Lecture 7 Risk Return, and Portfolio Theory
Lecture 7 Risk Return, and Portfolio Theory
Panagiotis Panagiotou
November 9, 2021
[email protected]
Calculating simple (percentage) returns: buy one share at t and pay Pt , sell the
stock at t + 1 and receive Pt+1 and Dt+1 .
Pt+1 −Pt
Pt
is referred to as the capital gain.
Dt+1
Pt
is referred to as the dividend yield.
The time between Pt and Pt+1 is called the holding period. The holding period
can be any amount of time: one second, two hours, three days, one week etc.
Often we write rt+1 = 100 × rt+1 , as 100rt+1 is the percentage of the gain with
respect to the initial capital Pt .
If ABC plc is selling for £100 per share today and is expected to sell for
£110 one year from now, what is the return if the dividend one year
from now is forecasted to be £4.00?
Answer:
S
X
Expected Return E(rt ) = P(s) × r (s)
s=1
Suppose you have predicted the following returns for stock X in four possible
states of the economy. What is the expected return?
4
X
E(rX ) = P(s)r (s) ⇒
s=1
E(rX ) = (0.05)(−52%) + (0.25)(−6.75%) + (0.45)(14%) + (0.25)(31%) ⇒
E(rX ) = 9.76%
Note: variance is not the only possible way to measure risk, but it is a popular
choice in finance. A nice feature of standard deviations is that they are in the
same units as the original variable.
Panagiotis Panagiotou (Greenwich) Modern Portfolio Theory FINA1082 (Term 1) 9 / 63
Asset Risk: an example
Suppose you have predicted the following returns for stock X in four possible
states of the economy. What is the asset risk? Recall that E(rX ) = 9.76%.
4
X
σX2 = P(s) × (r (s) − E(r ))2 ⇒
s=1
K
1 X
s2 = (Ri − R̃)2
K −1
i=1
where R̃ is the sample average and the sample standard deviation is just
the square root of the sample variance.
Suppose that you are told that in the most recent 4 years, the nominal annual
returns on the UK equity market have been 13.70%, 35.80%, 45.14%, and
-8.88% respectively. What is the sample variance?
Answer:
1
s2 = × ((0.1370 − 0.2144)2 + (0.3580 − 0.2144)2
3
+ (0.4514 − 0.2144)2 + (−0.0888 − 0.2144)2 ) = 0.0582
√ √
Thus, s = s2 = 0.0582 = 0.2412 or 24.12%.
The sign of the covariance shows the tendency in the linear relationship
between the variables.
The actual value of the covariance is not very meaningful because its
measurement is extremely sensitive to the scale of the two variables.
Cov (X , Y )
ρX ,Y = Corr (X , Y ) = p
Var (X )Var (Y )
Alternatively,
p
Cov (X , Y ) = ρX ,Y × Var (X )Var (Y ) = ρX ,Y × σX σY
It shows the direction and strength between the variables and, in fact, it
is the normalized version of the covariance:
2 Take part in a gamble, with 50% chance of winning £100 and a 50%
chance of getting nothing.
The investor is risk averse because she/he does not want to take the
chance of getting anything at all.
In general, investors are likely to shy away from risky investments for a
lower, but guaranteed return.
That is why risk averse investors wants to minimize their risk for the
same amount of return, and maximize their return for the same amount
of risk.
The gamble has an uncertain outcome, but with the same expected
value as the guaranteed outcome.
Thus, an investor choosing the gamble means that the investor gets
extra “utility” from the uncertainty associated with the gamble.
Indeed, risk seekers will accept less return because of the risk that
accompanies the gamble.
Risk neutrality means that the investor cares only about return and not
about risk, so higher return investments are more desirable even if they
come with higher risk.
We can therefore say that the utility (or satisfaction or happiness) that an
investor derives from the guaranteed outcome of £50 is greater than the
utility (s)he derives from the alternative
All securities that lie on the same indifference curve, give an investor
equal satisfaction thereby making the investor indifferent.
The greater the slope, the higher is the risk aversion of the investor as a
greater increment in return is required to accept a given increase in risk.
The most risk-averse investor has an indifference curve with the greatest
slope.
An investor that is less risk averse has a much flatter indifference curve
as their demand for increased returns as risk increases is much less
acute.
Gold has a lower return and a higher volatility than the FTSE100.
Gold has a lower return and a higher volatility than the FTSE100.
PN
Portfolio weights sum to one, i.e. i=1 wi = 1, where N is the total
number of assets in the portfolio.
Panagiotis Panagiotou (Greenwich) Modern Portfolio Theory FINA1082 (Term 1) 30 / 63
Buy a Portfolio with Gold
This result is due to this negative correlation with the stock market
returns.
What it means is there are times when the stock market does very
poorly and those tend to be times when gold does well.
Investors value this feature as in bad times when the stock market
collapses it is quite useful to have into your portfolio an asset which
somehow mitigates that collapse, makes the losses smaller and reduces
your downside risk.
Assume we invest 40% of our capital in gold and the remaining 60% in
FTSE100:
More generally, the portfolio return is simply the weighted sum of the
individual asset returns where the weights represent the percentage out
of the total capital invested in each asset.
Panagiotis Panagiotou (Greenwich) Modern Portfolio Theory FINA1082 (Term 1) 33 / 63
How do we calculate portfolio risk?
If it was linear:
Assume two risky assets. We form a portfolio with w1 being the weight of
asset 1 and w1 + w2 = 1 ⇒ w2 = 1 − w1 being the weight of asset 2.
RP = w1 R1 + w2 R2
Proof:
The portfolio expected return is equal to the weighted sum of the returns
on the individual assets in the portfolio.
N
X
E(RP ) = wi E(Ri )
i=1
N
X N
X N
X
= wi2 Var (Ri ) + wi wj Cov (Ri , Rj )
i=1 i=1 j=1,i6=j
N
X N
X
= wi2 σi2 + wi wj σi,j
i=1 j=1,i6=j
N N N
X 1 X X 1
≈ ( )2 σi2 + ( )2 σi,j
N N
i=1 i=1 j=1,i6=j
1 2 1
=( ) NVar + ( )2 (N 2 − N)Cov
N N
1 1
=( )Var + (1 − )Cov ≈ Cov
N N
Panagiotis Panagiotou (Greenwich) Modern Portfolio Theory FINA1082 (Term 1) 39 / 63
The Relative Importance of Variances and Covariance
I invest exactly the same amount of money in all of these assets (i.e. not
taking a particularly strong stand on any asset);
The only thing that matters, is the covariance between the assets.
And by diversifying, what you get is that you eliminate any risk which is
specific to a particular stock.
Diversification may allow for the same portfolio expected return with
reduced risk.
The diversified investor would want to be compensated for the risk that
(s)he can not avoid by diversification!
The set of assets, in which I am allowed to invest given the asset universe
available to me, is known in the literature as the envelope curve.
The Minimum variance frontier is the set of portfolios that minimizes the
portfolio standard deviation for a given level of expected retutn.
The Efficient frontier is the set of portfolios that maximizes the return for
a given portfolio standard deviation.
The efficient frontier is the upward sloping part of the envelope curve,
starting from the minimum variance portfolio.
Any point above (and to the left) of point T is not achievable, and point
below (and to the right) is inefficient.
The tangency portfolio defines the set of risky assets, which can be
combined with the risk-free asset, and defines the best set of
opportunities in terms of risk-return trade-off that are achievable in a
world where you can invest in the risk-free asset.
Panagiotis Panagiotou (Greenwich) Modern Portfolio Theory FINA1082 (Term 1) 54 / 63
Two Fund Separation Theorem
Then all investors, regardless of taste, risk preferences, and initial wealth
will hold a combination of two assets: a risk-free asset and an efficient
(optimal) portfolio of risky assets (i.e. the tangency portfolio).
The two-fund separation theorem implies that all investors will hold the
same portfolio of risky assets.
If, in equilibrium, all investors are holding the market portfolio of risky
assets, it is natural to measure risk with reference to this portfolio.
The point of tangency (M) between the CML and the efficient frontier is
known as the Market Portfolio.
Investors are able to move along the CML by changing the proportions
of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio.
Given the risk-free asset, the CML becomes the new efficient frontier
(CML portfolios dominate those on the efficient frontier).
Risk is not about the standard deviation of the individual asset but it is
about covariance risk, that is the source of risk that matters. It is the
marginal contribution of an asset when you add it to your portfolio.
With a riskless asset, all investors should hold the tangency portfolio.