Practice Final Exam- Version 2

1. Which metal can be selectively extracted from ores in a hydrometallurgic process due to its amphoteric
property?
a. iron
b. cobalt
c. nickel
d. gold
e. aluminum

2. Minerals containing which of the following are least useful for extracting metals?
a. sulfides
b. silicates
c. oxides
d. carbonates
e. all of the above are equally useful for extracting metals

3. Based on your knowledge of the energies and properties of atomic orbitals, which of the following
transition metals would you predict to have an “anomalous” electron configuration where only one electron
occupies the highest energy “s” orbital?
a. Sc
b. Cr
c. Mn
d. Ni
e. Zn

4. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for what property of the transition metals?
a. similarity in sizes between all transition elements in the same group
b. similarity in sizes between 4d and 5d elements in the same group
c. similarity in sizes between 5d and 6d elements in the same group
d. dramatic increase in size of transition metals within a group upon going from 5d to 6d
e. dramatic decrease in size of transition metals within a group upon going from 5d to 6d

5. Stainless steel is a mixture of iron and ___(i)____ where the second element occupies ____(ii)____ sites
a. (i) zinc (ii) substitutional
b. (i) carbon (ii) substitutional
c. (i) zinc (ii) interstitial
d. (i) carbon (ii) interstitial

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6. A substance that retains a net direction for its magnetic field after exposure to an external magnet is called:
a. diamagnetic
b. ferromagnetic
c. paramagnetic
d. supermagnetic
e. antimagnetic

7. Which of the following would not be capable of serving as a ligand to a metal in a coordination compound?
a. CO
b. H2O
c. NH3
d. BH3
e. All of the above could serve as a ligand to a metal in a coordination compound.

8. For the coordination compound [Co(NH3)5Cl](NO3)2, what is the oxidation number for Co?
a. +1
b. +2
c. +3
d. +5
e. 0

9. Ethylene diamine (NH2CH2CH2NH2, abbreviated en) is a bidentate ligand. What is the coordination number
for Co in the following complex ion: [Co(en)2Cl2]+?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. 3
e. 5

10. Based on the position of the metal ion in the periodic table, predict which one of the following complexes
will most likely have a square planar geometry.
a. CdCl42-
b. Zn(NH3)4
c. Pt(NH3)4
d. CoCl42-
e. MnO4-

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11. How many different isomers can be drawn for the following complex ion [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6

12. Which d orbital electron configurations does not give rise to distinguishable low spin and high spin
configurations in an octahedral complex where there are more than 3 electrons in the d orbitals?
a. all electron configurations dn where n >3
b. d4, d5, d6, and d7
c. d8, d9, and d10
d. d4, d6, and d8
e. d5, d7, and d9

13. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is a high-spin octahedral metal complex. How many unpaired electrons are present in the d
orbitals?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
e. 5

14. The general formula for an alkene with one double bond is:
a. CnHn
b. CnHn+2
c. CnH2n
d. CnH2n+2
e. CnH2n-2

15. A compound has the formula C6H10. This compound could be a(n)
a. (a) hexane
b. (b) hexyne
c. (c) 2-hexene
d. (d) cyclohexene
e. (e) either (b) or (d)

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16. Which hydrocarbon contains C atoms with both tetrahedral and linear molecular geometries?
a. 1-butyne
b. propene
c. ethyne
d. cyclopentane
e. more than one of the above

17. How many total structural isomers can be drawn for C4H10?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6

18. What is the best name for the following compound?

a. 4,5-diethyldecane
b. 2,3-diethylhexane
c. 4-ethyl-3-methylheptane
d. 4-ethyl-5-methylheptane
e. 3-propyl-4-methylhexane

19. What is the best name for the following compound?

a. trans-4-hexyne
b. trans-3-hexene
c. cis-3-hexene
d. cis-3-pentene
e. cis-4-hexene

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20. Toluene is a common industrial solvent, a component of gasoline, and is highly toxic. How many hydrogen
atoms are present on toluene, the skeletal structure of which is shown here:

a. 5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
e. 12

21. The following compound contains which functional group?

a. ketone
b. aldehyde
c. ether
d. ester
e. carboxylic acid

22. Which of the following functional groups does not contain an sp3 hybridized oxygen atom?
a. ester
b. alcohol
c. aldehyde
d. ether
e. all of the above contain an sp3 hybridized O

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23. Which of the following is NOT a functional group found in aspirin, shown below:

a. ether
b. carboxylic acid
c. aromatic ring
d. ester
e. all of the above are found in aspirin

24. Which molecule can undergo oxidation by two electrons to form a carboxylic acid?
a. ketone
b. ester
c. alcohol
d. aldehyde
e. ether

25. Which functional groups can be identified in the linear form of D-glucose, your bodies preferred fuel, the
structure of which is shown below? Select all that apply, this is a multiple response question.

a. ketone
b. aldehyde
c. alcohol
d. ether
e. ester

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26. The following are important biological metabolites. Which ones contain a chiral carbon? Select all that
apply, this is a multiple response question.

a. (i)
b. (ii)
c. (iii)
d. (iv)
e. (v)

27. For the following reaction, at any time point of interest the rate of disappearance of O 2 will be ____ times
the rate of appearance of NO2.

4NH3(g) + 7O2(g) → 4NO2(g) + 6H2O(g)

a. 4/7 times
b. 7/4 times
c. equal to
d. 7 times
e. 1/7 times

28. For the chemical reaction A + B → C, the following experimental data were obtained:

Experiment [A] (M) [B] (M) Initial rate (M/s)

1 0.45 0.30 1.25
2 0.45 1.20 5.00
3 1.35 0.30 11.25

Use the information in the table to determine the rate law for this reaction.
a. rate = k[A]
b. rate = k[A] [B]
c. rate = k[A]2[B]
d. rate = k[A]2
e. rate = k[A] [B]2

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29. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in water occurs as shown in the balanced chemical equation
below:

2H2O2(aq) → 2H2O(aq) + O2(g)

This reaction is a first order process with a rate constant of 1.06 x 10 -3 min-1.
How long will it take for H2O2 to decrease from an initial concentration of 1.50 M to a final concentration of
0.200 M?
a. 126 min
b. 383 min
c. 1.52 x 103 min
d. 1.90 x 103 min
e. 1.14 x 103 min

30. What determines how fast a chemical reaction will occur?

a. the difference in energy between reactants and products
b. the magnitude of the activation energy barrier
c. whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic
d. the complexity of the reaction mechanism
e. all of the above

31. Which of the following are examples of equilibrium processes?

a. vapor pressure above a solution
b. the concentration of a gas dissolved in a liquid
c. the amount of solute present in a saturated solution
d. the situation when all apparent conversion of reactant to product has ceased in a chemical reaction
e. these are all equilibrium processes

32. Consider the following reaction:

I2(g) + Br2(g) ⇋ 2 IBr(g)

You add 0.50 mol I2 and 0.50 mol Br2 to a 1.00 liter flask. After allowing the reaction to reach equilibrium, 0.90
moles of IBr have been produced in the flask. What is the value for the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the
reaction at this temperature?
a. 3.2
b. 0.31
c. 81
d. 3.2 x 102
e. 0.012

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33. For the following reaction:
2 NH3(g) ⇋ N2(g) + 3H2(g) Kc = 230.4 at 472°C
You have a flask to which you add 0. 0025 M NH3, 0. 25 M N2, and 0.25 M H2 at 472°C. Which statement below
is correct?
a. the reaction is at equilibrium and no change will occur
b. the reaction will proceed from left to right in order to reach equilibrium
c. the reaction will proceed from right to left in order to reach equilibrium
d. the reaction is not at equilibrium, but no change will occur without a catalyst
e. there is not enough information given to answer this question

34. For the following reaction:

2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇋ 2 SO3(g) ΔH° = -99 kJ
What effect will an increase in temperature have on the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction?
a. the value for the equilibrium constant will stay the same
b. the value for the equilibrium constant will increase
c. the value for the equilibrium constant will decrease
d. either (b) or (c) could be correct
e. cannot be predicted from the information given

35. Which of the following is/are correct for a basic solution at 25°C?
a. (a) [H3O+] > 10-7
b. (b) [H3O+] < 10-7
c. (c) [H3O+] = [OH-]
d. (d) [H3O+] < [OH-]
e. both (b) and (d) are correct

36. Which of the following is the correct definition of a Brønsted-Lowry acid?

a. a substance that dissolves in H2O to decrease [H+]
b. a substance that dissolves in H2O to increase [H+]
c. a substance that serves as a proton donor
d. a substance that serves as a proton acceptor
e. a substance that dissolves in H2O to decrease [OH-]

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37. HClO (hypochlorous acid) is a weak acid with a Ka of 3.0 x 10-8 M. You dissolve 0.0500 moles of HClO in 2.00
liters solution at 25°C. What is the resulting pH of this solution? Make note of the volume of this solution
being 2.00 liters!
a. 2.96
b. 4.41
c. 4.56
d. 3.11
e. 7.52

38. An aqueous solution of NH4Cl will be ___(i)___, and an aqueous solution of AlCl3 will be ___(ii)___. (Note
that subscripts do not display properly in matching questions in Canvas.)
a. (i) solution of NH4Cl =
b. (ii) solution of AlCl3 =

39. A solution is prepared by mixing 0.200 moles of hydrofluoric acid (HF) with 0.100 moles of NaF in 1.00
liters of solution. Ka for HF is 6.80 x 10-4. What will be the pH of the solution once equilibrium is established?
a. 1.93
b. 3.17
c. 3.47
d. 1.00
e. 2.87

40. You have 50.0 mL of 0.200 M benzoic acid (Ka = 6.50 x 10-4) to which you add 25.0 mL of 0.200 M KOH.
What will be the resulting pH of the solution?
a. 3.19
b. 2.18
c. 5.49
d. 1.01
e. 4.19

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41. You have 100.0 mL of 0.100 M carbonic acid that you titrate with 0.100 M NaOH. What will be the major
carbonate species present at the first equivalence point?
a. H2CO3
b. HCO3-
c. CO32-
d. an equimolar mixture of H2CO3and HCO3-
e. an equimolar mixture of HCO3- and CO32-

42. What volume of 0.130 M NaOH would be required to titrate 155 mL of 0.175 M HCl such that the
equivalence point is reached?
a. 209 mL
b. 147 mL
c. 115 mL
d. 8.68 mL
e. 175 mL

43. Which of the following pairs of species, when mixed together in water in proper ratios, would provide a
buffer solution? Think each pair through very carefully in terms of what species will form when they dissolve in
water, and how they can then (potentially) react with water. Refer to the table of strong acids/bases on the
exam information sheet if you don’t have them memorized yet. Select all that apply, this is a multiple response
question.

a. HF and NaF

b. HF and HCl

c. HF and NaOH

d. NaF and HCl

e. NaF and NaOH

44. Ksp for PbF2 is 2.7 x 10-8. What is the concentration of Pb2+ ions in a saturated solution of PbF2 at equilibrium
(prepared by adding a sufficient amount of PbF2 to water to ensure undissolved PbF2(s) is in the solution)
a. 3.0 x 10-3
b. 2.4 x 10-3
c. 1.9 x 10-3
d. 6.0 x 10-3
e. 4.8 x 10-3

45. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding entropy?

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a. larger atoms have larger entropies
b. molecules with greater numbers of atoms have larger entropy values
c. for a given molecule, the entropy will become greater upon going from a gas to a liquid
d. for a given molecule, the entropy will become greater upon going from a solid to a liquid
e. the minimal amount of entropy for a molecule will be reached at 0K

46. Consider the following exothermic reaction, where “” represents heat (enthalpy) in the reaction:
2B(g)  A(g) + 
What is the sign of G for this reaction?
a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. It could be either negative or positive depending on the numerical values of S, H and T.
e. This chemical reaction is not possible.

47. For the following process occurring at -5° C, the sign of ∆Ssystem is ___(i)______, the sign of ∆Ssurroundings is
____(ii)______ and the sign of ∆Suniverse is ____(iii)______.
H2O(s) → H2O(l)
a. (i) negative (ii) negative (iii) negative
b. (i) negative (ii) positive (iii) positive
c. (i) positive (ii) positive (iii) positive
d. (i) positive (ii) negative (iii) negative
e. (i) positive (ii) negative (iii) positive

48. G for the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen to produce ammonia (see balanced chemical equation
below) has a value of -33.3 kJ/mol. What will be G for this reaction at 25C if the reaction is initiated with
125 atm each of N2(g) and H2(g) and 2.00 atm NH3(g)?
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
a. -11.1 kJ/mol
b. -44.4 kJ/mol
c. -77.7 kJ/mol
d. -37.0 kJ/mol
e. +37.0 kJ/mol

49. If the equilibrium constant for a reaction is less than one, then the reaction will be ______(i)______ under
standard conditions, and the value for ∆G° for the reaction is _______(ii)__________.
a. (i) spontaneous (ii) negative
b. (i) nonspontaneous (ii) positive
c. (i) spontaneous (ii) positive
d. (i) nonspontaneous (ii) negative
e. (i) at equilibrium (ii) one

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50. When the following oxidation reduction reaction is balanced properly with whole numbers and in basic
solution, how many hydroxide ions are present, and on which side of the equation are they found?
Br-(aq) + MnO4-(aq) → Mn2+(aq) + Br2(g)
a. 8 OH-, left side
b. 8 OH-, right side
c. 16 OH-, right side
d. 4 OH-, right side
e. 6 OH-, right side

51. During an electrochemical reaction in a voltaic cell, ___(i)___ occurs at the anode;
___(ii)___ occurs at the cathode; and an oxidizing agent undergoes ___(iii)___.
a. (i) occurs at the anode =
b. (ii) occurs at the cathode =
c. (iii) oxidizing agent undergoes =

52. What is ∆G° for the reaction of sodium metal with chlorine gas to form sodium chloride when the equation
is properly balanced?

a. -393 kJ/mol
b. -785 kJ/mol
c. -197 kJ/mol
d. +786 kJ/mol
e. +393 kJ/mol

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53. You construct a voltaic cell with Al(s) |Al3+(aq) || I2(s)| I-(aq)
What will be the cell potential when [Al3+] = 0.0150 M and [I-] = 0.250 M?

a. +2.18 V
b. +2.13 V
c. +2.27 V
d. +2.63 V
e. +2.22 V

54. Zinc protects iron against oxidation in a process called _____(i)______ where zinc serves as a ___(ii)____.
a. (i) cathodic protection (ii) sacrificial anode
b. (i) cathodic protection (ii) sacrificial cathode
c. (i) anodic protection (ii) sacrificial cathode
d. (i) anodic protection (ii) sacrificial anode

55. What type of radioactive event would lead to the conversion of carbon (C) to nitrogen (N)?
a. beta decay
b. alpha decay
c. positron emission
d. gamma emission
e. more than one of the above

56. The decay series for 232Th, found in older lantern mantles, ends with 208Pb. How many total alpha and beta
decays are required for this conversion?
a. 12 alpha, 4 beta
b. 6 alpha, 8 beta
c. 4 alpha, 6 beta
d. 6 alpha, 4 beta
e. 8 alpha, 6 beta

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57. The 56Fe nucleus has an experimentally determined mass of 55.9207 amu. The mass of a proton is 1.00728
amu while the mass of a neutron is 1.00866 amu. What is the nuclear binding energy per nucleon in a 56Fe
nucleus? 1 amu = 1.66054 x10-24 g.
a. 3.03 x 10-12 J
b. 7.89 x 10-11 J
c. 4.42 x 10-9 J
d. 1.41 x 10-12 J
e. 7.89 x 10-8 J

58. 185Ir undergoes electron capture. What is the product of this event?
a. 184Os
b. 184Ir
c. 186Ir
d. 185Pt
e. 185Os

59. The biological effect of radiation generally involves

a. the radiation directly cleaving a chemical bond when it strikes a molecule
b. the radiation striking the nucleus of an atom in your body, causing a change in the identity of the atom
c. electron excitation upon striking an electron in an atom, resulting in the loss of the electron and production
of a reactive free radical that can undergo further reactions
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

60. What is the anhydride of formic acid, HCOOH? Hint- use oxidation numbers to guide you.
a. HCO
b. CO
c. CO2
d. CH2
e. C

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