THE NEW INDIA ASSURANCE COMPANY LTD.

ONLINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF ASSISTANTS (TIER II)

INFORMATION HANDOUT

This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you are going to undertake and important
instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in preparing for the
examination.
The Tier II online examination will be conducted, only for the candidates who are shortlisted on the basis of results of Tier
I examination.
The online examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice as stated below :

Structure of the test for Main Examination

Number of Maximum
Sr. No. Name of Test Medium of Exam Duration
Questions Marks
1 Test of English Language 40 50 English 30 Minutes
2 Test of Reasoning 40 50 English / Hindi 30 Minutes
3 Test of Numerical Ability 40 50 English / Hindi 30 Minutes
4 Test of Computer Knowledge 40 50 English / Hindi 15 Minutes
5 Test of General Awareness 40 50 English / Hindi 15 Minutes
TOTAL 200 250 120 Minutes

The total time for the test is 120 minutes; however you may have to be at the venue for approximately 180 minutes
including the time required for logging in, collection of the call letters, going through the instructions etc. All tests except
test of English Language will be provided in English and Hindi. Each test is separately timed. Candidates can attempt
questions in a particular test during the time allotted for that test only. All the questions in objective tests will have
multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. You have to select the
most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The
alternative / option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that question. There will be penalty
for wrong answers marked by you. For every wrong answer marked by you, 1/4 th of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective test is considered for arriving at the
Corrected Score after applying penalty for wrong answers.
(ii) The Corrected Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference in
difficulty level, if any, in each of the objective tests held in different sessions to arrive at the Equated Scores*
*Scores obtained by candidates on any test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution of scores of all
the forms.
(iii) Test wise scores and scores on total is reported with decimal points upto two digits.

There will be no sectional cut-off and cut-off will be applied on the total scores.

Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual
examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also questions
on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below.

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 TEST OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE

This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on
grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a passage etc.
Q.1-2. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will
be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No
error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q.1. Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem /
(1) (2) (3)
in varying degrees. / No error
(4) (5)
Q.2. The regaining of freedom / as we well know has given rise for / many dormant issues /
(1) (2) (3)
and conflicts in our society. No error
(4) (5)
Q.3-4. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the sentence correctly
and meaningfully.
Q.3. Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _______ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening
Q.4. He wants me to look ______ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) from
Q.5-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.
The true ( 5 ) of rights is duty. If we all ( 6 ) our duties, rights will not be ( 7 ) to seek. If leaving duties unperformed
we run ( 8 ) rights, they will ( 9 ) us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them, the farther ( 10 ) they
fly.
Q.5. (1) end (2) source (3) joy (4) purpose (5) power
Q.6. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill
Q.7. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common
Q.8. (1) as (2) after (3) at (4) from (5) for
Q.9. (1) hold (2) grab (3) fight (4) escape (5) chase
Q.10. (1) off (2) can (3) did (4) could (5) towards

TEST OF REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Q.1. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter
of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word
can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X
Q.2. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences definitely follows
from these two statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Q.3. If the letters of the following alphabet interchange positions, so that A takes the place of Z and Z takes the
place of A; B takes the place of Y and Y takes the place of B and so on, what will be the 13th letter from the
right ?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(1) M (2) N (3) O (4) L (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. If the first and the second letters in the word ‘DEPRESSION’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth
letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right ?
(1) R (2) O (3) S (4) I (5) Other than those given as options

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Q.5. In a row of girls, if Seeta who is 10th from the left and Lina who is 9th from the right interchange their seats,
Seeta becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row ?
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 22 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.6-10. Read the information given below and answer the questions.
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on each day from
Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following.
(1) A must be on the immediately previous day of the on which E is staged.
(2) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(3) B must be on a day which immediately follows the day on which F is staged.
(4) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(5) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Q.6. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(1) E A B F D C (2) A F B E D C (3) A F B C D E
(4) F A B E D C (5) Other than those given as options
Q.7. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday (5) Saturday
Q.8. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays ?
(1) C and E (2) E and F (3) A and E (4) B and E (5) C and F
Q.9. Which of the following plays is on Monday ?
(1) E (2) A (3) F (4) B (5) C
Q.10. Which of the following plays immediately follows B ?
(1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) A

TEST OF NUMERICAL ABILITY

This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation, quantitative
reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.
Directions : In each of the following questions one number is missing. The place where the number is missing is shown
by a question mark (?). You have to find out which one of the answers shown against 1, 2, 3 and 4 can replace the
question mark. If none of these four can replace the question mark, you will indicate (5) i.e. ‘Other than those given as
options’ as your answer.

24 13 5
Q.1. × × = ?
65 56 7
3 15 3 15
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Other than those given as options
49 245 77 56
Q.2. (27 + 498) ÷ 25 = ?
(1) 17 (2) 25 (3) 21 (4) 12 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that help
promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that follow :

% of Employees Giving Different Ranks

Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13

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Q.4. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Q.5. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Q.6. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
Q.1. Every component of your computer is either ________
(1) software or CPU / RAM (2) hardware or software
(3) application software or system software (4) an input device or output device
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. The function of CPU is ________
(1) to provide external storage of text (2) to create a hard copy
(3) to create a new software (4) to read, interpret and process the information and instruction
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. ________ is an output device of a computer ?
(1) Printer (2) CPU (3) Mouse (4) Keyboard (5) None of these
Q.7. What is the full form of RAM ?
(1) Random Adaptive Mouse (2) Random Adaptive Memory (3) Random Access Memory
(4) Random Access Mouse (5) None of these
Q.8. Which of the following is the shortcut to print a word document ?
(1) Press ‘Ctrl + P’ Keys together (2) Press ‘Ctrl + F’ Keys together
(3) Press ‘Shift + P’ Keys together (4) Press ‘Shift + Print’ Keys together
(5) Press ‘Tab + Print’ Keys together
Q.12. URL is an acronym for ________
(1) Uniform Resource Locator (2) Uniform Resource Link
(3) Universal Reference Locator (4) Unlimited Real-time Language
(5) Unique Resource Link

TEST OF GENERAL AWARENESS

This test is designed to measure your awareness about the past and present events.
Q.1. R. K. Laxman is famous for –––––
(1) Painting (2) Cartoons (3) Screenplay Writing
(4) Film Direction (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. “Kumbh-Mela” is held in our country after every –––––
(1) 6 years (2) 10 years (3) 12 years
(4) 14 years (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. Who among the following is the current Finance Minister of India ?
(1) Shri Arun Jaitley (2) Shri Narendra Modi (3) Shri P. Chidambram
(4) Shri Amit Shah (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. Which of the following stands for I in IRDA ?
(1) Indian (2) International (3) Insurance (4) Income (5) Institute
Q.5. The famous Gomateshwar idol is in which of the following states ?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Orissa (5) Karnataka
Q.6. ‘OSCAR AWARDS’ are given for best performance in which of the following fields ?
(1) Literature (2) Science & Technology (3) Motion picture (4) Sports (5) Social Service

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(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern (Objective):
(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) All tests except of English Language will be in English and Hindi.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct
answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which
he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer
to that question. Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only when candidates
have submitted the answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display
the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are not
required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The question palette at the right of screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the questions numbered:

The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question again. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to
the next question in sequence.
(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.
(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.
(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed by
a click on the Save & Next button.
(13) ONLY Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will be considered for evaluation.
(14) Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the
section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.
(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the first
question of the next section.
(16) You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that section.
(17) Each test is separately timed. Candidates can attempt questions in a particular test during the time allotted for
that test only.
(18) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate does
not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption of unfair means and such
a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as decided by Company.
(19) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the commencement
of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.

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(20) After the expiry of duration of a particular test, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check
their answers.
(21) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the objective
exam starts as this will lock the exam.

(B) General Instructions:

(1) Please note date, Reporting time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you are able to
report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Latecomers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letters of both Preliminary (duly authenticated / stamped) and Main examination along with the
photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together should be submitted at the end of the exam. Do
not forget to write your Registration No. and Roll No. on the photo copy of Photo Identity proof.
Candidates should put their Left Thumb Impression clearly and sign on the call-letter of online Main
examination and attendance Sheet in the presence of the invigilator.
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Company Representative at the
examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked to leave the
examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones (with or without
camera facility) or any other electronic device will be allowed during the examination.
(6) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity proof in original and
a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS ESSENTIAL. The call-letter along with
photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together are to be submitted to the invigilator at the end
of exam. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/Voter’s Card with
photograph/ Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on official
letterhead /Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity
Card issued by a recognised College/ University/Aadhaar/E-Aadhaar Card with a photograph/ Employee ID/
Bar Council Identity card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner’s Driving License will NOT
be accepted as valid ID proof for this exam. Please note that your name as appearing on the call letter
(provided by you during the process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo
identity proof. Female candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note
of this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you will
not be allowed to appear for the exam. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed only
if they produce Gazette notification/their marriage certificate/affidavit.
(7) Biometric data (thumb impression) and photograph will be captured at the examination venue before the start of
examination. Decision of the Biometric data verification authority with regard to its status (matched or
mismatched) shall be final and binding upon the candidates. Refusal to participate in the process of biometric
data capturing / verification on any occasion may lead to cancellation of candidature. With regards to the
same, please note the following :
(a) If fingers are coated (stamped ink / mehndi / coloured...etc.), ensure to thoroughly wash them so that coating
is completely removed before the examination day.
(b) If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the thumb impression (biometric) is
captured.
(c) Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.
(d) If the primary finger (thumb) to be captured is injured/damaged, immediately notify the concerned authority in
the test centre.
(Any failure to observe these points will result in non-admittance for the examination).
(8) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and wrong
answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/concluded that the responses have
been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who
is found copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will
not be considered for assessment. Company may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by
it.

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(9) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. You may bring an ink stamp pad (blue/black) with you. A sheet of
paper will be provided which can be used for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to
review at the end of the test before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST handover this sheet
of paper along with the Call Letter and photocopy of photo identity proof to the invigilator.
(10) The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out
completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be
made to rectify such problems, which may include movement of candidates, delay in test. The conduct of a re-
exam is at the absolute discretion of the test conducting body. Candidates will not have any claim for a re-test.
Candidates not willing to move or not willing to participate in the delayed process of test delivery shall be
summarily rejected from the process.
(11) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be equated to adjust
for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across sessions. More than one session is
required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(12) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating transmission and
storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal or
written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be in
unauthorised possession of test content is likely to be prosecuted.
(13) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of the
selection process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection process and he/she will not be
allowed to appear in any recruitment process of the Company in the future. If such instances go undetected during
the current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with
retrospective effect.
(14) Please read instructions related to Social Distancing given on the next page.

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 INSTRUCTIONS WITH REGARD TO SOCIAL DISTANCING

1. Candidate is required to report at the exam venue strictly as per the time slot mentioned in the Call Letter.
Latecomers will not be allowed to take the test.

2. Mapping of ‘Candidate Roll Number and the Lab Number’ will NOT be displayed outside the exam venue, but the
same will be intimated to the candidates individually at the time of entry of the candidate to the exam venue.

3. Items permitted into the venue for Candidates

Candidates will be permitted to carry only following items with them into the venue:
a. Mask
b. Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml)
c. A simple pen and ink stamp pad (blue/black)
d. Exam related documents (Call Letter and Photocopy of the ID card stapled with it, ID Card in Original)
e. In the case of Scribe Candidates - Scribe form duly filled and signed with Photograph affixed.

No other Items are permitted inside the venue.

4. Candidate should not share any of their personal belonging/material with anyone.

5. Candidate should maintain safe social distance with one another.

6. Candidate should stand in the row as per the instructions provided at venue.

7. If a candidate is availing services of a scribe, then scribe also should bring their own Mask.

8. On completion of examination, the candidates should move out in an orderly manner without crowding as
instructed by the venue staff.

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK !