LT - & Xii - Neet - GT - 3 (Set - 1) QP - 21.04.2024

IIT/NEET – ACADEMY
NEET GRAND TEST - 3

Date : 21.04.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII & LT SET – 1 Max. Marks : 720
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the
answer sheet.
Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
The question paper consists of four parts (Physics, Chemistry, Botany &
Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.
In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q
Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS
CORRECT.
Candidate have attempt all the questions in Section-A and only 10 questions in
Section-B;
Marking Scheme :
Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks
Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks
For each question in every part you will be awarded4 Marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.
******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT - 3 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-21.04.2024
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
The Vander Waal’s equation of state for real gases is given as  P  2  V  b   nRT
a
1.
 V 
which of the following terms has dimensions different from that of energy
a ab
1) PV 2) 2 3) 2 4) bP
V V
2. A photosensitive metallic surface has work function hv 0 . If photons of energy
2hv0 fall on this surface the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of
4  10 6 m / s . When the photon energy is increases to 5hv0 then maximum velocity
of photo electron will be
3) 16  10 m / s 4) 8  10 m / s
6 6
1) 2  10 6 m / s 2) 2  10 7 m / s
3. A mass of 1kg is suspended by a string. It is first lifted up with an acceleration of
4.9m/s2 and then lowered down with same acceleration. The ratio of tensions in
the string in the two cases, respectively is (g = 9.8m/s2).
1) 1 : 3 2) 2 : 1 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 2
4. A particle of mass 1kg is moving in S.H.M. with an amplitude 0.02m and
a frequency of 60Hz. The maximum force acting on the particle is (in newton’s)
1) 144 2 2) 188 2 3) 288 2 4) None of these
5. A forward biased diode is
6. The graph AB shown in figure is a plot of temperature of a body in degree Celsius

and degree Fahrenheit, then
1) slope of line AB is 9/5 2) slope of line AB is 5/9

3) slope of line AB is 1/9 4) slope of line AB is 3/9
7. Two long straight wires, each carrying a current I in opposite directions are
separated by a distance R. The magnetic induction at a point mid-way between
the wires is
I 20 I I
1) Zero 2) 0 3) 4) 0
R R 4 R
8. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is
compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again
reduced to half. Then
1) compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be
done
2) compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same
amount of work
3) which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through
adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas
4) compressing the gas isothermally will require more work t be done
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

9. Three copper wires are there with lengths and cross-sectional areas as
 l , A  ;  2l ,  and  , 2 A  . Resistance:
A l
 2 2 
A
1) minimum for the wire of cross-ection are
2
2) minimum for the wire of cross-ection are A
3) minimum for the wire of cross-ection are 2A
4) same for all the three cases
10. The elongation of a wire on the surface of the earth is 104 m . The same wire of
same dimensions is elongated by 6  105 m on another planet. The acceleration
due togravity on the planet will be _____ ms2 . (Take acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of earth  10ms 2 )
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
2
11. A square aluminium (shear modulus is 25 10 Nm ) slab of side 60 cm and
9
thickness 15cm is subjected to a shearing force (on its square face) of 18.0 104 N .
The lower square face is riveted to the floor. The displacement of the upper edge
is ______ m.
1) 3 2) 30 3) 300 4) 3000
4
12. A wooden sphere floats on suface of water, its th part is submerged in water.
5
The density of wood is:
1) 1.4  103 kg / m 3 2) 1.5  103 kg / m 3 3) 0.8  103 kg / m 3 4) 1.7  103 kg / m 3
13. The mass of a ball is four times the mass of another ball. When these balls are
separated by a distance of 10cm, the gravitational force between them is
6.67 107 N . The masses of the two balls are (in kg)
1) 10, 20 2) 5, 20 3)20, 30 4) 20, 40
14. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration
due to gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the
earth. If the radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be
1 1
1) 2R 2) 4R 3) R 4) R
4 2
15. A cylindrical resonance tube open at both ends has fundamental frequency ‘f’ in
air. If half of the length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of
the air column will be
1) f/2 2) f 3) 3f/2 4) 2f
16. A solid metallic sphere is rotating about an axis passing through its diameter.
Suddenly its volume is increased by 6% without change its mass, then the
change in its angular speed will be ……
1) -2% 2) +2% 3) -4% 4) +4%
17. If a spherical mirror is immersed in a liquid. It’s focal length will
1) increase 2) decrease
3) remain unchanged 4) depend on the nature of liquid
18. In YDSE, the ratio of maximum intensity at a point to the intensity at same point
when one slit is closed
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1
19. Assertion (A) : Acceleration of charged particle in non- uniform electric field does
not depend on velocityof charged particle.
Reason (R) : Charge in an invariant quantity, i.e. amount of charge on particle
does not depend on frame of reference.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.

20. The spatial distribution of the electric field due to charges (A, B)is shown in the
figure. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1) A is +ve and B – ve and |A| > |B| 2) A is –ve and B +ve and |A| > |B|
3) Both are +ve but A > B 4) Both are –ve but A > B
21. The root mean square speed of molecules of ideal gases at the same temperature
are
1) Directly proportional to the square root of the molecular weight
2) Inversely proportional to the square root of the molecular weight
3) Directly proportional to the molecular weight
4) Inversely proportional to the molecular weight
22. A wire of uniform cross-section A, length l and resistance R is bent into a
complete circle; the resistance between any two of diametrically opposite points
will be :
R R R
1) 2) 3) 4) 4R
2 4 8
23. A uniform metallic rod rotates about its perpendicular bisector with constant
angular speed. If it is heated uniformly to raise its temperature slightly,
1) its speed of rotation increases 2) its speed of rotation decreases
3) its speed of rotation remains same
4) its speed increases because its moment of inertia increases
24. Two light sources are said to be coherent when, their
1) Amplitude are equal and have constant phase difference
2) Wavelengths are equal
3) Intensities are equal
4) Frequencies are equal and have constant phase difference
25. When a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, the direction of induced e.m.f.
changes once in each
1 1
1) revolution 2) revolution 3)1 revolution 4) 2 revolution
4 2
26. The reading of spring balance when a block is suspended from it in air, is 60N.
This reading is changed to 40N when the block is immersed in water. The relative
density of the block is
2 3
1) 3 2) 3) 6 4)
3 2
27. Which of the following has longest wave length?
1) Ultraviolet light 2)  -rays 3) Visible radiation 4) Infrared radiation
28. The displacement of a S.H.M. doing particle when K.E. = P.E. (amplitude = 4cm)
is
1
1) 2 2cm 2) 2cm 3) cm 4) 2cm
2
29. A simple pendulum performs S.H.M. about x = 0 with an amplitude a, and time
period T. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be
a 3 a 3 a 3 2 a
1)  2) 3) 4)
T 2T T T

30. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram.
Match the following:

Column-I Column-II
(P) Process I A) Adiabatic
(Q) Process II B) Isobaric
(R) Process III C) Isochoric
(S) Process IV D) Isothermal
1) P-A, Q-C, R-D, S-B 2) P-C, Q-A, R-D, S-B
3) P-C, Q-D, R-B, S-A 4) P-D, Q-B, R-A, S-C
31. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its own axis is the same as its
moment of inertia about an axis passing through its centre of gravity and
perpendicular to its length. The relation between its length L and radius R is
1) L 2 R 2) L 3 R 3) L  3R 4) LR
1
32. A convex mirror of focal length f forms an image which is times the object. The
n
distance of the object from the mirror is
n 1  n 1
1)  n  1 f 2)  f 3)  f 4)  n  1 f
 n   n 
33. A coil having n turns and resistance R  is connected with a galvanometer of
resistance 4 R  . This combination is moved in time t seconds from a magnetic
field W1 weber to W2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
W  W1 n (W2  W1 ) (W  W1 ) n(W2  W1 )
1)  2 2)  3)  2 4) 
5 Rnt 5 Rt Rnt Rt
34. A wire of length L metre carrying a current of I ampere is bent in the form of a
circle. Its magnetic moment is
 
1) IL2 / 4 A-m 2  
2) I  L2 / 4 A-m2  
3) 2IL2 /  A-m2  
4) IL2 / 4 A-m2
35. Two bodies are thrown up at angle of 45o and 60o respectively, with the
horizontal. If both bodies attain same vertical height, then the ratio of velocities
with which these are thrown is
2 2 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 2 2
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
36. If energy E, velocity V and time T are taken as fundamental quantities, the
dimensional formula for surface tension is

1) EV 2T 2  
2) E 2VT 2  
3) EV 2T 1  
4) E 2V 2T 1 
37. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed ‘v0’ at an elevation angle of . From the
same point and at the same instant, a person starts running with a constant
'v '
speed 0 to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball? If yes, what
2
should be the angle of projection ?
1) No 2) Yes, 30o 3) Yes, 60o 4) Yes, 45o

38. A uniform cable of mass M and length L is placed on a horizontal surface such
that its   th part is hanging below the edge of the surface. To lift the hanging
1
n
part of the cable upto the surface, the work done should be
2MgL MgL MgL
1) 2
2) nMgL 3) 2
4)
n n 2n2
39. Two blocks of masses 3kg and 5kg are connected by a metal wire going over a
75
smooth pulley. The breaking stress of the metal is Nm2 . What is the


minimum radius of the wire? take g = 10 ms 2

1
1) m 2) 2 m 3) 2 m 4) 4 m
2
40. A mass less rod BD is suspended by two identical massless strings AB and CD of
equal lengths. A block of mass m is suspended at point P such that BP is equal
to x, if the fundamental frequency of the left wire is twice the fundamental
freuquence of right wire, then the value of x is :
l
1)
5
l
2)
4
4l
3)
5
3l
4)
4
41. Assertion (A) : When the lift moves with uniform velocity the man in the lift will
feel weightlessness.
Reason (R) : In downward retarded motion of lift, apparent weight of a body
decreases.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
42. A photon and an electron have equal energy E. photon / electron is proportional to
1) E 2) 1 / E 3) 1 / E 4)Does not depend upon E
43. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) When capacitors are connected in parallel the effective capacitance is less
than the individual capacitance.
(b) The capacitances of a parallel plate capacitor can be increased by decreasing
the separation between the plates.
(c) When capacitors are connected in series the effective capacitance is less than
the least of the individual capacities
(d) In a parallel plate capacitor the electrostatic energy is stored on the plates.
1) (a) and (b) 2) (a) and (c) 3) (c) and (d) 4) (b) and (c)

44. Match the terms of Column I with the items of Column II and choose the correct
option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A) Diamagnetic (p)   0 , r  1 and   1
B) Paramagnetic (q) 1    0, 0   r  1 and   0
C) Ferromagnetic (r) 0     (  small positive number ),1   r  1   and   0
Codes :
A B C A B C
1) q r p 2) r p q
3) p q r 4) p r q
45. Match List I with List II :
List-I List-II
a) Electric potential inside a (e) Inversely proportional to square of
Conducting charged sphere the distance (r2)
b) Electric potential outside the (f) Directly proportional to distance
conducting charged sphere (r) from the centre
c) Electric field inside the non (g) Constant
conducting charged sphere
d) Electric field outside a conducting (h) Inversely proportional to distance
charged sphere (r)
1) a-f, b-e, c-g, d-h 2) a-e, b-f, c-h, d-g
3) a-h, b-g, c-e, d-f 4) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-e
46. A beam of mixture of  particles and protons are accelerated through
same potential difference before entering into the magnetic field of strength B. If
r1 = 5cm, then r2 is
1) 5 cm 2) 5 2cm 3) 10 2cm 4) 20 cm
47. An oscillating LC circuit consist of a 75 mH inductor and a 1.2  F capacitor. If

the maximum charge to the capacitor is 2.7 C . The maximum current in the
circuit will be ________mA.
1) 8 2) 9 3) 7 4) 6
48. The efficiency of a transformer is 98%. The primary voltage and current are
200V and 6A. If the secondary voltage is 100 V, the secondary current is
1) 11.76 A 2) 12.25 A 3) 3.06 A 4) 2.94 A
49. The frequency of first line of Balmer series in hydrogen atom is v0 . The frequency
of line emitted by singly ionized helium atom is:
1) 2v0 2) 4v0 3) v0 / 2 4) v0 / 4
50. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a forward
resistance of 30 and with infinite backward resistance. If the battery is 3V, the
curent through the 50 resistance (in ampere) is
1) zero 2) 0.01 3) 0.02 4) 0.03

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
51. The vapour pressure of two pure liquids A and B are 450 mm Hg and 700 mm Hg
respectively. If the vapour pressure of a given solution of these two liquids is
600 mm Hg, then the mole fraction of liquid ‘B’ in vapoure phase is _____
1) 0.4 2) 0.6 3) 0.3 4) 0.7
52. Mole fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. KH value of N2 is 400 bar at 27o C . Then the
number of moles of N2 that can be dissolved in 10 mole of water at 27o C is _____
at 5 atmospheric pressure of air.
1) 0.01 2) 0.1 3) 0.09 4) 0.125
53. An organic compound contains C, H, N, S and Cl. For detection of chlorine in the
compound, the Sodium extract of the compound is at first heated with a few
drops of concentrated HNO3 and then silver nitrate solution is added to get a
precipitate of AgCl. This digestion with HNO3, prior to addition of AgNO3, is
required
1) To prevent the formation NO2
2) To convert the CN- and S2- ions to volatile HCN and H2S, otherwise, they will
interfere with the test by forming AgCN and Ag2S.
3) To prevent the hydrolysis of NaCN and Na2S
4) To form S4N4 which prevent formation of AgCl with AgNO3
54. For the process
X  g   e   X g  ; H  x and X g   X  g   e  ; H  y
Select the correct statement :
1) ionisation energy of X g  is y 2) electron affinity of X(g) is x
3) electron affinity of X(g) is –y 4) all are correct statements
55. In which of the following arrangements, the order is not correctly given according
to the property indicated against it?
1) Li < Na < K < Rb ; Increasing metallic character
2) B < C < N < O ; Increasing first ionization energy
3) Si < P < Cl < S ; Incresing second ionisation potential
4) Al 3  Mg 2  F   O2 …. Increasing ionic size
56. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
O
COOH
OHC
1) 5-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexane carboxyldehyde
2) 2 – carboxy – 5 – formyl cyclohexane
3) 4 – formyl – 2 – oxocyclohexane carboxylic acid
4) 4 – carboxy – 3 - oxocyclohexanal
57. The energy required to melt 1g ice is 33.135J. The number of quanta of radiation
of frequency 5 x 1013 sec-1 that must be absorbed to melt 10g ice is
1) 1022 2) 1023 3) 1020 4) 1024
58. Among the following statements.
A) Degenerate orbitals of a given subshell differ in their orientation
B) A 4P orbital can accommodate 6 electrons.
C) The presence of five unparired electrons in Mn2+ ion is according to Hund’s
rule.
1) All A, B and C are correct. 2) Only A and B are correct.
3) Only A and C are correct. 4) Only B and C are correct.
59. Which of the following molecule has highest enol content?

60. Assertion (A) : 3 group cations (Al or Fe3+) are precipitated by NH4OH in the
rd 3+
presence of NH4Cl.
Reason (R) : For Al(OH)3 and Fe(OH)3, the Ksp values are relatively low.
61. Na2CO3 cannot be used in place of (NH4)2CO3 for the precipitation of V group,
because
1) Na  interferes in the detection of V group
2) conc. of CO32 is very low
3) Na will react with acid radicals
4) Mg will be precipitated
62. To the given salt solution aqueous BaCl2 solution is added. Formation of white
precipitate confirms the presence of _________ ion.
1) Cl  2) NO3 3) NO2 4) SO42
63. Which among the following can form intermolecular H-bonding?
1) A only 2) B and C only 3) B, C and D only 4) A and C only

64. The electronic configuration of carbon is 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2 . There are 12 electrons in C2
molecule. The correct electronic configuration of C2 molecule according to
molecular orbital theory.
      
1)  1s 2  *1s 2  2s 2  *2s 2  2 pz2  2 px2
2)  1s  *1s  2s  * 2s  2 p   2 p 
2 2 2 2 2
x
2
y
3)  1s  *1s  2s  *2s  2 p  2 p   2 p 

2 2 2 2 2
z
1
x
1
y
4)  1s  *1s  2s  * 2s  2 p   2 p 

2 2 2 2 2
x
1
y
65. In which of the following molecules the central atom undergoes sp3 hybridisation
but shape is Pyramidal?
1) BrCl3 2) SO3 3) NH3 4) CCl4
66. Statement –1 : p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower boiling point than that of
o-hydroxybenzoic acid.
Statement –2 : o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement-1
3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
67. Among the followingncarboxylic acid, which one has highest Ka value.
1) PhCOOH 2) CH3COOH 3) phCH2COOH 4) HCOOH
68. Which of the following 13th group element used for measuring high temperatures
by using liquid thermometer?
1) B 2) Al 3) Ga 4) In
69. Which of the following pairs of compounds(both) are having electrostatic bond
(ionic bond)?
1) SiF4, SnF4 2) SnF4, PbF4 3) GeF4 & PbF4 4) SiCl4, CCl4

70. Which one of the following is a free-radical substitution reaction?
71. Using H+ ion as catalyst, which one of the following reaction(s) produces
ethylbenzene (PhEt)?
1) H 3C  CH 2OH  C6 H 6 2) CH 3  CH  CH 2  C6 H 6
3) H 2C  CH 2  C6 H 6 4) Both 1 and 3
72. An acidic buffer contains equal concentrations of acid and salt. The dissociation
constant of acid is 10-5. The pH of the buffer solution is
1) 5 2) 9 3) 4.49 4) 5.5
73. Which of the following does not contain one mole electrons?
1) 1.8g of H2 2) 1.7g of NH3 3) 1.6g of CH4 4) 2.8g of CO
74. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35ºC and
contains 98% by weight-
(1) 4.18 M (2) 8.14 M 3) 18.4 M (4) 18 M
75. Average oxidation number of carbon in C3O2, Mg2C3 are respectively:
4 4 4 4 2 2 2 4
1)  ,  2)  ,  3)  ,  4)  , 
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
CH 3  CH  CH 2  Br
76. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for | .
C2 H 5
1) 1 – Bromo – 2 – ethylpropane 2) 1 – Bromo – 2 – ethyl – 2 – methylethane
3) 1 – Bromo – 2 – methylbutane 4) 2 – Methyl – 1 - bromobutane
77. Which of the following is halogen exchange reaction?
78. The boiling points of H 2O , H 2 S , H 2 Se and H 2Te are in the following order
1) H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te 2) H 2O  H 2Te  H 2 Se  H 2 S
3) H 2Te  H 2 Se  H 2 S  H 2O 4) H 2 S  H 2O  H 2Te  H 2 Se
79. Halogen that absorbs lowest wavelength from visible region to exhibit colour?
1) Cl2 2) F2 3) Br2 4) I 2
80. In a reaction, 2A  P , the concentration of ‘A’ decreases from 0.5M to 0.4M in
10min. Then the rate of reaction is _____ M min-1.
1) 0.01 2) 0.005 3) 0.02 4) 0.1
81. For a reaction, A → product, the rate constant is 2  10 min1 and initial conc. of
3
reactant is 0.4M. The initial rate of the reaction is ________M.min-1.

1) 5  103 2) 8  104 3) 8  103 4) 5  104
82. The H+ ion concentration of a solution is 4 105 M . Then the OH  ion
concentration of the same solution is
1) 4 105 M 2) 2.5 109 M 3) 1.0 107 M 4) 2.5 1010 M

83. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
1) 2-methyl-4-hexanamine 2) 4-methyl-2-pentanamine
3) 2-methyl-4-aminohexane 4) 5-methyl-3-aminohexane
84. The heats of combustion of carbon, hydrogen and propane are -398, -286 and
-2220kJ/mol respectively. Then the heat of formation of propane is _____kJ/mol.
1) -103 2) +103 3) -326 4) +326
85. Statement - I: The heat absorbed during the isothermal expansion of an ideal
gas against vacuum is zero.
Statement - II: In free expansion of a gas, Pext=0.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
SECTION – B
86. Assertion (A) : In 3d-series zinc has lower enthalpy of atomization than other
elements of same series.
Reason (R) : In zinc only two valence electrons participate in metallic bonding
while in other element more than two valence electorns participate in metallic
bonding.
87. Which of the following is likely to show +2 oxidation state in its compounds?
1) La(Z=57) 2) Eu(Z=63) 3) Ce(Z=58) 4) Gd(Z=64)
88. In the reaction,
If one equivalent of each is taken, the major product will be
1) 2)
3) 4)
89. Select the correct statement for haloform reaction.

1) CH3O – group undergoes this reaction
2) CH3CO – group of aldehdyes and ketones and CH3CH(OH) – group of alcohols
take part in this reaction
3) Sodium hypohalite is used as a reagent in this reaction
4) Both (2) and (3)
90. Which among the following complexes is diamagnetic in nature?
1) [Mn(H2O)6]Cl3 2) K4[Fe(CN)6] 3) K3[Fe(CN)6] 4) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
91. Which of the following complex can show optical isomerism?
1)  Zn  H 2O  4  Cl2 2) Co  NH3 4 Cl2  Cl
3) Co  NH 3 6  Cl3 4)  Fe  H 2O  NH 3  Py  ClBrI 

92. Which among the complex species has longest ‘C-O’ bond length?
1) Cr  CO 6 

2) V  CO 6 

3)  Mn  CO 6  4) C-O bond length is same in all the given complexes
93. Solution containing 0.1 N NH4OH and 0.1 N NH4Cl has the pH of 9.25. Then pKb
of NH4OH is
1) 9.25 2) 4.75 3) 3.75 4) 8.25
94.
95. Which of the following compound is lest reactive for electrophilic aromatic
substitution?
96. Which of the following would be the most readily dehydrated in basic conditions?
97. Which of the following reactions will not give a primary amine?
1) CH 3CONH 2 
Br2 / KOH
 2) CH 3CN 
LiAlH 4

3) CH 3 NC 
LiAlH 4
 4) CH 3CONH 2 
LiAlH 3

98 Single electrode potential depends on which of the following factor(s).
1) the nature of the electrode
2) temperature
3) concentration of the ion with respect to which it is reversible
4) all the above
99. During the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl, the total volume of the gases liberated is
2.24 litre at STP. If the current strength is 50amp then the time of electrolysis is
____ minutes.
1) 3.217 2)6.434 3) 3.862 4) 2.68
100. Which of the following product formed when glucose oxidation with conc.HNO3
1) Gluconic acid 2) Saccharic acid 3) Sulphuric acid 4) Glyconic acid
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Amino acids are added one by one and translated into polypeptide sequences.
This reaction is dictated by
1) mRNA 2) tRNA 3) DNA 4) Ribosomes
102. Choose the incorrect pair.
1) Chrysophytes - Wallessprotists 2) Monerans – Eubacteria
3) Protozoans - Eukaryotes 4) Lichens - Composite orgnisms
103. Cells that stay in Go. phase permanently and fail to proliferate are
1) skin cells 2) gut cells 3) heart cells 4) liver cells

104. Identify the mis-match with respect to physiological effects of phytohormones
1) Xylem differentiation — Auxin 2) Adventitious shoot growth — Gibberellins
3) Bolting in cabbage — Gibberellins 4) Sprouting of potato tuber — Ethylene
105. Zea mays (maize/corn) is associated with the following characters given below.
Choose the option with correct set of characters:
A) Stilt roots B) Parallel venation
C) Anemophily D) Monoecious condition
E) Endospermic seeds F) Single cotyledon ‘scutellum’
1) A, B, C, D, E, F 2) A, C, E only
3) C, D, E, F only 4) B, C, F only
106. Read the following statements and choose the correct statement regarding DNA:
1) Two nucleotides of opposite strands are linked by phosphodiester bonds
2) The pitch of the DNA is 36°
3) The distance between the successive base pairs would be 3.4nm
4) B - DNA consist of ten base pairs in each turn of helix
107. Assertion (A): Plasmids and bacteriophages could replicate within the bacterial
cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA
Reason(R): Plasmid DNA and DNA of bacteriophage consists autonomous
replication sequence.
1) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false 4) Both A and R are false
108. Which of the following is untrue about sunflower?
1) has heterogamous head 2) Ray florets have only pistil
3) Fruit is caryopsis 4) Single seeded fruit
109. Identify the fungus that does not have sex organs but shows sexual reproduction
1) Rhizopus 2) Mucor 3) Penicillium 4) Agaricus
110. Which of the following is an example of lateral meristem not formed by
dedifferentiation
1) Interfascicular cambium 2) Intrafascicular cambium
3) Cork cambium 4) Vascular cambium of dicot root
111. Centrioles undergo duplication during _A_ of _B_ and begin to move towards
opposite poles of the cell during _C_
(A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C)
1) S Phase Interphase Prophase 2) S phase Interphase Anaphase
3) Prophase Mitosis Metaphase 4) Prophase Mitosis Anaphase
112. How many ATP’s are generated in the process of complete oxidation of glucose
aerobically through E.T.S.
1) 38 2) 40 3) 24 4) 34
113. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is
dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant
that is rrtt,
1) 25% will be tall with red fruit 2) 50% will be tall with red fruit
3) 75% will be tall with red fruit 4) All the offsprings will be tall with red fruit
114. Find the wrongly matched pair?
1) Process of splicing — Dominance of RNA world
2) Split gene arrangement — Ancient feature of the genome
3) Presence of exons — Reminiscent of antiquity
4) Lac operon — Shows negative and positive regulation
115. Read the following statements and choose those in which fungi has a role in
human welfare
a) Penicillin b) Statins c) Citric acid d) Cyclosporin-A
f) Bread e) Curd
1) All the above except a 2) All the above except d
3) All the above except e 4) All the above except b

116. Match the following:
Column – I (Plant) Column – II (Placentation )
(A) Dianthus (I) Basal
(B) Marigold (II) Free central
(C) Argemone (III) Axile
(D) Lemon (IV) Parietal
(E) Pea (V) Marginal
.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
.
1) IV II I III V 2) I IV III II V
3) II I IV III V 4) III IV I II V
117. Read the following statements:
A) Leaves - Alternate phyllotaxy B) Sepal 4, free, 2 + 2
C) Petals 4, free, cruciform corolla D) Stamens : 6, (4 long and 2 short)
E) Carpels: 2, parietal placentation G) Seed: Non endospermic
The above characters are related to
1) China rose 2) Pea 3) Mustard 4) Lily
118. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed in
1) Dicot stem and monocot stem 2) Dicot root and monocot root
3) Monocot stem and leaves 4) Monocot root and leaves
119. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction
can be separated by
1) centrifugation 2) polymerase chain reaction
3) electrophoresis 4) restriction mapping
120. Sutton and Boveri used to explain Mendel's law's and used
1) Chromosome structure 2) Chromosome shape
3) Chromosome movement in meiosis 4) Allelic position
121. Commercially used natural hydrocolloid substance is produced by
1) Spiruilina 2) Gracilaria 3) Chlorella 4) Chara
122. The daughter cell which has withdrawn from cell cycle after a division shows the
following events in its development at cellular level
A. Plasmatic growth B. Cell expansion
C. Cell differentiation D. Cell maturation
1) A and B only 2) C and D only 3) A, B and D only 4) A, B, C and D
123. Identify the statements as true(T) or false(F)
I. Lac Z gene codes for   galactosidase enzyme which is a selectable marker in a
plasmid.
II. pBR322 contains two antibiotic resistant genes as selectable marker.
III. Biolistic or gene gun method is suitable for vector less gene transfer in
animals IV. Lysozyme enzyme is used for isolating gene of interest from fungal
cell.
1) I — T, II — T, III — F, IV — F 2) I — F, II — F, III — T, IV - T
3) I — T, II — T, III — T, — F 4) I — F, II — T, III — T, — F
124. Statement-I (S-I): Photorespiration does not occur in C4 plants
Statement-II (S-II): In C4 plants there is a mechanism that increases the 02 at
the enzyme site
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
125. Read the following statements and select the option with all correct statements:
A) In liver worts and mosses, the gametophytes are free living
B) Both Cycas and Marchantia are dioecious plants
C) In all seed bearing plants endosperm is post fertilization product
D) Sexual reproduction in Fucus and Volvox is Oogamous
1) A, C and D 2) A, B and D 3) B and D 4) C and D

List — I List – II
a) Pyrenoid 1) Golgi apparatus
b) central Hub 2) Chloroplast
c) Hydrolytic enzymes 3) Centriole
d) Cisternae with cis and trans faces 4) Lysosome
The correct match is:
1) a — 2, b — 3, c — 4, d — 1 2) a — 2, b — 1, c — 4, d — 3
3) a— 3, b — 2, c — 1, d— 4 4) a — 4, b — 3, c — 1, d — 2
127. Which of the following trait is expressed in only homozygous condition?
a) Yellow seed (cotyledon) colour b) Green pod colour
c) Inflated pod shape d) Terminal position of flower
e) Yellow pod colour
1) Only e 2) a, b and c 3) a,b,c and e 4) d and e
128. Find the incorrect match if 16 chromosomes are present in somatic cell of a plant
1) Zygote: 16 2) Perisperm: 8
3) Nucellus: 16 4) Generative cell in pollen: 8
129. Virus with RNA as genetic material is seen in all except
1) TMV 2) QB bacteriophage
3) HIV 4)  x174 bacteriophage
130. Read the following statements:
A. The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins
B. The single chlorophyll a molecule forms the reaction centre
1) Both A and B are correct 2) Only A is correct
3) Only B is correct 4) Both A and B are incorrect
131. Which one among the following is false?
1) Carrot and turnip store food materials in tap roots
2) Sweet potato and Asparagus stores food materials in adventitious roots
3) Ginger and turmeric stores food materials in underground tap roots
4) Pneumatophores in Rhizophora are negatively geotropic
132. Read the following steps involved in translation and arrange them in correct
sequence:
A) Chain elongation B) Initiation
C) Charging of tRNA D) Termination
E) Activation of amino acids F) Formation of peptide bond
1) B-E-A-C-D-F 2) E-C-A-F-B-D 3) B-E-F-C-A-D 4) E-C-B-F-A-D
133. If a mother cell of mitosis at G2 phase contains 14 chromosomes and 4C amount
of DNA, then each of its daughter cell will receive.
1) 14 chromosomes, 2C amount of DNA 2) 14 chromosomes, 4C amount of
DNA 3) 7 chromosomes, 2C amount of DNA 4) 28 chromosomes, 4C amount
of DNA
134. Which one among the following exemplify modified leaf?
1) Phylloclade of Opuntia 2) Thorns in Bougainvillia
3) Phyllode in Australian acacia 4) Both 1 & 2
135. Statement - I: Oxygen serves as the terminal electron acceptor during oxidative
phosphorylation
Statement - II: NADP+ is the terminal electron acceptor in non-cyclic
photophosphorylation
SECTION – B
136. Assertion (A): Number of bivalents are half to the chromosome number in a
species
Reason (R): Bivalent represents a pair of homologous chromosomes
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false 4) Both A and R are false

List — I List — II
(A) Polynucleotides (i) Rubber
(B) Polypeptides (ii) RNA
(C) Polysaccharides (iii) GLUT-4
(D) Polymeric substance (iv) Glycogen
The correct match is:
1) A — iii, B — I, C —iv, D — ii 2) A — ii, B — iii, C —iv, D — i
3) A — ii, B — i, C— iii, D — iv 4) A — iii, B — ii, C —iv, D — i
138. S-I: Transcriptional unit is DNA flanked on either side by promoter and
terminator S-II: Translational unit is mRNA flanked on either side by initiator
codon and terminator codon
139. Pericycle of roots is the site for origin of all except
1) Root hairs 2) Lateral roots 3) Vascular cambium 4) Both 1 & 2
140. Mobile electron carriers in ETS of mitochondrial membrane are
1) PQ, PC 2) UQ, Cyt C 3) PQ, Cyt C 4) PC, CoQ
141. The following events are/is not a part of 'Pollen Pistil interaction'
1) Germination of pollen grain 2) Growth of pollen tube through style
3) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule 4) Fertilisation
142. Which one of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t PCR?
1) It is based on principle of antigen-antibody interaction
2) In these multiple copies of gene of interest is synthesized in vitro
3) It uses two sets of primers. 4) It is also called as polymerase chain reaction.
143. Axillary bud is formed from
1) apical meristem of shoot 2) intercalary meristem
3) vascular cambium 4) cork cambium
144. Wasteful oxygenation reaction occurs in
1) mesophyll cells of C3 plants 2) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
3) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants 4) Bundle sheath cells of C3 plants
145. Which of the following reactions are catalysed in a template independent
manner?
1) Synthesis of mRNA by polynucleotide phosphorylase
2) 3'- tailing (poly adenylation) in hnRNA processing
3) Ligation of DNA fragments by DNA ligase
4) All of these
146. Which one among the following is NOT true?
1) Cassia - Zygomorphic flowers and imbricate activation
2) China rose - Actinomorphic flowers and twisted aestivation
3) Calotropis - Opposite phyllotaxy and valvate aestivation
4) Guava Alternate phyllotaxy and half inferior ovary
147. Find the correct statement among the following:
1) Microbodies are found only in plant cells
2) Nucleolus is membrane bounded and involved in rRNAsysnthesis
3) Centrosome holds two chromatids of a chromosome together during metaphase
4) Both mitochondria and chloroplast have protein biosynthetic mechanisms due
to the presence of DNA, RNA and 70 `S' ribosomes
A. Griffith 1. Codon is triplet
B. Gamow 2. Double helical DNA
C. Watson and Crick 3. Induced mutation
D. Meselson and Stahl 4. Semiconservative replication of DNA
5. Phenomena of transformation
1) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-4 2) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2
3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 4) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
149. Which biochemical is synthesized in cytoplasm and transported into nucleus for
its activity?
1) DNA 2) t RNA 3) Protein 4) hn RNA

150. The phenotype of an individual may be affected if the modified allele produces
(a) No enzyme at all
(b) The normal/less efficient enzyme
(c) A non-functional enzyme
1) Only (a) is correct 2) (a) and (c) are correct
3) (b) and (c) are correct 4) Only (c) is correct
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Which of the following may accentuate the variations that lead to appearance of
new species resulting in evolution?
1) Genetic drift 2) Habitat fragmentation 3) Continental drift 4) Both 1 & 2
152. The study of history of life forms on earth is called
1) Palaentology 2) Microbiology 3) Molecular biology 4) Evolutionary biology
153. Saltation is concept of
1) Darwin 2) Lamarck 3) Hugo de Vries 4) Morgan
154. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
1) Anthracis 2) Silicosis 3) Botulism 4) Emphysema
155. Tidal volume and Expiratory Reserve volume of an individual is 500 mL and
1000mL respectively. What will be his expiratory capacity if the residual volume
is 1200 mL?
1) 2700 mL 2) 1500 mL 3) 1700 mL 4) 2200 mL
156. Match column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
a) Nile perch in lake Victoria (i) Direct economic benefits from nature
b) Narrowly utilitarian (ii) Habitat fragmentation
c) Main cause for loss of biodiversity (iii) High endemism
d) Hot spots (iv) Alien species
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
157. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding Medical Termination of
Pregnancy (MTP)?
1) Nearly 45 to 50 millions MTP’s are performed in a year all over the world.
2) Indian Government legalized MTP in 1951.
3) MTPs are considered to be relatively safe during the first trimester.
4) It needs the assistance of qualified medical practitioners.
158. In male cockroach the brood pouch has
1) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore and gonapophysis
2) Ventral anus, dorsal genital pore and gonapophysis
3) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore but no gonapophysis
4) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore, colleterial glands
159. Which of the following is correct about cockroach?
1) Sexual dimorphism is observed
2) The anal styles are present on 10th sternite of female only
3) In both sexes the 9th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures
called anal cerci
4) Both 2 and 3
160. Which of the following is false about the nervous system of frog?
1) Forebrain includes paired olfactory lobes, paired cerebral hemispheres and
paired diencephalon
2) Midbrain comprises paired optic lobes
3) Hindbrain comprises cerebellum and medulla oblongata
4) There are 10 pairs of cranial nerves

161. Assertion : The resting membrane potential is due to negatively charged proteins
present in axoplasm.
Reason : To maintain the unequal distribution of Na  and K  , the neurons use
electrical energy.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
162. Observe the following figure and identify correct label for A and B.
1) Site-A polarized state, Site-B depolarized stae

2) Site-A depolarized state, Site-B polarized state
3) Site-A polarized state, Site-B repolarized state
4) Site-A repolarized state, Site-B depolarized state
163. Malfunctioning of Kidney can lead to _____
1) Accumulation of urea in kidneys 2) Accumulation of ammonia in blood
3) Accumulation in urea in blood 4) Formation of soluble mass of oxalates
164. How many of the following processes are involved in urine formation.
a) Glomerular filtration b) Tubular reabsorption
c) Tubular secretion d) Micturition
1) a & b 2) b & c 3) a, b & c 4) a, b, c & d
165. Which of the following one acts as a check on renin- angiotensin mechanism?
1) Aldosterone mechanism 2) ADH mechanism
3) Glucagon 4) ANF mechanism
166. Number of heart chambers present in fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and
mammals respectively is
1) 2, 3, 4, 4, 4 2) 2, 2, 3, 4, 4
3) 2, 3, 3, 3, 4 4) 2, 3, 3, 4, 4
167. Which statement is incorrect about Plasma?
1) Straw-coloured and slightly alkaline
2) It constitutes about 45% of the blood
3) 6-8% of proteins are present in plasma
4) Major component of plasma is water
168. Cardiac output is
1) The product of heart rate and stroke volume
2) Th+e blood pumped in one hour
3) The blood pumped during one cardiac cycle
4) The sum of heart rate and stroke volume
169. What is shown in the figure?
1) Opium 2) Datura 3) Cannabis 4) Tobacco

170. The appearance of dry scaly lesions on body such as skin, nails and scalp is
caused by
1) Phylum - Microsporum
2) Genera - Epidermophyton
3) Class - Trichophyton
4) All the above
171. Asthma may be attributed to
1) Bacterial infection in the lungs
2) Histamine released from mast cells
3) Seretonin released from macrophages
4) Histamine released from lymphocytes
172. a) Maintenance of personal hygiene b) Consumption of clean drinking water
c) Proper disposal of waste d) Cleaning pools, cesspools and tanks
The above measures are related to
1) To eradicate cancer 2) To prevent congenital diseases
3) To prevent cholesterol accumulation in heart and liver
4) To prevent infectious diseases.
173. M.S. Swaminathan initiated collaboration with ________ which culminated in the
“Green revolution”
1) Norman Borlaug 2) Watson and crick
3) Ramdeo misra 4) Alphonso corti
174. Assertion: Sex determination in honey bee is called Haplodiploidy system.
Reason: The number of chromosomes in male honey bee is 32 and in female
honey bee is 16.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true and reason is false
4) Assertion is false and reason is true
175. Malignant malaria caused by _____ is the most serious one and can even be fatal.
1) Streptococcus pneumonia 2) Trichophyton
3) Plasmodium falciparum 4) Plasmodium malariae
176. _________ drugs will quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
1) Anti-retro viral 2) Narcotic analgesics
3) Antibiotics 4) Anti-histamine
177. Choose the incorrect option about pregnancy.
1) By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and
digits
2) The first movements of the foetus usually observed during the fifth month
3) By the end of second trimester, the body of foetus is covered with fine hair
4) After the one week of pregnancy, the embryo’s major organ systems are formed
178. Statement I : Net primary productivity is generally lesser than gross primary
productivity.
Statement II : Plants use some amount of GPP during respiration
1) Statements I and II are correct
2) Statement I is incorrect, and statement II is correct
3) Statement is correct, and statement II is incorrect
4) Statements I and II are incorrect
179. How many base pairs are found in the genome of human cell?
1) 3 106 2) 3 103 3) 3 109 4) 3 102
180. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?
Animals Morphological feature
A) Crocodile 4-chambered heart
B) Sea urchin Parapodia
C) Obelia Metagenesis
D) Cannis Thecodont
1) A only 2) A,C and D only 3) Only A and C 4) B only
181. Identify the incorrect match
1) Limbless amphibian - Icthyophis 2) Jawless vertebrate – Myxine
3) Fish with electric organs – Trygon 4) Poisonous snake – Vipera

182. The Pyramid of energy always shows ___ in energy at higher than lower trophic
levels.
1) increase 2) decrease 3) no change 4) either increase or decrease
183. Statement – I: Islets of Langerhans represent only 2-3% of pancreatic tissue.
Statement – II: There are about 1-2 million Islets in normal human pancreas.
1) Both S – I & S – II are true 2) Both S – I & S – II are false
3) S – I is true , S – II is false 4) S – I is false , S – II is true
184. Choose the incorrect statement from the following with respect to colour
blindness.
(i) It is due to defective red cone of the eye only.
(ii) The defect is due to mutation of certain genes located on Y chromosomes.
(iii) It is an autosomal recessive disorder.
(iv) In this disorder, there is a failure in discrimination between red and green
colour.
1) (iv) only 2) (ii), (iii) 3) (i), (ii) 4) (i), (ii), (iii)
185. The size of VNTR sequences vary in the range of:
1) 0.1 – 2 kb 2) 10 – 20 kb 3) 0.2 – 10 kb 4) 0.1 – 20 kb
SECTION – B
186. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
(i) In polygenic inheritance, the number of dominant or recessive allele in a
genotype determines the skin colour.
(ii) A single gene which exhibits multiple genotypic expression is called pleiotropic
gene
(iii) In human males and females, 21 pair of chromosomes are exactly same.
(iv) Inheritable mutations are studied by generating pedigree of a family
1) ii, iii 2) ii,iii, iv 3) i,ii,iii 4) iii,iv
187. Match the following
A) Amoebiasis P) Bacteria
B) Typhoid Q) Protozoa
C) Plague R) Fungi
D) Common Cold S) Virus
E) Ringworm
1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S, E-P 2) A-Q, B-P, C-P, D-S, E-R
3) A-R, B-P, C-P, D-Q, E-S 4) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R, E-R
188. Assertion (A): ANF is a peptide hormone secreted by ventricular walls of Heart
Reason (R): ANF is secreted in response to high blood pressure causing dilation of
blood vessels thereby reducing the blood pressure.
1) Both A & R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A & R are true, and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
189. X-linked recessive disorders are passed from mothers to their sons and from
fathers to their daughters. If a male expresses a X-linked recessive disorder, the
which of the following is true for his parents?
I. His mother is a carrier
II. His father expresses the same disorder
III. His mother does not express the disorder
1) I only 2) II only 3) I, II, III 4) I and III only
190. Match column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given
below.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Chrodate without vertebral column (I) Ostrich
(B) Vertebrate without jaws (II) Ascidia
(C) Fish without operculum (III) Hag fish
(D) Reptile without limbs (IV) Naja
(E) Bird without flight (V) Scoliodon
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) II III IV V I 2) III II V IV I
3) II III V IV I 4) II V III IV IV

191. Consider the following statements on ecological pyramids and pick out the
correct statements:
A) Pyramids of energy can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a
particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as
heat at each step
B) In all ecosystems, the pyramids of number and biomass are upright
C) The Pyramid of biomass of the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of
fish far exceeds that of phytoplankton
1) Only A 2) A and B only 3) A and C only 4) All A,B and c
192. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Mammary glands differentiate during pregnancy and secrete milk towards the
end of pregnancy
2) The zygote undergoes repeated meiotic division to form a blastocyst
3) The mammary glands are one of the female secondary sexual characteristics
4) Ovarian follicles in different stages of development are embedded in the stroma
of ovary
193. What are the causes of higher population growth?
I) Rapid decline in death rate.
II) Rapid increase in MMR and IMR.
III) Repid decline in MMR and IMR.
IV) Increase in number of people in the reproducible age
V) Rapid increase in the death rate.
1) All of the above 2) I, II, IV 3) I, III, IV 4) III, IV, V
194. The broadly utilitarian arguments for conserving biodiversity are
1) Philosophical and spiritual
2) The ecosystem services that the nature provides
3) The enormous benefits we can reap through bioprospecting
4) The countless direct benefits humans derive from nature
195. Which animal is correctly matched with its particular taxonomic category.
1) Housefly – Musca, order 2) Humans – primate, family
3) Cuttlefish – mollusca, class 4) Tiger – tigris, species
196. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) A stable community should show much variation in productivity from year to
year
2) Species diversity increases as we move from the poles towards the equator
3) The historic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992
4) Off-site conservation is the desirable approach for endangered or threatened
species
197. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct
option given below
Column I Column II
A) Tidal Volume i) 2500 – 3000 mL
B) Inspiratory reserve volume ii) 1100 – 1200 mL
C) Expiratory reserve volume iii) 500 – 550 mL
D) Residual volume iv) 1000 – 1100 mL
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) 4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
198. Find the mismatch related to convergent evolution.
A) Lemur = Numbat B) Bobcat = Tasmanian tigercat
C) Sugar glider = Flying phalanger D) Mouse = Bandicoot
1) A, B only 2) A, C only 3) B, C, D only 4) A, C, D only
199. First clinical gene therapy was conducted in
1) 1983 2) 1997 3) 1890 4) 1990
200. Transgenic models exist for how many human diseases given in the box below?
Cancer, Cystic fibrosis, Rheumatoid arthritis, Aizheimer’s
1) Four 2) Three 3) Two 4) One
*******

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IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

NEET GRAND TEST - 3

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.

In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q

Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks

Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks

bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are

darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

6. The graph AB shown in figure is a plot of temperature of a body in degree Celsius

1) slope of line AB is 9/5 2) slope of line AB is 5/9

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

Match the following:

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

47. An oscillating LC circuit consist of a 75 mH inductor and a 1.2  F capacitor. If

1) zero 2) 0.01 3) 0.02 4) 0.03

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) A only 2) B and C only 3) B, C and D only 4) A and C only

3)  1s  *1s  2s  *2s  2 p  2 p   2 p 

4)  1s  *1s  2s  * 2s  2 p   2 p 

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

reactant is 0.4M. The initial rate of the reaction is ________M.min-1.

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

If one equivalent of each is taken, the major product will be

89. Select the correct statement for haloform reaction.

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Site-A polarized state, Site-B depolarized stae

1) Opium 2) Datura 3) Cannabis 4) Tobacco

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

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WISH YOU ALL THE BEST

3)  1s  1s  2s  2s  2 p  2 p   2 p 

4)  1s  1s  2s  2s  2 p   2 p 