Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION III-CENTRAL LUZON

REGIONAL ACHIEVEMENT TEST IN EARTH AND LIFE SCIENCE

Name: _________________________________ Date: _______________________

Grade & Section: _________________________ Score: ______________________

Directions: Read the following questions carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. Earth can support the survival of organisms. What is/are the factor/s that make/s Earth
habitable?
I. the existence of liquid water
II. the right Sun-Earth distance
III. the presence of an atmosphere
IV. the absence of gravitational force
A. I C. I, II and III
B. I and II D. I, II, III, and IV

2. Gas molecules emitted during a volcanic eruption are water vapor (H2O), carbon
dioxide (CO2), and sulfur dioxide (SO2). Which systems interaction are connected in
this activity?
A. Atmosphere and Biosphere C. Biosphere and Hydrosphere
B. Atmosphere and Geosphere D. Geosphere and Hydrosphere

3. Popular jewelry species like quartz, topaz, and corundum, have a shiny surface and able
to reflect light. Which physical property of minerals is exhibited by these minerals?
A. hardness C. streak
B. luster D. tenacity

4. Diamond, which is a glass cutter has a Mohs scale of 10 in the resistance of a mineral
to scratching. Which property is exhibited by this mineral?
A. luster of a mineral
B. density of a mineral
C. hardness of a mineral
D. crystalline structure of a mineral

5. Which of the following types of rocks are formed from rock fragments, mineral grains,
animal, and plant remains that are cemented together?
A. weathered rocks C. metamorphic rocks
B. igneous rocks D. sedimentary rocks

6. How can a metamorphic rock transform into an intrusive rock by geologic process?
A. compacted and cemented
B. exposed to heat and pressure
C. solidified outside the earth’s surface
D. liquefied and solidified beneath the earth’s surface
7. The following activities are contributing factors for weathering EXCEPT?
A. roots of plants break up the earth
B. sediments are transported through wind
C. water expands as it freezes in cracks and then thaws
D. water dissolves minerals in the rocks and then washes them away

8. Which of the following BEST explains how the continents move?

A. Convection currents in the Earth’s interior move the crust.
B. Convection currents in the Earth’s atmosphere move the crust.
C. The Earth’s crust is attracted by the gravitational force of the Moon.
D. The Earth’s crust is attracted by the gravitational force of the Earth’s interior.

9. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about how magma is formed in the
subduction zone?
I. Frictional heating increases the temperature in the mantle.
II. Reduced temperature causes melting at subducting plates.
III. Increased pressure leads to melting at the subducting plates.
IV. Heat transfer occurs at tectonic plate convergent boundaries.
A. I and II C. II and IV
B. II and III D. III and IV

10. How do you differentiate magma from lava?

A. Magma forms into volcanic rocks, while lava forms into plutonic rocks.
B. Magma solidifies outside the earth’s surface, while lava solidifies beneath the
earth’s surface.
C. Magma is molten rock beneath the earth’s surface, while lava is magma that
reaches the earth’s surface.
D. Magma is a molten rock that reaches the earth’s surface, while lava is molten
rock beneath the earth’s surface.

11. Which of the following is NOT true about metamorphism?

A. Slate and Gneiss are examples of foliated rock.
B. Contact Metamorphism creates non-foliated rocks.
C. Pressure is the main factor of contact metamorphism.
D. Magma will transform the surrounding rocks into metamorphic rocks due to
the difference in temperature.

12. How do temperature and pressure affect metamorphism?

A. Pressure and temperature increase as you go up the crust.
B. The deeper the rock depth, the higher the pressure and temperature.
C. Foliation happens as there is an increase in the pressure and temperature.
D. Magma cannot bake the surrounding rocks due to the difference in
temperature.
 Rock Types Granite Diorite Gabbro Peridotite
Composition Felsic Intermediate Mafic Ultramafic
SiO2 70% 60% 50% 40%
MgO 0.95 2.5 15% 48%
Major mineral Quartz Biotite Pyroxene Pyroxene
content Alkali Feldspar Quartz Plagioclase Olivine
Alkali Feldspar Feldspar
Table 1. Composition of Rock Types

13. Based on the table above, which type of igneous rocks based on composition has the
HIGHEST amount of silica content?
A. felsic C. mafic
B. intermediate D. ultramafic

14. The movement of Earth's plates leads to rocks being compressed into each other,
forming folds and faults. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about how
faults are formed?
A. by the cooling and contraction of Earth's crust
B. when rocks in Earth's crust break and move along a fracture surface
C. by tectonic forces that cause Earth's crust to be stretched, compressed, or
twisted
D. when the forces exceed the strength of the rocks, they break and move along a
fault plane

15. When sedimentary rocks deposited in flat layers are left undisturbed it follows the
statement in which of the given principles?
A. superposition C. original horizontality
B. fauna succession D. cross-cutting relationship

16. How does absolute dating differ from relative dating?

A. absolute dating: compares the age; relative dating: arranges the fossils
B. absolute dating: arranges the fossils; relative dating determines the numerical
age.
C. absolute dating: gives the order of age of several samples; relative dating
determines the exact age of historical remain
D. absolute dating: determines the exact age of historical remains; relative dating
gives the order of age of several samples

17. Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope with a half-life of 5730 years. Which of the following
reveals fossils and rocks by this well-known isotope?
A. The older rock has a higher percentage of C-14.
B. The remaining amount of C-14 reveals the age of fossils.
C. The accuracy of age of fossil is determined by shorter half-life.
D. The stability of parent isotope on its half-life confirms the age of the rock.
18. Which of the given statements DOES NOT represent the geologic time scale?
A. the fossil record of flora and fauna
B. the geologic history of the universe
C. the age of the Earth and its inhabitants
D. evolution of life dating back 4.6 billion years ago

19. Geologic time scale helped scientists for the following purposes EXCEPT to:
A. illustrate the history of Earth
B. divide the events into geography, weathering, and evolution
C. determine the actual number of years after those events happened
D. observe changes in the fossils from the oldest to the most recent sedimentary
rocks

20. Volcanic eruption is a natural disaster that can cause significant hazards and threaten
human life, infrastructure, and the environment. One of which is pyroclastic flow. How
does this volcanic hazard affect human life and the environment?
A. Molten lava destroying everything in its path, including vegetation, structures,
and infrastructure.
B. Fast-moving avalanches of hot volcanic materials causing severe burns,
asphyxiation, and structural damage.
C. Fast-moving mudflows of volcanic debris, water, and sediment bury and
destroy anything in their path, including towns, bridges, and roads.
D. Tiny glass particles and rock fragments carried by the wind for hundreds of
kilometers disrupt transportation and electrical systems.

21. Based on the hazard map shown, which places are at high risk of earthquake-induced
shallow landslides?
I. Bicol Region
II. Cagayan Valley
III. Central Luzon
IV. Eastern Visayas
A. I and II
B. I, II, and III
C. I, III, and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV

Source: The Manila Observatory.2005.

“Mapping Philippine Vulnerability to Environmental Disasters.
Accessed March 12, 2024.http://vm.observatory.ph/hazard.html
 The table below displays information about the human activities that contribute to the
speeding up or triggering of landslides and their effects.
Human Activities Effects
Deforestation Cutting down trees and other vegetation can
lead to soil erosion, which can weaken slopes
Mining and quarrying operations Can destabilize slopes
Construction activities Can alter the natural drainage patterns,
increase the weight of the slope, and cause
vibrations

22. Based on the table above, what effects can trigger or speed up landslides?
A. They produce soil deposition to increase foundation.
B. They weakened the soil because of the lack of plants.
C. They damage the weathered materials which results in slope stability.
D. They cause land areas to be compacted due to the vibrations from the blast.

23. From the image shown, which part of the Philippines is more prone to floods?
A. Northern Luzon
B. Central Luzon
C. Central Visayas
D. Central Mindanao

Source: The Manila Observatory.2005.

“Mapping Philippine Vulnerability to Environmental Disasters.
Accessed March 12, 2024.http://vm.observatory.ph/hazard.html

24. What do you call the movement of sediments from the visible portion of a beach to the
nearshore region of the coast?
A. submersion C. coastal erosion
B. storm surge D. saltwater intrusion
 The table below shows ways to mitigate the impact of land development.
Ways to mitigate impact of land Action taken
development
Land-use planning Develop comprehensive land-use policies
considering environmental, social, and economic
factors.
Conservation and preservation Identify and safeguard ecologically sensitive
areas, habitats, and natural resources.
Environmental impact Evaluate development projects' environmental
assessments impacts thoroughly.
Sustainable design and Encourage sustainable building practices,
construction including energy-efficient technologies and eco-
friendly materials.

25. Which of the following actions BEST demonstrates the application of sustainable
design principles in construction projects?
A. developing inclusive land-use policies
B. conducting conservational impact assessments
C. identifying and preservation of biologically sensitive areas
D. incorporating energy-efficient machinery and ecological resources

26. Which of the following makes Mesozoic era referred to as the “Age of Reptiles”?
A. Reptiles were the only group of animals that existed during that era.
B. The climate during the Mesozoic Era was highly suitable for reptilian life.
C. It was a period marked by the dominance of reptiles over other organisms.
D. It was named after a prominent reptile species discovered during that time.

27. All of the following life forms existed in the Archaeozoic era EXCEPT?
A. Angiosperms C. Primitive eukaryotes
B. Cyanobacteria D. Primitive metaphytes

28. How does the theme and function of structure contribute to the understanding of
connections among living things?
A. explains how organisms evolve over time
B. highlights the interdependence of species within ecosystems
C. describes the flow of energy and nutrient cycle within ecosystems
D. demonstrates the relationship between form and purpose in the organism

29. How does sexual reproduction contribute to genetic diversity?

A. producing offspring that are genetically identical to the parent
B. involving the passing of genes from the mother to the offspring
C. requiring the use of specialized structures like placentas or yolk sacs
D. allowing the fusion of gametes from two parents, introducing genetic variation
 The table below shows the distinct reproductive strategies of snakes and kangaroos that
differ in various aspects.
Basis for Comparison Snakes Kangaroos
Reproductive Mode Oviparous Viviparous
Development and Birth Eggs hatch unattended, Joeys are undeveloped,
incubated by environmental develop in the mother's
factors. pouch, and return for
nourishment.
Offspring Hatchlings emerge Joeys rely on their mother for
Independence independent, relying on food nourishment, protection, and
and shelter. warmth.
Reproductive Rate Larger numbers of offspring Relatively low reproductive
in a single reproductive rate.
event.

30. Which statement accurately analyzes the contrasting reproductive strategies of snakes
and kangaroos?
A. Snakes give birth to live young, while kangaroos lay eggs.
B. Snakes and kangaroos both exhibit oviparity, but snakes have larger clutch
sizes.
C. Kangaroos reproduce through viviparity and provide extended parental care,
unlike snakes.
D. Both snakes and kangaroos exhibit similar reproductive behaviors, relying on
the external incubation of eggs.

31. Most microorganisms reproduce asexually through binary fission. Which of the
following organisms exhibits this type of reproduction?
A. amoeba and e-coli C. fungi and sponges
B. anemones and jellyfish D. rhizome and tubers

32. The steps of genetic engineering are listed below. Sequence the steps involved in
genetic engineering.
I. Cultivate and confirm the presence and expression of the desired trait in the
modified organism.
II. Breed and apply the modified organism based on its intended purpose.
III. Modify the genetic material using techniques like gene cloning or gene editing.
IV. Transfer the modified genetic material into the cells of the host organism.
V. Extract the genetic material containing the desired trait.
VI. Identify and select cells that have successfully incorporated the modified genetic
material.
VII. Select the organism to be genetically modified.
VIII. Identify the desired trait or characteristic to be introduced or modified.
A. VI-II-III-I-VIII-V-IV-VII C. VII-VIII-III-V-IV-I-VI-II
B. VII-II-I-V-VI-IV-III-VIII D. VIII-VII-V-III-IV-VI-I-II

33. Which of the following statements is a potential benefit of using GMOs in agriculture?
A. Increasing the use of pesticides and herbicides, while decreasing soil erosion.
B. Increasing biodiversity in ecosystems, while reducing the use of chemical
fertilizers.
 C. Increasing the yield of crops, while increasing the mutation of superbugs and
superweeds.
D. Increasing the nutritional content in crops, while decreasing the use of
pesticides and herbicides.

34. Which of the following represents a potential risk associated with the use of genetically
modified organisms (GMOs)?
I. cross-pollination with wild relatives and weediness
II. potential allergic reactions and unknown health risks
III. increases the reliance on chemical pesticides and herbicides
IV. increases the risk of genetic contamination and loss of diversity
A. I, III, and IV C. II, III, and IV
B. I, II, and IV D. I, II, and III

35. How does the body maintain homeostasis?

I. by regulating body temperature
II. by balancing fluid and electrolyte levels
III. by adjusting the heart rate and blood pressure
IV. by absorbing excess blood and excreted as urine
A. I and II C. III and IV
B. II and III D. I, II, and III

36. Which of the following describes the role of aldosterone hormone in maintaining salt
and water balance in the human body?
A. breakdown of fats for energy
B. production of red blood cells
C. regulation of blood sugar levels
D. reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys

37. Teeth are considered a vital part of the digestive system for both humans and animals.
What role do teeth play in the digestive system?
I. They begin chemical digestion.
II. They begin mechanical digestion.
III. They are shaped for grinding, mashing, and tearing food.
IV. They release enzymes into the saliva for chemical digestion.
A. A. I and II C. III and IV
B. B. II and III D. II and IV

38. What is the role of pleurae in the respiratory system?

A. produce mucus C. protect and lubricate the lungs
B. facilitate gas exchange D. destroy foreign bodies in the
lungs

39. How do the circulatory and respiratory systems work together?

A. The circulatory system provides oxygen to the lungs, while the respiratory
system pumps blood throughout the body.
B. The respiratory system supplies oxygen to the blood, which is then transported
by the circulatory system to body tissues.
C. The circulatory system controls the rate of breathing, while the respiratory
system delivers nutrients to the body's cells.
 D. The respiratory system removes waste products from the blood, while the
circulatory system regulates body temperature.

40. Which type of blood flow is for arthropods, such as insects, lobsters, and crabs, and
mollusks, such as oysters and clams?
A. closed circulatory system C. open circulatory system
B. double circulatory system D. single circulatory system
41. Which evolutionary mechanism is a change in allele frequencies that occurs purely by
chance and tends to eliminate alleles from a population?
A. migration C. genetic drift
B. mutation D. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

42. Over time, pandas evolved longer wrists to better consume bamboo, increasing their
chances of surviving. Which among the choices below BEST describes the situation?
A. fitness C. artificial selection
B. adaptation D. comparative anatomy

43. How does a dichotomous key help in classifying living things?

A. providing the two best traits of the organism
B. presenting the genus name and species name
C. giving distinct structure of the organism together with its function
D. showing a series of opposing descriptions of the basic features of an organism

44. How do you describe a duck by using the

dichotomous key below?
A. feathered animal that swims.
B. feathered animal that cannot swim.
C. non-feathered animal that has legs.
D. non-feathered animal that has no legs.

45. What do phylogenetic trees represent among biological entities?

A. geographic distribution of species
B. evolutionary history of organisms
C. reproductive behavior of organisms
D. morphological characteristics of species

46. Arrange the following taxonomic ranks from most to least inclusive?
A. species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom
B. kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus, species
C. kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus, species
D. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

47. Which of the following statements is an example of environmental resistance?

A. Predators struggle for similar prey.
B. Adequate food and water supply for the people.
C. The health condition of the organisms is stable.
D. Suitable habitat increases the growth of producers.
48. High predator population causes the prey population to decrease. For instance, wolf
(predator) catches moose (prey). The factors that can restrain the expansion of a
population aside from predators are competitors, lack of food and water, diseases, and
reasonable living space. Which of the following refers to these factors?
A. limiting factors C. biotic potential factors
B. carrying capacity D. environmental resistance

49. Which of the following statements correctly compares terrestrial and aquatic
ecosystems?
A. terrestrial ecosystems: found on land ; aquatic ecosystems: found in the ocean
B. terrestrial ecosystems: higher salinity levels ; aquatic ecosystems:
unpredictable salinity
C. terrestrial ecosystems: marine organisms ; aquatic ecosystems: land-dwelling
organisms
D. terrestrial ecosystems: temperature and precipitation ; aquatic ecosystems:
water flow and salinity.

50. How does the excessive use of pesticides affect the natural ecosystem?
A. destroys habitats and increases biodiversity
B. leads to bioaccumulation and harm to wildlife
C. contributes to climate change and global warming
D. disrupts food chains and augment animal populations

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