1.

Period of practical experience and training in clinical nursing supervised by an expert of a

particular field is known as:

- (a) Preceptorship

- Explanation: Preceptorship is a period during which a novice nurse or student is paired

with an experienced nurse (preceptor) to gain practical experience and training in a clinical
setting.

2. The overall plan of rotation of all students in educational institution including teaching
learning activities and related events during academic year is known as:

- (b) Master rotation plan

- Explanation: A master rotation plan outlines the schedule and rotation of students
through various clinical and educational activities throughout the academic year.

3. Consider the following statements regarding Objective Structured Clinical Examination

(OSCE) method:

- 1. It provides more emphasis on performance of skills

- 2. It is more useful in assessing the knowledge of students

- 3. It requires checklists for evaluation

- 4. Holistic approach to patient management cannot be assessed

- Which of the statements given above are correct?

- (c) 2, 3 and 4

- Explanation: OSCE is designed to assess clinical skills and competencies in a structured

manner using checklists. It may not fully assess the holistic approach to patient
management.

4. Which one of the following tools maintained by teacher is very valuable for assessment
of student’s performance?
 - (b) Anecdotal record

- Explanation: Anecdotal records are detailed, narrative descriptions of a student’s

behavior or performance, which provide valuable insights into their progress and areas for
improvement.

5. A chart indicating the distribution of questions based on objectives and content area is
called:

- (b) Blue print

- Explanation: A blueprint in education is a detailed plan that maps out the distribution of
questions in an assessment, ensuring that all objectives and content areas are adequately
covered.

6. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:

- (c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

- Explanation:

- A. Develops a sense of trust → 2. Infancy (Erikson's stage of trust vs. mistrust)

- B. Develops autonomy → 4. Preschool age (Erikson's stage of autonomy vs. shame and
doubt)

- C. Develops initiative and purpose → 3. School age (Erikson's stage of initiative vs. guilt)

- D. Develops a sense of accomplishment → 1. Toddlerhood (Erikson's stage of industry

vs. inferiority)

12. Which one of the following babies is eligible for Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)?

- © Hemodynamically stable Low birth weight baby

- Explanation: KMC is recommended for hemodynamically stable low birth weight babies
to promote bonding and improve health outcomes through skin-to-skin contact.
13. A 10-year-old child has been admitted in a paediatric medical ward with sudden onset
of haematuria, oliguria, edema and hypertension. Which one of the following conditions
the child is likely to have?

- © Acute glomerulonephritis

- Explanation: Acute glomerulonephritis commonly presents with symptoms such as

hematuria, oliguria, edema, and hypertension due to inflammation of the glomeruli in the
kidneys.

14. A six-year-old child has been admitted in paediatric medical ward as a case of
malignant tumour. Which one of the following is the most common in the above age group?

- © Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

- Explanation: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is the most common type of cancer in
children, particularly in the age group of 2-6 years.

15. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:

- © A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

- Explanation:

- A. Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis → 2. Projectile vomiting

- B. Intussusception → 4. Recurrent vomiting

- C. Peptic Ulcer → 1. Bilious vomiting

- D. Appendicitis → 3. Pain in the right lower quadrant of abdomen

16. Excessive stretching of a muscle and its fascial sheath often involving tendon is known
as:

- (a) Strain

- Explanation: A strain involves excessive stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon,

while a sprain involves ligaments.
17. Abnormal, tortuous opening between the bladder and vagina is known as:

- (d) Vesicovaginal fistula

- Explanation: A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder

and the vagina, leading to continuous urinary leakage.

18. Consider the following steps of Chest tube removal:

1. Valsalva maneuver

2. Administration of analgesic

3. Chest X-ray

4. Air tight dressing of the site

- © 3, 4, 1, 2

- Explanation: The correct sequence for chest tube removal typically involves first
ensuring that the lung is fully expanded with a chest X-ray, then applying an airtight
dressing, performing the Valsalva maneuver to prevent air entry, and finally administering
an analgesic for pain management.

19. The characteristic manifestations of Nephrotic syndrome include:

- (a) Massive proteinuria, Hypertension, Hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia, foamy urine

- Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by significant protein loss in the urine

(massive proteinuria), resulting in low levels of protein in the blood (hypoalbuminemia),
high cholesterol (hyperlipidemia), and often, foamy urine due to protein content.

20. A patient is suffering with celiac disease. Which one of the following food items he
should avoid in his diet?

- (a) Wheat

- Explanation: Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder where the ingestion of gluten, a

protein found in wheat, barley, and rye, leads to damage in the small intestine. Therefore,
wheat should be avoided.
21. A nurse caring for a patient with Type-2 Diabetes mellitus with high dose insulin was
monitoring blood glucose level between 2 am to 4 am. She is trying to assess:

- (b) Somogyi effect

- Explanation: The Somogyi effect refers to rebound hyperglycemia following an episode

of hypoglycemia, which often occurs in the early morning hours.

22. A patient with renal dysfunction develops uremia, when his GFR is:

- (a) ≤ 15 mL/min

- Explanation: Uremia, a condition of high urea levels in the blood, typically develops
when the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) falls to 15 mL/min or less, indicating severe kidney
failure.

23. Consider the following statements regarding preparation of multiple-choice questions:

1. Stem should be clear and explicit

2. Use negatives and double negatives

3. The alternatives should be similar in length, detail and complexity

4. Avoid using distractors that are essentially the same

- © 1, 3 and 4 only

- Explanation: Effective multiple-choice questions should have clear and explicit stems,
alternatives that are similar in length and complexity, and avoid using distractors that are
too similar. The use of negatives and double negatives is generally discouraged as it can
confuse test-takers.

24. The type of evaluation that compares the student’s performance with others in the
same group is referred as:

- (b) Norm referenced

- Explanation: Norm-referenced evaluations compare a student’s performance to that of

their peers, determining their position within a group.
25. Which of the following are the purposes of audiovisual aids?

- 1. To simplify unfamiliar concepts

- 2. To bring about understanding where words fail

- 3. To reinforce learning appealing to more than one sense

- © 1, 2 and 3

- Explanation: Audiovisual aids help simplify complex concepts, enhance understanding

where verbal explanations may not suffice, and engage multiple senses to reinforce
learning.

26. Which one of the following educational philosophies emphasizes practical utility and
activity-based curriculum?

- (a) Pragmatism

- Explanation: Pragmatism focuses on practical outcomes and real-world applications,

encouraging an activity-based curriculum that promotes hands-on learning.

27. Which of the following statements regarding brainstorming method of teaching are
correct?

- 1. It promotes critical thinking

- 2. It makes students more skilled

- 3. It promotes group activity

- 4. Maximum ideas can be sought in a short time

- © 1, 3 and 4

- Explanation: Brainstorming encourages critical thinking, fosters group activity, and is an

efficient way to generate a large number of ideas quickly.

28. Which one of the following methods is best for psychomotor skill development among
students?
 - © Demonstration

- Explanation: Demonstration is an effective method for teaching psychomotor skills as it

provides a visual and practical example for students to follow and replicate.

29. The type of teaching method used for developing teaching skills and competencies in
teacher trainee is:

- (a) Microteaching

- Explanation: Microteaching is a teacher training technique that allows teachers to

practice and refine their teaching skills in a controlled environment with feedback.

30. Which one of the following counselling skills involves paraphrasing client’s words and
saying what counsellor think about client’s feeling?

- (b) Reflecting

- Explanation: Reflecting in counseling involves the counselor paraphrasing what the

client has said and expressing an understanding of the client’s feelings and thoughts,
promoting deeper understanding and empathy.

31. All of the following are true about care bundle EXCEPT:

- (b) Care bundles increases the possibility of long-term complication of a particular

disease

- Explanation: Care bundles are designed to improve patient outcomes by implementing

a set of evidence-based practices. They do not increase long-term complications; instead,
they aim to reduce them.

32. The type of exercise in which muscle contraction occurs without moving the joint is
called:

- (d) Isometric exercise

 - Explanation: Isometric exercises involve muscle contractions without any visible
movement of the joint. Examples include planking or holding a weight steady.

33. All of the following are the potential circulatory problems after surgery EXCEPT:

- (d) Tympanites

- Explanation: Tympanites refers to the distension of the abdomen due to the presence of
gas or air in the intestinal or peritoneal cavity, which is not a circulatory problem.
Thrombophlebitis, embolus, and hemorrhage are circulatory issues.

34. In wound healing, the phase where fibroblasts migrate into the wound and begin to
synthesize collagen is called:

- © Proliferation phase

- Explanation: The proliferation phase of wound healing involves fibroblasts migrating into
the wound site and synthesizing collagen, forming new tissue.

35. All are the examination methods for assessment of eyes EXCEPT:

- (d) Romberg test

- Explanation: The Romberg test assesses proprioception and balance, not eye health.
Tonometry, slit lamp test, and refraction test are all methods used to assess eye health.

36. Elderly people are more prone to get respiratory infection because of:

- 1. Decline in cell-mediated immunity

- 2. Decline in humoral immunity

- 3. Decreased formation of secretory IgA

- 4. Fewer or less functional cilia

- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

- Explanation: Elderly people are more susceptible to respiratory infections due to a

decline in both cell-mediated and humoral immunity, decreased formation of secretory IgA
(which helps in mucosal immunity), and fewer or less functional cilia in the respiratory
tract, which impair the clearance of pathogens.

37. Which of the following are the advantages of Dry powdered Inhalers (DPIs) over Metered
Dose Inhalers (MDIs)?

- 1. It requires less manual dexterity

- 2. It does not require spacer

- 3. It is effective in patients with low FEV₁ (<1 L)

- 4. There is no need to coordinate device puffs with inhalation

- (d) 2 and 3 only

- Explanation: DPIs do not require a spacer, and they do not need coordination between
device puffs and inhalation. However, they may not be effective in patients with low FEV₁
(<1 L) as these patients may not be able to generate sufficient inspiratory flow to activate
the device.

38. The List I contains the name of the artery and the List II contains the manifestation of
stroke related to artery involvement. Match the List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:

- © A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

- Explanation:

- A. Anterior cerebral → 2. Loss of proprioception and fine touch

- B. Middle cerebral → 4. Visual hallucination

- C. Posterior cerebral → 1. Aphasia

- D. Vertebral → 3. Dysarthria and dysphagia

39. Bell’s palsy is an acute, usually temporary condition resulting from damage or trauma
of:
 - (d) Cranial VII

- Explanation: Bell’s palsy is caused by dysfunction of the seventh cranial nerve (facial
nerve), leading to sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the
face.

40. Which one of the following markers begin to rise about 6 hours after Myocardial
Infarction and peaks in 18 hours?

- (a) CK-MB

- Explanation: CK-MB (Creatine Kinase-MB) is a cardiac marker that begins to rise about 6
hours after a myocardial infarction and peaks around 18 hours.

41. A nurse is assessing stoma before changing the colostomy bag. Which one of the
following colour of stoma indicates ischemia?

- (b) Brown-black

- Explanation: A brown-black color of the stoma indicates ischemia or necrosis,

suggesting inadequate blood supply to the stoma tissue.

42. A patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The laboratory test was performed.
Which one of the following laboratory findings will show decrease in value?

- (d) Serum calcium

- Explanation: In acute pancreatitis, serum calcium levels often decrease due to

saponification, where free fatty acids released by the inflamed pancreas bind calcium,
leading to hypocalcemia.

43. Nursing care of the patient after thyroid surgery includes all of the following EXCEPT:

- (d) Promoting intake of iodine-rich food

- Explanation: After thyroid surgery, the focus is on monitoring for complications such as
hypocalcemia, providing semi-Fowler’s position to reduce swelling, and assessing the
ability to speak due to the risk of vocal cord damage. Promoting iodine-rich food is not a
priority post-surgery.

44. The predominant clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis include:

- (a) Diarrhea, passage of mucus and pus in stool, rectal bleeding

- Explanation: Ulcerative colitis commonly presents with symptoms like chronic diarrhea,
passage of mucus and pus in stool, and rectal bleeding due to the inflammation of the
colon lining.

45. Which one of the following is NOT a surgical therapy in case of Meniere’s disease?

- (a) Stapedotomy

- Explanation: Stapedotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat otosclerosis, not

Meniere’s disease. Surgical options for Meniere’s disease include labyrinthectomy,
endolymphatic shunt, and vestibular nerve section.

46. For adults, the ratio of chest compression-to-ventilation in case of single rescuer
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is:

- © 30:2

- Explanation: The correct ratio for adult CPR by a single rescuer is 30 chest
compressions followed by 2 ventilations.

47. Wound caused by an injury with a blunt object, leading to tearing of soft tissue is known
as:

- (a) Laceration

- Explanation: A laceration is a wound that results from the tearing of soft tissue, typically
caused by blunt trauma, leading to jagged, irregular edges.

48. In normal range-of-motion, movement of extremity away from midline of body is termed
as:
 - (d) Abduction

- Explanation: Abduction is the movement of a limb or other part away from the midline of
the body. For example, lifting the arms sideways away from the body is an abduction.

49. Which one of the following breathing patterns indicates rhythm abnormality?

- (b) Cheyne-Stokes breathing

- Explanation: Cheyne-Stokes breathing is characterized by a cyclical pattern of

progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that
results in a temporary stop in breathing (apnea). This indicates a rhythm abnormality.

50. Which one of the following levels of illness prevention includes actions and measures
that inhibit the emergence of risk factors?

- (b) Primordial prevention

- Explanation: Primordial prevention involves measures aimed at preventing the

emergence or establishment of social, economic, and cultural patterns of living that are
known to contribute to an elevated risk of disease. It focuses on preventing risk factors
from developing.

51. Transverse depressions in nails indicating temporary disturbance of nail growth are
known as:

- (d) Beau’s lines

- Explanation: Beau’s lines are transverse depressions in the nails that occur due to a
temporary interruption in nail growth, often associated with severe illness or nutritional
deficiencies.

52. Which of the following are adventitious breath sounds on auscultation?

- 1. Crackles

- 2. Rhonchi
 - 3. Wheeze

- 4. Pleural friction rub

- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

- Explanation: All listed sounds are adventitious (abnormal) breath sounds:

- Crackles: Discontinuous, brief, popping sounds.

- Rhonchi: Low-pitched, continuous sounds.

- Wheeze: High-pitched, continuous sounds.

- Pleural friction rub: Grating sound due to inflamed pleural surfaces rubbing against
each other.

53. Presence and growth of micro-organisms within a host but without tissue invasion or
damage is known as:

- © Colonization

- Explanation: Colonization refers to the presence and growth of microorganisms on or

within a host without causing tissue invasion or damage, as opposed to infection where
there is tissue invasion and damage.

54. Which of the following biomedical wastes should be discarded in yellow colour waste
bin?

- 1. Human anatomical waste

- 2. Urobag

- 3. Needles

- 4. Soiled plaster casts

- 5. Glass slides

- (b) 1 and 4

- Explanation: Yellow bins are used for disposing of human anatomical waste and soiled
plaster casts. Needles should go into sharps containers, glass slides into puncture-proof
containers, and urobag disposal may vary depending on the content but generally not
yellow bins.

55. Sleepwalking and enuresis occur in which stage of sleep cycle?

- (d) NREM sleep stage 4

- Explanation: Sleepwalking (somnambulism) and enuresis (bedwetting) typically occur

during deep sleep stages, particularly in stage 4 of Non-Rapid Eye Movement (NREM) sleep,
which is characterized by delta waves.

56. Which one of the following neurotransmitters have inhibitory effect on pain?

- (b) Endorphins

- Explanation: Endorphins are natural painkillers produced by the body. They inhibit pain
signals by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, providing an analgesic effect.

57. Low arterial concentrations of oxygen in blood is termed as:

- (a) Hypoxemia

- Explanation: Hypoxemia refers to low levels of oxygen in the blood, which can lead to
hypoxia, a condition where the body’s tissues are deprived of adequate oxygen.

58. Which one among the following is a physiologically hypertonic solution?

- (a) 3% sodium chloride

- Explanation: A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solutes compared to

the intracellular fluid. 3% sodium chloride solution is hypertonic and is used in medical
settings to treat certain conditions.

59. Flat and painless thickened portion of epidermis consisting of mass of horny, keratotic
cells formed by local pressure or friction found on palm or undersurface of foot is called:

- (d) Callus
 - Explanation: A callus is a thickened and hardened part of the skin that forms in
response to repeated friction, pressure, or other irritation.

60. Which one of the following core critical thinking skills relates to monitoring and
correcting mistakes occurring in process of interpreting, analyzing, inferring, evaluating or
explaining?

- © Self-regulation

- Explanation: Self-regulation in critical thinking involves monitoring one’s own cognitive

processes and correcting mistakes or biases in reasoning.

61. As per Parkland formula, the amount of fluid to be infused in the first 8 hours to the
patient of 70 kg weight having 50% total body surface area of burn will be:

- (a) 8000 mL

- Explanation: The Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in burn patients is: \(4 \times
\text{body weight (kg)} \times \text{percentage of body surface area burned}\). For a 70 kg
patient with 50% burns:

\[

4 \times 70 \times 50 = 14000 \text{ mL (total fluid for 24 hours)}

\]

Half of this amount (7000 mL) should be given in the first 8 hours. Given the options
provided, 8000 mL might be a rounded or mistakenly listed amount, but according to the
standard calculation, it should be 7000 mL.

62. Vascular skin lesions which are benign tumor consisting of blood and lymph vessels are
called:

- (d) Angioma

- Explanation: Angiomas are benign tumors derived from cells of the vascular or
lymphatic vessel walls (endothelium) or derived from cells of the tissues surrounding these
vessels.
63. Consider the following statements regarding the principles of aseptic technique
practiced in operating room:

1. All material that enters the sterile field must be sterile

2. The parts of gown worn by surgical team considered sterile are the front from chest to
table level and sleeves up to 2 inches above elbow

3. A wide margin of safety is maintained between sterile and unsterile field

4. Tables are sterile at table top and up to 4 inches below it

- (b) 2, 3 and 4

- Explanation: The correct principles of aseptic technique are:

- The sterile field is only considered sterile at the table level, not below it.

- The front of the gown from chest to table level and sleeves up to 2 inches above the
elbow are considered sterile.

- A wide margin of safety is maintained between sterile and non-sterile fields.

64. A nurse caring for the patient after cataract surgery should include which of the
following care immediately after the surgery?

1. Administer topical antibiotics

2. Administer topical corticosteroids

3. Administer sedatives

4. Advise activity restriction like bending and lifting

- (d) 1, 2 and 3

- Explanation: Post-operative care after cataract surgery includes administering topical

antibiotics and corticosteroids to prevent infection and inflammation. Advising activity
restriction is also crucial to prevent increased intraocular pressure. Sedatives are generally
not part of standard post-operative care unless specifically needed for patient anxiety or
discomfort.
65. The definite symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma include:

- (a) Severe eye pain, blurred vision, seeing colored halos around lights and ocular
redness

- Explanation: Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by a rapid increase in

intraocular pressure, leading to severe eye pain, blurred vision, seeing colored halos
around lights, and redness of the eye.

66. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:

- List I (Retractor)

- A. Langenback

- B. Morris

- C. Deaver

- D. Dyball

- List II (Use)

- 1. Useful for giving maximum exposure in large incisions such as those used in
abdomen

- 2. Useful for holding the liver up during cholecystectomy

- 3. Useful in major abdominal surgery to retract deeper parts of the abdominal wall or
the bladder or uterus while operating on the rectum

- 4. Useful for holding open wound like in appendicectomy

- © A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

- Explanation:

- A. Langenback → 3. Useful in major abdominal surgery to retract deeper parts of the

abdominal wall or the bladder or uterus while operating on the rectum

- B. Morris → 1. Useful for giving maximum exposure in large incisions such as those used
in abdomen

- C. Deaver → 2. Useful for holding the liver up during cholecystectomy

 - D. Dyball → 4. Useful for holding open wound like in appendicectomy

67. Purposes of administering Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) in cases of bladder cancer

are all EXCEPT:

- (b) Prevents bleeding

- Explanation: BCG is used for its antitumor activity, to prevent recurrence of transitional
cell bladder tumors, and as an immunotherapeutic agent. It is not used to prevent
bleeding.

68. All of the following instructions related to investigation of a patient who has to undergo
bone densitometry are correct EXCEPT:

- (b) Patient must remain nil per orally at least 12 hours before the investigation

- Explanation: For bone densitometry, patients do not need to remain nil per orally (NPO)
for 12 hours. They should avoid calcium supplements 24 hours before, remove
clothing/jewelry/metal objects during the scan, and lie still with hips flexed during the test.

69. Which one of the following is the prerenal cause of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?

- c) Shock

- Explanation: Prerenal causes of AKI are conditions that reduce blood flow to the
kidneys. Shock is a prerenal cause as it leads to decreased perfusion and can result in AKI.
Immunologic processes and toxins are intrinsic causes, and urinary stricture is a postrenal
cause.

70. Which one of the following is most appropriate for pain assessment in patients with
chronic pain?

- (a) Multidimensional questionnaire

- Explanation: Chronic pain assessment often requires a comprehensive approach that

evaluates various dimensions of pain (e.g., intensity, affect, impact on daily living). A
multidimensional questionnaire provides a detailed assessment compared to single-
dimensional scales like the FACES scale, Visual Analogue Scale, or Verbal Descriptor
Scale.

71. All of the following are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs EXCEPT:

- © Allopurinol

- Explanation: Allopurinol is not an NSAID. It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to

reduce uric acid levels in conditions like gout. Naproxen, indomethacin, and diclofenac
sodium are NSAIDs.

72. Which one of the following is a generalized disorder of connective tissue characterized
by hardening and thickening of skin, blood vessels, skeletal muscles and internal organs?

- (b) Systemic Sclerosis

- Explanation: Systemic sclerosis, also known as scleroderma, is characterized by

fibrosis and thickening of the skin and other connective tissues, affecting various organs.

73. Which one of the following diagnostic tests is used to measure the electrical activity of
brain cells?

- © Electroencephalography

- Explanation: Electroencephalography (EEG) measures the electrical activity of the brain

and is used to diagnose conditions such as epilepsy and other neurological disorders.

74. All of the following are exclusion criteria for tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) therapy
EXCEPT:

- (d) Ischemic stroke

- Explanation: Ischemic stroke is an indication for tPA therapy, not an exclusion criterion.
Exclusion criteria include a glucose level > 400 mg/dL, coagulopathy, and history of major
surgery in the past 2 weeks.
75. Which one of the following drugs stabilizes the cardiac membrane in a patient with
hyperkalemia?

- © Calcium gluconate

- Explanation: Calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane in

hyperkalemia, reducing the risk of arrhythmias.

76. Which one of the following hormones is secreted by neurohypophysis that causes
uterine contractions?

- (d) Oxytocin

- Explanation: The neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) secretes oxytocin, which

stimulates uterine contractions during labor.

77. Which one of the following plasma proteins has the function of maintaining osmotic
pressure?

- c) Albumin

- Explanation: Albumin is the primary plasma protein responsible for maintaining osmotic
pressure in the blood, helping to keep fluid in the bloodstream and prevent edema.

78. Which of the following conditions can cause Steatorrhea?

1. Pancreatic enzyme insufficiency

2. Diseases affecting small intestines

3. Bile acid deficiency

4. Insulin deficiency

- (a) 1 and 2 only

- Explanation: Steatorrhea, the presence of excess fat in feces, can be caused by

pancreatic enzyme insufficiency and diseases affecting the small intestines. Bile acid
deficiency can also cause steatorrhea, but insulin deficiency is not a direct cause.
79. All of the following are theories of motivation EXCEPT:

- (d) Sternberg’s triarchic theory

- Explanation: Sternberg’s triarchic theory is a theory of intelligence, not motivation.

Theories of motivation include Self-determination theory, Hull’s theory, and
Psychoanalytical theory.

80. The highest level of growth needs as per the Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory is:

- (d) Self-actualization

- Explanation: In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level of

growth needs, representing the realization of an individual’s potential and self-fulfillment.

81. An IQ score of 90 is classified as:

- (b) Average

- Explanation: An IQ score of 90 falls within the average range, typically considered to be

between 85 and 115.

82. According to Sigmund Freud’s theory of Psychoanalysis, all of the following are
structures of personality EXCEPT:

- (a) Conscious

- Explanation: Freud’s structures of personality include the Id, Ego, and Superego. The
conscious is a level of awareness, not a structure of personality.

83. The conflict that occurs due to having to choose between two positive goals which are
equally attractive at the same time is called:

- (d) Approach-approach conflict

- Explanation: An approach-approach conflict occurs when an individual must choose

between two desirable options.
84. The type of family in which the father has the highest status in the family who controls
the social life of the family is called:

- (a) Patriarchal family

- Explanation: In a patriarchal family, the father or eldest male holds the highest status
and typically has authority over family decisions and social life.

85. Which of the following are ways of Acculturation?

1. Trade and commerce

2. Industrialization

3. Education

4. Conquest

- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

- Explanation: Acculturation refers to the process of cultural change and psychological

change that results following meeting between cultures. Trade and commerce,
industrialization, education, and conquest are all ways through which acculturation can
occur.

86. Which of the following are essential amino acids?

1. Leucine

2. Tryptophan

3. Methionine

4. Cystine

5. Histidine

- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

- Explanation: Essential amino acids are those that cannot be synthesized by the body
and must be obtained from the diet. Leucine, tryptophan, and methionine are essential
amino acids. Cystine and histidine are not considered essential amino acids in adults
(though histidine is essential for infants).

87. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:

- List I (Deficiency)

- A. Corneal xerosis

- B. Keratomalacia

- C. Conjunctival xerosis

- D. Bitot’s spot

- List II (Sign)

- 1. Triangular, pearly-white or yellowish, foamy spots on bulbar conjunctiva

- 2. Cornea dull, dry and non-wettable and eventually opaque

- 3. Cornea becomes soft and may burst open

- 4. Conjunctiva becomes dry and non-wettable

- © A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

- Explanation:

- A. Corneal xerosis → 2. Cornea dull, dry and non-wettable and eventually opaque

- B. Keratomalacia → 3. Cornea becomes soft and may burst open

- C. Conjunctival xerosis → 4. Conjunctiva becomes dry and non-wettable

- D. Bitot’s spot → 1. Triangular, pearly-white or yellowish, foamy spots on bulbar

conjunctiva

88. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
 - List I (Nutrient)

- A. Vitamin D

- B. Niacin

- C. Vitamin C

- D. Phosphorus

- List II (Function)

- 1. Essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins

- 2. Promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus

- 3. Essential for formation of bones and teeth

- 4. Acts as antioxidant

- (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

- Explanation:

- A. Vitamin D → 2. Promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus

- B. Niacin → 1. Essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins

- C. Vitamin C → 4. Acts as antioxidant

- D. Phosphorus → 3. Essential for formation of bones and teeth

89. Which one of the following serum enzymes is used in clinical diagnosis of acute
pancreatitis?

- (d) Amylase

- Explanation: Serum amylase and lipase levels are commonly measured in the diagnosis
of acute pancreatitis. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate pancreatic inflammation.

90. Which one of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum?

- © IgG
 - Explanation: IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in human serum and plays a
critical role in the body’s immune response by neutralizing pathogens and facilitating
phagocytosis.

91. Which one of the following is NOT a component of epidemiological triad?

- (d) Disease

- Explanation: The epidemiological triad consists of the agent, host, and environment.
Disease is the outcome of interactions between these components and is not considered a
component of the triad itself.

92. During Pulse Polio Immunization, Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) has noticed that on
vaccine vial monitor the color of square inside the circle is darker than the circle around it.
What should be her action?

- (d) Should not use this vial for vaccination

- Explanation: If the color of the square inside the circle on the vaccine vial monitor is
darker than the circle around it, it indicates that the vaccine has been exposed to higher
temperatures and may have lost its potency. The vial should not be used for vaccination.

93. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:

- List I (Disease)

- A. Bordetella pertussis

- B. Salmonella typhi

- C. Clostridium perfringens

- D. Flavivirus

- List II (Causative agent)

- 1. Yellow fever

- 2. Food poisoning
 - 3. Whooping cough

- 4. Enteric fever

- © A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

- Explanation:

- A. Bordetella pertussis → 3. Whooping cough

- B. Salmonella typhi → 4. Enteric fever

- C. Clostridium perfringens → 2. Food poisoning

- D. Flavivirus → 1. Yellow fever

94. Which one of the following services should ideally form the base of the health service
pyramid?

- (b) Population-based health care services

- Explanation: Population-based health care services form the base of the health service
pyramid because they encompass broad, preventive measures that affect the entire
population, aiming to improve overall public health.

95. Community-Based Assessment Checklist (CBAC) for early detection of non-

communicable diseases is to be filled by:

- (d) ASHA

- Explanation: Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) are community health workers
who fill out Community-Based Assessment Checklists to help detect non-communicable
diseases early.

96. Which of the following are the team members of Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs)
at Sub Centre (SC) level?

- (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

- Explanation: The team at the Sub Centre level typically includes:

- 1. Community Health Officers (Mid-Level Health Providers)

 - 2. ANM

- 3. ASHA

Anganwadi worker is not typically included in this team.

97. Which one of the following color codes is NOT correct for triage system adopted in
triage of disaster management in India?

- © 1 and 3 only

- Explanation: In the triage system:

- Red indicates high priority treatment.

- Yellow indicates medium priority care.

- Green indicates ambulatory patients.

- Black indicates deceased or non-survivable injuries.

Blue color is not typically used for triage coding in disaster management.

98. Under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), how much
cover per family per year is provided for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization?

- (b) INR 5,00,000

- Explanation: Under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, each
family is provided with a health cover of INR 5,00,000 per year for secondary and tertiary
care hospitalization.

99. Discouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles for the prevention of non-
communicable disease is an example of:

- (a) Primordial prevention

 - Explanation: Primordial prevention involves measures taken to prevent the emergence
or establishment of risk factors for disease, focusing on altering social, economic, and
environmental conditions.

100. Screening of a sub-group population for a particular disease is called:

- (b) Selective screening

- Explanation: Selective screening targets specific high-risk groups within the population
for early detection of disease, rather than screening the entire population.

101. Which one of the following is the indicator of prevalence of contraceptive practice in
the community?

- © Couple Protection Rate

- Explanation: Couple Protection Rate (CPR) is an indicator of the prevalence of

contraceptive practice in the community, representing the percentage of couples using any
method of contraception.

102. Which one of the following occupational diseases occurs due to sugarcane dust?

- (d) Bagassosis

- Explanation: Bagassosis is a respiratory disease caused by inhaling dust from bagasse,

the fibrous byproduct of sugarcane processing.

103. Which one of the following vaccines is sensitive to freezing and should be protected
from sub-zero temperature?

- (b) BCG

- Explanation: The Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is sensitive to freezing and

must be stored and transported at temperatures above 0°C to maintain its efficacy.

104. Peyer’s patches are present in:

- (d) Ileum
 - Explanation: Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues found in the ileum, the last part of
the small intestine, and play a role in the immune response.

105. The type of joints, where movement takes place about a single stationary axis, and is
largely restricted to one plane are known as:

- (b) Hinge joints

- Explanation: Hinge joints allow movement in one plane around a single axis, similar to
the motion of a door hinge. Examples include the elbow and knee joints.

106. A report of any event that is NOT consistent with the routine of hospital and is written
only if any mishap or mistake occurs in patient care is called:

- © Incident report

- Explanation: An incident report is a formal documentation of an unusual event, such as

a mishap or mistake, that occurs in the hospital setting and is not consistent with routine
operations.

107. When one chooses a course of action from several options, based on a criterion,
based on regulations of institution and professional standards, this process is called:

- (b) Decision making

- Explanation: Decision making involves choosing the best course of action from several
options based on criteria, institutional regulations, and professional standards.

108. The most appropriate data collection tool to measure attitude towards condom use
would be:

- (d) Likert-scale

- Explanation: A Likert-scale is a psychometric scale commonly used in questionnaires to

measure attitudes or opinions. It is suitable for measuring attitudes towards condom use
by assessing the extent of agreement or disagreement with various statements.
109. Consider the following research statement: “A study to assess motivation-focused
intervention effect on self-esteem of adolescents in a school.” What type of variable is
‘motivation-focused intervention’ in the statement given above?

- (b) Independent

- Explanation: The independent variable is the one that is manipulated or controlled by

the researcher to observe its effect on the dependent variable. In this case, ‘motivation-
focused intervention’ is the independent variable, as it is the intervention being tested to
see its effect on self-esteem (the dependent variable).

110. A researcher conducted a study to describe the lived experiences of caregivers of

patients with Dementia. Which type of qualitative study is conducted by the researcher?

- (b) Phenomenology

- Explanation: Phenomenology is a qualitative research approach that focuses on

exploring and describing the lived experiences of individuals. This method is appropriate
for studying the experiences of caregivers of patients with dementia.

111. The following diagram is indicative of:

- © Perfect positive correlation

- Explanation: The diagram shows a linear relationship where the points lie exactly on a
straight line with a positive slope, indicating a perfect positive correlation between the
variables (height and weight in this case).

112. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists:

- List I (Phase)

- A. Empirical phase

- B. Design and planning phase

 - C. Dissemination phase

- D. Analytic phase

- List II (Step)

- 1. Deciding a sampling plan

- 2. Interpreting the results

- 3. Collecting the data

- 4. Utilizing the findings

- (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

- Explanation:

- A. Empirical phase → 3. Collecting the data

- B. Design and planning phase → 1. Deciding a sampling plan

- C. Dissemination phase → 4. Utilizing the findings

- D. Analytic phase → 2. Interpreting the results

113. Approach to reliability assessment that involves administration of the same measure
to the same people on two occasions is called:

- (b) Test-retest reliability

- Explanation: Test-retest reliability involves measuring the consistency of a test over time
by administering the same test to the same participants on two different occasions.

114. A 26 years old woman visiting gynecology OPD complains of creamy vaginal discharge
with fishy odor. There is no history of itching. The possible diagnosis of the patient is:

- © Bacterial vaginosis

- Explanation: Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by a fishy odor and creamy vaginal

discharge, often without itching.
115. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists:

- List I (Phenomenon)

- A. Threatened abortion

- B. Missed abortion

- C. Incomplete abortion

- D. Complete abortion

- List II (Diagnostic feature of USG)

- 1. Foetus without cardiac activity

- 2. Uterine cavity empty

- 3. Foetus alive and retroplacental haemorrhage

- 4. Products of conception partly retained

- (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

- Explanation:

- A. Threatened abortion → 3. Foetus alive and retroplacental haemorrhage

- B. Missed abortion → 1. Foetus without cardiac activity

- C. Incomplete abortion → 4. Products of conception partly retained

- D. Complete abortion → 2. Uterine cavity empty

116. Daily requirement of calcium during pregnancy and lactation is:

- (a) 500 – 1000 mg

- Explanation: The recommended daily intake of calcium for pregnant and lactating
women typically falls between 500 to 1000 mg to support the increased needs for fetal and
infant bone development.

117. Presence of functioning endometrium in sites other than uterine mucosa is called:
 - (d) Endometriosis

- Explanation: Endometriosis is a condition in which endometrial tissue, which normally

lines the inside of the uterus, grows outside the uterus, causing pain and possibly infertility.

118. Which one of the following is a non-steroidal compound with potent antiestrogenic
properties used for oral contraception?

- (d) Centchroman

- Explanation: Centchroman, also known as Ormeloxifene, is a non-steroidal oral

contraceptive with antiestrogenic properties.

119. Active management of 3rd stage of labor includes:

- (a) Administration of oxytocin 10 units IM

- Explanation: The active management of the third stage of labor involves administering
oxytocin to help contract the uterus and reduce postpartum hemorrhage.

120. All of the following are the causes of secondary dysmenorrhea EXCEPT:

- © Bicornuate uterus

- Explanation: A bicornuate uterus is a congenital uterine anomaly and not a cause of

secondary dysmenorrhea. Secondary dysmenorrhea is typically caused by conditions such
as endometriosis, adenomyosis, and pelvic adhesions.

121. The withdrawal and inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed activity is called:

- (d) Avolition

- Explanation: Avolition refers to a severe lack of initiative or motivation to accomplish

purposeful tasks, which is often seen in mental health conditions like schizophrenia.

122. The most important and effective strategy for the elderly to maintain self-esteem and
support the natural healing process of life review is:
 - © Reminiscence

- Explanation: Reminiscence therapy involves discussing past experiences and

memories, which can help elderly individuals maintain self-esteem and support emotional
well-being through the natural healing process of life review.

123. The psychopharmacologic drug classification of Olanzapine is:

- (b) Atypical antipsychotic

- Explanation: Olanzapine is classified as an atypical antipsychotic. It is used to treat

schizophrenia and bipolar disorder by affecting the actions of chemicals in the brain.

124. While assessing the patient, the nurse asks the patient, “if a house were on fire, what
would you do?” Which one of the following is being assessed by the nurse by asking that
question?

- (a) Test judgement

- Explanation: By asking this question, the nurse is assessing the patient’s judgment,
which is the ability to make considered decisions or come to sensible conclusions.

125. All of the following are symptoms of opioid overdose EXCEPT:

- (a) Delirium tremens

- Explanation: Delirium tremens is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that involves

sudden and severe mental or nervous system changes. It is not a symptom of opioid
overdose. Symptoms of opioid overdose include respiratory depression, stupor, and coma.

126. A highly structured psychotherapeutic method used to alter distorted beliefs and
problem behavior by identifying and replacing negative inaccurate thoughts and changing
rewards for behavior is:

- (b) Cognitive behavior therapy

 - Explanation: Cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) is a structured psychotherapeutic
method that aims to change patterns of thinking or behavior that are causing people's
problems and thus change the way they feel.

127. An excitatory neurotransmitter that is diffusely distributed within the cerebral cortex,
limbic system, and basal ganglia of the CNS, and plays a role in emotions, cognition, and
sensory perceptions is:

- © Serotonin

- Explanation: Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that affects mood, emotion, and cognition.

It is distributed in various parts of the brain including the cerebral cortex, limbic system,
and basal ganglia.

128. Consider the following communication between a patient and nurse:

- Patient: I have done something awful.

- Nurse: I would like to hear about it. It’s okay to discuss it with me.

- Which one of the following verbal communication techniques is being used by the
nurse?

- (a) Acceptance

- Explanation: The nurse is using acceptance as a communication technique, which

involves acknowledging the patient’s feelings and encouraging them to share more
information in a non-judgmental manner.

129. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists:

- List I (Generic drug name)

- A. Flurazepam

- B. Zolpidem

- C. Ramelteon
 - D. Hydroxyzine

- List II (Classification)

- 1. Antihistamine

- 2. Melatonergic hypnotic

- 3. Nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic

- 4. Benzodiazepine hypnotic

- (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

- Explanation:

- A. Flurazepam → 4. Benzodiazepine hypnotic

- B. Zolpidem → 3. Nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic

- C. Ramelteon → 2. Melatonergic hypnotic

- D. Hydroxyzine → 1. Antihistamine

130. All of the following symptoms present in a patient since last 2 weeks are indicative of
Major Depressive Disorder EXCEPT:

- © Catatonic behaviour

- Explanation: Catatonic behavior is more commonly associated with catatonia, which

can occur in various mental health conditions, but is not a primary symptom of Major
Depressive Disorder. Symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder include depressed mood,
markedly diminished interest, and fatigue.

131. Which of the following are assumptions in Milieu therapy?

- (b) 1, 2 and 3

- Explanation: In Milieu therapy, the therapeutic environment is structured to help

patients:

- 1. The patient owns his/her environment.

- 2. The patient takes responsibility for his/her behavior.

 - 3. Inappropriate behavior needs to be corrected.

Peer pressure does play a role in the therapeutic environment, helping patients to
modify their behavior based on group norms.

132. According to S.I.U. staffing norms for the nurses working in Central government
hospitals, the normal/general ward should have:

- (b) One nurse/nursing sister for every six beds

- Explanation: The Staffing Index Unit (SIU) norms recommend one nurse or nursing sister
for every six beds in a general ward to ensure adequate patient care.

133. A temporary placement of nurses in a ward for 12 hours or less which is done to cover
the shortage of nurses, especially during evening and night shifts by the supervisors is
called:

- (a) Intradepartmental deployment

- Explanation: Intradepartmental deployment refers to the temporary reassignment of

nurses within the same department to cover staff shortages.

134. All of the following are techniques of inventory control EXCEPT:

- (d) SDX analysis

- Explanation: SDX analysis is not a recognized technique in inventory control. Common

techniques include:

- ABC analysis (categorizing inventory based on importance)

- VED analysis (categorizing inventory based on criticality)

- XYZ analysis (categorizing inventory based on variability in usage).

135. All of the following are major penalties awarded for the employees for their serious
misconduct EXCEPT:
 - © Transfer

- Explanation: Transfer is not typically considered a major penalty for serious

misconduct. Major penalties usually include loss of privileges, demotion, and withholding
increments.

136. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists:

- List I (Degree of uterine prolapse)

- A. First degree

- B. Second degree

- C. Third degree

- D. Procidentia

- List II (Clinical feature of prolapse)

- 1. Uterus prolapses with eversion of entire vagina

- 2. The uterine cervix, body, and the fundus descends outside the introitus

- 3. The external os protrudes outside the vaginal introitus but uterine body still remains
inside the vagina

- 4. Uterus descends down from its normal anatomical position but the external os
remains above the introitus

- (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

- Explanation:

- A. First degree → 4. Uterus descends down from its normal anatomical position but the
external os remains above the introitus

- B. Second degree → 3. The external os protrudes outside the vaginal introitus but
uterine body still remains inside the vagina

- C. Third degree → 2. The uterine cervix, body, and the fundus descends outside the
introitus

- D. Procidentia → 1. Uterus prolapses with eversion of entire vagina

137. All of the following are the causes of menorrhagia EXCEPT:

- (a) Androgen producing tumours

- Explanation: Androgen producing tumors typically cause symptoms of

hyperandrogenism and are not a common cause of menorrhagia. Causes of menorrhagia
include pelvic endometriosis, adenomyosis, and granulosa cell tumor of the ovary.

138. In the neonates, the brown fat is located at the following sites EXCEPT:

- © Around the brain

- Explanation: Brown fat is found in specific areas such as around the heart, in the axillae,
and around the kidney, but not around the brain. Brown fat helps in thermoregulation in
neonates.

139. The normal respiratory rate of a newborn is:

- (b) 30 – 60 breaths per minute

- Explanation: The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30 to 60 breaths per minute.
This rate is necessary to meet the higher metabolic demands and oxygen needs of a
newborn.

140. A persistent rise in PCO₂ and decrease in pH level in newborn is indicative of:

- (b) Respiratory acidosis

- Explanation: Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of carbon

dioxide (CO₂) in the blood due to inadequate respiration, leading to a decrease in blood pH
(acidosis).

141. Nipple confusion is a situation where the infant:

- © Accepts the artificial nipple but refuses the mother’s nipple

 - Explanation: Nipple confusion occurs when an infant has difficulty switching between
the breast and a bottle nipple, often preferring the artificial nipple over the mother’s breast.

142. Classical symptom of invasive cervical cancer is:

- © Postcoital bleeding

- Explanation: Postcoital bleeding, or bleeding after intercourse, is a classic symptom of

invasive cervical cancer.

143. The irregular overlapping of the cranial bones on one another due to liquefaction of
the brain matter of the fetus is called:

- (b) Spalding sign

- Explanation: Spalding’s sign refers to the overlapping of the skull bones seen in a
deceased fetus due to the collapse of the cranial bones.

144. What will be the approximate Body Mass Index (BMI) of a woman with weight 70 kg and
height 155 cm?

- (b) 29.1

- Explanation: BMI is calculated using the formula: \( \text{BMI} = \frac{\text{weight

(kg)}}{\text{height (m)}^2} \)

- Weight = 70 kg, Height = 1.55 m

- BMI = \( \frac{70}{1.55^2} \approx 29.1 \)

145. What will be the incidence rate, if there are 500 new cases of an illness in a population
of 30,000 in a year?

- (a) 1.42 per 1000 per year

- Explanation: Incidence rate is calculated as \( \frac{\text{Number of new

cases}}{\text{Population}} \times 1000 \)

- \( \text{Incidence rate} = \frac{500}{30000} \times 1000 = 16.7 \) per 1000 per year
146. All of the following foods have high glycemic index EXCEPT:

- (a) Brown rice

- Explanation: Brown rice has a lower glycemic index compared to corn flakes, baked
potato, and white bread. Foods with high glycemic index cause a rapid increase in blood
glucose levels.

147. Which one of the following types of undernutrition is indicated by Z-score below -3SD
of the median WHO child growth standards?

- (d) Severe acute malnutrition

- Explanation: A Z-score below -3 standard deviations (SD) from the median WHO child
growth standards indicates severe acute malnutrition (SAM).

148. Which one of the following is a measure of overall disease burden expressed as a
number of years lost due to ill-health, disability, or early death?

- (d) Disability-adjusted life years

- Explanation: Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) measure the overall disease burden
and are expressed as the number of years lost due to ill-health, disability, or early death.

149. Numerator for calculating neonatal mortality rate is neonatal deaths within:

- (a) 28 days of life

- Explanation: The neonatal mortality rate is calculated using the number of neonatal
deaths (deaths within the first 28 days of life) per 1,000 live births.

150. Which one of the following drugs used for treatment of malaria is contraindicated in
pregnancy?

- (b) Primaquine
 - Explanation: Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause
hemolytic anemia in the fetus, especially in those with glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency.