Part Test - 03 Reflector PDF

13-RT-03-NEET
Questions
1. If x = 10.0 ± 0.1 and y = 10.0 ± 0.1 , then 2x − 2y is equal to

(a) (0.0 ± 0.1)
(b) zero
(c) (0.0 ± 0.4)
(d) (20 ± 0.2)
2. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g , radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06 cm . The maximum percentage
error in the measurement of its density is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
3. If u1 and u2 are the units selected for the same quantity in two systems of measurement and n1 and n2 their
numerical values, then
(a) n1 u1 = n2 u2
(b) n1 u1 + n2 u2 = 0
(c) n1 n2 = u1 u2
(d) (n1 + u1 ) = (n2 + u2 )
4. If Young’s modulus of steel is 2×1011N/m2, then value of Young’s modulus of steel in CGS unit will be
(a) 2 × 1010 dyne/cm2
(b) 2 × 1011 dyne/cm2
(c) 2 × 1012 dyne/cm2
(d) 2 × 1014 dyne/cm2
5. The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is:

1
(K.E. = 2
mv2 )
(a) [M2L2T]
(b) [ML2T–2]
(c) [M0L–1]
(d) [ML2T]
Gm1 m2
6. The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are (Given, F = )
r2
−2 2 −2
(a) M L T
(b) M −1 L3 T −2
(c) ML−1 T −2
(d) ML2 T −2
:
7. A student finds the constant acceleration of a slowly moving object with a stopwatch. The equation used is
S = (1/2) aT 2 . The time is measured with a stopwatch, the distance, S with meter stick. What is the
acceleration and its estimated error?
S = 2 ± 0.05meter
T = 4.2 ± 0.2second
(a) a = 0.20 ± 0.02m/s2
(b) a = 0.23 ± 0.03m/s2
(c) a = 0.20 ± 0.06m/s2
(d) a = 0.23 ± 0.02m/s2
8. The base quantity among the following is

(a) Speed
(b) Weight
(c) Length
(d) Area
9. Which of the following sets can't enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of units?
(a) length, mass and velocity
(b) length, time and velocity
(c) mass, time and velocity
(d) length, time and mass
10. In CGS system, the magnitude of force is 100 dyne. In another system, where the fundamental physical
quantities are kilogram, meter and minute, the magnitude of force is
(a) 3.6
(b) 2.4
(c) 4.6
(d) 5.6
x2
11. −
The work done by a gas molecule in an isolated system is given by, W = αβ 2 e αkT , where x is the
displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature. α and β are constants. Then the dimensions
of β will be
(Given that: Dimensions of k [M L2 T −2 K −1 ] )
(a) [M 0 LT 0 ]
(b) [MLT −2 ]
(c) [M L2 T −2 ]
(d) [M 2 LT 2 ]
12. Taking into account the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m + 0.0099 m
(a) 10.00 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 9.9999 m
(d) 10.0 m
13. The SI unit of physical quantity is pascal-second. The dimensional formula of this quantity will be
(a) [M L−1 T −1 ]
(b) [M L−1 T −2 ]
(c) [M L2 T −1 ]
(d) [M L−1 T 3 T 0 ]
:
14. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Product of pressure (P) and time (t) has the same dimensions as that of coefficient of viscosity.
Force
Reason R: Coefficient of viscosity = Velocitygradient
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(Given that: Dimensions of coefficient of viscosity [M L−1 T −1 ]

Formula for pressure = Force
Area
Velocity
Formula for velocity gradient = Distance
)
(a) Both A and R true, and R is correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
15. The significant figures in the number 6.0023 are

(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1
16. The equation of a circle is given by x2 + y 2 = a2 , where a is the radius. If the equation is modified to change
the origin other than (0, 0), then find out the correct dimensions of A and B in a new equation:
2
(x − At)2 + (y − Bt ) = a2 .
The dimensions of t is given as [T−1 ] .
−1 −1
(a) A = [L T] , B = [LT ]
−1 −1
(b) A = (LT] , B = [L T ]
−1 −1 −1
(c) A = [L T ] , B = [LT ]
−1 −1
(d) A = [L T ] , B = [LT]
17. The number of significant figures in 3400 is

(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 2
18. A student makes an error of 1% in measuring length of pendulum and an error of 3% in measurement of time
period. The percentage error in measurement of value of g will be (Given: g = 4π 2 l 2 )
T
(a) 5%
(b) 1%
(c) 7%
(d) 2%
19. The SI and CGS units of energy are joule and erg respectively. How many ergs are equal to one joule?
(a) 105 erg
(b) 107 erg
(c) 109 erg
(d) None
:
20. Check which of the following option is dimensionally correct with 12 mv2 .
(a) mgh
(b) mgv
(c) mgt
(d) mgt2
b
21. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + t+c
, where a, b and c are constant. The dimensions of
a, b and c are respectively
(a) L2, T and LT2
(b) LT2, LT and L
(c) L, LT and T2
(d) LT−2, L and T
22. Subtract 4.27153 from 6.807 and express the result to an appropriate number of significant figures.
(a) 2.53
(b) 2.53547
(c) 2.535
(d) 2.5355
23. Find the dimension of pressure (pressure =Force/Area)

(a) M 0 L−1 T −2
(b) ML−1 T −2
(c) ML0 T −2
(d) None
24. K.E.= Kinetic Energy

m = mass, a = acceleration,
2
Then,( KE
ma
) has the same dimension as
(a) Time
(b) Length
(c) Area
(d) Velocity
25. The number of significant figures in the measured value 0.0204 is

(a) Five
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Two
26. A length 5.997 m rounded off to three significant figures is written as

(a) 6.00 m
(b) 5.99 m
(c) 5.95 m
(d) 5.90 m
:
27. If force (F), velocity (v) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass is
(a) [F vT −1 ]
(b) [F vT −2 ]
(c) [F v−1 T −1 ]
(d) [F v−1 T ]
28. A certain body weighs 22.42 gm and has a measured volume of 4.7 cc. The possible error in the measurement of
mass and volume are 0.01 gm and 0.1 cc. Then maximum error in the density will be
(a) 22%
(b) 2%
(c) 0.2%
(d) 0.02%
29. Match List I with List II
A. Angular Momentum I. [M L2 T −2 ]
B. Torque II. [M L−2 T −2 ]
C. Stress III. [M L2 T −1 ]
D. Pressure gradient IV. [M L−1 T −2 ]
(Given that: Formula for Angular momentum L = Mvr

Formula for torque τ = F × r
Formula for Stress = Force
Area
Pr essure
Formula for Pressure Gradient = Distance
)
(a) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
(b) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(c) A - IV, B- II, C - I, D - III
(d) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
30. In the density measurement of a cube, the mass and edge length are measured as (15.00 ± 0.20)kg and (0.30 ±
0.01)m, respectively. The relative error in the measurement of density is:
(Density = Mass
Volume
)
(a) 0.11
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.31
(d) 0.01
31. The length and breadth of a rectangle are (5.7 ± 0.1) cm and (3.4 ± 0.2) cm. The area of rectangle with error
limits is approximately :
(a) (19.4 ± 1) cm2
(b) (19.4 ± 2) cm2
(c) (19.4 ± 2.5) cm2
(d) (19.4 ± 1.5) cm2
:
32. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 53.0123, 0.0031 and 3.4 × 10−3 are
(a) 6, 2, 2
(b) 6, 2, 3
(c) 5, 5, 2
(d) 5, 4, 3
33. Match List I with List II
List – I List - II
A Surface Tension I. Kgm−1 s−1
B Pressure II. Kgms1
C Viscosity III. Kgm−1 s−2
D Impulse IV. Kgs−2
Force
(Given that: Formula for surface tension = Length
Formula for pressure = Force
Area
Formula for Impulse = F orce × time
Dimensions of viscosity [M L−1 T −1 ] )
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A → IV , B → III, C → II, D → I
(b) A → IV , B → III, C → I, D → II
(c) A → III, B → IV , C → I, D → II
(d) A → II, B → I, C → III, D → IV
34. The frequency (ν ) of an oscillating liquid drop may depend upon radius (r) of the drop, density (ρ ) of liquid and
the surface tension (s) of the liquid as : ν = ra ρb sc. The values of a, b and c respectively are [Given that-
Surface tension (S)= Force (F)/ length (l)]
3 1 1
(a) (− 2 , − 2 , 2 )
3 1 1
(b) ( 2 , − 2 , 2 )
3 1 1
(c) ( 2 , 2 , − 2 )
3 1 1
(d) (− 2 , 2 , 2 )
35. According to Joule's law of heating, heat produced H = I 2 Rt, where I is current, R is resistance and t is time. If
the errors in the measurement of I, R and t are 3%, 4% and 6% respectively then error in the measurement of H
is
(a) ± 17%
(b) ± 16%
(c) ± 19%
(d) ± 25%
36. The diameter of a wire measured to be 0.0250 × 10–4 m. The number of significant figures in the measurement
is
(a) five
(b) four
(c) three
(d) nine
:
37. A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time. The dimensions of a and b are
(a) [MLT–3] and [MLT–4]
(b) [MLT–4] and [MLT–3]
(c) [MLT–1] and [MLT–2]
(d) [MLT–2] and [MLT–0]
38. The displacement of a particle moving along x-axis with respect to time is x= at + bt2 – ct3. The dimensions of c
are
(a) T−3
(b) LT−1
(c) LT−3
(d) LT−2
39. Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of any of the following
(a) Length and mass
(b) Mass and time
(c) Length, mass and time
(d) None of these
40. Which of the following is not a unit for time?
(a) Microsecond
(b) Century
(c) Light year
(d) Solar day
41. Assertion: When we change the unit of measurement of a quantity, its numerical value changes.
Reason: Smaller the unit of measurement, smaller is its numerical value.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is also false
42. In a series of successive measurements in an experiment, the readings of the period of oscillation of a simple
pendulum were found to be 2.63 s, 2.56 s, 2.42 s, 2.71 s and 2.80 s. Find the time period of the simple
pendulum.
(a) 2.62 ± 4%
(b) 2.52 ± 4%
(c) 3.62 ± 4%
(d) 5.62 ± 4%
43. The number of significant figures in the measured value 26000 is

(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Infinite
:
44. Find the dimension of work (Work=force × displacement)
(a) ML2 T −2
(b) M 0 L2 T 1
(c) M 0 L2 T −1
(d) None
45. Find the dimension of Moment of inertia (moment of inertia = mass × distance2 )
(a) ML2 T 0
(b) ML2 T 1
(c) ML0 T 0
(d) None
46. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are considered as fundamental units, the dimension of Young's
modulus(Y) will be:
( Fa = Y . ∆l
l
⇒ [Y ] = Fa where F is force and a is area)
(a) V-2A2F2
(b) V-2A-2F2
(c) V-4A-2F
(d) V-4A2F
47. A student determined young’s Modulus of elasticity using the formula Y = MgL3
. The value of g is taken to be
4bd 3 δ
9.8 m/s2 , without any significant error, his observation are as following.
Physical Quantity Least count of the Equipment used for measurement Observed value
Mass (M) 1g 2 kg
Length of bar (L) 1 mm 1m
Breadth of bar (b) 0.1 mm 4 cm
Thickness of bar (d) 0.01 mm 0.4 cm
Depression (δ) 0.01 mm 5 mm
Then the fractional error in the measurement of Y is :

(a) 0.0083
(b) 0.0155
(c) 0.155
(d) 0.083
48. The dimension of magnetic field induction B in M,L,T and C (coulomb) is given is
F
(Given that: B = qv
F → Force
q → Charge
v → Velocity)
(a) MLT −1 C −1
(b) MLT 2 C −2
(c) MT −1 C −1
(d) MT −2 C −1
:
n a
49. Velocity (v) and acceleration (a) in two system of units 1 and 2 are related as v2 = v1 and a2 = mn1
m2
respectively. Here m and n are constant. The relations for distance and time in two systems respectively are:
n3 2
(a) m 3
L1 = L2 and nm T1 = T2
n4 n2
(b) L1 = m2
L2 and T1 = T
m 2
n2 n4
(c) L1 = m L2 and T1 = m2
T2
n2 4
(d) m 1
L = L2 and mn 2 T1 = T2
50. The relative error in the measurement of the side of a cube is 0.027. The relative error in the measurement of its
volume is
(a) 0.027
(b) 0.054
(c) 0.081
(d) 0.046
51. Which is the example of branch chain isomerism?
(a)
(b)
(c)
H3C – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3,
(d) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NO2, H3C – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – O – N = O
:
52. The correct name of tetramethylene chloride is
(a) 1,2 dichlorobutane
(b) 1,3 dichlorobutane
(c) 1,4 dichlorobutane
(d) 1,1 dichlorobutane
53. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound
(a) 2,4-dibromo-3-chloro-6-ethylocta-2,4-dien-7-yne
(b) 5,7-dibromo-6-chloro-3-ethylocta-4,6-dien-1-yne
(c) 6-ethyl-3-chloro-2,4-dibromo octa-2,4-dien-7-yne
(d) 5,7-dibromo-6-chloro-3-ethyloct-4,6-diene-1-yne
54. Total number of functional group in the compound is
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
:
55. The systematic name for the compound is
(a) 1, 5-dibromo-2, 6, dichloro-3, 4-diisopropyl-hexane

(b) 2, 6-dibromo-1, 5-dichloro-3, 4-diisopropyl hexane
(c) 4-(1-bromo-2-chloroethyl)-5-(2-bromo-1-chloroethyl) octane
(d) 4-(2-bromo-2-chloroethyl)-5-(1-bromo-2-chloroethyl) octane
56. Which type of isomerism is shown by following compound
(a) Functional isomerism

(b) Chain isomerism
(c) Ring chain isomerism
(d) Do not show isomerism
57. Which of the following compounds has wrong IUPAC name?

(a) CH3− CH2− CH2− COO− CH2CH3 → ethyl butanoate
(b)
(c)
(d)
58. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?
(a) γ -amino-α -hydroxybutyric acid

(b) 4-amino-2-hydroxybutanoic acid
(c) α -amino-γ -hydroxybutyric acid
(d) 1-amino-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
59. The IUPAC name of neopentane is

(a) 2-methylbutane
(b) 2,2-dimethylpropane
(c) 2-methylpropane
(d) 2,2-dimethylbutane
:
60. The IUPAC name of the CH3COCH(CH3)2 is
(a) 4-methyl isopropyl ketone
(b) 3-methyl butan-2-one
(c) isopropylmethyl ketone
(d) 2-methyl-3-butanone
61. IUPAC name of the following compound is
(a) 3-Amino-2-oxo-6-methylcyclohex-3-en-1-ol
(b) 5-Amino-6-oxo-2-methylcyclohex-3-en-1-ol
(c) 6-Amino-2-hydroxy-3-methylcyclohex-4-en-1- one
(d) 2-Amino-6-hydroxy-5-methylcyclohex-3-en-1- one
62. The incorrect IUPAC name is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) none of these
63. What is the correct IUPAC name of isoctan-3-ol

(a) 2-methyl heptan-3-ol
(b) 2,2,4-trimethylpentane-3-ol
(c) 1,1,2-trimethylpropan-2-ol
(d) None of these
64. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound.

CH ≡ C − CH = CH − CH = CH2
(a) Hexa-3, 5-dien-1-yne
(b) Hexa-1, 3-dien-5-yne
(c) Hexa-2, 3-dien-5-yne
(d) Hexa-1, 3-en-5-yne
:
65. Give its IUPAC name.
(a) Cyclopentyl butane

(b) 2-methyl-1-cyclobutyl propane
(c) 4-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethyl hexane
(d) 1-(2-methylpropyl)cyclopentane
66. IUPAC name of
(a) 4, 4-dimethyl-5, 5-diethylpentane

(b) 5,5-diethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane
(c) 3-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
(d) 1,1-diethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane
67. A solution weighing ‘a’ g has molality ‘b’. The molecular mass of solute, if the mass of solute is ‘c’ g, will be
c 1000
(a) b × (a−c)
b 1000
(b) a
× (a−b)
b 1000
(c) c
× (a−c)
c 1000
(d) a
× (b−a)
68. If the total vapour pressure of the liquid mixture A and B is given by the equation P = 160 XA + 80, then the
ratio of the vapour pressure of the pure liquids A and B is given by
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 3 : 1
69. Mole fraction of glycerin, (C3 H8 O3 ) in a solution containing 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerin? (Molecular
mass of glycerin = 92)
(a) 0.20
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.46
70. How many grams of C H3 OH should be added to water to prepare 150 ml solution of 2 M C H3 OH ?
(a) 9.6
(b) 2.4
(c) 9.6 × 103
(d) 2.4 × 103
:
71. In the mixtures of two miscible volatile liquids obeying Raoults' law, the correct behaviour is explained by
(a) AB stands for the vapour pressure of component B in presence of solute A

(b) CD stands for the vapour pressure of solvent A in presence of solute B
(c) BC stands for the total vapour pressure in accordance with the Dalton's law of partial pressures
(d) all of the above.
72. Mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution is 0.2. The molality of the solution will be:
(a) 13.88
(b) 1.388
(c) 0.138
(d) 0.0138
73. In a solution of 7.8 g of benzene (C6H6) and 46 g of toluene (C6H5CH3), the mole fraction of benzene is
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/5
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/3
74. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(a) 2-(carboxymethyl)pentane-1 ,5-dioic acid

(b) 3-carboxyhexane-1,6-dioic acid
(c) butane-1,2,4-tricarboxylic acid
(d) 4-carboxyhexane-1 ,6-dioic acid.
75. Calculate the mole fraction of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) in a solution containing 20% of C2H6O2 by mass
(a) 0.9
(b) 0.68
(c) 0.068
(d) 0.932
76. What does not change on changing temperature?

(a) Mole fraction
(b) Normality
(c) Molarity
(d) Both a and b

:
77. Density of a 2 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1 g/mL. The molality of the solution is
(a) 3.28 mol Kg–1
(b) 2.27 mol Kg–1
(c) 0.44 mol Kg–1
(d) 1.14 mol Kg–1
78. What is the molarity of 0.2 N Na2CO3solution?

(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0 M
(c) 0.4 M
(d) 0.2 M
79. The percentage (by weight) of sodium hydroxide in a 1.25 molal NaOH solution is
(a) 4.76%
(b) 1.25%
(c) 5%
(d) 40%
80. The molarity of a solution containing 5.0g of NaOH in 250 mL solution is

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.0
(d) 2.0
81. Calculate the mass of urea (NH2CONH2) required in making 0.25 molal aqueous solution using 2.5 L water.
(a) 37.5g
(b) 73.5g
(c) 53.7g
(d) 75.3g
82. pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components A and B respectively of an ideal binary solution. If
xA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be
(a) pB + xA (pA – pB)
(b) pA + xA (pB – pA)
(c) pA + xA (pA – pB)
(d) pB + xA (pB – pA)
83. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is
(a) 0.02 M
(b) 0.01 M
(c) 0.001 M
(d) 0.1 M
:
84. Assertion: One molal aqueous solution of glucose contains 180g of glucose in 1kg water.
Reason: Solution containing one mole of solute in 1000 g of solvent is called one molal solution.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
85. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

(a) 1.7700
(b) 0.1770
(c) 0.0177
(d) 0.0344
86. Write the name of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule.
(a) Butanal
(b) Propanol
(c) Propanal
(d) Butanol
87. Minimum number of carbon required by alkane to show position isomerism

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
88. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula, Cl3CCH2CHO is
(a) 3, 3, 3-Trichloropropanal
(b) 1, 1, 1-Trichloropropanal
(c) 2, 2, 2-Trichloropropanal
(d) Chloral
:
89. Which one of the following pairs of isomers is an example of metamerism?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
90. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound:
(a) 2-hydroxy-3-methyl butane

(b) 3-methyl butanol
(c) 3-methyl-2-butanol
(d) 2-methyl-3-hydroxybutane
91. Write IUPAC name of the following molecule:
(a) 2,3-Dimethylpropan-1-ol
(b) 2,2-Dimethylbutan-2-ol
(c) 2,2-Dimethylpropan-2-ol
(d) 2,2-Dimethylpropan-1-ol
:
92. Match the Column
(a) a – p; b – r, t; c – p; d – s
(b) a – s; b – r, t; c – p; d – t
(c) a – r; b – q; c – p; d – s
(d) a – s; b – t; c – p; d – s
93. Diethyl ether and methyl n-propyl ether are

(a) Position isomers
(b) Functional isomers
(c) Metamers
(d) Tautomers
94. Minimum carbon required by any organic compound to show functional isomerism
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
95. Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure (in Torr) p = 265 − 130 xA , where xA is
mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence p0A + p0B = (in T orr) .
(a) 265
(b) 135
(c) 400
(d) 150
96. A 20 mL solution of molarity 0.1 M is diluted to final volume of 100 mL, what will be the new molarity?
(a) 0.02 M
(b) 0.5 M
(c) 0.4 M
(d) 0.2 M
97. What is the mass percentage of carbon tetrachloride if 22g of benzene is dissolved in 122g of carbon
tetrachloride?
(a) 84.72%
(b) 15.28 %
(c) 50%
(d) 44%
:
98. A solution containing 0.2 mole of each A, B and C. The sum of the mole fraction of A, B, and C in a aqueous
solution is
(a) 0.6
(b) 0.2
(c) 1.0
(d) 1.2
99. 4 L of 0.02 M aqueous solution of NaCl was diluted by adding one litre of water. The molarity of resultant
solution is …A… Here, A refers to
(a) 0.004
(b) 0.008
(c) 0.012
(d) 0.016
100. What does this statement signifies? 10 percent glucose in water by mass’’
(a) 10 g glucose in dissolved in 100 g of water
(b) 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 90 g of water
(c) 20 g of glucose is dissolved in 200 g of water
(d) 20 g of glucose is dissolved in 90 g of water
101. Assertion: During pachytene stage, bivalent chromosomes now clearly appear as tetrads.
Reason: Pachytene is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules, the sites at which crossing
over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes.
:
102. The given image is of
(a) Prophase I
(b) Anaphase I
(c) Metaphase I
(d) Telophase I
103. Select the incorrect statement regarding S phase of interphase.

(a) Occurs between G1 and G2
(b) DNA replicates in the nucleus
(c) Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
(d) As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also doubles
104. Select the incorrectly matched pair.

(a) Phragmoplast – Persistent spindle
(b) Reductional division – Meiosis - I
(c) Equational division – Meiosis - II
(d) Crossing over – Non-homologous chromosomes
105. Zygotene of prophase-I is characterised by

(a) Chromomeres
(b) Synaptonemal complex
(c) Crossing over
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
:
106. Centrioles undergo duplication during (i) of (ii) and begin to move towards opposite poles of the cell during
(iii) stage of (iv) .
(a) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Prophase, (iv)-Mitosis
(b) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Anaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
(c) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Metaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
(d) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Anaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
107. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption

(a) Once it has entered the S phase
(b) Once it has entered the G2 phase
(c) At any time during cell division activity
(d) None of these
108. The role of mitosis is not merely to divide a cell into two daughter cells but to ensure genetic continuity from
one cell generation to another cell generation. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity is
(a) Formation of cells with new chromosomes
(b) Formation of two daughter cells
(c) Formation of two cells with an identical number of chromosomes
(d) Halving the chromosome number between the two new cells.
109. Refer the given figures and answer.
Identify the given stages of mitosis and select the correct option.
(a) A → Prophase; B → Metaphase; C → Telophase; D → Anaphase
(b) A → Metaphase; B → Anaphase; C → Prophase; D → Telophase
(c) A → Anaphase; B → Metaphase; C → Prophase; D → Telophase
(d) A → Prophase; B → Metaphase; C → Anaphase; D → Telophase
:
110. If 2n = 4, then identify the figures A, B and C, as per the following codes and select the correct option.
Anaphase of meiosis 1 = (i)
Anaphase of mitosis = (ii)
Anaphase of meiosis II =(iii)
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)

(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii)
111. The meiosis involves
(a) Two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division and two cycles of DNA replication.
(b) Two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division and a single cycle of DNA replication.
(c) A single cycle of nuclear and cell division and DNA replication.
(d) One cycle of nuclear and cell division and two cycles of DNA replication.
112. Repulsion of homologous chromosomes takes place in

(a) Zygotene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Pachytene
113. Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle?

(a) M-phase
(b) Interphase
(c) Leptotene
(d) S-phase
:
114. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage
with its characteristics.
(a) Telophase - Nuclear envelope reforms, golgi complex reforms

(b) Late Anaphase- Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, golgi complex not present
(c) Cytokinesis- Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells
(d) Telophase- Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet
115. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle

(a) The amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(b) The chromosome number is increased
(c) The amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
(d) The amount of DNA doubles in each cell
116. Cells in G0 phase

(a) Enter the cell cycle
(b) Suspend the cell cycle
(c) Terminate the cell cycle
(d) Exit the cell cycle
117. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
(a) Spindle fibres
(b) Disappearance of nucleolus
(c) Chromosome movement
(d) Synapsis
118. Chromosome number is halved in meiosis during

(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase-I
(c) Metaphase-II
(d) Telophase-I
:
119. In a lab setting, at the onset of G1 phase in interphase the amount of DNA was measured to be 2C and
chromosome number is 46. When the cell completed G1, S and G2 phases and was ready to divide by
mitosis(Mphase) the amount of DNA and chromosome number were quantified again just before the onset of
actual cell division by mitosis (Mphase).
Which of the following statements is TRUE in this context?
(a) The amount of DNA will be 2C and chromosome number will be 46
(b) The amount of DNA will be 4C and chromosome number will be 92
(c) The amount of DNA will be 4C and chromosome number will be 46
(d) The amount of DNA will be 2C and chromosome number will be 92
120. Label the structure indicated by lines (i), (ii) and (iv):
(a) (i) – Chromatid, (ii) – Centriole, (iii) – Centromere, (iv) - Chromosome

(b) (i) – Chromosome, (ii) – Centriole, (iii) – Centromere, (iv) - Chromatid
(c) (i) – Chromatid, (ii) – Centromere, (iii) – Centriole, (iv) - Chromosome
(d) (i) – Chromosome, (ii) – Centromere, (iii) – Centriole, (iv) - Chromatid
121. If the number of bivalents are 8 in metaphase I, what shall be the number of chromosomes after Meiosis I and
Meiosis II respectively?
(a) 8 and 4
(b) 8 and 8
(c) 8 and 16
(d) 4 and 4
122. Mitosis differs from meiosis in

(a) Forming four haploid cells.
(b) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and their subsequent separation.
(c) Doubling of each chromosome and each pair showing four chromatids.
(d) as in the end it results in two identical daughter cells
123. In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in the:

(a) Nucleus
(b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Golgi apparatus
124. Extranuclear genes are found in

(a) Lysosome and chloroplast
(b) GB and ER
(c) Nucleus and mitochondria
(d) Mitochondria and chloroplast
:
125. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?
(a) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
(b) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in the outer membrane.
(c) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.
(d) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
126. Glycocalyx differs in composition and thickness among different bacteria. It could be a loose sheath called the
A in some, while in others it may be thick and tough, called the B.
Identify A and B.
(a) A- Capsule, B – Slime layer
(b) A – Slime layer, B – Cell envelope
(c) A – Slime layer, B – Capsule
(d) A – Cell envelope, B – Capsule
127. Which of the following statements are correct for the given below figure:
(i) It was first observed by Camillo Golgi and these were later named Golgi bodies after him.
(ii)The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct concave cis or the forming
face and convex trans or the maturing face.
(iii) The golgi apparatus principally performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the
intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the cell.
(iv) Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
(v) Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the trans face of the golgi apparatus
and move towards the cis face.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (v)
(d) (i), (iii) and (v)
128. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cell wall:

(a) The primary wall is capable of growth
(b) Secondary wall is formed on the inner side of the cell.
Cytoplasmic bridges called plasmodesmata connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells
(c)
The middle lamella is a layer made mainly of galactans which holds or glues the different neighbouring
(d)
cells together
:
129. Telomere and eukaryotic chromosome possesses short segments of
(a) Guanine rich repeats
(b) Thymine rich repeats
(c) Uracil rich repeats
(d) Adenine rich repeats
130. The molecules in the membrane that limit its permeability are the
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Phospholipids
(c) Proteins
(d) Water
131. Which of the following features is common to prokaryotes and many eukaryotes?
(a) Chromatin material present
(b) Cell wall present
(c) Nuclear membrane is absent
(d) Membrane-bound subcellular organelles present
132. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(a) Prokaryotes are generally smaller and multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells
(b) Glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called slime layer in some, while in others it is called the capsule
(c) The chloroplasts are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Chromatophores are the membranous extension into the cytoplasm of cyanobacteria which contains
(d)
pigments
133. Gas vacuoles are found in

(a) Blue green photosynthetic bacteria
(b) Purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All bacteria
134. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of
(a) Pyrenoid
(b) Paramylum bodies
(c) Inclusion bodies which are bounded by single membrane
(d) Inclusion bodies which are not bounded by any membrane system
135. Which of the following statements is not true for the cell membrane?
(a) It is present in both plant and animal cells
(b) Lipids are present in it as bilayer
(c) Proteins may be peripheral or integral in it
(d) Carbohydrates are never found in it
136. Cell membrane is selectively permeable. This means that it

(a) Allows all materials to pass through
(b) Allows only water to pass through
(c) Allows only certain materials to pass through
(d) Allows only ions to pass through
:
137. Molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, i.e. from the lower to
higher concentration. Such a transport is called
(a) Active transport, e.g., diffusion
(b) Passive transport, e.g., diffusion
(c) Active transport, e.g., Na+ /K+ pump
(d) Osmosis, a type of simple diffusion
138. Choose the wrong statements regarding bacterial cell

A.Glycocalyx is the outermost envelope in bacteria.
B.Glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called a capsule.
C.Glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer.
D. A special structure formed by the plasma membrane is called mesosome.
E. Small bristle-like fibres sprouting out of the cell are called fimbriae.
(a) A and E are wrong
(b) D and E are wrong
(c) B and C are wrong

(d) A and D are wrong
139.
According to the fluid mosaic model, the lateral movement of protein within the overall, lipid bilayer is
measured by its _________.
(a) Mobility
(b) Fluidity
(c) Permeability
(d) All of the above
140.
In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the
(a) outer membrane
(b) inner membrane
(c) thylakoids
(d) stroma
:
141. In 70S and 80S ribosomes, ‘S’ stands for
(a) Sedimentation coefficient and called Svedberg unit
(b) Sedimentation rate and called Svedberg unit
(c) Svedberg coefficient and called sedimentation unit
(d) Sveberg unit and called sedimentation rate
142. Nuclear membrane is continuous with

(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Cell membrane
(d) Golgi bodies
143. Intracellular compartments are not found in cells of

(a) Lower plants
(b) Prokaryotes
(c) Higher plants
(d) Eukaryotes
144. Read the given statements.

(i) Flat membranous sacs in the stroma of chloroplasts
(ii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(iii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
Select the correct option as per the codes given above.
(a) Cristae → (iii); Cisternae → (i); Thylakoids → (ii)
(b) Cristae → (i); Cisternae → (ii); Thylakoids → (iii)
(c) Cristae → (ii); Cisternae → (iii); Thylakoids → (i)
(d) Cristae → (iii); Cisternae → (ii); Thylakoids → (i)
145. Ribosomes of the cytoplasm, chloroplast and mitochondria are respectively

(a) 80S, 80S and 70S
(b) 80S, 70S and 70S
(c) 70S in all
(d) 80S in all
146. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Endomembrane system comprises of Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosome and
mitochondria.
Statement 2: Chlorophyll pigments are present in the thylakoids.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
:
147. Golgi apparatus
A. Transports and modifies material.
B. Site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
C. Synthesize proteins.
What is correct?
(a) Wrong A, correct B and C
(b) Wrong B, correct A and C
(c) Wrong B and C, correct A
(d) Wrong C, correct A and B
148. Select the mismatch.

(a) Amyloplasts -store carbohydrates (starch)
(b) Elaioplasts- store oils and fats
(c) Aleuroplasts- store lipids
(d) Chloroplasts- contain chlorophyll a
149. If you remove the fimbriae from the bacterial cell, which of the following would you expect to happen?
(a) The bacteria could no longer swim
(b) The bacteria would not adhere to the host tissue
(c) Transportation of molecules across the membrane would stop
(d) The shape of bacteria would change
150. Assertion : According to the fluid mosaic model, the quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of
proteins within the overall bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its fluidity.
Reason : The position of cholesterol was found to be on the outer side of the plasma membrane of animal
cells.
Statement 1 : Blood i colourless in the insects.
Statement 2 : Insect blood has no role in O2 transport.
:
152. Given below are some events that take place during the regulation of cardiac activity:
(i) Increase in strength of ventricular contraction
(ii) Increase in cardiac output
(iii) Decrease in rate of heartbeat
Which of the following options correctly represent the causes behind these events?
(i) - Sympathetic nervous system, (ii) - Sympathetic nervous system and hormones of adrenal medulla, (iii) -
(a)
Parasympathetic nervous system
(b) (i), (ii) - Parasympathetic nervous system, (iii) - Sympathetic nervous system
(i) - Sympathetic nervous system, (ii), (iii) - Parasympathetic nervous system and hormones of adrenal
(c)
medulla
(d) (i) - Sympathetic nervous system, (ii) - Parasympathetic nervous system, (iii) - Adrenal medullary hormones
153. Pacemaker is situated in the

(a) wall of right atrium
(b) interauricular septum
(c) interventricular septum
(d) wall of left atrium
154. Which option correctly represents the functions of the plasma proteins?
(a) Thrombin → clotting; Globulin → osmotic balance, Albumin → defense
(b) Globulin → clotting; Albumin → osmotic balance, Fibrinogen → defense
(c) Thrombin → clotting; Albumin → osmotic balance, Globulin → defense
(d) Fibrinogen → clotting; Globulin → defense, Albumin → osmotic balance
155. In the given figure the durations of the events of the cardiac cycle are given. Identify these events and select
the correct
(a) A-Auricular systole, B-Joint diastole, C-Ventricular systole

(b) A-Ventricular systole, B-Joint diastole, C-Auricular systole
(c) A-Ventricular systole, B-Auricular systole, C-Joint diastole
(d) A-Joint diastole, B-Auricular systole, C-Ventricular systole
156. Certain components of the autonomic nervous system can slow down the speed of the conduction of action
potential in the heart muscles. These components constitute the:
(a) AV node
(b) Nodal tissue
(c) Parasympathetic nervous system
(d) Sympathetic nervous system
:
157. Blood that flows to the heart muscles is conducted through
(a) Hepatic and renal portal systems
(b) Coronary system of blood vessels
(c) Nodal tissue
(d) Vena cavae
158. A man was feeling some discomfort in his chest and upon visiting the doctor he was informed that there is
congestion in his lungs, which is causing the chest pain. What can happen to this person if this congestion in
his lungs isn’t treated?
(a) Heart failure
(b) Cardiac arrest
(c) Heart attack
(d) All of the above
159. In a cardiac output of 5250 ml per minute, with 75 heartbeats per minute, the stroke volume is
(a) 60 ml
(b) 80 ml
(c) 55 ml
(d) 70 ml
160. What percentage of ventricular filling is achieved during atrial systole?

(a) 90%
(b) 10%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%
161. A recording of the electrical activity of a patient's heart, shows that the atria are contracting regularly and
normally, but every few beats the ventricles fail to contract. Which of the following is probably not functioning
properly?
(a) Semilunar valve
(b) Coronary artery
(c) SA node
(d) AV node
162. The heartbeat of a person increases at the time of an interview due to secretion of
(a) Renin
(b) Adrenaline
(c) ADH
(d) ACTH
:
163. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle
(b) Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
(c) Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle
(a) a → (i); b → (iii); c → (ii)

(b) a → (i); b → (ii); c → (iii)
(c) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (ii)
(d) a → (ii); b → (i); c → (iii)
164. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

(a) Same as that in the aorta
(b) More than that in the carotid
(c) More than that in the pulmonary vein
(d) Less than that in the venae cavae.
165.
Which one of the following plasma proteins are involved in the coagulation of blood?
(a) Serum amylase
(b) Globulin
(c) Albumin
(d) Fibrinogen
166. The center for heartbeat regulation is present in

(a) Pons varolii
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Medulla
167. Choose correct option.

(I) Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically, i.e., auto regulated by specialised muscles (nodal
tissue) hence the heart is called neurogenic
(II) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function through peripheral
nervous system (PNS).
(a) I-False, II-False
(b) I-True, II-False
(c) I-False, II-True
(d) I-True, II-True
:
168. Which of the following leucocytes destroy foreign organisms entering the body?
(i) Eosinophils
(ii) Basophils
(iii) Neutrophils
(iv) Monocytes
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) ii and iv
169. A bundle of nodal fibers, which continues from the AVN which passes through the atrioventricular septa to
emerge on the top of the interventricular septum is called:
(a) Right and left bundle
(b) Atrio-ventricular bundle (AV bundle)
(c) Purkinje fibers
(d) Both (b) and (c)
170. Angina occurs due to conditions that affects the:

(a) Blood clotting
(b) Blood flow
(c) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(d) Opening of the semilunar valves
171. The blood at times clots inside the blood vessels and is termed:
(a) Thrombosis
(b) Haemolysis
(c) Prothrombin
(d) Thromboplastin
172. Child death may occur in the marriage of

(a) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman
(b) Rh+ man and Rh– woman
(c) Rh– man and Rh– woman
(d) Rh– man and Rh+ woman.
173. Fill in the blanks:

i. Simple organisms like sponges and coelenterates circulate …1… from their surroundings through their body
cavities to facilitate the cells for exchange of O2, CO2, nutrients and waste products.
ii. More complex organisms use special fluids within their bodies to transport such materials. ….2… is most
commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms including humans for this purpose.
iii. Another body fluid…3…also helps in the transport of certain substances.
(a) 1-lymph, 2-water, 3-blood
(b) 1-water, 2-blood, 3-lymph
(c) 1-blood , 2-lymph, 3-water,
(d) 1-water, 2-lymph, 3-blood
:
174. Which of the following statements is /are incorrect about lymph?
i. Lymph is colourful as it has haemoglobin but no RBC.
ii. It contains specialized lymphocytes which are responsible for immunity of the body.
iii. Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients and hormones.
iv. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the intestinal villi.
(a) i only
(b) ii only iv
(c) ii only iii
(d) iv only
175. Properties of leucocytes are

I. They are nucleated
II. They are enucleated like RBC
III. They are 6000-8000 mm−3 of blood
IV. They are long lived
V. They are short lived
Choose the appropriate option with correct properties
(a) I, II and V
(b) II, IV and V
(c) I, IV and V
(d) I, III and V
176. Identify the correct statement

I. The impulse of the heartbeat originates from SAN
II. Rate of the heart is determined by SAN
III. The AV node can generate the maximum number of action potentials, i.e., 70-75 per minute.
IV. AtrioVentricular Node (AVN) is situated in the lower left corner of the right auricle
Choose the correct option
(a) All except II
(b) All except I
(c) All except III
(d) All of these
177. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A Eosinophils (i) Immune response
B Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
C Neutrophils (iii) Involved in allergic reactions
D Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules containing histamine
(a) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)

(b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (iii)
(d) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)
:
178. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: The SA node acts as pacemaker.
Statement 2: The SA node is located in the wall of the right atrium near the interatrial septum.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
179. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease in which

(a) Adult have severe anaemia and jaundice
(b) Female have severe anaemia and jaundice
(c) Male have severe anaemia and jaundice
(d) Foetus have severe anaemia and jaundice
180. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The coagulum is formed of a network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
181. In which one of the following pairs, two terms represent the same thing?
(a) Lymphocyte – Erythrocyte
(b) Plasma – Serum
(c) Mitral valve – Bicuspid valve
(d) Atrioventricular node – Pacemaker
Statement 1: QRS complex in an ECG represents ventricular repolarisation leading to ventricular systole.
Statement 2: On counting the number of QRS complexes in a given time period, one can determine the heart
beat of an individual.
183. The structure of which of the following consists of a layer of single cell thickness?
(a) Blood capillary
(b) Artery
(c) Venule
(d) Arteriole
:
184. Study the given figure and identify the cells labelled as A, B, C and D.
(a) A - Eosinophil, B - Erythrocyte, C - Neutrophil, D - Basophil

(b) A - Eosinophil, B - Lymphocyte, C - Neutrophil, D - Monocyte
(c) A - Erythrocyte, B - Basophil, C - Neutrophil, D - Lymphocyte
(d) A - Eosinophil, B – Monocyte, C - Neutrophil, D - Lymphocyte
185. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about lymph?

(i) Lymph is colourful as it has haemoglobin but no RBC.
(ii) It contains specialised lymphocytes which are responsible for immunity of the body.
(iii) Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients and hormones.
(iv) Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the intestinal villi.
(a) (i) only
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) only
186. Identify the components labelled (A-D) in the given flow chart of the blood clotting process.
(a) A-Thrombokinase, B-Thrombin, C-Fibrinogen

(b) A-Thrombin, B-Prothrombinase, C-Thromboplastin
(c) A-Fibrinogen, B-Prothrombinase, C-Thrombin
(d) A-Thrombin, B-Fibrinogen, C-Prothrombinase
:
187. The figure given below shows three stages in the cardiac cycle.
Which of the following sequences is correct regarding this?

(a) 2, 3, 1
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 2, 1, 3
(d) 3, 1, 2
188. Which of the following is the diagrammatic representation of standard electrocardiogram (ECG)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
189. Examine the diagrammatic representation of standard ECG. Select an option with correct matching.
P-Wave-Repolarisation of the atria, QRS complex-Repolarisation of the ventricles, T-wave-Depolarisation

(a)
of the atria
P-Wave-Depolarisation of the atria, QRS complex- Depolarisation of the ventricles, T-wave-Repolarisation
(b)
of the ventricles
P-Wave-Repolarisation of the ventricles, QRS complex-Repolarisation of the atria, T-wave-Depolarisation
(c)
of the ventricles
P-Wave-Depolarisation of the ventricles, QRS complex- Depolarisation of the atria, T-wave-Repolarisation
(d)
of the atria
:
190. Which of the following options represents correct systemic circulation in human being?
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
(a) Left ventricle −−−−−−−−→ Tissues−−−−−−→Right ventricle
blood blood
Oxygenated Deoxygenated
(b) Right ventricle−−−−−−→Tissues−−−−−−−−→Right auricle
blood blood
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
(c) Left ventricle−−−−−−−−→Tissues−−−−−−→Right auricle
blood blood
(d) Left ventricle−−−−−−→Tissues−−−−−−−−→Right auricle
blood blood
191. Given below are the figures of blood vessels. Identify them and select the correct option.
(a) A-Capillary, B-Vein, C-Artery

(b) A-Artery, B-Capillary, C-Vein
(c) A-Vein, B-Capillary, C-Artery
(d) A-Vein, B-Artery, C-Capillary
192. Consider the following four statements (I-IV) related to cell cycle, and select the correct option stating them as
true [T] and false [F].
I. Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.
II. Interphase is the phase of actual cell division.
III. The number of chromosomes doubles in S-phase
IV. The cells that do not divide further exit G1-phase to enter an inactive stage.
(a) I –T, II - F, III- F, IV- F
(b) I –F, II – T, III – T, IV - T
(c) I –F, II – F, III- T, IV - T
(d) I –T, II – F, III – F, IV - T
193. What is the nature of blood passing through blood vessels A, B, C and D respectively?
(a) A- Deoxygenated, B- Oxygenated, C- Deoxygenated, D- Oxygenated

(b) A- Deoxygenated, B- Deoxygenated, C- Oxygenated, D- Oxygenated
(c) A- Oxygenated, B- Oxygenated, C- Deoxygenated, D- Deoxygenated
(d) A- Oxygenated, B- Deoxygenated, C- Oxygenated, D- Deoxygenated
:
194. In the given figure of the heart which of the labelled parts (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) carries oxygenated blood?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 5
195. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
A. Heart failure (i) Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
B. Cardiac arrest (ii) Chest pain due to inadequate O2 reaching the heart muscles
C. Heart attack (iii) Atherosclerosis
D. Coronary artery disease (iv) Heart not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the
(CAD) body
E. Angina pectoris (v) Heart stops beating
(a) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(ii)

(b) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(ii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iii)
(d) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(i)
196. Hormonal regulation of cardiac activity involves the hormones ___ and ___ secreted by the ___
(a) epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortex of adrenal gland
(b) epinephrine, norepinephrine, medulla of adrenal gland
(c) thyroxine, calcitonin, thyroid gland
(d) aldosterone, corticosterone, cortex of adrenal gland
197. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the cardiac system is/are correct?
(i) Human heart is an ectodermal derivative.
(ii) Mitral valve guards the opening between the right atrium and left ventricle.
(iii) SAN is located on the left upper corner of the right atrium.
(iv) Stroke volume × Heart rate = Cardiac output.
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) only
:
198. Identify the following type of blood cells and mark the correct option.
(a) A-Monocyte, B-Eosinophil, C-Neutrophil, D-Basophil, E-Blood platelets

(b) A-Monocyte, B-Basophil, C-Neutrophil, D-Blood platelets, E-Eosinophil
(c) A-Basophil, B-Blood platelets, C-Monocyte, D-Eosinophil, E-Neutrophil
(d) A-Basophil, B-Blood platelets, C-Eosinophil, D-Neutrophil, E-Monocyte
199. Match the types of WBC listed under column I with the shape of nucleus given under column II and select the
correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
A. Neutrophils (i) Kidney-shaped
B. Eosinophils (ii) S-shaped
C. Basophils (iii) 4 to 7 lobes
D. Monocytes (iv) 2 lobes
(v) Disc-shaped
(a) A-(iii), B- (v), C-(i), D-(ii)

(b) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i) , C-(v), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
200. In the following table of human ABO blood groups, fill up the blanks (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) from the options
given below.
Blood Group Antigens on RBCs Antibody in Plasma Can receive blood from
A A Anti-B A, O
B B Anti-A B, O
AB AB (ii) A, B, AB, O
O (i) (iii) (iv)
(a) (i)-Nil, (ii)-Nil, (iii)-Nil, (iv)-O

(b) (i)-Nil, (ii)-Nil, (iii)-Anti-A,B, (iv)-AB
(c) (i)-Nil, (ii)-Anti-A,B, (iii)-Nil, (iv)-O
(d) (i)-Nil, (ii)-Nil, (iii)-Anti-A,B, (iv)-O
:
Answer Key
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B
7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. A
13. A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. C
19. B 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. B 24. C
25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. C
37. A 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. C 42. A
43. B 44. A 45. A 46. D 47. B 48. C
49. A 50. C 51. B 52. C 53. B 54. D
55. C 56. D 57. C 58. B 59. B 60. B
61. D 62. D 63. B 64. B 65. D 66. C
67. A 68. D 69. A 70. A 71. D 72. A
73. A 74. C 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. A
79. A 80. B 81. A 82. A 83. B 84. A
85. C 86. B 87. D 88. A 89. D 90. C
91. D 92. A 93. C 94. A 95. C 96. A
97. A 98. C 99. D 100. B 101. B 102. B
103. D 104. D 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. C
109. C 110. A 111. B 112. B 113. B 114. A
115. D 116. D 117. D 118. B 119. C 120. A
121. B 122. D 123. C 124. D 125. B 126. C
127. A 128. D 129. A 130. B 131. B 132. C
133. C 134. D 135. D 136. C 137. C 138. C
139. B 140. C 141. A 142. A 143. B 144. C
145. B 146. C 147. D 148. C 149. B 150. C
151. A 152. A 153. A 154. D 155. D 156. C
157. B 158. A 159. D 160. D 161. D 162. B
163. C 164. C 165. D 166. D 167. A 168. C
169. B 170. B 171. A 172. B 173. B 174. A
175. D 176. C 177. A 178. B 179. D 180. D
181. C 182. C 183. A 184. D 185. A 186. A
187. C 188. D 189. B 190. D 191. C 192. D
193. A 194. C 195. A 196. B 197. D 198. C
199. D 200. D
:
Solutions
1. (C)
2x = 20.0 ± 0.2
2y = 20.0 ± 0.2
2x − 2y = 0.0 ± 0.4
2. (D)
∵ Density, ρ = M
V
M
=
πr2 L
∆ρ
⇒ ρ
= ∆M
M
+ 2 ∆rr
+ ∆L L
0.003 0.005 0.06
= 0.3
+ 2 × 0.5
+ 6
= 0.01 + 0.02 + 0.01 = 0.04
∆ρ
∴ Percentage error = ρ × 100 = 0.04 × 100 = 4%
3. (A)
Physical quantity (p) = Numerical value (n)× Unit (u)
If physical quantity remains constant, and measurement is not repeated then n ∝ 1/u
∴ n1u1 = n2u2.
4. (C)
1N = 105 dyne
1m = 100cm
We know
y = 2 × 1011 N/m2
In CGS
2×10 11 ×10 5 dyne

y=
10 4 cm2
y = 2 × 1012 dyne/cm2
5. (B)
Dimensional formula for kinetic energy = [ML2T-2]
6. (B)
m1 m2 Fr2
F =G r2
; G= m1 m2
= M −1 L3 T −2
:
7. (B)
2S
a=
T2
a = 0.23 m/s2
∆a ∆S 2∆T
a
= S
+ T
∆a = 0.03
8. (C)
There are seven base quantities,
(i) Mass
(ii) Length
(iii) Time
(iv) Current
(v) Amount of substance
(vi) Luminous intensity
(vii) Temperature
9. (B)
Length - [L]
Time - [T]
Velocity - [LT–1] - derived by allowing two quantities of same group.
10. (A)
n1 = 100, M1 = 1 g, L1 = 1 cm, T1 = 1 s and
M2 = 1 kg, L2 = 1 m, T2 = 1 min ,
The dimensional formula of force is [M a Lb T −c ] .
Where a = 1, b = 1, c = −2.
Now
n2 = n1 [ M1 ] [ L1 ] [ T1 ]
M a L b T c
2 2 2
1
= 100[ 1 kg ] [ 11cm
1g 1 −2
m
] [ 1 1min
s
]
= 100 [ ][ ] [ 60
1 s −2
1g 1 cm
] = 3.6
10 3 g 10 2 cm s
:
11. (B)
x2
αkT
→ Dimensionless
[x 2 ] L2
⇒ [α] = [kT]
= = M −1 T 2
ML2 T −2
2
Now [W] = [α] [β]
−−−2−−−2−
[β] = √ ML−1T 2 = M 1 L1 T −2
M T
12. (A)
9.99 m + 0.0099 m = 9.9999 m = 10.00 m (In proper significant figures).
13. (A)
Pascal-second is the unit of (pressure × time)
Force×time MLT −2 ×T 1
= area
= = M L−1 T −1
L2
14. (C)
[Pressure][T ime] = [ Force
Area
][ Distance
Velocity
]
[Coefficient of viscosity] = [ Force
Area
][ Distance
Velocity
]
Statements 'A' is true
Force
But statement R is false as coefficient of viscosity = Area × Velocity gradient
15. (B)
Number of significant figures in 6.0023 are 5 because all the zeroes in between two non zero digit are counted
towards significant figures.
16. (B)
2
(x − At)2 + (y − Bt ) = a2
[At] = A × T1 = L
∴ [A] = T1 L1
t
B
is in meters
1
∴ T[B] =L
∴ [B] = T−1 L−1
17. (D)
3400 = 3.400 × 103
∴ Number of significant figures = 2
18. (C)
from formula of time period of simple pendulum we have :-
g = 4π 2 l
T2
From formula of combination of errors,we get

∆g ∆l
g
× 100 = l
× 100 + 2 ∆T
T
× 100
= 1 + (2 × 3) = 7%
:
19. (B)
2
Dimensionally, Energy = mass × (velocity)
length 2
= mass × ( time
) = M L2 T −2
Thus, 1 joule = (1kg) (1m) 2 (1s)−2 and 1erg = (1g) (1cm)2 (1s)−2
= ( 1g ) ( 1cm
1m 2 1s −2
1joule 1kg
1erg
) ( 1s )
= ( 1g ) ( 100cm
1000g 2
1cm
) = 1000 × 10000 = 107
7
So, 1joule = 10 erg
20. (A)
Dimension of kinetic energy = [M 1 ][LT −1 ]2 = [M 1 L2 T −2 ]
Dimension for option (a)(mgh)=[M 1 ] × [LT −2 ] × [L] = [M L2 T −2 ]
21. (D)
Dimension of a. t = dimension of velocity a . t = LT −1 ⇒ a = LT −2
Dimension of c = dimension of t (two physical quantity of same dimension can only be added)
So, dimension of c = T
b
Dimension of t+c = Dimension of v
b
T+T
= LT −1 ⇒ b. T −1 = LT −1 ⇒ b = L
So, answer is LT−2, L & T
22. (C)
Corrected difference = 2.535 [Rounded off upto 3rd decimal place]
Here 6.807 has the lesser number of decimal places (three), so difference is rounded off to 3rd place of decimal point.
23. (B)
[MLT −2 ]
Pressure: Force
= = [M L−1 T −2 ]
Area [L2 ]
24. (C)
[M 1 L2 T −2 ]
[ KE ]=
ma [M 1 ][LT −2 ]
= [L]
2
∴ [ KE
ma
] = [L]2
= Area.
25. (B)
The non-zero digits after the decimal places are significant.
For a number less than one, zero just afer decimal is not counted as significant. The zero coming in between non zero
digits are counted as significant.
26. (A)
5.997 6.00 m
:
27. (D)
v
We know that, F = ma (∵ a = t
)
⇒ F = mv t
⇒ m = Ft
v
∴ Dimensions of
[F][T]
[M] = [v]
= [F v−1 T ]
28. (B)
D= M
V
∴ % ∆D
D
= % ∆M
M
+ % ∆V
V
0.01
= ( 22.42 + 0.1
4.7
) × 100 = 2%
29. (D)
L= ⃗ r ×⃗ p ⇒⃗ [L] = [M 0 L1 T 0 ] [M 1 L1 T −1 ]
= [M 1 L2 T −1 ]
τ = ⃗ r ×⃗ F ⇒⃗ [τ] = [L1 ] [MLT −2 ]
= [M L2 T −2 ]
Stress ≡ P ressure = FA ⇒ [Stress] = [M L−1 T −2 ]
Pressure Gradient = dPdx
⇒ [Pressure Gradient]
−2 −2
= [M L T ]
30. (A)
ρ= m = m
V l3
∆ρ ∆m
ρ
= m
+ 3. ∆ll
∆ρ
ρ
= [ 0.2
15
+3× 0.01
0.3
] = 0.11
31. (D)
Area = lb ± ∆a
= 19.4 ± ∆a
∆a
a
= ∆ll + ∆b
b
∆a = b ⋅ ∆l + l ⋅ ∆b
= 3.4 × 0.1 + 5.7 × 0.2
∆a = 1.48 (rounding off to two significant figures);
a = 19.4 ± 1.5 cm2
32. (A)
The reliable digit plus the first uncertain digit is known as significant figures.
For the number 53.0123, all the digits are significant, hence 6.
For the number 0.0031, number is less than 1, the zero(s) on the right of decimal point are significant but to the left
of the first non-zero digit are not significant. hence 2.
For the number 3.4 × 10−3 , significant figures are 2.
:
33. (B)
MLT −2
(A) Surface tension = Fl = L
= M T −2
= Kgs−2 (IV )
−2
(B) Pressure = FA = MLT2
L
= kgm−1 s−2 (III)
MLT −2
(C) Viscosity = FdV =
) L2 ( )
LT −1
A(
dz L
= M L−1 T −1 = kgm−1 s−1 (I)

(D) Impulse= ∫ F dt = MLT −2 × T
= MLT −1 = Kgms−1 (II)
So, A → IV , B → III, C → I, D → II
34. (A)
c
MLT −2
[T −1 ] = [L1 ] [M 1 L−3 ] [ ]
a b
L
⇒ T −1 = M b+c ⋅ La−3 b
⋅ T −2c
1 1
c = , b = − ,a − 3 b = 0
2 2
3 3
a+ =0⇒a=−
2 2
35. (B)
H = I2R t
∴ ∆H
H
× 100 = ( 2∆I
I
+ ∆R
R
+ ∆t
t
) × 100 = (2 × 3 + 4 + 6)% = 16%
36. (C)
Only 2, 5 and 0 on the extreme right are significant.
37. (A)
[F ] = [at]
[F]
[a] = [t]
= [MLT −3 ]
[F ] = [bt2 ]
[F]
[b] = = [MLT −4 ]
[t2 ]
38. (C)
the dimensions of x must be equal to ct3
M0L1T0 = c T3
so the dimensions of c will be M0L1T-3

:
39. (D)
Temperature is a fundamental quantity, so it cannot be expressed in terms of other quantities.
40. (C)
Light year is a unit of distance. It is a large unit of distance usually used to express inter-stellar distance. One light
year is the distance travelled by light (in vacuum) in one year time interval.The apparent solar day is the time
between two successive transits of the Sun over the same meridian.
41. (C)
We know that Q = n1u1 = n1u2 are the two units of measurement of the quantity Q and n1, n2 are their respective
numerical values. From relation Q = n1u1 = n1u2 nu = constant n ∝ 1/u i.e., smaller the unit of measurement,
greater is its numerical value.
:
42. (A)
True or mean value, Tm
a1 +a2 +a3 +a4 +....+an
am = n
T +T +T +T +T
Tm = 1 2 53 4 5
= 2.63+2.56+2.42+2.71+2.80
5
Tm = 2.62 s
Time period Time

T1 2.63 s
T2 2.56 s
T3 2.42 s
T4 2.71 s
T5 2.80 s
Absolute errors in each measurement,

∆Tn = |Tn − Tm |
∆T1 = |T1 − Tm | = |2.63 − 2.62| = 0.01 s
∆T2 = |T2 − Tm | = |2.56 − 2.62| = 0.06 s
∆T3 = |T3 − Tm | = |2.42 − 2.62| = 0.20 s
∆T4 = |T4 − Tm | = |2.71 − 2.62| = 0.09 s
∆T5 = |T5 − Tm | = |2.80 − 2.62| = 0.18 s
Mean absolute error of ΔTm
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ |∆T1 |+|∆T2 |+|∆T3 |+|∆T4 |+|∆T5 |
∆Tm = 5
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 0.01+0.06+0.20+0.09+0.18
∆Tm = 5
= 0.54 5
= 0.108 s
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
∆Tm = 0.11 s
Percentage error of ΔTm
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
∆T
Percentage error = T m × 100 = 0.11 2.62
× 100
m
T = 0.042 × 100 = 4%
Time period of simple pendulum
T = 2.62 ± 4%
Thus, option (A) is the correct answer.
43. (B)
The trailing zeros are not significant
So, only two digits are significant
44. (A)
Work W = F × r = [MLT −2 ] [L] = [M L2 T −2 ]
45. (A)
Moment of inertia = M r2 = [M] [L2 ] = [M L2 T 0 ]
:
46. (D)
F ∆l
a
= Y. l
⇒ [Y ] = [ Fa ] (Here F is force and a is area)
considering dimensions of force in terms of mass , length and time.

ML
F =
T2
L= F
M
T2
L2 = F2
T 4 (∵ T = V
) (T is time , V is speed and A is acceleration)
M2 A
4
L2 = F2
( VA )
M2
F2 V4
L2 = . [F = MA] (F is force and A is acceleration)
M 2 A2 A2
V4
L2 = ................... Dimensions of Area in terms Speed and Acceleration
A2
[F]
[Y ] = [a]
= F 1 V −4 A2
47. (B)
MgL3
Y =
4bd3 δ
∆Y ∆M 3∆L ∆b 3∆d ∆δ
= + + + +
Y M L b d δ
−3 −3 −2 3 × 10−2
∆Y 10 3 × 10 10 10−2
= + + + +
Y 2 1 4 4 5
−3
= 10 [0.5 + 3 + 2.5 + 7.5 + 2] = 0.0155
48. (C)
F
Force (F) acting on charge (q) moving with velocity (v) in magnetic field (B) is given as, F = qvB thus B = qv
[F] MLT −2
∴ [B] = [qv]
= = [M T −1 C −1 ]
C×LT −1
:
49. (A)
2
[v]
[a]
= [L]
[v 21 ] [v 22 ]
∴ [a1 ]
= [L1 ] and [a2 ]
= [L2 ]
∴ [ v12 ] [ a21 ] =
v2 a [L1 ]
2
[L2 ]
[m4 ] 1
] = [ L1 ]
L
⇒ n2
[ mn
2
L1 m3
⇒ L2
= n3
Also
[ va ] = [T ]
T1 [v 1 ] [v 2 ]
∴ T2
= /
[a] [a2 ]
[v 1 ] [a2 ]
= [v 2 ]
× [a1 ]
m2 l
= n
× mn
m
= n2
50. (C)
Volume of cube, $V = l^3$
Where l = side of cube

∆V
V
= 3 ∆ll = 3 × 0.027 = 0.081
:
51. (B)
52. (C)
1,4 dichlorobutane
53. (B)
5,7-dibromo-6-chloro-3-ethylocta-4,6-dien-1-yne
54. (D)
13
55. (C)
When two or more names of prefixes of substituents consist of identical words, the priority of citation is given to that
group which contains the lowest locant at the first point of difference. For example, the prefix 1-bromo-2-
chloroethyl gets preference over the prefix 2-bromo-1-chloroethyl. Thus
56. (D)
Do not show isomerism
57. (C)
It is 3- methyl-2-butanol
58. (B)
4-amino-2-hydroxybutanoic acid
:
59. (B)
The IUPAC name of neopentane is 2,2-dimethylpropane.
60. (B)
3-methyl butan-2-one
61. (D)
62. (D)
All are correct
63. (B)
2,2,4-trimethylpentane-3-ol
64. (B)
6 5 4 3 2 1
CH ≡ C − CH = CH − CH = CH2
The two C = C functional groups are present at carbon atoms 1 and 3, while the C ≡ C functional group is present at
carbon 5. These groups are indicated by suffixes ‘diene’ and ‘yne’ respectively. The longest chain containing the
functional groups has 6 carbon atoms; hence, the parent hydrocarbon is hexane. The systematic name is,
Hexa-1, 3-dien-5-yne
65. (D)
1-(2-methylpropyl)cyclopentane
:
66. (C)
3-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
67. (A)
68. (D)
P = PA0 XA + P0BXB
P = (PA0 -P0B ) XA + P0B
(PA0 -P0B ) = 160 ; P0B = 80 ; P0A = 240
P0A/ P0B = 240/80 = 3: 1
69. (A)
36
moles of water, nH2 O = 18
=2
moles of glycerin,, nglycerin = 46
92
= 0.5
0.5
Hence, mole fraction of glycerin xglycerin = 0.5+2
= 0.2
70. (A)
71. (D)
All are correct.
72. (A)
Given that
xB = 0.2, xA = 0.8
Now,
x ×1000 0.2×1000
Molality (m) = xB ×M = 0.8×18
= 13.88m
A A
Where,
MA = molar mass of solvent
:
73. (A)
7.8
Number of moles of C6H6= 78
= 0.1
Number of moles of C6H5CH3= 46
92
= 0.5
Total moles = 0.6
C6H6= 0.1
0.6
= 16
74. (C)
75. (C)
Mw2 (C2H6O2) = 12 x 2 + 1 x 6 + 16 x 2 = 62 g mol-1
W2 (C2H6O2) = 20 g, W1 (H2O) = 100 – 20 = 80 g
76. (A)
The mole fraction in any solution generally refers to the number of moles of solute divided by the total of the solute
moles and the solvent moles (total number of moles in the solution) and hence it does not depend on the temperature.
77. (B)
Let the volume of the solution is 1000 mL.
Mass of the solution = density × volume = 1000 g
Moles of the solute = molarity × volume (in L) = 2 moles
Thus, mass of the solute = moles × molar mass = 2 × 60 = 120 g
Thus, mass of solvent = 1000 – 120 = 880 g = 0.88 kg
Molality = massmoles of solute
of solvent (in kg)
2
= 0.88 = 2.27 mol kg-1
:
78. (A)
Molarity of solution is related to the normality of the solution as follows, valence factor x Molarity = Normality
Let's first calculate the valence factor forNa2 CO3
The valence factor for a species is equal to the number of moles of electrons gain or lost by the species. InNa2 CO3
,there is an exchange of 2 electrons. Therefore, it has 2 as a valence factor.
The molarity of Na2 CO3 is,
Normality
Molarity of Na2 CO3 = valence factor
(0.2)
⇒ Molarity of Na2 CO3 = 2
∴ Molarity of Na2 CO3 = 0.1 M
Thus, (a) is the correct option.
79. (A)
The 1.25 molal solution of NaOH means that the 1.25 moles of NaOH dissolve in 1000g of water.
Therefore, the weight of NaOH is calculated as,
∴ weight of NaOH = 1.25 × 40 = 50g
Weight of solution is equal to,
∴ weight of solution = 1000 + 50 = 1050 g
Therefore, %the weight of the solution is,
wt.of solute
%(by weight) of NaOH = wt.of solution
× 100
50
⇒ %(by weight) of NaOH = 1050 × 100
∴ %(by weight) of NaOH = 4.76%
Therefore, the percentage weight of NaOH is 4.76{\raise0.5ex\hbox{ \scriptstyle 0$}
\kern-0.1em/\kern-0.15em
\lower0.25ex\hbox{0}}$.
80. (B)
Molarity of solution is the number of moles of solute per litre of solution
weight of solute
M = molar mass of solute × Volume of 1000
solution in mL
Given:
Weight of the NaOH is 5.0 g.
The volume of the solution is 250 mL
M.W. of NaOH = 40 g
Let's calculate the molarity of NaOH the solution.
5.0 1000
M= ×
40 250
⇒ M = 0.5 M
Therefore, the molarity of the solution is equal to0.5 M .
Thus, (b) is the correct option.
:
81. (A)
The molality of a solution is the number of moles of solute per kilogram of the solvent. It is written as,
weight of solute
m = molar mass of solute × weight1000
of solvent
Given:
The molality of a solution is m = 0.25
weight of solvent = 2.5kg = 2500 g
M.W. NH2 CONH2 = 60 g
Let's calculate the mass of urea.
weight of solute 1000
0.25 = ×
60 2500
0.25 × 60 × 2500
⇒ weight of solute =
1000
∴ weight of solute = 37.5 g
Therefore, the weight of urea required is 37.5g.
82. (A)
We know that the partial vapour pressure of a gas is expressed as the fraction of total gas. It is written as follows,
p' = p x'
Where P’ is the partial pressure, p is the pressure of the gas mixture and x’ is a mole fraction of gas. Let pA and pB be
the vapour pressure of pure liquid A and B. If xA and xB represents the mole fraction of A and B. Then partial
pressure can be written as,
p'A = pA xA
p'B = pB xB (1)
The total vapour pressure of the mixture is equal to the partial pressure of component A and B. It is written as
follows,
pTotal = p'A + p'B (2)
Let's substitute (1) in (2). We have,
pTotal = pA xA + pB xB (3)
We know that the sum of the mole fractions is always equal to unity. Then,
xA + xB = 1
∴ xB = 1 − xA
Substitute the value of XB in equation (3). We have,
pTotal = pA xA + pB xB
⇒ pA xA + pB (1 − xA )
⇒ pA xA + pB − pB xA
∴ pTotal = pB + xA (pA − pB )
:
83. (B)
Given: number of particles of urea are N = 6.02 × 1020
The volume of the solution is V = 100 mL = 0.1 L
The Avogadro's number is equal to,
NA = 6.023 × 1023 Particles
Then the number of moles in terms of Avogadro's number is written as,
Number of particles
Number of moles =
NA
6.02 × 1020
=
6.023 × 1023
⇒ Number of moles = 0.001
Now molarity of a solution is calculated as,
moles of solute
Molarity =
volume of solution in litre
0.001
= = 0.01 M
0.1
So, the concentration of the solution is0.01 M .
Thus, (b) is the correct option.
84. (A)
The molality of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent.
No.of moles of solute
molality = mass of solvent (in kg)
The weight of glucose is equal to 180g and the molar mass of glucose is 180g/mol. The number of moles is written
as,
No. Of moles = (given mass / molar mass)
= (180/180) = 1 mole
Therefore, the molality of glucose solution is equal to,
molality = 11 = 1 m
So, both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a proper explanation of assertion.
85. (C)
One molal solution means that one mole of solute is in the 1 kilogram or 1000 g of water (as it is an aqueous
solution). Then,
Number of moles of solute = 1
weight of solvent
Number of moles of solvent = molar mass of solvent
= 1000
18
= 55.55
The mole fraction of solute is calculated as follows,
n
mole fraction of solute = nsolutesolute
+nsolvent
1
= 1+55.55 = 0.01768 ≃ 0.0177
So, the mole fraction of solute is0.0177 .
Thus, (c) is the correct option.
86. (B)
3 carbon atoms = ‘propane’ prefix
Alcohol = ‘ol’ suffix
Hence, Propanol is the correct answer.

:
87. (D)
88. (A)
89. (D)
Metamers are compounds which have different alkyl groups present along both side of polyvalent functional group.
Only options 4 represent metamers
(1) These are chain isomers
(2) Not isomers having different molecular formula
(3) Position isomers
90. (C)
Parent chain is numbered from the end nearer to OH group. Hence, the IUPAC name of given compound is 3-
methyl-2-butanol.
91. (D)
(2,2-Dimethylpropan-1-ol)
92. (A)
a → functional isomers
b → position and metamers
c → functional isomers
d → chain isomers
93. (C)
Metamers have same functional group but they differ in the arrangement of alkyl groups around the functional group.
Hence, C2H5–O–C2H5 and CH3–O–C3H7 are metamers.
:
94. (A)
1
95. (C)
96. (A)
For dilution,
M1V1 = M2V2
20 × 0.1 = 100 × M2
M2 = 0.02 M
97. (A)
If 22g of C6 H6 is dissolved in 122g of CCl4
Then total mass of the solution is 144g .
∴ % mass of CCl4 = 122 144
× 100 = 84.72%
98. (C)
Sum of mole fractions of all the components of a solution is one.
99. (D)
number of moles of NaCl solution M1V1 = M2V2 = 4 x 0.02 = 0.08
Final voulme = 5 L
Molarity = 0.08
5
= 0.016
100. (B)
If the solution is described by 10% glucose in water by mass it means that 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 90 g of
water resulting in a 100 g solution.
101. (B)
During pachytene stage, the four chromatids of each bivalent chromosome become distinct and clearly appear as
tetrads. This stage is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules, the sites at which crossing over
occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes. Crossing over brings about recombination.
Recombination nodules contain the enzyme recombinase that facilitates genetic recombination, which is completed
by the end of pachytene. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
102. (B)
During Anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their
centromeres. This separation means that each of the daughter cells that results from meiosis I will have half the
number of chromosomes of the original parent cell after interphase. The sister chromatids in each chromosome still
remain connected. As a result, each chromosome maintains its X-shaped structure.
:
103. (D)
S or Synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place. During this time, the
amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C. However,
there is no increase in the chromosome number; if the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G1, even
after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n number of chromosomes at G1, even after S
phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.
104. (D)
Crossing over is a process of exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of two homologous
chromosomes and leads to recombination of genes. It is an enzyme mediated process.
105. (B)
Prophase I is divided into five sub-phases : leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis. During
leptotene stage, the chromosomes become visible and the compaction continues. Chromosomes appear thin thread-
like with beaded appearance. This is followed by zygotene. During this, chromosomes start pairing and are called
homologous chromosomes. A pair of homologous chromosomes lying together is called a bivalent. The complex
formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a synaptonemal complex. Next stage is pachytene.
It is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules, the sites at which crossing over occurs. The
beginning of the next stage, diplotene, is recognised by dissolution of the synaptonemal complex. Homologous
chromosomes of bivalent separate from each other except at sites of crossover. These X-shaped structures are called
chiasmata. The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis which is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
Chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for
separation. By the end of diakinesis, the nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope also breaks down.
106. (A)
In animal cells, during the S phase of interphase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates
in the cytoplasm. These duplicated centrioles move towards opposite poles of the cell during the prophase stage of
mitosis.
107. (A)
The availability of mitogen and energy rich compounds decide whether G1 phase will be arrested (Go phase) or
undergo S-phase. This point is called check point or G1 cyclin or G1 point. Once the check point of G1-phase is
crossed and cell has entered S-phase, cell cycle will go on further division till completion.
108. (C)
All the daughter cells of a multicellular organism have the same number and type of chromosomes as parent cells
due to equitable distribution of all the chromosomes in mitosis. This helps in ensuring genetic continuity.
:
109. (C)
A → Anaphase; B → Metaphase; C → Prophase; D → Telophase
In Anaphase the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles. So, A is showing Anaphase.
In metaphase chromosomes get aligned along metaphase plate through spindle fibres to both sides. So, B is showing
metaphase.
The early prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material. So, C is showing prophase.
In telophase, the chromosomes decondense and lose their individuality. So, D is showing telophase.
110. (A)
During anaphase of mitosis, each chromosome arranged at metaphase plate is split and two daughter chromatids are
formed. Centromeres split and chromatids move to opposite poles. During anaphase I of meiosis I, the homologous
chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres. Anaphase II of meiosis II
begins with simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each chromosome allowing them to move towards opposite
poles of the cell.
111. (B)
Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and meiosis II, but only a single
cycle of DNA replication.
112. (B)
Repulsion of homologous chromosomes takes place in diplotene. In this stage, separation of homologous
chromosomes of bivalents occurs due to repulsion except at the sites of cross-overs. These X-shaped structure called
chiasmata is visible in this stage.
Zygotene- Pairing of chromosomes to form homologous chromosomes.
Pachytene- Crossing over occurs.
Diakinesis- Terminalisation of chiasmata.
113. (B)
Interphase is the longest phase of cell cycle. G1 phase is also known as the first gap. It is usually the longest period
of the interphase.
:
114. (A)
The given figure is an illustration of the telophase stage, wherein the nuclear envelope and Golgi complex
reformation is taking place.
115. (D)
Interphase of the cell cycle involves G1, S and G2 phases. S or synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA
synthesis or replication takes place. Hence, the amount of DNA doubles in each cell during the S phase of the cell
cycle.
116. (D)
Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle. These are at the quiescent stage where they are metabolically active but
do not proliferate unless called upon to do so. Some cells in animals do not show cell division (e.g. nerve cells), and
some cells divide occasionally to replace the damaged/injured cells. These cells do not divide further and exit the G1
phase of cell cycle and enter into an inactive stage called G0 phase.
117. (D)
Synapsis, as it's a pairing of the homologous chromosomes. It occurs during the zygotene stage of the meiosis. The
homologous chromosomes come closer leading to cross-over in the stage called pachytene. These features are hereby
not observed during mitosis.
118. (B)
Chromosome number is halved in meiosis during Anaphase-I. Anaphase I of meiosis is characterized by the
separation of homologous chromosomes. This leads to a reduction in chromosome number to half of that present in
the mother cell.
119. (C)
The cell cycle occurs through following stages. G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase and M Phase. G1 phase, S phase and G2
phase together form interphase. The amount of DNA is 2C at the start of G1 Phase. The number of chromosomes are
46 at this time. The DNA replication occurs during S phase. Hence after S phase the amount of DNA will be double
the original amount. So it will be 2C x 2 =4C.The chromosome number does not change in interphase. So, the
chromosome number will remain as 46.
So, before mitosis (M phase) the amount of DNA will be 4C and the chromosome number will be 46.
:
120. (A)
121. (B)
In bivalent condition, there are two chromosomes present with their homologous pair. So, 8 bivalents in metaphase I
contain 16 chromosomes. Meiosis I is a reduction division and therefore the number of chromosomes is halved to 8
chromosomes. Meiosis II is an equational division and therefore the number of chromosomes remains the same, that
is, 8 chromosomes.
122. (D)
Cells divide and reproduce in two ways, mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells, whereas
meiosis results in production of four haploid cells with increased genetic variability
123. (C)
The endoplasmic reticulum (smooth and rough) is an interconnected network of flattened, membrane-enclosed sacs
or tube-like structure which are evenly distributed throughout the cytoplasm.
Smooth endoplasmic is not studded with ribosomes.
Its main function includes- the synthesis of lipids and is also involved in the production of steroid hormones in the
adrenal cortex and endocrine glands.
124. (D)
Extranuclear genes are the genes that present somewhere in the cell outside the nucleus.
These genes are found in most eukaryotic organisms.
These extranuclear genes are present in the cytoplasmic organelles called mitochondria, and chloroplasts.
The transmission of extranuclear genes from the parents to the offspring is called the extranuclear inheritance or
cytoplasmic inheritance.
125. (B)
In mitochondria, enzymes for electron transport are present in the inner membrane.
126. (C)
Glycocalyx differs in composition and thickness among different bacteria. It could be a loose sheath called the slime
layer in some, while in others it may be thick and tough, called the capsule.
:
127. (A)
The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex cis or the forming face and
concave trans or the maturing face. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis
face of the Golgi apparatus and move towards the maturing face. This explains, why the Golgi apparatus remains in
close association with the endoplasmic reticulum
128. (D)
The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium pectate which holds or glues the different neighbouring cells
together.
129. (A)
A telomere is the end of a chromosome. Telomeres are made of repetitive sequences of non-coding DNA that
protect the chromosome from damage.
Telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes possess short segments of guanine rich repeats.
130. (B)
The lipid bilayer comprising mostly of phospholipid limits the permeability of the membrane.
131. (B)
With a few exceptions like Mycoplasma, almost all prokaryotes have cell walls. Amongst eukaryotes, the cell wall is
seen in some protists and all fungi and plant cells. Nuclear membranes, Membrane Bound organelles and chromatin
are distinguishing features of eukaryotes.
132. (C)
Statement (c) is incorrect as only eukaryotes cells have chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are membrane bound cellular
organelles which are absent in prokaryotic cells.
133. (C)
Vacuoles are structures which are used to store food materials in the cells. Gas vacuoles, which are found in blue-
green, purple and green photosynthetic bacteria, are hollow cylindrical structures and are made up of gas vesicles.
These vacuoles inflate and deflate to provide buoyancy and help in floating.
134. (D)
In prokaryotes, nutrients and other reserve materials are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of cell inclusion bodies.
These are not bounded by any membrane system which is a characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells.
135. (D)
Statement (d) is incorrect as the carbohydrates are found in the cell membrane in the amount of 1-2%. They are
found linked to membrane proteins and lipids in the form of glycoproteins and glycolipids. These carbohydrate
chains typically consist of 2-60 monosaccharide units and can either be straight or branched.
136. (C)
The cell membrane is a selectively-permeable membrane, which means that it allows only certain molecules to pass
through it. This passage depends upon factors which include- concentration gradient, lipid solubility and polarity of
the molecule. The cell membrane also has channel proteins which have a specific affinity for certain molecules.
137. (C)
Lipid bilayers are impermeable to most essential molecules and ions, so these have to be actively transported across
the cell membrane. Active transport is the passage of molecules or ions through a membrane against their
concentration gradient with the help of a transmembrane protein called transporter/channel protein.
:
138. (C)
The glycocalyx is an outer layer present, particularly in bacteria. When present as a loose sheath it forms the slime
layer. The glycocalyx, when thick and tough it forms the capsule.
139. (B)
Fluidity is the ability of membrane proteins (solid) to move within the phospholipid bilayer (fluid). The phospholipid
layer provides fluidity to the plasma membrane because phospholipids are rich in unsaturated fatty acids which are
liquid in nature. Only the peripheral proteins exhibit lateral movement and this also allows for their enzymatic
activity. The integral proteins are tightly embedded in the hydrophobic core of the membrane and thus cannot move.
140. (C)
Chlorophyll is the pigment responsible for photosynthesis. Thus, it is expected to be found at the site of
photosynthesis. Specifically, among given options, the chlorophyll pigment is found in thylakoids which allow the
absorption of the light leading to the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
141. (A)
The 'S' is a Svedberg unit that stands for the sedimentation coefficient. The sedimentation coefficient is the rate of
sedimentation of a particle and it indirectly measures the density and size of the ribosome. This unit is named after
Swedish chemist Theodor Svedberg. The prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S while the eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S.
142. (A)
The nuclear membrane is continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum in which RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum)
is directly continuous with the outer nuclear membrane so that the space between the inner and outer nuclear
membrane is connected to the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. The endoplasmic reticulum can be smooth
or rough. The rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes on it, hence the name RER.
143. (B)
Intracellular compartments are the membrane-bounded organelles present in the cytosol and separated from the
extracellular compartment by the cell membrane. Prokaryotic cells are primitive unicellular organisms which have
disorganized nuclei without a nuclear membrane and no membrane-bounded organelles.
144. (C)
Chloroplasts are double membrane-bound. The space limited by the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called the
stroma. A number of organised flattened membranous sacs called the thylakoids are present in the stroma. The inner
membrane of mitochondria forms a number of infoldings called the cristae (sing.: crista) towards the matrix. The
cristae increase the surface area. Golgi apparatus consists of many flat, disc-shaped sacs or cisternae of 0.5µm to
1.0µm
diameter. These are stacked parallel to each other. A varied number of cisternae are present in a Golgi apparatus.
145. (B)
Ribosomes are the granular structure which is composed of RNA and proteins. And it is the site of translation. The
prokaryotic ribosomes are the 70S while the eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S. The cytoplasmic ribosomes are the 80S
whereas the ribosomes of the chloroplast are smaller, that is 70S. Mitochondria contain 70S ribosomes. The 'S' is a
Svedberg unit that stands for the sedimentation coefficient.
:
146. (C)
Endomembrane system comprises of ER, golgi complex, lysosome and vacuoles (not mitochondria).
147. (D)
The Golgi apparatus principally performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the
intracellular targets or secreted outside the cell. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse
with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus and moves towards the maturing face. A number of proteins synthesised by
ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus before they are released
from its trans face. Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
148. (C)
The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes with stored nutrients: Amyloplasts store
carbohydrates (starch), e.g., potato; elaioplasts store oils and fats whereas the aleuroplasts store proteins.
The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments which are responsible for trapping light energy
essential for photosynthesis.
149. (B)
Fimbriae are hair-like structures present in large numbers in bacteria. They help in attaching bacteria to solid surfaces
or host tissues. Bacterial cell will not able to adhere to host tissue after removal of fimbriae.
150. (C)
An improved model of the structure of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson (1972) widely accepted
as a fluid mosaic model. According to this, the quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral movement of proteins
within the overall bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its fluidity. Cholesterol is located
towards the inner side of the plasma membrane of animal cells. So, Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
151. (A)
Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
152. (A)
Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves (part of ANS) can increase the rate of heart beat, the strength of
ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output. On the other hand, parasympathetic neural signals (another
component of ANS) decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac
output. Adrenal medullary hormones can also increase the cardiac output.
153. (A)
Sino-atrial node, also called pacemaker is situated in the right upper corner of the wall of right atrium.
154. (D)
The major proteins in plasma are fibrinogens, globulins and albumin. Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or
coagulation of blood. Globulins primarily are involved in defense mechanisms of the body and the albumins help in
osmotic balance.
155. (D)
:
156. (C)
Parasympathetic neural signals (another component of ANS) decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of
action potential and thereby the cardiac output.
157. (B)
A special coronary system of blood vessels is present in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from
the cardiac musculature.
158. (A)
Heart failure means the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body.
It is sometimes called congestive heart failure because congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms of this
disease. Heart failure is not the same as cardiac arrest (when the heart stops beating) or a heart attack (when the heart
muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply).
159. (D)
Cardiac output = Stroke volume × heart beats per minute
Cardiac output
∴ Stroke volume = Heart beats per min ute
5250
= 75
= 70 ml
160. (D)
As the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open, blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and
the right ventricle respectively through the left and right atria. The semilunar valves are closed at this stage. The
Sinoatrial node now generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to undergo a simultaneous
contraction – the atrial systole. This increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 30%.
161. (D)
The AV node conducts the impulse from the atria to the ventricles. When the wave of contraction originating from
the sinoatrial node reaches the atrioventricular node (AV node) it is stimulated and excitatory impulses are rapidly
transmitted from it to all parts of ventricles via a bundle of His and Purkinje fibres. So if the atria are contracting
normally, but ventricles fail to contract, the AV node is probably not functioning properly.
162. (B)
Adrenalin and noradrenalin are secreted by adrenal glands. Noradrenalin accelerates the heart beat under normal
conditions while adrenalin does this function at the time of emergency.
:
163. (C)
Tricuspid valves are present between the right atrium and right ventricle. Bicuspid valves are present between the left
atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are present at the openings of the aortic and pulmonary aorta.
164. (C)
The blood pressure in the arteries is greater than that in the veins. Artery > Arteriole > Capillary > Venule > Vein
(Vena Cava). The pulmonary artery is a short and stout (wide) structure which branches into two parts. On the other
hand the pulmonary veins are large blood vessels. Hence, the pressure of blood is greater in the pulmonary artery as
compared to that in the pulmonary vein.
165. (D)
Globulin, albumin, and fibrinogen are the major blood proteins. Fibrinogen is a glycoprotein in vertebrates, that helps in the
formation of blood clots. It is produced by the liver. Albumin helps keep the blood from leaking out of the blood vessels. Globulin is
made up of different proteins, called alpha, beta, and gamma types. Some bind with hemoglobin. Others transport metals (iron) in
the blood to fight infections.
166. (D)
The cardiovascular centre is a part of the human brain which regulates heart rate through the nervous and endocrine
systems. It is considered one of the vital centres of the medulla oblongata.
167. (A)
Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically, i.e., auto regulated by specialised muscles (nodal tissue),
hence the heart is called myogenic. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac
function through autonomic nervous system (ANS).
168. (C)
Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells that destroy foreign organisms entering the body.
169. (B)
A bundle of nodal fibres, the atrioventricular bundle (AV bundle) continues from the AVN which passes through the
atrioventricular septa to emerge on the top of the interventricular septum and immediately divides into a right and
left bundle.
170. (B)
Angina occurs due to conditions that affect blood flow. This anginal pain usually starts in the centre of the chest and
spreads down the left arm. The chest pain may be associated with restlessness, fear or anxiety, pale skin, profuse
sweating and vomiting.
:
171. (A)
Thrombosis is the formation of blood clots inside the blood vessels, called a thrombus. A thrombus in blood clots the
passage for transfer of blood from one side to another. This clot is the aggregation of red blood cells or platelets in
the veins.
172. (B)
Rh factor plays a crucial role in child’s birth born out of a marriage between Rh– woman and a Rh+ man. In such a
case, the mother becomes sensitive while carrying a first Rh+ child within her womb. The reason for such sensitivity
is that some of the RBCs from the developing embryo get into the blood stream of the mother during development,
causing her to produce anti-Rh antibodies. In fact, the first child of such parents is nearly normal and is delivered
safely. However, if such a mother gets pregnant again, the subsequent Rh+ foetuses will be exposed to the anti-Rh
antibodies produced by the mother. As a result serious damage to the red blood cells of the developing embryo will
occur causing haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) or erythroblastosis fetalis. This disease leads to the death of
the developing embryo before birth or after parturition.
173. (B)
Water helps in the transportation and exchange of gases in invertebrates from their surroundings through their body
cavities. Blood in mammals perform the same function as water in invertebrates. Lymph in the lymphatic system
transports fluid, macromolecules, and other substances through the interstitial spaces in the body.
174. (A)
Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes which are responsible for the immune responses of
the body. Lymph is also an important carrier of nutrients, hormones, etc. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the
lacteals present in the intestinal villi.As the blood passes through the capillaries in tissues, some water along with
many small water- soluble substances move out into the intercellular spaces. This fluid released out is called the
Interstitial fluid or tissue fluid (lymph).
175. (D)
Leucocytes are also known as white blood cells (WBC) as they are colourless due to the lack of haemoglobin. They
are nucleated and are relatively lesser in number which averages 6000-8000 mm–3 of blood. Leucocytes are
generally short lived.
176. (C)
SA-node lies in the wall of the right atrium near the opening of superior vena cava and contracts about 72 times per
minute. Form SA node cardiac impulse travels to atrioventricular node (lies between right atrium and ventricle) Then
passes to AV bundle (also called bundle to His) and its branches reach to the Purkinje fibres in ventricles. Bundle of
His provides the only route for the transmission of wave of excitation from atria to ventricles. Purkinje fibres
conduct the impulses five times more rapidly than surrounding cells. It forms a pathway for conduction of impulse
that ensures that the heart muscle contracts in the most efficient manner. The SAN can generate the maximum
number of action potentials, i.e., 70-75 per minute.
177. (A)
Neutrophils are the most abundant cells (60-65 per cent) of the total WBCs and basophils are the least (0.5-1 percent)
among them. Neutrophils and monocytes (6-8 per cent) are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms
entering the body. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions.
Eosinophils (2-3 per cent) resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions. Lymphocytes (20-25 per
cent) are of two major types – ‘B’ and ‘T’ forms. Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of
the body.
:
178. (B)
The heartbeat originates from the SA node which acts as a pacemaker. SA node lies in the wall of the right atrium
near the opening of the superior vena cava.
179. (D)
The Fetus has severe anemia and jaundice. A special case of Rh incompatibility has been observed between Rh −ve
blood of a pregnant mother with Rh +ve blood of the fetus. During the delivery of the first child, there is a possibility
of exposure of the maternal blood to a small amount of Rh +ve blood from the fetus. In such cases, the mother starts
preparing antibodies against Rh antigen in her blood. In the case of her subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibody
from the mother can leak into the blood of the fetus and destroy fetal RBC. This could be fatal to the fetus or could
cause severe anemia and jaundice to the fetus. This condition is called erythroblastosis fetalis.
180. (D)
Blood clot or coagulum is formed mainly of a network of threads called fibrins in which dead and damaged formed
elements of blood are trapped, so the statement, coagulum is formed of a network of threads called thrombins is
incorrect. RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen, hence the spleen
is called the graveyard of RBCs.
181. (C)
The opening between the left atrium and left ventricle is guarded by a bicuspid valve, also known as mitral valve.
182. (C)
QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation.
183. (A)
Capillaries were discovered by Marcello Malpighi in 1661. These are very thin-walled, because tunica externa and
tunica media are absent. Capillary wall is formed by only tunica interna or endothelium. These connect arterioles to
venules and are specialized for exchanging substances with interstitial fluid. According to local tissue requirements,
these can be constricted or dilated.
184. (D)
A - Eosinophil, B – Monocyte, C - Neutrophil, D - Lymphocyte
185. (A)
Lymph is a colourless fluid containing lymphocytes which are involved in immune responses of the body.
186. (A)
A-Thrombokinase, B-Thrombin, C-Fibrinogen
187. (C)
In figure (2), blood is entering into the right auricle through superior and inferior vena cava and blood is entering
into left auricle through pulmonary vein. Figure (1) shows movement of blood from the auricles into the ventricles.
Figure (3) shows movement of blood from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and from the left ventricle
into aorta.
188. (D)
:
189. (B)
P-Wave-Depolarisation of the atria, QRS complex- Depolarisation of the ventricles, T-wave-Repolarisation of the
ventricles
190. (D)
Left ventricle−−−−−−→Tissues−−−−−−−−→Right auricle
blood blood
191. (C)
A-Vein, B-Capillary, C-Artery
192. (D)
Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.
Interphase is the phase of the cell cycle in which a typical cell spends most of its life where the cell obtains nutrients
and metabolizes them, grows, replicates its DNA in preparation for division, and conducts other normal cell
functions.
The amount of the DNA content (not the chromosome number) gets doubled in S-phase.
The cells that do not divide further exit G1-phase to enter an inactive stage called the quiescent phase.
193. (A)
‘A’ is vena cava that carries deoxygenated blood.
‘B’ is aorta that carries oxygenated blood.
‘C’ is pulmonary artery that carries deoxygenated blood.
‘D’ is pulmonary vein that carries oxygenated blood.
194. (C)
The labelled parts ‘1’ and ‘4’ are aorta and left ventricle respectively, which carry oxygenated blood.
195. (A)
A-(iv), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(ii)
196. (B)
epinephrine, norepinephrine, medulla of adrenal gland
197. (D)
Human heart is mesodermal in origin. Mitral valve guards the opening of left atrium into left ventricle. SAN is
located on the right upper corner of the right atrium. During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately
70 ml of blood which is called stroke volume. The stroke volume multiplied by the number of heart beats per minute
(heart rate) gives the cardiac output. Therefore, Cardiac output = Stroke volume × heart rate = 70 × 72 = 5040 ml per
minute i.e., 5 litres per minute.
198. (C)
A-Basophil, B-Blood platelets, C-Monocyte, D-Eosinophil, E-Neutrophil
199. (D)
A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
200. (D)
(i)-Nil, (ii)-Nil, (iii)-Anti-A,B, (iv)-O
:

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13-RT-03-NEET

1. If x = 10.0 ± 0.1 and y = 10.0 ± 0.1 , then 2x − 2y is equal to

5. The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is:

8. The base quantity among the following is

(Given that: Dimensions of coefficient of viscosity [M L−1 T −1 ]

(a) Both A and R true, and R is correct explanation of A.

15. The significant figures in the number 6.0023 are

17. The number of significant figures in 3400 is

23. Find the dimension of pressure (pressure =Force/Area)

24. K.E.= Kinetic Energy

25. The number of significant figures in the measured value 0.0204 is

26. A length 5.997 m rounded off to three significant figures is written as

29. Match List I with List II

(Given that: Formula for Angular momentum L = Mvr

33. Match List I with List II

40. Which of the following is not a unit for time?

(d) Solar day

43. The number of significant figures in the measured value 26000 is

Then the fractional error in the measurement of Y is :

51. Which is the example of branch chain isomerism?

53. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound

54. Total number of functional group in the compound is

(a) 1, 5-dibromo-2, 6, dichloro-3, 4-diisopropyl-hexane

56. Which type of isomerism is shown by following compound

(a) Functional isomerism

57. Which of the following compounds has wrong IUPAC name?

58. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?

(a) γ -amino-α -hydroxybutyric acid

59. The IUPAC name of neopentane is

61. IUPAC name of the following compound is

62. The incorrect IUPAC name is

(d) none of these

63. What is the correct IUPAC name of isoctan-3-ol

64. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound.

(a) Cyclopentyl butane

66. IUPAC name of

(a) 4, 4-dimethyl-5, 5-diethylpentane

(a) AB stands for the vapour pressure of component B in presence of solute A

74. The IUPAC name of the compound is

(a) 2-(carboxymethyl)pentane-1 ,5-dioic acid

76. What does not change on changing temperature?

(d) Both a and b

78. What is the molarity of 0.2 N Na2CO3solution?

80. The molarity of a solution containing 5.0g of NaOH in 250 mL solution is

85. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

87. Minimum number of carbon required by alkane to show position isomerism

90. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound:

(a) 2-hydroxy-3-methyl butane

91. Write IUPAC name of the following molecule:

93. Diethyl ether and methyl n-propyl ether are

103. Select the incorrect statement regarding S phase of interphase.

104. Select the incorrectly matched pair.

105. Zygotene of prophase-I is characterised by

107. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption

109. Refer the given figures and answer.

Anaphase of meiosis 1 = (i)

Anaphase of mitosis = (ii)

Anaphase of meiosis II =(iii)

(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)