Psychology: Developmental Psychology 2A

Psy2AA2
2023
Paper A with Memo

INSTRUCTIONS:

All questions are multiple choice questions.

Please choose a or b or c or d or e as your answer for each of your answers.
Each question is worth 1 mark.

1) Which of the following statements best illustrates the importance of a

biopsychosocial approach to understanding developmental psychology?
a) The biopsychosocial model focuses solely on genetic factors influencing
development.
b) Developmental psychology can only be understood through a purely
biological lens.
c) The biopsychosocial model emphasizes the complex interplay of
biological, psychological, and social factors in human development.
d) Developmental psychology is unrelated to the biopsychosocial model.
e) It focuses solely on the biological changes during adolescence.

2) Why is it important to consider the biopsychosocial model when assessing

developmental milestones?
a) It helps identify genetic abnormalities.
b) It offers a holistic understanding of the influences on development.
c) It simplifies the assessment process.
d) It focuses solely on environmental factors.
e) It helps to ensure that one’s physical well-being is accounted for.

3) Which aspect of the biopsychosocial model is most relevant when

examining the impact of different forces on child development?
a) Biological forces
b) Psychological forces
c) Social forces
d) Neurophysiological
e) All of the above

4) Why might a purely biological approach to developmental psychology be

limiting compared to a biopsychosocial approach?
a) A biological approach does not consider the importance of genetics.
b) A biological approach ignores psychological and social factors.
c) A biological approach is too complex.
d) A biological approach is always more accurate.
e) A biological approach takes genetics into account

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Psychology: Developmental Psychology 2A
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2023
Paper A with Memo

5) How does the biopsychosocial model contribute to understanding the

influence of peer relationships on adolescent development?
a) It focuses solely on the biological changes during adolescence.
b) It only considers the psychological impact of peer relationships.
c) It incorporates the complex interactions between biological,
psychological, and social factors.
d) It disregards the role of the environment in adolescent development.
e) It helps with building intimacy in relationships

6) Which factor is NOT considered in a biopsychosocial approach to

understanding developmental psychology?
a) Genetic predispositions
b) Cultural influences
c) Cognitive development
d) Sociocultural factors
e) Astrological signs

7) Why is a biopsychosocial approach useful in designing interventions for

developmental issues?
a) It ensures that interventions target only biological factors.
b) It allows for more targeted and specific interventions.
c) It allows practitioners to consider multiple factors that contribute to a
child's development.
d) It simplifies the decision-making process.
e) It takes into account the politics of the country.

8) In what way does the biopsychosocial model help to understand the impact
of socioeconomic status on child development?
a) It highlights the importance of genetics in determining socioeconomic status.
b) It focuses solely on the psychological consequences of low socioeconomic
status.
c) It examines the interrelated roles of biology, psychology, and social
context in shaping development within different socioeconomic
environments.
d) It argues that socioeconomic status is irrelevant to child development.
e) It tracks the developmental milestones of the child.

9) Which of the following is an example of a social factor that impacts human

development within the biopsychosocial framework?
a) Genetics
b) Exposure to toxins
c) Sibling ranking
d) Nutrition
e) Socioeconomic status

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Psychology: Developmental Psychology 2A
Psy2AA2
2023
Paper A with Memo

10) Which of the following best describes common challenges that individuals
face during adolescence and their impact on human development within the
biopsychosocial framework?
a) They have no impact on development
b) They only impact the physical development, not psychological development
c) They can have both positive and negative impacts on development
d) They only impact psychological development, not physical development
e) They have an impact on juvenile delinquency.

11) Sipho is a 7-year-old South African boy who was recently diagnosed with
Foetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS). His mother, who lives in a rural area of the
Western Cape, consumed alcohol during pregnancy. Sipho struggles with
learning disabilities, behavioural issues, and physical growth deficits. His
family faces economic challenges, and they live in a community where
substance abuse and inadequate access to healthcare are prevalent. Which
interactive developmental force(s) contributed to Sipho's Foetal Alcohol
Syndrome diagnosis?
a) Biological factors only.
b) Psychological factors only.
c) Socioeconomic factors only.
d) Political Factors
e) Both biological and socioeconomic factors

12) Based on Sipho's case, what socioeconomic factor(s) may have influenced
his mother's decision to consume alcohol during pregnancy?
a) Limited access to healthcare and prenatal education.
b) Social pressure from her community.
c) The cost of alcohol in her community.
d) Both limited access to healthcare and prenatal education and social
pressure from her community
e) Her level of education.

13) In the South African context, which intervention would most effectively
address the biopsychosocial factors contributing to Foetal Alcohol
Syndrome?
a) Implementing awareness campaigns about the risks of alcohol consumption
during pregnancy.
b) Providing access to prenatal care and education in rural areas.
c) Addressing the root causes of substance abuse in vulnerable communities.
d) Psychoeducation about the dangers
e) All of the above

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Paper A with Memo

14) How could an understanding of the four interactive forces that influence
human development across the lifespan help in preventing cases like
Sipho's?
a) By focusing solely on the biological factors that contribute to FAS.
b) By recognizing the interconnectedness of the forces and implementing
comprehensive interventions.
c) By prioritising psychological factors over other forces.
d) By only addressing socioeconomic factors to prevent FAS.
e) By focusing on genetic counselling.

15) Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies the interaction of nature
and nurture in human development?
a) Child inherits a genetic predisposition for musical talent and grows up in a
home with no exposure to music)
b) A child with no genetic predisposition for musical talent grows up in a home
with ample exposure to music and musical instruments.
c) A child with a genetic predisposition for musical talent grows up in a
home with ample exposure to music and musical instruments.
d) A child with no genetic predisposition for musical talent grows up in a home
with no exposure to music)
e) None of the above.

16) In the context of the nature versus nurture debate, how might a
developmental psychologist design a study to investigate the influence of
both genetic and environmental factors on intelligence?
a) By comparing the intelligence scores of identical twins raised in
different environments
b) By examining the intelligence scores of unrelated individuals raised in the
same environment.
c) By studying the intelligence scores of individuals with the same genetic
predisposition for high intelligence.
d) By comparing the intelligence scores of fraternal twins raised in the same
environment.
e) All of the above

17) Which of the following factors has the greatest influence on prenatal
development during the first 1000 days?
a) Genetic factors
b) Environmental factors
c) Nutrition
d) Maternal stress
e) All of the above equally influence prenatal development

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18) How does maternal stress during pregnancy affect the prenatal development
of the child?
a) It has no effect on prenatal development
b) It can lead to premature birth and low birth weight
c) It promotes healthy brain development
d) It reduces the risk of childhood illnesses
e) it has no impact.

19) Which prenatal diagnostic tool is the most effective for identifying potential
developmental issues?
a) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
b) Amniocentesis
c) Ultrasound
d) Maternal blood tests
e) Agpar score

20) Teratogens are harmful agents or substances that can cause malformations
or abnormalities in an embryo or fetus. Which of the following is an example
of a teratogen?
a) Folic acid
b) Alcohol
c) Vitamin D
d) Omega-3 fatty acids
e) Sunshine

21) Which of the following is NOT a possible consequence of maternal

substance abuse on prenatal development?
a) Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
b) Low birth weight
c) Neural tube defects
d) Accelerated cognitive development
e) Jaundice

22) The critical period in prenatal development refers to a time when:

a) The fetus is most vulnerable to teratogens
b) The mother is most likely to experience pregnancy complications
c) The fetus's organs and systems are rapidly developing
d) The fetus starts to display signs of cognitive development
e) All of the above

23) Which of the following maternal factors is associated with an increased risk
of delivering a low birth weight baby?
a) Advanced maternal age
b) High-stress levels during pregnancy
c) Regular exercise during pregnancy
d) Adequate prenatal care
e) none of the above

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24) In the case study of Baby J, prenatal exposure to which substance led to
developmental delays and cognitive impairments?
a) Alcohol
b) Tobacco
c) Lead
d) Mercury
e) Marijuana

25) Which of the following prenatal interventions is LEAST likely to improve

pregnancy outcomes and reduce the risk of developmental issues?
a) Increasing maternal intake of folic acid
b) Reducing maternal stress levels
c) Encouraging the mother to quit smoking
d) Encouraging the mother to consume more caffeine
e) All of the above

26) Which of the following is NOT an essential nutrient for proper prenatal
development?
a) Vitamin D
b) Iron
c) Folic acid
d) Sugar
e) Omega 3

27) Which of the following teratogens is associated with the greatest risk of
causing severe birth defects if exposed during the first trimester of
pregnancy?
a) Alcohol
b) Tobacco smoke
c) Lead
d) Rubella virus
e) All of the above

28) How do the effects of teratogens on prenatal development differ between

various teratogens?
a) All teratogens have the same effects on prenatal development
b) The effects of teratogens depend on the timing, duration, and intensity
of exposure
c) Teratogens only affect prenatal development in the first trimester
d) Teratogens primarily affect cognitive development, regardless of the specific
teratogen
e) They do not differ.

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29) In the Heinz dilemma, Heinz's wife is dying and needs a drug that is too
expensive for him to afford) Heinz decides to steal the drug to save his wife.
According to Kohlberg, what stage of moral development would Heinz be in
if he steals the drug because he is afraid of being punished for not saving
his wife?
a) Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation
b) Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange
c) Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships
d) Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
e) Stage 6: Law and order

30) Which of the following best describes the difference between Kohlberg's
and Piaget's theories of moral development?
a) Kohlberg focused on cognitive development, while Piaget focused on moral
development
b) Kohlberg expanded on Piaget's stages of moral development
c) Piaget focused on cognitive development, while Kohlberg focused on moral
development
d) Piaget expanded on Kohlberg's stages of moral development
e) There is no difference between the two theories.

31) Which of the following is a primary focus of the pre-conventional level of

moral reasoning in Kohlberg's theory?
a) Individual rights and social contracts
b) Conforming to societal expectations
c) Personal gain and avoiding punishment
d) Developing universal ethical principles
e) Crime and punishment

32) Which stage of Kohlberg's theory is most closely associated with the idea of
a "social contract"?
a) Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange
b) Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships
c) Stage 4: Maintaining Social Order
d) Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights
e) Stage 1: Law and order

33) Which of the following best describes the conventional level of moral
reasoning in Kohlberg's theory?
a) The individual is motivated by a desire to conform to social
expectations
b) Moral reasoning is based on personal gain and avoiding punishment
c) The individual adheres to universal ethical principles
d) Moral reasoning is influenced by close interpersonal relationships
e) Rules are not meant to be followed.

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34) In the context of Kohlberg's theory, how can moral development be

promoted in adolescents?
a) Encourage rote memorization of moral principles
b) Use real-life dilemmas to foster moral discussion and reflection
c) Discourage adolescents from questioning authority
d) Focus on external rewards and punishments
e) Sending them to juvenile detention centres.

35) According to Kohlberg, what is the primary motivation for moral behaviour
in Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange?
a) A desire to maintain social order
b) Pursuit of personal interests and fair exchange
c) A sense of duty to uphold the law
d) Adherence to universal ethical principles
e) Law and order

36) Which of the following is a criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development?

a) It does not account for cultural differences in moral reasoning
b) It overemphasizes the role of interpersonal relationships
c) It underestimates the importance of cognitive development
d) It suggests that moral development is entirely determined by genetics
e) It does not apply to persons living with disabilities

37) In Kohlberg's theory, what is the primary reason that individuals at Stage 3:
Good Interpersonal Relationships make moral decisions?
a) To avoid punishment
b) To maintain social order
c) To gain approval and maintain good relationships
d) To uphold universal ethical principles
e) None of the above.

38) Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies moral reasoning at Stage
4: Maintaining Social Order?
a) A student refuses to cheat on a test because they fear the consequences of
getting caught
b) A citizen pays taxes to support public services and uphold the law
c) A person protests a law they believe to be unjust, even if it leads to legal c
consequences.
d) A parent disciplines their child to teach them about fairness and taking turns
e) Paying one’s Netflix subscription on time.

39) Which of the following scenarios best represents the concept of adolescent
egocentrism?
a) A teenager who believes they are the centre of attention at all times
b) A teenager who thinks they are immune to negative consequences
c) A teenager who feels that their thoughts and emotions are unique to
them
d) A teenager who imagines themselves as a hero in a dangerous situation
e) None of the above.
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40) Sarah, a 16-year-old, believes that her emotions after a breakup are so
unique and intense that no one else could possibly understand how she
feels. How does the imaginary audience phenomenon manifest in an
adolescent's behaviour?
a) The adolescent believes they are immune to negative consequences
b) The adolescent feels as if everyone is always paying attention to their
actions and appearance
c) The adolescent thinks they are the only one who experiences certain
emotions or thought
d) The adolescent creates a fictional narrative in which they are the protagonist
e) all of the above

41) John, a 14-year-old, is overly concerned about his appearance and spends
an excessive amount of time getting ready for school because he feels like
everyone is always scrutinizing him. In the context of adolescent thinking,
what does the term "personal fable" refer to?
a) A belief that one's thoughts and emotions are unique and cannot be
understood by others
b) A sense of invincibility and immunity to negative consequences
c) A belief that one is the centre of attention in all situations
d) A narrative in which the adolescent sees themselves as the main
character in a story with an extraordinary destiny
e) A belief that he has superpowers.

42) Which of the following behaviours can be attributed to the illusion of

invulnerability in adolescents?
a) Engaging in risky behaviours, believing they are immune to negative
consequences
b) Believing that their thoughts and emotions are unique and cannot be
understood by others
c) Feeling as if everyone is always paying attention to their actions and
appearance
d) Creating a fictional narrative in which they are the protagonist
e) none of the above.

43) How does adolescent egocentrism differ from the imaginary audience
phenomenon?
a) Adolescent egocentrism refers to the belief in one's uniqueness, while
the imaginary audience involves feeling scrutinized by others
b) Adolescent egocentrism involves a sense of invincibility, while the imaginary
audience relates to feeling like the centre of attention
c) Adolescent egocentrism focuses on one's appearance, while the imaginary
audience is about feeling unique and special
d) Adolescent egocentrism relates to feeling like the protagonist in a story, while
the imaginary audience involves a sense of invincibility
e) It does not differ.

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44) Which of the following interventions can be helpful in addressing an

adolescent's illusion of invulnerability?
a) Encouraging introspection and self-reflection
b) Enhancing their sense of empathy and understanding of others' emotions
c) Daily affirmations in front of the mirror
d) Promoting self-esteem and positive self-image
e) Providing accurate information about risks and consequences of
actions

45) A school counsellor discusses the risks of drug use with Jack, a 15-year-old
who believes he is immune to addiction, to help him understand the
potential consequences of his actions.
How can understanding the personal fable in adolescents assist educators
in supporting their student's development?
a) By providing opportunities for students to express their unique
identities and explore their interests
b) By offering guidance on how to navigate social situations and manage peer pressure
c) By helping students develop metacognitive skills and strategies for self-regulation
d) By promoting a realistic understanding of risks and consequences
e) There is no personal fable in this scenario.

46) Which of the following is the most effective strategy for addressing the
imaginary audience phenomenon in adolescents?
a) Encouraging them to develop a realistic self-concept
b) Teaching them to be more empathetic and understanding of others' emotions
c) Helping them build metacognitive skills and strategies for self-regulation
d) Providing accurate information about risks and consequences of actions
e) None of the above.

47) Which of the following best describes a possible consequence of the

imaginary audience phenomenon on an adolescent's self-esteem?
a) An increase in self-esteem due to the belief that they are unique and special
b) A decrease in self-esteem due to the belief that they are constantly
being judged by others
c) An increase in self-esteem due to the belief that they are immune to negative
consequences
d) A decrease in self-esteem due to the belief that they are the protagonist of a
grand story.
e) Self-esteem being influenced by what parents think.

48) In Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, what are the potential drawbacks of
a society that is predominantly at the pre-conventional stage of moral
development?
a) Increased crime rates
b) Limited economic growth
c) Disregard for the rights and autonomy of others
d) Weakening of social norms and values
e) a, c & d

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49) In the context of cognitive development in middle adulthood, which of the

following best exemplifies the application of practical intelligence?
a) Solving a calculus problem
b) Memorizing historical dates
c) Navigating a complex social situation at work
d) Learning a new language
e) Using self-help books to get answers to complex situations.

50) Analyze the role of practical intelligence in middle adulthood by comparing

it to the importance of fluid and crystallized intelligence. Which statement
best illustrates this comparison?
a) Fluid intelligence is more important than practical intelligence in middle
adulthood)
b) Crystallized intelligence is less important than practical intelligence in middle
adulthood)
c) Practical intelligence is more prominent in middle adulthood as it helps
individuals navigate complex real-life situations.
d) Fluid and crystallized intelligence are equally important in middle adulthood,
and practical intelligence plays a minimal role.
e) Fluid intelligence depends on the amount of water that an adult drinks.

51) During middle adulthood, individuals often experience an increase in

practical intelligence. How does this influence their problem-solving abilities
compared to younger adults?
a) Middle-aged adults rely more on logical reasoning.
b) Middle-aged adults rely more on their ability to adapt to new situations.
c) There is no difference between problem-solving skills.
d) Middle-aged adults are more likely to learn new information quickly.
e) Middle-aged adults are more likely to use past experiences to inform
their decisions.

52) In the context of Erikson's theory, which of the following best describes the
primary focus of middle adulthood?
a) Establishing a sense of identity
b) Developing intimate relationships
c) Cultivating generativity and contributing to future generations
d) Accepting the limitations of one's life
e) Spending money on expensive luxury cars.

53) Which of the following actions best exemplifies generativity in Erikson's

theory of psychosocial development?
a) Mentoring younger colleagues at work
b) Pursuing personal interests and hobbies
c) Focusing on individual career advancement
d) Seeking new romantic relationships
e) taking an extended overseas holiday.

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54) Analyze the role of generativity in fostering a sense of fulfilment during

middle adulthood) Which of the following statements best captures this
relationship?
a) Generativity is important for personal fulfilment, but it is not the primary
concern during middle adulthood)
b) Generativity contributes to personal fulfilment by allowing individuals
to feel a sense of purpose in their lives.
c) Generativity is unrelated to personal fulfilment and plays a minimal role in
middle adulthood)
d) Personal fulfilment is achieved through focusing on individual goals, with
generativity playing a secondary role.
e) Generativity helps with creative ideas to making one’s life more comfortable.

55) Which of the Big Five personality traits is most closely related to an
individual's ability to develop generativity during middle adulthood,
according to Erikson's theory?
a) Openness to experience
b) Conscientiousness
c) Extraversion
d) Agreeableness
e) Neuroticism

56) In the context of Erikson's theory, how might an individual with high
neuroticism struggle with generativity vs. stagnation during middle
adulthood?
a) They may be less likely to engage in activities that contribute to others'
well-being.
b) They may be more focused on personal achievements and career
advancement.
c) They may experience difficulty maintaining stable relationships.
d) They may have a harder time adapting to new environments and situations.
e) They are too happy to be generative.

57) Based on the Big Five personality traits and Erikson's theory, which trait
might be particularly beneficial for individuals who wish to overcome
stagnation and develop generativity in middle adulthood?
a) Openness to experience
b) Neuroticism
c) Extraversion
d) Agreeableness
e) Conscientiousness

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58) How can an individual's level of extraversion influence their approach to

generativity vs. stagnation during middle adulthood?
a) Extraverted individuals may focus more on personal relationships than on
contributing to future generations.
b) Extraverted individuals may be more inclined to engage in activities
that promote generativity, such as volunteering or mentoring.
c) Extraverted individuals may be more likely to experience stagnation due to a
focus on social interactions.
d) Extraversion has no significant influence on an individual's approach to
generativity vs. stagnation.
e) It does not have any influence.

59) Which of the following is a characteristic of working memory in older

adults?
a) Increased capacity
b) Improved speed of processing
c) Decreased ability to update information
d) Better ability to switch attention between tasks
e) Increased energy levels

60) Which type of memory is most affected by Parkinson's disease?

a) Semantic memory
b) Procedural memory
c) Episodic memory
d) Working memory
e) Short-term memory

61) In the context of working memory, which of the following is an example of a

memory disturbance in older adults?
a) Difficulty in recognizing familiar faces
b) Difficulty in remembering directions to a new place
c) Difficulty in recalling historical events
d) Difficulty in recalling mathematical equations
e) Difficulty in remembering the name of the president’s name.

62) What is the relationship between working memory and long-term memory in
older adults?
a) Improved working memory is positively correlated with improved long-term
memory
b) Working memory and long-term memory are not related in older adults
c) Decline in working memory is positively correlated with a decline in
long-term memory
d) There is no relationship between working memory and long-term memory in
older adults.
e) Long-term memory assists with the emotional regulation of long-term
memory.

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63) Which of the following is an example of a strategy to improve working

memory in older adults?
a) Encouraging multitasking
b) Minimizing distractions
c) Using the same memory cues for multiple tasks
d) Avoiding repetition of information
e) None of the above.

64) Which of the following is a type of dementia characterized by a gradual

decline in cognitive function and memory impairment?
a) Major depressive disorder
b) Parkinson's disease
c) Huntington's disease
d) Multiple sclerosis
e) Alzheimer's disease

65) In the context of memory disturbances in older adults, which of the

following is an example of retrograde amnesia?
a) Forgetting how to perform a skilled motor task
b) Forgetting recent events and conversations
c) Inability to form new memories
d) Forgetting events from the distant past
e) Forgetting one’s name and physical address

66) Which of the following is a characteristic of working memory in individuals

with dementia?
a) Improved ability to update information
b) Increased capacity
c) Better ability to switch attention between tasks
d) Decreased ability to hold and manipulate information
e) Difficulty in motor activity.

67) Which of the following is a characteristic of memory disturbances in

individuals with Parkinson's disease?
a) Difficulty in recognizing faces
b) Difficulty in recalling recent events
c) Difficulty in recalling events from the distant past
d) Difficulty in learning new information
e) Difficulty in completing mathematical equations

68) Which of the following is the primary psychosocial conflict in the stage of
Integrity vs. Despair?
a) Trust vs. Mistrust
b) Industry vs. Inferiority
c) Generativity vs. Stagnation
d) Intimacy vs. Isolation
e) Integrity vs. Despair

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69) Lucy, an 80-year-old woman, frequently reflects on her life, talking about her
achievements and feeling content. According to Erikson's theory, what
stage is Lucy in?
a) Trust vs. Mistrust
b) Industry vs. Inferiority
c) Generativity vs. Stagnation
d) Integrity vs. Despair
e) Autonomy vs Shame and Guilt

70) Which factor has a significant impact on an individual's ability to develop

integrity in late adulthood?
a) Achieving a sense of purpose
b) Developing close relationships
c) Overcoming challenges
d) A feeling of wholeness and coherence
e) All of the above

71) John, a 75-year-old man, often expresses regret over missed opportunities
and feels that he has not accomplished much in life. According to Erikson's
theory, which side of the conflict is John experiencing?
a) Integrity
b) Despair
c) Generativity
d) Stagnation
e) Isolation

72) What is the primary goal of the Integrity vs. Despair stage?
a) To develop a sense of self
b) To establish strong relationships
c) To accept one's life as lived
d) To find a balance between work and play
e) To develop a trusting relationship with one’s primary caregivers.

73) Which developmental task is associated with the stage of Integrity vs.
Despair?
a) Developing a sense of autonomy
b) Developing a sense of competence
c) Developing a sense of identity
d) Developing a sense of wisdom
e) Developing a good sense of humour.

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74) Mary, 68, volunteers at a local community center and takes pride in her
ability to pass on her knowledge and experience to others. How does this
behavior align with Erikson's stage of Integrity vs. Despair?
a) It demonstrates Mary's successful resolution of the conflict, leaning
towards integrity.
b) It demonstrates Mary's struggle with despair.
c) It demonstrates Mary's generativity, which is not part of Integrity vs. Despair.
d) It demonstrates Mary's inability to resolve the conflict.
e) It demonstrates Mary’s high energy levels

75) What can be the consequence of an unsuccessful resolution of the Integrity

vs. Despair conflict?
a) A sense of isolation
b) A sense of role confusion
c) A sense of stagnation
d) A sense of hopelessness and despair
e) A sense of good fortune.

76) Sam, 72, feels a sense of satisfaction when he thinks about his life, but he
also feels guilty for not spending more time with his children when they
were young. How can Erikson's stage of Integrity vs. Despair help explain
Sam's feelings?
a) Sam has resolved the conflict, leaning towards integrity, but still
experiences some guilt from previous stages.
b) Sam is experiencing despair due to his unresolved guilt.
c) Sam has not yet resolved the conflict of Integrity vs. Despair and is
experiencing both sides.
d) Sam's feelings are unrelated to the stage of Integrity vs. Despair.
e) Sam’s son was not successful because Sam did not spend sufficient time
with him.

77) How does poverty influence adolescent development within a

biopsychosocial framework?
a) It has no impact on adolescent development
b) It increases the risk of mental health problems
c) It decreases the risk of substance abuse.
d) It enhances cognitive development.
e) It does not influence it.

78) What is the impact of substance abuse on adolescent development within a

biopsychosocial framework?
a) It has no impact on adolescent development
b) It enhances emotional regulation
c) It increases the risk of academic success
d) It impairs cognitive functioning.
e) It impairs social standing of the parents of the adolescent.

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79) What is the role of biological factors in adolescent development within a

biopsychosocial framework?
a) They are the only factors that impact adolescent development
b) They interact with environmental factors to influence adolescent
development
c) They have no impact on adolescent development
d) They are more important than psychological or social factors
e) Biological factors have no role.

80) Nokwanda lives in a township in South Africa with her family. Her parents
are both unemployed, and the family struggles to make ends meet.
Nokwanda has started using drugs and alcohol to cope with the stress of
her home life. What is the likely impact of poverty and substance abuse on
Nokwanda's biopsychosocial development?
a) It will enhance her development
b) It will have no impact on her development
c) It will impair her development and increase her risk of mental health
problems
d) It will enhance her cognitive development and academic success.
e) It will make her more prone to bullying by peers.

81) In the context of the South African adolescent population, which factor is
most associated with increased risk for substance abuse?
a) High socioeconomic status
b) Strong family support
c) Exposure to violence
d) Access to quality education
e) Access to sanitation and nutritious food.

82) How does exposure to community violence in South Africa affect

adolescents' psychological development?
a) It leads to increased resilience
b) It fosters a stronger sense of community
c) It results in an increased risk for anxiety and depression
d) It has no significant impact
e) It leads to social cohesion

83) Which of the following best explains the role of substance abuse in the
biopsychosocial framework of adolescent development in South Africa?
a) It affects only biological factors
b) It primarily influences social factors
c) It impacts neurophysiological functions
d) It is unrelated to adolescent development.
e) It contributes to the interaction of biological, psychological, and social
factors

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Psychology: Developmental Psychology 2A
Psy2AA2
2023
Paper A with Memo

84) In a South African context, how might poverty affect the biological aspect of
adolescent development?
a) Limited access to nutritious food
b) Lack of access to quality education
c) Reduced social interactions
d) Insufficient access to healthcare
e) It has no impact.

85) According to the biopsychosocial framework, how does living in a high-

crime area in South Africa affect adolescent development?
a) It promotes cognitive development
b) It has no impact on adolescent development
c) It can lead to chronic stress, affecting all aspects of development
d) It only affects the social aspect of development
e) None of the above

86) Which of the following best describes the influence of poverty on the
psychological development of adolescents in South Africa?
a) It leads to increased self-esteem
b) It has no impact on psychological development
c) It may contribute to feelings of hopelessness and low self-worth
d) It promotes emotional resilience
e) It depletes the energy levels of adolescents.

87) How does the biopsychosocial framework explain the role of substance
abuse in adolescents' social development in South Africa?
a) It leads to improved interpersonal skills
b) It has no impact on social development
c) It may hinder the development of healthy relationships
d) It promotes social cohesion
e) None of the above

88) Which of the following is a protective factor against the negative effects of
poverty on adolescent development in South Africa?
a) Healthy Food
b) Exposure to violence
c) Substance abuse
d) Lack of parental support
e) High-quality education

89) In a South African context, which factor is most associated with an

increased risk for adolescent substance abuse?
a) Living in a high-crime area
b) High socioeconomic status
c) Strong family support
d) Access to quality education
e) Limited Wi-Fi Access

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Psychology: Developmental Psychology 2A
Psy2AA2
2023
Paper A with Memo

90) Which of the following best describes the role of biological factors in the
biopsychosocial framework of adolescent development in South Africa?
a) They solely determine an adolescent's developmental trajectory
b) They have no impact on adolescent development
c) They interact with psychological and social factors to influence
development
d) They only impact the physical development of adolescents
e) None of the above

91) In which stage of Erikson's theory does the identity vs. role confusion crisis
occur?
a) Stage 1
b) Stage 4
c) Stage 2
d) Stage 6
e) Stage 5

92) During adolescence, individuals are primarily focused on:

a) Trust vs. mistrust
b) Industry vs. inferiority
c) Identity vs. role confusion
d) Intimacy vs. isolation
e) Autonomy vs. shame and guilt

93) According to Erikson, which of the following is a potentially negative

outcome for individuals who do not resolve the identity vs. role confusion
crisis?
a) Inferiority
b) Mistrust
c) Stagnation
d) Guilt
e) Role confusion

94) The primary developmental task of adolescence, according to Erikson, is to:

a) Establish a sense of autonomy
b) Develop a sense of initiative
c) Form an identity
d) Build close relationships
e) Give back to those who are younger than them.

95) Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to identity

development in adolescence?
a) Parental influence
b) Peer relationships
c) Socioeconomic status
d) Food preferences
e) Sexual orientation

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Psychology: Developmental Psychology 2A
Psy2AA2
2023
Paper A with Memo

96) How does Erikson suggest that parents can best support their adolescent
children in resolving the identity vs. role confusion crisis?
a) By providing clear guidance and making decisions for them
b) By allowing them the freedom to explore their interests and experiment
with different roles
c) By setting strict boundaries and enforcing discipline
d) By maintaining a hands-off approach and letting them figure it out on their
own
e) By allowing them to negotiate extension of their curfew

97) According to Erikson, successful resolution of the identity vs. role

confusion crisis leads to the development of which virtue?
a) Hope
b) Will
c) Purpose
d) Fidelity
e) None of the above

98) How might an unresolved identity vs. role confusion crisis impact an
individual's ability to form intimate relationships later in life?
a) Difficulty trusting others
b) Difficulty establishing a sense of autonomy
c) Difficulty in giving back to the next generation
d) Difficulty taking initiative in social situations
e) Difficulty committing to and maintaining close relationships

99) What is the primary goal of an adolescent in the identity vs. role confusion
stage, according to Erikson?
a) To develop a stable sense of self
b) To gain mastery over the environment
c) To develop emotional connections with others
d) To develop autonomy from parents.
e) To develop secondary sexual characteristics

100) Which factor does NOT play a significant role in the development of an
adolescent's personal identity, according to Erikson's theory?
a) Genetics
b) Cultural context
c) Family environment
d) Social experiences
e) Political affiliation

TOTAL ………………… [100]

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