Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Paper Trend’s Analysis in Modern Physics

Year No. of Question Concept Asked

h
NEET-2024 5 Photon Theory, Atom, Decay, Hydrogen Spectrum, λ=
2mE
NEET-2023 4 PEE, Atom, Hydrogen Spectrum, X ray
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

h
NEET-2022 5 PEE, λ = , Decay, Atomic Structure, Radius of Nucleus
p

NEET-2021 4 PEE, Photon Theory, Decay, Binding energy

NEET-2020 6 Photon Theory, PEE, De-Broglie, Atoms, E=mc2

Section
1. Photon Theory

2. Photo-electric Effect

3. Matter Waves

4. Atomic Structure

5. X-rays

6. Nuclear Physics

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Photon Theory

Q.1 If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are:
A. The energy of a photon is E = hν.
B. The velocity of a photon is c.
hν
C. The momentum of a photon p = .
c
D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.
E. Photon possesses positive charge. [NEET-2024]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) A, B, C and D only
(3) A, C and D only (4) A, B, D and E only
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.2 The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 × 10–3 watt will be: (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
[NEET-2021]
(1) 1018 (2) 1017 (3) 1016 (4) 1015

Q.3 Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is –
[NEET-2020]
(1) 24 × 103 J (2) 48 × 103 J (3) 10 × 103 J (4) 12 × 103 J

Q.4 Ligh with an energy flux of 25 × 104 Wm–2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence.
If the surface area is 15 cm2, the average force exerted on the surface is : [NEET-2014]
(1) 1.25 × 10–6 N (2) 2.50 × 10–6 N (3) 1.20 × 10–6 N (4) 3.0 × 10–6 N

Q.5 A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 mm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient
in converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second is
(1) 1.5 × 1020 (2) 6 × 1018 (3) 62 × 1020 (4) 3 × 1019 [AIPMT-2012]

Q.6 A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S2 is
producing 1.02 × 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100 Å. Then, (power of S2)/(power of S1)
is equal to [AIPMT-2010]
(1) 1.00 (2) 1.02 (3) 1.04 (4) 0.98

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Q.7 The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10–20J. This value in eV is nearly – [NEET-2020]
(1) 0.06 (2) 0.006 (3) 6 (4) 0.6

Q.8 Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is
9 mW. The number of photons arriving per second on the average at a target irradiated by this beam
is [AIPMT-2009]
(1) 3 × 1016 (2) 9 × 1015 (3) 3 × 1019 (4) 9 × 1017

Q.9 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10–3 W.
The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the source per second is [AIPMT-2007]
(1) 5 × 1016 (2) 5 × 1017 (3) 5 × 1014 (4) 5 × 1015

Q.10 The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s will be [AIPMT-2006]

(1) 5 × 10–22 (2) 0.33 × 106 (3) 7 × 10–24 (4) 10–22

Q.11 If a photon has velocity c and frequency υ, then which of the following represents its wavelength?
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

[AIPMT-1996]
hυ hc hυ
(1) (2) hυ (3) (4)
c2 E c

Q.12 A radio transmitter operates at a frequency 880 kHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons
emitted per second is [AIPMT-1990]
(1) 1.72 × 1031 (2) 1.327 × 1025 (3) 1.327 × 1037 (4) 1.327 × 1045

Q.13 The momentum of a photon of an electromagnetic radiation is 3.3 ×10–29 kg m s–1. What is the
frequency of the associated waves? [h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s ; c = 3 × 108 m s–1] [AIPMT-1990]
(1) 1.5 × 1013 Hz (2) 7.5 × 1012 Hz (3) 6 × 103 Hz (4) 3 × 103 Hz

Photo-electric effect

Q.14 The work functions of Caesium (Cs), potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75
eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these
photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons ? [NEET-2023]
(1) Both Na and K (2) K only (3) Na only (4) Cs only

Q.15 The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to
Einstein’s equation the metals which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å
is/are [AIPMT-2005]
(1) A only (2) A and B only
(3) All the three metals (4) None.

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Q.16 The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for this surface
is [AIPMT-1999]
(1) 3000 Å (2) 2062.5 Å (3) 4125 Å (4) 6000 Å

Q.17 The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can
cause photon emission from the substance is (approximately) [Odisha NEET-2019]
(1) 3100 nm (2) 966 nm (3) 31 nm (4) 310 nm

Q.18 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
(1) power (2) wavelength (3) intensity (4) frequency [AIPMT-2011]

Q.19 Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What
will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?
(1) Doubled (2) Four times (3) One-fourth (4) Zero [NEET-2020]
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.20 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most
energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is [AIPMT-2011]
(1) 1.8 V (2) 1.3 V (3) 0.5 V (4) 2.3 V

Q.21 The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014
Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectron emission is nearly
(1) 1V (2) 2V (3) 3V (4) 5V [AIPMT-Mains 2011]

Q.22 The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel
surface, having work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be
(1) 2.4 V (2) –1.2 V (3) –2.4 V (4) 1.2 V [AIPMT-2010]

Q.23 The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident
radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the [AIPMT-2008]
(1) Infrared region (2) X-ray region (3) Ultraviolet region (4) Visible region

υ
Q.24 When two monochromatic lights of frequency, υ and are incident on a photoelectric metal, their
2
Vs
stopping potential becomes and Vs respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is :
2
[NEET-2022]
2 3
(1) 3υ (2) υ (3) υ (4) 2υ
3 2

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.25 When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectrons
and their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2I, the
number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively [AIPMT-Mains 2010]
(1) N and 2T (2) 2N and T (3) 2N and 2T (4) N and T

Q.26 The number of photo electrons emitted for light of a frequency υ (higher than the threshold frequency
υ0) is proportional to [AIPMT-2009]
(1) threshold frequency (υ0) (2) intensity of light
(3) frequency of light (υ) (4) υ – υ0

Q.27 The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three
different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement? [AIPMT-2009]

Photo current

b
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

c
a

retarding potential anode potential

(1) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities.
(2) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
(3) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity.
(4) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities

Q.28 According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons
ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is [AIPMT-2004, 1996]
Kinetic energy

Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy

Kinetic energy

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Frequency Frequency Frequency Frequency

Q.29 The value of Planck’s constant is [AIPMT-2002]

–34 –34 2
(1) 6.63 × 10 J/sec (2) 6.63 × 10 kg m /sec
(3) 6.63 × 10–34 kg m2 (4) 6.63 × 10–34 J sec

Q.30 When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate then photoelectric effect does not occur, it occurs by
incidence of [AIPMT-2002]
(1) infrared rays (2) X-rays (3) radio wave (4) micro wave

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Q.31 As the intensity of incident light increases [AIPMT-1999]

(1) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons increases
(2) photoelectric current decreases
(3) photoelectric current increases
(4) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons decreases.

Q.32 Which of the following statement is correct? [AIPMT-1997]

(1) The photocurrent increases with intensity of light.
(2) The stopping potential increases with increase of incident light.
(3) The current in photocell increases with increasing frequency.
(4) The photocurrent is proportional to the applied voltage.

Q.33 A 5-watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it
liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance
of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a factor of [AIPMT-2007]
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 2 (4) 4
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.34 When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If
V
the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is . The
4
threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is [NEET-I 2016]
5
(1) λ (2) 3λ (3) 4λ (4) 5λ
2

Q.35 A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength λ and λ/2.
If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the
first case, the work function of the surface of the material is (h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of light)
2hc hc hc hc
(1) (2) (3) (4) [AIPMT-2015]
λ 3λ 2λ λ

Q.36 A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The stopping
potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated with light of
wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric
effect is [AIPMT-2015]
λ λ
(1) (2) (3) 6λ (4) 4λ
4 6

Q.37 Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons
will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is [NEET-II 2016]
(1) +3 V (2) +4 V (3) –1 V (4) –3 V

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.38 When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
(1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.0 eV (3) 1.3 eV (4) 1.5 eV [AIPMT-2014]

Q.39 For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is υ. If radiation of frequency
2υ impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is
the electron mass) [NEET-2013]
2hυ hυ hυ hυ
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m m (2m) m

Q.40 When the light of frequency 2υ0 (where υ0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased
to 5υ0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 [NEET-2018]

Q.41 Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is
[AIPMT-Mains 2012, 2011]
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 5

Q.42 A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, hυ0. If photons of energy 2hυ0 fall on this surface,
the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m/s. When the photon energy is increased
to 5hυ0, then maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be [AIPMT-2005]
(1) 2 × 107 m / s (2) 2 × 106 m / s (3) 8 × 106 m / s (4) 8 × 105 m / s

Q.43 The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected
from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 × 10–10 m is [Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eV
s and c = 3 × 108 m s–1] [NEET-2017]
(1) ≈ 0.6 × 109 m s–1 (2) ≈ 61 × 103 m s–1 (3) ≈ 0.3 × 106 m s–1 (4) ≈ 6 × 105 m s–1

Q.44 When photons of energy hu fall on an aluminium plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic
energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be [AIPMT-2006]
(1) K + hυ (2) K + E0 (3) 2K (4) K

Q.45 In a photo-emissive cell, with exciting wavelength λ, the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
3λ
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be: [AIPMT-1998]
4
(1) less than v(4/3)1/2 (2) v(4/3)1/2 (3) v(3/4)1/2 (4) greater than v(4/3)1/2

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Q.46 A photo-cell is illuminated by a source of light, which is placed at a distance d from the cell. If the
distance become d/2, then number of electrons emitted per second will be [AIPMT-2001]
(1) remain same (2) four times (3) two times (4) one-fourth

Q.47 A photocell employs photoelectric effect to convert [AIPMT-2006]

(1) change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current
(2) change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage
(3) change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current
(4) change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photocathode.

Q.48 A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a photo cell and the stopping potential is found
to be V0. If the distance between the light source and photo cell is made 25 cm, the new stopping
potential will be : [Karnataka NEET 2013]
(1) V0/2 (2) V0 (3) 4V0 (4) 2V0
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.49 A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. When the source is shifted to
2 m then [AIPMT-2003]
(1) each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial energy
(2) number of electrons emitted is half the initial number
(3) each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
(4) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial number.

Q.50 Which one among the following shows particle nature of light? [AIPMT-2001]
(1) photoelectric effect (2) interference
(3) refraction (4) polarization

Q.51 Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the
ground state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V. The
threshold frequency of the material is [AIPMT-2012]
15 15 15 15
(1) 4 × 10 Hz (2) 5 × 10 Hz (3) 1.6 × 10 Hz (4) 2.5 × 10 Hz

Q.52 The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and the
photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV,
−13.6
the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in nth state E n = eV)
n2
(1) 5.1 V (2) 12.1 V (3) 17.2 V (4) 7 V [AIPMT-Mains 2010]

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Matter Waves

 1 
Q.53 The graph which shows the variation of  2  and its kinetic energy, E is (where λ is de Broglie
λ 
wavelength of a free particle): [NEET-2024]

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q.54 The graph which shows the variation of the de-Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

momentum (p) is: [NEET-2022, 2015]

λ λ

(1) (2)

P P
λ λ

(3) (4)

P P

Q.55 An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
wavelength of the electron is 1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is [NEET-2020]
2 3 4
(1) 10 V (2) 10 V (3) 10 V (4) 10 V

Q.56 An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is,
(nearly) (me = 9 × 10–31 kg) [NEET-2019]
–13 –12 –14
(1) 12.2 nm (2) 12.2 × 10 m (3) 12.2 × 10 m (4) 12.2 × 10 m

Q.57 Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is
increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would
(1) increase by 2 times (2) becomes half
(3) decrease by 4 times (4) becomes 4 times [AIPMT-2011]

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Q.58 An electron beam has a kinetic energy equal to 100 eV. Find its wavelength associated with a beam,
if mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J. (Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10–34 Js
(1) 24.6 Å (2) 0.12 Å (3) 1.2 Å (4) 6.3 Å [AIPMT-1996]

  
Q.59 An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
= v v0 ˆi(v0 > 0) enters an electric field E = −E 0 ˆi
(E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ 0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength
at time t is: - [NEET-2018]
λ0  eE 
(1) (2) λ 0 1 + 0 t (3) λ 0 t (4) λ 0
 eE 0   mv0 
1 + t
 mv0 

Q.60 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature
T(kelvin) and mass m, is [NEET-2017]
h 2h 2h h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3mkT 3mkT mkT mkT
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.61 An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
associated with them is:- [NEET-I 2016]
1 1 1
1
1  2m  2 1  E 2  E 2
(1) c(2mE) 2 (2)   (3)   (4)  
c E  c  2m   2m 
(c being velocity of light)

Q.62 The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by [NEET-2013]
1
(1) λ p ∝ λ e (2) λ p ∝ (3) λ p ∝ λ e2 (4) λ p ∝ λ e .
λe

Q.63 Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie
wavelength of the emitted electron is [AIPMT-2015]
(1) ≥ 2.8 ×10 m
−9
(2) ≤ 2.8 ×10 m−12
(3) < 2.8 ×10 m
−10
(4) < 2.8 ×10 m
−9

Q.64 An electromagnetic wave of wavelength 'λ' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength λd, then
[NEET-2021]
 2m  2  2mc  2
(1)
= λ   λd (2)= λd  λ
 hc   h 
 2mc  2  2h  2
(3) λ 
=  λd (4)
= λ   λd
 h   mc 

Q.65 If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change
in the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 25 (2) 75 (3) 60 (4) 50

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Q.66 If the momentum of an electron is changed by P, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it
changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be [AIPMT-Mains 2012]
(1) 200 P (2) 400 P (3) P/200 (4) 100P

Q.67 A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 × 106 m s–1.
The velocity of the particle is (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) [AIPMT-2008]
–31 –1 –21 –1 –18 –1 –2 –1
(1) 3 × 10 ms (2) 2.7 × 10 ms (3) 2.7 × 10 ms (4) 9 × 10 ms

Q.68 If particles are moving with same velocity, then which has maximum de Broglie wavelength?
(1) proton (2) α-particle (3) neutron (4) β-particle [AIPMT-2002]

Q.69 When a proton is accelerated through 1 V, then its kinetic energy will be [AIPMT-1999]
(1) 1 eV (2) 13.6 eV (3) 1840 eV (4) 0.54 eV

Q.70 The kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 volts, is
(1) 416.6 cal (2) 6.636 cal (3) 1.602 × 10–17 J (4) 1.6 × 104 J [AIPMT-1997]
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.71 An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V in vacuum.
Its final velocity will be [AIPMT-1996]
2eV eV eV eV
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m m 2m m

Q.72 An α-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m2.
The de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle will be [AIPMT-2012]
(1) 1 Å (2) 0.1 Å (3) 10 Å (4) 0.01 Å

Atomic Structure

Q.73 When an α-particle of mass m moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its
distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as [NEET-I 2016]
1 1 1
(1) 2 (2) m (3) (4)
m m m
1
Q.74 An alpha nucleus of energy mv 2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance
2
of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to [AIPMT-2010]
1 1 1
(1) (3) v 2 (3) (4) 4
Ze m v
Q.75 In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge z1 and mass M1 approaches a target
nucleus of charge z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile
is [AIPMT-2009]
(1) directly proportional to z1z2 (2) inversely proportional to z1
(3) directly proportional to mass M1 (4) directly proportional to M1 × M2

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Q.76 Given below are two statements: [NEET-2024]

Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative
charges.
Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.77 The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10–11 m. What is the radius of third allowed
orbit of hydrogen atom? [NEET-2023]
(1) 1.06 Å (2) 1.59 Å (3) 4.77 Å (4) 0.53 Å

Q.78 Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atom,
respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is: [NEET-2022]
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 9 (3) 9 : 4 (4) 1 : 4
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.79 An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
  1 
Coulomb force F between the two is  where K =  [AIPMT-2003]
 4πε0 
e2 e2
(1) K rˆ (2) − K rˆ
r2 r3
e2  e2 
(3) K 3 r (4) − K 3 r
r r

Q.80 For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid? [NEET-2020]
(1) Hydrogen atom (2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(3) Deuteron atom (4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)

Q.81 The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is – 3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are,
respectively [NEET-2019]
(1) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (2) – 3.4 eV, – 3.4 eV
(3) –3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV (4) 3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV

Q.82 The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit for the electron, in a hydrogen atom equals 0.51 Å and its
ground state energy equals –13.6 eV. If the electron in the hydrogen atom is replaced by muon (µ–)
[charge same as electron and mass 207 me], the first Bohr radius and ground state energy will be
(1) 0.53 × 10–13 m, –3.6 eV (2) 25.6 × 10–13 m, –2.8 eV
(3) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –2.8 keV (4) 2.56 × 10–13 m, –13.6 eV [Odisha NEET-2019]

Q.83 The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1
(3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –2 [NEET-2018]

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.84 Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit
will be [given K = 9 × 109 constant, Z = 2 and h (Planck’s constant) = 6.6 × 10–34 J s]
(1) 0.73 × 106 m/s (2) 3.0 × 108 m/s (3) 2.92 × 106 m/s (4) 1.46 × 106 m/s
[AIPMT-2015]

Q.85 Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom
according to Bohr’s atomic model? [AIPMT-Mains 2011]
(1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.9 eV (3) 11.1 eV (4) 13.6 eV

Q.86 The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first
excited state will be [AIPMT-2010]
(1) –13.6 eV (2) –27.2 eV (3) –54.4 eV (4) –6.8 eV

Q.87 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first excited state,
its excitation energy is [AIPMT-2008]
(1) 10.2 eV (2) 0 (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.88 The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of
an electron in the first excited state is [AIPMT-2007]
(1) 6.8 eV (2) 13.6 eV (3) 1.7 eV (4) 3.4 eV

Q.89 The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is about –3.4 eV. Its kinetic
energy in this state is [AIPMT-2005]
(1) 3.4 eV (2) 6.8 eV (3) –3.4 eV (4) –6.8 eV

Q.90 The Bohr model of atoms [AIPMT-2004]

(1) Assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is quantized.
(2) Uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
(3) Predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms.
(4) Predicts the same emission spectra for all types of atoms.

Q.91 In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum?
(1) doubly ionized lithium
(2) singly ionized helium
(3) deuterium atom
(4) hydrogen atom [AIPMT-2003]

Q.92 The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En then the energy in nth orbit of singly ionised helium
atom will be [AIPMT-2001]
(1) 4En (2) En/4 (3) 2En (4) En/2

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.93 In the Bohr model of a hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is furnished by the coulomb attraction
between the proton and the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the mass and e is
the charge on the electron and ε0 is the vacuum permittivity, the speed of the electron is
e e 4πε0 a 0 m
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4) [AIPMT-1998]
4πε0 a 0 m ε0a 0 m e

Q.94 Match List I with List II [NEET-2024]

List-I List-II
(Spectral Lines of Hydrogen (Wavelengths (nm))
for transitions from)
A. n2 = 3 to n1 = 2 I. 410.2
B. n2 = 4 to n1 = 2 II. 434.1
C. n2 = 5 to n1 = 2 III. 656.3
D. n2 = 6 to n1 = 2 IV. 486.1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q.95 In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is λ . The shortest wavelength in
the Bracket series is: [NEET-2023]
(1) 4 λ (2) 9 λ (3) 16 λ (4) 2 λ

Q.96 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 0.5 (4) 2 [NEET-2017]

Q.97 Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 m–1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series
in hydrogen spectrum will be [NEET-I 2016]
7 –1 7 –1 4 –1 7 –1
(1) 0.25 × 10 m (2) 2.5 × 10 m (3) 0.025 × 10 m (4) 0.5 × 10 m

Q.98 Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is
7 9 5 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) [NEET-2013]
29 31 27 23

Q.99 The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line
of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2 [AIPMT-2011]

Q.100 If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of
wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the
photon will be [NEET-II 2016]
16 9 20 20
(1) λ (2) λ (3) λ (4) λ
25 16 7 13

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Q.101 Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of
spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 10

Q.102 Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from
second excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelengths λ1: λ2 emitted in the two cases is
[AIPMT-2012]
7 27 27 20
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 20 5 7

Q.103 A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency υ and the nucleus recoils. The recoil
energy will be:- [AIPMT-2011]
(1) Mc − hυ
2
(2) h υ / 2Mc
2 2 2
(3) zero (4) hυ

Q.104 An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The
velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be
24hR 25hR 25m 24m
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25m 24m 24hR 25hR
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

(m is the mass of the atom, R Rydberg constant and h Planck’s constant) [AIPMT-2012]

Q.105 The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation.
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from [AIPMT-Mains 2012]
(1) 2 → 1 (2) 3 → 2 (3) 4 → 2 (4) 4 → 3

Q.106 The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms
are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of
emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between [AIPMT-2009]
(1) n = 3 to n = 1 states (2) n = 2 to n = 1 states
(3) n = 4 to n = 3 states (4) n = 3 to n = 2 states

Q.107 Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by
monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines
emitted by hydrogen will be [AIPMT-2006]
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four

Q.108 Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom corresponding to increasing values of energy i.e., EA < EB
< EC. If λ1, λ2 and λ3 are wavelengths of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B to A and C
to A respectively, which of the following relations is correct? [AIPMT-2005, 1990]
λλ
(1) λ 3 = λ1 + λ 2 (2) λ 3 = 1 2 (3) λ1 + λ 2 + λ 3 = 0 (4) λ12 + λ 2 2 = λ 32
λ1 + λ 2

Q.109 Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for the transition [AIPMT-2000]

(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2 (3) n = 1 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 6

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Q.110 When an electron does transition from n = 4 to n = 2, then emitted line spectrum will be
(1) first line of Lyman series (2) second line of Balmer series
(3) first line of Paschen series (4) second line of Paschen series. [AIPMT-2000]

Q.111 Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state of the principal quantum number 4. Then the number
of spectral lines observed will be [AIPMT-1993]
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 2

Q.112 Consider an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom in the Bohr model. The circumference of the
orbit can be expressed in terms of de Broglie wavelength λ of that electron as [AIPMT-1990]
(1) (0.529)nλ (2) nλ (3) (13.6)λ (4) nλ

X-rays

Q.113 Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff
wavelength (λ0) of the emitted X-ray is:- [NEET-II 2016]
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

2 2 2 3
2mcλ 2h 2m c λ
(1) λ 0 = (2) λ 0 = (3) λ 0 = 2 (4) λ 0 =λ
h mc h

Q.114 The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference
of V volts is proportional to : [NEET-2023]
1 1
(1) (2) (3) V 2 (4) V
V V

Q.115 The minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced by electrons accelerated through a potential
difference of V volts is directly proportional to [AIPMT-1996]
1 1
(1) (2) (3) V (4) V2
V V

Q.116 The figure represents the observed intensity of X-rays emitted by an X-ray tube,1 as a function of
wavelength. The sharp peaks A and B denote [AIPMT-1995]

A
B
Intensity

Wavelength

(1) white radiations (2) characteristic radiations

(3) band spectrum (4) continuous spectrum

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Nuclear Physics

Q.117 A nucleus represented by the symbol AZ X has [AIPMT-2004]

(1) Z neutrons and A – Z protons (2) Z protons and A – Z neutrons
(3) Z protons and A neutrons (4) A protons and Z – A neutrons

Q.118 Which one of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones? [AIPMT-2005]
(1) 34 Se74 , 31Ga 71 (2) 38 Sr 84 , 38Sr 86 (3) 42 Mo92 , 40 Zr 92
(4) 20
40
Ca , 16S 32

13 14
Q.119 The nuclei 6C and 7N can be described as [AIPMT-2003]
(1) isotones (2) isobars
(3) isotopes of carbon (4) isotopes of nitrogen

Q.120 A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of
radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is : [NEET-2022]
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 25 : 16 (4) 1 : 1

27 64
Q.121 If the nuclear radius of Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of Cu in fermi is
[AIPMT-2007,2012]
(1) 2.4 (2) 1.2 (3) 4.8 (4) 3.6

Q.122 The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of 94 Be. The number of
nucleons in Ge are [AIPMT-2006]
(1) 72 (2) 73 (3) 74 (4) 75

Q.123 Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would be
[AIPMT-2008]
1/3
(1) (3) : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1

Q.124 The mass number of a nucleus is [AIPMT-2003]

(1) always less than its atomic number
(2) always more than its atomic number
(3) sometimes equal to its atomic number
(4) sometimes less than and sometimes more than its atomic number

Q.125 The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in case of [AIPMT-1999]

(1) 42 He (2) 56
26 Fe (3) 141
56 Ba (4) 235
92 U

Q.126 The energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit is [AIPMT-2007]

(1) 1.6 ×10−19 J (2) 6.02 ×1023 J (3) 931 MeV (4) 9.31 MeV

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.127 The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is [NEET-2020]

(1) 4.5 ×1016 J (2) 4.5 ×1013 J (3) 1.5 ×1013 J (4) 0.5 ×10 J
13

Q.128 The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding
energy per nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is nearly [AIPMT-2010]
(1) 46 MeV (2) 5.6 MeV (3) 3.9 MeV (4) 23 MeV

Q.129 A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion
reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per nucleon is (given 1 u = 931 MeV) [NEET-2013]
(1) 6.675 MeV (2) 13.35 MeV (3) 2.67 MeV (4) 26.7 MeV

Q.130 Mn and Mp represent the mass of neutron and proton respectively. An element having mass M has N
neutrons and Z protons, then the correct relation will be [AIPMT-2001]
(1) M < {N ⋅ Mn + Z ⋅ Mp} (2) M > {N ⋅ Mn + Z ⋅ Mp}
(3) M = {N ⋅ Mn + Z ⋅ Mp} (4) M = N {Mn + Mp}
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.131 If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus AZ X, proton and neutron respectively in units
2
of u (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c ) and BE represents its binding energy in MeV, then
[AIPMT-2008, 2004,2007]
2
(1) M(A, Z) = ZMp + (A – Z)Mn – BE (2) M(A, Z) =ZMp + (A – Z)Mn + BE/c
2
(3) M(A, Z) =ZMp + (A – Z)Mn – BE/c (4) M(A, Z) =ZMp + (A – Z)Mn + BE

Q.132 How does the Binding Energy per nucleon vary with the increase in the number of nucleons?
[Karnataka NEET 2013]
(1) Decrease continuously with mass number.
(2) First decreases and then increases with increase in mass number.
(3) First increases and then decreases with increase in mass number.
(4) Increases continuously with mass number.

Q.133 If the nuclear force between two protons, two neutrons and between proton and neutron is denoted by
Fpp, Fnn and Fpn respectively, then [AIPMT-1991]
(1) Fpp ≈ Fnn ≈ Fpn (2) Fpp ≠ Fnn and Fpp =
Fnn
(3) F=
pp F=
nn Fpn (4) Fpp ≠ Fnn ≠ Fpn

Q.134 Which of the following statements is true for nuclear forces? [AIPMT-1990]
(1) They obey the inverse square law of distance.
(2) They obey the inverse third power law of distance.
(3) They are short range forces.
(4) They are equal in strength to electromagnetic forces.

Q.135 A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total
gain in the Binding Energy in the process is : [NEET-2021]
(1) 0.9 MeV (2) 9.4 MeV (3) 804 MeV (4) 216 MeV
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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.136 In the reaction 12 H + 13 H → 24 He + 10 n, if the binding energies of 12 H, 13 H and 24 He are respectively a, b and
c (in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is [AIPMT-2005]
(1) a + b + c (2) a + b – c (3) c – a – b (4) c + a – b

12 13
Q.137 Binding energy per nucleon for C is 7.68 MeV and for C is 7.74 MeV. The energy required to
13
remove a neutron from C is: - [AIPMT-2005]
C13 → C12 + 10 n + Q
(1) 5.49 MeV (2) 8.46 MeV (3) 9.45 MeV (4) 15.49 MeV

Q.138 The binding energy per nucleon of 37 Li and 24 He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively. In
the nuclear reaction
7
3 Li + 11H 
→ 42 He + 42 He + Q
the value of energy Q released is [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 19.6 MeV (2) –2.4 MeV (3) 8.4 MeV (4) 17.3 MeV

Q.139 Binding energy per nucleon of 2

1 H and 2 He 4 are 1.1 MeV and 7 respectively. If two deuterons
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

combine to form 2 He 4 find Q value of reaction. [AIPMT-2010]

OR
The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV,
respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the
fusion is [AIPMT-2006]
(1) 23.6 MeV (2) 28 MeV (3) 2.2 MeV (4) 15.2 MeV

Q.140 The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an α-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. The
energy Q released in the reaction [AIPMT-1995]
2 2 4
H1 + H1 → He 2 + Q,is
(1) 4(x1 + x2) (2) 4(x2 – x1) (3) 2(x2 – x1) (4) 2(x1+ x2)

+ − −
Q.141 290
82 X 
α e
→ Y  → Z 
β e
→ P  →Q [NEET-2024]
In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q
respectively, are
(1) 280, 81 (2) 286, 80 (3) 288, 82 (4) 286, 81

Q.142 In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is:

22
11 Na  → X + e+ + ν [NEET-2022]
23 22 22 23
(1) 10 Ne (2) 10 Ne (3) 12 Mg (4) 11 Ne

Q.143 What happens to the mass number and atomic number of an element when it emits γ-radiation?
[NEET-Covid-2020]
(1) Mass number decreases by four and atomic number decreases by two.
(2) Mass number and atomic number remain unchanged.
(3) Mass number remains unchanged while atomic number decreases by one.
(4) Mass number increases by four and atomic number increases by two.
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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.144 α-particle consists of [NEET-2019]

(1) 2 protons only (2) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
(3) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons (4) 2 electrons and 4 protons only

−
Q.145 180
72 A α
→ A1 
β
→ A 2 α
→ A 3 
γ
→ A4 [AIPMT-2001]
Find atomic number and mass number of A4
(1) 69 (2) 71 (3) 72 (4) 68

Q.146 In the nuclear decay given below

A A A−4 * A−4
Z X → Z +1Y → Z −1 B → Z −1 B,

The particles emitted in the sequence are [AIPMT-2009, 1993]

(1) γ, β, α (2) β, γ, α (3) α, β, γ (4) β, α, γ

Q.147 A radioactive nucleus AZX undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence AZX →Z−1 B →Z−3 C →Z− 2 D,
where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles in the sequence are :
[NEET-2021]
(1) α, β , β
− +
(2) α, β , β
+ −
(3) β , α, β
+ −
(4) β , α, β
− +
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.148 α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays are all having same energy. Their penetrating power in a given
medium in increasing order will be [Karnataka NEET 2013]
(1) γ, α, β (2) α, β, γ (3) β, α, γ (4) β, γ, α

Q.149 A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number Z) emits 3 α-particles and 2
positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus will be:
[AIPMT-2001]
A−Z−4 A − Z−8 A−Z−4 A − Z − 12
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Z−2 Z−4 Z−8 Z−4

Q.150 A nucleus m
n X emits one α particle and two β− particles. The resulting nucleus is
[AIPMT-2011, 1998]
m −6 m −6 m−4 m−4
(1) n −4 Z (2) n Z (3) n X (4) n −2 Y

Q.151 A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then [AIPMT-2015]
(1) The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus.
(2) The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
(3) The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
(4) The helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus.

Q.152 The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles
emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an [AIPMT-2009]
(1) isomer of parent (2) isotone of parent (3) isotope of parent (4) isobar of parent

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.153 A nuclear reaction given by

Z X A 
→ Z+1Y A + −1e0 + ν represents [AIPMT-2003]
(1) β - decay (2) α - decay (3) fusion (4) fission

Q.154 In a radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β-particles are [AIPMT-2007]
(1) the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
(2) the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
(3) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
(4) the electrons present inside the nucleus.

16
Q.155 A deutron is bombarded on 8O nucleus then α-particle is emitted. The product nucleus is
[AIPMT-2002]
13 10 9 14
(1) 7N (2) 5B (3) 4Be (4) 7N

Q.156 X(n, α) 37 Li, then X will be [AIPMT-2001]

Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

10
(1) 5 B (2) 95 B (3) 11
4 Be (4) 24 He

Q.157 For the given reaction, the particle X is

6 C11 → 5 B11 + β+ + X [AIPMT-2000]
(1) neutron (2) anti neutrino (3) neutrino (4) proton

Q.158 After 1α and 2β -emissions [AIPMT-1999]

(1) mass number reduces by 6 (2) mass number reduces by 4
(3) mass number reduces by 2 (4) atomic number increases by 1

Q.159 The most penetrating radiation out of the following are [AIPMT-2003]
(1) β-rays (2) γ-rays (3) X-rays (4) α-rays

Q.160 What is the respective number of α and β particles emitted in the following radioactive decay?
200
X 90 → 168 Y80 [AIPMT-2007]
(1) 8 and 8 (2) 8 and 6 (3) 6 and 8 (4) 6 and 6

Q.161 The mass of α-particle is [AIPMT-2000]

(1) less than the sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons
(2) equal to mass of four protons
(3) equal to mass of four neutrons
(4) equal to sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons

12
Q.162 The nucleus 6C absorbs an energetic neutron and emits a beta particle (β). The resulting nucleus is
(1) 7 N14 (2) 7 N13 (3) 5 B13 (4) 6 C13 [AIPMT-1997]

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 Simplified Physics with AG Sir

Q.163 An element A decays into element C by a two-step processes

A → B + 2 He 4 ; B → C + 2e − , Then [AIPMT-1999]
(1) A and C are isotopes (2) A and C are isobars
(3) A and B are isotopes (4) A and B are isobars.

Q.164 Which of the following are suitable for the fusion process? [AIPMT-2002]
(1) Light nuclei
(2) Heavy nuclei
(3) Element lying in the middle of the periodic table
(4) Middle elements, which are lying on binding energy curve.

Q.165 Energy released in nuclear fission is due to [AIPMT-2001]

(1) some mass is converted into energy
(2) total binding energy of fragments is more than the binding energy of parental element
(3) total binding energy of fragments is less than the binding energy of parental element
(4) total binding energy of fragments is equal to the binding energy of parental element.
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.166 Solar energy is due to [AIPMT-1999]

(1) fusion reaction (2) fission reaction
(3) combustion reaction (4) chemical reaction

Q.167 If in a nuclear fusion process, the masses of the fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the resultant
nucleus be m3, then [AIPMT-2004]
(1) m3 = m1 + m2 (2) m3 = |m1 – m2| (3) m3 < (m1 + m2) (4) m3 > (m1 + m2)

mass of fission products

Q.168 In any fission process the ratio is :- [AIPMT-2005]
mass of parent nucleus
(1) equal to 1 (2) greater than 1
(3) less than 1 (4) depends on the mass of the parent nucleus

Q.169 Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them [AIPMT-2005]
(1) increases with mass number at low mass numbers
(2) decreases with mass number at low mass numbers
(3) increases with mass number at high mass numbers
(4) decreases with mass number at high mass numbers.

Q.170 Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because [AIPMT-2011]

(1) nuclei break up at high temperature
(2) atoms get ionised at high temperature
(3) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
(4) molecules break up at high temperature

Q.171 Energy release in fission of 1 gm U235

(1) 5.1 × 1029 ev (2) 3.2 × 1026 ev (3) 7.2 × 1023 ev (4) 5.9 × 1032 ev
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Q.172 When a uranium isotope 235

92 U is bombarded with a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr, three neutrons and
(1) 144
56 Ba (2) 91
40 Zr (3) 101
36 Kr (4) 103
36 Kr [NEET-2020]

Q.173 Find no. of atoms should be fissioned is one second to operate a nuclear reactor of power 1 Watt
[AIPMT-1991].
10 14 12 16
(1) 3.125 × 10 /s (2) 5.2 × 10 /s (3) 6.125 × 10 /s (4) 3.125 × 10 /s

Q.174 Energy released in the fission of a single 235

92 U nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of 235
92 U filled
reactor operating at a power level of 5W is:- [AIPMT-1993]
–10 –1 11 –1 –16 –1 –17 –1
(1) 1.56 × 10 s (2) 1.56 × 10 s (3) 1.56 × 10 s (4) 1.56 × 10 s

235
Q.175 Find amount of U required per hour to operate a reactor of 1KW. [AIPMT-2000]
(1) 11 µ gm/ hr (2) 44 µ gm/ hr (3) 90 µ gm/ hr (4) 18 µ gm/ hr

Q.176 Which of the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reaction? [AIPMT-1997]

(1) Cadmium (2) Plutonium (3) Uranium (4) Heavy water
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Q.177 Find mass decay per hour required to operate reactor of 1000 kW. [AIPMT-2011]
(1) 40 µ gm/ hr (2) 20 µ gm/ hr (3) 80 µ gm/ hr (4) 160 µ gm/ hr

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ANSWER KEY

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 1 4 1
Ques. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 1 4 2 1 4 4 4 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 3 Bonus 2 2 1 4 4 2
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 1
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 1
Ques. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 4 4 3 4 3 2 3 1 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. 3 3 1 3 2 3 3 4 1 3
Ques. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 4 3 3 1 (1, 3) 3 3 4 4
Modern Physics (NEET-PYQ)

Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 3 2 4 3 1 1 4 1 1
Ques. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 4 3
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans. 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 1 2
Ques. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 2 4 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 2
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans. 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 1
Ques. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans. 4 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 3 3
Ques. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 3 3 1 1 4 1 3 2 2 3
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans. 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 3
Ques. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177
ALL THE BEST
Ans. 1 1 1 2 2 4 1

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