ALL INDIA NEET TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24

NEET TEST-03
TEST-ID : 103
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 09-07-2023 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Vectors, Calorimetry
Chemistry : Redox reactions, Some basic principles & techniques (IUPAC)
Biology : Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2023-24 is as follows:

• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023

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All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023

TOPIC : Vectors, Calorimetry

SECTION-A SECTION-A

Attempt All 35 Questions Attempt All 35 Questions

1. If a 5 kg body falls to the ground from a height of 1. 5 30

30 m and if all of its mechanical energy is
converted into heat. The heat produced will be
: (g = 10 )
(approx) (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 1500
(1) 1500 J
(2) 357.1
(2) 357.1 cal

(3) 254 cal (3) 254

(4) 1 and 2 both (4) 1 2

2. A liquid of mass m and specific heat c is heated to 2. m C T

a temperature T. Another liquid of mass m/2 and m/2
specific heat 2c is heated to a temperature T. If 2C T
these two liquids are mixed, the resulting
temperature of the mixture is :

FG 2 IJ T FG 8 IJ T FG 2 IJ T FG 8 IJ T
(1) H 3K (2) H 5K
(1) H 3K (2) H 5K
(3) T (4) None of these (3) T (4)

3. How much heat energy is gained when 5kg of 3. 5kg 200 C

water at 200C is brought to its boiling point

(Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg–1C–1): = 4.2kJ kg-1C-1

(1) 1680 kJ (1) 1680 kJ

(2) 1700 kJ (2) 1700kJ

(3) 1720 kJ (3) 1720 kJ

(4) 1740 kJ (4) 1740 kJ

4. A stationay object at 40C and wighing 3.5 kg falls 4. 40 C 3.5 kg

from a height of 4000m on a snow mountain at
00 C
00C If the temperature of the object just before
hitting the snow is 00C and the object comes to 00 C
rest immediately ( g = 10 m/s2) and (latent heat of
ice = 3.5 105 Joule/s) then the mass of ice that
(g = 10m/s 2 )
will melt is:
= 3.5  10 5 joule
(1) 2 kg
(1) 2 kg
(2) 200
(2) 200g
(3) 400 gm
(3) 20 g
(4) 2 g
(4) 2 g
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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
5. A block of ice at -10 0C is slowly heated and 5. –100C
converted to steam at 100 0 C. Which of the
1000C.
following curves represents the phenomenon
qualitatively: :

(1) (1)

Heat supplied Heat supplied

(2) (2)

Heat supplied Heat supplied

(3) (3)

Heat supplied Heat supplied

(4) (4)

Heat supplied Heat supplied

6. The gram specific heat of copper is 0.1 C/gm 0C 6. 0.1

what it is molar heat capacity:

(1) 0.1C/mole 0C (1) 0.1C/mole 0C

(2) 6.4C/mole 0C (2) 6.4C/mole 0C

(3) 1C/mole 0C (3) 1C/mole 0C

(4) None of the above (4)

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
7. When a substance changes from solid state to 7.
liquid state phenomenon is called: :
(1) Fusion (1)
(2) Vaporisation (2)
(3) Sublimation (3)
(4) Boiling
(4)
8. A device in which heat measurement can be made
8.
is called: :
(1) Barometer (1)
(2) Thermometer (2)

(3) Calorimeter (3)

(4) Ammeter (4)

9. Specific heat of any substance during change of 9.
state will be :
(1) (1)
(2) 0 (2) 0
(3) –1 (3) –1
(4) Any value (4)
10. A quantity of heat required to change the unit mass 10.
of a solid substance, from solid state to liquid state,
while the temperature remains constant, is known
as
(1)
(1) Latent heat
(2) Sublimation (2)

(3) Hoar frost (3)

(4) Latent heat of fusion (4)

11. A solid substance is supplied heat at a constant 11.
rate and the variation of temperature with heat
input is shown in the figure. Choose the correct
statement :

(2AB= CD)
(2AB= CD)

(1) AB and CD represent changes of phase from liquid

(1) AB CD
to vapour and from solid to liquid respectively
(2) The latent heat of vaporization is half the latent
heat of fusion (2)

(3) The latent heat of vaporization is twice the latent

(3)
heat of fusion
(4) The specific heat in the solid sate is more than (4)

that in the liquid state

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
5
12. An bread has a marked value of 10 Cal. How many 12. 105
kilowatt hour of energy will it deliver to the body
as it is digested : :

(1) 0.81 kWh (1) 0.81 kWh

(2) 0.90 kWh (2) 0.90 kWh
(3) 1.11 kWh
(3) 1.11 kWh
(4) 0.11 kWh
(4) 0.11 kWh
13. The velocity (v) of water wave may depend upon
their wavelength  the density of water  the 13. (v), 
acceleration due to gravity g. Find the relation  g
between these quantities by dimension method:
(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

14. Given that PQ ˆ = QPˆ , which of the following 14. ˆ = QPˆ

PQ
relation is not correct :
(1) P = Q (1) P = Q
(2) ˆ (2) ˆ
   
(3) (3)
   
(4) (4)
15. The cirular head of screw gauge is divided into 15. 200
200 division and move 1mm a head in one 1mm
revolution. Find the pitch and least count of screw
gauge:
(1) 1 mm, 0.0005 cm
(1) 1 mm, 0.0005 cm
(2) 1 mm, 0.005 cm
(2) 1 mm, 0.005 cm
(3) 1.1 mm, 0.007 cm
(3) 1.1 mm, 0.007 cm
(4) 1.1 mm, 0.006 cm
(4) 1.1 mm, 0.006 cm
   
16. Given that two vector A = iˆ - ˆj + kˆ and B = i j k . 16. A = ˆi - ˆj + kˆ B=i j k
   
Find the angle between two vector A and B A B

(1) Cos (1) Cos

(2) Cos
(2) Cos

(3) Cos
(3) Cos

(4) Cos
(4) Cos

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
 
17. Find the component of a = 2iˆ + 3jˆ along the 17. a = 2iˆ + 3jˆ

direction of vectors ˆi + ˆj :
5
(1)
5 2
(1)
2
3
(2)
3 2
(2)
2

(3)
(3)

(4)
(4)

18. Find the area of the formed by the triangle tips of 18.
    
the vector a = i j 3k , b = 4iˆ - 3jˆ + kˆ and a=i j 3k , b = 4iˆ - 3jˆ + kˆ c = 3i j + 2k :

c = 3i j + 2k
(1) 5.6
(1) 5.6 sq. unit
(2) 6.4
(2) 6.4 sq. unit
(3) 6.9
(3) 6.9 sq.unit
(4) 6.5
(4) 6.5 sq. unit
      
   19. A B
19. Two vector A and B are such that A + B = C and A +B = C
   
A + B = C then the vector A and B are: A +B = C A B

(1) Parallel (1)

(2) Perpendicular (2)

(3) Anti-parallel (3)
(4) Null vector (4)
20. The magnitude resultant of two unit vectors is 20.
equal to magnitude either of them then magnitude
of their difference is :
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 3
(3) 3
(4) 2
(4) 2
   
    21. A +B × A -B
21. The value of A + B × A - B is:

(1) 0 (1)

(2) A – B2 (2) A' – B2

   
(3) (3)

   
(4) (4)

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
         
22. Three Vector A,B and C satisfy the relation 22. A,B C , A.B = 0 A.C = 0
   
A.B = 0 and A.C = 0 .The Vector A is parallel to: A

(1) B 
(1) B

(2) C 
(2) C
 
(3) B.C  
(3) B.C
   
(4) (4)

a a
23. Find the dimension of in the equations 23. F = a x + bt2
b b
F = a x + bt2 where F is force, X is the distance F X t
and t is time:
(1) L1/2T2
1/2 2
(1) L T
(2) L1/2T–2
1/2 –2
(2) L T
(3) L–1/2T2
(3) L–1/2T2
(4) L–1/2T1/2
(4) L–1/2T1/2
           
24. If A = B and A B then angle between vector 24. A =B A B A +B A B
   
A + B and A B is:
(1) 0
(1) 0

(2)
(2) 6
6

(3) (3)
3 3

(4) (4)
2 2

25. Out of the following the resultant of which cannot 25. 4N

be 4 newtons:
(1) 2 N 2N
(1) 2 N and 2 N
(2) 2 N 4N
(2) 2 N and 4 N
(3) 2 N and 6 N (3) 2 N 6N

(4) 2 N and 8 N. (4) 2 N 8 N.

 
      |B|       |B| 
26. If C = A +B and A C and | C |= , then find 26. C = A +B A C | C |= A
2 2
  
angle between A and B : B

 3  3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
6 5 6 5

2 5 2 5
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 6 3 6

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
     
27. A and B are two inclined vectors. R is their sum. 27. A B R
Choose the correct figure for the given description.

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

28. The quantiti es A x and A y are called x and 

 28. A x y Ax Ay Ax
y-components of the vector A . Note that Ax is itself
not a vector, but Ax î is a vector, and so is A y ˆj A Ax î A y ˆj

Using simple trigonometry, we can express Ax and Ax Ay


Ay in terms of the magnitude of A and the angle
it makes with the X-axis Ax = A cos 
Ax = A cos  Ay = A sin .
Ay = A sin .
Choose the correct figure on the basis of given
description :

(1)
(1)

(2)
(2)

(3)
(3)

(4) None of these. (4)

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
29. A force is inclined at 60° to the horizontal. If its 29. 60°
rectangular component in the horizontal direction
50 N
is 50 N, then magnitude of the force in the vertical
direction is : (1) 25 N
(1) 25 N
(2) 75 N
(2) 75 N
(3) 87 N
(3) 87 N
(4) 100 N (4) 100 N

30. Assertion : Vector eddition is commutative 30.

Reason : Two vector may be added graphically
useing head to tail method or parallelogram
method

In above question a statement of assertion is

followed by statement of reason mark the correct
choice. (1)

(1) It both assertion and reason arc true and reason is

correct explanation of assertion.
(2)
(2) It both assertion and reason arc true and reason is
not correct explanation of assertion
(3)
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.

(4) Both assertion and reason false. (4)

31. If 20 gm of water at 300C is mixed with 40 gm of ice 31. 20 300C) 40 (00C)

at 00C temperature then amount of ice melt is :

(1) 7.5 gm (1) 7.5 gm

(2) 32.5 gm (2) 32.5 gm

(3) 15 gm (3) 15 gm

(4) ice does not melt (4)

32. Assertion: Specific heat of a body is always 32. :

greater than its thermal capacity.

Reason: Thermal capacity is the required for :

raising temperature of unit mass of the body
through unit degree.
(1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3)
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4)
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
33. Triple point of water is : 33.
(1) 273.16 F o
(1) 273.16oF
(2) 273.16 K (2) 273.16 K
o
(3) 273.16 C (3) 273.16oC
(4) 273.16 R (4) 273.16 R
34. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature 34. 1K
of a body through 1K is called is :

(1) Warter equivalent (1)

(2) Thermal capacity (2)
(3) Entropy (3)
(4) Specific heat (4)
35. The thermal capacity of a body is 80 cal, then its 35. 80 cal
water equivalent is :
(1) 80 cal/g
(1) 80 cal/g
(2) 8g
(2) 8g
(3) 80 g
(3) 80 g
(4) 80 kg.
(4) 80 kg.
SECTION-B
SECTION-B
36. In a water-fall the water falls from a height of 100m.
36. 100 m
If the entire K.E. of water is converted into heat,
the rise in temperature of water will be :

(1) 0.23 oC
(1) 0.23oC
o
(2) 0.46 C
(2) 0.46oC
o
(3) 2.3 C (3) 2.3oC
(4) 0.023 oC (4) 0.023oC
o
37. Steam is passed into 22g of water 20 C. The mass
37. 20oC 22g 90oC
of water that will be present when the water
acquires a temperature of 90oC (Latent heat of ( 540 cal/g) is :
steam is 540 cal/g) is :
(1) 24.8g
(1) 24.8g
(2) 24g
(2) 24g
(3) 36.6 g (3) 36.6 g
(4) 30 g (4) 30 g
38. During melting process, the heat given to a body 38.
is utilized in :

(1) increasing the temperature (1)

(2) increasing the density of material (2)

(3) increasing the average distance of the molecules (3)

(4) decreasing the mass of the body. (4)

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
39. Heat given to 1 gm substance which raises its 39. 1ºC
temperature by 1ºC is: :
(1) water equivalent (1)
(2) specific heat (2)
(3) thermal capacity (3)
(4) temperature gradient (4)

40. Liquids A and B are at 30oC and 20oC . When a 40. A B 30oC 20oC .
mixed in equal masses , the temperature of the 26oC
mixture is found to be 25oC . Their specific heats :
are in the ratio of :
(1) 2 : 3
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(2) 3 : 2

(3) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 2

(4) none (4)

41. The temperature of equal masses of three 41. A,B C

different liquids A , B and C are 12oC, 19oC 12oC, 19oC 28oC A B
o
and 28 C respectively. The temperature when A 16oC B C
and B are mixed is 16oC and when B and C are 23oC A
mixed is 23oC. What would be the temperature C :
when A and C are mixed:
(1) 20.25oC
(1) 20.25oC
(2) 12.25oC
(2) 12.25oC
(3) 9.25oC
(3) 9.25oC
(4) 40.25oC
(4) 40.25oC

42. 3200 g of ice at –10oC just melts with a mass m 42. –10oC 3200 g
of steam: :

(1) m = 400 g (1) m = 400 g

(2) m = 800 g (2) m = 800 g

(3) m = 425 g (3) m = 425 g

(4) m = 900 g (4) m = 900 g

43. If certain amount of water at 100oC is mixed with 43. 100oC

half amount of water at 70oC, then resultant 70 C o

temeprature will be:

(1) 100oC
(1) 100oC

(2) 80oC (2) 80oC

(3) 70oC (3) 70oC

(4) 90oC (4) 90oC

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
44. Given that the period T of oscillation of gas bubble 44.
from a explosion under water depend upon P,d T P,d E
and E. Where p is the pressure, d is density of
P ,d E
water and E is the total energy of explosion. Find
T
the relation of T.

(1) T 5/ 6
(1) T 5/ 6

(2) T 1/ 6
(2) T 1/ 6

(3) T 5/6 (3) T 5/6

(4) T 1/ 6 (4) T 1/ 6

   
45. If a1 and a2 are two non collinear unit vector and 45. a1 a2
       
if a1 + a2 = 3 then the value of a1 + a2 = 3 a1 - a 2 . 2a1 + a2
   
a1 - a 2 . 2a1 + a2 is:
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 3/2
(2) 3/2
(3) 1/2
(3) 1/2
(4) 1
(4) 1
     
46. If A = B + C and the values of A, B and C are 46. A = B+C A, B C 15, 12, 9
  
15, 12, 9 respectively, then the angle between A A C

and C will be :
(1) cos–1 (3/5)
(1) cos–1 (3/5)
(2) cos–1 (4/5)
(2) cos–1 (4/5)
(3) /2
(3) /2

(4) sin–1 (3/4) (4) sin–1 (3/4)

       
47. Given, | A + B | = P, | A B |= Q . The valu e of 47. | A + B | = P, | A B |= Q . P2 + Q2
P2 + Q2 is :
(1) 2(A2 + B2)
2 2
(1) 2(A + B )
(2) A2 – B2
(2) A2 – B2

(3) A2 + B2 (3) A2 + B2

(4) 2 (A2 – B2) (4) 2 (A2 – B2)

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
            
48. Angle between A and B is . If A + B and A B 48. A B  A +B A B, A

make angle  and  with A respectively, then   (tan  + tan )
(tan  + tan ) is equal to :

ABsin ABsin
(1) (1)

B 2 sin2 B2 sin2
(2) (2)

A 2 sin2 A 2 sin2
(3) (3)

2AB sin 2AB sin

(4) (4)

49. Find the value of difference of unit vectors  and 49.  B̂

B̂ whose angle of intersection is  

(1) 2 sin /2 (1) 2 sin /2

(2) 2 cos /2 (2) 2 cos /2

(3) sin /2 (3) sin /2

(4) cos /2

(4) cos /2

50. Position vectors of three particles are given as 50.

   
P = 3i 4j, Q = 3.6i 4.8j, R = (3/4)i (4/3)j , P = 3i 4j, Q = 3.6i 4.8j, R = (3/4)i (4/3)j ,

which of the following is correct :

(1) P, Q, R are equal vectors (1) P, Q, R

(2) P Q R
(2) P and Q are parallel but R is not parallel
(3) P, Q, R
(3) P, Q, R are parallel
(4)
(4) None of these.

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023

TOPIC : Redox Reactions, Some Basic Principles & Techniques (IUPAC)

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

SECTION-A -A

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

51. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 acts as 51. H2O2

a reducing agent
(1) PbO2 + H2O2  PbO + H2O + O2
(1) PbO2 + H2O2  PbO + H2O + O2
(2) Na2SO3 + H2O2  Na2SO4 + H2O
(2) Na2SO3 + H2O2  Na2SO4 + H2O

(3) 2KI + H2O2  2KOH + I2 (3) 2KI + H2O2  2KOH + I2

(4) Fe++ + 2H+ + H2O2  2Fe3+ + 2H2O (4) Fe++ + 2H+ + H2O2 2Fe3+ + 2H2O

52. Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric (H4P2O7) 52. (H4P2O7) P

acid is:

(1) +5 (1) +5

(2) +2 (2) +2

(3) +3 (3) +3

(4) +6 (4) +6

53. Oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is : 53. K2Cr2O7 Cr

(1) +1 (1) +1

(2) +2 (2) +2

(3) +6 (3) +6

(4) +4 (4) +4

54. In the half reaction : 2ClO3–  Cl2 54. : 2ClO3–  Cl2

(1) 5 electrons are gained (1) 5

(2) 5 electrons are lost (2) 5

(3) 10 electrons are gained (3) 10

(4) 10 electrons are lost (4) 10

55. The oxidation number of Cl in HClO4 is : 55. HClO4 Cl

(1) +11 (1) +11

(2) +9 (2) +9

(3) +7 (3) +7

(4) +5 (4) +5

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
56. Which of the following do not show 56.
disproportionation reaction : :

(1) ClO– (1) ClO–

(2) ClO2– (2) ClO2–

(3) ClO3– (3) ClO3–

(4) ClO4– (4) ClO4–

57. Correct sequence of oxidation state of bromine 57. Br3O8 :

in Br3O8 is :
(1) +6, +2, +6
(1) +6, +2, +6
(2) +4, +6, +4
(2) +4, +6, +4
(3) +6, +4, +6 (3) +6, +4, +6

(4) +6, 0, +6 (4) +6, 0, +6

58. What will be the balancing coefficient of given 58. :
reaction :
a I–(aq) + b MnO4–(aq) + H2O(l)
a I–(aq) + b MnO4–(aq) + H2O(l)
 c I2(s) + d MnO2(s) + OH– (aq)
 c I2(s) + d MnO2(s) + OH– (aq)
a b c d
a b c d
(1) 6 4 2 3
(1) 6 4 2 3
(2) 3 1 3 1 (2) 3 1 3 1

(3) 6 2 3 2 (3) 6 2 3 2

(4) 2 3 2 6 (4) 2 3 2 6
59. Given the standard electrode potentials 59.
+ +
K / K = –2.93 V, Ag / Ag = 0.80 V K+ / K = –2.93 V, Ag+ / Ag = 0.80 V
Hg+2 /Hg = 0.79 V, Mg+2 / Mg = –2.37 V Hg+2 /Hg = 0.79 V, Mg+2 / Mg = –2.37 V
+3
Cr / Cr = –0.74 V Cr+3 / Cr = –0.74 V
Arrange these metals in their increasing order of
reducing power : :
(1) Cr < Hg < Ag < Mg < K (1) Cr < Hg < Ag < Mg < K

(2) Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K (2) Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K

(3) Ag < Cr < Hg < Mg < K (3) Ag < Cr < Hg < Mg < K

(4) Hg < Ag < Cr < K < Mg (4) Hg < Ag < Cr < K < Mg

60. In the following reaction : 60.

4P + 3KOH + 3H2O  3KH2PO2 + PH3 4P + 3KOH + 3H2O  3KH2PO2 + PH3

(1) Only phosphorus is oxidised (1)
(2) Only phosphorus is reduced (2)
(3) Phosphorus is both oxidized and reduced (3)
(4) Phosphorus is neighter oxidized nor reduced (4)

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
61. Oxidation state of carbon atoms in diamond and 61.
graphite are : (1) +2, +4
(1) +2, +4
(2) +4, +2
(2) +4, +2
(3) –4, +4
(3) –4, +4
(4) Zero, Zero (4) ,
62. The compound that can work both as an oxidizing 62.
and reducing agent is :
(1) KMnO4 (1) KMnO4
(2) HNO2 (2) HNO2
(3) N2O5 (3) N2O5
(4) K2Cr2O7 (4) K2Cr2O7
63. A compound contains atoms X, Y, Z; the oxidation 63. X, Y, Z X
number of X is +2, Y is +5 and Z is –2, therefore a +2, Y +5 Z –2
possible formula of the compound is :

(1) XY1Z2 (1) XY1Z2

(2) X2(YZ3)2 (2) X2(YZ3)2
(3) X3(YZ4)2 (3) X3(YZ4)2
(4) X3(Y4Z)2 (4) X3(Y4Z)2
64. In acidic medium potassium dichromate acts as 64.
an oxidant according to the equation –
Cr2O72– + 14 H+ + 6e–  2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Cr2O72– + 14 H+ + 6e–  2Cr3+ + 7H2O
what is the equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 (Mol. wt.
K2Cr2O7 (Mol. wt. = M) :
= M) :
(1) M/3
(1) M/3
(2) 6M (2) 6M

(3) M/3 (3) M/3

(4) M/6 (4) M/6

65. Which among the following is not a example of 65.

decompostion redox.
(1) 2H2 O(l)  2H2(g)  O2(g)
(1) 2H2 O(l)  2H2(g)  O2(g)
(2) MgCo3( s )  MgO( s )  Co2( g )
(2) MgCo3( s )  MgO( s )  Co2 ( g )
(3) 2KClO3(s)  2KCl(s)  3O2(g)
(3) 2KClO3(s )  2KCl(s)  3O2(g)
(4) 2NaH(s)  2Na(s)  H2(g)
(4) 2NaH(s)  2Na(s)  H2(g)
66. Which among the following is not displacement 66.
reaction
(1) CuSO4  Zn  ZnSO4  Cu
(1) CuSO 4  Zn  ZnSO4  Cu
(2) 2KBr  Cl2  2KCl  Br2
(2) 2KBr  Cl2  2KCl  Br2
(3) Mg  HCl  MgCl2  H2
(3) Mg  HCl  MgCl2  H2
(4) CH4( g)  2O2(g)  CO 2(s)  2H2O (4) CH4( g)  2O2(g)  CO 2(s)  2H2O

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
67. Which is not a redox reaction 67.
(1) 3Mg(s)  N2(g)  Mg3N2(s) (1) 3Mg(s)  N2(g)  Mg3N2(s)

(2) Cr2 O3(s)  2Al(s )  Al2O3(s)  2Cr(s) (2) Cr2O3(s)  2Al(s)  Al2O3(s)  2Cr(s)
(3) Ca  2H2 O  Ca(OH) 2  H2(g) (3) Ca  2H2 O  Ca(OH)2  H2(g)

(4) H2SO4  2NaOH  Na2 SO 4  2H2 O (4) H2 SO 4  2NaOH  Na2 SO 4  2H2O

68. Which statement is incorrect for the reaction 68.

H2(g)  Cl2(g)  2HCl(g) H2(g)  Cl2(g)  2HCl(g)

(1) It is example of combination redox (1)

(2) H2 act as a reducing agent (2) H2

(3) Cl2 act as a oxidising agent (3) Cl2

(4) It is a example of disproportnation reaction (4)

69. For the reaction 69.

2Cu2O(s)  Cu2S(s)  6Cu(s )  So 2(g) 2Cu2 O(s )  Cu2 S(s)  6Cu(s)  So 2(g)

Which statement is true:

(1) It is a redox reaction (1)

(2) 'S' of Cu2S is reducing agent (2) Cu2S 'S'

(3) Cu(I) is a oxidising agent (3) Cu(I)

(4) All (4)

70. Which stock notation is wrong : 70.

(1) HAU(III) Cl4 (1) HAU(III) Cl4

(2) Mn(IV)O2 (2) Mn(IV)O2

(3) Cu(I)O (3) Cu(I)O

(4) Fe2(III)O3 (4) Fe2(III)O3

71. Which Statement is not correct 71.

(1) An increase in O.N is known as oxidation (1) O.N

(2) Loss of e is called oxidation (2) e

(3) Addition of electropositive element is oxidation (3)

(4) Addition of electronegative element is oxidation (4)

72. Which is incorrect 72.

(1) O.N of oxygen in Na2O2, H2O2 is -1 (1) Na2O2, H2O2 O.N. -1

(2) O.N of oxygen in KO2 , RbO2 is -1/2 (2) KO2 , RbO2 O.N.-1/2

(3) O.N of oxygen in OF2 is +2 (3) OF2 O.N.+2

(4) None (4)

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
73. Which is incorrect : 73.

(1) Oxidation-Loss of electron(s) by any species (1) e–

(2) Reduction-Gain of electron(s) by any species (2) e–

(3) Oxidising agent - Donor of electron (3)

(4) Reducing agent - Donor of electron (4)

74. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 74. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R) :
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
ClO3– gives disproportionation reaction ClO3–

Reason (R) : (R) :

Disproportionation reaction always contain an element

that can exist in at least three oxidation states
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) (A) (R)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(3) (A) (R) (R) (A)
explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct (4) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A) (A)

75. Given below are two statements : 75.

Statement I : I:

Oxygen have max O.N +2 and minimum –2 O.N +2 O.N –2

Statement II : II :

KMnO4 always act as a O.A in redox reaction KMnO4

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

76. 76.

Number of secondary carbon atoms present in the

above compounds are respectively :

(1) 6,4,5 (1) 6,4,5

(2) 4, 5, 6 (2) 4, 5, 6
(3) 5,4,6 (3) 5,4,6

(4) 6,2,1 (4) 6,2,1

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
77. The correct IUPAC name of 2-ethyl-3-pentyne is :

(1) 3-methyl hexyne-4 -4

(2) 4-ethyl pentyne-2 -2

(3) 4-methyl hexyne-2 -2

(4) None of these (4)

78. IUPAC name of 78.

is :
(1) 4, 5-dimethyl oct-4-ene
(2) 3, 4-dimethyl oct-5-ene
(3) 4, 5-dimethyl oct-5-ene
(4) None
(4)

79. The IUPAC name of is - 79.

(1) 2-ethyl-3-methyl-1-penten-4-yne -4-
(2) 2-ethyl-3-methyl-4-pentyn-1-ene

(3) 4-ethyl-3-methyl-1-pentyn-4-ene
(4) 4-ethyl-3-ethyl-4-penten-1-yne -1-

80. The correct IUPAC name of CH3 – CH2 – C – COOH 80. CH 3 – CH2 – C – COOH
|| ||
CH2 CH2

is :

(1) 2-methyl butanoic acid

(2) 2-ethyl-2-propenoic acid

(3) 2-carboxy-1-butene

(4) None of the above

(4)

81. 81.

The IUPAC name of this compound is :

(1) 2-fluoro-4-chloro-2,4-diethyl pentane

(2) 3-fluoro-5-chloro-3-methyl-5-ethyl hexane

(3) 3-chloro-5-fluoro-3,5-dimethyl heptane

(4) 3,5-dimethyl-5-fluoro-3-chloro heptane

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023

82. The IUPAC name of is - 82.

(1) 2-bromo-4-isopropylpentane -4-

(2) 2, 3-dimethyl-5-bromohexane

(3) 2-bromo-4, 5-dimethylhexane

(4) 5-bromo-2, 3-dimethylhexane

83. The IUPAC name of (C2H5)2 CH.CH2 OH is 83. (C2H5)2 CH.CH2 OH

(1) 2-ethyl butanol-1 -1

(2) 2-methyl pentanol-1 -1

(3) 2-ethyl pentanol-1 -1

(4) 3-ethyl butanol-1 -1

84. The IUPAC name of 84. BrCH2  CH  CO  CH2  CH2 CH3

|
CONH2
BrCH2  CH  CO  CH2  CH2CH3 is :
|
CONH2
-3-
(1) 2-bromo methyl-3-oxo hexanamide
-3-
(2) 1-bromo-2-amido-3-oxo hexane

(3) 1-bromo-2-amido-n-propyl ketone -n

(4) 3-bromo-2-proponyl propanamide

85. The suffix of the principal group, the prefixes for 85.
the other groups and the name of the parent in
the structure

2 2
2 2 | | || ||
| | || ||
CH3 Cl O O CH3 Cl O O

are given by the set : , , , ,

(1) -oic acid, chloro, hydroxy, oxo, methyl, 4-heptene

, , , ,
(2) -oic acid, chloro, hydroxy, methyl, oxo, 4-heptene
, , , ,
(3) -one, carboxy, chloro, methyl, hydroxy, 4-heptene

(4) -one, carboxy, chloro, methyl, hydroxy, 4-heptane , , , ,

SECTION-B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking. 10

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
86. Which is incorrect IUPAC name :- 86.

(1) 3–Pentyne

(2) 3–Methyl–2–butanone

(3) 2–Ethyl–3–methyl–1–butene

(4) 3–Ethyl-2-methyl pentane

87. The IUPAC name of is :– 87.

(1) Acetic anhydride (1)

(2) Formyl ethanoate (2)

(3)
(3) Butane– 2, 4–dione
(4)
(4) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride
88.
88. Correct IUPAC name of the compound is :

(1) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene

(2) 4-Methyl-5-chloro-nitrobenzene

(3) 2-Methyl-1-chloro-4-nitrobenzene

(4) 4-Chloro-5-methyl-nitrobenzene

89. IUPAC name of is : 89.

:
(1) Ethyl benzenoate
(1)
(2) Phenyl propanoate
(2)
(3) Ethyl phenyl methanoate
(3)
(4) Phenyl Ethanoate
(4)

90. IUPAC name of is : OH

90. O :

(1) 2-Cyclohexyl ethanoic acid

(2) 2-Cyclohexyl ethanone

(3) 2-Aldo cyclohexane

(4) 2-Cyclo hexyl propanone

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023

91. IUPAC name of the compound 91. :

is : )
(1) 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
(2) 4-ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene
(3) 3-ethyl-4-ethenyl heptan
(4) 3-ethyl-4-propyl hex-5-ene
92. The no. of sigma and pi bonds in but-2-ene-1, 4- 92.
dinitrile is :

(1) 7, 5 (1) 7, 5

(2) 5, 5 (2) 5, 5
(3) 7, 3 (3) 7, 3

(4) 5, 3 (4) 5, 3

93. Assertion : The IUPAC name for the compound 93. NC–CH2–CH2–COOH

NC–CH2–CH2–COOH is 4-cyanobutanoic acid.

Reason : –COOH is principal functional group while –COOH –CN

–CN is considered as substitutent group.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct: (1) (A) (R) (R), (A)

explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT correct (2) (A) (R) (R), (A)

explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A) (R)

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) (A) (R)

94. The compound 94.

has IUPAC name as :

(1) 4-carboxyheptanedioic acid
(2) 1, 3, 5-heptanetrioic acid
(3) Pentane-1, 3, 5-tricarboxylic acid (3)
(4) 3-carboxy heptanedioic acid
95. The structure of 2-methoxy-2-methyl propane is : 95.

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (3)
(4) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
96. The IUPAC name of the following compound is : 96.

(1) 2-formyl-5-methoxynitrobenzen
(2) 4-formyl-3-nitroanisole
(3) 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzoic acid
(4) 4-methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde
97. IUPAC name of compound is : 97.

(1) 3-ethyl hepta-1, 6-diene

(2) 3-ethenyl hepta-1, 6-diene
(3) 5-ethenyl hepta-1, 6-diene
(4) 3-(butenyl-3) penta-1, 4-diene -3)
98. Which one is not heterocyclic aromatic compound 98.
(1) Furan (1)
(2) Pyridine (2)
(3) Thiophene (3)

(4) Pyrene (4)

99. IUPAC name of the compound is : 99.

(1) N-phenyl-N-methyl propanone

(2) N-methyl-N-phenyl propanamide
(3) N-phenyl-N-methyl propanamide
(4) N-methyl -N-Phenyl propanamine
100. Match the following : 100. :
i. Benzene a. Aromatic (Bicyclic) i. a. )
ii. Naphthalene b. Aromatic
ii. b. )
(Monocyclic)
iii. Anthracene c. Alicylic iii. c.

iv. Pyridine d. Heterocyclic iv. d.

v. Cycloalkane e. Aromatic (Tricyclic) v. e. )

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e, v-d (1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e, v-d
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-e, iv-d, v-c (2) i-b, ii-a, iii-e, iv-d, v-c
(3) i-c, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-a (3) i-c, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-a
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a, v-e (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a, v-e
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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023

TOPIC : Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health

PART-1 (SECTION-A) PART-1 (SECTION-A)
Attempt All 35 Questions Attempt All 35 Questions
101. First meiotic division and second meiotic division 101.
gets completed in which structure of the human
female body respectively
(1)
(1) Secondary follicle, secondary oocyte
(2)
(2) Tertiary follicle, secondary oocyte
(3) Graafian follicle, secondary oocyte (3)

(4) None of these (4)

102. In sperms, which structure provides energy to tail 102.

for their mobility, that are essential for fertilisation:

(1) Acrosome
(1)
(2) Neck
(2)
(3) Middle piece (3)

(4) Tail (4)

103. In the given below hormones how many are not 103.
secreted by placenta in human
HCG, HPL, Cortisol, Estrogens, Progestogens,
HCG, HPL,
Thyroxine, Relaxin, Prolactin
(1) 7
(1) 7
(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 3 (4) 3
104. In human beings how many meiotic division are 104.
required for the formation of 1000 sperms, 250
ovum and 200 zygotes respectively
(1) 250, 350, 250
(1) 250, 350, 250
(2) 250, 200, 300 (2) 250, 200, 300

(3) 250, 250, 250 (3) 250, 250, 250

(4) 250, 250, 300 (4) 250, 250, 300
105. Only one sperm fuses with ovum because : 105.

(1) Only one sperm reaches the cervix

(1)
(2) Only one sperm reaches the uterus
(2)
(3) Only one sperm reaches the fallopian tube
(3)
(4) Contact of one sperm with zona pellucida of ovum
(4)
and induces changes in membrane that blocks the
entry of additional sperms

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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
106. Which one of the following statements about 106.
morula in humans is correct?

(1) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an (1)

uncleaved zygote but much more DNA DNA

(2) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than

(2) DNA
in an uncleaved zygote.

(3) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm

(3) DNA
and DNA as in uncleaved zygote

(4) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an (4)

uncleaved zygote
107. The correct sequence of duct from inside to outside 107.
the mammary gland is :
(1)    
(1) Alveoli  mammary duct  mammary tubules 
mammary ampulla  lactiferous ducts
(2)    
(2) Alveoli  mammary tubules  mammary ampulla
 mammary duct  lactiferous ducts
(3)    
(3) Alveoli  mammary tubules  mammary duct 
mammary ampulla  lactiferous ducts
(4) Alveoli  mammary duct  mammary ampulla  (4)    
mammary tubules  lactiferous ducts
108. At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a 108.
human female :
(1) At puberty (1)
(2) During menarche (2)
(3) During menopause (3)
(4) During embryonic development (4)
109. The function of secretion of prostate gland is to : 109.
(1) Inhibit sperm activity (1)
(2) Attract sperms (2)
(3) Stimulate sperm activity (3)
(4) Phagocytosis of sperms (4)
110. Correct sequence of spermatogenesis is 110.
(1) Spermatogonia  secondary spermatocyte  (1)   
spermatid  Primary spermatocyte 
spermatozoa 
(2) Spermatogonia  primary spermatocyte  (2)  
Secondary spermatocyte  Spermatid   
spermatozoa
(3) Spermatid  spermatozoa  Spermatogonia (3)   
Secondary spermatocyte  Primary Spermatocyte 
(4) Spermatozoa  Primary spermatocyte 
Secondary spermatocyte  Spermatogonia  (4)  
Spermatid  
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 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
111. Normally placenta is formed by the interdigitation 111.
of :
(1)
(1) Chorionic villi with trophoblast
(2)
(2) Chorionic villi with fallopian tube wall
(3)
(3) Chorionic villi with uterine wall
(4) Chorionic villi with inner cell mass (4)

112. Colostrum : 112. :

(1) Is a hormone essential for milk secretion (1)
(2) can be synthesized by the newborn infant but not (2)
by a foetus

(3) Stimulates further secretion of oxytocin for uterine (3)

contraction

(4) Is a source of antibodies essential to develop (4)

resistance against diseases in new born babies
113. Which cells have the potency to give rise to all 113.
the tissues and organs :

(1) Peptic cell (1)

(2) Stem cells (2)

(3) G. cell (3)

(4) Oxyntic cell (4)

114. Which of the following statement are not correct 114.

according to the given diagram :

(1) a 46
(1) 46 chromosome present in a
(2) a
(2) Meiosis first occur in a
(3) Meiosis first occur in c (3) c

(4) b Provide nutrition to d (4) b d

115. Which one of the following is incorrect match 115.

(1) Graafian follicle - corpus luteum (1)
(2) Menarche - menstrual cycle start (2)
(3) Menopause - Menstrual cycle stop (3)
(4) interstitial cells - Sertoli cells (4)
NLI / 27
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
116. Which one of the following is not the constituent 116.
of seminal plasma
(1)
(1) fructose
(2)
(2) calcium
(3) nitrogen (3)

(4) certain enzymes (4)

117. Which one of the following is correct match 117.
a. Alveoli (i) fallopian tube a. (i)
b. Isthmus (ii) mammary gland
b. (ii)
c. Uterus (iii) inverted pearshaped
c. (iii)
d. Hymen (iv) virginity
d. (iv)
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
118. Lack of menstruation due to 118.
(1) Poor health (1)

(2) Stress (2)

(3) Pregnancy (3)

(4) All of these (4)

119. The gonadotropins hormone is 119.

(1) FSH (1) FSH

(2) ADH (2) ADH

(3) MSH (3) MSH

(4) All of these (4)

120. Interstitial cells are present : 120.

(1) Inside ovary (1)

(2) Outside layer of ovary (2)

(3) Inside seminal vesicles (3)

(4) Outside seminiferous tubules (4)

121. Signals for parturition originate from : 121.

(1) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus (1)

(2) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (2)

(3) Placenta only (3)

(4) Fully developed foetus only (4)

NLI / 28
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
122. Which one of the following is the correct statement 122.
for the function of placenta:

(1) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste (1)

material from embryo

(2) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to (2)

embryo

(3) Secretes estrogen (3)

(4) All of these (4)

123. Match the development of the foetus in accordance 123.
with its correct time during pregnancy.
(1) 8 weeks - heart formation
(1) 8 -
(2) 4 weeks - limbs and digits are formed
(2) 4 -
(3) 24 weeks - eyelids separate and eyelashes are
formed (3) 24 -

(4) 24 weeks - external genital organs (4) 24 -

124. How many cells are diploid in nature : 124.

Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, Ovum,

Secondary Spermatocyte, first polar body, Second
polar body, primary oocyte.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 5 (4) 6
125. Antrum is 125.
(1) Inner layer of tertiary follicle (1)
(2) Outer layer of tertiary follicle (2)

(3) Fluid filled cavity in tertiary follicle (3)

(4) Fluid filled cavity in secondary follicle (4)

126. During pregnancy increased levels of several 126.
hormones in maternal blood are necessary

(1) Supporting fetal growth (1)

(2) Maintenance of pregnancy (2)

(3) Supporting metabolic changes in mother (3)

(4) All of these (4)

127. Changes in ovary and uterus during menstrual 127.
cycle takes place due to changes in level of

(1) pituitary and thyroid hormone (1)

(2) pituitary and androgen hormones (2)
(3) thyroid and ovarian hormones (3)

(4) pituitary and ovarian hormones (4)

NLI / 29
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
128. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa 128.
by the process called
(1)
(1) Spermiogenesis
(2)
(2) Spermiation
(3) Encystation (3)

(4) Sporulation (4)

129. The seminal plasma along with sperm constitute 129.

the
(1)
(1) Semen
(2)
(2) Hymen
(3)
(3) Acrosome
(4) Antrum (4)

130. Second meiotic division of secondary oocyte 130.

results in
(1)
(1) Two equal size ovum
(2)
(2) Two second polar bodies
(3)
(3) One ovum and one second polar body
(4) One ovum and one first polar body (4)

131. Which one of the following is NOT extra embryonic 131.

membrane
(1)
(1) Chorion
(2)
(2) Allantois
(3)
(3) Amnion
(4) None of these (4)

132. Which one of the following is odd : 132.

(1) Oogonia (1)

(2) First polar body (2)

(3) Second polar body (3)

(4) Secondary oocyte (4)

133. Which one of the following events are related with 133.
human female
a.
a. Menarche
b.
b. Menopause
c.
c. Menstruation
d. Gestation d.

(1) Only a, b, c (1) a, b, c

(2) Only a, c, d (2) a, c, d

(3) a, b, c, d (3) a, b, c, d

(4) Only b, c, d (4) b, c, d

NLI / 30
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
134. How many are correct matching according to 134.
hormone and their target :
a. -
a. Oxytocin - Myometrium
b. FSH - Sertoli cells b. FSH -
c. GnRh - Anterrior pituitary c. GnRh -
d. LH - Mature graffian
d. LH -
follicle
e. LH - Sertoli cells e. LH -
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 1 (4) 1
135. The urethra originates from the urinary bladder 135.
and extends through the penis to its external
opening called : :

(1) Urethral meatus (1)

(2) Glans penis (2)

(3) Fore skin (3)

(4)
(4) Vagina
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B

This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15

choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10
136. Which one of the following is not included in the 136.
female external genitalia

(1) Labia majora (1)

(2) Labia minora (2)
(3) Mons Pubis (3)
(4) Cervix (4)
137. The primary female sex organs is 137.
(1) Ovaries (1)
(2) Mammary glands (2)
(3) Uterus (3)
(4) All of these (4)
138. Which one of the following is not part of oviduct 138.
(1) Ampulla (1)
(2) Infundibulum (2)
(3) Isthmus (3)
(4) Vagina (4)
NLI / 31
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
139. The birth canal forms from 139.
(1) Cervical canal and vagina (1)
(2) Vagina and uterus (2)
(3) Uterus and cervical canal (3)
(4) Ampulla and uterus (4)
140. Which one of the following is correct match for 140.
human :
(1)
(1) mammary lobes - 10 - 12
(2) menstrual cycle - 20 - 24 days (2)

(3) menstrual flow - 3 - 5 days (3)

(4) ovulation - 10Th day (4)
141. Which of the following event is not associated with 141.
ovulation in human female
(1) Release of secondary oocyte (1)
(2) LH surge (2) LH
(3) Full development of graafian follicle (3)
(4) None of these (4)
142. If vasa deferens are removed from human male 142.
then sperms are present in which part
(1) Rete testis (1)
(2) Vasa efferentia (2)
(3) Epididymis (3)
(4) All of these (4)
143. In human female fertilisation takes place when 143.
(1) Only sperm are reach the ampullary region (1)
(2) Only ovum are reach the ampullary region (2)
(3) Ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously (3)
to the ampullary region
(4) None of these (4)
144. Why a woman cannot get pregnant again during 144.
pregnancy:
(1) A woman ovulates during pregnancy , but the (1)
oviducts are plugged with protective mucus to
prevent sperm from entering
(2) High levels of hCG in women's bodies kill sperm
(2) hCG
(3) A woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy
due to the presence of a protective mucus plug
(3)
that develops in the cervix
(4) High levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted
by the corpus luteum or placenta during pregnancy (4)
inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent
ovulation
NLI / 32
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
145. Corona radiata are related with : 145.
(1) Human female gamete (1)
(2) Human male gamete (2)
(3) Covid-19 (3) -19
(4) Catalytic converter (4)
146. During pregnancy the level of the many hormones 146.
are increased several folds in the maternal blood.
These hormones are
a.
a. Prolactin
b.
b. Thyroxine
c. Estrogens c.

c. Cortisol d.

(1) only a, c (1) a, c

(2) only a, c, d (2) a, c, d

(3) only a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
147. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 147. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R).
(A)
Assertion (A) : Generally after proper sexual
intercourse a 60 years old women does not
pregnant
(R)
Reasion (R) : In women menstrual cycle ceases
around 50 years of age
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
148. Which one of the following are not paired structure 148.
of male reproductive system : :
a. Ureter a.
b. Urinary bladder b.
c. Seminal vesicle c.
d. Urethra d.
e. Prostate e.
(1) a, b, d, e (2) d, e (1) a, b, d, e (2) d, e

(3) Only b, d (4) a, b, e (3) b, d (4) a, b, e

NLI / 33
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
149. How many matching are correct 149.
a. Relaxin - Ovary a.
b. Estrogens - Placenta b.
c. Estrogens - Graafian Follicle c.
d. Follicular phase - secretory phase d.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
150. Which one of the following matching is correct 150.
a. Cleavage (i) Zygote a. (i)
b. Implantation (ii) Daughter cells b. (ii)
c. Blastomeres (iii) Uterus c. (iii)
d. Perivitelline space (iv) Ovum
d. (iv)
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) a- i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

PART-2 (SECTION-A)
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
151. Assertion : In ovum cleavage does not takes place. 151.
Reason : During Second meitoic division centriole
of secondary oocytes moves in second polar body.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
152. Given below are two statements : 152.
Statement I: -I:
The mitotic divisions starts as the zygote moves through
the isthmus of the oviduct called cleavage towards the
uterus.
Statement II : - II :

The zygote carrying XY chromosome would develop into XY

a female baby and XX chromosome would form a male. XX
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
NLI / 34
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
153. Given below are two statements 153.
Statement I: -I:
During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact with the
zona pellucida layer of the ovum and induces changes
in the membrane that block the entry of additional
sperms.
Statement II : - II :

The secretion of the acrosome help the sperm enter

into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona
pellucida and the plasma membrane.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

154. Given below are two statements 154.
Statement I: -I:
cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive
phase and extends between menarche and menopause
Statement II :
- II :
The corpus luteum secretes small amounts of
progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the
perimetrium.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

155. Given below are two statements 155.
Statement I: -I:
each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which
encloses the ovarian stroma.
Statement II :
- II :
The stroma is divided into two zones- a peripheral cortex
and an inner medulla.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
NLI / 35
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
156. Given below are two statements 156.
Statement I: -I:
The labia minora are paired folds of tissue under the
labia majora.
Statement II :
- II :
The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies at
the upper junction of the two labia minora above the
Urethral opening.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
157. Which of the following layer of uterus is exhibits 157.
strong contraction during delivery of the baby :
(1)
(1) Perimetrium
(2)
(2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium (3)

(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2

158. The enlarged end of penis called : 158. :
(1) Fore skin (1)
(2) Glans penis (2)

(3) Urethra (3)

(4) Urethral meatus (4)

159. The scrotum helps maintaining 159.
(1) Size and shape of testis (1)
(2) Low temperature of testis (2)
(3) Passage of urethra (3)
(4) All of these (4)
160. Each ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and 160.
uterus by
(1)
(1) Tendons
(2)
(2) Muscle
(3) Ligaments (3)
(4) Areolar tissue (4)
161. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like 161.
projections called
(1)
(1) Ampulla
(2)
(2) Cervix
(3) Fimbriae (3)

(4) Pili (4)

NLI / 36
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
162. Assertion (A) : MTP considered as a good 162. (A) : MTP
contraceptive method.

Reason (R) : The method that are prevent ovulation

(R) :
and fertilisation are considered as a contraceptive
method

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A) (A)

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) (A) (R)

(3) (A) is false but (R) is true (3) (A) (R)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
explanation of (A)
163. Misuse of amniocentesis is 163.

(1) Passing of ammonia in developing embryo (1)

(2) Foetal sex determination in the developing embryo (2)

(3) Detection of foetal disease (3)

(4) Passing of nutrients in developing embryo (4)

164. Saheli a new oral contraceptives was developed 164.

by scientist of which Institutes :

(1) CDRI in Lucknow (1) CDRI

(2) CDRI in Uttar Pradesh (2) CDRI

(3) CDRI in India (3) CDRI

(4) All of these (4)

165. Diseases or infections which are transmitted 165.

through sexual intercourse are collectively called

(1) Venereal diseases (1)

(2) Reproductive tract infections (2)

(3) Sexually transmitted infections (3)

(4) All of these (4)

166. Emergency contraceptives are effective within 166.

which time period :
(1) 72
(1) Within 72 hours of ovulation
(2) 72
(2) Within 72 hours of spermiogenesis

(3) Within 72 hours of coitus (3) 72

(4) Within 72 hours of implantation (4) 72

NLI / 37
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
167. Which of the following statement are not correct 167.
with reference to given diagram :

(1)
(1) It is a kind of barrier method for contraception
(2) IUDs
(2) It is a kind of IUDs
(3) Only progesterone used (3)

(4) All of these (4)

168. How many MTP are performed in a year all over 168. MTP
the world :
(1) 4.5 5
(1) 4.5 to 5 million
(2) 450 500
(2) 450 to 500 million
(3) 4 to 5 million (3) 4 5

(4) 45 to 50 million (4) 45 50

169. MTP is essential and helpful for 169. MTP
(1) getting rid of unwanted pregnancies due to (1)
unprotected sex

(2) getting rid of unwanted pregnancies due to failure (2)

of contraceptive used

(3) Medically when continuation of pregnancy is (3)

harmful for mother or foetus or both
(4) All of these (4)
170. Artificial insemination means 170.
(1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube (1)
containing ova
(2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor (2)
into the vagina

(3) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly (3)

into the ovary

(4) Transfer of ovum of a healthy donor into the fallopian (4)

tube of another female who can not produce one
171. Which of the following are a kind of assisted 171.
reproductive technologies:
(1) ICSI
(1) ICSI
(2) IUI
(2) IUI
(3) IUT (3) IUT
(4) All of these (4)
NLI / 38
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
172. How many disease are sexually transmitted 172.
infection: Pneumonia, Typhoid, syphilis, cholera,
chlamydiasis, genital warts, Diabetes, Hepatitis-
B, Genital Herpes, AIDS, Gonorrhoea, malaria :

(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 5 (4) 5
173. Which one of the following is natural method of 173.
contraception :

(1) Pills (1)

(2) Sterilisation (2)

(3) Periodic abstinence (3)

(4) Barrier methods (4)

174. Which one of the following part is removed in 174.
tubectomy :
(1)
(1) Uterus
(2)
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Cervix (3)

(4) Vagina (4)

175. Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres formed due 175.
to Invitro fertilisation is transferred into :

(1) Uterus (1)

(2) Fallopian tube (2)

(3) Fimbriae (3)

(4) Cervix (4)

176. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as : 176.
(1) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus (1)
(2) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance (2)

(3) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality (3)

(4) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus (4)

177. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 177.
(1) Condoms – Barriers (1) –
(2) Cervical caps – Implants (2) –

(3) Lippes loop – IUDs (3) – IUDs

(4) Coitus interruptus – Contraceptive method (4) –

NLI / 39
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
178. Which one of the following is the correct match : 178.
a. Tubectomy i. Chlamydiasis a. i.
b. RTI ii. Sterilisation b. RTI ii.
c. Vulnerable to STIs iii. Emergency
c. STIs iii.
contraceptives
d. IUDs iv. 15–24 years human
d. IUDs iv. 15–24
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
179. Contraceptive methods are grouped in which of 179.
the following categories
(a) Natural/traditional (b) Barrier (a) (b)
(c) IUDs (d) MTPs (c) IUDs (d) MTPs
(e) oral contraceptives (f) IVF
(e) (f) IVF
(g) injectables (h) implants
(g) (h)
(1) all of these
(1)
(2) a, b, c, d, e, g, h
(2) a, b, c, d, e, g, h
(3) a, d, e, f, g, h (3) a, d, e, f, g, h
(4) a, b, c, e, g, h (4) a, b, c, e, g, h
180. Contraceptive pills acts by 180.
(1) inhibiting ovulation (1)
(2) inhibiting implantation (2)

(3) altering quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard (3)

sperm entry

(4) all of these (4)

181. Full form of MTP is 181. MTP
(1) Medical Termination of parturition (1) Medical Termination of parturition
(2) Medical Termination of Prostate gland (2) Medical Termination of Prostate gland
(3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(4) None of these (4)
182. To remain protected from STIs 182. STIs

(1) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners (1)

(2) Always use condoms during coitus (2)

(3) Get medical help as soon the person gets doubt of

(3)
having STIs

(4) All of these

(4)
NLI / 40
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
183. Reasons of infertility are 183.
(1) Physical or congenital diseases (1)

(2) Drugs, immunological (2)

(3) Psychological (3)

(4) All of these (4)

184. Which of the following statements are correct with 184.

reference to given diagram:

(1)
(1) It is a kind of barrier method for contraception
(2)
(2) They suppress the ovum motility

(3) They enhances the phagocytosis of ovum (3)

(4) None of these (4)

185. Which of the following statement are correct : 185.

(1) Reproductive health means physical, emotional, (1)

behavioural, social

(2) The family planing were initiated in 1951 (2) 1951

(3) A rapid decline death rate, MMR and IMR are lead (3) MMR IMR

to population growth
(4)
(4) All of these
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10

186. In which year the Medical Termination of 186.

Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, was enacted by the
government of India with the intension of reducing
the incidence of illegal abortion and consequent
maternal mortality and morbidity.
(1) 2015 (1) 2015
(2) 2010 (2) 2010
(3) 2005 (3) 2005
(4) 2017 (4) 2017
NLI / 41
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
187. How many matching are correct according to 187.
contraceptive method and their modes of action
in achieving contraception
Contraceptive Mode of Action
Method
a. Oral pill i. Inhibit ovulation a. i.
b. Condom ii. Prevents sperms b. ii.
reaching female
reproductive tract
c. Injections iii. Increase c. iii.
phagocytosis
of sperms within the
fallopian tube
d. IUDs iv. Increase
phagocytosis d. IUDs iv.
of sperms within the
uterus
(1) 3 (2) 1
(1) 3 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2
188. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 188.
(1) Male human – Vasectomy (1) –
(2) Female human – Tubectomy (2) –
(3) LNG–20 – IUDs (3) LNG–20 – IUDs
(4) None of these (4)
189. What is the similarity between genital warts and 189.
genital herpes :
a.
a. Both are curable disease
b. RTI
b. Both are RTI
c. Both are STIs c. STIs

d. Both are non curable disease d.

(1) a, b, c (1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) Only c (3) c
(4) b, c (4) b, c
190. Given below are two statements 190.
Statement I: -I:
An ideal contraceptive should available, effective and
reversible with no or least side effects.
Statement II :
Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding - II :
chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
NLI / 42
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
191. Given below are two statements 191.
Statement I: -I:
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want
to delay pregnancy and/or space children.
IUDs
Statement II :
- II :
Oral administration of small doses of either
progestogens or Relaxin-prolactin combinations is
another contraceptive method used by the females.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
192. Given below are two statements 192.
Statement I: -I:
It needs to be emphasised suitable contraceptive method
and its use should always be undertaken in consultation
with Qualified medical professionals.
Statement II :
- II :
One must also remember that contraceptive are very
important requirements for the maintenance of
reproductive health.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
193. Given below are two statements 193.
Statement I: -I:
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation are generally
advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method
to prevent any more pregnancies.
Statement II :
- II :
Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and there
by prevent conception.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
NLI / 43
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
194. Given below are two statements 194.
Statement I: -I:
The mammary glands of the female undergo
differentiation during pregnancy and starts producing
milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called
lactation.
Statement II : - II :
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation
is called colostrum.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

195. Given below are two statements 195.
Statement I: -I:
Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces
several hormones.
Statement II :
- II :
The morula continues to divide and transforms into
Blastocyst
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
196. Spot the odd one out from the following structures 196.
with reference to female reproductive system :

(1) Ovary (1)

(2) Oviduct (2)
(3) Uterus (3)

(4) Epididymis (4)

197. How many matching are correct : 197.
a. Human pregnancy – 9 month a. – 9
b. Totipotent – Stem cells
b. –
c. Parturition – Neuroendocrine
mechanism c. –
d. Colostrum – Lactation d. –
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
NLI / 44
 All India NEET Test–03 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /09-July-2023
198. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 198.
(1) Foetal - ejection reflex – Parturition (1) –
(2) First polar body – Oogenesis (2) –

(3) Second polar body – Spermatogenesis (3) –

(4) Implantation – Blastocyst (4) –

199. What is womb 199.
(1) Other name of uterus (1)
(2) Other name of cervix (2)

(3) Other name of vagina (3)

(4) Other name of ampulla (4)

200. Which one of the following is incorrect match : 200.
(1) Spermatogonia – 23 chromosomes (1) – 23

(2) Secretory Phase – Smallest phase of (2) –

menstrual cycle

(3) Ovulation – 24th day (3)

(4) All (4)

NLI / 45
 NEW BATCHES COMMENCE FROM

• Pre Foundation (9th & 10th) - 11th July

• Two Year + One Year Foundation - 11th July

• Regular Batch - 11th July

 NEW LIGHT INSTITUTE TEST AND INFORM ATION CENTRES
Sr. NEW LIGHT TEST & INFORM ATION Sr. NEW LIGHT TEST & INFO RM ATION
DIST . CO NTACT NO. DIST. CONTACT NO.
No . CENT RES ADD. No. CENTRES ADD.

1 L U C KN OW 2 n d FL OOR C H ITRAHAR 8 31 7 0 18 7 9 5 , 19 ET AW AH FR IEN DS C OL ON Y, 9 6 7 0 2 3 6 0 7 8,

BU IL D IN G, 0 52 2 -4 2 41 8 1 3 IN FRON T O F R EL IAN C E SMAR T 81266704 94
NAW AL KISH OR E R OAD, PO INT ET AW AH -2 0 6 0 0 1
HAZR ATGAN J,
L U C KN OW - 2 2 6 00 1

2 VAR AN ASI -1 NE W L IGH T IN STITU TE 9 16 1 4 48 8 0 0 20 FIR OZ AB AD ISL AMIA INT ER C OL L EG E 92191482 13

(D U R GAKU N D) B-2 6 /9 3 -A N EAR BL OC K N O. 1 3 7 06 8 9 19 4 0 5 JAL ESAR R OAD
KABEER N AGAR FIR OZ AB AD -2 8 3 2 0 3
DU R GAKU N D VARANASI.

3 VAR AN ASI -2 CH EMIC A C L ASSES D AUL ATPU R 7 98 5 2 22 1 5 8 21 AMBED KAR N AGAR KAU TIL YA G U R KU L U M 94503105 41
(PAN D EYPU R ) BH AKTIN AGAR R OAD B EH IN D OL D T EHSE EL AVIR AL C O MPL EX 63882814 32
BAKU N TH R U D R A.PR ABH AVATI BEL OW PN B AMBED KAR
NAGAR C OL ON Y P AN DEYPU R NAG AR AKBR PU R
VAR AN ASI

4 PR AYAGR AJ 9 /7 /4 0 , C H U R C H L ANE (O PP. 9 41 5 6 46 6 0 4 , 22 JH AN SI AN ALYSIS AC AD EMY - 2 N D 84198970 39

HO L Y TR IN ITY S CH OO L) P R AYAG 9 33 5 1 45 6 8 3 FLO OR ABOVE PN B BAN K N EAR 91406891 15
RAJ RTO OFF IC E, KAN PU R R O AD
JH AN SI, U.P. - 2 8 4 0 0 1
5 FAIZABAD , AYOD HYA SH ASW AT C AR EE R INST IT U TE 8 52 8 2 99 7 2 3 , 23 BASTI HN 6 21 AW AS VIKAS C O LO NY 6 3 8 6 4 7 4 1 1 5,
SH AN KAR GAR H BAZAR , D EVKAL I 9 56 5 1 40 7 0 5 BASTI U .P. 91516437 09
BYPASS
AMBED KAR N AG AR R OAD ,
FAIZABAD

6 BAR EIL L Y-1 A-2 8 , R AJEN D RA N AG AR, 8 63 0 1 61 8 4 6 24 BAHARAIC H AAKASHD EE P N EET C L ASSES 6 3 0 6 2 7 3 9 1 8,
NE AR SH R EE BAN KEY BIH AR I GH ASIYAR IP U R A GON D A RO AD 94504262 71
MAN D IR , BAR E IL LY IN FRON T U .P. AGR O C ITY KAR T
BAHR AICH U P

7 BAR EIL L Y-2 BR AIN SH APER S IN ST ITU TE 8 63 0 9 72 2 6 3 , 25 KU SHI NAGAR JO BS C OMPU TER N EAR IND IAN 87870355 31
(N a w a b g a n j) Sa n ja y co m p le x, byp a s s c h a u ra h a , 9 73 6 5 99 5 6 6 (KASYA) OIL P ETRO L PU MP GOR AKHP UR
Na w a b g a n j, Ba re illy RO AD K ASYA KU SIN AGE R U P

8 SU L TAN PU R G EN IU S IN STIT UT E, RAHU L 7 86 0 1 21 7 1 7 26 KUSH I N AGAR JO B C OMPU TER IN STITU TE 87870355 31

CH AU R AH A, (TAMK U HIR AJ) NE AR T EMP O STAN D
NABIPU R R OAD NE AR PET R OL TAMKUH IR AJ KU SH IN GAR
PU MP.
SU L TAN PU R

9 GOR AKH PU R N EW L IGH T IN STITU TE 7 30 9 3 90 5 7 2 27 KO TA (RAJ STH AN ) GL O BAL INS TITU TE OF 88529165 56
Op p . D .I.G. BAN GL AW C AN TT 6 39 3 4 26 9 9 0 CO MMERC E
RO AD , GOR AK HPU R C-1 00 S UW AL AL KAC H OR I L ANE
TAL W AN D I
KO TA 3 2 40 0 5

1 0 D EOR IA NE ET/JEE IN S TITU TE 7 30 9 3 90 5 7 2 28 PATN A (BIH AR ) VISIO N KO TA C L ASSES 79034200 77

PAR MAR TH I PO KHAR A SAKET BAZAR SAMITI SAKETPU R I, 75497838 28
NAGAR N EW C O LO NY NE AR N MC H R AIL W AY
DE OR IA – 7 2 4 8 07 CR OS SING , PATN A 8 0 0 0 16

1 1 L AKH IMPU R KH ERI VIR AT C OAC H ING CE N TR E 8 29 9 1 07 1 9 9 , 29 DAR BHAN GA (BIH AR ) KIL AGH AT MAH D AU L I N E AR (C.M 87097077 18
NE AR Y.D . C O L LEG E, L AK H IMPU R 7 39 8 4 00 8 2 2 ART S C OL L EGE D AR BH AN GA 85390601 18
KH ER I 8 46 0 0 6

1 2 BAN D A O PP. OPD GAT E N O.2 8 00 4 2 42 6 6 2 , 30 SH ASH AR AM (BIH AR ) T AKIYA BAZAR , W AR D N O 1 0 79924 66188
RAJKEYA AL L OP AT HIC MED IC AL 8 29 9 4 86 8 3 7 AMBED KAR PATH SASARAM
CO L L EGE, RO HTAS BIH AR 8 2 1 1 1 5
NAR AIN I R OAD , B AN DA-2 1 0 0 0 1

1 3 MEER U T G AYATR I C L AS SES 9 31 9 9 65 0 5 0 31 NASH IK PI-ME SON IN STITU TE 0 2 5 3 -7 9 6 0 0 2 6 ,

NE AR KAC H EH R I, OPP. SAGAR (MAHARAS H TR A) PATIL LIN E-3 , 1 s t Flo o r MAR TAND 8 7 9 6 9 4 1 6 7 7,
CO MPU TEX CO ML EX ABOVE MAH AR SH TR A 92609323 56
PL -SH AR MA R OAD MEER U T BH AN DAR OPP. BIGBAZ AR
CO L LEG E R OAD N ASH IK - 4 2 2 00 5

1 4 MO RAD ABAD SAC H IN C O AC H IN G C L ASSES 9258164798 32 J AL G AON GAN GAP U R KAR C L ASSE S, P L OT 9 8 2 3 1 1 8 9 10
OPP. MAT A MAN D IR L IN E PAR , (MAHAR ASH TR A) N O. 2 -A, SH AR D A C OL ON Y 9 8 8 1 0 9 3 8 53
MOR ADABAD N EAR MAH ABAL , JAL G AON ,
MAH ARASH TR A, PIN -4 25 0 0 2

1 5 AZAMG HAR H PR AT IG YA C O AC H IN G IN STITU TE 8 8 58 7 9 8 7 0 9 , 33 GW AL IOR (MP) G YAND A AC AD EMY SEC ON D 9 4 5 3 4 7 1 2 88

N AR AU LI TIR AH A, 8 8 58 6 5 0 1 4 0 , FL OO R S AI AR C H AD E O PPO SITE 8 0 9 0 2 8 1 2 88
FIR ST FL OOR (NE AR H .P. PTE R OL 9452481000 R AD IAN C E H OTEL C IT Y C EN TRE
PU MP), GW ALIOR MP
AZAMG HAR H

1 6 MAU SKY LIGH T AC ADE MY 9 2 36 1 2 3 5 3 1 , 34 RAIP U R KO TA S TU D Y C IR C L E R AIPUR 7 4 8 9 6 0 6 6 52 ,

N EAR HATHKAR GH A OFFIC E, 7905187601 (CH H ATISGAR H ) BR ANC H FIR ST FL OOR BH ATIA +9 1 8 2 6 9 8 4 55 7 0 ,
MAD H U H OT EL C OMPL EX, N EAR R AJ K UMAR +9 1 6 2 6 0 4 2 0 1 6 5
D C S K PG C OLL E GE R OAD , C OL L EGE
MAU N AT H BHAN JAN MAU U P- R AIPU R C H H ATISGAR H
275101

1 7 J AUN PUR H OU SE NO . 1 4 9 8 5 74 9 5 5 9 5 8 , 35 DE HR AD U N 9 4 D HAR AMPU R , H AR ID W AR 8 8 6 9 0 9 0 2 31

IN FR ON T OF RO AD W AYS BU S 9452061465 (U K) R OAD OP P. TH E OR C H ARD H ALL 7 9 0 6 2 7 5 8 57
STAN D, PAR AG AN A KEN D R IYA D OO N ,
KAC H E HAR I R OAD , JAU N PU R - D EHR AD U N U K-2 4 8 0 0 1
222002

1 8 R AEBARE LI SAN SH IKSH A ACAD EMY, 2 N D 7 7 05 0 0 2 0 7 4 , 36 SH IML A SPR IN G D AL ES SSS KH AN ER I 9 7 3 6 5 9 9 5 66

FL OOR , 7705002075 (HIMAN C H AL R AMPU R BU SH AH AR SHIML A 86309722 63
ZAME ER CO MPOU N D ABOVE SBI PR AD ESH ) H IMAN CH AL PR AD ESH -1 7 2 00 1
C ITY BR ANC H FL OOR , C AN AL
R OAD , R AEBAR EL I