Form 3 Endterm 2 Exams s2-c

FORM 3 ENDTERM 2 EXAMS
ALL SUBJECTS
(COMPREHENSIVE PAPERS ONLY)

Compilation of Standard set of End of Term 2 Questions for the
Current Class to ALL Schools in The Republic of Kenya.
SUBJECTS COMPILED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography,
History, Computer Studies, Home science, Business Studies & Agriculture.
SERIES 2
For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
SERIES 2
BIOLOGY
(COMPREHENSIVE EXAM)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index in the spaces provided.
b) Answer All the questions in the spaces provided.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDINDATES SCORE
1 - 34 80
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

Answer All the questions
1. The equation below shows a reaction that occurs in plants.
6CO2 + 12 H + C6 H12 O6 + 3O2
(a) Identify the process. (1mark)

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(b) In which part of the chloroplast does the process represented by the above reaction occur?
(1mark)
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2. Write down the part of microscope that plays the following role. (2marks)
Role played Part of microscope
Movement of stage through large distance
Attachment of objective lenses
3. (a) Blood group AB is a universal recipient. Explain. (1mark)

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(b) Describe the characteristics of blood group AB+ve. (2marks)

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4. A certain organ K was surgically removed from a rat, later drastic increase in glucose level in the
blood was reported but when substance Q was injected into the animal the whole process was
reversed.
Identify:
(i) Organ K ………………………………………………………………… (1mark)
(ii) Substance Q……………………………………………….…………… (1mark)

5. The following reaction may occur in a forward and backward direction.
Water + Carbon (IV) Oxide Glucose + Oxygen + Energy
Name the organelle where the reaction occurs in:

(i) Forward direction……………………………………………….…………... (1mark)
(ii) Backward direction…………………………………….……………………. (1mark)
6. Study the classification scheme shown below and answer the questions that follow.
R
Aves S Amphibia Mammalia Reptilia
(a) Identify the main characteristics of the taxonomic group R 2marks)

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(b) Name the taxonomic group S. (1mark)

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7. State the causative agents of the following diseases: (2marks)

(i) Amoebic dysentery
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(ii) Bilharzia
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8. Briefly describe the leaf phyllotaxy for each of the following plant. (2marks)
A B
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9. Identify the structures of the cell that perform the following functions:- (2marks)
(a) Synthesize ribosomes………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Transport of packaged glycoproteins………………………………………………………………
10. Outline two physiological changes that occur in the body to lower the level of Carbon (IV) Oxide
after vigorous physical exercise (2marks)
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11. What are the two functions of bile salts during the process of digestion? (2marks)
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12. An experiment shown below was set-up to investigate a certain physiological process in plants:-
Leafy Shoot
Oil
Beaker
Water
(a) What process was being investigated? (1mark)

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(b) Give the role of the oil layer in this experiment (1mark)
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(c) Suggest a suitable control for this experiment (1mk)

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13. Explain why respiratory surfaces should be:

(i) Moist (1mark)
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(ii) Thin (1mark)
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14. State one use for each of the following apparatus in the study of living organisms.
a) Pooter (1mk)
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b) Pitfall trap. (1mk)
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15. Below is the dental formula of a mammal.

i0 c0 pm 3 m2
4 0 3 3
a) What is the total number of teeth? (1mk)
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b) i) What is the mode of feeding in the mammal? (1mk)

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ii) Give one reason for your answer above. (1mk)

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16. The diagram below represents a model used to demonstrate breathing in mammals.
a) Name the mammalian structure represented by the parts labeled D and E.

D ……………………………. (1mk)
E ……………………………… (1mk)
b) i) State the observation made when the string is pulled downwards. (1mk)
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ii) Explain the observation in (b)i) above. (1mk)

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17. 5C51H98O6 + 145CO2 → 102CO2 + 98H20 + ENEGY

The above equation shows an oxidation reaction of food substances.
a) Determine respiration quotient of the oxidation of food substances. (2mks)
b) Identify the food substances . (1mk)

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18. When are two organisms considered to belong to the same species? (2mks)
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19. Suggest two reasons why green plants are included in a fish aquarium. (2mks)
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20. a) Explain the absence of the following components in urine of a healthy person.
i) Glucose (1mk)
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ii) Plasma protein (1mk)
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b) What is the name of the hormone responsible for regulating the level of sodium ions in blood of a
mammal. (1mk)
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21. An experiment was set up as shown below.
The set up was left for 30minutes.

a) State the expected results . (1mk)
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b) Explain your answer in (a) above. (2mks)
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22. To estimate the population size of mosquitoes in a certain village, visiting researchers caught 400
mosquitoes which they marked and released. After 24 hours 200 mosquitoes were caught out
which 80 had the marks.
a) What is the name given to this method of estimating the population size. (1mk)
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b) Estimate the population size of the mosquitoes in the village. (2mks)
c) State one assumptions that was made during the investigations. (1mk)
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23. The following diagram of a leaf shows what happens in a plant leaf during photosynthesis.
a) State one way in which leaves are adapted to absorbs light. (1mk)
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b) Name the gases labeled X and Y . (2mks)
X ...........................................................................................
Y ……………………………………………………………………………
24. Explain why it is an advantage for plant to store carbohydrates in form starch rather that as
glucose. (2mks)
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25. The diagram below shows a part of a leguminous plant .Study it and answer the questions that
follow.

i). Name the structure labelled L. (1 mark)
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ii). Name the micro-organism contained in structure L. (1mark)

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iii) What is the significance of the micro- organism named in (ii) above. (1mark)
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26. The apparatus shown below was set up by form two students in a certain school
(a)Name the gas X ----------------------------------------------------------------- (1mk)
(b)Write down a word equation for the reaction which produces the gas (1mk)
(c) Where in human body does this type of reaction occur (1mk)
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27. How is it possible that organism in kingdom Monera and Protoctista survive without a circulating
system? (2mks)
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28. State two ways in which guard cells adapted to their function. (2mks)
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29. Study the diagrams below and answer the questions that follow.
a) Name the phylum in which the organisms belong. (1mark)

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b) Name the part labeled K. (1mark)
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c) State one observable difference between the organisms P and N. (1mark)
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30.The diagram below shows the feeding relationship in an ecosystem. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.
Guinea Vulture
fowl s
Grasshoppe Termites Leopard

r s
Grass Gazelle
s

(a.) i)Name the organisms through which natural energy enters the ecosystem. (1 mark)
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ii) In what trophic level are leopards? (1mark)
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(b.) What would be the effect if caterpillars and locusts were introduced in the ecosystem? (1mark)
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31. Why is it not possible to breathe while swallowing. (2mks)

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32. Explain why athletes practicing at high attitude zones have a higher number of red blood cells
than those at sea level. (2mks)
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33. a) Name causative agent of each of the following diseases. (2mks)

i. Pneumonia ………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Tuberculosis ………………………………………………………………………………………
b.) Name the vector that transmit disease causing microorganism for malaria. (1mk)
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34. a) Why are the fish gills highly vascularized (1mk)

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SERIES 2
CHEMISTRY
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
 Ensure all pages are there before doing the paper
 Answer all questions in this paper
 Answer all questions in the spaces provided
FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY
Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 – 21 80

Answer all questions in the spaces provided
1. Give a reason why the neck of a volumetric flask is narrow (1 Mark)
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2. Define the following terms as used in Chemistry: (2 Marks)

a) Saturated solution
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b) Solvent front
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3. Give the systematic names of the following compounds: (2 Marks)
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4. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow:
a) Write an equation for the reaction that forms gas W (1 Mark)

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b) State a chemical test for gas W (1 Mark)
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c) What is the effect of replacing magnesium with potassium metal? (1 Mark)

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d) What is the observation made when pure gas W is ignited? (1 Mark)

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5. The grid below represents part of the periodic table. Study it and use it to answer the questions that
follow:
A T
Q W X Z
V
R M
a) Write the formula of the compounds formed when the following elements combine: (2 Marks)
Z and V ………………………………………………………………………………
W and X ………………………………………………………………………………
b) What is the most likely effect of the compounds formed between the following elements on red and
blue litmus paper when dissolved in water? (3 Marks)
Q and Z
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X and W
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Z and X
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6. Draw a setup to show how a mixture of ammonium chloride and magnesium chloride can be
separated (2 Marks)
7. Cracking of petroleum is a major source of hydrogen for industrial use.

a) What is cracking? (1 Mark)
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b) Which are the two main methods of cracking? (1 Mark)

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c) Which are the three possible products of cracking? (3 Marks)

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8. Study the chromatogram of dyes X, Y and Z then answer the questions that follow:
a) State the properties that make it possible for the dyes to be separated by chromatography
(1 Mark)
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b) Which dye is least adsorbed? (1 Mark)

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9. A solution was prepared by adding 10.6g of sodium carbonate to 100ml distilled water in a
volumetric flask and topping the solution with more distilled water to make 250ml of solution.
(Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16)
a) Determine the concentration of this solution in moles per litre (3 Marks)
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b) Determine the volume of 1.5M sulphuric (VI) acid that would completely react with 25ml of the
sodium carbonate solution (3 Marks)
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c) How many hydrogen ions were present in this volume of sulphuric (VI) acid solution? (3 Marks)
(Na=23, C=12, O=16, S=32, H=1, L = 6.023 × 1023)
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10. Explain the following observations:
a) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) exists as a gas at room temperature while hydrogen oxide (H2O) exists
as a liquid at room temperature. (2 Marks)
(H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
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b) Magnesium chloride conducts electricity in the molten state while aluminium chloride does not
conduct electricity in any state (2 Marks)
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11. Write ionic equations for the following reactions: (3 Marks)

a) Sodium sulphate solution and lead (II) nitrate solution
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b) Sodium hydroxide solution and hydrochloric acid solution

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c) Magnesium ribbon and iron (II) sulphate solution

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12. A mole of the following compound was mixed with 2 moles of chlorine gas.
When the mixture was exposed to sunlight, the colour of chlorine disappeared
a) Name the type of reaction that took place (1 Mark)
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b) Write a balanced equation for the overall reaction that took place (1 Mark)
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c) Draw and name one possible structure of the resultant organic compound: (2 Marks)
d) What is the role of sunlight in the reaction? (1 Mark)

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e) Write an equation for the complete combustion of the initial hydrocarbon (1 Mark)
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13. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow (2 Marks)
Identify N and P
N ………………………………………………………………………………………………
P ………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Comment on the following pairs of properties and explain your answer in each case:
a) Atomic radii of sodium and argon (2 Marks)
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b) 1st ionization energies of lithium and potassium (2 Marks)

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c) Reactivity of sodium and aluminium (2 Marks)

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15. Equal volumes of carbon (IV) oxide and carbon (II) oxide can diffuse through the same medium.
Calculate the relative rate of diffusion of carbon (II) oxide (C = 12, O = 16) (2 Marks)
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16) The table below gives some information on some hydrocarbons. Study it and answer the questions
that follow:
Number of carbon Relative molecular
Hydrocarbon
atoms mass
A 1 16
B 2 30
C 3 44
D 4 58
E 5 72
F 6 86
a) Name the homologous series to which the compounds belong (1 Mark)
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b) Write the condensed structural formula of the compound represented by E (1 Mark)

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c) The compound represented by F is a liquid at room temperature while B is a gas at room

temperature. Explain (2 Marks)
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d) Name the third member of this homologous series (1 Mark)

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16. A bottle containing nitric (V) acid (HNO3) has a label with the following information:
 Density = 1.44gcm-3
 Relative formula mass = 63
 Percentage purity = 65%
a) Calculate the concentration of the nitric (V) acid solution in moles per litre (3 Marks)
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b) What will be the concentration of a solution prepared by diluting 20cm3 of the concentrated acid to
make 250cm3 of the acid solution? (3 Marks)
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17.
a) What is isomerism? (1 Mark)
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b) Draw any three isomers of C7H16 (3 Marks)
18. Molten lead is a conductor of electricity but not an electrolyte whereas molten lead (II) iodide is a
conductor of electricity and an electrolyte. Explain (2 Marks)
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19. Study the information in the table below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
Substance Solid state Molten state Mixed with water
X Conducts electricity Conducts electricity Not soluble

Does not conduct
Y Conducts electricity soluble
electricity
Does not conduct Does not conduct
Z Not soluble
electricity electricity
a) Give the type of structure and bond of substance X (1 Mark)

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b) Explain your answer in a) above (1 Mark)

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c) Which of the substances is likely to be plastic? (1 Mark)
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d) Which particles are responsible for electrical conductivity in substance Y? (1 Mark)

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20. When 100cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon (CxHy) burns in 400cm3 of oxygen, 100cm3 of oxygen is
unused, 200cm3 of carbon (IV) oxide, and 200cm3 of steam are formed.
a) Determine the equation for the reaction (2 Marks)
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b) Determine the values of x and y (2 Marks)

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SERIES 2
PHYSICS
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of two sections A and B
 Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
 All workings must be clearly shown, and Use the CONSTANTS given.
 Gravitational acceleration, ‘g’ = 10m/s2
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1-14 25
15 10
16 11
17 11
18 12
19 11
TOTAL 80
Answer all questions
1. State what mechanics as a branch of physics deals with. (1 mark)
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2. Figure 1 shows a measuring cylinder containing some liquid. Another 5cm3 of the liquid is added
into the Cylinder. Indicate on the diagram the new level of the liquid. (2 marks)
Figure 1
3. Figure 2 shows a set up used to determine the mass of a solid S. The rod is pivoted at its centre of
gravity C.
Figure 2
State two measurements that need to be made to determine the mass of solid, S. (2 marks)
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4. Write an expression to show how the measurements in (3) above are used to obtain the mass of S.
(2 marks)
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5. Figure 3 (a, and b) shows capillary tubes inserted in water and mercury respectively.
Figure 3
It is observed that in water the meniscus in the capillary tube is higher than the meniscus in the
beaker; while in mercury the meniscus in the capillary tube is lower than the meniscus in the
beaker. Explain these observations. (2 marks)
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6. When a bicycle pump was sealed at the nozzle and the handle slowly pushed towards the nozzle,
the pressure of the air inside increased. Explain this observation. (2 marks)
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7. Figure 4 shows a syringe full of water. It has two identical holes A and B drilled along its
cylinder. The cylinder nozzle is closed
a) State with a reason how the speeds of the jets of water from A and B compare when the piston is
pushed into the cylinder (2 marks)
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8. State the reason why it is easier to separate water into drops than to separate solids into smaller
pieces (1 mark)
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9. Figure 5 shows a fire alarm circuit.
Figure 4
a) Explain how the alarm functions. (3 marks)
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10. The figure 6 below shows a marble balanced on a ball resting on a flat surface as shown
Figure 5

Explain the state of equilibrium of the marble. (2 marks)
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11. A box of mass 500g is dragged along a level ground at a speed of 12m/s. if the force of friction
between the box and the floor is 2000N, calculate the power developed. (2 marks)
12. On the axes provided (figure 7) sketch a graph of velocity (v) verses time (t) for uniformly
accelerated motion given that at t = 0; v is greater than zero. (1 mark)
13. State one factor that affects the turning effect of a force on a body. (1 mark)
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14. Figure 8 shows a minibus of mass (m) moving along a curved part of the road with a constant
speed, v from point A towards point B.
a. identify the force which enables the minibus to successfully negotiate

the bend. Figure 6
(1 mark)
b. Suppose the force (14, a) above reduces to zero at point B. Using an

arrow, show the direction along which the minibus will travel. (1 mark)
SECTION B (55 MARKS)
15.
a. A force of 7.5N stretches a certain spring by 5 cm. Calculate the work done in stretching this
spring by 8.0 cm. (3 marks)
b. Figure 9, shows a cross-section of a handle of a screw jack 70 cm long. The pitch of the screw is
0.8 cm
Figure 7
Given that the efficiency is 65%, calculate;
i) The velocity ratio of the system (2 marks)
ii) The mechanical advantage of the screw jack (2 marks)

iii) Sketch a graph of efficiency of the machine against Load (1 mark)
iv) Draw a single moving pulley with a velocity ratio of 2. (2 marks)
16. The figure 10, shows a pith ball in a flask. A jet of air is blown over the mouth of the flask as
shown.
a. State and explain the observation made. (2 marks)

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b. Figure 11, shows a tube of varying cross sectional area. V1, V2 and V3 represents the speeds of
water as it flows steadily though the sections of the tube.
Arrange the speeds V1, V2 and V3 in decreasing order starting with the highest. (1 mark)
c. The diagram below (figure 12) shows a cross- section of an airplane wing. When the airplane is
moving at a constant height and constant speed, an upward force is exerted on its wing.
i.Explain the cause of the upward force? (2 marks)

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ii.State Bernoulli’s principle (1 mark)

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d. Two table Tennis balls are in the same level while suspended from threads a short distance apart.
A stream of air is blown between the balls in a horizontal direction. State and explain what
happens to the balls (2 marks)
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e. When spraying a field of water using a hose pipe, it is common to reduce the pipes opening in
order to spray water furthest. Other than pressure, what other quality is varied in the process?
(1 mark)

f. The figure 13, shows water forces through a hydraulic system by a pump. An air chamber is used
to maintain a continuous flow of water during both the up stroke and down stroke of the piston
pump.
Figure 8
State what happens during upstroke (2 marks)
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17.
a. Define total internal reflection (1 mark)
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b. The figure 14 shows a ray of green light through a prism. The speed of green light in the prism is
2.0 x 108m/s
i. Determine the refractive index of the prism material (speed of light in air = 3.0 x 10 8m/s
(3mks)
ii. Given the r ==23.20, determine the angle, θ (3mks)
b) i) The diagram (figure 15) shows two prisms
Figure 9
Given that the critical angle of the glass in both prisms is 420 sketch the paths of the two rays in each
prism indicating all the angles. (2mks)
ii) Give two application of total internal reflection (2mks)

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18. Figure 16 is a motor connected to a magnetic switch called a relay operated by an ordinary switch
S1. Use the information in the figure to answer questions that follow.
Spring conductor
Pivot
Insulator
Insulator
Motor
Soft iron
Contacts
core
Soft iron S1
armature
a.
i) Explain how the relay switches on the motor when S1 is closed. (3 marks)
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ii) State with a reason the effect on the motor if the iron core is replaced with a steel core and switch
S1 is put on and then off. (2 marks)
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b. A student set up the circuit shown in figure 17. The bulbs are identical.
State the observation when;
i) Switch S1 is closed (1 mark)
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ii) If all switches are closed; compare the lighting between B1, B2 and B3 (2 marks)
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c. The diagrams (figure, 18) shows a soft iron plate in a solenoid and a permanent magnet suspended
by a spring and placed next to the solenoid.
i. State with reason the behaviour of the magnet when the switch S is closed. (2 mark)
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ii. State any two ways of increasing the strength of the electromagnet (2 marks)
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19.
a. Define principal focus of a concave mirror (1 mark)
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b. The figure 19 shows how a ray is incident on a curved mirror.

i. Complete the diagram to show how the incident ray is reflected. (1 mark)
ii. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 40cm forms an image which is half the height of the
object. Determine the object distance (3 marks)
c. Using a ray diagram, show how a curved mirror may be used by a dentist to examine the teeth of
a patient. (2 marks)
1 1
d. The figure 20 shows a graph of 𝑎𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑡 for a certain mirror.
𝑢 𝑣
From the graph, determine:

i.The focal length of the mirror (2 marks)
ii.The object distance when magnification is 2: (2 marks)
This is the last printed page.

SERIES 2
AGRICULTURE
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
2. This paper consists of three sections. Section A, B and C.
3. Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
4. Answer ANY TWO questions in section C in the spaces provided.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION TOTAL MARKS STUDENTS SCORE
SECTION A.
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided (30 MARKS)
1. State two function of the reticulum. (1 mark)
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2. State four factors affecting digestibility. (2 marks)

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3. State four factors that determine amount of food given to livestock. (2 marks)
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4. Name two examples of three-host tick. (1 mark)

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5. State two effects of fleas in poultry. (1 mark)

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6. State four characteristics of an effective acaricide. (2 marks)

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7. State four factors that affect the pulse rate of an animal. (2 marks)
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8. State four structural requirements for grain silo and Cyprus bins. (2 marks)
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9. State four factors to consider when sitting a beehive. (2 marks)

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10. State four advantages of using a spray race. (2 marks)

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11. State four factors that determine the quality of honey. (2 marks)
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12. State two signs of kindling in rabbits. (1 mark)
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13. State four characteristics of a good layer. (2 marks)

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14. State two disadvantages of branding as a method of identification. (2 marks)

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15. State four disadvantages of embryo transplant. (2 marks)

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16. State the difference between close breeding and line breeding. (1 mark)
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17. State two advantages of contemporary comparison as a method of selection. (1 mark)

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18. State what is added to the York at isthmus during egg formation in a hen. (1 mark)
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19. State the role of prostate glands in the bull. (1 mark)
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SECTION B (20mks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
20. A farmer wanted to prepare a feed ration containing 20% DCP (Digestible Crude Protein). He
used oats which contain 12% DCP and Simsim seed cake which contains 50% DCP. Using the
Pearson’s square method, compute the amounts of oat and simsim seed cake he would use to
make a 100kg ration. Show your working. (4mks)
20. Study the diagram of the digestive system of a farm animal shown below and answer the
questions that follow.
a) Name the parts labelled P, Q, R and S. (2 marks)
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b) State the function of the part labelled R. (1 mark)

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c) Give two reasons why livestock with the above parts are able to digest cellulose food material.
(2 marks)
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d) In which parts labelled P, Q, R and S would a nylon paper be found if fed on by an animal with
the above digestive system? (1 mark)
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22. Study the illustration below and answer the question beneath.
(a) What causes curled toe paralysis? (1 mark)

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(b) State two other deficiency symptoms besides curled toe paralysis. (2 marks)
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(c) State four sources of vitamin B2. (2 marks

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23. Study the illustrations below and then answer the questions that follow
(a) Name the types of bees labelled N , O and P . (1mark)

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(b) State two functions of bee labelled P int the colony. (1mark)
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(c) Name two parasites that attack the bees in the colony. (1mark)
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25. The diagram below shows a type of a fence found in a farm. Use it to answer the questions that
follow;
a) Identify the above type offence. (1mark)

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b) Name the parts labeled G, H, J and K. (2marks)

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c) State one use part labeled K in a fence. (1mark)

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d) State the appropriate hole depth for posts labeled G and H. (1mark)
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SECTION C
Answer only two questions in this section in the spaces provided after question 28
26.
(a) Describe the rearing of a piglet to a mature pig. (10mks)
(b) Explain the life cycle of liver fluke. (10mks)
27. (a) Explain 10 signs of good health in livestock. (10mks)

(b) State advantages of the top bar hive. (5mks)
(c) Describe the procedure of harvesting fish from a pond. (5mks)
28 (a) Describe 5 parts of a spray race (10mks)

(b) State the structural requirements of a deep litter house in which birds are totally confined.
(5mks)
(c) Describe the procedure of wax processing. (5mks)
SERIES 2
BUSINESS STUDIES
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
For examiners use only.
QUESTIONS MARKS
1-21
Answer All Questions

1. Identify any four characteristics of human wants (4mks)
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2. List four special delivery mail services offered by Post Office (4mks)
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3. Give three reasons why transporting oil by pipeline has become popular than roads(3mks)
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4. Compute the missing figures in the table below (3mks)

Capital Assets Liabilities
a) 50,630 90,450 __________________
b) _______________ 30,420 11,110
c) 20,560 ____________ 30,480
5. State four functions of an entrepreneur (4mks)

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6. State three circumstances under which a manufacturer would not require a lot of warehousing
facilities (3mks)
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7. For each of the following types of accounts, Indicate by writing DR or CR, the side of record for
increase and decrease (4mks)
Type of account Increase Decrease
Assets
Capital
Revenue
Expense
8. Give four features of parastatals (4mks)
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9. Identify four ways in which commercial banks facilitates payment on behalf of their customers.
(4mks)
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10. State four disadvantages of concentrating industries in one area within a country. (4mks)
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11. State four factors that may cause an increase in the supply of a product (4mks)
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12. The following details were available in the books of Sambu Traders as at 30/12/2001.(4mks)
Kshs
Premises 28,000
Fixtures and fittings 14,000
Creditors 6,000
Bank overdraft 4,000
Cash in hand 2,300
Debtors 4,600
5 year loan 8,000
Stock 4,000
Capital 34,900
Prepare a balance sheet as at 31st December 2001 (5mks)
13. Give four demerits of using television in advertising (4mks)

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14. Munda insured his shop against the risk of fire for Kshs 80,000 to cover the goods valued at Kshs
240,000. Fire destroyed his property valued at Kshs 90,000.
i) Compute how much he would be paid by the insurer (3mks)
15. Mention four circumstances in which oral communication may be used (4mks)
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16. Give five reasons why filing is important in an office. (5mks)

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17. State any four services of retailers to consumers (4mks)

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18. In the spaces provided below state the business document to which each of the following
statements relate. (4mks)
Statement Document
a) Informs the buyer when goods were dispatched
and by what means
b) Request by seller for payment in advance
c) Used to correct an undercharge in an invoice
d) Shows details of the transactions between a

seller and a buyer during a given period
19. Explain five benefits a trader would enjoy by operating a business alone. (10mks)
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20. Explain five business malpractices that consumers used to be protected against by the
government. (10mks)
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21. Discuss the factors to consider when choosing a channel of distribution (10mks)
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SERIES 2
ENGLISH
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
 The exam has FIVE sections.
 All the sections are compulsory.
 Write your answers in space provided.
 The exam carries 100 marks.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

S/NO SECTION MAXIMUM MARKS STUDENTS SCORE
1 Functional Writing 20
2 Excerpt 25
3 Cloze test 10
4 Oral Skills 30
5 Poetry 15
Grand Total 100 marks
QUESTION 1: FUNCTIONAL SKILLS (20MKS)
Imagine you are the secretary of your school’s health club. Your club recently attended a COVID-19
sensitization workshop at Kisumu Hotel in Kisumu. During the workshop, the following
presentations were made: COVID-19 prevention measures in school, handling COVID-19 cases
in schools and mental health care. Write a report on the COVID-19 sensitization workshop. In
your report, also include the problems the club experienced while attending the workshop and
recommendations for future workshops.
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QUESTION 2: EXCERPT (25 MARKS)
Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow (25 marks)
"Believe me, officer," he told the youth. "Without this medicine, I couldn't live a day."
"Is that right?" The youth yawned, making even more obvious his indifference to what he had just
heard.
"I wouldn't know, sir," he added, meaning he could not be any less interested, his interestbeing zero
already. Then, suddenly, he snapped to alert. He had remembered something. "Hey! You could
hurt other people with that."
"With this needle?"
"Yes, with that needle."
"And what would I use for my next shot?" "Just as I thought. What next shot?" "Officer, let me ask
you something. How old do you think I am? seventy?" "Yes, plus or minus five."
"That's correct. Now, out of every one hundred people in that age range, thirty of us are diabetic.
We are unable to regulate the sugar level in our blood, and that kills most of us. This medicine is
what keeps those of us who survive alive." He brandished his cellophane pouch again. "We
shoot it into our veins with needles like that one."
"That may be so, sir. But you cannot take that stuff in. Leave it here with me." "I'll do no such thing
if I have to wait here until the cows come home."
"What cows? Sir, you are holding up the line." "This needle is my life, officer."
QUESTIONS
a) Place the excerpt in its immediate 4 marks
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b) Discuss three major issues in this excerpt 6 marks

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c) Discuss two-character traits of Comrade Melusi in this excerpt. (4 marks)

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d) "I wouldn't know, sir." Add a question tag. (1 mark)

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e) Discuss any three aspects of style in this excerpt. (6 marks)

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f) Explain the meaning of the following expressions from the excerpt. (4 marks)
i) Yearned
ii) Brandished
iii) Holding up
iv) Indifference
QUESTION 3: CLOZE TEST 10 MARKS
Fill in each of the blank spaces in the passage below with the most appropriate word.
We all have certain goals in life. Goals vary among people. For one person a goal would be to get
(1)________________ of debt, while for another person it would be to (2)__________________
a house, while for someone else; it could be a (3)_________________ in an exotic location.
(4)_________________, a bad goal can sap your energy and distract you
(5)_________________making progress. A good goal, on the other hand, can provide the clarity
and motivation you need to (6)________________ your dreams. (7)_______________, people
confuse a goal (8)________________ a wish. A goal is (9)_______________ from a wish. For
example, you may want to be a rich person; this is a wish and not a goal. A goal has to be
realistic, measurable and has to be (10)________________ within a specific time frame.
QUESTION 4: ORAL SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow
(a) She dwelt among untrodden ways
Besides the springs of dove;
A maid whom there was none to praise
And very few to love
A violet by mossy stone

Half-hidden from the eye!
Fair as a star, when only one
Is shining in the sky
She lived unknown, and few could know

When Lucy ceased to be:
But she in her grave, and oh,
The difference to me!

QUESTIONS
1. Describe the rhyme scheme of the above poem. (2mks)
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2. Apart from rhyme how else has the poem achieved rhythm? (4mks)
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3. Which words would you stress in stanza 1 line 4, and why? (2mks)
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4. If you were to recite the poem in a drama festival, what two performance features would you
employ in the last stanza? Give reasons. (2mks)
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(b) Provide homophones for the following words. (3mks)

Miner ……………………………..
Berry ……………………………..
Clime ……………………………..
(c)Underline silent letters in the words below. (4mks)
Gnu
Debris
Heir
Fracas
(d) Choose the odd one out in each set considering the underline consonant. (3mks)
ginger gin jam giggle
chief child chef cheap
(e)Outline the riddling session. (6mks)

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(f) What should one do during a debate to make his/her presentation effective? (4mks)
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QUESTION 5: GRAMMAR 15 MARKS

(a) The sentences below are erroneous. Rewrite by correcting the errors. (4marks)
(i) The playfull puppy ran besides me.
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(ii) The boy ran passed me.
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(iii) I will not come late until late in the knight.
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(iv) The two restlers are argueing again in the ring.
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(b) Choose the more suitable option from the bracket to fill in the blank space. (5marks)
i) …………………………………….stars are there in the sky? (how many, how much)
ii) ………………………………….water is in the lake? (how many, how much)
iii) There is ………………………………at the gate. (anything, something)
iv) She met a………………………….of tourist on her way to school. (flock, tribe)
v) There was a …………………………….of cats at the beach. (army, nuisance)
(c) Fill in the most suitable preposition. (3marks)

i) I feel really sorry …………………….his daughter.
ii) I have to be polite …… everyone.
iii) You shouldn’t be angry ……….her for revealing your secret.
(d) Put the most suitable form of the word in brackets. (3marks)
(i) The cat chased its tail ……………………………………………. (frantic)
(ii) Today another probe was …………………………………………….launched. (success)
(iii) In their eyes shone …………………………………………… (happy)
*** E N D ***
SERIES 2
KISWAHILI
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
MAAGIZO
a. Jibu maswali yote.
b. Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika karatasi hii ya maswali.
c. Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
d. Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kuwa kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee
Swali Upeo Alama

1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
Jumla 80

1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha jibu maswali
Zaraa ndio uti wa mgongo wa taifa la Kenya. Viwanda vingi nchini hutegemea kilimo kama malighafi
na kuwalisha wafanyakazi. Licha ya umuhimu wa sekta hii, mkulima ambaye ndiye nguzo ya zaraa
anaendelea kukabiliwa na matatizo mbalimbali yanayokwamiza juhudi zake.
Mojawapo ya matatizo yanayomkabili mkulima ni ukosefu wa ushauri wa zaraa. Wataalamu
wanaotarajiwa kumshauri mkulima kuhusu njia bora za kuzalisha na kuongeza pato lake ni haba
ikilinganishwa na idadi ya wakulima wanaohitaji ushauri. Wachache walioko nao wanakwamizwa
na mambo tofauti. Mathalani, utawapata hawaendi nyanjani ili kukutana na wakulima kwa kuwa
hawana vyombo vya usafiri. Iwapo vipo, huenda petroli ikawa ni kizungumkuti Halikadhalika,
usisahau kuwa baadhi ya wataalamu hawa ni walazadamu au fisadi. Kuna wale wanaofika ofisini
na kushinda siku nzima wakisoma gazeti huku wakijaza miraba, wakicheza bao au karata. Kuna
wale nao ambao hufika ofisini wakaangika koti au sweta kitini ili waonekane kuwa bado wapo na
kisha kutokomea kwenda kushughulikia mambo yao ya kibinafsi yasiyohusu ndewe wala sikio kazi
waliyoajiriwa kuifanya.
Ukosefu wa sera mwafaka kuhusu ardhi nalo ni tatizo jingine linalotatiza kilimo nchini. Serikali
haijaweka sera mahususi kuhusu matumizi ya ardhi. Wananchi wengi huongozwa na taratibu za
utamaduni za nasaba zao. Taratibu hizi hupendekeza ugawaji wa ardhi kwa minajili ya urithi
kulingana na warithi waliopo. Si ajabu kuwa kote nchini, ardhi inayofaa kwa kilimo
imekatwakakatwa vipande vidogovidogo ambavyo haviwezi kuwa na faida kwa zaraa.
Kushindwa kwa mkulima kuongeza virutubishi ardhini ni changamoto nyingine inayokabili kilimo
nchini. Ulimaji wa kile kipande cha ardhi mwaka nenda mwaka rudi, bila kukipa nafasi ya
kukipumzisha, huufanya mchanga kupoteza virutubishi muhimu vinavyohitajiwa na mimea. Hili
nalo huchangia kupunguza uzalishaji wa mazao. Ili kutatua tatizo hili, wakulima wengi hukimbilia
mbolea za kisasa ambazo badala ya kumsaidia, humwongezea madhila. Mbolea hizi
zinatambulikana kuchangia uchafuzi wa mchanga na ardhi.
Mabadiliko ya hali ya anga nayo huongeza msururu wa madhila ya mkulima. Mabadiliko haya
yamemfanya mkulima kushindwa kupanga wakati anaotakiwa kutayarisha shamba, kupanda,
kupalilia, kunyunyizia dawa na kadhalika kwa sababu mvua imekuwa adimu. Badala yake
panakuwa na vipindi virefu vya kiangazi ambavyo huathiri bidii za mkulima. Maji nayo
yanaendelea kupungua na wakulima wengi hawawezi kukimu mahitaji ya unyunyizaji maji
mashambani.
Maradhi pamoja na wadudu waharibifu kama vile viwavi, kupe na mbung’o ni changamoto
nyingine inayotatiza juhudi za mkulima hapa nchini. Haya hupunguza uzalishaji wa mkulima au
wakati mwingine kupunguza mifugo au mimea yake.
Kwa sadfa, iwapo mkulima ataweza kuzalisha mazao licha ya msururu huu wa vikwazo; ana tatizo
jingine linalomngojea: ukosefu wa soko kwa mazao yake. Aghalabu, maeneo mengi yanayotoa
mazao ya kilimo kwa wingi huwa na matatizo ya usafiri. Njia na barabara huwa mbovu na
hazipitiki. Mazao mengi huwa hayafiki sokoni kwa wakati na huwa ni hasara kwa wakulima.
Fauka ya hayo, gharama ya uzalishaji wa mazao ya kilimo hapa nchini huwa ya juu zaidi kuliko
faida anayopata mkulima. Watu wengi wameacha kutegemea kilimo kama njia ya ajira kwa kuwa
hakilipi. Hii ni zaidi ya ushindani wa bidhaa za kilimo kutoka nje ya nchi ambao ni tatizo jingine
linalomkabili mkulima. Mara nyingune wakulima wa kutoka nje ya nchi husaidiwa na serikabi zao
kuzalisha mazao kwa kufidiwa au kupewa karadha. Mazao kama haya yaingiapo sokoni huuzwa
kwa bei ya chini na hayawezi kushindana na yale ya wale wasiopata mchango wowote kutoka kwa
serikali kama wakulima wa hapa nchini.
Mkulina wa Kenya anahitaji msaada wa dharura ili aweze kunyanyua kilimo ambacho ni uti wa
mgongo wa uchumi wetu. Lau haya hayatofanyika, uchumi wetu utaendelea kudidimia.
MASWALI
(a) Ipe taarifa hii anwani mwafaka . (ala.1)
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(b) Kilimo kina umuhimu gani humu nchini? (ala.2)

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(c) Ni kwa nini wataalamu wa kilimo waliopo hawawafai wakulima nyanjani? (ala.4)
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(d) Eleza changamoto ya mkulima katika kuzalisha mazao ya kutosha (ala.4)

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(e) Kwa nini watu wengi wameacha kutegemea kilimo kama njia ya ajira (ala.2)
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(f) Eleza msamiati ufuatao kama ulivyotumiwa katika taarifa. (ala.2)
(i) Walazadamu
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(ii) Karadha
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2. UFUPISHO (ALAMA 15)

Dhuluma kwa wanawake sio matokeo ya siasa baada ya uhuru, bali inatokana na hali iliyokuwepo
tangu enzi za mababu zetu; kabla ya ukoloni. Kubaguliwa na kudhulumiwa kwa wanawake kisiasa
kunaoana na kunyonywa kwake kijamii kunakoshuhudiwa siku nenda miaka rudi.
Elimu ya jadi ilimwandaa mwanamke kuwa chombo kitiifu cha mwanamume. Mwanamke aliandaliwa
katika unyago na katika mfumo mzima wa malezi kuwa chombo cha kumtumikia mwanamume-
kumstarehesha, kumfariji, kumlisha na kumzalia watoto. Mwanamke tangu jadi hakuruhusiwa
kushiriki katika shughuli za kisiasa na utawala wala hakuna mtu aliyeamini kwamba mwanamke
angeweza kushikilia wadhifa wowote wa uongozi.
Demokrasia ya jadi naihusudu sana; ambapo wazee walikaa chini ya mbuyu na kuamua mambo ya
jumuiya. Mahakama ya kijiji ilikuwa aghalabu ni ya wazee na wanaume peke yao. Hakukuwa na
mwanamke aliyeshirikishwa, hata kama alikuwa ajuza. Sifa waliyokuwa nayo wanawake ni ile ya
usihiri na uganga. Mwanamke yeyote aliyezeeka alidhaniwa kuwa bingwa wa uchawi, ulozi na
ushirikina. Kwa hivyo, wanawake ndio waliokuwa washirikina wakubwa. Maana fursa ya kupata
elimu pana zaidi hawakuwa nayo. Si ajabu kuwa mwanamke alipojitokeza na kusema jambo Ia
busara, alipuuzwa na pengine kutukanwa hadharani.
Kwa bahati nzuri. kumezuka mwamko uliotuingiza katika enzi mpya. Vita vya wanawake vya kujihami
na kujiendeleza katika ulimwengu unaotawaliwa na wanaume vimetapakaa kote katika kila sehemu
ya dunia. Wanawake wengi wamekiuka misingi na mizizi ya utamaduni na kung’oa asasi za kijamii
na itikadi ambazo daima zimeendelea kumnyanyasa na kumuumbua utu mwanamke tangu jadi.
Watetezi wa haki za wanawake zamani walilaumu suala la serikali za mataifa kutochukua hatua za
utekelezaji wa maazimio yaliyoendelea kupitishwa na Umoja wa Mataifa mwaka hadi mwaka.
Huku masuala ya wanawake ya kijamii, utu na utamaduni yakishangiliwa kupitishwa, watetezi
wameeleza wasiwasi wao ikiwa kupitishwa kwa maazimio kutasaidia kuileta maendeleo ya haraka
kwa wanawake kimataifa na katika nchi moja. Fauka ya hayo, baadhi ya wachunguzi wanaonelea
kuwa maazimio mengi hayadokezi hatua za kufikia haki za wanawake.
Maazimio mengine yanazungumzia kuhusu kuondolewa kwa ubaguzi dhidi ya wanawake, kushiriki
kwao katika uendelezaji wa amani ya kimataifa na ushirikiano wa kimataifa, majukumu yao katika
jamii, mfuko wa Umoja wa Mataifa wa wanawake (Unifem) na kuimarisha hadhi ya wanawake
katika sekretariati ya Umoja wa Mataifa miongoni mwa shughuli nyingine katika mkabala huu.
Wanawake wameonyesha vipaji vyao katika nyanja mbalimbali za maisha siasa, uchumi, utawala na
kadhalika. Wanawake wamejikakamua na kudhihirisha kuwa wao pia wanajukumu muhimu Ia
kutekeleza iii kuyaongoza maisha yao na ya watu wengine. Wadumishaji wa dhuluma za kijinsia
hawana budi kusalimu amri na kuukubali ukweli huu, wapende wasipende. Mtazamo juu ya haki
sawa unatokana na kukubaliwa na kuondolewa kwa ama zote za ubaya dhidi ya wanawake. Kwa
bahati mbaya, itikadi na mila za kiasili bado hazitupi nafasi ya kuwashangilia wanawake
wanaojitolea mhanga kutetea hadhi yao pamoja na ya wanyonge wengine. Wao huonekana kama
waasi, wapinga mila na watovu wa utii.
MASWALI:
UFUPISHO
(a) Bila kubadilisha maana asilia,fupisha aya tatu za kwanza (Maneno 45 – 55) (alama 6)
Matayarisho
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Nakala safi
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(b) Kwa kurejelea aya tatu za mwisho,pambanua hoja muhimu zinazoguziwa na mwandishi.
(Maneno 60 – 65) (alama 7)
Matayarisho
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Nakala safi
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

(a) i) Sauti mwambatano ni nini? (alama.1)
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ii) Toa mfano mmoja wa neno lenye sauti mwambatano (alama.1)
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(b) Andika neno lenye silabi iliyo na muundo wa KKKI. (alama.1)
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(c) Tambua aina za nomino katika sentensi ifuatayo:

Ulafi wake fisi unawashangaza wengi. (alama.2)
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(d) Andika sentensi ifuatayo upya ukigeuza nomino kuwa kitenzi (alama 1)
Alionyesha ukakamavu baada ya kupata tiba.
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(e) i) Eleza maana ya mzizi wa neno (alama.1)

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.ii) tambua mzizi katika neno alifiwa (alama1)

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(f) Tunga sentensi kudhihirisha matumizi mawili ya kibainishi (alama.2)

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(g) Ainisha kitenzi katika sentensi:

Kitabu kilichopotea ni changu (alama.1)
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(h) Tunga sentensi na uonyeshe shamirisho na chagizo (alama.4)
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(i) Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo

Musa alipika na kula chakula cha mtoto (alama.2)
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(j) Tofautisha sentensi zifuatazo kimaana (alama.2)

Waziri angekuwa na habari angefanya maamuzi
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Waziri angalikuwa na habari angalifanya maamuzi
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(k) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya ukubwa wingi

Nguo iliyofuliwa na mwanamke huyo imekauka. (alama.2)
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(l) Andika katika usemi wa taarifa.

“Masomo yetu yatakuwa rahisi mwaka huu hivyo hatutaumia sana,” alisema Amina (alama.3)
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(m) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha jedwali.
Zeraki waliingia mtandaoni na wengi wananufaika. (alama 4)
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(n) Kwa kutunga sentensi toa matumizi mawili ya ‘na’. (alama.4)

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(o) Tunga sentensi moja ili kutofautisha matumizi ya maneno haya shaba/ shamba (alama.2)
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(p) Fafanua maana mbili tofauti za sentensi hii.

Wanafunzi walipanda mti (alama 2)
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(q) Onyesha miundo yoyote mitatu ya kirai Nomino (alama 3)

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(r) Andika kinyume cha: Furaha amehama kwetu. (alama 1)
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4. ISIMU JAMII
a) Taja mambo manne yanayopelekea kufifia/kufa kwa lugha, (alama 4)
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b) Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali yafuatayo

...ninapinga hoja iliyotolewa na mheshimiwa waziri wa Fedha ya kupiga marufuku matumizi ya
mifuko ya plastiki. Baada ya kumsikiza kwa makini, ninapenda kumkosoa kwa kudhihirisha
kuwa....... kulingana na kifungu nambari ...
i) Bainisha sajili ya mazungumzo hayo. (alama 2)
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ii) Huku ukitoa mifano mwafaka, eleza sifa nne za sajili hii kwa mujibu wa kifungu hiki. (alama 4).
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SERIES 2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) This paper consists of SIX questions.
c) Answer any five questions on the foolscaps provided.
d) Each question carries 20 marks.

Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL
Score

Answer any five questions
1 a) State four reasons why the Bible had to be compiled into its present form by the early
Christian (8 Marks)
b) State six challenges that Prophet Elijah faced in Israel (6 marks).
c) What lessons can Christians learn about social justice from the story of Naboth’s vineyard?
(6 marks)
2a) Outline the activities carried out by the Israelites on the night of the Passover. (7 Marks)
b) Explain the conditions given to the Israelites during the renewal of the Sinai covenant.(7 Marks)
c) How do Christians show their respect for God? (6 Marks)
3 a) Outline what Angel Gabriel revealed about John Baptist when he announced his birth to
Zechariah.
b) Describe the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman in Luke (6 Marks)
7:36-50 (8 Marks)
c) Outline the lessons that Christians learn from the incident when Jesus went to pray
with his disciples on the Mount of Olives (6 Marks)
4 a) Explain what the teaching of Jesus about the vine and the branches in John 15:1-10 reveal
about the unity of believers. (8 Marks)
b) Give reasons why prophet Amos was against the way the Israelites worshipped God(7 Marks)
c) State five ways in which Christians are able to identify those who possess the gift of the Holy
Spirit
(5 Marks)
5 a) Explain the significance of the symbolic act of buying of land by prophet
Jeremiah. (8Marks)
b) In what ways did Prophet Jeremiah suffer while carrying out his work in Judah? (6 Marks)
c) List six moral values that a Christian can acquire from the life of Prophet
Jeremiah. (6 Marks)
6 a) What was the role of rainmakers in the African community? (7 Marks)

b) Explain how wealth was acquired in African Traditional Society. (7 Marks)
c) Identify moral values taught to the youths during initiation to adulthood in traditional
African communities. (6 Marks)

SERIES 2
GEOGRAPHY
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B
(c) Answer all the questions in section A
(d) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
(e) All answers for questions 7 to 10 must be written in the spaces provided after Question 10.

Section Questions Candidate’s Maximum
Score Score
A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score 100
SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. (a) Differentiate between afforestation and agro-forestry. (2 marks)
(b) Give three reasons why afforestation is being undertaken in Kenya. (3 marks)
2. (a) Identify two forces responsible for the spherical shape of the earth. (2 marks)
(b) Give three reasons why the interior of the earth is still hot. (3 marks)
3. The diagram below shows a weather station measuring instrument. Use it to answer the following
questions.
(a) Identify the instrument. (1 mark)

(b) Briefly describe how the instrument functions. (4 marks)
4. The diagram below shows a type of mass wasting.
(a) What is mass wasting? (2 marks)

(b) Name the mass wasting process shown above. (1 mark)
(c) State two conditions necessary for the process mentioned in (a) above. (2 marks)
5. Describe how the present-day continents were formed. (5 marks)

SECTION B.
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. (a) Study the map of Kisumu East 1:50,000 (sheet 116/2) provided and answer the following
questions.
i. What type of map is Kisumu East map extract? (1mark)
ii. Give two scales that have been used in the map extract. (2marks)
iii. What is the bearing of the trigonometrical station at grid square 0383 from the Air Photo
Principal Point at grid square 0281? (2marks)
(b). i. Measure the length of the All Weather Road Bound Surface B2/1 from the junction at Grid
square 9793 to the western edge of the map extract. Give your answer in kilometer. (2mks)
ii. What is the altitude of the highest point in the area covered by the map? (2marks)
(c). Draw a rectangle measuring 16cm by 10cm to represent the area enclosed by Eastings 02 and
10 and Northing 90 and 00. (1mark)
On the rectangle, mark and name the following. (4marks)
 Nyando escarpment.
 All Weather Road Bound Surface C543/1
 Prison
 Agricultural Sugar Research Station.
(d). i. Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (5marks)
ii. Citing evidence from the map, identify three social services offered in Kisumu Municipality.
6marks)
7. (a) Name any three major minerals mined in Kenya. (3 marks)

(b) Describe the open cast mining method. (4 marks)
(c)Explain how the following factors influence mining:
(i) Value of mineral. (2 marks)
(ii) Mode of occurrence of the mineral. (2 marks)
(iii) World market prices. (2 marks)
(d) Explain any four benefits of mining trona to the economy of Kenya. (8 marks)
(e) Give four by–products of crude oil. (4 marks)
8. (a)The diagram below shows the hydrological cycle. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
(i) Name the processes marked X, Y and Z. (2 marks)

(ii) State four factors that determine the process marked W. (4 marks)
(b) With the aid of well labelled diagrams, explain how ox-bow lakes are formed. (8 marks)
(c) Explain three positive effects of rivers and the resultant features to human activities.(6 marks)
(d) Your class is required to carry out a field study of a river in its lower stage within the local
environment.
(i) What preparations would you make for the study? (3 marks)
(ii) Give two features that you are likely to observe. (2 marks)
9. (a)(i) Explain three factors that influence distribution of vegetation in Kenya. (6 marks)
(ii) State three major vegetation zones in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b)(i) Describe any four characteristics of the tropical rainforests. (4 marks)
(ii) Give four factors that limit the exploitation of tropical rainforest in Africa. (4 marks)
(c) What is climax vegetation? 2 mark)
(d) Explain three factors that have led to a decline of natural grassland in Kenya.(6 marks)

10. (a) (i) What is vulcanicity. (2 marks)
(ii) With the help of a diagram describe how a lava plateau is formed. (6 marks)
(iii) Distinguish between a crater and a caldera (2 marks)
(b) Explain four negative influences of vulcanicity and associated features to human activities in
Kenya (8 marks)
(c)Suppose you have been asked by your Geography department to carry out a field study of
volcanic activities around your school.
(i) Design a working schedule you would use during the day of the study. (3 marks)
(ii) State four follow-up activities you may have been involved in after the field study.(4 marks)
SERIES 2
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:

 This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
 Answer all questions in section A, three questions from section B , and two questions from
section C
 Answers to all questions must be written in a separate booklet provided.
SECTION QUESTIONS MARKS

A 1-17
B 18
19
20
21
C 22
23
24

SECTION A Answer all questions from this section.(25marks)
1. Give one archaeological source of information on history and government (1mk)
2. Identify two reasons that made the early human beings to live in groups during the Old Stone
Age Period (2mks)
3. State the main factor that led to the development of early agriculture in Egypt (1mk)
4. Name the dispersal area of the Eastern Bantu (1mk)
5. State two political roles played by the Orkoiyot among the Nandi (2mks)
6. Identify two main items of trade from the interior of Kenya during the long distance trade (2mks)
7. Give two economic factors that promote national unity (2mks)
8. State two ways in which Africans participated in the Trans-Atlantic Trade (2mks)
9. Identify two negative effects of the development of motor vehicle transport (2mk)
10. Give one invention that revolutionized food preservation during the 19th Century (1mk)
11. State the main factor that led to the growth of ancient town of Kilwa (1mk)
12. Identify one symbol of unity in Shona Kingdom during pre-colonial period (1mk)
13. Give one way in which constitution of Kenya guarantees the Rule of Law (1mk)
14. Identify two peaceful methods that were used by Europeans to acquire colonies in Africa (2mk)
15. State two roles of Emirs in the British colonial administration in Nigeria (2mks)
16. Give one way in which the construction Uganda Railway speeded up the colonization of Kenya
(1mk)
17. State one characteristic of early political association which were formed in Kenya before 1939
(1mk)
SECTION B.(45 MARKS)

Answer any three questions from this section.
18. (a) Identify three inventions that led to Agrarian Revolution in Britain (3mks)
(b)Explain six effects of Agrarian Revolution in Britain (10mks)
19. (a) Give three disadvantages of coal as a source of industrial energy during the 19 th century
(3mks)
(b) Explain six factors which promoted development of industries in India (12mks)
20. (a) Give three factors that enabled European powers to colonize Africa in the late 19 th Century
(3mks)
(b)Explain six reforms that were introduced by the German administration after the Maji Maji
uprising (12mks)
21(a) State three reasons why the British used direct rule in Zimbabwe (3mks)
(b) Explain six reasons why the system of Assimilation failed in areas outside the four communes
in Senegal (12mks)
SECTION C ;( 30 MARKS)
Answer any TWO questions from this section.
22. (a) State five circumstances that can make a Kenyan citizen to be denied right to life(5mks)
(b) Explain five political responsibilities of a Kenyan citizen according to the constitution of
Kenya (10mks)
23. (a) Identify five sources of the British Constitution (5mks)

(b) Describe five features of the independence constitution of Kenya (10mks)
24. (a) Name five survival rights of children in Kenya (5mks)

(b) Explain five reasons why it is important to respect human rights (10mks)

SERIES 2
MATHEMATICS
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II.
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question.
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used,
except where stated otherwise.
For Examiner’s Use Only

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Section I
Grand
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total Total
SECTION I (50MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.
of  6  2 32 1 12
3
1. Given that 1 5 4 9  n  n find the value of n .
5
(3 marks)
1 8  2  1 5  10
2. Use square roots, reciprocal and square tables to evaluate to 4 significant figures the expression.
2
 0.0432   
1 3 
 (3marks)
2
 4.321 

3. A line passes through the points A(3, 4) and B(1, 4) . Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector
of line AB. (3marks)
4. Find the values of x which satisfies the equation.

1 3 x 3
32x  16 4
2
(4 marks)
5. Find the integral values of x that satisfy the inequality.

3x  4  8x  1  2x  13 (3 marks)
6. Solve for x in the equation:
log 3 x  23  log 2 16  1  log 3 9  x (3 marks)
7. Maina and Otiende live 60km apart. Maina leaves his home at 9.00am cycling towards Otiende’s
house at 20km/h. Otiende leaves his home at 10.00am cycling towards Maina’s house at 8km/h
a) At what time did they meet? (2 marks)
b) How far is the meeting point from Maina’s house? (1 mark)
 3  2  5 
8. Given that, a    , b    and c    , and that p  2a  3b  c . Find p (3 marks)
4  1  6 

9. Find the area of the triangle ABD below, given that lines AB = 23 cm, BC = 27 cm, AC = 20 cm,
AD = 28cm and CAD  25 (4 marks)
10. The data below shows masses in grams of pieces of metal in a factory.
Mass x (g) 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency, f 1 3 3m 2 4 2m
If the mean mass is 3.85g, find the value of m . (3 marks)

11. Simplify the expression
4x 2  y 2
(3 marks)
3 y 2  7 xy  2 x 2
12. A Kenyan bank buys and sells foreign currencies at the exchange rates shown below
Buying Selling
Kshs Kshs
1 Euro 133.98 134.00
1 US Dollar 110.13 110.50
An American arrived in Kenya with 2 000 Euros. He converted all the Euros to Kenya shillings at
the bank. He spent Ksh 251 020 while in Kenya and converted the remaining Kenya shillings
into US dollars at the bank. Find the amount in Dollars that he received. (4 marks)

13. The figure drawn below is a square ABCD of sides 36.75cm. The shaded area is formed out of
two segments. DLB and DKB.
Find the area of the shaded region. (4 marks)
14. The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is 10800. Calculate
(a) The number of sides of the polygon (2 marks)
(b) The size of the exterior angle of the polygon. (1 mark)

15. Three similar pieces of timber of length 2.4 m, 3.0 m and 3.6 m are cut into equal pieces. Find the
largest possible area of a square which can be made from any of the three pieces. (3 marks)
16. a) Complete the figure below so as to make the net of a cuboid ABCDEFGH. (2 marks)
b) Hence determine the surface area of the cuboid. (2 marks)

SECTION II (50 marks)
Answer only five questions in this section in the spaces provided
17. In the figure below AOC is a diameter of the circle centre O; AB = BC and ACD = 250. EBF is
a tangent to the circle at B. G is a point on the minor arc CD.
(a) Calculate the size of:

(i) BAD (3 marks)
(ii) The obtuse BOD (2 marks)
(iii) BGD (2 marks)
(b) Show that ABE = CBF (3 marks)

18. (a) Complete the table below for the function y  2 x 2  4 x  3 for the range 4  x  2 .( 2mks)
x 4 3 2 1 0 1 2
y 3 3 13
(b) On the grid provided draw the graph of the function y  2 x 2  4 x  3 for the range  4  x  2 .(3
marks)

(c) Use your graph to estimate the roots of the equation 2x2  4x  3  0 (1 mark)
(d) (i) On the same grid draw the line y  2 x  3 (1 mark)
(ii) Find the points of intersection of the curve 2x2  4x  3  0 and the line y  2 x  3 (1 mark)
(e) Hence or otherwise form a quadratic equation with roots in (d)(ii) above (2 marks)
19. The figure below represents a quadrilateral piece of land ABCDE divided into three triangular
plots. The lengths AB and CD are 76 m and 68 m respectively. Angle BAE = 410, BEC = 590
and ECD = 1160.
(a) Find to four significant figures:

(i) The length of EB. (2 marks)
(ii) The length of EC. (2 marks)
(iii) The perimeter of the piece of land. (3 marks)
(b) The plots are to be fenced with seven strands of barbed wire leaving an entrance of 2.7m wide to
each plot. The type of barbed wire to be used is sold in rolls of lengths 580m. Calculate the
number of rolls of barbed wire that must be bought to complete the fencing of the plots.(3 mks)

20. The vertices of triangle PQR are P (0,0), Q (6, 0) and R (2, 4)
(a) Draw triangle PQR on the grid provided. (1 mark)
(b) Triangle PQR is the image of a triangle PQR under an enlargement scale factor  12
and centre (2, 2). On the same grid draw triangle PQR and write down its coordinates. (3 marks)
(c) On the same grid draw triangle PQR the image of triangle PQR under a positive quarter turn
about point (1, 1). (3 marks)
(d) Draw a triangle PQR the image of triangle PQR under reflection in the line y  1 .
(2 marks)
(e) State the type of congruence between triangle PQR and triangle PQR . (1 mark)

21. The frequency table below shows the marks scored by the 50 pupils in a mathematics test.
Marks 30  39 40  49 50  59 60  69 70  79 80  89 90  99
Number of pupils 3 4 12 15 9 4 3
(a) State the modal frequency. (1 mark)
(b) Calculate the mean mark. (3 marks)
(c) Calculate the median mark. (3 marks)
(d) Draw a histogram and a frequency polygon on the same grid provided below to represent the
above information (3 marks)
22. Two aeroplanes, T and S leave an airport A at the same time. S flies on a bearing of 060 at
750km/h while T flies on a bearing of 210 at 900 km/h.
(a) Use a suitable scale, to draw a diagram showing the relative position of the aeroplanes
after two hours. (4 marks)
(b) Use your diagram to determine:

(i) the distance between the two aeroplanes. (2 marks)
(ii) the bearing of T from S. (1 mark)
(c) Aeroplane T later flew to the East at the same speed for one hour. Show its final position
on the diagram in (a) above.
Determine:
(i) Its final distance from A. (2 marks)
(ii) Its final bearing from S. (1 mark)

23. The diagram below represents a model of a pillar. The radii of the top and the base are 14 cm
and 7 cm respectively. The height of the cylindrical part is 10cm while the height of the whole
pillar is 20 cm.
(a) Calculate the volume of the model in cm³. (6 marks)
(b) Calculate the mass of the material used to construct the pillar given that the actual height of the
whole pillar is 60m and the density of the material used is 0.84g/cm³. (Give your answer in
tonnes). (4 marks)
24. The table below shows Kenya’s tax rates a certain year.
Income (K£ p.a) Tax rates ( Ksh Per £ )
1-5220 2
5221 – 10440 3
10441 – 15660 4
15661 – 20880 5
20881 and above 6
In that year Mr. Masika earned a basic salary of Ksh 26 000 per month. He is entitled to a house
allowance of Ksh. 15 000 per month and a medical allowance of Ksh. 2 000 per month.
Calculate:
a) i) His taxable income per year in pounds. (2 marks)
ii) His monthly gross tax. (4 marks)

iii) The monthly net tax if he is given a relief of Kshs. 1 800 per month.( 2 marks)
b) Other deductions per month are as follows:

N.H.I.F Ksh 1 500, Cooperative loan Ksh 5 600, WCPS 2% of basic salary, Coop shares
Ksh 4 000
Find his monthly net pay. (2 marks)
SERIES 2
COMPUTER STUDIES
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
1. Write your name and class in the space provided above.
2. This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B.
3. Answer all the questions in section A.
4. Answer question 16 and any other 3 questions from section B.
5. All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS
A 1-15
16
17
B 18
19
20
TOTAL MARKS

SECTION A (40 MARKS)
1. Define the following terms as used in Computer studies:
(i) Nibble (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Word (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
2. State the difference between Batch and real time processing then give an example in each case
(3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
3. Mr. Baraka games teacher at Chianda High School wants to invite several schools for the hockey
tournament. He was advised to use mail merging technique to create invitation letters for the
respective schools identified. State three benefits of this technique (3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
4. The final activity in data processing cycle is producing the desired output. Mention three ways of
disseminating the desired output (3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
5. Convert AAFH to Octal number system (2marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
6. A company has decided to computerize their operations. They have decided to purchase packages
standard software instead of developing their own programs. Give three advantages of standard
software. (3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
7. A computer student from Bondo Technical defined multitasking as a concept where computer
process more than one tasks at the same time. Agree or disagree with this student and support
your answer (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
8. 01102+x2=10102 Find the value of x in base 10 and 16 (4marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______
9. State the functions of the following disk management operation.
(i) Partitioning (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Disk defragmentation (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
10. List two limitation of low-level programming languages (3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

11. Demonstrate three ways in which -2110 can be represented in a binary form (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Describe the concept of binary search method as used in sequential file organization (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
13. Mention three advantages of electronic data processing (3marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
14. Bena has a new laser printer to print letters for his business. Bena connects his printer to his
computer using the USB port. Give three benefits of using the USB port to connect the printer to
the computer (3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
15. State two ways of resolving windows related problem like missing operating system (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
SECTION B: (60 MARKS)
(Answer Question 16 And Any Other Three Questions From This Section)
16.
(a) Define the following terms as used in programming:
(i) Programming (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Syntax (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
(iii) Bug (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
(b) Mention three items available in a fourth-generation programming language environment which
make programming an easier task than the Third-generation languages (3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(c) Describe three methods of testing a program for errors (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Describe three language processors used by computer programmers when developing a new
program (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Describe three main features of a good algorithm (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17.
(a) The binary pattern 110100010101 can be interpreted in more than one way.
(i) State the hexadecimal equivalent (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
__________________
(ii) State the denary equivalent if it represents two complement of a binary number (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
__________________
(b) Convert 214.62510 to binary (3mks)
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
(c) Use twos compliment to subtract 2010 from 1010 and write your answer in decimal notation
(4mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_________________________
(d) Evaluate 10100112 +100102 -010102 (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(e) State two difference between Ones and Twos complements (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
18. A database was used to keep results for a class of students. Part of the database is shown below in
Table called MARKS.
Name School Math English Science History Geography
Number
Paul 017 70 55 65 62 59
Ravi 0009 29 34 38 41 44
Chin 0010 43 47 50 45 52
John 0013 37 67 21 28 35
Diana 001 92 88 95 89 78
Rosanna 0016 21 13 11 27 15
(a) Mention the most appropriate data type for field Class ID (2mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
____
(b) State the number of records in the table above (2mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
____
(c) Identify the key field to be used in the table (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
____

(a) Give a reason for choosing the field in c above (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
___________
(b) Suggest how you can set an input mask for the name field such that data entered in the field is
automatically change to title case (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Show how the dynaset will appear if the following parameters are set as shown in the query
extract below (3marks)
Field Name Name History Geography Science Math
Table MARKS MARKS MARKS MARKS MARKS
Sort
Show √ √ √
Criteria >60
Or >60
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_________________________
(d) Write an expression that when typed at the builder will compute total marks per subject for the
students (2maks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
__________________
19.
(a) Study the worksheet below then answer the questions that follows:
A B C D E F G
1 Item code Type Qnty Price Total
2 001 Sugar 3 100 300
3 002 Tea Leaves 5 50 250
4 003 Salt 4 20 80
5 004 Rice 2 80 160
6 005 Book 10 20 200
7
8
9
10 10%
11
(i) Write a formula at cell E2 to calculate Total amount for sugar (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
___
(ii) The formula =Countif (c2:c6 >=5) was placed at cell C7, what will be the result (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
__
(iii) Prices for all items are to be increased by 10%, write a function at cell F2 to show the new price
increase per item to be copied to F3, F4, F5 and F6 (2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_
(iv) Identify the data types in cell E3, C6 and A1 (3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
__________________

(b) List four hardware or software requirement that enable a computer to have multimedia capability
(2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
__________________
(c) Mentioned two methods of checking genuineness, validity and legitimacy of a computer
software(2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
___________
(d) State four factors to consider when upgrading the computer memory modules(4marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
20.
(a) Describe how the operating system handle the following in a computer system:
(i) Data and program protection (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
___________
(ii) Interrupt (1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
___________
(iii) Deadlock(1mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
___________
(b) Kingjames saved a document in his computer during the lesson. At the end of the lesson the
teacher instructed him to delete the document, Kingjames looked for the document and was not
able to locate the document. Describe three parameters that would help him located the document
(3marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_________________________
(c) Give a reason to justify why operating systems are the first software to be installed in a computer
(2marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
___________
(d) Describe three parameters used to measure data integrity (3marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_________________________
(e) Masala Complex is a small financial institution based in a rural in Kisumu County. The
institution carries out transactions with both international and local financial organization. State
four measures that the institution need to adopt to minimize threats to its data integrity (4marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
________________________________

SERIES 2
HOME SCIENCE
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
1. This paper consists of three sections. A, B and C
2. Answer all questions in section A. Section B is compulsory. Answer the two questions in section
C.
3. Answers to questions must be written in the space provided.
4. All answers must be written in English.
For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1-21 40
B 22 20
C 20
20
Total Score 100
SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. List down two communicable diseases that are passed through water. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Mention two precautions to observe when buying a house. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Give four table etiquette rules. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. State two reasons why metal karais are not as common as plastic basins. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. List four possible causes of a miscarriage. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. State four repairs a student may carry out on their uniform. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Identify and give the meaning of the following markings on a pattern: (2marks)
a) - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
b)
c)
d)
8. Outline two ways of shortening cooking time for dry beans. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Give two reasons why fruits should be thoroughly cleaned before eating. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Outline four process that are carried out before putting clothes in water during laundry.
(2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. State three reasons why a kitchen should be well lit. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Differentiate between persuasive and competitive advertisement. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Suggest three ways of encouraging a child to play. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. What is the function of each of the following parts of a sewing machine: (2marks)
- Feed dog…………………………………………………………………………………………
- Take-up lever……………………………………………………………………………………
- Stop motion screw………………………………………………………………………………
- Tension disc…………………………………………………………………………………….
15. Mention four reasons for missed periods other than pregnancy. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. Give two ways of sterilizing hospital bedsheets. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Suggest two differences in the preparation of drop scones and pancakes. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. State three qualities of a good bathroom floor. (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. Mention two areas in a garment where diagonal tacking can be done. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. Suggest two advantages of making clothes for oneself. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Give the deficiency disease associated with each of the following nutrients: (2marks)
- Thiamine ………………………………... Retinol ……………………………………
- Ascorbic Acid………………………………. Cyanocobalamin …………………………..
SECTION B (20 marks)

Answer ALL the sections of this question in the spaces provided after the questions
22. You are doing cleaning after a Home Science practical;
a) Outline the procedure to follow in laundering the white cotton apron with a fruit stain you used
during the practical.
b) Give the procedure you will follow in cleaning a leather chair in the Home Science room.
c) Describe how you will clean the aluminium sufuria you used in cooking.
SECTION C (40 marks)

Answer any two questions in this section in the spaces provided after the questions
23.
a) Explain four rules to observe when starting weaning a baby. (6marks)
b) Discuss three dangers of having overgrown bushes around the home. (6marks)
c) Outline five hygiene rules that should be observed during a Home Science practical.
(5marks)
d) Give three ways of improving flavour of a stew. (3marks)
24.
a) Explain four ways of increasing efficiency when working in the kitchen. (6marks)
b) Discuss four ways of enhancing your health as a student. (8marks)
c) Outline six ways a family can cut down on cost of food. (6marks)
25.
a) Discuss four dangers of pregnancy in a very young girl. (8marks)
b) Outline six reasons why water is important in our diet. (6marks)
c) Mention six rules to observe when using a sewing machine. (6marks)
SERIES 2
FRENCH
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………

FRENCH
(Reading Comprehension, Grammar and
Functional Writing)
Instructions to candidates
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
3. This paper consists of 8 printed pages.
4. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.

Section Max. Score Candidate’s Score
I 15 Points
II 25 Points
III 10 Points
Total 50 Points

SECTION I: LES COMPREHENSIONS ECRITES
Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
Passage I (4 points)
Pendant les révisions et les épreuves, essayez de conserver votre rythme normal de sommeil. Evitez
de prendre des somnifères, dont les effets se font ressentir le jour de l’examen, de boire du café,
de prendre des vitamines après 15 heures. Pour mieux dormir, prenez un long bain chaud ou bien
buvez une tisane avant d’aller vous coucher. N’étudiez pas pendant la nuit, mais relisez vos cours
avant de dormir, car votre mémoire travaille pendant le sommeil.
1. Pendant l’examen :
(a) on est conseillé de : (1 ½ points)
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………...
(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) on est déconseille de : (1 ½ points)
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………...
(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) Donnez un titre au passage (1point)
……………………………………………………………………………...
Passage 2 (6 points)
Les deux auteurs du guide « classement 2005 des boulangeries de Paris » ont élu les meilleures
boulangeries de la capitale. D’abord, ils ont jugé la qualité du service, la présentation et la
décoration des boutiques. Ensuite, ils ont goûté la baguette et le croissant au beurre. Après avoir
visité une sélection de 200 boulangeries, les auteurs ont fait un classement. Ce guide est
disponible dans toutes les librairies au prix de 6 euros. Les Parisiens sauront maintenant où aller
acheter leur pain !
(a)Les deux guides ont visité combien de boulangeries à Paris ?
…………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
(b) Donnez les deux critères de classement utilisé par les auteurs ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………… …
…………………………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………………… …
………………………………………………………………………………... (1 mark)
(c) Ou est-ce qu’on peut trouver les guides ?
…………………………………………………………………………………… (½ mark)
(d) Un guide coute combien ? ……………………………………………………… (½ mark)
(e) Suite à ce classement, les parisiens connaitront les ……………………………………….
Boulangeries. (1 mark)
f) Nommez un autre produit qu’on achète à la boulangerie
……………………………………………………………………………………. (1mark)
g) Dans quel magasin est- ce- qu’on vend les légumes et les fruits ?
…………………………………………………………………………………... (1 mark)
Passage 3 (5 points)
Sophie : Allo, Nicolas ? Ce soir, tu veux aller au théâtre ?
Nicolas : Oui, pourquoi pas… j’aime bien le théâtre mais je préfère le cinéma. Tu as vu Parle
avec elle, le film de Pedro Almodovar ? Il parait qu’il est génial !
Sophie : Ah oui, c’est vrai, mais j’aimerais t’offrir une soirée plus originale. Et si on allait à l’opéra ?
On joue Le Barbier de Séville à l’opéra Garnier.
Nicolas : Bof ! Je n’aime pas beaucoup ça….
Sophie : Ah, bon… Et si on allait écouter du jazz, il y a un super concert à 20h à la cite de la
Musique.
Nicolas : Tu sais bien que je déteste le jazz. Moi, à part le rock… Tu sais, ce qui me ferait le
plus plaisir, c’est d’aller au cinéma…et après, on pourrait aller diner en amoureux au bord de la
Seine.
Sophie : Comme tu veux, c’est ton anniversaire…. Je vais appeler le cinéma pour savoir à
quelle heure passe le film d’Almodovar. Je te rappelle. Je m’occupe aussi du restau…
Nicolas : D’accord, on se retrouve après le travail. Ce soir, je termine à 20h. Je t’embrasse.
a) Il s’agit d’une conversation téléphonique entre Sophie et son…………………... (½ mark)
b) C’est l’anniversaire de qui ? ………………………………………………….… (½ mark)

c) Quel film propose Nicolas ? …………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………….………. (1 mark)
d) Nicolas aime quel type de musique ? …………………………………… (½ mark)
e) Sophie va rappeler Nicolas pour…………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
f) A quelle heure se retrouvent les deux ? ………………………………... (½ mark)
g) Ce soir, Sophie et Nicolas vont d’abord…………………………………..et

Ensuite…………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
SECTION II : LA GRAMMAIRE (25 points)

Beginning as indicated, complete the sentences below, making all appropriate changes. Avoid
unnecessary repetitions. (5 points)
a. Il n’a pas d’argent ?

Si, ………..………………………………………………………………...……………
b. Une femme attend mon père. Cette femme s’appelle Helene.

La femme …………………………………………………………………………..……
c. Ma petite sœur reste à la maison.

Hier soir ………………………………………………………………….…….………..
d. Le directeur ordonne : ‘ Faites les devoirs !’

Le directeur ordonne ………………………………………………………..……………
e. Ma cousine a beaucoup de patience.

C’est vrai, elle est très …………………………………………..…………….………….
Complete using ‘qui’, ‘que’ or ‘où’ (5 marks)
a) Valérie est ma cousine ……………………… habite à Genève
b) Je lis le livre ……………………………..ma mère a acheté hier
c) J’ai visité l’école …………………………… le président a étudié
d) C’est l’année ……………………… l’équipe a remporté la troisième victoire consécutive
e) Le film ……………………………… nous avons vu hier est intéressant.
Fill each of the blank spaces using one word. (5 marks)

………………………. Lucie,
Mon frère s’appelle Julien et………………………….. Femme est Sandra. Ils ……………………..
Deux enfants. ……………………………. Été, nous allons chez nos grands-parents Nous allons
nous baigner dans ……………………………… piscine.
As-tu fini ………………………devoirs ? Peux- ………………………. M’aider à finir mon
exercice ? Je ……………………. Organiser une fête pendant mon anniversaire samedi
prochain. Tous …………………………… cousins vont venir. Et…………………..? Tu vas
venir ?
J’attends ta réponse.
Paul.
Complétez avec ‘mieux’, ‘le mieux’, meilleur(e)(s)’ ‘le meilleur’, ‘la meilleure’ (10 points)
a. On mange …………..…………... à la cafeteria qu’au restaurant. Le steak

est………….………..
b. Mon père danse ………………………..que moi et ma mère .Dans toute la famille c’est
lui qui danse…………………………..
c. Pierre travaille ……………………..que Paul et ses résultats
sont…………………………en classe.
d. Votre gâteau est ………………..…….. que le mien. Vous cuisinez
……….………………… Que moi !
e. De tous les étudiants, c’est John qui parle……………….……….. et qui
a…………..………….. accent.

SECTION III : REDACTION
Write in French a composition of 120- 150 words on:
Either
a. Votre ami(e) rwandais vous a rendu visite et a beaucoup aimez le repas que vous lui a servi.
Ecrivez la recette pour lui/elle.
Or
b. c’est l’anniversaire de votre petit frère. Préparez le programme.

SERIES 2
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..
CLASS……………………………………………………… DATE…………………………
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This paper contains five (5) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Write your answers in the answer sheet provided.
4. All answers must be in English.
1 a) Identify five reasons why the Qur’an was revealed in portions. (5marks)
b) State seven ways used by Kenyan Muslims to preserve the holy Qur’an. (7marks)
c) With reference to suratul Nur discuss how Muslims should guard themselves against zinaa.
(8marks)
2. a) Explain the differences between Hadith Qudsy and Hadith Nabawi. (8marks)
b) Highlight the characteristics of the chain of narrators of a sound hadith. (6marks)
c) Describe five rights a Muslim should accord to the Non- Muslims. (6marks)
3. a) State five qualifications necessary for one to become a mujtahid. (5marks)

b) Why is it important for Muslims to believe in Qadar and Qadha? (5marks)
c) Discuss the factors that led to the development of schools of thought (madhahib). (10marks)

4. a) How does observing swalat inculcate good morals (virtues) in Muslims? (5marks)
b) Explain five significance of the law of Mirath in Islam. (10marks)
c) Identify five legitimate sources of earning wealth in Islam. (5marks)
5. a) Discuss the impact of Hijra in the History of Islam. (10 marks)

b) State the contributions made by Umar bin Khattab to the Islamic cause. (5 marks)
c) In which ways did Sheikh Alamin Mazrui influence the development of education among
Muslims in Kenya? (5 marks)
THE END
FOR THE FOLLOWING;
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 KCSE MOCKS
 TOP SCHOOLS MOCKS
 JOINT MOCKS
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 TOP SCHOOLS PREDICTIONS
 KCSE PREDICTIONS
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CALL/TEXT/WHATSAPP
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FORM 3 ENDTERM 2 EXAMS

(COMPREHENSIVE PAPERS ONLY)

For Marking Schemes

NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

a) Write your name and index in the spaces provided.

b) Answer All the questions in the spaces provided.

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDINDATES SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(a) Identify the process. (1mark)

3. (a) Blood group AB is a universal recipient. Explain. (1mark)

(b) Describe the characteristics of blood group AB+ve. (2marks)

(ii) Substance Q……………………………………………….…………… (1mark)

Water + Carbon (IV) Oxide Glucose + Oxygen + Energy

Name the organelle where the reaction occurs in:

(ii) Backward direction…………………………………….……………………. (1mark)

Aves S Amphibia Mammalia Reptilia

(a) Identify the main characteristics of the taxonomic group R 2marks)

(b) Name the taxonomic group S. (1mark)

7. State the causative agents of the following diseases: (2marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(b) Transport of packaged glycoproteins………………………………………………………………

(a) What process was being investigated? (1mark)

(c) Suggest a suitable control for this experiment (1mk)

13. Explain why respiratory surfaces should be:

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

15. Below is the dental formula of a mammal.

b) i) What is the mode of feeding in the mammal? (1mk)

ii) Give one reason for your answer above. (1mk)

a) Name the mammalian structure represented by the parts labeled D and E.

ii) Explain the observation in (b)i) above. (1mk)

17. 5C51H98O6 + 145CO2 → 102CO2 + 98H20 + ENEGY

b) Identify the food substances . (1mk)

21. An experiment was set up as shown below.

The set up was left for 30minutes.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ii). Name the micro-organism contained in structure L. (1mark)

(a)Name the gas X ----------------------------------------------------------------- (1mk)

a) Name the phylum in which the organisms belong. (1mark)

Grasshoppe Termites Leopard

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

31. Why is it not possible to breathe while swallowing. (2mks)

33. a) Name causative agent of each of the following diseases. (2mks)

34. a) Why are the fish gills highly vascularized (1mk)

NAME……………………………………………………. ADM NO; ……………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

2. Define the following terms as used in Chemistry: (2 Marks)

3. Give the systematic names of the following compounds: (2 Marks)

a) Write an equation for the reaction that forms gas W (1 Mark)

c) What is the effect of replacing magnesium with potassium metal? (1 Mark)

d) What is the observation made when pure gas W is ignited? (1 Mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

7. Cracking of petroleum is a major source of hydrogen for industrial use.

b) Which are the two main methods of cracking? (1 Mark)

c) Which are the three possible products of cracking? (3 Marks)

b) Which dye is least adsorbed? (1 Mark)