ENT FMGE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

ENT BY RAJIV DHAWAN

1. A congenitally deaf child with bilateral profound SNHL on radiological
evaluation of cochlea and brain with MRI/CT scan has been found to
having normal eighth nerve on both sides. What is the best method of
hearing rehabilitation in this case.

a) Cochlear implant
b) Digital Hearing aid
c) Auditory brain stem implant
d) Bone anchored hearing aid
1. A congenitally deaf child with bilateral profound SNHL on radiological
evaluation of cochlea and brain with MRI/CT scan has been found to be
normal eighth nerve on both sides. What is the best method of hearing
rehabilitation in this case.

a) Cochlear implant
b) Digital Hearing aid
c) Auditory brain stem implant
d) Bone anchored hearing aid
2. All are true about serous otitis media except

a) 10-40dB conductive hearing loss

b) Very painful condition
c) Grommet insertion is helpful in its management
d) Flat tympanogram
 2. All are true about serous otitis media except

a) 10-40dB conductive hearing loss

b) Very painful condition
c) Grommet insertion is helpful in its management
d) Type B Tympanogram
3. What type of tympanogram would you be finding in a case of Serous
Otitis Media?

a) Type A curve
b) Type B Curve
c) Type C Curve
d) Type AD curve
3. What type of tympanogram would you be finding in a case of Serous
Otitis media?

a) Type A curve
b) Type B Curve
c) Type C Curve
d) Type AD curve
4. A patient of left atticoantral CSOM presents with the history of
headache, vomiting and convulsions. His CT scan of brain has revealed
left temporal lobe abscess. What is the best surgical treatment of this
patient?

a) Urgent modified radical mastoidectomy

b) Urgent radical mastoidectomy
c) Neurosurgical treatment
d) Urgent petrosectomy
4. A patient of left atticoantral CSOM presents with the history of
headache, vomiting and convulsions. His CT scan of brain has revealed
left temporal lobe abscess. What is the best surgical treatment of this
patient?

a) Urgent modified radical mastoidectomy

b) Urgent radical mastoidectomy
c) Neurosurgical treatment
d) Urgent petrosectomy
5. False regarding Bell’s palsy

a) Hyperacusis is seen in these cases

b) Forehead muscles are also involved
c) Oral Steroids are used
d) mostly bilateral
5. False regarding Bell’s palsy

a) Hyperacusis is seen in these cases

b) Forehead muscles are also involved
c) Oral Steroids are used
d) mostly bilateral
6. Use of Siegel's speculum during examination of the ear
provides all except:

a) Magnification
b) Assessment of movement of the tympanic membrane
c) Removal of foreign body from the ear
d) As applicator for the powdered antibiotic to ear
6. Use of Siegel's speculum during examination of the ear
provides all except:

a) Magnification
b) Assessment of movement of the tympanic membrane
c) Removal of foreign body from the ear
d) As applicator for the powdered antibiotic to ear
7. All are true about embryology of ear development except

a) cochlea development completes by 20th week

b) pinna development completes by 20th week
c) Mastoid tip develops by 2years of age
d) there are 4 Hillocks of His which are precursors of pinna
7. All are true about embryology of ear development except

a) cochlea development completes by 20th week

b) pinna development completes by 20th week
c) Mastoid tip develops by 2years of age
d) there are 4 Hillocks of His which are precursors of pinna
8. A child is born with deformed pinna. He has normal helix but antihelix
is not developed. What is the name of this deformity?

a. Bat ear
b. Cauliflower ear
c. Tropical ear
d. Surfer ear
8. A child is born with deformed pinna. He has normal helix
but antihelix is not developed. What is the name of this
deformity?

a. Bat ear
b. Cauliflower ear
c. Tropical ear
d. Surfer ear
9. A 75 year-old diabetic patient presents with severe pain in the ear
and facial palsy. Examination reveals granulation tissue in external
auditory canal. What is the probable diagnosis?

a. Malignant otitis externa

b. Keratosis obturans
c. Squamous cell carcinoma ear canal
d. Exosteosis of External auditory canal
9. A 75 year-old diabetic patient presents with severe pain in the ear
and facial palsy. Examination reveals granulation tissue in external
auditory canal. What is the probable diagnosis?

a. Malignant otitis externa

b. Keratosis obturans
c. Squamous cell carcinoma ear canal
d. Exosteosis of External auditory canal
10. Which is the correct site of implantation of brain stem implantation

a. Lateral recess of fourth ventricle

b. Midbrain
c. Lateral aspect of cerebellum
d. Superior temporal gyrus
10. Which is the correct site of implantation of brain stem implantation

a. Lateral recess of fourth ventricle

b. Midbrain
c. Lateral aspect of cerebellum
d. Superior temporal gyrus
11. The most common site of origin of Acoustic neuroma is

a. Superior vestibular division of 8th nerve

b. Inferior vestibular division of 8th nerve
c. Cochlear nerve
d. Facial nerve
11. The most common site of origin of Acoustic neuroma is

a. Superior vestibular division of 8th nerve

b. Inferior vestibular division of 8th nerve
c. Cochlear nerve
d. Facial nerve
12. Which of the following is not true about Eustachian tube?

a. Medial 24 mm is cartilaginous and lateral 12 mm is bony

b. Its angled at 45 degrees with horizontal at birth
c. The opening of Eustachian tube lies 1.25 cm behind the posterior
end of inferior turbinate in the nasopharynx
d. Tensor palati is the main muscle to open the Eustachian tube
12. Which of the following is not true about Eustachian tube?

a. Medial 24 mm is cartilaginous and lateral 12 mm is bony

b. Its angled at 45 degrees with horizontal at birth
c. The opening of Eustachian tube lies 1.25 cm behind the posterior
end of inferior turbinate in the nasopharynx
d. Tensor palati is the main muscle to open the Eustachian tube
13. Wet Newspaper’ like appearance in external auditory canal is a
feature of

a. Localised otitis externa

b. Otomycosis
c. Exosteosis
d. Diffuse otitis externa
13. Wet Newspaper’ like appearance in external auditory canal is a
feature of

a. Localised otitis externa

b. Otomycosis
c. Exosteosis
d. Diffuse otitis externa
14. A patient of right unsafe CSOM has presented with history of
diplopia and pain behind the right eye. What is the name of this entity?

a. Gradinego Syndrome
b. Malignant Otitis externa
c. Lateral sinus thrombosis
d. Trotter’s Triad
14. A patient of right unsafe CSOM has presented with history of
diplopia and pain behind the right eye. What is the name of this entity?

a. Gradinego Syndrome
b. Malignant Otitis externa
c. Lateral sinus thrombosis
d. Trotter’s Triad
15. What is Cupula in inner ear?

a. Sensory end organ of Utricle and saccule

b. Sensory end organ of semicircular canals
c. gelatinous layer around Macula
d. gelatinous layer around Crista
15. What is Cupula in inner ear?

a. Sensory end organ of Utricle and saccule

b. Sensory end organ of semicircular canals
c. gelatinous layer around Macula
d. gelatinous layer around Crista
16. Which membrane separates Scala Vestibuli and Scala Media?

a. Basilar membrane
b. Reissner’s membrane
c. Tectorial membrane
d. Sharpnell’s membrane
16. Which membrane separates Scala Vestibuli and Scala Media?

a. Basilar membrane
b. Reissner’s membrane
c. Tectorial membrane
d. Sharpnell’s membrane
17. One of the following is a feature of meniere’s disease

a. Presbyacusis
b. Paracusis
c. Diplacusis
d. Hyperacusis
17. One of the following is a feature of meniere’s disease

a. Presbyacusis
b. Paracusis
c. Diplacusis
d. Hyperacusis
18. What is Bill’s bar?

a. A landmark for Mastoid Antrum

b. A landmark for endolymphatic sac
c. A Vertical bony septum in Internal Auditory meatus
d. A horizontal crest on medial wall of middle ear
18. What is Bill’s bar?

a. A landmark for Mastoid Antrum

b. A landmark for endolymphatic sac
c. A Vertical bony septum in Internal Auditory meatus
d. A horizontal crest on medial wall of middle ear
19. Which tuning fork test is specifically used to diagnose otosclerosis?

a. Stenger test
b. Schwbach test
c. Gelle’s test
d. Rinne test
19. Which tuning fork test is specifically used to diagnose otosclerosis?

a. Stenger test
b. Schwbach test
c. Gelle’s test
d. Rinne test
20. A case of Bell’s palsy: no improvement after 3 weeks: What to do next?

a) Facial nerve decompression

b) continue with same dose of steroids
c) Increase dose of steroids
d) Electrophysiological nerve study
20. A case of Bell’s palsy: no improvement after 3 weeks: What to do next?

a) Facial nerve decompression

b) continue with same dose of steroids
c) Increase dose of steroids
d) Electrophysiological nerve study
21. Treatment of choice in a c/o Otosclerosis with positive Schwartze's
sign :

a) Stapedectomy
b) Fenestration
c) Hearing Aid
d) Sodium Flouride
21. Treatment of choice in a c/o Otosclerosis with positive Schwartze's
sign :

a) Stapedectomy
b) Fenestration
c) Hearing Aid
d) Sodium Flouride
22. Hennebert's sign is seen in

a. Congenital syphillis
b. Stapedectomy
c. Meniere's disease
d. Cholesteatoma
22. Hennebert's sign is seen in

a. Congenital syphillis
b. Stapedectomy
c. Meniere's disease
d. Cholesteatoma
23. Rinne test is negative in all except

a. Wax occlusion of canal

b. Chronic suppurative otitis media
c. Otosclerosis
d. Meniere’s disease
23. Rinne test is negative in all except

a. Wax occlusion of canal

b. Chronic suppurative otitis media
c. Otosclerosis
d. Meniere’s disease
24. Which of the following is not applicable to Otosclerosis?

a. Dip at 2000 Hz in Bone conduction curve

b. Worsening of hearing loss during pregnancy
c. Schwartz sign in early stage of disease
d. Diplacusis
24. Which of the following is not applicable to Otosclerosis?

a. Dip at 2000 Hz in Bone conduction curve

b. Worsening of hearing loss during pregnancy
c. Schwartz sign in early stage of disease
d. Diplacusis
25. The posterosuperior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will
lead to:
(a) Primary acquired cholesteatoma
(b) Secondary acquired cholesteatoma
(c) Tympanosclerosis
(d) Congenital Cholestatoma
25. The posterosuperior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will
lead to:
(a) Primary aqcuired cholesteatoma
(b) Secondary acquired cholesteatoma
(c) Tympanosclerosis
(d) Congenital Cholestatoma
26. Which of the following is applicable to Carhart’s notch seen in
Otosclerosis?

a. Dip at 2000 Hz in Bone conduction

b. Dip at 200HZ in Air conduction
c Dip at 4000Hz in Air conduction
d. Dip at 40000 Hz in Bone Conduction
26. Which of the following is applicable to Carhart’s notch seen in
Otosclerosis?

a. Dip at 2000 Hz in Bone conduction

b. Dip at 200HZ in Air conduction
c Dip at 4000Hz in Air conduction
d. Dip at 40000 Hz in Bone Conduction
27. All of the following are true about cochlear implant except

a. Ideal age of implantation is 1 year

b. Eighth nerve integrity should be established before cochlear
implantation
c. cochlear implant electrode is placed in scala tympani
d. the electrode is placed through oval window
27. All of the following are true about cochlear implant except

a. Ideal age of implantation is 1 year

b. Eighth nerve integrity should be established before cochlear
implantation
c. cochlear implant electrode is placed in scala tympani
d. the electrode is placed through oval window
28. Identify the audiological investigation whose recordings are shown
in the given picture

a. Cortical evoked response audiometry

b. Brainstem evoked response
audiometry
c. Transient evoked otoacoustic
emissions
d. Otoacoustic emissions
28. Identify the audiological investigation whose recordings are shown
in the given picture

a. Cortical evoked response audiometry

b. Brainstem evoked response
audiometry
c. Transient evoked otoacoustic
emissions
d. Otoacoustic emissions
29. Electrocochleography is used to diagnose which clinical entity –

a. Ototoxicity
b. Otosclerosis
c. Non-organic hearing loss
d. Meniere’s disease
29. Electrocochleography is used to diagnose which clinical entity –

a. Ototoxicity
b. Otosclerosis
c. Non-organic hearing loss
d. Meniere’s disease
30. Which type of audiogram is seen in early stage of Meniere’s disease

a. Sloping Audiogram
b. Rising audiogram
c. Dip at 4000Hz in AC BC
d. Dip at 2000 Hz in BC
30. Which type of audiogram is seen in early stage of Meniere’s disease

a. Sloping Audiogram
b. Rising audiogram
c. Dip at 4000Hz in AC BC
d. Dip at 2000 Hz in BC
31. The surgical landmark for Mastoid antrum during mastoid surgery is

a. Donaldson’s line

b. MacEwen’s triangle

c. Trautmann’s triangle

d. Korner septum
31. The surgical landmark for Mastoid antrum during mastoid surgery is

a. Donaldson’s line

b. MacEwen’s triangle

c. Trautmann’s triangle

d. Korner septum
32. Otoliths are concerned with which function of inner ear?

a. Sound Conduction

b. Angular Balance

c. Linear balance

d. Sound Amplification
32. Otoliths are concerned with which function of inner ear?

a. Sound Conduction

b. Angular Balance

c. Linear balance

d. Sound Amplification
33. Which statement is not true about benign paroxysmal positional
vertigo (BPPV) ?

a. Dix Hallpike’s maneuver is diagnostic test

b. Otoconia migrate to posterior semicircular canal

c. There is hearing loss in this condition

• Epley’s maneuver is therapeutic maneuver
33. Which statement is not true about benign paroxysmal positional
vertigo (BPPV) ?

a. Dix Hallpike’s maneuver is diagnostic test

b. Otoconia migrate to posterior semicircular canal

c. There is hearing loss in this condition

• Epley’s maneuver is therapeutic maneuver
34. Not a clinical feature of Meniere’s disease

a. Recruitment

b. Tullio’s phenomenon

c. ParacusisWillisi
d. Diplacusuis
34. Not a clinical feature of Meniere’s disease

a. Recruitment

b. Tullio’s phenomenon

c. ParacusisWillisi
d. Diplacusuis
35. A 43 year old male patient is suffering from recurrent epiosdes of vertigo ,
hearing loss and Tinnitus for last 3 years. The episode has nausea vomiting
along with vertigo. The episode settles in few hours only. What is the possible
diagnosis?
a. benign Paroxysmal positional vertigo
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. viral Labyrinthitis
35. A 43 year old male patient is suffering from recurrent epiosdes of vertigo ,
hearing loss and Tinnitus for last 3 years. The episode has nausea vomiting
along with vertigo. The episode settles in few hours only. What is the possible
diagnosis?
a. benign Paroxysmal positional vertigo
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. viral Labyrinthitis
36. Which ossicle has least blood supply?

a. Handle of Malleus
b. Foot plate of Stapes
c. Long process of Incus
• Head of Malleus
36. Which ossicle has least blood supply?

a. Handle of Malleus
b. Foot plate of Stapes
c. Long process of Incus
• Head of Malleus
37. Putsatile Tinnitus with bleeding polypoidal red mass in external auditory
canal of a female patient is typically seen in :

a) Glomus Jugulare
b) Acoustic Neuroma
c) Meniere’s disease
d) Tympanosclerosis
37. Putsatile Tinnitus with bleeding polypoidal red mass in external auditory
canal of a female patient is typically seen in :

a) Glomus Jugulare
b) Acoustic Neuroma
c) Meniere’s disease
d) Tympanosclerosis
38. Rising sun sign is a classical finding seen in

a. Acoustic Neuroma
b. Meniere’s Disease
c. Glomus Jugulare
d. Otosclerosis
38. Rising sun sign is a classical finding seen in

a. Acoustic Neuroma
b. Meniere’s Disease
c. Glomus Jugulare
d. Otosclerosis
39. A 20yrs old Male present with unilateral foul smelling ear discharge
develops spiky fever and has positive Griessenger sign. The clinical diagnosis
is :

a) Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

b) Sigmoid Sinus Thrombosis

c) Sagittal Sinus thrombosis

d) Brain Abscess
39. A 20yrs old Male present with unilateral foul smelling ear discharge
develops spiky fever and has positive Griessenger sign. The clinical diagnosis
is :

a) Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

b) Sigmoid Sinus Thrombosis

c) Sagittal Sinus thrombosis

d) Brain Abscess
40. Ductus Reniens connects which two structures of inner ear?

a. Cochlea and Utrice

b. Cochlea and saccule
c. Utricle and saccule
d. Utricle and semicircular canals
40. Ductus Reniens connects which two structures of inner ear?

a. Cochlea and Utrice

b. Cochlea and saccule
c. Utricle and saccule
d. Utricle and semicircular canals
41. All are features of Acoustic Neuroma except

a. Absent corneal reflex is early sign

b. Roll over phenomenon
c. Rising sun sign
d. Hitzelberger sign
41. All are features of Acoustic Neuroma except

a. Absent corneal reflex is early sign

b. Roll over phenomenon
c. Rising sun sign
d. Hitzelberger sign
42. A 30 year old lady has bilateral hearing loss since 4 years which
worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedence audiometry curve will be :

a) Ad
b) As
c) B
d) C
42. A 30 year old lady has bilateral hearing loss since 4 years which
worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedence audiometry curve will be :

a) Ad
b) As
c) B
d) C
43. Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere's disease?

(a) hearing loss

(b) Pulsatile tinnitus
(c) Vertigo
(d) nausea, vomiting
43. Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere's disease?

(a) hearing loss

(b) Pulsatile tinnitus
(c) Vertigo
(d) nausea, vomiting
44. The caloric test done right side with warm water will produce
nystagmus towards

a) right side

b) no nystagmus

c) Left side

d) both sides
44. The caloric test done right side with warm water will produce
nystagmus towards

a) right side

b) no nystagmus

c) Left side

d) both sides
45. While syringing for the ear wax, the cold water should not be used .
What is the appropriate reason for this ?

a. it may lead to perforation of tympanic membrane

b. it may lead to vertigo

c. it may lead to infection of external auditory canal.

d. it may make the wax hard and difficult to remove.

45. While syringing for the ear wax, the cold water should not be used .
What is the appropriate reason for this ?

a. it may lead to perforation of tympanic membrane

b. it may lead to vertigo

c. it may lead to infection of external auditory canal.

d. it may make the wax hard and difficult to remove.

46. In carcinoma larynx patient with stridor and respiratory difficulty,
tracheostomy is done at which level ?

a. 1st and 2nd cervical vertebra level

b. 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
c. 1st and 2nd tracheal rings
d. 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
46. In carcinoma larynx patient with stridor and respiratory difficulty,
tracheostomy is done at which level ?

a. 1st and 2nd cervical vertebra level

b. 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
c. 1st and 2nd tracheal rings
d. 3rd and 4th tracheal rings
47. Which is the narrowest part of Infant larynx

a. Supraglottis
b. Subglottis
c. Glottis
d. Ventricle
47. Which is the narrowest part of Infant larynx

a. Supraglottis
b. Subglottis
c. Glottis
d. Ventricle
48. Which of the following surgical procedure is indicated in Adductor
palsy of vocal cord?

a. Type I thyroplasty
b. Type III thyroplasty
c. Type IV thyroplasty
d. Type II thyroplasty
48. Which of the following surgical procedure is indicated in Adductor
palsy of vocal cord?

a. Type I thyroplasty
b. Type III thyroplasty
c. Type IV thyroplasty
d. Type II thyroplasty
49. A 42 year old patient singer by profession has been vigorously practising for an
important concert of his life. He has subsequently developed hoarse voice. On
fiberoptic laryngoscopy, he is found to have adduction of false vocal cords while
phonating.
What is the name of this clinical condition?
a. Dysphonia plica ventricularis
b. Phonaesthenia
c. Spasmodic dysphonia
d. Mogiophonia
49. A 42 year old patient singer by profession has been vigorously practising for an
important concert of his life. He has subsequently developed hoarse voice. On
fiberoptic laryngoscopy, he is found to have adduction of false vocal cords while
phonating.
What is the name of this clinical condition?
a. Dysphonia plica ventricularis
b. Phonaesthenia
c. Spasmodic dysphonia
d. Mogiophonia
50. A 20 year old male patient has high pitch voice. His fiberoptic laryngoscopy is
normal. The clinician has advised him for speech therapy in which he is asked to
phonate while pulling the thyroid cartilage downwards and pressing it backwards.

• What is the name of this manoeuvre?

a. Heimlich manoeuvre
b. Gutzmann’s manoeuvre
c. Muller’s manoeuvre
d. Valsalva manoeuvre
50. A 20 year old male patient has high pitch voice. His fiberoptic laryngoscopy is
normal. The clinician has advised him for speech therapy in which he is asked to
phonate while pulling the thyroid cartilage downwards and pressing it backwards.

• What is the name of this manoeuvre?

a. Heimlich manoeuvre
b. Gutzmann’s manoeuvre
c. Muller’s manoeuvre
d. Valsalva manoeuvre
 51. Vocal cord lesions: all are true except

a. Glottis cancer is often associated with poor prognosis

b. Keratosis larynx is a premalignant condition
c. Reinke’s oedema is best managed with decortication of vocal cords
d. Co2 laser is very useful in management of juvenile papilloma of
larynx
 51. Vocal cord lesions: all are true except

a. Glottis cancer is often associated with poor prognosis

b. Keratosis larynx is a premalignant condition
c. Reinke’s oedema is best managed with decortication of vocal cords
d. Co2 laser is very useful in management of juvenile papilloma of
larynx
52. Which of the following can lead to Rhinolalia clausa
a. palatal paralysis
b. palatal cleft
c. nasal polyp
d. velopharyngeal insufficiency
52. Which of the following can lead to Rhinolalia clausa
a. palatal paralysis
b. palatal cleft
c. nasal polyp
d. velopharyngeal insufficiency
53. A 52 year old female patient underwent total thyroidectomy. While
surgery, both side recurrent laryngeal nerves got damaged accidentally .
What are the expected post operative symptoms of patient?

a. poor quality of voice

b. respiratory distress
c. respiratory distress with poor quality of voice
d. respiratory distress with normal voice
53. A 52 year old female patient underwent total thyroidectomy. While
surgery, both side recurrent laryngeal nerves got damaged accidentally .
What are the expected post operative symptoms of patient?

a. poor quality of voice

b. respiratory distress
c. respiratory distress with poor quality of voice
d. respiratory distress with normal voice
53. A 52 year old female patient underwent total thyroidectomy. While
surgery, both side recurrent laryngeal nerves got damaged accidentally .
What are the expected post operative symptoms of patient?

a. poor quality of voice

b. respiratory distress
c. respiratory distress with poor quality of voice
d. respiratory distress with normal voice
54. Treatment of choice of Singer’s nodule is :

a) Microlaryngeal surgery followed by speech therapy

b) Oral Steroids
c) Cryotherapy
d) voice rest
54. Treatment of choice of Singer’s nodule is :

a) Microlaryngeal surgery followed by speech therapy

b) Oral Steroids
c) Cryotherapy
d) voice rest
55. What is not true about laryngomalacia?

a. Inspiratory stridor
b. Hoarse cry
c. Conservative management
d. Omega shaped epiglottis
55. What is not true about laryngomalacia?

a. Inspiratory stridor
b. Hoarse cry
c. Conservative management
d. Omega shaped epiglottis
56. In a child with suspected diagnosis of epiglottitis Indicate your first
line treatment
(a) Order an X-ray of soft tissue lateral view neck to establish the
diagnosis
(b) Take throat swab and blood culture and start intravenous fluids
(c) Perform a laryngoscopy
(d) Secure an airway by intubation
56. In a child with suspected diagnosis of epiglottitis Indicate your first
line treatment
(a) Order an X-ray of soft tissue lateral view neck to establish the
diagnosis
(b) Take throat swab and blood culture and start intravenous fluids
(c) Perform a laryngoscopy
(d) Secure an airway by intubation
57. Which of the following airway obstruction level causes inspiratory
stridor?

a. subglottic obstruction

b. supraglottic obstruction

c. glottic obstruction

d. tracheal obstruction
57. Which of the following airway obstruction level causes inspiratory
stridor?

a. subglottic obstruction

b. supraglottic obstruction

c. glottic obstruction

d. tracheal obstruction
58. All are true about functional aphonia except

a) A psychological disorder
b) More common in young females
c) Patient is unable to produce cough sound
d) Vocal cords movements are normal
58. All are true about functional aphonia except

a) A psychological disorder
b) More common in young females
c) Patient is unable to produce cough sound
d) Vocal cords movements are normal
59. Which of the following is abductor of the vocal cord:
a) Cricothyroid
b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Interarytenoid
d) Lateral criocoarytenoid
59. Which of the following is abductor of the vocal cord:
a) Cricothyroid
b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Interarytenoid
d) Lateral criocoarytenoid
60. which of the following is the initial symptom of glottic malignancy?

a.Odynophagia
b.Dysphagia
c. Hoarse voice
d.Hot potato voice
60. which of the following is the initial symptom of glottic malignancy?

a.Odynophagia
b.Dysphagia
c. Hoarse voice
d.Hot potato voice
61. The ideal treatment for T1N0M0 glottic cancer larynx is

a. Radiotherapy
b. Laser cordectomy
c. Total laryngectomy
d. Decortication of vocal cord
61. The ideal treatment for T1N0M0 glottic cancer larynx is

a. Radiotherapy
b. Laser cordectomy
c. Total laryngectomy
d. Decortication of vocal cord
62. A 6year old male child comes to emergency with stridor and respiratory
distress for last 6 hours. On Direct laryngoscopy, the vocal cords are found to
be lying in median position and are immobile. Which of the following would
be part of the management strategy of this patient—

a. Type I thyroplasty
b. Type III thyroplasty
c. Type IV thyroplasty
d. Type II thyroplasty
62. A 6year old male child comes to emergency with stridor and respiratory
distress for last 6 hours. On Direct laryngoscopy, the vocal cords are found to
be lying in median position and are immobile. Which of the following would
be part of the management strategy of this patient—

a. Type I thyroplasty
b. Type III thyroplasty
c. Type IV thyroplasty
d. Type II thyroplasty
63. A 3month old baby presents with inspiratory stridor almost since
birth. The cry of baby is normal. The stridor decreases in prone position.
What is the possible diagnosis?

1. Vocal cord palsy

2. Acute epiglottitis
3. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
4. Laryngomalacia
63. A 3month old baby presents with inspiratory stridor almost since
birth. The cry of baby is normal. The stridor decreases in prone position.
What is the possible diagnosis?

1. Vocal cord palsy

2. Acute epiglottitis
3. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
4. Laryngomalacia
64. A chronic smoker presents with history of hoarseness. On examination he
was found to have keratosis of the larynx. All of the following are possible
treatment modalities except:

a) Laser

b) Partial laryngectomy

c) Elimination of chronic laryngeal irritants

d) Stripping of the vocal cord

64. A chronic smoker presents with history of hoarseness. On examination he
was found to have keratosis of the larynx. All of the following are possible
treatment modalities except:

a) Laser

b) Partial laryngectomy

c) Elimination of chronic laryngeal irritants

d) Stripping of the vocal cord

65. Which of the following can not be seen on indirect laryngoscopy

a. Anterior commissure

b. posterior commissure

c. Lingual surface of epiglottis

d. arytenoids
65. Which of the following can not be seen on indirect laryngoscopy

a. Anterior commissure

b. posterior commissure

c. Lingual surface of epiglottis

d. arytenoids
66. Ohngren’s line is used for which of the following?

a. Total Maxillectomy in carcinoma of maxillary sinus

b. Partial Maxillectomy in carcinoma of maxillary sinus
c. Prognostic evaluation of carcinoma of maxillary sinus
d. Total laryngectomy in carcinoma of larynx
66. Ohngren’s line is used for which of the following?

a. Total Maxillectomy in carcinoma of maxillary sinus

b. Partial Maxillectomy in carcinoma of maxillary sinus
c. Prognostic evaluation of carcinoma of maxillary sinus
d. Total laryngectomy in carcinoma of larynx
67. Which of the following is best description of Pott’s puffy tumour?

a. tuberculosis of nose
b. Mucocele of frontal sinus
c. subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone
d. osteoma of frontal sinus
67. Which of the following is best description of Pott’s puffy tumour?

a. tuberculosis of nose
b. Mucocele of frontal sinus
c. subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone
d. osteoma of frontal sinus
68. All are true about Rhinoscleroma except

a. Woody nose
b. Russel bodies and Mikulicz cells
c. Dapsone is highly useful drug
d. Frisch bacillus is the causative organism
68. All are true about Rhinoscleroma except

a. Woody nose
b. Russel bodies and Mikulicz cells
c. Dapsone is highly useful drug
d. Frisch bacillus is the causative organism
69. A 29 year old HIV positive individual presents to emergency in a
critical state with deranged vitals. The examination shows a blackish
necrotic debris in the nasal cavity with necrosed skin of external nose.
What is the best treatment of this patient?

a. Amphotericin B
b. Tetracycline+streptomycin
c. Dapsone
d. Rifampicin
69. A 29 year old HIV positive individual presents to emergency in a
critical state with deranged vitals. The examination shows a blackish
necrotic debris in the nasal cavity with necrosed skin of external nose.
What is the best treatment of this patient?

a. Amphotericin B
b. Tetracycline+streptomycin
c. Dapsone
d. Rifampicin
70. Which is true about rhinosporidiosis ?

a. caused by Kleibsella rhinoscleromatis

b. Mulberry like nasal polyp
c. Mulberry like nasal mucosa
d. More common in North india
70. Which is true about rhinosporidiosis ?

a. caused by Kleibsella rhinoscleromatis

b. Mulberry like nasal polyp
c. Mulberry like nasal mucosa
d. More common in North india
71. A wide roomy nasal cavity with thick crust formation and bad odour
from nose is seen in

a) Atrophic Rhinitis
b) Rhinosporidiosis
c) Rhinoscleroma
d) Rhinitis sicca
71. A wide roomy nasal cavity with thick crust formation and bad odour
from nose is seen in

a) Atrophic Rhinitis
b) Rhinosporidiosis
c) Rhinoscleroma
d) Rhinitis sicca
72. In fracture maxilla most common nerve involved is

a. Infra orbital nerve

b. Supraorbital nerve
c. Trochlear nerve
d. Mandibular nerve
72. In fracture maxilla most common nerve involved is

a. Infra orbital nerve

b. Supraorbital nerve
c. Trochlear nerve
d. Mandibular nerve
73. Onodi cells and Haller cells of ethmoid are related respectively to:

a) Orbital floor ,Optic nerve

b) Orbital floor, Internal carotid Artery
c) Nasolacrimal duct
d) Optic nerve, Orbital floor
73. Onodi cells and Haller cells of ethmoid are related respectively to:

a) Orbital floor ,Optic nerve

b) Orbital floor, Internal carotid Artery
c) Nasolacrimal duct
d) Optic nerve, Orbital nerve
 74. A 62 year old man comes to emergency at 4.00 am with severe epistaxis and high blood
pressure (180/110mm Hg). Management of hypertension started. But the epistaxis could
not be controlled on anterior nasal packing and posterior nasal packing. What is the next
best management of this patient--

a)Ligation of External carotid artery

b) Endoscopic ligation of Sphenopalatine artery

c)Foley’s catheter placement in the nose and inflate the bulb

d)Electocauterisation of Liitle’s area

•
75. All of the following are true about CSF rhinorrhoea except

a. Cribriform plate is the commonest site of leak

b. Immediate transnasal endoscopic surgical closure of leak site should be

done

c. HRCT skull base is the radiological investigation of choice to detect site of

leak

d. Beta 2 transferrin is helpful in confirmation of diagnosis

75. All of the following are true about CSF rhinorrhoea except

a. Cribriform plate is the commonest site of leak

b. Immediate transnasal endoscopic surgical closure of leak site should be

done

c. HRCT skull base is the radiological investigation of choice to detect site of

leak

d. Beta 2 transferrin is helpful in confirmation of diagnosis

76. All statements are true about Ringertz tumour of Nose except

a. Arises from nasal septum

b. Locally invasive tumour
c. More common in males
d. Inverted Papilloma of nose
76. All statements are true about Ringertz tumour of Nose except

a. Arises from nasal septum

b. Locally invasive tumour
c. More common in males
d. Inverted Papilloma of nose
77. Which is not a true statement
a. Osteomas are most commonly seen in frontal sinus
b. Malignancy is most common in Maxillary sinus
c. Fungal balls are most common in Ethmoid sinus
d. Mucoceles are most common in Frontal sinus
77. Which is not a true statement
a. Osteomas are most commonly seen in frontal sinus
b. Malignancy is most common in Maxillary sinus
c. Fungal balls are most common in Ethmoid sinus
d. Mucoceles are most common in Frontal sinus
78. Keisselbach’s plexus in Little’s area of septum gets contribution from
all these arteries except-

a. Anterior Ethmoidal artery

b. Posterior Ethmoidal artery

c. Sphenopalatine artery

d. Greater Palatine artery

78. Keisselbach’s plexus in Little’s area of septum gets contribution from
all these arteries except-

a. Anterior Ethmoidal artery

b. Posterior Ethmoidal artery

c. Sphenopalatine artery

d. Greater Palatine artery

79. Which structure cannot be approached through transnasal
endoscopic surgery

a. Lacrimal Sac
b. Cribriform plate
c. Lacrimal gland
d. Optic nerve
79. Which structure cannot be approached through transnasal
endoscopic surgery

a. Lacrimal Sac
b. Cribriform plate
c. Lacrimal gland
d. Optic nerve
80. A 7 year old child while playing fell down. He has developed nasal
blockage on both sides and there is swelling around the nose.
• What is the further treatment of this child?
a. Aspiration of septal swelling
b. Anterior Nasal packing
c. Start Intravenous steroids
d. Start Topical Corticosteroid nasal spray
80. A 7 year old child while playing fell down. He has developed nasal
blockage on both sides and there is swelling around the nose.
• What is the further treatment of this child?
a. Aspiration of septal swelling
b. Anterior Nasal packing
c. Start Intravenous steroids
d. Start Topical Corticosteroid nasal spray
81. The radiological presence of which paranasal sinus appears at 6
years of age

a. Maxillary sinus
b. Ethmoid sinus
c. Sphenoid sinus
d. Frontal sinus
81. The radiological presence of which paranasal sinus appears at 6
years of age

a. Maxillary sinus
b. Ethmoid sinus
c. Sphenoid sinus
d. Frontal sinus
82. Which of the following is not correct statement

a. Sphenoid sinus drains into sphenoethmoidal recess

b. In DCR surgery, lacrimal sac opening is made in inferior
meatus
c. Anterior ethmoid cells drain into middle meatus
d. Posterior ethmoid air cells drain into superior meatus
82. Which of the following is not correct statement

a. Sphenoid sinus drains into sphenoethmoidal recess

b. In DCR surgery, lacrimal sac opening is made in inferior
meatus
c. Anterior ethmoid cells drain into middle meatus
d. Posterior ethmoid air cells drain into superior meatus
83. Fracture of nasal bone; the ideal treatment is:

a) Immediate reduction

b) Reduction after 48 hours

c) Put POP cast only

d) Reduction after 7 days

83. Fracture of nasal bone; the ideal treatment is:

a) Immediate reduction

b) Reduction after 48 hours

c) Put POP cast only

d) Reduction after 7 days

84. In a patient of resistant epistaxis from left nasal cavity, even the bleeding
could not be controlled with external carotid artery ligation.
• What is the possible source of bleeding in this patient?
a. Maxillary artery
b. Sphenopalatine artery
c. Ethmoidal artery
d. Facial artery
84. In a patient of resistant epistaxis from left nasal cavity, even the bleeding
could not be controlled with external carotid artery ligation.
• What is the possible source of bleeding in this patient?
a. Maxillary artery
b. Sphenopalatine artery
c. Ethmoidal artery
d. Facial artery
85. A patient in ENT examination was found to be non responsive to
smell of coffee, tea and Asfoetida. He is able to respond to which agent/

a. clove oil

b. pipperment

c. Ammonia

d. Garlic
85. A patient in ENT examination was found to be non responsive to
smell of coffee, tea and Asfoetida. He is able to respond to which agent/

a. clove oil

b. pipperment

c. Ammonia

d. Garlic
86. Trotter’s triad seen in Nasopharyngeal cancer. All are its features
except

a) Unilateral Temporoparietal pain

b) Unilateral conductive hearing loss

c) Unilateral facial palsy

d) Unilateral palatal palsy

86. Trotter’s triad seen in Nasopharyngeal cancer. All are its features
except

a) Unilateral Temporoparietal pain

b) Unilateral conductive hearing loss

c) Unilateral facial palsy

d) Unilateral palatal palsy

87. A 12 year old male child presents with nasal mass and profuse
epistaxis. What is the possible diagnosis

a. Nasopharyngeal cancer
b. Inverted papilloma
c. Thornwaldt disease
d. Angiofibroma
87. A 12 year old male child presents with nasal mass and profuse
epistaxis. What is the possible diagnosis

a. Nasopharyngeal cancer
b. Inverted papilloma
c. Thornwaldt disease
d. Angiofibroma
88. A 6 year old Child operated for Adeno-tonsillectomy has developed
C1-C2 subluxation postoperatively. What is the possible diagnosis in this
case?

a. Kallman’s syndrome
b. Grisel Syndrome
c. Ortner syndrome
d. Eagle syndrome
88. A 6 year old Child operated for Adeno-tonsillectomy has developed
C1-C2 subluxation postoperatively. What is the possible diagnosis in this
case?

a. Kallman’s syndrome
b. Grisel Syndrome
c. Ortner syndrome
d. Eagle syndrome
89. Which of the following is not a true statement-
a. Quiencke’s disease is peritonsillar abscess
b. Eagle syndrome is due to long styloid process
c. Thornwaldt disease is infection of Nasopharyngeal bursa
d. Ludwig’s Angina is infection of submandibular space.
89. Which of the following is not a true statement-
a. Quiencke’s disease is peritonsillar abscess
b. Eagle syndrome is due to long styloid process
c. Thornwaldt disease is infection of Nasopharyngeal bursa
d. Ludwig’s Angina is infection of submandibular space.
90. What is the commonest presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

a. Unilateral Conductive hearing loss

b. Cervical lymphadenopathy
c. Nasal obstruction
d. Epistaxis
90. What is the commonest presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

a. Unilateral Conductive hearing loss

b. Cervical lymphadenopathy
c. Nasal obstruction
d. Epistaxis
91. A 17 years old male patient underwent tonsillectomy on Monday.
His post operative period was uneventful. He was discharged on next
day. On Sunday morning, he has presented in the Emergency
Department of hospital with the complaint of mild bleeding from oral
cavity.
• What is the best further management?

a. It is normal to have mild bleeding in post operative period, so patient

can be reassured and sent home .
b. Admission and antibiotics
c. Admission and Immediate Re-exploration in operation theatre
d. Start Oral Hematinics
91. A 17 years old male patient underwent tonsillectomy on Monday.
His post operative period was uneventful. He was discharged on next
day. On Sunday morning, he has presented in the Emergency
Department of hospital with the complaint of mild bleeding from oral
cavity.
• What is the best further management?

a. It is normal to have mild bleeding in post operative period, so patient

can be reassured and sent home .
b. Admission and antibiotics
c. Admission and Immediate Re-exploration in operation theatre
d. Start Oral Hematinics
92. Frog face deformity is seen in

a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

b. nasal polyp

c. Angiofibroma

d. Adenoid hypertrophy
92. Frog face deformity is seen in

a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

b. nasal polyp

c. Angiofibroma

d. Adenoid hypertrophy
93. Oropharyngeal picture of a patient with Trismus, plummy voice and
dysphagia is shown in the given image. What is the possible diagnosis?

a. Quiencke’s disease
b. Quinsy
c. Parapharyngeal abscess
d. Ludwig’s angina
93. Oropharyngeal picture of a patient with Trismus, plummy voice and
dysphagia is shown in the given image. What is the possible diagnosis?

a. Quiencke’s disease
b. Quinsy
c. Parapharyngeal abscess
d. Ludwig’s angina
94. Killian’s dehiscence is an area of pharynx devoid of muscular support. It
lies amongst the fibres of which muscle ?

a. Superior constrictor
b. Palatopharyngeus
c. Inferior constrictor
d. Palatoglossus
94. Killian’s dehiscence is an area of pharynx devoid of muscular support. It
lies amongst the fibres of which muscle ?

a. Superior constrictor
b. Palatopharyngeus
c. Inferior constrictor
d. Palatoglossus
95. All of the following are part of Hypopharynx except

a. Post Cricoid area

b. Pyriform sinus
c. Vallecula
d. Posterior Pharyngeal wall
95. All of the following are part of Hypopharynx except

a. Post Cricoid area

b. Pyriform sinus
c. Vallecula
d. Posterior Pharyngeal wall
96. A 6 year old child with the history of mouth breathing, mal-occlusion
of teeth and conductive hearing loss due to glue ear . Which of the
following will be best management plan for this patient?

a. Adenoidectomy
b. Myringotomy
c. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy
d. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy with grommet insertion
96. A 6 year old child with the history of mouth breathing, mal-occlusion
of teeth and conductive hearing loss due to glue ear . Which of the
following will be best management plan for this patient?

a. Adenoidectomy
b. Myringotomy
c. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy
d. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy with grommet insertion
97. In a patient of Quinsy, Trismus develops due to spasm of which
muscle

a) Medial pterygoid
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Masseter
d) Temporalis
97. In a patient of Quinsy, Trismus develops due to spasm of which
muscle
a) Medial pterygoid
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Masseter
d) Temporalis
98. In Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, which of the following is true about
the hearing loss in the patient?

a. Unilateral Sensorineural hearing loss due to 8th nerve involvement

b. Bilateral Sensorineural hearing loss due to 8th nerve involvement
c. Unilateral Conductive hearing loss due to serous otitis media
d. Bilateral conductive hearing loss due to secretory otitis media
98. In Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, which of the following is true about
the hearing loss in the patient?

a. Unilateral Sensorineural hearing loss due to 8th nerve involvement

b. Bilateral Sensorineural hearing loss due to 8th nerve involvement
c. Unilateral Conductive hearing loss due to serous otitis media
d. Bilateral conductive hearing loss due to secretory otitis media
99. All of the following are part of Oropharyx except
a. Palatine tonsil
b. Lingual tonsil
c. Hard Palate
d. Anterior Tonsillar pillar
99. All of the following are part of Oropharyx except
a. Palatine tonsil
b. Lingual tonsil
c. Hard Palate
d. Anterior Tonsillar pillar
100. All are applicable to Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
except
a. Hollman Miller Sign on CECT
b. Frog Face Deformity
c. Biopsy is diagnostic
d. Sphenopalatine foramen is the site of origin
100. All are applicable to Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
except
a. Hollman Miller Sign on CECT
b. Frog Face Deformity
c. Biopsy is diagnostic
d. Sphenopalatine foramen is the site of origin