MATH4511 L2 Part1 PDF
MATH4511 L2 Part1 PDF
Lecture Note 2
0 𝑇1 𝑇2 ⋯⋯ 𝑇𝑛
Payment dates
𝑿 𝑿
Party Middleman Party
(Clearing
A 𝒀 𝒀 B
house)
Loan Financial
Loan
institution
Company suffers from Two floating payments
higher interest payment offset each other
Asset Financial
Asset
institution
Manager gets low return Two floating payments
from the investment offset each other
Step 3: Find the value of the swap and determine the swap rate
The value of the swap (floating rate receiver position) at initialization date is
𝑛
where 𝐵(𝑡; 𝑇) denotes the price of zero-coupon bond with face value 1 and
maturity date 𝑇. (*Note: The summation will be vanished if 𝑇𝑘 = 𝑇𝑛 .)
𝑉𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 = 1612.869𝐵
⏟ (0.5; 1) + ∑ 100000 𝐵(0.5; 𝑖 − 1) − 𝐵(0.5; 𝑖 )
𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 1𝑠𝑡 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 ⏟
𝑖=2
𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 2𝑛𝑑 & 3𝑟𝑑 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠
= 1612.869𝑒 −0.014(0.5) + 100000 𝑒 −0.014(0.5)
−𝑒 −0.019(1.5)
1 1 1 1
⇒ 0.0165 + 2+ 3 =1−
0.03 0.032 𝑠 (1.5) 𝑠 (1.5) 3
(1 + 2 ) (1 + 0 0
[ 2 ) (1 + 2 ) ] (1 + 2 )
⇒ 𝑠0 (1.5) = 0.033028.
Similarly, one can consider the 2-year swap rate 𝐾 = 3.5% and obtain
=1−𝐵(0;2)
⏞4
0.035 𝑖−1 𝑖
𝑁 𝐵(0; 0.5) + 𝐵 (0,1) + 𝐵(0; 1.5) + 𝐵(0; 2) = 𝑁 ∑ [𝐵 (0; ) − 𝐵 (0; )]
⏟2 2 2
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑖𝑥𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑒𝑔
⏟ 𝑖=1
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑙𝑒𝑔
⇒ ⋯ ⇒ 𝑠0 (2) = 0.035075.
Remark:
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
In the above formula, the forward rate 𝐾[(𝑖−1)𝑇,𝑖𝑇] should be calculated based
on the spot rate quoted at time 𝑡 since we assume that the investor enters into
FRA at time 𝑡. That is,
𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝐵(𝑡; (𝑖 − 1)𝑇) 1 + 𝑅[𝑡,𝑖𝑇]
𝐾[(𝑖−1)𝑇,𝑖𝑇] = −1= − 1.
𝐵(𝑡; 𝑖𝑇) 1 + 𝑅[𝑡,(𝑖−1)𝑇]
(a) What can you say about the profitability of the swap?
(b) Suppose that the interest drops and the current swap rates become
5.4% (1 year), 5.6% (2 years), 5.8% (3 years) and 6.1% (4 years)
respectively. What can you say about the profitability of the swap?
If the swap becomes unprofitable, is it possible for the investor to stop the
loss?
31 MATH4511 Quantatitive Methods for Fixed Income Securities
Lecture Note 2: Introduction to interest rate derivative (Part 2)
😊Solution
(a) Recall that the value of on-going swap can be expressed as
𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑖𝑥𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑒𝑔 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠
𝑉𝑡 = { },
𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝐾𝑡 − 𝐾
0.06
Note that 𝐾 = = 0.03. Since the swap has remaining life 3 years, we
2
0.062
have 𝐾𝑡 = = 0.031. This implies that 𝑉𝑡 > 0 and the swap is
2
profitable.
0.058
(b) Since 𝐾𝑡 becomes = 0.029, so we have 𝑉𝑡 < 0 and the swap is not
2
profitable. To stop any future loss, the investor can enter into another 3-
year swap as fixed rate receiver. Then the floating payments of those
two swaps offset each other so that the net future payments become
deterministic. The present value of the future payments is
3
𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑖𝑥𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑒𝑔 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠
𝑉𝑡 = { } = ∑ 𝑁(𝐾𝑡 − 𝐾 )𝐵(0; 𝑖 ).
𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝐾𝑡 − 𝐾
𝑖=1
Although the investor can enjoy a lower swap rate by entering into the 10-
year swap now, he/she may need to make a larger payment in the first 4
payments (comparing with deferred swap). Suppose that the 1-year
interest rate in the first 4 years remains to be around 1%, the investor
needs to pay an additional (0.016376 − 0.01)𝑁 = 0.006376𝑁 in the first
4 payments and this may override the benefit of paying less in the last 6
payments.
𝑖 1 1
𝑉𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 = 𝑁𝑖 𝐵(0; 𝑖 − 1) − 𝐵(0; 𝑖 ) = 𝑁𝑖 ( 𝑖−1
− 𝑖
).
1 + 𝑠0 (𝑖 − 1) 1 + 𝑠0 (𝑖 )
Commodity swap
44 MATH4511 Quantatitive Methods for Fixed Income Securities
Lecture Note 2: Introduction to interest rate derivative (Part 2)
Hence, the airline company can purchase the oil at a fixed and predetermined
price ($𝐾 per unit). This allows the company to have a better control to its
budget.
In this section, we would like to examine the following issues:
How to determine the fair value of 𝐾 (swap rate for commodity swap)?
How to price an on-going commodity swap?
We consider a commodity swap which the payments are made at times
𝑇, 2𝑇, … , 𝑛𝑇. To determine the swap rate, we first calculate the swap value (at
floating rate receiver side) at the initialization date (time 0). Note that
The present value of all fixed leg payments is
𝑛 𝑛
𝑁𝐾
𝑉𝑓𝑖𝑥𝑒𝑑 = ∑ 𝑁𝐾𝐵(0; 𝑖𝑇) = ∑ 𝑖𝑇
.
𝑖=1 1 + 𝑠0 (𝑖𝑇)
𝑖=1
𝑡ℎ
Next, we consider the 𝑖 floating payment (with amount 𝑁𝑆𝑖𝑇 ) paid at
time 𝑖𝑇. To find the “present value” of this payment. We consider the
following portfolio:
45 MATH4511 Quantatitive Methods for Fixed Income Securities
Lecture Note 2: Introduction to interest rate derivative (Part 2)
Enter into 𝑖𝑇-year forward contract on 𝑁 units of the asset with
forward price 𝑓[0,𝑖𝑇] per unit.
Buying a 𝑖𝑇-year zero coupon bond with face value 𝑁𝑓[0,𝑖𝑇] .
Then the net payoff of this portfolio at time 𝑖𝑇 is 𝑁𝑓[0,𝑖𝑇] + 𝑁 𝑆𝑡 − 𝑓[0,𝑖𝑇] =
𝑁𝑆𝑖𝑇 , which is same as the amount of 𝑖 𝑡ℎ floating payment.
By no arbitrage pricing principle, the present value of 𝑖 𝑡ℎ floating payment
equal to the value of the replicating portfolio:
𝑖
𝑉𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 = ⏟
0 ⏟ [0,𝑖𝑇] 𝐵(0; 𝑖𝑇) = 𝑁𝑓[0,𝑖𝑇] 𝐵(0; 𝑖𝑇).
+ 𝑁𝑓
𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡 𝐵𝑜𝑛𝑑
Hence, the value of the swap at time 0 is given by
𝑛 𝑛
where 𝐾𝑡 denotes the swap rate of the commodity swap quoted at time 𝑡.
Party Party
A B
Party B pays the interest on
principal 𝑵. That is, 𝑵𝑲 (𝒇𝒊𝒙𝒆𝒅)
or 𝑵𝑹[(𝒊−𝟏)𝑻,𝒊𝑻] (floating)
(*Note: 𝐸𝑡 denotes the value/price of the asset at time 𝑡.)
Step 3: (At time 𝑇𝑛 ) At the last repayment date, two companies exchange the
notional principal again and each company use the principal received to repay its
outstanding loan completely.
𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷
Company A Company B
(US) (JPN)
𝑁𝑌𝐸𝑁
𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷 𝑁𝑌𝐸𝑁
Under the currency swap, the financial institution earns 0.003𝑁𝑌𝐸𝑁 (in JPN
currency) and 0.003𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷 (in USD currency)
Although there will be a transaction cost, two companies are still willing to
enter the swap and enjoy the lower borrowing cost.
59 MATH4511 Quantatitive Methods for Fixed Income Securities
Lecture Note 2: Introduction to interest rate derivative (Part 2)
Valuation of currency swap
Next, we examine the pricing of the currency swap. One challenge in the valuation
process is that multiple currency is involved in the swap and one has to convert all
payments into same currency to complete the valuation process.
To start with, we consider the following currency swap which the payments in
currency 𝐴 is exchanged for payments in currency 𝐵.
(*To facilitate the analysis, We take currency 𝐴 be the domestic currency and 𝐵 be
the foreign currency. The value of the currency swap is calculated in currency A.)
- There are 𝑛 exchange dates in the swap. Namely, 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 , … , 𝑇𝑛 , where 𝑇𝑖 = 𝑖𝑇.
- The notional principals of two currencies are 𝑁𝐴 (currency A) and 𝑁𝐵
(currency B) respectively. 𝑁𝐴 , 𝑁𝐵 are chosen such that they have the same
value at time 0. That is, 𝑁𝐴 = 𝑆𝐵,0 𝑁𝐵 , where 𝑆𝐵,0 is the exchange rate at 𝑡 =
0 (i.e. 1 unit of currency B = $𝑆𝐵,0 (in currency)).
- The interest rate applied in both currencies are fixed. We assume that the
interest rates over each payment period are 𝐾𝐴 (currency A) and 𝐾𝐵 (currency
B) respectively. (i.e. The swap is a fixed-fixed swap).
𝑉0 = 𝑆⏟
𝐵,0 [∑ 𝐾𝐵 𝑁𝐵 𝐵𝐹 (0; 𝑇𝑖 ) + 𝑁𝐵 𝐵𝐹 (0; 𝑇𝑛 )] − [∑ 𝐾𝐴 𝑁𝐴 𝐵(0; 𝑇𝑖 ) + 𝑁𝐴 𝐵(0; 𝑇𝑛 )],
𝑒𝑥𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 ⏟𝑖=1 ⏟𝑖=1
𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 (𝑖𝑛 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝐵) 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 (𝑖𝑛 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝐴)
where 𝐵𝐹 (0, 𝑇) denotes the current price of foreign zero coupon bond with face
value 1 (in currency B/ foreign currency).
Some remark about the pricing formula of currency swap
Pricing of on-going currency swap at time 𝑡
We let 𝑇𝑘 be the next payment date of the currency swap (i.e. 𝑇𝑘−1 ≤ 𝑡 < 𝑇𝑘 ).
Using similar method, one can deduce that the price of the swap at time 𝑡 is
𝑛 𝑛
− [∑ 𝐾𝐴 𝑁𝐴 𝐵(0; 𝑇𝑖 ) + 𝑁𝐴 𝐵(0; 𝑇𝑛 )]
𝑖=𝑘
𝑆𝐵,0 𝐵𝐹 (0;𝑇)
Using the fact that 𝑓[0,𝑇] = , we can deduce that
𝐵(0;𝑇)
𝑛
𝑆𝐵,0 𝐵𝐹 (0; 𝑇𝑖 ) 𝑆𝐵,0 𝐵𝐹 (0; 𝑇𝑛 )
𝑉0 = ∑ 𝐾𝐵 𝑁𝐵 ( ) 𝐵 (0; 𝑇𝑖 ) + 0 + 𝑁𝐵 ( ) 𝐵 (0; 𝑇𝑛 )
⏟ 𝐵 (0; 𝑇𝑖 ) ⏟ 𝐵 (0; 𝑇𝑛 )
𝑖=1
𝑓[0,𝑇 ] 𝑓[0,𝑇𝑛 ]
( 𝑖 ) ( )
𝑛
− [∑ 𝐾𝐴 𝑁𝐴 𝐵(0; 𝑇𝑖 ) + 𝑁𝐴 𝐵(0; 𝑇𝑛 )]
𝑖=𝑘
𝑛 𝑛
0.06𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 0.06𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷
0.03𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷 0.06𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷
It is clear that company A is not better off in this scenario since it has to pay more
and the financial institution earns nothing. Thus, one needs to modify the cashflow
as follows:
𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟐𝑵𝑼𝑺𝑫
0.03𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷 0.03𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷
Company A Financial Company B
(US) Institution (HKG)
0.06𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 0.06𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷
0.03𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓𝟐𝑵𝑯𝑲𝑫 0.06𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷
𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟐𝟓𝑵𝑯𝑲𝑫
0.03𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 0.03𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷
Company A Financial Company B
(US dollar) Institution (HK dollar)
(𝐿 + 0.015)𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷 (𝐿 + 0.015)𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷
0.03𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 (𝐿 + 0.0075)𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷
(𝐿 + 0.015)𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷
As a verification, one can check that the profit made by financial
institution at each payment date is
𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 = (0.0425 − 0.03)𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 − 7.8(𝐿 + 0.015 − 𝐿 − 0.0075)𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷
= 0.005𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 .
𝑁𝑈𝑆𝐷
+ ) = 1.033863𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 .
(1.035)𝑖
Thus, the current price of the currency swap (in HKD currency) is
𝑉0 = 1.023229𝑁
⏟ 𝐻𝐾𝐷 − 1.033863𝑁
⏟ 𝐻𝐾𝐷 = −0.01063𝑁𝐻𝐾𝐷 .
𝑉𝐻𝐾𝐷 𝑉𝑈𝑆𝐷
74 MATH4511 Quantatitive Methods for Fixed Income Securities
Lecture Note 2: Introduction to interest rate derivative (Part 2)