N
does it affect calcium homeostasis?
O

a) Calcitonin; Decreases blood calcium

D

b) Parathyroid hormone; Increases blood calcium

c) Vitamin D; Increases calcium absorption
ED

d) Aldosterone; Enhances renal calcium reabsorption

VA

Question 11:
During transcription, the formation of a mature mRNA involves several
modifications. A mutation that disrupts the addition of the 5' cap would
O

primarily affect which aspect of mRNA processing, and what would be

IN

the consequence on protein synthesis?

H

a) Splicing efficiency; Production of non-functional proteins

b) Nuclear export; Accumulation of mRNA in the nucleus
c) Translation initiation; Reduced protein synthesis
d) Polyadenylation; Rapid mRNA degradation

Question 12:
A biochemistry experiment measures the ATP yield from complete
oxidation of glucose under different conditions. In a scenario where
oxygen availability is limited, what is the net ATP production per glucose
molecule, and which intermediate accumulates in the cytoplasm?

a) 2 ATP; Pyruvate
b) 4 ATP; Acetyl-CoA
c) 2 ATP; Lactate
d) 8 ATP; Oxaloacetate

PY
Question 13:

O
A mutation in a gene encoding a protein crucial for the G1/S checkpoint
results in cells bypassing this checkpoint, leading to uncontrolled

C
proliferation. Which of the following proteins is most likely affected, and
what is the role of this protein in normal cell cycle regulation?

T
a) Cyclin D; Activates CDK4/6
O
N
b) p21; Inhibits CDK2
O

c) Rb; Suppresses E2F activity

d) p53; Induces p21 expression
D

Question 14:
ED

A pedigree analysis reveals that a rare genetic disorder is present in

every generation and affects males and females equally. What mode of
VA

inheritance is indicated, and which genetic mutation type is most likely

associated with this disorder?
O

a) Autosomal dominant; Gain-of-function mutation

IN

b) Autosomal recessive; Loss-of-function mutation

c) X-linked dominant; Missense mutation
H

d) Mitochondrial inheritance; Deletion mutation

Question 15:
An examination of muscle tissue under a microscope shows
multinucleated, striated fibers arranged in parallel bundles. This tissue
type is responsible for voluntary movements. Identify the muscle type
and its characteristic cellular structure.
a) Smooth muscle; Spindle-shaped cells
b) Cardiac muscle; Branched cells with intercalated discs
c) Skeletal muscle; Long cylindrical fibers
d) Nervous tissue; Neurons and glia

Question 16:
In a monohybrid cross involving a dominant allele for a trait,
heterozygous individuals display the dominant phenotype. If two

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heterozygous individuals (Aa) are crossed, what is the probability that
their first two offspring will both display the recessive phenotype, and

O
what genotype corresponds to this phenotype?

C
a) 1/4; AA
b) 1/16; Aa

T
c) 1/16; aa O
d) 1/4; Aa
N
O

Question 17:
D

A researcher studying gene expression identifies a mutation in the

spliceosome components that leads to the retention of introns in the
ED

mature mRNA. What is the most likely consequence of this mutation on

the resulting protein, and how does it affect the cell?
VA

a) Functional protein; Enhanced cellular function

b) Truncated protein; Loss of function
O

c) Overactive protein; Increased cellular proliferation

IN

d) Misfolded protein; Cellular stress response

H

Question 18:
An individual with cystic fibrosis exhibits thick mucus secretions and
recurrent respiratory infections due to a defective chloride channel.
Which cellular transport process is impaired, and what is the secondary
effect on water movement in epithelial tissues?

a) Active transport; Decreased water reabsorption

b) Osmosis; Increased water retention
c) Facilitated diffusion; Reduced water secretion
d) Diffusion; Enhanced water loss

Question 19:
Two populations of a bird species become geographically isolated by a
mountain range. Over time, they develop distinct mating calls and
plumage colors, leading to reproductive isolation. Which type of
speciation is occurring, and what genetic mechanism is least likely to

PY
contribute to this divergence?

O
a) Allopatric speciation; Gene flow
b) Sympatric speciation; Genetic drift

C
c) Parapatric speciation; Natural selection
d) Peripatric speciation; Founder effect

T
Question 20:
O
N
A researcher uses CRISPR-Cas9 to knock out a gene in a plant that
O

confers susceptibility to a particular pathogen. Following the gene

knockout, the plant exhibits increased resistance. Which DNA repair
D

mechanism is most likely responsible for the gene knockout, and what
potential off-target effects could arise?
ED

a) Homologous recombination; Precise gene correction

VA

b) Non-homologous end joining; Unintended mutations

c) Base excision repair; Altered base pairs
d) Nucleotide excision repair; Removal of thymine dimers
O
IN

Question 21:
The regulation of blood glucose levels involves a complex interplay
H

between insulin and glucagon. After a prolonged fast, glucagon is

released to stimulate glycogenolysis. Which organ is primarily targeted
by glucagon, and what biochemical pathway is activated?

a) Liver; Glycolysis
b) Muscle; Gluconeogenesis
c) Liver; Glycogenolysis
d) Kidney; Lipolysis

Question 22:
In a study of operon regulation, a repressor protein binds to the operator
region of an operon, preventing transcription. When an inducer molecule
is present, it binds to the repressor, causing it to release from the
operator and allowing gene expression. Which operon is being studied,
and what is the inducer?

PY
a) Lac operon; Lactose
b) Trp operon; Tryptophan

O
c) Ara operon; Arabinose
d) His operon; Histidine

C
Question 23:

T
A novel cancer treatment drug specifically inhibits a kinase involved in
O
the transition from the G2 phase to the M phase. As a result, treated
N
cells accumulate in the G2 phase and fail to enter mitosis. Identify the
O

kinase targeted by the drug, and explain the consequence of its

inhibition on the cell cycle.
D

a) CDK1; Arrest in G1 phase

ED

b) CDK2; DNA damage repair

c) CDK4; Suppressed cyclin synthesis
VA

d) CDK1; Blocked mitotic entry

CHEMISTRY
O
IN

COMPLETE SYLLABUS
H

T-QUESTIONS : 12

Question 24:
Which gas law describes the relationship between pressure P, volume V,
and temperature T of an ideal gas, assuming the amount of gas n and
the gas constant R are constant?
a) Boyle's law
b) Charles's law
c) Gay-Lussac's law
d) Dalton's law

Question 25:
The electronic configuration of an atom is 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6

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4s^2 3d^{10}. Identify the element and its position in the periodic table.
a) Helium, Group 2

O
b) Zinc, Group 12
c) Calcium, Group 2

C
d) Argon, Group 18

T
Question 26:
O
N
A reaction proceeds according to the rate law 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 = 𝑘[𝐴]2[𝐵], where k
O

is the rate constant, A and B are concentrations of reactants. If the

concentration of A is doubled and B is halved, determine the new rate of
D

the reaction in terms of the original rate. Discuss the implications of

reaction order and rate constant on the overall reaction kinetics.
ED

a) 2 times the original rate

VA

b) 4 times the original rate

c)1/2 times the original rate
d)1/4 times the original rate
O
IN

Question 27:
H

A voltaic cell operates with a standard cell potential of 1.5 V. If the

concentration of Zn^2 ions in the anode compartment decreases, predict
the effect on the cell potential according to the Nernst equation. Explain
how concentration changes affect cell potential and relate this to the
concept of electrode potential in electrochemical cells.

a) Cell potential increases

b) Cell potential decreases
c) Cell potential remains unchanged
d) Cell potential becomes zero

Question 28
The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory is a widely
used model for predicting the shapes of molecules. Consider the
following statements about VSEPR theory and determine which ones are
incorrect:

PY
1. VSEPR theory predicts that the geometry of a molecule is determined

O
by the repulsion between electron pairs in the valence shell of the central
atom.

C
2. The theory accounts for both bonding electron pairs and lone pairs,
and their repulsions, to determine the final shape of the molecule.

T
3. Molecules with multiple bonds are exceptions to the VSEPR model
O
since the theory only applies to single bonds.
N
4. The presence of lone pairs on the central atom can significantly alter
O

the predicted molecular geometry compared to what would be expected

if only bonding pairs were considered.
D

5. According to VSEPR theory, the idealized geometries are based on

minimizing the repulsions between electron pairs to as low as possible.
ED

6. The theory is applicable to all molecules, including those with only two
atoms (diatomic molecules).
VA

7. Molecular geometry predicted by VSEPR theory takes into account

the differences in repulsion strength between lone pairs and bonding
pairs, with lone pair-lone pair repulsion being stronger than bonding
O

pair-bonding pair repulsion.

IN

8. For molecules with resonance structures, VSEPR theory averages the

shapes predicted by each resonance form to give the final geometry.
H

9. VSEPR theory is based on quantum mechanical principles and

incorporates the wave nature of electrons explicitly in its predictions.
10. According to VSEPR, the shape of a molecule is solely determined
by the number of electron pairs around the central atom, without
considering the influence of electronegativity differences between atoms.

Choose the set of incorrect statements:

a) 1, 4, 7, 10
b) 3, 8, 9
c) 2, 5, 6
d) 1, 3, 6, 9

Question 29:
In a chemical equilibrium involving 𝑁2​(𝑔) + 3𝐻2​(𝑔)⇌2𝑁𝐻3​(𝑔), if the
concentration of NH_3 increases due to a decrease in volume, describe

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the shift in equilibrium according to Le Chatelier's principle. Discuss the
factors influencing equilibrium position and equilibrium constant under

O
changing conditions.

C
a) Shift towards products

T
b) Shift towards reactants
c) No shift in equilibrium O
d) Equilibrium becomes unstable
N
O

Question 30:
D

Calculate the pH of a solution formed by mixing 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl with

150 mL of 0.2 M NaOH . Consider the dissociation of water and the role
ED

of conjugate acid-base pairs in maintaining pH stability.

VA

a) 4
b) 7
c) 10
O

d) 12
IN

Question 31:
H

Which compound is expected to exhibit hydrogen bonding in its pure

liquid state?

a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Propanol
d) Butanol
Question 32:
An organic compound with the molecular formula undergoes
fermentation to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide. Calculate the
theoretical yield of ethanol if 180 grams of glucose
a) 90 g
b) 180 g
c) 270 g

PY
d) 360 g

O
Question 33:
During an experimental investigation of molecular structures, the bond

C
angles around the central atoms are measured as follows:

T
- Methane (CH₄): 109.5 Degree O
- Ammonia (NH₃): 107 Degree
N
O

Based on these measurements, what are the types of hybridization in

methane and ammonia, respectively?
D

a) Methane - sp³, Ammonia - sp³

ED

b) Methane - sp³, Ammonia - sp²

c) Methane - sp³, Ammonia - sp
VA

d) Methane - sp², Ammonia - sp³

O
IN

Question 34:
Acids and bases are fundamental concepts in chemistry, and their
H

behaviors in aqueous solutions are described by several theories and

principles. Consider the following statements about acids and bases and
choose the set of correct statements:

1. According to the Arrhenius definition, an acid increases the

concentration of H+ ions in aqueous solution, while a base increases the
concentration of OH- ions.
2. In the Brønsted-Lowry theory, an acid is defined as a proton donor,
and a base is defined as a proton acceptor.
3. Lewis theory expands the definitions of acids and bases to include
electron pair donors and acceptors, respectively.
4. Strong acids completely dissociate in water, resulting in a high
concentration of H^+ ions and a low pH, whereas weak acids only
partially dissociate.
5. Strong bases completely dissociate in water, leading to a high
concentration of OH^- ions and a high pH, while weak bases only

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partially dissociate.
6. A buffer solution can resist changes in pH upon the addition of small

O
amounts of strong acid or base, and it usually consists of a weak acid
and its conjugate base or a weak base and its conjugate acid.

C
7. Amphoteric substances can act as either an acid or a base depending
on the circumstances; water is a common example.

T
O
Choose the set of correct statements:
N
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
O

b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7,
c) 1, 2, 4, 6, 7,
D

d) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,
ED

Question 35:
Which organic compound undergoes oxidation to form carboxylic acids?
VA

a) Alkane
b) Alkene
O

c) Alcohol
IN

d) Aldehyde
H

LOGICAL/READING ANAYLSIS
COMPLETE SYLLABUS
T-QUESTIONS : 5
"In the vast expanse of literary theory, the interplay between postmodern
deconstruction and structuralist analysis presents a labyrinthine
discourse on narrative meaning and authorial intent. Within this
discourse, Foucault's notion of the 'author-function' intersects with
Barthes' 'Death of the Author,' challenging conventional notions of
authorship and textual authority. Meanwhile, Derrida's concept of
différance complicates linguistic signification by emphasizing the play of
differences and deferrals within language itself, thereby destabilizing

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fixed meanings and inviting a multiplicity of interpretations. This
theoretical landscape further muddies the waters with the emergence of

O
postcolonial criticism, which critiques Western hegemony in literature
and interrogates the power dynamics embedded in language and

C
representation. Moreover, feminist literary theory introduces complexities
through its lens of gendered readings and the subversion of patriarchal

T
narratives, offering alternative perspectives that complicate and enrich
O
the discourse on identity and representation in literature. To navigate this
N
theoretical maze requires grappling with semiotics, intertextuality, and
O

the hermeneutics of suspicion, challenging readers and scholars alike to

reevaluate their assumptions about language, power, and meaning."
D
ED

Question 36:
In the context of postmodern literary theory, which concept challenges
VA

traditional notions of authorship and textual authority by emphasizing the

multiplicity of interpretations and the play of differences within language
itself?
O
IN

a) Foucault's 'author-function'
b) Derrida's différance
H

c) Barthes' 'Death of the Author'

d) Postcolonial criticism

Question 37:
Within feminist literary theory, which aspect introduces complexities by
critiquing patriarchal narratives and advocating for gendered readings
that challenge Western hegemony in literature?
a) Foucault's notion of power dynamics
b) Barthes' critique of authorial intent
c) Derrida's deconstruction of language
d) Feminist critique of representation

Question 38:
Five friends - Alice, Bob, Carol, David, and Emily - each have a different
profession among lawyer, doctor, engineer, artist, and teacher. From the

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clues given, determine the profession of each friend:

O
Clues:
1. Emily is not a lawyer or a doctor.

C
2. The engineer is married to the artist.
3. Alice is neither the engineer nor the teacher.

T
4. David is the doctor. O
5. The lawyer is not married to the artist.
N
O

Which of the following represents the correct professions of Alice, Bob,

Carol, David, and Emily?
D

a) Alice - engineer, Bob - teacher, Carol - artist, David - doctor, Emily -

ED

lawyer
b) Alice - artist, Bob - lawyer, Carol - teacher, David - doctor, Emily -
VA

engineer
c) Alice - doctor, Bob - artist, Carol - engineer, David - lawyer, Emily -
teacher
O

d) Alice - teacher, Bob - doctor, Carol - lawyer, David - artist, Emily -

IN

engineer
H

Question 39 :
Arrange the following words in a logical sequence based on a certain
criterion:

1. Break
2. Jump
3. Play
4. Run
5. Skip

Which of the following represents the correct logical sequence of the

words?

a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
b) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
c) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

PY
d) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2

O
Question:40

C
Five literary critics - Alice, Bob, Carol, David, and Emily - each specialize
in a different aspect of literary theory: postmodern deconstruction,

T
feminist critique, structuralist analysis, semiotics, and intertextuality.
O
Using the clues provided, determine the specialization of each critic:
N
O

Clues:
1. Bob, who specializes in postmodern deconstruction, is not the critic
D

specializing in feminist critique.

2. The critic specializing in semiotics is married to the critic who analyzes
ED

intertextuality.
3. Alice, who is not the critic specializing in structuralist analysis, is
VA

married to the critic who specializes in postmodern deconstruction.

4. Emily specializes in feminist critique.
5. David is not the critic specializing in intertextuality.
O
IN

Which of the following represents the correct specialization of Alice, Bob,

Carol, David, and Emily?
H

a) Alice - semiotics, Bob - postmodern deconstruction, Carol -

structuralist analysis, David - intertextuality, Emily - feminist critique
b) Alice - feminist critique, Bob - postmodern deconstruction, Carol -
semiotics, David - intertextuality, Emily - structuralist analysis
c) Alice - structuralist analysis, Bob - postmodern deconstruction, Carol -
semiotics, David - feminist critique, Emily - intertextuality
d) Alice - intertextuality, Bob - structuralist analysis, Carol - postmodern
deconstruction, David - feminist critique, Emily - semiotics

PHYSICS + MATHS
COMPLETE SYLLABUS
T-QUESTIONS : 15

PY
Question 40:
A car undergoes a complex motion sequence: it accelerates at a rate of

O
2 m/s² for 5 seconds, maintains a constant velocity for 10 seconds, and

C
then decelerates at 1 m/s² for 8 seconds until it stops. Calculate the total
distance traveled by the car during this journey.

T
a) 325 m O
b) 350 m
N
c) 375 m
O

d) 400 m
D

Question 41:
ED

A hydraulic press compresses air adiabatically from an initial volume of 1

m³ to a final volume of 0.5 m³. If the initial temperature of the air is 25°C
and it rises to 75°C during compression, determine the work done by the
VA

air.
O

a) 145 kJ
b) 160 kJ
IN

c) 175 kJ
H

d) 190 kJ

Question 42:
A vector Ahas componentsA_x = 3 m and A_y = 4 m. Another vector{B}
has components B_x = 5m and B_y = -12 m. Calculate the magnitude of
the resultant vector{C} = vec{A} + vec{B}

a) 5 m
b) 10 m
c) 13 m
d) 17 m

Question 43:
An object of mass 2 kg is initially at rest on a frictionless horizontal
surface. A constant force F=(4i^+3j^) F = (4 i + 3j) F=(4i^+3j^​)N is
applied to the object for 5 seconds. Calculate the final velocity of the
object.

PY
a) 4√5 m/s

O
b) 5√5 m/s
c) 6√5 m/s

C
d) 7√5 m/s

T
Question 44: O
A capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 100 V and stores a
N
charge of 0.02 C. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor.
O

a) 0.5 F
D

b) 2 F
c) 5 F
ED

d) 50 F
VA

Question 45:
A block of wood floats on water with 1/4 of its volume submerged.
O

Calculate the density of the wood if the density of water is 1000 kg/m³.
IN

a) 250 kg/m³
H

b) 500 kg/m³
c) 750 kg/m³
d) 1000 kg/m³

Question 46:
During a chemical reaction, 2 moles of hydrogen gas H_2 react with 1
mole of oxygen gas O_2 to form 2 moles of water H_2O. Identify the
limiting reactant in this reaction if 3 moles of hydrogen gas and 2 moles
of oxygen gas are available.

a) Hydrogen gas H_2

b) Oxygen gas O_2
c) Both are limiting
d) Neither is limiting

PY
Question 47:

O
An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal compression process at a
temperature of 300 K. If the gas volume decreases from 5 m³ to 2 m³,

C
calculate the work done by the gas.

T
a) 500 J O
b) 1000 J
N
c) 1500 J
O

d) 2000 J
D

Question 48:
ED

A conducting wire of length 2 m and resistance 3 ohms carries a current

of 4 A. Calculate the potential difference across the ends of the wire.
VA

a) 4 V
b) 6 V
O

c) 8 V
IN

d) 12 V
H

Question 49:
Which shape has the largest area among the following?
- Square with side length 4 units
- Rectangle with length 5 units and width 3 units
- Circle with radius 3 units
a) Square
b) Rectangle
c) Circle
d) All have the same area

Question 50:
A block of ice at 0°C melts completely into water at 0°C. Calculate the
heat absorbed by the ice to complete the melting process if the latent

PY
heat of fusion of ice is 334 J/g.

O
a) 501 J
b) 1002 J

C
c) 1503 J
d) 2004 J

T
O
N
Question 51:
O

A scientist conducts an experiment where a block is placed on a

frictionless horizontal surface. The block is initially at rest. The scientist
D

applies a horizontal force F to the block for 10 seconds. After applying

the force, the block moves with a constant velocity v . What conclusion
ED

can be drawn about the magnitude of F ?

VA

a) F must be greater than the kinetic friction force acting on the block.
b) F must be less than the static friction force acting on the block.
c) F is equal to the weight of the block.
O

d) F is equal to the product of mass and acceleration of the block.

IN

Question 52:
H

During an experiment with an ideal gas in a closed container, the

temperature of the gas is doubled while keeping the volume constant.
Which of the following statements about the pressure of the gas is
correct?

a) The pressure of the gas doubles.

b) The pressure of the gas decreases to half of its original value.
c) The pressure of the gas remains constant.
d) The pressure of the gas increases by a factor of 4.

Question 53:
In a laboratory experiment, a pendulum of length L oscillates with a
period T . If the length of the pendulum is increased to 2L , what will be
the effect on the period of oscillation?

PY
a) The period will double.

O
b) The period will remain the same.
c) The period will increase by a factor ofsqrt 2.

C
d) The period will increase by a factor of 4.

T
Question 54:
O
N
During an experiment with a spring-mass system, a block of mass M is
O

attached to a spring with spring constant k. The block undergoes simple

harmonic motion with amplitude A . If the amplitude of oscillation is
D

doubled to 2A, how will the maximum speed of the block change?
a) The maximum speed will double.
ED

b) The maximum speed will remain the same.

c) The maximum speed will decrease by a factor of √2.
VA

d) The maximum speed will increase by a factor of √2.

O

Question 55:
IN

In an experimental setup, a ball is thrown vertically upwards with an

initial velocity v_0 . Ignoring air resistance, which of the following
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statements about the ball's motion is true?

a) The kinetic energy of the ball is maximum at the highest point of its
trajectory.
b) The potential energy of the ball is maximum at the highest point of its
trajectory.
c) The total mechanical energy of the ball is conserved throughout its
motion.
d) The acceleration of the ball decreases as it moves upwards.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
T-QUESTIONS : 5
Question 56

PY
Which city is considered the birthplace of democracy in ancient Greece,
where the first known direct democracy developed in the 5th century

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BCE?

C
a) Athens

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b) Rome
c) Sparta
d) Alexandria
O
N
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Question 57:
D

Which chemical element, discovered in 1898 by Marie and Pierre Curie,

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is named after the legendary figure who carried the world on his
shoulders in Greek mythology?
VA

a) Uranium
b) Thorium
O

c) Polonium
d) Promethium
IN
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Question 58:
Which famous medieval manuscript, dating back to the 9th century,
contains a variety of texts including biblical passages, historical records,
and medical recipes, and is known for its mysterious and untranslatable
writing system?
a) The Book of Kells
b) The Codex Gigas
c) The Voynich Manuscript
d) The Dead Sea Scrolls

Question 59:
Who was the first person to circumnavigate the globe, completing the
journey from 1519 to 1522, although he died during the expedition?

PY
a) Vasco da Gama

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b) Ferdinand Magellan
c) Christopher Columbus

C
d) James Cook

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Question 60:
O
N
Which African country was formerly known as Abyssinia and is famous
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for being one of the oldest nations in the world, with a history dating back
to ancient times?
D

a) Nigeria
ED

b) Egypt
c) Ethiopia
VA

d) Sudan

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