Aviation Legislation (1-10)

1. What the requirement of personnel to perform required inspections are;

(a) Person holding appropriate license of aircraft type
(b) Person performing the inspection is appropriately licensed, properly
trained, qualified, and authorized to do so
(c) Person have experience at less for 5 years on type of aircraft

2. What is the system to performance effectiveness of its maintenance program and for
the correction of any deficiency in those program;
(a) Safety Management System
(b) Quality Control System
(c) Continuing analysis and surveillance system.

3. Each operator shall relieve each person performing maintenance or

preventive maintenance from duty for;
(a) 36 hours elapse time
(b) A period of at least 24 consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days
(c) Period not less than 24 hours a day

4. All “product” used on aeronautic especially on manufacturing and maintenance must

be certified in accordance with authority regulations. The “product” means;
(a) Aircraft, aircraft engine, & propeller
(b) Aircraft, engine, propeller, parts, components & appliances
(c) Aircraft, engine, propeller, parts, components, appliances, materials and
standard parts

5. Type Certificate is the design approval for a new (model) aircraft; engine or propeller;
(a) To certify that the product’s design complies with airworthiness standard
(b) Which will be issued for individual aircraft, engine, or propeller and valid for 5 years
(c) A and B answer are correct.

6. What is type design;

(a) Drawings and specifications and listing of those drawings and specifications
(b) This is for individual aircraft, engine, propeller
(c) It is reference for develop maintenance program
 7. Which of the following statement is incorrect concerning TCDS;
(a) TCDS is a formal description of the aircraft, engine, and propeller.
(b) TCDS includes engine thrust or power limitations.
(c) TCDS is used by aircraft maintenance engineer only.

8. The change in the type design of the product, and type certificate previously issued for
the product means;
(a) Configuration change management
(b) Supplement type certificate
(c) Changes for component design

9. Which of the following product is/are allowed to be installed on an aircraft for

maintenance;
(a) Part manufactured by PMA holder
(b) Part manufactured by TSOA holder
(c) All of answer above are true.

10. Manufacturer who produce replacement parts/components for type certificated aircraft
must hold;
(a) PC.
(b) PMA
(c) TSOA.

Natural Science (11-20)

11. Known car wheel diameter 0.7 meters. If the car drove a distance of 2.2km, the
car wheel is rotating.
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000

12. A Particular steel an alloy of iron and carbon, has a carbon content of 0.75% of mass,
find the mass of iron in 500kg of steel?
a. 120 kg
b. 125 kg
c. 375 Kg
13. An engine develops 85 horsepower of a possible 125 horsepower. What percentage
of the total power available is developed?
a. 58 %
b. 68 %
c. 86 %

14. Every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

a. Newtonʹs third law
b. Newtonʹs fist law
c. Bernoulli

15. Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 PSI has been built up in a hydraulic system. The
hand pump piston is 1 inch in diameter. A ½ inch line connect the hand pump to an
actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the pressure in the line between the
hand pump and the actuator?
a. 150 PSI
b. 100 PSI
c. 200 PSI

0
16. An object drawn with 45 is known as :
a. Perspective Drawing
b. Isometric Drawing
c. Oblique Drawing

17. The type perspective projection in which one face of the object lies parallel the viewing
plane is :
a. One-point perspective
b. Two point perspective
c. Three point perspective

18. The symbol shown beside is

st
a. 1 Angle Projection
rd
b. 3 Angle Projection
c. water line

19. Scale 1 : 2 means

a. increase the object size
b. decrease the object size.
c. maintain the object size.
 RD
20. A three – view orthographic 3 angle drawing generally show the
a. top, front and side.
b. top, front and back.
c. front, side and back

Maintenance Practice (21-45)

21. To return the repaired part to its original strength, it is necessary to use
the proper ......... of materials.
a. Qualities, types, and orientation
b. Quantities, type, and orientation
c. Direction, type, and orientation

22. When lifting heavy objects, keep as much weight as possible over your :
a. Chest
b. legs
c. Shoulders

23. The best method for removing imperfect rivets is :

a. Chissel under shank
b. Split head and pull on shank
c. Drill head and punch out rivet

24. Wrinkles on structural panel shall always be acceptable, provided they are not caused
by fabric overlapping and maximum height and depth do not exceed :
a. 5,5 mm
b. 0.5 mm
c. 2,54 mm

25. Select the statement according to next picture.

a. Overbalanced in favour of bearing strength.
b. The bearing strength is slightly higher.
c. The sheet will tear before the rivet shear.

26. What fire extinguishing agent is used on class A, B and C fires and exthinguises the fire
by depriving it of oxygen ?
a. CO2
b. H2O
c. Halon

27. Which type of drill is preferred around flammable material ?

a. Water jet
b. Pneumatic
c. Metal
28. A wide variety powered and hand operated tools are used to pricesely bend and fold
sheet metal to achieved the perfect ...
a. Durability
b. thoughness
c. Shape

29. The accepted industry practice for avionic test equipment calibration interval is usually
a. One month
b. One year
c. Two year

30. What does the term 'second cut' indicate as applied to hand files :
a. The grade of the file
b. The section of the file
c. A reconditioned file

31. To check for roundness of a shaft, place the shaft in a V block and measure with ....
a. Dial test indicator
b. Scribing block
c. A and B are true

32. Coaxial cable testing condition is…

a. High resistance in conductor
b. Low resistance between conductor and shielding
c. Infinite resistance between conductor and shielding

33. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?

a. Only for shear load applications
b. For tension and shear load conditions
c. Where external tension loads are applied
34. Which of the bolt head code markings shown identifies a corrosion resistant AN
standard steel bolt?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

35. Why is steel tempered after being hardened?

a. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses
b. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness
c. To increase its hardness and ductility

36. The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is

a. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure
aluminum.
b. Commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat-treated aluminum
alloy
c. Strain-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure
aluminum

37. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals is the result of ..
a. A tendency for them to return to their natural state
b. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals, or between dissimilar metals
c. Electrons flow in or between metals from cathodic to anodic areas

38. Which of the following may not be detectable even by careful visual inspection of the
surface of aluminum alloy parts or structure?
a. Uniform etch corrosion
b. Filiform corrossion
c. Intergranular uniform

39. One way of obtaining increased resistance to stess corrosion cracking is by ..

a. Relieving compressive stresses (via heat treatment) on the metal surface
b. Creating compressive stresses (via shot peening) on the metal surface
c. Producing nonuniform deformation while cold working during the manufacturig
process.

40. What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing

 a. Ease of construction
b. More resistant to damage when the joint is tightened ’
c. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque

41. What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?

a. Black
b. Blue
c. Red

42. In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the ...
a. Melting point of the filler metal
b. Temperature of the flame
c. Amount of heat applied to the work

43. What is the major function of the coating on an arc welding electrode?
a. Acts as a scavenger, removes oxides and impurities
b. Influences incomplete penetration
c. Liquefies the base metal

44.

Answer : A
45. Lighting striking a metal aircraft is ..... likely to cause structural damage than if striking a
composite aircraft.
a. Less
b. More
c. same

Aircraft Engineering and Maintenance (46-95)

46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi monocoque fuselage are called?
a. Spars and ribs
b. Longerons and stringers
c. Spars
47. The correct dihedral angle can be determinated by ..
a. Measuring the angular setting of each wing at the rear spar with a bubble protractor
b. Placing a straight edge and bubble protractor across the spars while the airplane is
inflying position
c. Using a dihedral board and bubble level along the front spar of each wing

48. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide ...

a. Lateral stability
b. Directional stability
c. Longitudinal stability

49. When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for proper installation, determine that
a. The terminal end threads are visible through the safety hole in the barrel
b. The safety wire ends are wrapped a minimum of four turns around the terminal end
shanks
c. No more than four threads are exposed on either side of the turnbuckle barrel

50. The cable operated control system of an all metal aircraft, not incorporating a
temperature compensating device, has been rigged to the correct tension in a heated
hangar. If the aircraft is operated in very cold weather, the cable tension will..
a. Decrease when the aircraft structure and cables become cold
b. Increase when the aircraft structure and cables become cold
c. Be unaffected if stainless steel cable is installed

51. Fairlead should never deflect the alignment of a cable more than ..
a. 12
b. 3
c. 8

52. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of large all metal aircraft is used
primarily to
a. Increase the cable tension in cold weather
b. Provide a means of changing cable tension in flight
c. Retain a set tension

53. As temperature increases, the speed of sound ..

a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Not effected
54. The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to
a. Contribute to the static balance of the control surface
b. Make in flight trim adjustment possible
c. Assist the pilot in moving the control surface

55. Aircraft generators are cooled by.

a. fuel cooling radiators.
b. oil cooling radiators around the main body.
c. ram air.

56. The commutator of a generator ...

a. Changes direct current produced in the armature into alternating current as it is
taken from armature.
b. Changes alternating current produced in the armature into direct current as it is
taken from armature.
c. Reverses the current in field coils at the proper time in order to produce direct
current.

57. Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One
purpose of grounding is to ..
a. Prevent development of radio frequency potentials
b. Prevent current return paths
c. Allow static charge accumulations

58. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called ..
a. Volatility
b. Viscosity
c. Acidity

59. Characteristics of MIL-H_8446 (Skydrol 500 A & B ) hydraulic fluid are..

a. Blue color, phospate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seal
b. Light purple color, phospate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seal
c. Light green color, phospate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seal

60. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to

a. Relieve presssure to a sensitive component
b. Relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the other directions
c. Restrict flow in the one direction and allow free flow in the other
61. The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid from either the normal source
or an emergency source to an actuating cylinder is called a
a. Bypass valve
b. Crossflow valve
c. Shuttle valve

62. the air that is expended and no longer neede when an actuating unit is operated in a
pneumatic system is
a. returned to the compressor
b. exhausted or dumped, usually overboard
c. charged or pressurized during the next operating cycle

63. To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression
resulting from landing impact
a. Various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow
b. The air is forced through a restricted orifice in the reverse direction
c. The metering pin gradually reduces the size of the orifice as the shock trut extends

64. Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable landing gear systems. The
primary purpose of the centering device is to
a. Engage the nose wheel steering
b. Center the nose wheel before it centers the wheel well
c. Hold the strut in place

65. What is to do when a shock strut during a service operation or when the air becomes
trapped in the hydraulic fluid inside the strut ?
a. Servicing
b. Inflating
c. Bleeding

66. What are three method of anti icing aircraft windshields?

1. Blanket type heating system
2. An electric heating element in the windshield
3. Heated air circulating system
4. Hot water system
5. Windshield wipers and anti icing fluid
6. Ribbon tube heating system

a. 2, 3 and 4.
b. 2, 3 and 5.
c. 1, 2 and 6
67. How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?
a. By allowing only a thin layer of ice to buld up
b. By preventing the formation of ice
c. By breaking up ice formations

68. The basic air cycle cooling system consist of ...

a. Heaters, coolers and compressors
b. A source of compressed air, heat exchangers and a turbine
c. Ram air source, compressors and engine bleeds

69. What is the purpose of a mixing valve in a compressor bleed air air conditioning system?
a. Distribute conditioned air evenly to all parts of the cabin
b. Combine ram air with conditioned air
c. Control the supply of hot, cool and cold air

70. The thermocouple fire warning system is activated by a ..

a. Rate of temperature rise
b. Core resistance drop
c. Certain temperature

71. A squib, as used in a fire protection system, is a ...

a. Temperature sending device
b. Device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to be released
c. Probe used for installing frangible disks in extinguisher bottles

72. The primary purpose of a take off warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored
flight control is not properly set prior to take off. The system is activated by ...
a. A thrust lever
b. An 80 knot airspeed sensor
c. An ignition system switch not set for takeoff

73. Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall...
a. Is starting to occur
b. Is imminent
c. First effects the outbourd portion of the wings

74. The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn indicating system is the ..
a. Rotor
b. Transmitter
c. Receiver

75. The purpose of a glideslope system is to

a. Indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway
 b. Assist the pilot in making a correct angle of descent to the runway
c. Provide for automatic altitude reporting to air traffic control

76. A rotating light on the exterior of an aircraft is ...

a. Anti-collision light
b. Navigation light
c. Strobe light

77. A centralised monitoring computer system (AMCS) is used.

a. to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry
on control unit.
b. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit.
c. to transmit data to Flight Data Recorder.

78. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out?.

a. Only when BITE selected.
b. any failure of a system.
c. Continuously when system is in use.

79. The ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound is ...

a. Mach number
b. Vertical speed
c. Airspeed

80. What type of drag continually increase as airspeed increase?

a. Wave drag
b. Induce drag
c. Parasite Drag

81. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

a. Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving
and departing aircraft
b. Induced drag decreases: therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may
cause considerable floating
c. A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall
when done free of ground effect.

82. What is the preferred method for wire marking…

a. At adjacent structure
b. Directly on wire
c. Directly on the clamp
83. What is the meaning of Stand Alone GVI…
a. Made under normally available lighting condition
b. Exterior and interior visual examination
c. Inspection in particular area, installation, or assembly

84. Electro-Static Discharge (ESD) is;

a. transfer of electrostatic charges between bodies at the same potentials caused by
direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field
b. transfer of electromagnetic charges between bodies at different potentials caused by
direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field
c. transfer of electrostatic charges between bodies at different potentials caused by
direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field

85. The electron beam in the CRT is steered by;

a. lateral and vertical defection plates on to any position on the screen
b. horizontal and vertical defection plates on to any position on the screen
c. latitude and longitude defection plates on to any position on the screen

86. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and
monitoring ground station is.
a. TCAS II.
b. ACARS.
c. AUTO LAN

87. Prior to fueling, the person fueling should check the following :
a. Ensure all aircraft electrical systems and electronic devices, including radar, are
turned on.
b. We can mix AVGAS and JET fuel.
c. Ensure no flame-producing devices are carried by anyone engaged in the fueling
operation

88. Any deposits of ice, snow, or frost on the external surfaces of an aircraft may drastically
affect its performance, such as:
a. Increased aerodynamic drag resulting from from the disturbed airflow over
the airfoil surfaces
b. May be due to not reduced aerodynamic lift
c. May be able to clean the aircraft

89. Load factor of an aircraft wing is;

a. The ratio of wing area and weight.
b. The ratio of lift and drag
c. The ratio of lift and weight.
90. What is commonly used to prevent odors from backing up into the lavatory.
a. Flush valve
b. Check valve
c. Filter

91. The use of digital data buses .... the amount of wiring in an aircraft
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Increase and decrease

92. Maintenance crew use maintenance manual, ilustrated part catalogue, wiring diagram
manuals, service bulletins, and other technical data store in the ...
a. Du’s
b. Maintenance information system
c. Flight deck

93. A Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) is part of the .... information system
a. Du’s
b. Maintenance information system
c. Flight deck

94. Structure monitoring is also known as ... monitoring

a. Overhaul
b. On condition
c. Damage tolerance

95. When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary information should be obtained
from ?
a. Illustrated parts manual for the aircraft
b. Maintenance instructions published by the aircraft and/or equipment manufacturer
c. The aircraft maintenance manual

Human Factor (96-100)

96. Errors Management are;

a. Error is evitable and training shouldn’t address for detecting errors and
managing error outcome.
b. Change in historic attitude, errors is inevitable and training should address to
detecting errors and managing error outcome.
c. Maintains in historic attitude, errors is inevitable and training should address to un-
detecting errors and managing errors outcome.
97. Airplane accident since 1903 continue to occur until now, the main causes are ...
a. The design of the aircraft is no well tested
b. Weather factor that often appear in flight
c. Human Factor are still dominant

98. Extreme discomfort experienced by a maintenance engineer due to working in a

confined space is known as.
a. Claustrophobia.
b. Acrophobia.
c. Agoraphobia.

99. The effect on an engineer of environmental noise is?

a. It decrease concentration and quality of work
b. It has no affect on concentration of quality of work
c. It improves concentration and quality of work

100. When the PPE is used to eliminate the hazard ?

a. The last step in the process if hazard are not completely eliminated.
b. The first step in the process if hazard are not completely eliminated.
c. The second step in the process if hazard are completely eliminated.