BOOK REVIEW - PSYCHOLOGICAL TESTING

BOOK REVIEW: PSYCHOLOGICAL TESTING
*ONLY FOR MAGC Students of La Consolacion College - Bacolod*
-START OF EXAM SET 1-
1. Psychological tests
a. Measure characteristics of human behavior
b. Pertain only to overt behavior
c. Always have right and wrong answers
d. Do not attempt to measure traits
The correct answer is:

Measure characteristics of human behavior
2. Structured personality tests

a. Require you to choose between two or more alternative responses.
b. Require you to produce something spontaneously.
c. Involve an ambiguous test response.
d. Involve an ambiguous test stimulus.

Require you to choose between two or more alternative responses.
3 What would be the best IQ test for a 12-year old student?

a. WAIS-III
b. WPPSI-III
c. WISC-IV
d. WASI

WISC-IV
4 Projective personality tests

a. Require the subject to choose between two or more alternative responses such as “true” or
“false”.
b. Are unstructured
c. Are structured
d. Provide a statement, usually of the self-report variety.

Are unstructured
5 Test that provide a statement, usually of the self-report variety, require the subject to choose
between two or more alternative responses, are called
a. Group tests
b. Structured personality tests
c. Projective personality tests
d. Individual tests
Structured personality tests
6 Personality tests in which the test stimulus and/or required response are ambiguous are
a. Unstructured personality tests
b. Structured personality tests
c. Achievement personality tests
d. Projective personality tests

Projective personality tests
If one depends upon the results of a particular test to be consistently accurate, this test can be
said to be
a. Structured
b. Unambiguous
c. Valid
d. Reliable

Reliable
8 The validity of a psychological test refers to its

a. Dependability
b. Meaning
c. Objectivity
d. Fairness

Meaning
9 If a particular test “X” has been shown to accurately predict success in a particular job, then
the test is said to be
a. Reliable
b. Ambiguous
c. Structured
d. Valid

Valid
10 The origins of testing can be traced to be

a. Russia
b. China
c. Egypt
d. England

China
11 Two or more test that are given in conjecture and relate seemingly diverse topics are called
a. Structured
b. Unstructured
c. Batteries
d. Civil service exams

Batteries
12 Which test represented a major breakthrough in the measurement of cognitive ability

a. Strong Vocational Interest
b. Binet-Simon Scale
c. Carnegie Interest Inventory
d. Seguin Form Board Test

Binet-Simon Scale
13 The specific stimulus of a test to which a person responds overtly is called a

a. Overt event
b. Scale
c. Item
d. Answer

Item
Answer- response
14 The first intelligence tests were developed for the purpose of

a. Finding the most suitable candidates for the U.S Army
b. Identifying gifted children
c. Measuring emotional activity
d. Identifying intellectually subnormal individuals.

Identifying intellectually subnormal individuals.
15 To establish norms, a large group of people is being given a test under the same conditions
in which the test will be used. This group is called a _____ group.
a. Reliability
b. Standardization
c. Experimental
d. Random

Standardization
16 A counselor from an international school in Manila is trying to establish norms for her new
test. She determined that 50% of the people in the standardization sample should be Hispanic,
20% Caucasian, 15% Asian, and 15% African American. She is creating a
a.Normalization group
b.Population statistics
c.Random sample
d.Representative group

Representative group
17 Eighty-year-old Bella was administered the Binet-Simon Scale that suggested she was
functioning as the same level as a senior in high school. This example is an example of a
a.Mental age scale
b.Norm
c.Outcome measure
d.Restandardization

Mental age scale
18 A trait is ______.
a.dependent upon the situation.
b.defined as the motivating force behind behavior.
c.an enduring disposition that distinguishes one individual from another.
d.strongly impacted by changes in the environment.

an enduring disposition that distinguishes one individual from another.
19 Which of the following is an example of trait?

a.Pessimism
b.Depression
c.Fear
d.Anger

Pessimism
20 Who is associated with the development of the TAT?

a.Levy & Beck
b.Terman & Binet
c.Murray & Morgan
d.Morgan & Beck

Murray & Morgan
21 Jeremy failed in two major subjects last semester, and for a short while he was not as
confident as usual. This change in his level of confidence was representative of a
a.Ability
b.State
c.Trait
d.Abnormal behavior

State – temporary
*Trait – permanent/ long term
22 Which of the following are both projective test?

a. The Rorschach and the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
b. The Rorschach and the MMPI
c. The Rorschach and the TAT
d. The TAT and the MMPI

The Rorschach and the TAT
23 Which of the following tests is purported to measure human needs?

a.16PF
b.Rorschach
c.TAT
d.MMPI

TAT
24 Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire?

a.J.R. Guilford
b.L.L. Thurstone
c.R.B. Cattell
d.Sam Beck

R.B. Cattell
25 Test administration refers to

a.Validation of test
b.Construction of test
c.Act of giving a test
d.Act of making a test

Act of giving a test
26 When you gather information through verbal interaction you are using a
a.Interview
b.Individual test
c.Brain storming
d.Group test

Interview
27 When discussing the results of psychological tests, Labels

a.May create a self-fulfilling prophecy
b.May imply a person is not responsible for his or her actions.
c.May lower a person’s tolerance of stress.
d.Do all of these

Do all of these
28 Current standards for test use state that the test development(s) must provide sufficient,
information to permit appropriate use of the test. Which of the following does not have to be
included in this information?
a.Validity data
b.Information regarding item construction
c.Guidelines for administration and scoring
d.Reliability data

Information regarding item construction
29 Studies have demonstrated that

a.There is no relationship between the examiner’s comments and test performance
b.Too much approval by the examiner can hinder performance
c.Disapproving comments by an examiner can hinder test performance
d.Disapproving comments by the examiner can actually motivate children and enhance their
performance

Disapproving comments by an examiner can hinder test performance
30 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of computer-assisted test administration?

a.Encourages test-taker to proceed rapidly
b.Individually tailored sequential administration
c.Excellent standardization
d.Precision of timing responses

Individually tailored sequential administration
31 In regard to the computerization of psychological testing, it was predicted that

a.The costs associated with computer administration will hinder the use of computers in the
future.
b.Test like the SAT and GRE/ Civil Service and Driver’s licensing will probably be given via
adaptive computer programs.
c.Because so many people suffer from computer anxiety, computer testing will not be
widespread for another 20 years.

Test like the SAT and GRE/ Civil Service and Driver’s licensing will probably be given via
adaptive computer programs.
32 An individual test
a.Involves only tests of human ability.
b.Can only be given to one person at a time.
c.Involve more than one examiner for a single subject.
d.Involves a single examiner for two or more subjects.

Can only be given to one person at a time.
33 Computers in psychological testing will

a.Be useful as at present
b.Hold on of the most important roles
c.Play a somewhat uncertain role
d.Be not important

Be useful as at present
34 The standard against which a test or a test score is evaluated

a.Correlation
b.Group
c.Criterion
d.Standard deviation

Criterion
35 A score distribution that is described as NORMAL curve has no skewness.

a.False
b.False except in intelligence tests
c.True except in intelligence tests
d.True

True
36 Projective techniques are assessment tools that a _________ degree holder may administer
score and interpret.
a.Master’s
b.Doctorate
c.Bachelor’s
d.Medical

Doctorate
37 The process of assigning evaluative codes or statements to performance on tests, task,

interviews, or other behavior samples
a.Scoring
b.Administration
c.Proctoring
d.Interpretation

Scoring
38 A score of 4.5 in the grade equivalent norms means that

a.The performance of the test taker is equivalent to that of a 4 year and 5-month-old child
b.The performance of the test taker is equivalent to that of a 4th grader after 5 months of studies
c.The child scored below the average
d.The child answered 45% of the test items correctly

The performance of the test taker is equivalent to that of a 4th grader after 5 months of studies
39 To assess reliability using the test-retest method, the recommended period of time interval
between the administrations is
a.At least a year
b.Not more than a month
c.At least 2 weeks
d.At least 1 month

At least 1 month
40 The required sample sample size for a pilot test in making a standardized test is
a.Number of item times 5
b.50 participants
c.Number of items times 10
d.30 participants

Number of items times 10
41 A transformation a raw score expressing the percentage of people whose score on the test
falls below a particular raw score.
a.Z score
b.Sten score
c.Percentile score
d.Raw score

Percentile score
42 The following tests are suitable for group testing except:

a.MBTI
b.WAIS
c.MMPI
d.SAT

WAIS
43 A group test
a.Involves a group of examiners for a single subject.
b.Can only be given to multiple people by one examiner.
c.Can only be given to three people at a time.
d.Involves only tests of human ability.

Can only be given to multiple people by one examiner.
44 The suggested order if you are administering a battery of tests

a.Personality tests, IQ tests, projective tests
b.Projective tests, IQ tests, personality test
c.None of the above
d.IQ tests, personality tests, projective tests

IQ tests, personality tests, projective tests
Structure to not structure
Time/group to individ
45 The first personality test released for civilian use

a.Draw-A-Person Test
b.Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
c.House-Tree-Person Test
d.Mooney Problem Checklist

Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
46 The Millon test are a series of diagnostic instruments that have at their foundation two
dimensions. One has to do with ways of gaining satisfaction and avoiding stress, and the other
has to do with
a.Introversion versus extroversion
b.Optimistic outlook
c.The presence or absence of psychopathology
d.Overall coping pattern

Overall coping pattern
47 A counselor is presented with a student who complains of being unable to study. Which tool
of assessment could probably be of greatest assistance in terms of better understanding the
problem?
a.NEO-PI-R
b.Role play
c.Self-monitoring
d.Rorschach

Self-monitoring
48 Which is NOT part of a standard battery?

a.A test to survey values
b.A test to screen for neurological deficit
c.A personality test
d.An intelligence test

A test to survey values
49 Which is NOT part of a question typically addressed by cynical assessment?

a.Does this person need to be hospitalized?
b.What is the person’s diagnosis?
c.What type of intervention might be optimal?
d.Does this person have executive potential?

Does this person have executive potential?
50 Test scores of paper and pencil tests compared to computer assisted tests indicate
a.Better score is achieved by paper and pencil tests.
b.The scores are about equivalent.
c.Poorer control with computer assisted tests.
d.Better scores are achievement by computer assisted tests.

The scores are about equivalent.
51 Which is an example of a personality test that draws heavily on a particular theory of

personality?
a.The Blacky Pictures Test
b.The California Psychological Inventory
c.The Adjective Checklist
d.The Leadership Q-Test

The Blacky Pictures Test
52 Which is NOT a response style?

a.Acquiescence
b.Socially desirable responding
c.Overly positive
d.Semantic differential

Semantic differential
53 The tilting chair/tilting room is a tool used to measure field dependence/independence. An

alternative tool to measure the same variable that does not require the specialized chair/tilting
room is
a.The Hand Test
b.The Embedded Figures Test
c.The Thematic Apperception
d.The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
The Embedded Figures Test
54 Previous learning can best be described as

a.Ability
b.Intelligence
c.Achievement
d.Aptitude

Achievement
55 Roberts and Del Vecchio studied just how enduring traits are and concluded that consistency
a.Remains the same though the life span
b.Is steady for some traits and random for others
c.Peaks between the ages of 50 and 59
d.Decreases in step like fashion from age 16 onward

Peaks between the ages of 50 and 59
56 A teacher believes that one group of children is very bright and that a second is below
average in ability. Actually, the groups are identical, but the first group progresses more rapidly
than the second. This demonstrated
a.The placebo effect
b.The Flynn effect
c.The self-fulfilling prophecy
d.The observer bias

The self-fulfilling prophecy
57 Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the strongest relationship between
two sets of variables?
a.0.00
b.-0.97
c.-0.25
d.0.90

-0.97
58 Students who do better in high school ted to do better in college. This is an example of
a.A negative correlation
b.A perfect correlation
c.A positive correlation
d.A zero correlation

A positive correlation
59 To assess client’s abilities, a phrenologist would want to
a.Examine their skulls
b.Record their EEGs
c.Read their handwriting
d.Study their palms

Examine their skulls
60 A correlation coefficient of -1.09 indicates a

a.Cause/effect relationship
b.Strong positive correlation
c.Error in computation
d.Strong negative correlation

Error in computation
61 Harlow’s studies of surrogate mothers show that

a.Infant monkeys prefer the cloth surrogate only when it is the source of food.
b.When frightened, infants run to the cloth surrogates for security and contact.
c.The wire surrogate is preferred because of its association with food.
d.Attachment to the wire “feeding mothers” is identical to that displayed toward real mothers.

When frightened, infants run to the cloth surrogates for security and contact.
62 It has been characterized as the “Rodney Dangerfield of psychometric variables.” It is

a.Repeatability
b.Odd-even reliability
c.Face validity
d.Variance

Face validity
63 A job applicant takes a company-administered test for employment and then questions the
relevance to the job of certain test items. Stated another way, the applicant expressing concern
about the test’s
a.Content validity
b.Incremental validity
c.Factor loadings
d.All of the above

Content validity
64 Which does NOT belong?

a.Content validity
b.Concurrent validity
c.Criterion-related validity
d.Predictive validity

Content validity
65 The potential for learning a specific skill can best be described as.
a.Achievement
b.Ability
c.Aptitude
d.Intelligence

Aptitude
66 In order to establish the constructive validity of a test, evidence could be gathered indicating
that
a.Expected changes in test performance occur as a result of experience.
b.The test measures a single concept.
c.All of the above
d.Expected changes in test performance occur over time.

All of the above
67 Your sister did very well in Mrs. Jusay’s class. Now you are in her class and can’t seem to do
any wrong. You are probably the benefit of
a.A clerical error
b.A generosity error.
c.A halo effect
d.The Taylor Swift effect

A halo effect
68 A child’s mental age

a.Provides a measurement of a child’s performance relative to other children of a particular age
group.
b.Cannot be determined from a child’s test score.
c.Can only be determined from large representative samples.
d.Cannot be determined independently of the child’s chronological age

Provides a measurement of a child’s performance relative to other children of a particular age
group.
69 Factor analytic techniques were employed in the development of the

a.TAT
b.MBTI
c.MMPI
d.16PF
16PF
70 Which of the following scales would be used when the information is qualitative rather than
quantitative?
a.Ordinal
b.Interval
c.Nominal
d.Ratio

Nominal
71 It is the most appropriate to use the Spearman- Brown formula to estimate what form of
reliability?
a.Past-present
b.Test-retest
c.Split-half
d.Alternate forms

Split-half
72 The degree of correlation among all of the items on a scale

a.May be estimated by means of KR-20
b.may be estimated by means of the Rulon formula.
c.All of the above
d.Is referred to an inter-item consistency

All of the above
73 A measure of how much scores within a distribution differ among themselves is the:
a.Mean
b.Variance
c.Standard deviation
d.Frequency

Variance
74 Comparing an individual’s test score only with members of his/her own racial group is an
example of:
a.Norm monitoring
b.Tracking
c.Criterion monitoring
d.Within-group monitoring

Within-group monitoring
75 The type of correlation coefficient used to correlate a dichotomous variable (two categories)
and continuous variable is called:
a.Phi coefficient
b.Spearman’s Rho
c.Point biserial correlation
d.Multivariate analysis

Point biserial correlation
76 One’s general ability and potential, independent of prior learning, can best be described as
a.Achievement
b.Aptitude
c.Ability
d.Intelligence

Intelligence
77 Sources of error associated with time sampling are measured using:

a.The test-retest method
b.KR20
c.The Alpha method
d.The split half method

The test-retest method
78 The extent to which a test is valid for making statements about the criterion is represented by
its:
a.Validity coefficient
b.Squared validity coefficient
c.Content validity
d.Construct-irrelevant variance

Validity coefficient
79 Discriminant and convergent evidence provide evidence for what type of validity?
a.Criterion
b.Construct
c.Content
d.Predictive

Construct
80 A test format that is typically used for attitude measurement is the:

a.Likert format
b.Category format
c.Dichotomous format
d.Checklist format

Likert format
81 The extreme group method and the point biserial method are both used to estimate:
a.Difficulty
b.Validity
c.Discriminability
d.Reliability

Discriminability
82 Rosenthal asserted the expectancy effects are likely to result from subtle uses of:
a.Gender and racial bias
b.Reinforcement
c.Disapproving comments
d.Non-verbal communication

Non-verbal communication
83 Test scores of paper and pencil tests compared to computer assisted tests indicate:
a.The scores are about equivalent
b.Better scores are achieved by computer assisted tests
c.Better scores are achieved by paper and pencil tests
d.Poorer control with computer assisted tests

The scores are about equivalent
84 The stability of the GRE has been evaluated by:

a.Extensive test-retest reliability coefficients
b.Inter rater reliability coefficients
c.Correlating scores to a number of students who completed graduate school.
d.Kuder-Richardson

Kuder-Richardson
85 Coaching for the GRE:

a.Is generally available for free from the universities.
b.Has significantly increased scores.
c.Is only offered by a few private companies
d.Is likely to be most helpful for those at the low end of the scale

Is likely to be most helpful for those at the low end of the scale
86 The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery:
a.Has poor psychometric characteristics
b.Is not valid predictor of training performance
c.Now has a computerized adaptive version.
d.Does not have adequate norming information

Has poor psychometric characteristics
87 Achievement, aptitude, and intelligence can be encompassed by the term

a.Human potential
b.Human personality
c.Human ability
d.Human traits

Human ability
88 Rating scales are used to record judgments about

a.Objects
b.All of the above
c.Others
d.Oneself

All of the above
89 A Likert scale is a
a.Developmental scale
b.Summative scale
c.Categorical scale
d.Unidimensional scale

Summative scale
90 An essay tests is an example of a test that employs

a.An unselected- response format
b.A selected-response format
c.An under-constructed-response format
d.A constructed- response format

A constructed- response format
91 This index, symbolized by a lowercase italicized letter, compares performance on a particular

item with performance in the upper and lower regions of distribution of continuous scores, it is:
a.d
b.b
c.a
d.c
a.d
92 Research by Langois and her colleagues suggests that attractive infants, as compared to
unattractive infants, received from their mothers
a.More positive treatment
b.Adequate caregiving
c.Less handling and attention
d.Endowments

More positive treatment
93 The term “psychological assessment” refers to the

a.Process used by professionals to arrive at a diagnosis
b.Development of a treatment plan for an individual client
c.Procedures used to summarize a client’s problem
d.Determination of how environment factors impact the course of a disorder

Procedures used to summarize a client’s problem
94 Which of the following disorders involves physical complaints or disabilities that occur in the
absence of physical pathology?
a.Cognitive disorders
b.Somatoform disorders
c.Anxiety disorders
d.Dissociative disorders

Somatoform disorders
95 An alternative to hypnotic interview is

a.The stress interview
b.The cognitive interview
c.Face-to-face dialogue
d.The structured interview

The stress interview
96 Experts in forensic psychological assessment are called upon to testify in matters relating to
a.Competency to stand trial
b.Dangerousness of oneself or others
c.All of the above
d.Criminal responsibility

All of the above
97 A lawyer argues to court “My client did not know right from wrong at that time that the act
was committed and should therefore be found guilty on the basis of insanity.” This argument
hails back to the case of
a.M’Naghgten
b.All of the above
c.Rogers
d.Durham

M’Naghgten
98 Why is it important to obtain standardization?

a. Prevent bias
b. Provide reference sample where new can be compared
c. Separate subnormal from normal
d. Ensure representative samples

Provide reference sample where new can be compared
99 The standardization sample is representative if the sample

a. Has been subjected to rigorous control
b. Consists of individuals that are similar to the group to be tested
c. Consists a great many individuals
d. Is administered in the same way as the actual test group

Consists of individuals that are similar to the group to be tested
100 Administering a test with precisely the same instruction and format
a. Standard conditions
b. Normative conditions
c. Facilitative conditions
d. Group conditions

Standard conditions
-END OF EXAM SET 1-

1. The author of the test Self-Concept Scale for Children is

a. Lourdes Agbing
b. Manila Guidance Testing Center, Division of City Schools, Manila
c. Thurstone
d. Myrna Pasao
2. Yerkes-Dodson Curve is
a. A measure of central tendency
b. A role of error in statistical analysis
c. A measure of physical stimulation and mental processes
d. The empirical relationship between arousal and performance
3. If the reliability of a test is .35 or 35%. What percent is ascribed to random or

chance factors?
a. 60%
b. 65%
c. 5%
d. 35%
4. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) was created by

a. World Health Organization (WHO)
b. International Classification of Disease (ICD)
c. American Psychiatric Association (APA)
d. American Psychological Association (APA)
5. To test the predictive validity of a test of extraversion, a researcher could show

that people’s scores on the test correlate with …
a. their scores on another extraversion test
b. their scores on the same extraversion test at a later date
c. another person’s ratings of their extraversion
d. their frequency of attending parties over a two-month period
6. An IQ test does NOT provide which of the following?

a. High test re-test reliability.
b. Good predictor of behavior.
c. High internal consistency.
d. Good validity.
7. Which of the following do the Thematic Apperception Test not aim to assess?
a. Traits
b. Defense mechanisms
c. Motives
d. Object relations
8. The rationale for using projective tests is that they …

a. allow people to use the defense mechanism of projection
b. have superior re-test reliability
c. are labor-intensive
d. avoid self-report bias
9. A test-taker who repeatedly answers ‘false’ on a personality inventory with

true/false response options is showing which response bias?
a. Malingering
b. Faking bad
c. Naysaying
d. Self-deception
10. Frequency, mean, and percentage are examples of ________.

a. Descriptive statistics
b. Scale
c. Reliability
d. Inferential statistics
11. 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire is a

a. Level A test
b. Level C test
c. Level B test
d. None of the above
12. Alfred Binet and co-author, during their time, published several articles calling for
the measurement of various abilities such as memory and social comprehension.
This co-author, a student of Wundt’s at Leipzig, was
a. Simon
b. Kraeplin
c. Titchener
d. Henri
13. Which of the following is content-related evidence of validity?

a. Scores obtained on two administrations of the instrument are consistent
b. Scores are correlated with scores obtained on another instrument
c. Test items are at an appropriate grade level
d. Extent to which the test measures what the theory says they do.
14. A teacher administered a 30-item test to her class. Out of 45 students, 20 of them
answered item no. 1 correctly. The item difficulty index would be?
a. .50
b. .54
c. .44
d. .65
15. Which of the following is not usually used in employment testing?

a. DAT
b. GATB
c. ASVAB
d. MAT
16. “Julian roams around the classroom for 20 minutes every morning session.” This
statement is most likely to appear in a report using which tool of classroom?
a. Interview
b. Portfolio assessment
c. Performance assessment
d. Behavioral assessment
17. When discussing the results of psychological tests, Labels

a. May imply a person is not responsible for his or her actions.
b. May lower a person’s tolerance of stress.
c. May create a self-fulfilling prophecy
d. Do all of these
18. Test administration refers to

a. Construction of test
b. Validation of test
c. Act of making a test
d. Act of giving a test
19. Which of the following tests is purported to measure human needs?

a. 16PF
b. TAT
c. MMPI
d. Rorschach
20. Who is associated with the development of the TAT?

a. Murray & Morgan
b. Terman & Binet
c. Levy & Beck
d. Morgan & Beck
21. A state is characterized as ____________ EXCEPT.

a. dependent upon the situation.
b. may come and go.
c. strongly impacted by changes in the environment.
d. a genetic endowment.
22. The primary method of research employed by scientist adopting a behaviorist

perspective is
a. clinical observation
b. case study
c. naturalistic observation
d. cross-cultural comparison
23. A psychologist, wishing to study the behaviour of prisoners, arranges to dress up as

a prison guard so that he can stand in the recreation area and study unobtrusively
the actions and interactions of the inmates. The psychologist is employing which
of the following research tools?
a. quasi-experimental
b. naturalistic observation
c. random sampling
d. case study
24. Psychological testing is to psychological assessment as _________ is to __________.

a. Blood test; physical exam
b. Blood test; X-ray
c. WISC; intelligence
d. Test-retest; Reliability
25. The publication of which psychological test served as a catalyst for the early,
international growth of the field of psychological measurement?
a. The WISC
b. The Binet Test of Intelligence
c. The Rorschach Inkblot Test
d. The SB5
26. Which of the statement is true:

a. A factorial design is not based on analysis of variance.
b. Analysis of covariance is not related to correlation.
c. Correlation is related to predictability in methodology.
d. The range of correlation coefficients is -.04 to +.04.
27. The biggest boost to the new assessment enterprise in the United States arose from
the need to identify:
a. School children who were underachieving in Paris.
b. Entrepreneurial talent for the Industrial Revolution.
c. Apprentices for workers in the building and construction industry.
d. Competent recruits for the military during World War I.
28. Which is an example of biofeedback instrumentation that can be used as a tool
of psychological assessment?
a. The stress ball
b. The pendulum
c. The memory drum
d. The penile plethysmograph
29. An educational psychologist is administering a basic skills exam to second-graders

of two different schools in order to compare the students’ performance. The
researcher administers the exam to the students of Maginhawa Elementary School
on a Wednesday morning, and then administers the same exam in exactly the
same fashion on that same Wednesday afternoon to the second graders of the
Malikhain Elementary School. Which of the following best identifies a confounding
variable in this research?
a. the psychologist is comparing two different schools’ performance using two
different scoring system.
b. the psychologist is comparing the same grade in each school.
c. the psychologist is testing the students in the two schools at two different
times.
d. the psychologist is administering a basic skills exam with two different test
administrators.
30. Eighty-year-old Bella was administered the Binet-Simon Scale that suggested she
was functioning as the same level as a senior in high school. This test is an example
of a(n)
a. Outcome measure
b. Mental age scale
c. Restandardization
d. Norm
31. Which of the following is an example of trait?

a. Depression
b. Fear
c. Pessimism
d. Anger
32. Which of the following are both projective test?

a. The Rorschach and the MMPI
b. The Rorschach and the TAT
c. The Rorschach and the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
d. The TAT and the MMPI
33. Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire?

a. J.R. Guilford
b. R.B. Cattell
c. L.L. Thurstone
d. Sam Beck
34. When you gather information through verbal interaction you are using a(n)
a. Individual test
b. Interview
c. Group test
d. Brain storming
35. Current standards for test use state that the test development(s) must provide
sufficient, information to permit appropriate use of the test. Which of the
following does not have to be included in this information?
a. Guidelines for administration and scoring
b. Information regarding item construction
c. Validity data
d. Reliability data
36. All of the following are basic properties of a good test in terms of design except:
a. Has strong reliability and validity
b. Has clearly defined test purpose
c. Has specific and standard content
d. Has a set of standard administration and scoring procedure
37. __________ is a self-administered and self-scored career interest assessment

developed by Holland.
a. Career Development Inventory
b. Career Decision Scale
c. Career Assessment Inventory
d. Self-Directed Search
38. All of the following are commonly used in neuropsychological testing except:
a. Bender Gestalt
b. Wechsler-Bellevue
c. Halstead-Reitan
d. Luria-Nebraska
39. Rohan calculated a correlation coefficient of 0.78. Which of the following reflects
the interpretation of this?
a. Strong positive
b. Strong negative
c. Weak positive
d. Weak negative
40. Kinetic Drawing System for Family and School is
a. Level A test
b. Level C test
c. Level B test
d. None of the above
41. The term “psychological assessment” refers to the

a. Determination of how environment factors impact the course of a
disorder
b. Development of a treatment plan for an individual client
c. Procedures used to summarize a client’s problem
d. Process used by professionals to arrive at a diagnosis
42. Which of the following is not a weakness of interview methods of personality

assessment?
a. They allow interviewers to follow personal lines of questioning
b. They are sensitive to the interpersonal dynamics between interviewer and
interviewee
c. They have advantages when it comes to assessing personality disorders
d. They are time-consuming
43. Which of the following statements is not correct about personality inventories?
a. They tend to have high inter-rater reliability
b. They assess a single personality characteristic
c. They are developed through a process of selecting the best items from alarger set.
d. They are susceptible to several response biases because they rely on self-report
44. Which of the following statements is correct about the Rorschach inkblot test?
a. All blots are monochromatic
b. Interpretation is based only on the content of people’s responses
c. It aims to bypass the test-taker’s defenses
d. It has demonstrated strong evidence of incremental validity
45. Which of the following is not a weakness of many projective personality tests?
a. Poor predictive validity
b. Poor inter-rater reliability
c. Susceptibility to faking good bias
d. Susceptibility to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
46. Face validity refers to which of the following:

a. Facial expression is used to make a diagnosis.
b. The scale of emotional responding.
c. The notion that an assessment method may appear to be valid simply because it has
questions which intuitively seem relevant to the trait or
characteristic being measured.
d. A construct is a hypothetical or inferred attribute that may not be directly
observable or directly measurable
47. The best source of an objective review of a test is

a. Test in Print
b. The Mental Measurements Yearbook
c. The test publisher’s catalogue description of the test
d. APA’s “Finding Information About Psychological Tests”
48. A speed test which is composed of two subtests, number comparison and name
comparison.
a. Wonderlic Personnel Test
b. Bennett Mechanical Comprehension Test
c. NEO Personality Inventory
d. Minnesota Clerical Test
49. In 1932, he began developing ideas about how to measure brain dysfunction.
a. Wernicke
b. Halstead
c. Reitan
d. Hutt
50. The Strong Interest Inventory consists of the following Personal Style Scales EXCEPT
a. Learning
b. Enterprising
c. Working
d. Adventuring
51. A psychologist wants to determine if there is a significant difference in the I.Q.

scores of first year and second year students. He would use
a. A t-test for independent means
b. A t-test for dependent means
c. Chi-square
d. The Pearson
52. A clinical psychologist wants to study language acquisition and development. He

studies five children over a 5-year period. This psychologist is performing a
a. longitudinal study
b. case study
c. factor analysis
d. correlation study
53. Joseph wants to see the association between Conscientiousness and
Extraversion. Which among the statistical tools should he use?
a. Spearman Rho
b. Pearson R
c. Lambda
d. ANOVA
54. To assess the convergent validity of a new test of self-esteem, a researcher

should establish that…
a. it correlates highly with a different test of self-esteem
b. it does not correlate too highly with a different test of self-esteem
c. it correlates highly with a test of narcissism
d. it does not correlate too highly with a test of narcissism
55. Psychometric reliability refers to the degree to which a test is …

a. free from measurement error
b. consistent
c. dependable
d. all of the above
56. Administering a test with precisely the same instructions and format is called
a. Normative conditions
b. Standard conditions
c. Facilitative conditions
d. Group conditions
57. To establish norms, a large group of people is being given a test under the same conditions
in which the test will be used. This group is called a(n) _____ group.
a. Reliability
b. Standardization
c. Random
d. Experimental
58. Portfolio assessment includes

a. Behavioral assessment
b. Personality assessments
c. Work Sample assessments
d. All of the above
59. This test uses forced-choice items that generate ipsative, rather than normative,
scores.
a. EPPS
b. MBTI
c. MMPI
d. CAS
60. What would be the best source for locating a professional test review for a
commercially available published test?
a. Measures for Psychological Assessment
b. Mental Measurements Yearbook
c. Test Critiques
d. Personality Test and Reviews
61. What is an advantage of T scores over z-scores?

a. z scores have no negative numbers
b. T scores have no negative numbers
c. T scores are more precise
d. all are correct
62. Arithmetic mean is to ________ as median is to ________.

a. range; standard deviation
b. standard deviation; range
c. variance; standard deviation
d. dispersion; variance
63. Edward was given a test that requires him to demonstrate his driving ability. This
can best be classified as what type of test?
a. Test of maximal performance
b. Projective test
c. Self-report test
d. Behavior observation test
64. Dan obtained a raw score of 30 on the final examination. If the mean was 25
and the standard deviation was 5, Dan’s T score would be
a. 30
b. 50
c. 65
d. 60
65. A high school student who is undecided on what course to take in college seeks
help of a vocational counselor. What type of test would the counselor most likely
administer to help the student?
a. Intelligence test
b. Interest test
c. Achievement test
d. Aptitude test
66. Intelligence test results are not considered reliable
a. Not standardized
b. Before seven years of age
c. Before puberty
d. Before twenty years of age
67. If you record the heights and weights of a group of students, the data collected is
a. Ordinal
b. Discrete
c. Continuous
d. Multimodal
68. It is important to obtain a standardization sample

a. To prevent bias.
b. To provide a reference sample to which the results of a new subject can be compared.
c. To separate the intellectually subnormal from the normal individual.
d. To ensure the representatives of a sample.
69. Two or more test that are given in conjecture and relate seemingly diverse
topics are called
a. Structured
b. Unstructured
c. Batteries
d. Civil service exams
70. If a particular test “X” has been shown to accurately predict success in a particular job, then
the test is said to be
a. Valid
b. Structured
c. Ambiguous
d. Reliable
71. If the standard deviation of a set of test scores is equal to 5, the variance is
equal to:
a. 25
b. 5
c. 50
d. 2.5
72. You administer a 100-item achievement test to 20 students in which students earn 1 point
for each correct answer. You note one extreme score of 95. All the other students score
between 20 and 30. What measure of central tendency
would be most advisable to use.
a. average deviation
b. the median
c. the mode
d. the standard deviation
73. Statistical tools are used for

a. describing numbers
b. making inferences about numbers
c. drawing conclusions about numbers
d. all are correct
74. Rorschach uses inkblots while Kent-Rosanoff uses ______ as projective stimuli.
a. Pictures
b. Words
c. Drawings
d. Colors
75. The MBTI Test reflects the works of _________.

a. Jung
b. Murray
c. Myers
d. Briggs
76. Between-subjects design is less efficient than a within-subjects design because

a. It has more subjects
b. It is reliable
c. It can test an assumption or hypothesis
d. It must deal with difference among subjects
77. By obtaining two scores with just one test administered in 10-day interval, a
researcher achieves
a. Test-retest reliability
b. Alternate reliability
c. Split-half reliability
d. Internal consistency
78. Which of the following is no longer considered a scientific method in studying

psychology?
a. non-parametric statistics
b. introspection
c. multiple case study
d. hypothesis testing
79. Ms. Bartolome has a client who self-diagnosed herself with schizophrenia. She is
deciding on what test should she administer to come with an appropriate
diagnosis and understanding of the client’s case. Which of the following test is
least appropriate?
a. MMPI
b. MBTI
c. NEO PI-R
d. TAT
80. The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of
reliability or validity does this imply?
a. Convergent validity
b. Content validity
c. Internal consistency
d. Retest reliability
81. Developed by Robert Yerkes, the ________ is a language-free test that was designed to
assess the cognitive ability of military recruits who could not read or were foreign born.
a. Army Alpha
b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test
c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
d. Army Beta
82. If a professional school counselor wants to know if a student is ready to move to the next
grade level, she should administer a(n)
a. maximal performance test.
b. speed test.
c. objective test.
d. typical performance test.
83. Holly is a third grader who is academically struggling. Her mother discloses to the school
counselor that she believes Holly might have a learning disability. Under IDEA legislation, Holly
is entitled to which of the following?
a. Confidentiality of her student records, which could contain results from any disability testing
services she receives.
b. The right to receive appropriate accommodations during the administration of class tests
since she may have a learning disability.
c. The right to receive disability testing services at the expense of the public school system in
order to determine if she does have a learning disability.
d. The right to receive vocational assessment and counseling services.
84. A professional counselor releases a client's test results to a bachelor's-level case manager
who has no training in testing and assessment. What ethical guideline was violated?
a. Informed consent
b. Release of results to qualified professionals
c. Communicating test results
d. Competence to use and interpret assessment instruments
85. A professional counselor would like information related to the Beck Depression Inventory
(BDI). Specifically, he would like information related to the instrument's score reliability and
validity, as well as a critique of using the assessment in clinical settings. Which source is
designed to provide this information?
a. Mental Measurements Yearbook
b. Tests in Print
c. Tests
d. DSM-5
86.. Which of the following is NOT true about test validity?

a. Validity should be reported in terms of test purpose and intended population.
b. Test scores do not have to be valid to be reliable.
c. A validity coefficient of .55 is high.
d. False positive errors contribute to a lack of test score validity.
87. A counseling researcher wants to establish the reliability of a new eating disorder scale. She
administers the scale to the same participants twice to evaluate the consistency of scores over
time. Which type of reliability is the counseling researcher using?
a. Alternate form reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Factor analysis
88. If a math test item has positive item discrimination, it can be said that
a. more students who knew the material answered the question correctly than students who did
not know the material well.
b. more students who did not know the material well answered the question correctly than
students who knew the material.
c. all students answered the question correctly.
d. 50% of all students answered the question correctly.
89. A professional counselor would like to track her clients' therapeutic outcomes. She decides
to administer each client a shortened version of the Outcome Questionnaire (OQ-45). The
shortened version has 30 items, which is 15 items less than the full-length version. Which of the
following is a concern when administering a shorter test?
a. Item discrimination
b. Face validity
c. Reliability
d. Decision accuracy
90.. Item response theory can be used to

a. detect equivalence in an item that is written in different languages.
b. detect item bias in the same test given to African Americans and Latino Americans.
c. determine if an SAT score of 1,000 is equivalent to an IQ score of 114.
d. give a bright student an exam with more difficult items.
91. If a client scored 45 on an anxiety screening, what can the professional counselor conclude
about his level of anxiety?
a. The client has a high level of anxiety and should be medicated.
b. The client has an average level of anxiety and his symptoms should improve with CBT.
c. The client has a low level of anxiety and does not need to seek treatment.
d. There is not enough information to make a clinical decision about the client's anxiety level
and need for treatment.
92. If a set of high school standardized test scores with a mean of 74 and a standard deviation
of 10 is normally distributed, what is the median?
a. 64
b. 84
c. 74
d. 104
93. In a normal distribution, _______ of scores falls between -1 and +2 standard deviations?
a. 68%
b. 2%
c. 82%
d. 98%
94. If the mean on an intelligence test is 100 and the standard deviation is 20, what is the
percentile rank of a client who scored an 80 on that test?
a. 34
b. 50
c. 84
d. 16
95. An individual with a z-score of -1.3 has a stanine score of

a. 2.4
b. 37
c. 2
d. 22.62
96.. Achievement testing includes each of the following EXCEPT

a. teacher-constructed criterion-referenced tests.
b. standardized norm-referenced tests.
c. intelligence tests.
d. All of the above are examples of achievement testing.
97. John, a third-grade student, is having trouble in math. The school counselor suspects that
John has a learning disability in math. Which of the following tests could be used to determine
whether John has a learning disability in math?
a. Iowa Test of Basic Skills
b. Stanford Achievement Test
c. Graduate Record Exam
d. Key Math Diagnostic Test
98. Which of the following is NOT an example of an aptitude test?

a. GRE general test
b. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB)
c. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test
d. WRAT4
99. A high school counselor would like to administer a vocational aptitude assessment to
students in the ninth grade that will assess multiple aptitudes. Her hope is that the assessment
will highlight student vocational strengths and offer potential careers that students might be
interested in. Which of the following assessments would be appropriate for the school counselor
to administer?
a. Skills Profiler Series
b. Differential Aptitude Test (DAT)
c. ACT Assessment
d. Clerical Test Battery
100. William Stern's ratio intelligence quotient, popularized on early versions of the
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, was calculated by dividing one's
a. mental age by chronological age.
b. broad cognitive abilities by narrow cognitive abilities.
c. chronological age by one's mental age.
d. narrow cognitive abilities by broad cognitive abilities.
ANSWER KEY
1. A
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. A
25. B
26. C
27. D
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. B
48. D
49. C
50. B
51. A
52. A
53. B
54. A
55. D
56. B
57. B
58. C
59. A
60. B
61. B
62. B
63. A
64. D
65. B
66. B
67. C
68. B
69. C
70. A
71. A
72. B
73. D
74. B
75. A
76. D
77. A
78. B
79. B
80. C
81. D
82. A
83. C
84. B
85. A
86. B
87. C
88. A
89. C
90. B
91. D
92. C
93. C
94. D
95. A
96. C
97. D
98. D
99. B
100. A
-END OF EXAM SET 2-

1. What is assessment?
A. the process that integrates information
B. testing which is always performed in a group setting
C. testing which is always performed in a single-individual
D. a pencil and paper measurement of assessing attributes
2. Because assessment is an integral part of counseling, it is crucial that practitioners become
competent in this area. These competencies can be coalesced into two major themes: (1)
knowledge of the test and its functions and (2) accepting responsibility for the competent use of
the test. Which specific skills a counselor should learn concerning accepting responsibility for
the competent use of the test?
A. staying abreast of assessment issues
B. skills related to competent assessment and to know the limits of their own
competency
C. counselors should never administer an assessment instrument without the necessary
knowledge and training
D. B and C
3. A test can be defined as a systematic method of measuring a sample of behavior. Test format
refers to the manner in which test items are presented. The format of an essay test is
considered a (n) ___ format.
A. subjective
B. objective
C. precise
D. concise
4. The ___ index indicates the percentage of individuals who answered each item correctly.
A. difficulty
B. critical
C. intelligence
D. personal
5. A test format could be normative or ipsative. In the normative format
A. each item depends on the item before it
B. each item depends on the item after it
C. each item is independent of the item before it
D. each item is independent of all other items
6. A client who takes normative test
A. cannot legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test
B. can legitimately be compared to the others who have taken the test
C. could not have taken an IQ test
D. could not have taken a personality test
7. In an ipsative measure the person taking the test must compare items to one another. The
result is that
A. an ipsative measure cannot be utilized for career guidance
B. you cannot legitimately compare two or more people who have taken an ipsative test
C. an ipsative measure is never valid
D. an ipsative measure is never reliable
8. Tests are often classified as speed tests versus power test. A timed test on how many nuts
and bolts the examinees screw together would be
A. power test
B. neither speed test nor power test
C. a speed test
D. example of an ipsative measure
9. Tests are classified according to methods used to score the assessment tool. Which tests
require predetermined methods for scoring the assessment?
A. nonverbal tests
B. verbal tests
C. subjective tests
D. objective tests
10. Which type of assessment of tools assess interest, attitudes, values, motives, and
temperament?
A. speed tests
B. power tests
C. cognitive
D. affective
11. The Code of Ethics and Standards of Practice (American Counseling Association (ACA,
1995) indicates that counselors need to recognize their level of competence and only perform
those testing and assessment services for which they have been trained. In what level of test
users must have a master’s degree in psychology or Guidance Counseling and have verification
of licensure or certification recognized by the publisher?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
12. There are four basic types of measurement scales: Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, and ration.
Any measurement of a client, whether it is height or level of self-esteem involves one of these
four types measurement scales. Which scale makes it possible to determine which scores are
smaller or larger than other scores?
A. nominal scale
B. ordinal scale
C. interval scale
D. ratio scale
13. A short answer test is a (n) ___ test.
A. objective
B. culture choice
C. forced choice
D. free choice
14. The PGCA Licensure Examination for Guidance Counselors is a (n) ___ test as scoring
procedure is specific.
A. subjective
B. objective
C. projective
D. subtest
15. The PGCA Licensure Examination for Guidance Counselors is a (n) ___ test.
A. free choice
B. force choice
C. projective
D. intelligence
16. A counseling test consists of 300 forced response items. The person taking the test can take
as long as he or she wants to answer the questions
A. this is most likely a projective measure
B. the is most likely a speed test
C. this is most likely a power test
D. this is most likely an invalid that
17. In a counseling research study two groups of subjects took a test with the same name.
However, when they talked with each other they discovered that the questions were different.
The researcher assumed both groups that they were given the same test. How is this possible?
A. The researcher is not telling the truth
B. The test was horizontal
C. The test was not a power test.
D. The researcher gave parallel forms of the same tests.
18. In a spiral test
A. the items get progressively easier
B. the difficulty of the items remains constant
C. each question is answered in a specified period of time
D. the items get progressively more difficult
19. In a cyclical test
A. the items got progressively easier
B. the difficulty of the items remains constant
C. several sections are spiral in nature
D. each question is answered in a specified period of time
20. A test battery is considered
A. a horizontal test
B. a vertical test
C. a valid test
D. a reliable test
21. The most critical factors in test selection are
A. the length of the test and the number of people who took the test in the morning
process
B. horizontal vs. vertical
C. validity and reliability
D. spiral versus cyclical format
22. In the field of testing, validity refers to
A. whether the test really measures what it purports to measure
B. whether the same test gives consistent measurement
C. the degree of cultural bias in the test
D. the fact that numerous tests measure the same traits
23. Face validity refers to the extent that a test
A. looks or appears to measure the intended attribute
B. measure a theoretical construct
C. appears to be constructed in an article fashion
D. can be compared to job performance
24. A new IQ test which yielded results nearly identical to other standardized measure would be
said to have
A. good concurrent validity
B. good face validity
C. superb internal consistency
D. all of the above
25. A reliable test is ___ valid
A. always
B. 90%
C. not always
D. 80%
26. A valid test is ___ reliable
A. not always
B. always
C. never
D. 80%
27. One method of testing reliability is to give the same test to the same group of people two
times and then correlate the scores. This is called
A. test-retest reliability
B. equivalent forms reliability
C. alternate forms reliability
D. split-half method
28. One of method testing reliability is to give the same population alternate forms of the
identical test. This known as
B. equivalent or alternate forms reliability
C. the split-half method
D. internal consistency
29. A counselor doing research decided to split’s standardized test in half by using the even
items as one test and the odd items as a second test and then correlate them. The counselor
A. used an invalid procedure to test reliability
B. was testing reliability via the split-half method
C. was testing reliability via the equivalent forms method
D. was testing reliability via the inter-rater method
30. As excellent psychological or counseling test would have a reliability coefficient of
A. .50
B. .90
C. 1.00
D. -9.0
31 IQ means
A. a query of intelligence
B. indication of intelligence
C. intelligence quotient
D. intelligence questions
32. Francis Galton believed that intelligence was
A. a unitary factor
B. best explained via a two-factor theory
C. best explained via the person’s environment
D. fluid and crystalized in nature
33. J.P. Guildford isolated 120 factors which added up to intelligence. He is also remembered for
his
A. thoughts on convergent and divergent thinking
B. work on cognitive therapy
C. work on behavior therapy
D. work to create the first standardized IQ test
34. The first intelligence test was created by
A. David Wechsler
B. J.P. Guildford
C. Francis Galton
D. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon
35. Today, the Standford-Binet IQ test is
A. a nonstandardized measure
B. a standardized measure
C. a projective measure
D. B and C
36. Simon and Binet pioneered the first IQ test around 1905. The first was created to
A. assess high school seniors in America
B. assess U.S. military recruits
C. discrimination normal from retarded Parisian children
D. measure genius in the college population
37. Most experts would agree that the Wechsler IQ test gained popularity as the Binet
A. must be administered in a group
B. favored the geriatric population
C. didn’t seem to be the best test for adults
D. was biased toward women
38. In a culture-fair test
A. items are known to the examinee regardless of his/her culture
B. the test is not standardized
C. culture-free items cannot be utilized
D. African Americans generally score higher than whites
39. The best IQ tests for a 22-year-old single male would be the
A. WPPSI-R
B. WAIS-III
C. WISC-III
D. computer-based testing
40. The best intelligence test for a kindergartener would be the
A. WPPSI-R
B. WAIS-III
C. WISC-III
D. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
41. The MMPI-2 is
A. an IQ test
B. a neurological test
C. a projective personality
D. a standardized personality test
42. In a projective test the counselee is shown
A. something which is highly reinforcing
B. something which is highly charged from an emotional standpoint
C. A and B
D. neutral stimuli
43. Lindzey (1959) organized projective techniques into the five categories. Expression
techniques are one category. Which of the following projective tests belong to the Expression
Category?
A. Rorschach Inkblot Test
B. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
C. Rotter Incomplete Sentences Blank (RISB)
D. House-Tree-Person (H-T-P)
44. Projective Techniques have some significant limitations because
A. the reliability evidence for most of these techniques is quite low
B. the validation information on most projective techniques is often meager
C. the lack of objectivity on scoring and lack of normative data further compound the
problem
D. all of the above
45. The counselor who favors projective measures would most likely be
A. Rogerian
B. behaviorist
C. TA Therapist
D. psychodynamic clinician
46. Standardization refers to the process of:
A. defining meaningful scores relative to a representative pretested group
B. determining the accuracy with which a text measures what it is supported to
C. determining the consistency of test scores obtained by retesting people
D. measuring the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict
47. The word psychometric means
A. a form of measurement used by a neurologist
B. any form of mental testing
C. a mental trait which cannot be measured
D. the test relies on a summated or linear rating scale
48. Test that assess a person’s capacities and compare them to others, using numerical scores
are ___.
A. aptitude tests
B. intelligence test
C. achievement tests
D. emotional intelligence tests
49. Which of the following provides the strongest evidence of the role of heredity in determining
intelligence?
A. The IQ scores of identical twins raised separately are very similar
B. The intelligence scores of fraternal twins are more similar than those of ordinary
siblings
C. The intelligence scores of identical twins raised together are more similar than those
of identical twins raised apart.
D. The intelligence scores of adopted children show relatively weak correlation with
scores of adoptive as well as biological parents.
50. The existence of ___ reinforces the generally accepted notion that intelligence is a
multidimensional quality.
A. adaptive skills
B. mental retardation
C. general intelligence
D. savant syndrome
51. Reported racial gaps in average intelligence scores are most likely attribute to:
A. the use of biased tests of intelligence
B. the use of unreliable tests of intelligence
C. genetic factors
D. environmental factors
52. The bell-shaped distribution of intelligence scores in the general population is called a:
A. g distribution
B. standardization curve
C. bimodal distribution
D. normal distribution
53. The concept of a g factor implies that intelligence
A. is a single overall ability
B. is several specific abilities
C. cannot be defined or measured
D. is a dynamic rather than stable phenomenon
54. If a test designed to indicate which applicants are likely to perform the best on the job fails,
to do so, the test has:
A. low reliability
B. low content validity
C. low predictive validity
D. not been standardized
55. Originally, IQ was defined as
A. mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100
B. chronological age divided by mental age and multiplied by 100
C. mental age subtracted from chronological age and multiplied by 100
D. chronological age subtracted from mental age and multiplied by 100
56. Current intelligence tests compute an individual’s intelligence score as:
A. the ratio of mental age to chronological age multiplied by 100
B. the ration of chronological age to mental age multiplied by 100
C. the amount by which the test taker’s performance deviates from the average
performance of others of the same age
D. the ration of the test taker’s verbal intelligence score to his or her nonverbal
intelligence score
57. Gabby has superb social skills, manages conflicts well, and has great empathy for his
friends and co-workers. Peter Salovey and John Meyer would probably say that Gabby
possesses a high degree of
A. g intelligence
B. social intelligence
C. practical intelligence
D. emotional intelligence
58. The formula for intelligence quotient was devised by
A. Sternberg
B. Stern
C. Binet
D. Terman
59. The test created by Alfred Binet was designed specifically to
A. measure inborn intelligence in adults
B. measure inborn intelligence in children
C. predict school performance in children
D. identify mentally retarded children so that they could be institutionalized
60. Twenty-two-year-old Daniel has an intelligence score of 63 and academic skills of a fourth
grade, and is unable to live independently. Dan probably
A. has Down syndrome
B. has savant syndrome
C. is mentally retarded
D. will eventually achieve self-supporting social and vocational skills
61. Rene’s intelligence scores were only average, but he has been enormously successful as a
corporate manager. Psychologists Sternberg and Wagner would probably suggest that Rene’s
___ intelligence exceeds his ___ intelligence.
A. verbal; performance
B. performance; verbal
C. academic; practical
D. practical; academic
62. Jack takes the same test of mechanical reasoning on several different days and gets
virtually identical scores. This suggests that the test has:
A. high content validity
B. high reliability
C. high predictive validity
D. all of the above qualities
63. If you wanted to develop a test of musical aptitude in Filipino children, which would be the
appropriate standardization group?
A. Children all over the world
B. Filipino children
C. Children of musical parents
D. Children with known musical ability
64. Before becoming lawyers, law students must pass a special licensing exam, which is an ___
test. Before entering college, high school students must take the SAT, which is an ___ test.
A. achievement; aptitude
B. aptitude; achievement
C. achievement; achievement
D. aptitude; aptitude
65. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the position regarding the relative
contribution of genes and environment in determining intelligence?
A. Except in cases of a neglectful early environment, each individual’s basic intelligence
is largely a product of heredity
B. With the exception of those with genetic disorders such as Down Syndrome,
intelligence is primarily the product of environmental experiences
C. Both genes and life experiences significantly influence performance on intelligence
tests
D. Because intelligence tests have such low predictive validity, the question cannot be
addressed until psychologists agree on a more valid test of intelligence
66. Psychometric theories of intelligence are based on the premises that intelligence can be
described in terms of mental factors, which are general metal skills that influence mental
performance in a variety of situations. Theorists, however, are not in total agreement on the
number of types of factors that constitute intelligence. Who was the theorist who postulated a
two-factor theory of intelligence and contended that everyone has the first factor – a general
ability factor (g) that influences a person’s performance on all intellectual tasks?
A. Spearman
B. Guildford
C. Thurstone
D. Cattell
67. Who among the theorists contend that intelligence can be better explained by focusing on
lower-order factors, such as the differences between fluid and crystalized intelligence?
A. Vernon
B. Cattell
C. Piaget
D. Gardner
68. What environmental factors influence intelligence?
A. cultural environment
B. schooling
C. family
D. all of the above
69. An aptitude test is to ___ as an achievement test is to ___.
A. what has been learned; potential
B. potential; what has been learned
C. profit from learning; potential
D. a measurement of current skill; potential
70. A reliability coefficient of 1.00 indicates
A. a lot of variances in the test
B. a score with a high level of error
C. a perfect score which has no error
D. a typical correlation on most psychological and counseling tests
71. A researcher working with a personality test discovers that the test has a reliability
coefficient of 7.0 which is somewhat typical. This is an indication that
A. 70% of the score is accurate while 30% is inaccurate
B. 30% of the people who are tested will receive accurate scores
C. 70% of the people who are tested will receive accurate scores
D. 30% of the score is accurate while 70% is inaccurate
72. A counselor is told by him to measure the internal consistency reliability of a test but not to
divide the test in halves. The counselor would need to utilize
A. the split-half method
B. the test-retest method
C. the Kuder-Richardson coefficients of equivalence
D. cross validation
73. The best intelligence test for a sixth-grade girl would be the
A. WPPSI-R
B. WAIS-III
C. WISC-III
D. Merrill Palmer
74. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator reflects the work of
A. Raymond B. Cattell
B. Carl Jung
C. William Glasser
D. Oscar Buros
75. A counselor who fears the client has an organic, neurological, or motoric difficulty would
most likely use the
A. Bender Gestalt
B. Rorschach
C. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
D. Thematic Appreciation Test
76. An interest inventory would be least valid when used with
A. a third-year college student majoring in philosophy
B. a fourth-year college student majoring in physics
C. 6th-grade boy with an IQ of 136
D. 46-year-old male construction worker
77. One major criticism of interest inventories is that
A. they have far too many questions
B. they are most appropriate for very young children
C. they emphasize professional positions and minimum blue-collar jobs
D. they favor female pursuits
78. Interest inventories are positive in the sense that
A. they are reliable and not threatening to the test taker
B. they are always graded by the test taker
C. they require little or no reading skills
D. they have high validity in nearly all age brackets
79. One problem with interest inventories is that the person often tries to answer the question in
a socially acceptable manner. Psychometricians call this response style phenomenon
A. standard error
B. social desirability (the right way to feel in society)
C. cultural bias
D. acquiescence
80. Your directors wants you to find a new personality tests for your counseling center. You
should read
A. professional journals
B. the Buros Mental Measurement Yearbook
C. test materials produced by the testing company
D. all of the above
81. The standard error or measurement tells you
A. how accurate or inaccurate a test score is
B. what population responds bets to the test
C. the accuracy of personality but not IQ tests
D. the number of people used in norming the test
82. A counselor created an achievement test with reliability coefficient of .82. The test is
shortened since many clients felt it was too long. The counselor shortened the test but logically
assumed that the reliability coefficient would now
A. be approximately .88
B. remain at .82
C. be at least 10 points higher or lower
D. lower than .82
83. A co-counselor invents a new projective test. Seventeen counselors rated the same using
the measure and came up with nearly identical assessments. This would indicate
A. high validity
B. high reliability
C. excellent morning studies
D. culture fairness
84. Counselors often shy away from self-reports since
A. clients often give inaccurate answers
B. ethics do not allow the,
C. clients need a very high IQ to understand them
D. they are generally very lengthy
85. In most instances, who would be best qualified to give the Rorschach Inkblot Test?
A. a counselor with an MA degree in Guidance and Counseling
B. a clinical psychologist
C. a psychiatrist
D. a social worker
86. Projective tests such as the Rorschach Inkblot Test have been criticized because
A. their scoring system is too rigid and leads to unfair labeling
B. they were standardized with unrepresentative samples
C. they have low reliability and low validity
D. it is easy for people to fake answers in order to appear healthy
87. In studying personality, a trait theorist would most likely
A. use a projective test
B. observe a person in a variety of situations
C. use a personality inventory
D. use the method of free association
88. In studying personality, a social-cognitive theorist would most likely make use of
A. personality-inventories
B. projective tests
C. observing behavior in different situations
D. factor analyses
89. A counselor at the campus mental health center administered an empirically derived
personality test to diagnose an emotionally troubled student. Which test did the counselor most
likely administer?
A. The MMPI
B. The TAT
C. The Rorschach
D. The Locus of Control Scale
90. The personality test Josie is taking involves her describing random patterns of dots. What
type of test is she taking?
A. an empirically derived test
B. the MMPI
C. a personality behavior
D. a projective test
91. Benito was born in 1973. In 1983, he scored 130 on an intelligence test. What was Benito’s
mental age when he took the test?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 13
92. At age 16, Angela’s intelligence score was 110. What will her score probably be at age 32?
A. 105
B. 110
C. 115
D. There is no basis for predicting an individual’s future IQ.
93. A school counselor found that 85 percent of those who scored above 115 in an aptitude test
were “a” students and 75 percent of those who scored below 85 on the test were “d” students.
The counselor concluded that the test had high ___ validity because scores on it correlated
highly with the ___.
A. content; criterion
B. predictive; criterion
C. content; target
D. predictive; target
94. Most experts view intelligence as a person’s
A. ability to perform well on intelligence tests
B. innate mentally capacity
C. ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and adapt to new situations
D. diverse skills acquired through life
95. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the experin’position regarding the
relative contribution of genes and environment in determining intelligence?
A. Except in cases of a neglectful early environment, each individual’s basic intelligence
Is largely the product of heredity.
B. With the exception of those with genetic disorders such as Down Syndrome,
intelligence is primarily the product of environmental experiences
C. Both genes and life experiences significantly influence performance on intelligence
tests
D. Because intelligence tests have such low predictive validity, the question cannot be
addressed until psychologist agree on a more valid test of intelligence
96. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory is a (n)
A. projective personality test
B. empirically derived and objective personality test
C. personality test developed mainly to assess job applicants
D. personality test used primarily to assess locus of control
97. Which term is most closely associated with validity?

a. Subjective
b. Accuracy
c. Objective
d. Meaningfulness
98. Between-subjects design is less efficient than a within-subjects design because

a. It has more subjects
b. It is reliable
c. It can test an assumption or hypothesis
d. It must deal with difference among subjects
99. By obtaining two scores with just one test administered in 10-day interval, a
researcher achieves
a. Test-retest reliability
b. Alternate reliability
c. Split-half reliability
d. Internal consistency
100. Which of the following is no longer considered a scientific method in studying

psychology?
a. non-parametric statistics
b. introspection
c. multiple case study
d. hypothesis testing
ANSWER KEY:
1. D. a pencil and paper measurement of assessing attributes
2. D. B and C
3. A. subjective
4. A. difficulty
5. D. each item is independent of all other items
6. B. can legitimately be compared to the others who have taken the test
7. B. you cannot legitimately compare two or more people who have taken an ipsative test
8. C. a speed test
9. D. objective tests
10. D. affective
11. B. Level B
12. B. ordinal scale
13. D. free choice
14. B. objective
15. B. force choice
16. C. this is most likely a power test
17. D. The researcher gave parallel forms of the same tests.
18. A. the items get progressively easier
19. C. several sections are spiral in nature
20. A. a horizontal test
21. C. validity and reliability
22. A. whether the test really measures what it purports to measure
23. A. looks or appears to measure the intended attribute
24. A. good concurrent validity
25. C. not always
26. B. always
27. A. test-retest reliability
28. B. equivalent or alternate forms reliability
29. B. was testing reliability via the split-half method
30. B. 0.90
31. C. intelligence quotient
32. A. a unitary factor
B. best explained via a two-factor theory (SPEARMAN)
C. best explained via the person’s environment (BANDURA)
D. fluid and crystalized in nature (CATTELL)
33. A. thoughts on convergent and divergent thinking
34. D. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon
35. B. a standardized measure
36. C. discrimination normal from retarded Parisian children
37. C. didn’t seem to be the best test for adults
38. A. items are known to the examinee regardless of his/her culture
39. B. WAIS-III
40. A. WPPSI-R
41. D. a standardized personality test
42. D. neutral stimuli
43. D. House-Tree-Person (H-T-P)
44. D. all of the above
45. D. psychodynamic clinician
46. A. defining meaningful scores relative to a representative pretested group
47. B. any form of mental testing
48. B. intelligence test
49. C. The intelligence scores of identical twins raised together are more similar than those of
identical twins raised apart.
50. D. savant syndrome
51. D. environmental factors
52. D. normal distribution
53. A. is a single overall ability
54. C. low predictive validity
55. A. mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100
56. C. the amount by which the test taker’s performance deviates from the average performance
of others of the same age
57. D. emotional intelligence
58. B. Stern
59. C. predict school performance in children
60. C. is mentally retarded
D. will eventually achieve self-supporting social and vocational skills
61. D. practical; academic
62. B. high reliability
63. B. Filipino children
64. A. achievement; aptitude
65. C. Both genes and life experiences significantly influence performance on intelligence tests
66. A. Spearman
67. B. Cattell
69. B. potential; what has been learned
70. C. a perfect score which has no error
71. A. 70% of the score is accurate while 30% is inaccurate
72. C. the Kuder-Richardson coefficients of equivalence
73. C. WISC-III
74. B. Carl Jung
75. A. Bender Gestalt
76. A. a third-year college student majoring in philosophy
77. C. they emphasize professional positions and minimum blue-collar jobs
78. A. they are reliable and not threatening to the test taker
79. B. social desirability (the right way to feel in society)
81. A. how accurate or inaccurate a test score is
82. D. lower than .82
83. B. high reliability
84. A. clients often give inaccurate answers
85.B. a clinical psychologist
86. C. they have low reliability and low validity
87. C. use a personality inventory
88. C. observing behavior in different situations
89. A. The MMPI
90. D. a projective test
91. D. 13
92. B. 110
93. B. predictive; criterion
94. D. diverse skills acquired through life
95. C. Both genes and life experiences significantly influence performance on intelligence tests
96. C. personality test developed mainly to assess job applicants
97. D. Meaningfulness
98. D. It must deal with difference among subjects
99. A. Test-retest reliability
100. B. introspection
-END OF EXAM SET 3-

1. Developed by Robert Yerkes, the ________ is a language-free test that was designed to
assess the cognitive ability of military recruits who could not read or were foreign born.
a. Army Alpha
b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test
c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
d. Army Beta
-B
2. If a professional school counselor wants to know if a student is ready to move to the next
grade level, she should administer a(n)
a. maximal performance test.
b. speed test.
c. objective test.
d. typical performance test.
-A
3. Holly is a third grader who is academically struggling. Her mother discloses to the school
counselor that she believes Holly might have a learning disability. Under IDEA legislation, Holly
is entitled to which of the following?
a. Confidentiality of her student records, which could contain results from any disability testing
services she receives.
b. The right to receive appropriate accommodations during the administration of class tests
since she may have a learning disability.
c. The right to receive disability testing services at the expense of the public school system in
order to determine if she does have a learning disability.
d. The right to receive vocational assessment and counseling services.
-C
4. A professional counselor releases a client's test results to a bachelor's-level case manager

who has no training in testing and assessment. What ethical guideline was violated?
a. Informed consent
b. Release of results to qualified professionals
c. Communicating test results
d. Competence to use and interpret assessment instruments
-B
5. A professional counselor would like information related to the Beck Depression Inventory
(BDI). Specifically, he would like information related to the instrument's score reliability and
validity, as well as a critique of using the assessment in clinical settings. Which source is
designed to provide this information?
a. Mental Measurements Yearbook
b. Tests in Print
c. Tests
d. DSM-5
-A
6. Which of the following is NOT true about test validity?

a. Validity should be reported in terms of test purpose and intended population.
b. Test scores do not have to be valid to be reliable.
c. A validity coefficient of .55 is high.
d. False positive errors contribute to a lack of test score validity.
-B
7. A counseling researcher wants to establish the reliability of a new eating disorder scale. She
administers the scale to the same participants twice to evaluate the consistency of scores over
time. Which type of reliability is the counseling researcher using?
a. Alternate form reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Factor analysis
-C
8. If a math test item has positive item discrimination, it can be said that
a. more students who knew the material answered the question correctly than students who did
not know the material well.
b. more students who did not know the material well answered the question correctly than
students who knew the material.
c. all students answered the question correctly.
d. 50% of all students answered the question correctly.
-A
9. A professional counselor would like to track her clients' therapeutic outcomes. She decides to
administer each client a shortened version of the Outcome Questionnaire (OQ-45). The
shortened version has 30 items, which is 15 items less than the full-length version. Which of the
following is a concern when administering a shorter test?
a. Item discrimination
b. Face validity
c. Reliability
d. Decision accuracy
-C
10. Item response theory can be used to

a. detect equivalence in an item that is written in different languages.
b. detect item bias in the same test given to African Americans and Latino Americans.
c. determine if an SAT score of 1,000 is equivalent to an IQ score of 114.
d. give a bright student an exam with more difficult items.
-B
11. If a client scored 45 on an anxiety screening, what can the professional counselor conclude
about his level of anxiety?
a. The client has a high level of anxiety and should be medicated.
b. The client has an average level of anxiety and his symptoms should improve with CBT.
c. The client has a low level of anxiety and does not need to seek treatment.
d. There is not enough information to make a clinical decision about the client's anxiety level
and need for treatment.
-D
12. If a set of high school standardized test scores with a mean of 74 and a standard deviation
of 10 is normally distributed, what is the median?
a. 64
b. 84
c. 74
d. 104
-C
13. In a normal distribution, _______ of scores falls between -1 and +2 standard deviations?
a. 68%
b. 2%
c. 82%
d. 98%
-C
14. If the mean on an intelligence test is 100 and the standard deviation is 20, what is the
percentile rank of a client who scored an 80 on that test?
a. 34
b. 50
c. 84
d. 16
-D
15. An individual with a z-score of -1.3 has a stanine score of

a. 2.4
b. 37
c. 2
d. 22.62
-A
16. Achievement testing includes each of the following EXCEPT

a. teacher-constructed criterion-referenced tests.
b. standardized norm-referenced tests.
c. intelligence tests.
d. All of the above are examples of achievement testing.
-C
17. John, a third-grade student, is having trouble in math. The school counselor suspects that
John has a learning disability in math. Which of the following tests could be used to determine
whether John has a learning disability in math?
a. Iowa Test of Basic Skills
b. Stanford Achievement Test
c. Graduate Record Exam
d. Key Math Diagnostic Test
-D
18. Which of the following is NOT an example of an aptitude test?

a. GRE general test
b. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB)
c. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test
d. WRAT4
-D
19. A high school counselor would like to administer a vocational aptitude assessment to
students in the ninth grade that will assess multiple aptitudes. Her hope is that the assessment
will highlight student vocational strengths and offer potential careers that students might be
interested in. Which of the following assessments would be appropriate for the school counselor
to administer?
a. Skills Profiler Series
b. Differential Aptitude Test (DAT)
c. ACT Assessment
d. Clerical Test Battery
-B
20. William Stern's ratio intelligence quotient, popularized on early versions of the
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, was calculated by dividing one's
a. mental age by chronological age.
b. broad cognitive abilities by narrow cognitive abilities.
c. chronological age by one's mental age.
d. narrow cognitive abilities by broad cognitive abilities.
-A
21. A professional counselor would like to administer an objective personality assessment to her
adult client. She would like the assessment to identity DSM-5 related personality disorders.
Which of the following assessments should the counselor use?
a. California Psychological Inventory (CPI)
b. Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI-IV)
c. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2)
-B
22. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator uses four dichotomous scales to measure personality.
What specific aspect of personality does the sensing vs. intuition scale measure?
a. How you perceive the world around you.
b. How you make decisions.
c. Where your energy is directed.
d. How you deal with the external world.
-A
23. In an initial session a professional counselor notices the client appears disheveled, has
abnormal movements, and appears paranoid. The profession counselor is concerned about the
client and would like to administer an assessment that will capture information on client
appearance, movement, and thought content. Which one of the following assessments is most
appropriate?
a. Mental status exam
b. Bayley scales
c. House-Tree-Person
d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2
-A
24. Performance assessments

a. require examinees to complete a paper-and-pencil test.
b. require examinees to perform a task.
c. are advantageous when working with highly verbal clients.
d. All of the above.
-B
25. Based on the risk factors associated with committing suicide, which client is MOST likely to
commit suicide?
a. An 18-year-old, African American male with a family history of suicide.
b. A 78-year-old, widowed Caucasian female who is depressed.
c. A 40-year-old, Hispanic woman with a diagnosed anxiety disorder and a history of alcohol
abuse.
d. A 67-year-old, divorced Caucasian male who recently lost his job and reports feelings of
hopelessness.
-D
26. Requiring minority students to take standardized college admission exams that were
designed for White, middle-class students constitutes ______ bias.
a. interpretive
b. situational
c. ecological
d. examiner
-C
27. According to the ACA and NBCC codes of ethics, professional counselors
a. must rely on cultural stereotypes when assessing multicultural populations.
b. do not need to be knowledgeable about the client's culture if using a multiculturally
appropriate assessment.
c. use instruments that provide norms for the specific client population that is being assessed.
-C
28. When administering a test to a client from a different cultural background, professional
counselors should consider using a test that has been adapted over one that has been
translated for all but ONE of the following reasons.
a. Test adaptation includes translating language, as well as empirically evaluating the cultural
equivalence.
b. Test adaptation is preferred to test translation.
c. Test translation has been heavily criticized for assuming equivalence in content and values
across cultures.
d. Test translation sufficiently reduces cultural bias in testing.
-D
29. A career counselor would like to begin administering the Strong Interest Inventory via the
computer vs. paper-and-pencil. Which of the following would be a disadvantage of implementing
computer-based testing?
a. Greater scoring accuracy
b. Can provide immediate feedback concerning client performance
c. Clients prefer test administration via the computer when responding to sensitive topics
d. Minimizes human contact and involvement in the testing process
-D
30. The GRE has the ability to modify the test structure and items to the examinee's ability level.
This characteristic makes the GRE a(n)
a. aptitude test.
b. computer-adaptive test.
e. projective test.
d. computer-based test.
-B
31. The DSM-5

a. is not often used by professional counselors.
b. is difficult to interpret into laymen's terms for the client.
c. provides a common language for mental health professionals to communicate with one
another.
-C
32. Which of the following is a DSM-5 neurodevelopmental disorder?

a. Posttraumatic stress disorder.
b. Antisocial personality disorder.
c. Attention-deficit/ hyperactivity disorder.
d. Oppositional defiant disorder.
-C
33. Individuals with conduct disorder cannot simultaneously be diagnosed with

a. Oppositional defiant disorder.
b. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
c. Separation anxiety disorder.
d. Learning disorder.
-A
34. Alam has been feeling down since he left his country of origin three years ago. He misses
his family, his children, his culture, and his language. There are not many people from
Bangladesh living in his neighborhood. He's experienced a depressed mood more often than
not during this time period. Alam would likely be diagnosed with
a. major depressive disorder.
b. cyclothymic disorder.
c. bipolar I disorder.
d. persistent depressive disorder.
-D
35. __________ has been translated to mean "fear of the marketplace."

a. Agoraphobia
b. Factitious disorder
c. Paraphilia
d. Hypochondriasis
-A
[email protected]
36. The type of counseling program a client selects would most likely be an example of a(n)
a. independent variable.
b. dependent variable.
c. null variable.
d. extraneous variable.
-A
37. A(n) _______ variable can create an uncontrolled effect in a study's outcome.
a. independent
b. dependent
c. null
d. extraneous
-D
38. Detecting a significant relationship when one is present is known as

a. alpha.
b. beta.
c. effect size.
d. power.
-D
39. Randomly identifying a counseling agency that serves clients with

attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and sampling its entire staff is most likely an
example of a _________ sampling method.
a. simple random
b. cluster
c. quota
d. systematic
-B
40. Which of the following internal validity threats is LEAST likely related to a repeated
measures study for a group of sixth-graders?
a. History
b. Maturation
c. Attrition
d. Diffusion of treatment
-D
41. Conducting qualitative research followed by quantitative research is known as a(n)

a. concurrent design.
b. exploratory design.
c. explanatory design.
-B
42. Analyzing digital recordings of several patients with schizophrenia to determine the quality of
their social interactions would most likely be an example of
a. quantitative research.
b. qualitative research.
c. mixed-methods research.
d. single-subject research design (SSRD).
-B
43. Providing an overall picture of community crime statistics would most likely be an example of
a. pilot research.
b. action research.
c. descriptive research.
d. single-subject research design (SSRD).
-C
44. Pilot studies are useful for each of the following reasons EXCEPT
a. they confirm post hoc a larger study's findings.
b. they assist in revising data collection methods.
c. they help to find potential limitations of a planned larger study.
d. All of the above are useful aspects of pilot studies.
-D
45. Which of the following is the clearest example of a cross-sectional design?

a. Studying children with reactive attachment disorder over their lives
b. Examining participant attrition issues in a 10-year study
c. Developing a needs assessment to investigate necessary policy changes
d. Comparing the impact of a bullying incident across grade levels
-A
46. The question "Do two groups of students differ in their degree of involvement in college
activities?" would best be addressed by a ________ design.
a. causal-comparative
b. panel
c. comparative
d. longitudinal
-A
47. Evaluating change from pre- to post-intervention of a smoking cessation program for a
group of 25 individuals who select to join the program would most likely be an example of
a. time series design.
b. one-group pretest-posttest design.
c. one-group posttest design.
d. split-plot design.
-B
48. "What is the relationship between driving speed and gas prices?" is an example of a
question best addressed by a(n) _________ design.
a. causal-comparative
b. correlational
c. comparative
d. ex post facto
-B
49. Which of the following research designs requires random assignment?

a. Pre-experimental
b. True experimental
c. Quasi-experimental
d. Single subject
-B
50. The amount of shared variance among the variables of depression and anxiety (r = .30) is
a. .30.
b. .70.
c. .09.
d. It depends on the validity of the instruments.
-C
51. The standard deviation represents

a. the difference between the lowest score and the highest score in a distribution.
b. the typical score in a distribution.
c. how much an individual score differs from the mean score in a distribution.
d. the height of a distribution of scores.
-C
52. Each of the following statements is true EXCEPT

a. skewness can be identified if the values of the mean and median are known.
b. the mean is influenced by extremely high or low scores.
c. the median is influenced by the position of scores.
d. the mode is influenced by extreme scores.
-D
53. On a set of geography test results, the instructor informed the class that almost everyone
had scored within one standard deviation of the mean. Results like these would be depicted by
a(n) _______ distribution.
a. platykurtic
b. inverted
c. mesokurtic
d. leptokurtic
-C
54. If you are trying to determine the typical salary for real estate professionals and your data
includes $30,000 $32,000, $25,000, $38,000, and $249,000, using a ___________ would be
the most appropriate measure of central tendency.
a. mean
b. median
c. mode
-B
55. Each of the following statements is correct EXCEPT

a. skewed distributions can be positively skewed.
b. skewed distributions can be negatively skewed.
c. in skewed distributions, the scores accumulate at the center of the distribution.
d. in skewed distributions, the scores accumulate at one end of the distribution.
-C
56. Which of the following is most likely an example of restriction of range?

a. Women in a particular community and depression levels
b. Prediction of graduate school grades among students scoring >320 on the Graduate Record
Examination
c. Elementary school children and depression levels
d. Clients at a psychiatric facility and depression levels
-B
57. What is the key difference between a t-test and an ANOVA?
a. Number of dependent variables
b. Number of groups for an independent variable
c. The use of ratio data
d. The use of a continuous dependent variable
-B
58. What is the key difference between an ANOVA and a MANOVA?

a. Number of dependent variables
b. Number of groups for an independent variable
c. The use of ratio data
d. The use of a continuous dependent variable
-A
59. A professional counselor wants to examine the relationship between education level and the
decision whether to participate in a continuing education program. Which statistical test would
be appropriate to use?
a. ANOVA
b. ANCOVA
c. Chi-square
d. Wilcoxon's signed-ranks test
-C
60. Answer the following analogy: An independent t-test is to a Kolmogorov-Smirnov Z

procedure as a dependent t-test is to a(n)
a. ANOVA.
b. ANCOVA.
c. chi-square
d. Wilcoxon's signed-ranks test
-D
61. Which of the following qualitative research traditions most assists the counselor to attend to
participants' lived experiences while developing a theory on the processes of a phenomenon?
a. Phenomenology
b. Grounded theory
c. Consensual qualitative research
d. Ethnography
-C
62. Which of the following qualitative research traditions most assists the counselor to
collaborate with participants to enact change in a setting?
a. Ethnography
b. Biography
c. Case study
d. Participatory action research
-D
63. A data management tool that can serve as a cover sheet or snapshot for an event during
data collection is a(n)
a. contact summary sheet.
b. memo.
c. reflexive journal.
d. audit trail.
-A
64. The question "Why should I believe your qualitative findings?" is best answered by focusing
on
a. credibility.
b. transferability.
c. dependability.
d. confirmability.
-A
65. A college counselor is interested in including in his study all students who witnessed a
recent shooting at his university. Which sampling method best describes this approach?
a. homogenous
b. comprehensive
c. extreme case
d. maximum variation
-B
66. At the end of an evaluation examining the effectiveness of a substance abuse prevention
program, Charisse provides feedback to counselors at the agency. This is an example of what
program evaluation concept?
a. Accountability
b. Efficiency
c. Summation
d. Advising
-A
67. As part of the needs assessment process, a(n) _______ is typically given to stakeholders.
a. process evaluation
b. executive summary
c. outcome evaluation
d. treatment package
-B
68. Molly is developing objectives for a grief counseling program she is beginning with her
community. Using the ABCD model discussed in this chapter, which component is most
analogous to the program location?
a. Behavior
b. Content
c. Condition
d. Audience
-C
69. Monitoring if a program is running as planned is known as

a. process evaluation.
b. executive summary.
c. outcome evaluation.
d. treatment package.
-A
70. Ben, a professional school counselor, is trying to determine which grade level would most
benefit from his newly developed study skills program. Which program evaluation strategy would
most characterize this?
a. Success case
b. Parametric
c. Constructive
d. Moderation design
-D
71. The scientific goal of a counselor when his/her concern is to determine

logical relationships among variables is
A. prediction
B. control
C. understanding
D. experimenting
-C
72. An excellent psychological test would have a reliability coefficient of

A. 0.90
B. -0.50
C. 0.50
D. -0.90
-A
73. In the Test Administration Process, during what phase is the following activity being done?
"Check possible testing facilities for size, seating, lighting and ventilation"
A. Pretesting procedure
B. Prior to Test Orientation
C. Administration of instrument
D. Immediately preceding est
-A
74. A test for "firing gun" is said to be reliable when :

A. All persons make the same scores
B. The same individuals obtain similar score each time they take the test
C. "Firing gun" test is capable of predicting a shooter's accuracy
D. It picks out good gunners
-B
75. Who stated that "the person is always seeking an optimal fit, and moves in and out of
environments by conscious choice when they perceive it with their current environment
becomes uncomfortable." ?
A. Holland
B. Super
C. Bandura
D. Roe
-A
76. Which instruments require from test use: substantial knowledge about the construct being
measured and about the specific instruments used? Often the publisher requires a PhD in
Psychology or Counseling from the test user,
A. Level D
B. Level C
C. Level A
D. Level B
-B
77. Which of the following codes does NOT have a strong resemblance to RIE in Holland's
Self-Directed Search system?
A. RIA
B. SAC
C. IRC
D. EIR
-B
78. A table of specifications refers to

A. a blueprint of the structure of the finished test
B. the practical decisions that need to be made
C. the degree to which theory dictates content
D. how long the test will be
-A
79. Tests can be categorized as speed test or power test. A timed typing test used to screen
secretaries would be a test.
A. speed
B. screening
C. power
D. timed
-A
80. The normal curve is

A. one that has a mear value that is less than 10% higher than the median
B. bilaterally symmetrical
C. more likely to be approximated when small groups are used
D. one that shows only positive standard scores
-B
81. Publication of psychological tests in newspapers or magazine

A. is unethical
B. reduces test anxiety
C. aids in Coaching test takers
D. is a good way to promote their use
-D
82. The ASVAB measures

A. aptitude
B. adjustment
C. achievement
D. ability
-A
83. An industrial counselor recommends to his company that Executive Assessment would
rather be administered in his private testing office. Ethically speaking
A. guidelines do not address this practice
B. PRC does not encourage this practice
C. he is diverting company clients to his practice, and this is unethical
D. he has every right to do so
-C
84. Stanines are converted scores that

A. indicate the positive score in the normal distribution
B. are provided with standard score-like values to approximate the normal distribution
C. approximate the normal distribution
D. show the direct percentage of test takers who have the same scores
-B
85. Linearly derived standard scores or 2 scores are based on

A. expectancy scores
B. derived percentile ranks
C. a raw score's distance from the mean in SD units
D. the relationship of a new raw score to a normalized distribution
-D
86. If you were asked to assess your roommate's characteristics by checking "very aggressive".
etc., you would most likely be using a/an
A. scattergram
B. sociogram
C. rating scale
D. checklist
-D
87. Which of the following instruments looks at instrumental and terminal values?
A. The Survey of Interpersonal Values
B. The Study of Values
C. The Rokeach Value Survey
D. The IT Study of Values
-C
88. An important contribution of psychological testing in the field of

Psychology is, it
A. differentiated mental retardation from mental illness
B. helped people to cope with the horrors of war
C. helped psychoanalysts read the mind of their clients
D. justified the certification of professionals
-A
89. The most common method of testing temporal stability is

B. alternate form reliability
C. internal consistency
D. parallel form reliability
-A
90. One way to construct reliability is to

A. determine if the items fit the item specifications
B see to it that the data are interval in nature
C. determine internal consistency of the test
D. find the highest correlation coefficient
-C
91. What instruments assess individuals over a wide range of subjects? They often measure
knowledge in the areas of reading, mathematics, language
arts, science and social studies.
A. Diagnostic Tests
B. Survey Achievement Batteries
C. Achievement Inventory Tests
D. Individual Achievement Tests
-D
92. In explaining test results to parents, the examiner/counselor should review for parents the
purposes of the testing using terms.
A. psychometric
B. technical
C. assessment
D. non-technical
-D
93. A test predicts well the academic achievement of high school students
but not of college students. The test is said to have
A. poor alternate form reliability
B. differential validity
C. poor construct validity
D. inadequate reliability
-B
94. Most examinees will be less sensitive about the privacy of their test scores if they
A. realize that the score represents only a sampling of
behavior
B. understand their intended use
C. have all of these
D. obtain socially acceptable scores
-D
95. The ethical use of assessment interventions is a ________ responsibility.

A. Professional
B. Legal
C. Socio-cultural
D. Psychological
-A
96. The fact that inventories often compare an individual's expressed interests with those typical
of persons in different occupations tend to perpetuate existing group differences.
A. Self-report
B. Occupational
C. Interest
D. Career
-C
97. Ramon's mother is 80 years old. He notices that his mother is irritable
and is that she is decompensating. If the counselor, conducts, as part of the assessment, a
mini-mental state examination, what is the counselor's
concern about this client?
A. Traumatic brain injury
B. Depression or anxiety
C. Schizophrenia
D. Dementia
-D
98. The Guidance Counselor needs to explain test scores of students to

parents. The best to use is
A. Z-score
B. raw score
C. percent score
D. percentile score
-D
99. Which approach to presenting test results can provide clients with
immediate Feedback?
A. Video-based
B. Internet
C. Interactive
D. Audio-based
-C
100. A guidance counselor administers an instrument to assess whether a pre-school applicant

can survive the demands of formal education. What type of test?
A. Diagnostic
B. Selection
C. Placement
D. Prognosis
-D
-END OF EXAM SET 4-

Basic assumption of all scaling is that

Question 1Select one:
a.
traits and states can be quantified and measured.
b.
traits and states never truly be understood except by the person who experiences them.
c.
traits and states are only measurable in human beings.
d.
measures developed in one culture have no meaning in other cultures.
Feedback
The correct answer is: traits and states can be quantified and measured.
The overall increase in general IQ scores from 1932 to 1997 is known as
a.
An error
b.
The Flynn Effect
c.
The Hawthorne Effect
d.
The Jerk-Dodson Law
Feedback
The correct answer is: The Flynn Effect
If a controversy exists over the definition of trait being measured by a psychologist test,
questions are most likely being raised relative to the __________of the test.
a.
reliability
b.
validity
c.
standardization
d.
all of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: validity
The term "assessment" is preferable to "testing" in many evaluation situations for all of the
following reasons except:
a.
To focus more on how individual's process information than on the results of their processing
b.
To determine an individual's level of performance in some domain of functioning
c.
To use a wide variety of sources of information about an individual
d.
To evaluate an individual using tests, interviews, case studies and behavioral observations
Feedback
The correct answer is: To determine an individual's level of performance
Projective tests
a.
are direct methods of personality assessment
b.
are typically highly structured instruments
c.
are relatively unstructured techniques
d.
require that examinees possess good verbal ability
Feedback
The correct answer is: are relatively unstructured techniques
Assessment professionals who use tests without understanding the limitations of the tests they
use probably are
a.
evil.
b.
violating ethical codes made clear in the codes of ethics of associations of assessment
professionals.
c.
well-meaning but bumbling idiots.
d.
psychiatrists rather than psychologists.
Feedback
The correct answer is: violating ethical codes made clear in the codes of ethics of associations
of assessment professionals.
An excellent psychological test would have a reliability coefficient of:
a.
.90
b.
-.50
c.
.50
d.
-.90
Feedback
The correct answer is: .90
Which of the following indices indicates the percentage of individuals who answered an item
correctly?
a.
Option Effectiveness
b.
Validity
c.
Difficulty
d.
Discriminative
Feedback
The correct answer is: Difficulty
What instrument assesses individuals over a wide range of subjects? Often measuring
knowledge in the areas of reading, mathematics, language, arts, science and social studies.
a.
Diagnostic Test
b.
Aptitude Test
c.
Achievement Test
d.
Personality Test
Feedback
The correct answer is: Achievement Test
Which of the following is an example of a culture fair test?
a.
MMPI
b.
OLSAT
c.
RPM
d.
WGCTA
Feedback
The correct answer is: RPM
Which of the following is FALSE?
a.
Some problems related to test fairness are more political than psychometric in nature.
b.
Using psychological tests with people of some cultural background is controversial
c.
It is possible to use a test in an unfair manner for people of some cultural backgrounds
d.
Despite decades of complaints from activists and concerned citizens, most test developer have
been relatively insensitive to issues of test fairness.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Despite decades of complaints from activists and concerned citizens,
most test developer have been relatively insensitive to issues of test fairness.
Which of the following is an example of a psychological trait?
a.
eye color
b.
aggressiveness
c.
skin color
d.
none of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: aggressiveness
Classical Test Theory assumes that
a.
each test taker has a true score that would have been obtained if not for measurement error.
b.
people can be ranked according to the level of a trait they exhibit but psychological
measurement cannot truly measure traits in the same way as we can measure physical
properties of objects such as heights and weight.
c.
measurement can be perfectly accurate if the measure is well-constructed.
d.
Mozart is better than Stravinsky.
Feedback
The correct answer is: each test taker has a true score that would have been obtained if not for
measurement error.
Typically, which of the following is the primary objective of psychological testing and
assessment?
a.
to measure a trait
b.
to predict future behavior
c.
to obtain a score on a test
d.
to observe a sample of behavior
Feedback
The correct answer is: to predict future behavior
Test takers have the right
a.
To know they are being tested
b.
To know the results of the test they took
c.
To know how the test data will be used
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: All of the choices
The twentieth percentile represents
a.
The score at or below which 80% of the scores in the distribution fall
b.
The examinee correctly answered 80% of the questions in the test
c.
The score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall
d.
That the examinee correctly answered 20% of the questions in the test
Feedback
The correct answer is: The score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall
In a given test of mental ability, 5 students got a percentile score of 40, 8 got 55, 3 got 70 and
the rest got 85. What can you say about the group performance?
a.
The distribution is negatively skewed
b.
The distribution follows a normal curve
c.
The distribution is positively skewed
d.
The distribution is neither negatively nor positively skewed
Feedback
The correct answer is: The distribution is negatively skewed
Guilford was able to isolate how many factors or elements that added up to intelligence?
a.
100
b.
20
c.
120
d.
110
Feedback
The correct answer is: 120
In everyday practice, responsibility for appropriate test administration, scoring and
interpretation les with:
a.
Test users
b.
Test developers
c.
Elected representatives
d.
Test publishers
Feedback
The correct answer is: Test users
A norm group is a group
a.
for whom the test is appropriate.
b.
with whose scores the test result are being compared.
c.
that is typically described in the test manual.
d.
all of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: all of the choices
The Guidance and Counseling Licensure Exam is an example of an
a.
Diagnostic Test
b.
Aptitude Test
c.
Achievement Test
d.
Personality Test
Feedback
The correct answer is: Achievement Test
The mean, median and mode are measures of ______________.
a.
Central tendency
b.
Variability
c.
Reliability
d.
Dispersion
Feedback
The correct answer is: Central tendency
Which of the following is true of tests used in clinical settings?
a.
Used to measure consumer attitudes
b.
Used with one individual at a time
c.
Used to choose the best person for the job
d.
Used as a measure of corporate culture
Feedback
The correct answer is: Used with one individual at a time
The word psychometric means
a.
A form of measurement used by a neurologist
b.
Any form of mental testing
c.
A mental trait that cannot be measured
d.
A test that relies on a summated or linear rating scale
Feedback
The correct answer is: Any form of mental testing
The right to have test findings held confidential by guidance counselors can be found in
a.
Professional ethics
b.
Law
c.
Licensing regulations
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: All of these
Percentile ranks are converted scores that indicate the ___________.
a.
Percentage of test takers in the norming group that scored lower than the score at issue
b.
Percentage of people who have scored similarly with the score at issue
c.
Number of test takers in the norm group that scored lower than the score at issue
d.
Position of the score in the normal distribution
Feedback
The correct answer is: Percentage of test takers in the norming group that scored lower than
the score at issue
trait can best be described as
a.
an observable behavior.
b.
a biological phenomenon.
c.
a construct
d.
what a test measure.
Feedback
The correct answer is: a construct
A stanine is an example of
a.
Ordinal scale value
b.
Standard score
c.
Z-scores
d.
Norm equivalent score
Feedback
The correct answer is: Ordinal scale value
What type of error occurs when the interviewer allows the quality of the previous interviewee
influence the ratings of the present interviewee
a.
Stringency
b.
Precedent Effect
c.
Leniency
d.
Contrast Effect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Contrast Effect
A test is considered "standardized" if it includes
a.
clearly specified procedures for administration.
b.
clearly specified procedures for scoring.
c.
normative data.
d.
all of the choices
Feedback
To test the reliability of a newly developed assessment tool, the counselor gave the same test
to the same group of people at different times and then correlated the scores. This method is
called.
a.
Equivalent forms reliability
b.
Test-retest reliability
c.
Alternate forms reliability
d.
Split-half method
Feedback
The correct answer is: Test-retest reliability
Which of the following is FALSE?
a.
Overt behavior is observable.
b.
Constructs are ideas rather than observable actions.
c.
Constructs are only used when behavior is not observable.
d.
The existence of a constructs can be inferred from overt behavior.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Constructs are only used when behavior is not observable.
A psychological test almost always involves an analysis of:
a.
Attitudes and values
b.
Motivation and interests
c.
A sample of behavior
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: A sample of behavior
Assigning numbers in accordance with empirical properties of objects or traits is referred to as
a.
measuring.
b.
quantifying.
c.
scaling
d.
sampling
Feedback
The correct answer is: scaling
Which of the following represents the most important issue when using a norm-referenced as
compared with a criterion-referenced test?
a.
the definition of the criterion being used by the test developer
b.
the theory that the test is based on
c.
the question of whom the test taker is being compared
d.
the issue of the reliability and validity of the test
Feedback
The correct answer is: the question of whom the test taker is being compared
Which of the items below describes a "personality type"?
a.
A distinguishable behavior of an individual
b.
Setting-specific behavior
c.
An identified pattern of traits and states
d.
An inherited characteristic of a person
Feedback
The correct answer is: An identified pattern of traits and states
Which measure of central tendency can be used for all nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio
scales of measurement?
a.
mean
b.
median
c.
mode
d.
standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: mode
The highest score on the test was 98, while the lowest was 42. If you were to subtract the
lowest from the highest score, the difference would be called?
a.
Range
b.
Average
c.
Interval
d.
Ratio
Feedback
The correct answer is: Range
Measurement can be defined as
a.
the assignment of numbers or symbols to characteristics of objects/people.
b.
the administering and scoring of psychological tests.
c.
the process of determining the reliability and validity of tests.
d.
the observation of behavior in a controlled environment.
Feedback
The correct answer is: the assignment of numbers or symbols to characteristics of
objects/people.
Organize the Registration Procedure" is done during what phase of the test administration
process?
a.
Immediately preceding conduct of the test
b.
After completion of the test
c.
Pretesting procedures
d.
Actual conduct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Pretesting procedures
Who created the first intelligence test?
a.
David Wechsler
b.
Alfred Binet
c.
Theodore Simon
d.
BOTH Alfred Binet AND Theodore Simon
Feedback
The correct answer is: BOTH Alfred Binet AND Theodore Simon
Which of the following is TRUE about culture fair tests?
a.
The test is not standardized
b.
Items are known to the examinee regardless of his/her culture
c.
Culture-fair items cannot be utilized
d.
None of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Items are known to the examinee regardless of his/her culture
The median and interquartile range are ___________ in nature.
a.
Nominal
b.
Ordinal
c.
Interval
d.
Ratio
Feedback
The correct answer is: Ordinal
To describe a test as paper-and-pencil would be to refer to what aspect of the test?
a.
The blueprint
b.
The format
c.
The technical quality
d.
The tools needed
Feedback
The correct answer is: The technical quality
Kurtosis refers to the steepness in the _____________ of the distribution
a.
center
b.
positive end
c.
negative end
d.
none of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: center
test that yields information about a test taker's relative standing in a group is referred to as
a.
criterion referenced.
b.
norm referenced.
c.
standardized.
d.
all of the above
Feedback
The correct answer is: norm referenced.
In history class, John was asked about the date of Jose Rizal's death. According to Cattell,
John would likely use _______________ intelligence
a.
fluid
b.
general
c.
specific
d.
crystallized
Feedback
The correct answer is: crystallized
A test designed to yield information about whether or not a student has mastered the ability to
multiply two-digit numbers would be referred to as
a.
norm referenced.
b.
criterion referenced.
c.
standardized.
d.
all of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: criterion referenced.
Which statement regarding "face validity" is accurate?
a.
It may influence the way the test taker approaches the situation
b.
It relates more to what the test appears to measure than what the test may actually measure
c.
It is given short shrift as compared to other indices of validity
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
the results of an examination are negatively skewed, the exam question were likely
a.
easy
b.
difficult
c.
biased
d.
impossible to know
Feedback
The correct answer is: easy
correlation coefficient equal to -.98 would indicate
a.
A weak inverse relationship between two variables
b.
A weak direct relationship between two variables
c.
A strong inverse relationship between two variables
d.
A strong direct relationship between two variables
Feedback
The correct answer is: A strong inverse relationship between two variables
How would you classify the MMPI?
a.
Standardized personality test
b.
Clinical diagnostic test
c.
Neurological test
d.
Projective personality test
Feedback
The correct answer is: Standardized personality test
Which of the following is TRUE of spiral omnibus tests?
a.
The items get progressively easier
b.
The difficulty of the test remains constant
c.
Each question is answered in a specific period of time
d.
The items get progressively difficult
Feedback
The correct answer is: The items get progressively difficult
Norms" refers to
a.
average scores of the norm group.
b.
the typically performance of the group.
c.
scores with which the result of measurement can be compared.
d.
the standards of the test developer.
Feedback
The correct answer is: scores with which the result of measurement can be compared.
The type of sample that is convenient or available for use is referred to as
a.
an incidental sample.
b.
a stratified sample.
c.
a coincidental sample.
d.
a random sample.
Feedback
The correct answer is: an incidental sample.
For which type of distribution of scores is the mean the preferred measure of central tendency?
a.
symmetrical
b.
skewed
c.
flat
d.
none of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: symmetrical
Binet's concept of intelligence closely corresponds to the views of which theorist?
a.
Wechsler
b.
Galton
c.
Spearman
d.
Kauffman
Feedback
The correct answer is: Galton
The 1916 Stanford-Binet
a.
Was the first American test to contain verbal and performance subtests
b.
Was the first American test to employ the concept of IQ
c.
Featured two equivalent forms
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
Which of the following is true about the concept of error in psychological measurement?
a.
It represents a mistake.
b.
It refers to deliberate misrepresentation of results rather than carelessness in measurement.
c.
It is an expected component of measurement.
d.
It can be eliminated only careful, vigilant professionalism on the part of the evaluator.
Feedback
The correct answer is: It is an expected component of measurement
Compute the mean for the set of scores 8, 9 and 7
a.
7
b.
8
c.
9
d.
8.5
Feedback
How are the terms "testing" and "assessment" distinguished from each other?
a.
Assessment is a subjective process whereas testing provides more objective information
b.
Assessment requires professional judgement whereas testing is for non-professionals
c.
Assessment is a superior form of knowledge acquisition because it requires flexible thinking.
Testing is unreliable and pseudoscientific
d.
Assessment is a process by which professionals evaluate people and situations. Tests are one
type of tool used by assessment professionals
Feedback
The correct answer is: Assessment is a process by which professionals evaluate people and
situations
Which of the following is always true of a sample in the statistical sense?
a.
It can never be greater in number that the population from which it is drawn.
b.
It will have a standard deviation that approximates the average deviation of the population.
c.
They are frequently distributed normally.
d.
They are frequently distributed gratuitously at chain stores.
Feedback
The correct answer is: It can never be greater in number that the population from which it is
drawn.
Which intelligence test is best for a 23-year-old female?
a.
WPPSI-R
b.
WAIS-III
c.
WISC-III
d.
Personnel Test of Intelligence
Feedback
The correct answer is: WAIS-III
The "privilege" referred to in "privileged communication" actually belongs to
a.
The test developer
b.
The test user
c.
The test taker
d.
The test publisher
Feedback
The correct answer is: The test taker
Which statement is true for the distribution of scores 0, 11, 10, 0, 0, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 1, 1?
a.
There is no mode
b.
The mode is 1
c.
The mode is 0
d.
There are two modes, 0 and 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: There are two modes, 0 and 1
After reliability testing, you noticed that the reliability coefficient increased. What does this
mean for your standard error of measurement?
a.
increases
b.
remains the same
c.
decreases
d.
first increases, then decreases
Feedback
The correct answer is: decreases
Standard error of measurement is best associated with which of the following?
a.
validity
b.
reliability
c.
test standardization
d.
test administration
Feedback
The correct answer is: reliability
The reliability of a test refers to
a.
How specialized the test is
b.
How accurate the test results are
c.
How consistent the test results are
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: How consistent the test results are
Who coined the term "mental test"?
a.
Alfred Binet
b.
James Cattel
c.
Jean Piaget
d.
Charles Spearman
Feedback
The correct answer is: James Cattel
Projective techniques are organized into five categories. Which category does the
Hour-Tree-Person test belong to?
a.
Association Technique
b.
Construction Projective Technique
c.
Expression Technique
d.
Completion Technique
Feedback
The correct answer is: Expression Technique
Which of the following is TRUE about assessment?
a.
Testing that is always performed in a group setting
b.
Testing that is always performed on a single individual
c.
The process that integrates information
d.
A pencil and paper measurement of assessing attributes
Feedback
The correct answer is: The process that integrates information
Linearly derived standard scores or z-scores are based on _____________.
a.
Expectancy scores
b.
Derived percentile rating
c.
A raw scores distance from the mean in SD units
d.
The relationship of a new raw score to a normalized distribution
Feedback
The correct answer is: A raw scores distance from the mean in SD units
How are states different from traits?
a.
A trait is biologically determined whereas a state in environmentally determined.
b.
A trait is measurable whereas a state is not.
c.
A trait is relatively enduring whereas a state is relatively short-lived.
d.
A trait is unchangeable whereas a state is easily influenced.
Feedback
The correct answer is: A trait is relatively enduring whereas a state is relatively short-lived.
How is a characteristic of an individual that is a trait different from a characteristic on an
individual that is not a trait?
a.
A trait is inborn and heritable whereas a non-trait is learned
b.
A trait varies from one person to another whereas a non-trait does not
c.
A trait is measured objectively whereas a non-trait is assessed subjectively.
d.
A trait can be measured accurately whereas a non-trait is difficult to measure with consistency
Feedback
The correct answer is: A trait varies from one person to another whereas a non-trait does not
Which intelligence test below would be best for children?
a.
WAIS-R
b.
WISC
c.
Kauffman's
d.
SDS
Feedback
The correct answer is: WISC
Predictive and concurrent validity can be subsumed under
a.
Content validity
b.
Criterion-related validity
c.
Face validity
d.
None of the above
Feedback
The correct answer is: Criterion-related validity
An example of a mental ability test which can be administered to a group
a.
WISC
b.
Otis-Lennon
c.
Stanford-Binet
d.
WAIS-R
Feedback
The correct answer is: Otis-Lennon
Attempts to establish "rapport" with a test taker is an important first step in the assessment
process. Which of the following could legitimately used to establish rapport with a test taker?
a.
Having "Eat Bulaga!" on the TV in the waiting area and then discussing the show with the test
taker
b.
A few words of "small talk"
c.
Compromising standardized test administration procedures by discussing how the test
measures what it measures
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: A few words of "small talk"
For which data type is the mode most frequently used?
a.
Nominal
b.
Ordinal
c.
Interval
d.
Ration
Feedback
The correct answer is: Nominal
Psychological tests may differ with respect to:
a.
content
b.
format
c.
administration
d.
all of the choices
Feedback
Before constructing the final examination, the instructor reviews the objectives of the course,
the textbook and lecture notes. He is making an effort to maximize the ___________ validity of
the examination.
a.
Criterion related
b.
Content
c.
Predictive
d.
None of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Content
Which of the following best describes norms?
a.
They provide a parallel form for comparison
b.
They indicate whether the test is reliable
c.
They give meaning to a behavior sample
d.
They tell whether a distribution of scores is normally distributed
Feedback
The correct answer is: They give meaning to a behavior sample
Any influence on psychological test scores from factors other than what the test is intended to
measure are referred to as
a.
spuriousness.
b.
error.
c.
bias.
d.
construct-irrelevant variance.
Feedback
The correct answer is: error.
The NMAT is an example of
a.
Diagnostic Test
b.
Aptitude Test
c.
Achievement Test
d.
Personality Test
Feedback
The correct answer is: Aptitude Test
Assigning 1 for male and 2 for female is an example of which type of scale?
a.
Nominal
b.
Ordinal
c.
Ratio
d.
Interval
Feedback
The correct answer is: Nominal
Using college student enrolled in Introductory Psychology as research subject is frequently an
example of
a.
an incidental sample.
b.
a stratified sample.
c.
a coincidental sample.
d.
a random sample.
Feedback
The correct answer is: an incidental sample.
Deciles divide a distribution into ___________ equal parts
a.
five
b.
one hundred
c.
twenty
d.
ten
Feedback
The correct answer is: ten
Of the following, which best characterizes what "validity" refers to?
a.
how a test is used
b.
how a test is scored
c.
how a scale is scaled
d.
how a test is normed
Feedback
The correct answer is: how a test is used
If the results of an examination are positively skewed, the exam question were likely
a.
easy
b.
difficult
c.
biased
d.
impossible to know
Feedback
The correct answer is: difficult
On the WAIS-IV, the mean is 100 and the standard deviation is ______
a.
150
b.
15
c.
100
d.
10
Feedback
Which of the following is based on the assumption that the more correct answers an examinee
scores on an intelligence test the more intelligent is the examinee?
a.
a Galtonian model of scoring
b.
the cumulative model of scoring
c.
an objective method of scoring
d.
the Mensa method of scoring
Feedback
The correct answer is: the cumulative model of scoring
What does a "high" standard deviation imply
a.
data is negatively skewed
b.
data is more spread out
c.
data is positively skewed
d.
data is more clustered around the mean
Feedback
The correct answer is: data is more spread out
Test Y, an intelligence test was newly created. Upon analysis, the test yielded nearly identical
results to Test Z, another standardized intelligence test. From this, we can say that Test Y has
good ________________.
a.
Concurrent validity
b.
Face validity
c.
Superb internal consistency
d.
All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Concurrent validity
Referring to a psychological trait as a construct means that it
a.
is not a valid idea.
b.
has few practical applications.
c.
was developed by naturalistic observation rather than rational, systematic theorizing.
d.
is an informed, scientific concept developed to describe or explain behavior.
Feedback
The correct answer is: is an informed, scientific concept developed to describe or explain
behavior.
Which of the following is a psychological trait?
a.
eye color
b.
hair color
c.
skin color
d.
none of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: none of the choices
It is a tool used to estimate or infer how far an observed score deviates from a true score.
a.
the standard deviation
b.
a measure of central tendency
c.
the variance
d.
a standard error of measurement
Feedback
The correct answer is: a standard error of measurement
An applicant for a job with service scores in the 5% of applicants on a test of ability to sort mail
quickly and accurately. This is an example of
a.
norm-referenced assessment.
b.
criterion-referenced assessment.
c.
behavior assessment.
d.
an individual who one day" go postal."
Feedback
The correct answer is: norm-referenced assessment.
Which of the following is true of a "population" in the statistical sense?
a.
it is the least frequent observable characteristics within a sample
b.
it may include as few as two homebound students
c.
it has a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 0
d.
all of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: it may include as few as two homebound students
Personality assessment data are used in which settings?
a.
private clinician's office
b.
educational
c.
vocational
d.
all of the choices
Feedback
Which of the following describes the shape of a normal curve?
a.
Positively skewed
b.
Negatively skewed
c.
Symmetrical
d.
Bimodal
Feedback
The correct answer is: Symmetrical
-END OF EXAM SET 5-

1. Appraisal can be defined as

a. the process of assessing or estimating attributes.
b. testing which is always performed in a group setting.
c. testing which is always performed on a single individual.
d. a pencil and paper measurement of assessing attributes.
(a)
2. A test can be defi ned as a systematic method of measuring a

sample of behavior. Test format refers to the manner in which
test items are presented. The format of an essay test is consid-
ered a(n) _______ format.
a. subjective.
b. objective.
c. very precise.
d. concise.
A “subjective” paradigm relies mainly on the scorer’s opinion. If the rater knows the test taker’s
attributes, the rater’s “personal bias” can signifi cantly impact upon the rating. For example, an
attractive examinee or an individual of the same race might be given a higher rating. (This is the
so-called halo effect.) In job settings, peers generally rate their colleagues higher than do their
supervisors. In an “objective” test (choice “b”) the rater’s judgment plays little or no part in the
scoring process. (a)
3. The National Counselor Exam (NCE) is a(n) _______ test because the scoring procedure is
specific.
a. subjective.
b. objective.
c. projective.
d. subtest.
(b)
4. A short answer test is a(n) _______ test.

a. objective.
b. culture free.
c. forced choice.
d. free choice.
(d)
5. The NCE is a(n) _______ test.

a. free choice.
b. forced choice.
c. projective.
d. intelligence.
(b)
6. The _______ index indicates the percentage of individuals who answered each item correctly.
a. difficulty.
b. critical.
c. intelligence.
d. personal.
(a)
7. Short answer tests and projective measures utilize free response

items. The NCE and the CPCE uses forced choice or so-called
_______ items.
a. vague.
b. subjective.
c. recognition.
d. numerical.
(c)
8. A true/false test has _______ recognition items.

a. similar.
b. free choice.
c. dichotomous.
d. no.
“Dichotomy” simply means that you are presented with two opposing choices. This explains why
choice “a” is defi nitely incorrect. When a test gives the person taking the exam three or
more forced choices (e.g., the NCE, the CPCE, or this book) then psychometricians call it a
“multipoint item.” Choice “b” describes a situation in which the examinee can respond in any
way he or she chooses. (c)
9. A test format could be normative or ipsative. In the normative format

a. each item depends on the item before it.
b. each item depends on the item after it.
c. the client must possess an IQ within the normal range.
d. each item is independent of all other items.
Ipsative measures compare traits within the same individual, they do not compare a person to
other persons who took the instrument. The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS), now
called the Kuder Career Search with Person Match is one such example. The ipsative test
allows the person being tested to compare items. (d)
10. A client who takes a normative test

a. cannot legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test.
b. can legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test.
c. could not have taken an IQ test.
d. could not have taken a personality test.
First, forget about choice “a,” it’s ipsative. Technically, a normative interpretation is one in which
the individual’s score is evaluated by comparing it to others who took the same test. A percentile
rank is an excellent example. Say your client scores an 82 on a nationally normed test and this
score corresponds to the percentile rank of 60. This tells you that 60% of the individuals who
took the test scored 82 or less. If it’s still a bit fuzzy don’t sweat it! There’s more where this one
came from in the next section! (b)
11. In an ipsative measure the person taking the test must compare
items to one another. The result is that
a. an ipsative measure cannot be utilized for career guidance.
b. you cannot legitimately compare two or more people who
have taken an ipsative test.
c. an ipsative measure is never valid.
d. an ipsative measure is never reliable.
(b)
12. Tests are often classified as speed tests versus power tests. A
timed typing test used to hire secretaries would be
a. a power test.
b. neither a speed test nor a power test.
c. a speed test.
d. a fine example of an ipsative measure.
(c)
13. A counseling test consists of 300 forced response items. The per-
son taking the test can take as long as he or she wants to answer
the questions.
a. This is most likely a projective measure.
b. This is most likely a speed test.
c. This is most likely a power test.
d. This is most likely an invalid measure.
Like the speed test, it will ideally be designed so that nobody receives a perfect score. Choice
“a,” projective measure, stands incorrect since the projective tests rely on a “free response”
format. (c)
14. An achievement test measures maximum performance while a

personality test or interest inventory measures
a. typical performance.
b. minimum performance.
c. unconscious traits.
d. self-esteem by always relying on a Q-Sort design.
(a)
15. In a spiral test

a. the items get progressively easier.
b. the difficulty of the items remains constant.
c. the client must answer each question in a specified period of time.
d. the items get progressively more difficult.
Just remember that a spiral staircase seems to get more difficult
to climb as you walk up higher. (d)
16. In a cyclical test

a. the items get progressively easier.
b. the difficulty of the items remains constant.
c. you have several sections which are spiral in nature.
d. the client must answer each question in a specified period of time.
In each section the questions would go from easy ones to those
which are more difficult. (C)
17. A test battery is considered

a. a horizontal test.
b. a vertical test.
c. a valid test.
d. a reliable test.
In a test battery, several measures are used to produce
results that could be more accurate than those derived from merely using a single source. Say,
this can get confusing. Remember, that in the section on group processes I talked about vertical
and horizontal interventions. In testing, a vertical test would have versions for various age
brackets or levels of education (e.g., a math achievement test for preschoolers and a version for
middle-school children). A horizontal test measures various factors (e.g., math and science)
during the same testing procedure. (a)
18. In a counseling research study two groups of subjects took a test with the same name.
However, when they talked with each other they discovered that the questions were different.
The researcher assured both groups that they were given the same test. How is this possible?
a. The researcher is not telling the truth. The groups could
not possibly have taken the same test.
b. The test was horizontal.
c. The test was not a power test.
d. The researcher gave parallel forms of the same test.
When a test has two versions or forms that are interchangeable they are termed parallel forms
or equivalent forms of the same test. From a statistical/psychometric standpoint each form must
have the same mean, standard error, and other statistical components. (d)
19. The most critical factors in test selection are

a. the length of the test and the number of people who took the test in the norming process.
b. horizontal versus vertical.
c. validity and reliability.
d. spiral versus cyclical format.
Validity refers to whether the test measures what it says it mea�sures while reliability tells how
consistent a test measures an attribute. (c)
20. Which is more important, validity or reliability?

a. Reliability.
b. They are equally important.
c. Validity.
d. It depends on the test in question.
(c)
21. In the field of testing, validity refers to

a. whether the test really measures what it purports to mea�sure.
b. whether the same test gives consistent measurement.
c. the degree of cultural bias in a test.
d. the fact that numerous tests measure the same traits.
To be valid the test must measure what you want it to measure! Incidentally, a test which is valid
for one population is not necessarily valid for another group. There are five basic types of
validity you should familiarize yourself with for your exam: First, content validity or what is
sometimes called rational or logical validity. Does the test examine or sample the behavior
under scrutiny? An IQ test, for example, that did not sample the entire range of intelligence (say
the test just sampled memory and not vocabulary, math, etc.) would have poor content validity.
In this case a savant might truly score higher than a well-rounded individual with a genius level
mentality. Second, construct validity, which refers to a test’s ability to measure a theoretical
construct like intelligence, self-esteem, artistic talent, mechanical ability, or managerial potential.
Third is concurrent validity, which deals with how well the test compares to other instruments
that are intended for the same purpose. Fourth, predictive validity, also known as empirical
validity, which refl ects the test’s ability to predict future behavior accord�ing to established
criteria. On some exams, concurrent validity and predictive validity are often lumped under the
umbrella of “criterion validity,” since concurrent validity and predictive validity are actually
different types of criterion-related validity. Fifth, a small body of literature speaks of
consequential validity, which simply tries to ascertain the social implications of using tests. (a)
22. A counselor peruses a testing catalog in search of a test which will repeatedly give
consistent results. The counselor
a. is interested in reliability.
b. is interested in validity.
c. is looking for information which is not available.
d. is magnifying an unimportant issue.
Beware: A test can indeed be reliable yet not valid. A highly reliable test could conceivably
prove invalid. A scale that invariably reads 109 lb when you weigh 143 lb would hardly be
providing you with a valid assessment of your true weight! The score, nevertheless, is
consistent (reliable). Thus, a test can have a high reliability coefficient but still have a low validity
coefficient. Reliability places a ceiling on validity, but validity does not set the limits on reliability.
(a)
23. Which measure would yield the highest level of reliability?

a. A TAT, projective test popular with psychodynamic help�ers.
b. The WAIS-III, a popular IQ test.
c. The MMPI-2, a popular personality test.
d. A very accurate scale.
In the real world physical measurements are more reliable than psychological ones. (d)
24. Construct validity refers to the extent that a test measures an

abstract trait or psychological notion. An example would be
a. height.
b. weight.
c. ego strength.
d. the ability to name all men who have served as U.S. presidents. Any trait you cannot “directly”
measure or observe can be considered a construct. (c)
25. Face validity refers to the extent that a test

a. looks or appears to measure the intended attribute.
b. measures a theoretical construct.
c. appears to be constructed in an artistic fashion.
d. can be compared to job performance.
Okay, so I lied—well, kind of lied on the answer to question 21 when I told you there were five
basic types of validity. You see most experts technically no longer list “face validity” as a sixth
type of validity. Face validity—like a person’s face—merely tells you whether the test looks like it
measures the intended trait. Does your therapist look like a therapist? Does the Wechsler
appear to be an IQ test? The obvious answer is “In most cases who cares, it’s not that
important”! And if a therapist looks like a good therapist, does that necessarily mean he is an
adept therapist? Of course not. And the same is true of testing. Face validity is not required test
information according to the 1974 committee that drafted Standards for Educational and
Psychological Tests. (a)
26. A job test which predicted future performance on a job very well would
a. have high criterion/predictive validity.
b. have excellent face validity.
c. have excellent construct validity.
d. not have incremental validity or synthetic validity.
(a)
27. A new IQ test which yielded results nearly identical to other

standardized measures would be said to have
a. good concurrent validity.
b. good face validity.
c. superb internal consistency.
d. all of the above.
(a)
28. When a counselor tells a client that the Graduate Record Exami�nation (GRE) will predict
her ability to handle graduate work,
the counselor is referring to
a. good concurrent validity.
b. construct validity.
c. face validity.
d. predictive validity.
(d)
29. A reliable test is _______ valid.

a. always.
b. 90%.
c. not always.
d. 80%.
Again shout this one out loud: A reliable test is not always valid. Reliability, nonetheless,
determines the upper level of validity. (c)
30. A valid test is _______ reliable.

a. not always.
b. always.
c. never.
d. 80%.
A valid test is always reliable. Choice “b” is correct because a test that measures a given trait
well does so repeatedly. Remember that a reliable test, however, is not necessarily always valid.
After all, a depression scale that was invalid and really measured anxiety could produce
consistent reliable anxiety data. (b)
31. One method of testing reliability is to give the same test to the
same group of people two times and then correlate the scores.
This is called
a. test–retest reliability.
b. equivalent forms reliability.
c. alternate forms reliability.
d. the split-half method.
(a)
32. One method of testing reliability is to give the same population alternate forms of the
identical test. Each form will have the same psychometric/statistical properties as the original
instrument. This is known as
a. test–retest reliability.
b. equivalent or alternate forms reliability.
c. the split-half method.
d. internal consistency.
Here a single group of examinees takes parallel forms of a test and a reliability correlation
coefficient is figured on the two sets of scores. Counterbalancing is necessary when testing
reliability in this fashion. That is to say, half of the individuals get parallel form A first and half get
form B initially. This controls for variables such as fatigue, practice, and motivation. (b)
33. A counselor doing research decided to split a standardized test in half by using the even
items as one test and the odd items as a second test and then correlating them. The counselor
a. used an invalid procedure to test reliability.
b. was testing reliability via the split-half method.
c. was testing reliability via the equivalent forms method.
d. was testing reliability via the inter-rater method.
(b)
34. Which method of reliability testing would be useful with an es�say test but not with a test of
algebra problems?
a. test–retest.
b. alternate forms.
c. split-half.
d. interrater/interobserver.
(d)
35. A reliability coefficient of 1.00 indicates

a. a lot of variance in the test.
b. a score with a high level of error.
c. a perfect score which has no error.
d. a typical correlation on most psychological and counsel�ing tests.
As stated earlier, this generally occurs only in physical measure�ment. (c)
36. An excellent psychological or counseling test would have a reli�ability coeffi cient of
a. 50.0
b. 0.90
c. 1.00
d. −0.90
Ninety percent of the score measured the attribute in question, while 10% of the score is
indicative of error. (b)
37. A researcher working with a personality test discovers that the the test has a reliability
coefficient of .70 which is somewhat typical. This indicates that
a. 70% of the score is accurate while 30% is inaccurate.
b. 30% of the people who are tested will receive accurate scores.
c. 70% of the people who are tested will receive accurate scores.
d. 30% of the score is accurate while 70% is inaccurate.
Seventy percent of the obtained score on the test represented the true score on the personality
attribute, while 30% of the obtained score could be accounted for by error. Seventy percent is
true variance while 30% constitutes error variance. (a)
38. A career counselor is using a test for job selection purposes. An

acceptable reliability coeffi cient would be _______ or higher.
a. .20.
b. .55.
c. .80.
d. .70.
This is a tricky question. Although .70 is generally acceptable for most psychological attributes,
for admissions for jobs, schools, and so on, it should be at least .80 and some experts will not
settle for less than .90. (c)
39. The same test is given to the same group of people using the test–retest reliability method.
The correlation between the first and second administration is .70. The true variance (i.e., the
percentage of shared variance or the level of the same thing measured in both) is
a. 70%.
b. 100%.
c. 50%.
d. 49%.
Here’s the key to simplifying a question such as this. To demonstrate the variance of one factor
accounted for by another you merely square the correlation (i.e., reliability coefficient). So .70 ×
.70 = .49. .49 × 100 = 49%. Your exam could refer to this principle as the coefficient of
determination. (d)
40. IQ means
a. a query of intelligence.
b. indication of intelligence.
c. intelligence quotient.
d. intelligence questions for test construction.
(c)
41. _______ did research and concluded that intelligence was nor�mally distributed like height
or weight and that it was primarily genetic.
a. Spearman.
b. Guilford.
c. Williamson.
d. Francis Galton.
Galton felt intelligence was a single or so-called unitary factor. (d)
42. Francis Galton felt intelligence was

a. a unitary faculty.
b. best explained via a two factor theory.
c. best explained via the person’s environment.
d. fluid and crystallized in nature.
Sir Francis Galton of England has been recognized as one of the major pioneers in the study of
individual differences. (a)
43. J. P. Guilford isolated 120 factors which added up to intelligence.

He also is remembered for his
a. thoughts on convergent and divergent thinking.
b. work on cognitive therapy.
c. work on behavior therapy.
d. work to create the first standardized IQ test.
Using factor analysis Guilford determined that there were 120 elements/abilities which added up
to intelligence. Two of the dimensions—convergent and divergent thinking—are still popular
terms today. Convergent thinking occurs when divergent thoughts and ideas are combined into
a singular concept. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate a novel idea. Choice “d” would
reflect primarily the work of Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon. (a)
44. A counselor is told by his supervisor to measure the internal con�sistency reliability
(i.e.,homogeneity) of a test but not to divide the test in halves. The counselor would need to
utilize
a. the split-half method.
b. the test–retest method.
c. the Kuder-Richardson coefficient of equivalence.
d. cross-validation.
Internal consistency or homogeneity of items also is known as “inter item consistency.” In plain
everyday verbiage, the supervisor wants the counselor to find out if each item on the test is
measuring the same thing as every other item. Is performance on one item truly related to
performance on another? This can be done by using the Kuder-Richardson estimates, which
are often denoted on exams as the KR-20 or KR-21 formulas. Another statistic, Lee J.
Cronbach’s alpha coefficient, also has been used in this respect. Choice “a” is incorrect. Yes,
the split-half method does investigate internal consistency reliability, but it relies on (as its name
implies) splitting the test in halves (e.g., even ver�sus odd scores). Cronbach’s alpha and the
KR-20 or KR-21 are alternatives to the split-half method. Choice “d,” “cross-valida�tion,” is
another popular term used in this area of study. Cross�validation takes place when a
researcher further examines the criterion validity (and in rarer instances, the construct validity)
of a test by administering the test to a new sample. This proce�dure is necessary to ensure that
the original validity coefficient is applicable to others who will take the exam. This method helps
guard against error factors, which are likely to be present if the original sample size is small. In
most cases a cross-validation coefficient is indeed smaller than the initial validity coefficient.
This phenomenon is called “shrinkage.” (c)
45. The first intelligence test was created by

a. David Wechsler.
b. J. P. Guilford.
c. Francis Galton.
d. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon.
(d)
46.. Today, the Stanford-Binet IQ test is

a. a non-standardized measure.
b. a standardized measure.
c. a projective measure.
d. b and c.
The Stanford-Binet is standardized because the scoring and administration procedures are
formal and well delineated. Measures which are not standardized (choice “a”) lack procedural
guidelines for scoring or administration and do not include quantitative information related to
“standards” of performance. (b)
47. IQ stands for intelligence quotient, which is expressed by

a. CA/MA × 100.
b. CA/MA × 100.
c. MA/CA × 50.
d. MA/CA × 100.
(d)
48. The Binet stressed age-related tasks. Utilizing this method, a 9-year-old task would be one
which
a. only a 10-year-old child could answer.
b. only an 8-year-old child could answer.
c. 50% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly.
d. 75% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly.
A 9-year-old task was defined as one in which 1/2 of the 9-year-olds tested could answer
successfully. (c)
49. Simon and Binet pioneered the fi rst IQ test around 1905. The test was created to
a. assess high school seniors in America.
b. assess U.S. military recruits.
c. discriminate normal from retarded Parisian children.
d. measure genius in the college population.
(c)
50. Today the Stanford-Binet is used from ages 2 to adulthood. The IQ formula has been
replaced by the
a. SAS.
b. SUDS.
c. entropy.
d. ACPA.
(a)
51. Most experts would agree that the Wechsler IQ tests gained popularity, as the Binet
a. can be used in a group.
b. favored the geriatric population.
c. didn’t seem to be the best test for adults.
d. was biased toward women.
(c)
52. The best IQ test for a 22-year-old single male would be the
a. WPPSI-III.
b. WAIS-III.
c. WISC-IV.
d. Computer-based testing.
(b)
53. The best intelligence test for a sixth-grade girl would be the
a. WPPSI-III.
b. WAIS-III.
c. WISC-IV.
d. Merrill-Palmer.
(c)
54. The best intelligence test for a kindergartner would be the

a. WPPSI-III.
b. WAIS-III.
c. WISC-IV.
d. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.
(a)
55. The mean on the Wechsler and the Binet is _______ and the standard deviation is
_______.
a. 100; 100.
b. 100; 15 Wechsler, 16 Stanford-Binet.
c. 100; 20.
d. 100; 1.
IQs above 100 are above average and those shy of 100 are below average. (b)
56. Group IQ tests like the Otis Lennon, the Lorge-Thorndike, and the California Test of Mental
Abilities arepopular in school settings.The advantage is that
a. group tests are quicker to administer.
b. group tests are superior in terms of predicting school performance.
c. group tests always have a higher degree of reliability.
d. individual IQ tests are not appropriate for school children.
(a)
57. The group IQ test movement began

a. in 1905.
b. with the work of Binet.
c. with the Army Alpha and Army Beta in World War I.
d. with the AGCT in World War II.
Note the word group. (c)
58. In a culture-fair test

a. items are known to the subject regardless of his or her
culture.
b. the test is not standardized.
c. culture-free items cannot be utilized.
d. African Americans generally score higher than Whites.
(a)
59. The Black versus White IQ controversy was sparked mainly by a

1969 article written by _______.
a. John Ertl.
b. Raymond B. Cattell.
c. Arthur Jensen.
d. Robert Williams.
(c)
60. The MMPI-2 is

a. an IQ test.
b. a neurological test.
c. a projective personality test.
d. a standardized personality test.
(d)
61. The word psychometric means

a. a form of measurement used by a neurologist.
b. any form of mental testing.
c. a mental trait which cannot be measured.
d. the test relies on a summated or linear rating scale.
(b)
6l62. In a projective test the client is shown

a. something which is highly reinforcing.
b. something which is highly charged from an emotional
standpoint.
c. a and b.
d. neutral stimuli.
(d)
63. The 16 PF refl ects the work of

a. Raymond B. Cattell.
b. Carl Jung.
c. James McKeen Cattell.
d. Oscar K. Buros.
(a)
64. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator refl ects the work of

a. Raymond B. Cattell.
b. Carl Jung.
c. William Glasser.
d. Oscar K. Buros.
(b)
65. The counselor who favors projective measures would most likely
be a
a. Rogerian.
b. strict behaviorist.
c. TA therapist.
d. psychodynamic clinician.
(d)
66. An aptitude test is to _______ as an achievement test is to ____

___.
a. what has been learned; potential.
b. potential; what has been learned.
c. profit from learning; potential.
d. a measurement of current skills; potential.
(b)
67. Both the Rorschach and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
are projective tests. The Rorschach uses 10 inkblot cards while
the TAT uses
a. a dozen inkblot cards.
b. verbal and performance IQ scales.
c. pictures.
d. incomplete sentences.
(c)
68. Test bias primarily results from

a. a test being normed solely on White middle-class clients.
b. the use of projective measures.
c. using Whites to score the test.
d. using IQ rather than personality tests.
This bias should be communicated to the client when the results are explained.
(a)
69. A counselor who fears the client has an organic, neurological, or motoric difficulty would
most likely use the
a. Bender Gestalt.
b. Rorschach.
c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
d. Thematic Apperception Test.
(a)
670. An interest inventory would be least valid when used with

a. a first-year college student majoring in philosophy.
b. a third-year college student majoring in physics.
c. an eighth-grade male with an IQ of 136.
d. a 46-year-old White male construction worker.
(c)
71. One major criticism of interest inventories is that

a. they have far too many questions.
b. they are most appropriate for very young children.
c. they emphasize professional positions and minimize blue
collar jobs.
d. they favor female pursuits.
(c)
72. Interest inventories are positive in the sense that

a. they are reliable and not threatening to the test taker.
b. they are always graded by the test taker.
c. they require little or no reading skills.
d. they have high validity in nearly all age brackets.
Generally, an interest inventory would be the least threatening
variety of test.
(a)
73. A counselor who had an interest primarily in testing would most

likely be a member of
a. ASGW.
b. AMECD.
c. NASW.
d. AHEAD.
This ACA Division is the Association for Measurement and
Evaluation in Counseling and Development. (b)
74. The NCE is
a. an intelligence test.
b. an aptitude test.
c. a personality test.
d. an achievement test.
The NCE is testing your knowledge and application of material in the counseling profession. (d)
75. The _______ are examples of aptitude tests.

a. GATB, the O*NET Ability Profiler, and the MCAT.
b. GZTS and the MMPI.
c. CPI and the MMPI.
d. Strong and the LSAT.
(a)
76. One problem with interest inventories is that the person often
tries to answer the questions in a socially acceptable manner.
Psychometricians call this response style phenomenon
a. standard error.
b. social desirability (the right way to feel in society).
c. cultural bias.
d. acquiescence.
(b)
77. An aptitude test predicts future behavior while an achievement the test measures what you
have mastered or learned. In the case of
a test like _______ the distinction is unclear.
a. Binet.
b. Wechsler.
c. GRE.
d. Bender.
(c)
78. Your supervisor wants you to fi nd a new personality test for your
counseling agency. You should read
a. professional journals.
b. the Buros Mental Measurements Yearbook.
c. classic textbooks in the field as well as test materials pro
duced by the testing company.
(d)
79. The standard error of measurement tells you

a. how accurate or inaccurate a test score is.
b. what population responds best to the test.
c. the accuracy for personality but not IQ tests.
d. the number of people used in norming the test.
(a)
80. A new IQ test has a standard error of measurement of 3. Tom scores 106 on the test. If he
takes the test a lot, we can predict that about 68% of the time
a. Tom will score between 100 and 103.
b. Tom will score between 100 and 106.
c. Tom will score between 103 and 109.
d. Tom will score higher than Betty who scored 139.
(c)
81 A counselor created an achievement test with a reliability coefficient of .82. The test is
shortened since many clients felt it was too long. The counselor shortened the test but logically
assumed that the reliability coefficient would now
a. be approximately .88.
b. remain at .82.
c. be at least 10 points higher or lower.
d. be lower than .82.
(d)
82. A counselor can utilize psychological tests to help secure a _______ diagnosis if third party
payments are necessary.
a. AACD.
b. DSM or ICD.
c. percentile.
d. standard error.
Diagnosis is a medical term which asserts that you classify a disease based on
symptomatology. (b)
83. A colleague of yours invents a new projective test. Seventeen counselors rated the same
client using the measure and came up with nearly identical assessments. This would indicate
a. high validity.
b. high reliability.
c. excellent norming studies.
d. culture fairness.
This is known as “interrater” reliability.
(b)
84. Counselors often shy away from self-reports since

a. clients often give inaccurate answers.
b. ACA ethics do not allow them.
c. clients need a very high IQ to understand them.
d. they are generally very lengthy.
(a)
685. In most instances, who would be the best qualified to give the Rorschach Inkblot Test?
a. A counselor with NCC, NCCC after his or her name.
b. A clinical psychologist.
c. A D.O. psychiatrist.
d. A social worker with ACSW after his or her name.
Generally, a clinical psychologist would have the most training in this area while the social
worker would have the least education regarding tests and measurements.
(b)
86. Your client, who is in an outpatient hospital program, is keeping a journal of irrational
thoughts. This would be
a. an unethical practice based on NBCC ethical guidelines.
b. considered a standardized test.
c. an informal assessment technique.
d. an aptitude measure.
(c)
87. You are uncertain whether a test is intended for the population served by your not-for-profit
agency. The best method of researching this dilemma would be to
a. contact a local APA clinical psychology graduate pro
gram.
b. make a long distance call to the person who created the
test.
c. read the test manual included with the test.
d. give the test to six or more clients at random.
(c)
88. Clients should know that

a. validity is more important than reliability.
b. projective tests favor psychodynamic theory.
c. face validity is not that important.
d. a test is merely a single source of data and not infallible.
(d)
89. One major testing trend is

a. computer-assisted testing and computer interpretations.
b. more paper and pencil measures.
c. to give school children at least three IQ tests per year.
d. to train pastoral counselors to do projective testing.
(a)
90. One future trend which seems contradictory is that some experts are pushing for
a. a greater reliance on tests while others want to rely on
them less.
b. social workers to do most of the testing.
c. psychiatrists to do most of the testing.
d. counselors to ban all computer-assisted tests.
(a)
91. Most counselors would agree that

a. more preschool IQ testing is necessary.
b. Teachers need to give more personality tests.
c. more public education is needed in the area of testing.
d. the testing mystique has been beneficial to the general
public.
(c)
92. _______ would be an informal method of appraisal.

a. IQ testing.
b. Standardized personality testing.
c. GRE scores.
d. A checklist.
(d)
93. The WAIS-III is given to 100,000 individuals in the United States
who are picked at random. A counselor would expect that
a. approximately 68% would score between 85 and 115.
b. approximately 68% would score between 70 and 130.
c. the mean IQ would be 112.
d. 50% of those tested would score 112 or above.
(a)
94. A word association test would be an example of

a. a neuropsychological test.
b. a motoric test.
c. an achievement test.
d. a projective test.
Although it is rare, some texts and exams take issue with the archaic word projective and refer
to such tests as “self- expressive.” (d)
95. Infant IQ tests are

a. more reliable than those given later in life.
b. more unreliable than those given later in life.
c. not related to learning experiences.
d. never used.
These “toddler tests” are sometimes (b)
96. A good practice for counselors is to

a. always test the client yourself rather than referring the
client for testing.
b. never generalize on the basis of a single test score.
c. stay away from culture-free tests.
d. stay away from scoring the test yourself.
(b)
97. You want to admit only 25% of all counselors to an advanced

training program in psychodynamic group therapy. The item difficulty on the entrance exam for
applicants would be best set at
a. 0.0.
b. .5 regardless of the admission requirement.
c. 1.0.
d. .25.
(d)
98. According to Public Law 93–380, also known as the Buckley

Amendment, a 19-year-old college student attending college
a. could view her record, which included test data.
b. could view her daughter’s infant IQ test given at preschool.
c. could demand a correction she discovered while reading a file.
(d)
99. Lewis Terman

a. constructed the Wechsler tests.
b. constructed the initial Binet prior to 1910.
c. constructed the Rorschach.
d. Americanized the Binet.
(d)
100. In constructing a test you notice that all 75 people correctly answered item number 12. This
gives you an item difficulty of
a. 1.2
b. 0.75
c. 1.0
d. 0.0
(c)
-END OF EXAM SET 6-

1. Which of the following indices indicates the percentage of individuals who answered each
item correctly?
A. Option Effectiveness
B. Validity
C. Difficulty
D. Discriminative
-C
2. In what mode of test administration, though expensive, assess the motivation and attitude of
the test takers?
A. Individually-administered
B. Video-tape-administered
C. Audio-video-administered
D. Audio-tape-administered
-A
3. The overall increase in general IQ scores from 1932 to 1997 is known as:
A. An error
B. The Flynn Effect
C. The Hawthorne Effect
D. The Jerk-Dodson Law
-B
4. Who posited that people develop careers in stages?

A. Krumboltz
B. Super
C. Holland
D. Parsons
-B
5.. Ethical standards also reinforce the importance of proper diagnosis of disorder.
A. Mental
B. Behavioral
C. Physical
D. Physiological
-D
6. An examinee variable that consists of cognitive and emotional components and generally
results in score decrement of the examinee is referred to as
A. faking bad
B. impression management
C. test anxiety
D. test aversion
-C
7. In the Test Administration Process, during what phase is the following

activity being done?
"Gather testing materials in specified manner"
A. Pretesting procedures
B. After completion of testing
C. Immediately preceding test
D. Administration of instrument
-B
8. Sociometry is concerned about measurement of

A. social networks
B. interpersonal preferences
C. social behavior
D. social pressures
-B
9. The belief that "honesty is the best policy" is an example of

A. values
B. ethics
C. virtue
D. morals
-D (value=honesty, ethics= behavior for a group of people, virtue= broad term for rules of good
manners and right conduct, morals= guiding principles of right and wrong in short sayings)
10. Which of the following is NOT an ethical consideration for testing?

A. letting test talers know the results of the test
B. confidentiality protection
C. none of these
D. disclosure to the test takers of the purpose of the test
-C
11. Group teșts are often correctly criticized because

A. their norms are based on inadequate samples
B. more number of examinees can cause disturbance in the testing center
C. little attention can be given to rapport with the test taker
D. examiner often gives incorrect instructions
-D
12. Which of the following tests permits the detection of test taker's faking?
A. TAT
B. Bern Reuter
C. MMPI
D. Rorschach
-C
13. Which of the following is another Assessment Center Technique to carry out assigned tasks,
without designating the specific responsibilities of group members?
A. Autonomous Work Group
B. Work Groups in Organization
C. Role-Playing
D. Leaderless group
-A
14. If a counselor witnesses unethical behavior from a colleague, actions should he/she take?
A. Do nothing so that the colleague does not get into
B. Inform the colleague of intentions to alert the proper authorities and follow school policy on
such matters.
C. Inform parents of the students who may be a victim of unethical behavior.
D. Let the colleague know to let her have awareness of his or her behavior and inform the
colleague that he/she must stop immediately or face the consequences.
-D
15. Dr. De Leon teaches a course online and to a class that meets in a classroom; both classes
have the same number of students. She wants to study the effects on the final course grade of
taking the course online versus in a classroom setting. A major problem in her study would be
A. confounding variables
B. poor replication
C. difficulty in obtaining consent from the students
D. lack of hypothesis
-A
16. Which of the following is used by many organizations in their hiring process? It is designed
to identify high caliber applicants/employees. It also provides a number of non-cognitive scale
measure constructs, such as honesty, drug avoidance, non-violence and others.
A. Wesman Personnel Classification Test
B. Wonderlic Personnel Test
C. Personnel Selection Inventory (PSI)
D. Honesty and Integrity Test
-C
17. Binet used this term for the current capabilities of the child
A. chronological age
B. intelligence quotient
C. mental age
D. mental level
-C
18. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

A. Average Deviation
B. Standard Deviation
C. Variance
D. Mean
-D
19. This activity:

"Organize the Registration Procedure"
is being done during what phase of the test administration process?
A. Immediately preceding conduct of test
B. After completion of test
C. Pretesting procedures
D. Actual conduct
-C
20. Students in Spanish I class who take a Spanish test and obtain a raw score of 108 or above
are placed in intermediate-Spanish II class. The raw score of 108 is called a
A. selection score
B. cut-off score
C. false positive score
D. placement score
-D
21. On the WAIS-IV, the mean is 100 and the Standard Deviation is
A. 15
B. 150
C. 100
D. 10
-A
22. The type of test that uses the average performance of a group as basis for determining the
cut-off scores is referred to as
A. linear standard
B. criterion-referenced
C. norm-referenced
D. normalized standard
-C.
23. Individuals with hearing deficits have had a pattern of retarded speech and language
development and problems in social development.
What intelligence tests would be preferable for this group?
A. do not demand oral language
B. demand reading
C. do not demand pantomime instructions
D. demand writing
-A
24. Which of the following are non-referenced scores where we can compare an Individual's
performance with what most individuals typically do at that age group?
A. Developmental norms
B. Group norms
C. Age norms
D. Within-group norms
-A
25. In the Test Administration Process, during what phase is this activity being done?
"Note any behavioral observation of the client if individually administered"
A. Immediately preceding test
B. Pretesting procedures
C. After completion of testing
D. Administration of instrument
-D
26. Non-test techniques do not require evidence of validity.

I. FALSE
II. TRUE
A. either I or II
B. II only
C. I only
D. none of these
-C
27. Who has direct control of the sale and distribution of psychological tests and other
assessment instruments?
A. Test Publisher
B. Psychometricians
C. Test Designer
D. Counselor
-A
28. In a given test of mental ability, 5 of the students got a percentile score of 40, 8 got 55, 3 got
70, and the rest got 85 percentile. What can you say of the group performance?
A. The distribution is negatively skewed
B. The distribution is positively skewed
C. The distribution is neither skewed to the right nor to the left
D. The distribution follows a normal curved
-A
29. As part of a class project, a researcher decides to survey students enrolled in the Intro to
Guidance and Counseling class this semester to determine who are working towards a masters
degree in Guidance and Counseling. What is wrong with this study?
A. There is no hypothesis statement
B. All of these
C. The group students surveyed is not a representative sample
D. Correlation coefficient cannot be computed
-B
30. In regards to the hero of TAT stories, it is assumed that

A. the hero is always a masculine figure
B. in each story there are several heroes
C. the client identifies psychologically with the hero
D. the hero represents what Freud called
-C
31. Most ethical dilemmas are associated with

A. Confidentiality
B. Diagnosis
C. Interpretation
D. Research
-A
32. What type of error occurs when the interviewer allows the quality of the previous
interviewee-applicant influence the ratings of the present interviewee-applicant?
A. Stringency
B. Precedent effect
C. Leniency
D. Contrast effect
-D
33. The change in score that is due to the counseling given by the counselor
A. MDC
B. MCID
C. SEM
D. P-value
-B
34. The right of the client to control who can access his or her psychological test results.
A. Confidentiality
B. Privacy
C. Privileged Communication
D. RA 9258
-B
35. Counselors must always place a psychodiagnostic label for their clients to justify their need
for counseling.
I. FALSE
II. TRUE
A. either I or II
B. II only
C. I only
D. none of these
-C
-EXAM SET 7 INTENTIONALLY ENDS HERE-

1. The most valuable type of research is

a. always conducted using a factor analysis.
b. conducted using the chi-square.
c. the experiment, used to discover cause-and-effect relationships.
d. the quasi-experiment.
Experimental research is the process of gathering data in order to make evaluative comparisons
regarding different situations. An experiment must have the conditions of treatment controlled
via the experimenter and random assignments (also called ran
domization) used in the groups. An experiment attempts to eliminate all extraneous variables. In
the quasi-experiment (choice “d”) the researcher uses pre-existing groups, and hence the IV
(independent variable) cannot be altered (e.g., gender or ethnicity). In a quasi-experiment you
cannot state with any degree of statistical confidence that the IV caused the DV (dependent
variable). One popular type of quasi-experiment is known as the “ex post facto study.” Ex post
facto literally means “after the fact,” connoting a correlational study or research in which intact,
pre-existing groups are utilized. In the case of the ex post facto study, the IV was administered
before the research began. When conducting or perusing a research study a counselor is very
concerned with “internal and external validity.” Threats to internal validity include maturation of
subjects (psychological and physical changes including fatigue due to the time involved),
mortality (i.e., subjects withdrawing), instruments used to measure the behavior or trait, and
statistical regression (i.e., the notion that extremely high or low scores would move toward the
mean if the measure is utilized again). Internal validity refers to whether the DVs were truly
influenced by the experimental IVs or whether other factors had an impact. External validity, on
the other hand, refers to whether the experimental research results can be generalized to larger
populations (i.e., other people, settings or conditions). Thus, if the results of the study only apply
to the population in the study itself then the external validity is said to be low.
As for the other incorrect choices, a “factor analysis” (choice “a”) refers to
statistical procedures that use the important or underlying “factors” in an attempt to summarize a
lot of variables. Hence, a test which measures a counselor’s ability may try to describe the three
most important variables (factors) that make an effective helper, although literally hundreds of
factors may exist. Using factor analysis procedures, a brief test that measures the three major
factors may be able to predict who will be an effective counselor as accurately as 10 other tests
that examine hundreds of variables or so-called factors. Choice “b” mentions the “chi-square.”
The chi-square is a nonparametric statistical measure that tests whether a distribution differs
significantly from an expected theoretical distribution.
(c)
2. Experiments emphasize parsimony, which means

a. interpreting the results in the simplest way.
b. interpreting the results in the most complex manner.
c. interpreting the results using a correlation coeffi cient.
d. interpreting the results using a clinical interview.
Parsimonious literally means a tendency to be miserly and not overspend. A parsimonious

individual is said to be overly economical and stingy. In research, we strive for parsimony in the
sense that the easiest and less complex explanation is said to be the best; an economical
description if you will. Simply put, the
simplest explanation of the fi ndings is always preferred. The factor analysis mentioned in the
previous answer is parsimonious in the sense that 10 tests which measure the dimensions of an
effective counselor can be explained via a short measure which describes three underlying
variables. Factor analysis then, is concerned with data reduction.
(a)
3. Occam’s Razor suggests that experimenters

a. interpret the results in the simplest manner.
b. interpret the results in the most complex manner.
c. interpret the results using a correlation coefficient.
d. interpret the results using a clinical interview.
(a)
4. A counselor educator is running an experiment to test a new form of counseling.

Unbeknownst to the experimenter one of the clients in the study are secretly seeing a gestalt
therapist. This experiment
a. is parsimonious.
b. is an example of Occam’s Razor.
c. is confounded/fl awed.
d. is valid and will most likely help the field of counseling.
(c)
5. Nondirective is to person-centered as
a. psychological testing is to counseling.
b. confounding is to experimenting.
c. appraisal is to research.
d. parsimony is to Occam’s Razor.
(d)
6. An experiment is said to be confounded when

a. undesirable variables are not kept out of the experiment.
b. undesirable variables are kept out of the experiment.
c. basic research is used in place of applied research.
d. the sample is random.
(a)
7. In experimental terminology IV stands for _______ and DV

stands for _______.
a. independent variable; dependent variable.
b. dependent variable; independent variable.
c. individual variable; dependent variable.
d. independent variable; designer variable.
(a)
8. A professor of counselor education hypothesized that biofeedback training could reduce

anxiety and improve the average
score on written board exams. If this professor decides to conduct a formal experiment the IV
will be the _______, and the DV will be the _______.
a. professor; anxiety level.

b. anxiety level; board exam score.
c. biofeedback; board exam score.
d. board exam score; biofeedback.
(c)
9. Experimenters should always abide by a code of ethics. The variable you manipulate/control
in an experiment is the
a. DV.
b. dependent variable.
c. the variable you will measure to determine the outcome.
d. IV or independent variable.
(d)
10. In order for the professor of counselor education (see question 8) to conduct an experiment
regarding his hypothesis he will need a(n) _______ and a(n) _______.
a. biofeedback group; systematic desensitization group.
b. control group; systematic desensitization group.
c. control group; experimental group.
d. at least 60 subjects in the control group; at least 60 subjects in the experimental group.
(c)
11. In order for the professor of counselor education to conduct the

experiment suggested in question 8 the experimental group would need to receive
a. the manipulated IV.
b. the biofeedback training.
c. a and b.
d. the organismic IV.
The experimental group receives the IV, which in this case is biofeedback training. An
organismic variable is one the researcher cannot control yet exists such as height, weight, or
gender. To determine whether an organismic IV exists you simply ask yourself if there is an
experimental variable being examined which you cannot manipulate. In most cases, when you
are confronted with IV/DV identification questions, the IV will be of the “manipulated variety.”
(c)
12. Hypothesis testing is most closely related to the work of

a. Hoppock.
b. Freud.
c. Lloyd Morgan.
d. R. A. Fisher.
Hypothesis testing was pioneered by R. A. Fisher. A hypothesis is a hunch or an educated
guess which can be tested utilizing the experimental model. (d)
13. The null hypothesis suggests that there will not be a significant difference between the
experimental group which received the IV and the control group which did not. Thus, if the
experiment in question 708 was conducted, the null hypothesis would suggest that
a. all students receiving biofeedback training would score
equally well on the board exam.
b. systematic desensitization might work better than bio
feedback.
c. biofeedback will not improve the board exam scores.
d. meta-analysis is required.
(c)
14. The hunch is known as the experimental or alternative hypothesis. The experimental
hypothesis suggests that a difference will be evident between the control group and the
experimental group (i.e., the group receiving the IV). Thus, if the experiment in question 8 were
conducted, the experimental hypothesis would suggest that
a. the biofeedback would raise board scores.
b. the control group will score better on the board exam.
c. there will be no difference between the experimental and
the control groups.
d. the experiment has been confounded.
(a)
15. From a purely statistical standpoint, in order to compare a con

trol group (which does not receive the IV or experimental ma
nipulation) to the experimental group the researcher will need
a. a correlation coefficient
b. only descriptive statistics.
c. percentile rank.
d. a test of significance.
(d)
16. When you see the letter P in relation to a test of significance it

means
a. portion.
b. population parameter.
c. probability.
d. the researcher is using an ethnographic qualitative approach.
(c)
17. In the social sciences the accepted probability level is usually

a. .05 or less.
b. 1.0 or higher.
c. .0001 or less.
d. 5.0.
0.05 and .01 are the two most popular levels of significance. (a)
18. P = .05 really means that

a. five subjects were not included in the study.
b. there is only a 5% chance that the difference between
the control group and the experimental groups is due to
chance factors.
c. the level of significance is .01.
d. no level of significance has been set.
(b)
19. P = .05 really means that

a. differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the
same results 95 out of 100 times.
b. differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the
same results 99 out of 100 times.
c. there is a 95% error factor.
d. there is a 10% error factor.
(a)
20. The study that would best rule out chance factors would have a
significance level of P =
a. .05.
b. .01.
c. .001.
d. .08.
(c)
21. Type I and Type II errors are called _______ and _______ respectively.
a. beta; alpha.
b. .01; .05.
c. a and b.
d. alpha; beta.
(d)
22. A Type I error occurs when

a. you have a beta error.
b. you accept null when it is false.
c. you reject null when it is true.
d. you fail to use a test of significance.
(c)
23. A Type II error

a. is also called a beta error.
b. means you reject null when it is applicable.
c. means you accept null when it is false.
d. a and c.
(d)
24. Assume the experiment in question 708 is conducted. The results indicate that the
biofeedback helped raise written board exam scores but in reality this is not the case. The
researcher has made a
a. Type I error.
b. Type II error.
c. beta error.
d. b and c.
(a)
25. A counselor educator decides to increase the sample size in her experiment. This will
a. confound the experiment in nearly every case.
b. raise the probability of Type I and Type II errors.
c. have virtually no impact on Type I and Type II errors.
d. reduce Type I and Type II errors.
(d)
26. If a researcher changes the signifi cance level from .05 to.001, then
a. alpha and beta errors will increase.
b. alpha errors increase but beta errors decrease.
c. alpha errors decrease; however, beta errors increase.
d. This will have no impact on Type I and Type II errors.
(c)
27. A counselor believes that clients who receive assertiveness training will ask more questions
in counseling classes. An experimental group receives assertiveness training while a control
group does not. In order to test for signifi cant differences between the groups the counselor
should utilize
a. the student’s t test.
b. a correlation coeffi cient.
c. a survey.
d. an analysis of variance or ANOVA.
(a)
28. The researcher in question 727 now attempts a more complex experiment. One group
receives no assertiveness training, a second group receives four assertiveness training
sessions, and a third receives six sessions. The statistic of choice would
a. be the mean.
b. be the t test.
c. be the two-way ANOVA
d. be the ANOVA
(d)
29. If the researcher in the previous question utilized two IVs then
the statistic of choice would be
a. the median.
b. the t test.
c. the two-way ANOVA or MANOVA.
d. the ANOVA.
Two IVs requires a two-way ANOVA, three IVs, a three-way ANOVA, etc.
(c)
30. To complete a t test you would consult a tabled value of t. In order to see if signifi cant
differences exist in an ANOVA you would
a. consult the mode.
b. consult a table for t values.
c. consult a table for F values.
d. compute the chi-square.
(c)
31. Which level of signifi cance would best rule out chance factors?
a. .05
b. .01
c. .2
d. .001
(d)
32. When a researcher uses correlation, then there is no direct ma

nipulation of the IV. A researcher might ask, for example, how IQ correlates with the incidence of
panic disorder. Again, nothing is manipulated; just measured. In cases such as this a correlation
coefficient will reveal
a. the relationship between IQ and panic disorder.
b. the probability that a signifi cant difference exists.
c. an F test.
d. percentile rank.
(a)
33. If data indicate that students who study a lot get very high scores on state counselor
licensing exams, then the correlation between study time and LPC exam scores would be
a. positive.
b. negative.
c. 0.00.
d. impossible to ascertain.
(a)
34. Which of the following would most likely yield a perfect correlation of 1.00?
a. IQ and salary.
b. ICD diagnosis and salary.
c. length in inches and length in centimeters.
d. height and weight.
(c)
35. A good guess would be that if you would correlate the length of CACREP graduates’ baby
toes with their NCE scores the result would
a. be close to 0.00.
b. be close to a perfect 1.00.
c. be close to a perfect negative correlation of –1.00.
d. be about +.70.
(a)
36. Dr. X discovered that the correlation between therapists who

hold NCC status and therapists who practice systematic desensitization is .90. A student who
perused Dr. X’s research told his fellow students that Dr. X had discovered that attaining NCC
status causes therapists to become behaviorally oriented. The
student is incorrect because
a. systematic desensitization is clearly not a behavioral strat
egy.
b. this can only be determined via a histogram.
c. the study suffers from longitudinal and maturational ef
fects.
d. correlation does not imply causal.
(d)
37. Behaviorists often utilize N=1, which is called intensive experi

mental design. The fi rst step in this approach would be to
a. consult a random number table.
b. decide on a nonparametric statistical test.
c. take a baseline measure.
d. compute the range.
(c)
38. In a new study the clients do not know whether they are receiv
ing an experimental treatment for depression or whether they
are simply part of the control group. This is, nevertheless, known
to the researcher. Thus, this is a
a. double-blind study.
b. single-blind study.
c. baseline for an intensive N=1 design.
d. participant observer model.
(b)
39. A large study at a major university gave an experimental group

of clients a new type of therapy that was intended to ameliorate
test anxiety. The control group did not receive the new therapy.
Neither the clients nor the researchers knew which students re
ceived the new treatment. This was a
a. double-blind study.
b. single-blind study.
c. typical AB design.
d. case of correlational research.
(a)
40. Experimental is to cause and effect as correlational is to

a. blind study.
b. double-blind study.
c. N = 1 design.
d. degree of relationship.
(d)
41. In a normal curve the mean, the median, and the mode all fall
precisely in the middle of the curve. From a graphical stand
point the so-called normal or Gaussian curve (named after the
astronomer/mathematician K. F. Gauss) looks like
a. a symmetrical bell.
b. the top half of a bowling ball.
c. the top half of a hot dog.
d. a mountain which is leaning toward the left.
(a)
42. The most common measures of central tendency are the mean, the median, and the mode.
The mode is
a. the most frequently occurring score and the least impor
tant measure of central tendency.
b. always 10% less than the mean.
c. the arithmetic average.
d. the middle score in the distribution of scores.
(a)
43. A bimodal distribution has two modes (i.e., most frequently oc

curring scores). Graphically, this looks roughly like
a. a symmetrical bell-shaped curve.
b. a camel’s back with two humps.
c. the top half of a bowling ball.
d. a mountain which is leaning toward the left.
(b)
44. In a basic curve or so-called frequency polygon the point of max

imum concentration is the
a. mean.
b. median.
c. mode.
d. range.
(c)
45. The most useful measure of central tendency is the

a. mean often abbreviated by an X with a bar over it.
b. median often abbreviated by Md. or Mdn.
c. mode often abbreviated by Mo.
d. point of maximum concentration.
(a)
46. In a career counseling session an electrical engineer mentions three jobs he has held. The
first paid $10 per hour, the second paid $30 per hour, and the third paid a higher rate of $50 per
hour. The counselor responds that the client is averaging $30 per hour. The counselor is using
a. a Pearson product-moment correlation coeffi cient.
b. a factorial design.
c. the harmonic mean.
d. the mean.
(d)
47. From a mathematical standpoint, the mean is merely the sum

of the scores divided by the number of scores. The mean is mis
leading when
a. the distribution is skewed.
b. the distribution has no extreme scores.
c. there are extreme scores.
d. a and c.
(d)
48. When a distribution of scores is not distributed normally statisticians call it

a. Gauss’s curve.
b. a symmetrical bell-shaped curve.
c. a skewed distribution.
d. an invalid distribution.
(c)
49. The median is

a. the middle score when the data are arranged from highest
to lowest.
b. the arithmetic average.
c. the most frequent value obtained.
d. never more useful than the mean.
(a)
50. In a new experiment, a counselor educator wants to ferret out the effects of more than one
IV. She will use a _______ design.
a. Pearson product-moment r
b. Spearman rank order rho
c. factorial
d. Solomon four-group design created by psychologist Richard L. Solomon.
(c)
51. Regardless of the shape, the _______ will always be the high
point when a distribution is displayed graphically.
a. df.
b. mean.
c. median.
d. mode.
The mode will be highest because it is the point where the most frequently occurring score falls.
(d)
52. If a group of fi rst semester graduate students in counseling took

the NCE exam, a distribution of scores would be
a. a bell-shaped curve.
b. positively skewed.
c. negatively skewed.
d. more information obviously is needed.
(b)
53. Nine of the world’s fi nest counselor educators are given an el

ementary exam on counseling theory. The distribution of scores
would most likely be
a. a bell-shaped curve.
b. positively skewed.
c. negatively skewed.
d. more information would be necessary.
(c)
54. Billy received an 82 on his college math fi nal. This is Billy’s raw score on the test. A raw
score simply refers to the number of items correctly answered. A raw score is expressed in the
units by which it was originally obtained. The raw score is not altered
mathematically. Billy’s raw score indicates that
a. he is roughly a B student.
b. he answered 82% correctly.
c. his percentile rank is 82.
d. more information is obviously necessary.
(d)
55. A distribution with class intervals can be graphically displayed via a bar graph also called a
a. histogram.
b. sociogram.
c. genogram.
d. genus.
(a)
56. When a horizontal line is drawn under a frequency distribution
it is known as
a. mesokurtic.
b. the y axis.
c. the ordinate.
d. the x axis.
(d)
57. The x axis is used to plot the IV scores. The x axis is also known
as
a. the y axis.
b. the abscissa.
c. the DV.
d. the vertical axis.
(b)
58. The y axis is used to plot the frequency of the DVs. The y axis is
also known as the
a. ordinate.
b. abscissa.
c. the IV.
d. the horizontal axis.
(a)
59. If a distribution is bimodal, then there is a good chance that

a. the curve will be normal.
b. the curve will be shaped like a symmetrical bell.
c. the researcher is working with two distinct populations.
d. the research is useless in the field of counseling.
(c)
60. If an experiment can be replicated by others with almost identical findings, then the
experiment
a. is impacted by the observer effect.
b. is said to be a naturalistic observation.
c. is the result of ethological observation.
d. is said to be reliable.
(d)
61. The range is a measure of variance and usually is calculated by

determining the difference between the highest and the lowest
score. Thus, on a test where the top score was a 93 and the low
est score was a 33 out of 100, the range would be
a. 61.
b. 77.
c. 59.
d. more information is necessary.
(a)
62. A sociogram is to a counseling group as a scattergram is to

a. the normal curve.
b. the range.
c. a correlation coeffi cient.
d. the John Henry Effect.
(c)
63. A counselor educator is teaching two separate classes in individual inventory. In the morning
class the counselor educator has 53 students and in the afternoon class she has 177 students.
A statistician would expect that the range of scores on a test would be
a. greater in the afternoon class than the morning class.
b. smaller in the afternoon class.
c. impossible to speculate about without more data.
d. nearly the same in either class.
The range generally increases with sample size.
(a)
64. The variance is a measure of dispersion of scores around some measure of central
tendency. The variance is the standard deviation squared. A popular IQ test has a standard
deviation (SD) of 15. A counselor would expect that if the mean IQ score is 100, then
a. the average score on the test would be 122.
b. 95% of the people who take the test will score between 85
and 115.
c. 99% of the people who take the test will score between 85
and 115.
d. 68% of the people who take the test will score between 85 and 115.
(d)
65. Using the data in question 764 one could say that a person with
an IQ score of 122 would fall within
a. plus or minus 1 SD of the mean.
b. the average IQ range.
c. an IQ score which is more that 2 SD above the mean.
d. plus or minus 2 SD of the mean.
(d)
66. The standard deviation is the square root of the variance. A z

score of +1 would be the same as
a. one standard deviation above the mean.
b. one standard deviation below the mean.
c. the same as a so-called T-score.
d. the median score if the population is normal.
(a)
67. Z-scores (also called standard scores) are the same as standard
deviations, thus a z-score of –2.5 means
a. 2.5 SD below the mean.
b. 2.5 SD above the mean.
c. a CEEB score of 500.
d. –.05% of the population falls within this area of the curve.
(a)
68. A T-score is different from a z-score. A z-score is the same as the

standard deviation. A T-score, however, has a mean of 50 with
every 10 points landing at a standard deviation above or below
the mean. Thus a T-score of 60 would equal +1 SD while a T
score of 40 would
a. be –2 SD.
b. be –1 SD.
c. be a z-score of +2.
d. be a z-score of +1.
(b)
69. An IQ score on an IQ test which was three standard deviations

above the mean would be
a. about average.
b. slightly below the norm for adults.
c approximately 110.
d. near the genius level.
(d)
70. A platykurtic distribution would look approximately like

a. the upper half of a bowling ball.
b. the normal distribution.
c. the upper half of a hot dog, lying on its side over the abscissa.
d. a camel’s back.
(c)
71. Test scores on an exam that fell below three standard deviations
of the mean or above three standard deviations of the mean
could be described as
a. extreme.
b. very typical or within the average range.
c. close to the mean.
d. very low scores.
(a)
72. In World War II the Air Force used stanine scores as a measurement. Stanine scores divide
the distribution into nine equal intervals with stanine 1 as the lowest ninth and 9 as the highest
ninth. In this system 5 is the mean. Thus a Binet IQ score of 101
would fall in stanine
a. 1.
b. 9.
c. 5.
d. 7.
(c)
73. There are four basic measurement scales: the nominal, the ordinal, the interval, and the
ratio. The nominal scale is strictly a qualitative scale. It is the simplest type of scale. It is used to
distinguish logically separated groups. Which of the following illustrates the function of the
nominal scale?
a. A horse categorized as a second place winner in a show.
b. A DSM or ICD diagnostic category.
c. An IQ score of 111.
d. The weight of an Olympic barbell set.
(b)
74. The ordinal scale rank-orders variables, though the relative distance between the elements
is not always equal. An example of this would be
a. a horse categorized as a second place winner in a race.
b. an IQ score of 111.
c. the weight of an Olympic barbell set.
d. a temperature of 78 degrees Fahrenheit.
(a)
75. The interval scale has numbers scaled at equal distances but has no absolute zero point.
Most tests used in school fall into this category. You can add and subtract using interval scales
but can not multiply or divide. An example of this would be
a. that an IQ of 70 is 70 points below an IQ of 140, yet a counselor could not assert that a client
with an IQ of 140 is twice as intelligent as a client with an IQ of 70.
b. that a 20 lb weight is half as heavy as a 40 lb weight.
c. that a first-place runner is three times as fast as the third place finisher.
d. that a baseball player with number 9 on his uniform can get 9 times more hits than player
number 1.
(a)
76. A ratio scale is an interval scale with a true zero point. Ratio
measurements are possible using this scale. Addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division all
can be utilized on a ratio scale. In terms of counseling research
a. the ratio scale is the most practical.
b. all true studies utilize the ratio scale.
c. a and b.
d. most psychological attributes cannot be measured on a ratio scale.
(d)
77. Researchers often utilize naturalistic observation when doing

ethological investigations or studying children’s behavior. In this approach
a. the researcher manipulates the IV.
b. the researcher manipulates the IV and the DV.
c. the researcher does not manipulate or control variables.
d. the researcher will rely on a 2×3 factorial design
(c)
78. The simplest form of descriptive research is the _______, which

requires a questionnaire return rate of _______ to be accurate.
a. survey; 5%.
b. survey; 10%–25%.
c. survey; 50–75%.
d. survey; 95%.
(c)
79. A researcher gives a depressed patient a sugar pill and the indi
vidual’s depression begins to lift. This is known as
a. the Hawthorne effect.
b. the Halo effect.
c. the placebo effect.
d. the learned helplessness syndrome.
(c)
80. A researcher notes that a group of clients who are not receiving
counseling, but are observed in a research study, are improving.
Her hypothesis is that the attention she has given them has been
curative. The best explanation of their improvement would be
b. the Halo Effect.
c. the Rosenthal effect.
d. a Type II error in the research.
(a)
81. An elementary school counselor tells the third-grade teacher that a test revealed that certain
children will excel during the school year. In reality, no such test was administered. Moreover,
the children were unaware of the experiment. By the end of the year, all of the children who
were supposed to excel did excel! This would best be explained via
b. the Halo effect.
c. the Rosenthal effect or the experimenter expectancy ef
fect.
d. observer bias.
(c)
82. A panel of investigators discovered that a researcher who completed a major study had
unconsciously rated attractive females as better counselors. This is an example of
b. the Halo effect.
c. the Rosenthal effect.
d. trend analysis.
(b)
83. All of the following describe the analysis of covariance technique

except
a. it is a correlation coeffi cient.
b. it controls for sample differences which exist.
c. it helps to remove confounding, extraneous variables.
d. it statistically eliminates differences in average values influenced by covariates.
(a)
84. Three years ago an inpatient chemical dependency center in a hospital asked their clients if
they would like to undergo an archaic form of therapy created by Wilhem Reich known as
“vegotherapy.” Approximately half of the clients stated they would like try the treatment while the
other 50% stated that they would stick with the tried-and-true program of the center. Outcome
data on their drinking was compiled at the end of seven weeks.
Today—three years later—a statistician compared the two
groups based on their drinking behavior at the end of the seven
weeks using a t test. This study could best be described as
a. correlation research.
b. a true experiment.
c. a cohort study.
d. causal comparative research.
(d)
85. The WAIS-III IQ test is given to 100 adults picked randomly.

How many of the adults most likely would receive an IQ score
between 85 and 115?
a. 7 people.
b. 99 people.
c. 95 people.
d. 68 people.
(d)
86. A researcher creates a new motoric test in which clients throw a

baseball at a target 40 feet away. Each client is given 100 throws,
and the mean on the test is 50. (In other words, out of 100
throws the mean number of times the client will hit the target is
50 times.) Sam took the test and hit the target just two times out
of the 100 throws allowed. Jeff, on the other hand, hit the target
an amazing 92 out of 100 trials. Using the concept of statistical
regression toward the mean the research would predict that
a. Sam and Jeff’s scores will stay about the same if they take
the test again.
b. Sam and Jeff will both score over 95 next time.
c. Sam’s score will increase while Jeff’s will go down.
d. Sam will beat Jeff if they both are tested again.
(c)
87. Standardized tests always have

a. formal procedures for test administration and scoring.
b. a mean of 100 and an SD of 15.
c. a mean of 100 and a standard error of measurement of 3.
d. a reliability coeffi cient of +.90 or above.
(a)
88. There are two distinct types of developmental studies. In a cross-sectional study, clients are
assessed at one point in time. In
a longitudinal study, however,
a. the researcher has an accomplice pose as a client.
b. the same people are studied over a period of time.
c. the researcher relies on a single observation of a variable
being investigated.
(b)
89. A counselor educator, Dr. Y, is doing research on his classes. He

hypothesizes that if he reinforces students in his morning class
by smiling each time a student asks a relevant question, then
more students will ask questions and exam grades will go up.
Betty and Linda accidentally overhear Dr. Y discussing the ex
periment with the department chairman. Betty is a real people
pleaser and decides that she will ask lots of questions and try to
help Dr. Y confi rm his hypothesis. Linda, nevertheless, is angry
that she is being experimented on and promises Betty that Dr.
Y could smile until the cows came in but she still wouldn’t ask a
question. Both Linda and Betty exemplify
a. internal versus external validity.
b. ipsative versus normative interpretation of test scores.
c. the use of the nonparametric chi-square test.
d. demand characteristics of experiments.
(d)
90. If an ANOVA yields a signifi cant F value, you could rely on ____
___ to test signifi cant differences between group means.
a. one- and two-tailed t tests.
b. percentile rank.
c. Duncan’s multiple-range, Tukey’s, or Scheffe’s test.
d. summative or formative evaluation.
(c)
91. Switching the order in which stimuli are presented to a subject

in a study is known as
a. the Pygmalion effect.
b. counterbalancing.
c. ahistoric therapy.
d. multiple treatment interference.
(b)
92. A doctoral student who begins working on his bibliography for

his thesis would most likely utilize
a. SPSS.
b. ERIC, for primary and secondary resources.
c. O*NET.
d. a random number table or random number generation
(b)
93. In a random sample each individual in the population has an

equal chance of being selected. Selection is by chance. In a
new study, however, it will be important to include 20% Afri
can Americans. What type of sampling procedure will be neces
sary?
a. Standard (i.e., simple) random sampling is adequate.
b. Cluster sampling is called for.
c. Stratifi ed sampling would be best.
d. Horizontal sampling is required.
(c)
94. A researcher wants to run a true experiment but insists she will
not use a random sample. You could safely say that
a. she absolutely, positively cannot run a true experiment.
b. her research will absolutely, positively be casual compara
tive research.
c. she could accomplish this using systematic sampling.
d. her research will be correlational.
(c)
95. An operational defi nition

a. outlines a procedure.
b. is theoretical.
c. outlines a construct.
d. is synonymous with the word axiom.
(a)
96. In a parametric test the assumption is that the scores are nor
mally distributed. In nonparametric testing the curve is not a
normal distribution. Which of these tests are nonparametric sta
tistical measures?
a. Mann-Whitney U-test, often just called the U-test.
b. Wilcoxon signed-rank test for matched pairs.
c. Soloman and the Kruskal-Wallis H-test.
d. All of the above are nonparametric measures.
(d)
97. A researcher studies a single session of counseling in which a

counselor treats a client’s phobia using a paradoxical strategy. He
then writes in his research report that paradox is the treatment
of choice for phobics. This is an example of
a. deductive logic or reasoning.
b. inductive logic or reasoning.
c. attrition or so-called experimental mortality.
d. construct validity.
(b)
98. A client goes to a string of 14 chemical dependency centers that

operate on the 12-step model. When his current therapist sug
gests a new inpatient program the client responds with, “What
for, I already know the 12 steps?” This client is using
a. deductive logic.
b. inductive logic.
c. an empathic assertion.
d. an I statement.
(a)
99. Mike takes a math achievement test. In order to predict his score
if he takes the test again the counselor must know
a. the range of scores in his class.
b. the standard deviation.
c. the standard error of measurement (SEM).
d. the mode for the test.
The standard error is all you need to know. The SEM tells the
counselor what would most likely occur if the same indi
vidual took the same test again. The question does not ask
how well he did on the test, nor does it ask you to compare him
to others.
(c)
100. A researcher performs a study that has excellent external or so

called population validity, meaning that the results have gener
alizability. To collect his data the researcher gave clients a rating
scale in which they were to respond with strongly agree, some
what agree, neutral, somewhat disagree, or strongly disagree.
This is
a. a projective measure.
b. unacceptable for use in standardized testing.
c. a speed test.
d. a Likert scale.
(d)

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BOOK REVIEW: PSYCHOLOGICAL TESTING

*ONLY FOR MAGC Students of La Consolacion College - Bacolod*

-START OF EXAM SET 1-

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2. Structured personality tests

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3 What would be the best IQ test for a 12-year old student?

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4 Projective personality tests

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8 The validity of a psychological test refers to its

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10 The origins of testing can be traced to be

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12 Which test represented a major breakthrough in the measurement of cognitive ability

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13 The specific stimulus of a test to which a person responds overtly is called a

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14 The first intelligence tests were developed for the purpose of

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19 Which of the following is an example of trait?

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20 Who is associated with the development of the TAT?

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22 Which of the following are both projective test?

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23 Which of the following tests is purported to measure human needs?

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24 Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire?

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25 Test administration refers to

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27 When discussing the results of psychological tests, Labels

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29 Studies have demonstrated that

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30 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of computer-assisted test administration?

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31 In regard to the computerization of psychological testing, it was predicted that

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33 Computers in psychological testing will

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34 The standard against which a test or a test score is evaluated

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35 A score distribution that is described as NORMAL curve has no skewness.

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ONLY FOR MAGC Students of La Consolacion College - Bacolod