Form 4 Endterm 2 Set 2 (SM) Exams

F4 ENDTERM 2 SET 2 EXAM
ALL SUBJECTS
A Series of Assessment Questions Covering the
Syllabus upto end of term 2 as per the
Curriculum design
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AGRICULTURE PAPER 1 FORM 4

ENDTERM 2 SET 2 EXAMS
{THE STANDARD MEASURE SERIES}
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• This paper contains three sections A, B and C

• Answer ALL the questions in section A and B
• Answer any Two questions from section C
• All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATES

SCORE
A 1-14 30
B 15-18 20
C 20
20
TOTAL 90
Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

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SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1.State two reasons why farmers should be encouraged to practice organic farming
(1mk)
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2. State two ways in which crop rotation controls weeds (1mk)
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3. Name two methods of sowing pasture crops (1mk)
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4. State four qualities considered when selecting seeds for planting (2mks)
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5. State four advantages of crop rotation (2mks)
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6. State three physical agents of weathering in soil formation (1 ½ mks)
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7. Give three properties of a foliar fertilizer which makes it possible to be used

as a foliar
Feed (1 ½ mks)
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8. Give three reasons why Banana should be pruned (1 ½ mks)
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9. State four factors considered when classifying crop pests (2mks)
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10. Give four reasons for land fragmentation (2mks)
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11. State two mechanical methods used in separating soil in soil analysis (1mk)
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12. State three ways in which inorganic fertilizers are classified (1 ½ mks)
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13. State three effects of raindrops on bare soil ( 1 ½ mks)
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14. Give three reasons why layering would be preferred to the use of cutting as
a method of raising planting materials ( ½ mks)
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15. State the forms in which nitrogen is absorbed by plants (1mk)
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16. Outline four factors which effect herbraidal selectivity (2mks)

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17. State four natural factors that may influence soil erosion (2mks)
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18. Name four disadvantages of zero grazing (2mks)
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19. Outline four factors which encourage soil erosion (2mks)
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SECTION B (20 MKS)
Answer ALL Questions in this section

20. Below are illustrations of common weeds. Study them and answer the
questions that follow
(a) Identify the weeds (2mks)
A…………………………………………….
B…………………………………………….
(b) State the harmful effects of the weed B above (1mk)
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(c) Give four advantages of leasehold tenure systems (2mks)
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21. Describe the procedure which should be followed when spraying a crop of
onions using a fungicide in powder form, water and a knapsack sprayer
(5mks)
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22.. (a) What is soil sampling? (1 mark)
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(b) Below is a method of soil sampling. Use it to answer the question that follow.
1 7
2 8
3 9
10 4
11 5
12 6

(i) What method of soil sampling is represented above? (1 mark )
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(ii) name the other method of soil sampling (1mark)
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(iii) Outline three areas which should be avoided during soil sampling. (3 marks )
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23. . Identify the rotational grazing system shown below (1mk)
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b) Give the FOUR advantages of the system named above (4mks)
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SECTION C (40MKS)
Answer any two Questions in this section
24. (a) Describe harvesting of pyrethrum under the following sub-headings
(i) Procedure (4mks) (ii)
Precautions (6mks)
(b) Describe the safety measures observed when handling farm herbicides
(10mks)
25. Describe the production of Rhodes grass (Chloris gayana) under the
following sub-headings
(a) Land preparation (5mks) (b)
Pasture establishment (8mks) (c)
Maintenance (7mks)
26. .(a) Discuss the production of beans under the following sub headings
(i) Land preparation (4mks)

(ii) Varieties (2mks)
(iii) Selection and preparation of planting materials (5mks)
(iv) Field management practices
(b) Explain the method and procedure of harvesting of sugarcane (4mks)

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AGRICULTURE PAPER 2 FORM 4
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:________
_
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.

2. This paper consists of three sections. Section A, B and C.
3. Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
4. Answer ANY TWO questions in section C in the spaces provided.

Tel 0724333200 E-mail [email protected]. ORDER MARKING SCHEMES AT
SECTION A – 30 MARKS Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. List down two reasons that make Agriculture ( 2 marks )
(i) An art
(ii) A science
2. State one use of each of the following farm tools. ( 2 marks )

(i) Mason’s trowel
(ii) A pair of tin snips
3. Give four reasons why indigenous cattle breeds are more suited to semi-arid areas of
Kenya than exotic breeds. ( 2 marks )
4. Name two functions of calcium in dairy cows. ( 1 mark )
5. Prepare 100kg pig ration of DCP of 16% using a cereal balancer of 10% DCP and
cotton seed cake of 28%DCP. ( 4 marks )

6. State two ways by which proper feeding contributes to disease control in poultry.
( 1 mark )
7. Outline four methods used to control Tse-tse flies. ( 2 marks )
8. (a) What is meant by the terms zero grazing in livestock production? ( 1 mark )
(b) What is the duration of oestrous cycle in a cow? ( 1 mark )
(c ) If a dairy cow is noticed to be showing first sign of heat at 9.00am. What time
should it be inseminated ? ( 1 mark )
9. Give two reasons why walls of dairy shed should be white washed instead of painting
with water or oil paints. ( 1 mark )
10. A part from tractor and electricity, name four other sources of power that may be used
for doing work on the farm. ( 2 marks )

11. State two factors that contribute to depreciation of farm tools and equipment.
( 1 mark )
12. Name four chemical preservatives used to treat the wooden ( 2 marks )
13. Name two methods of identifying piglets in the farm. ( 1 mark )
14. Outline four management practices a farmer should undertake to ensure maximum
number of fish is harvested from a fish pond. ( 2 marks )
15. Name two methods of extracting honey from the combs. ( 1 mark )
16. Name four benefits of a good farm layout. ( 2 marks )

17. State four symptoms shown by poultry when suffering from new castle disease.
( 2 marks )
SECTION B – 20 MARKS
18. The illustration below shows behaviour of chicks in a brooder in response to certain
conditions. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Explain the reason for the behaviour of chicks in the above diagrams. (4 marks )
A
B
C
D

(b) Give other two signs the chicks will show other than the one you have given in C
above. (1 mark)
(c ) Outline three necessary conditions required in a brooder. ( 3 marks )
19. Identify the livestock parasites drawn below.
Identify the following livestock parasites. ( 3 marks )

A
B
C
(b) In which organs of livestock are the parasites A, B and C found. ( 3 marks )
A
B
C
20. The diagram D, E and F below represents different conditions of the tyres.

(a) Which diagram represents the correct pressure in a tractor tyre? (1 mark
(b) (i) Identify the mistakes with the other tyres. (1 mark)
(ii) Give the correction measure for each tyre mentioned in b(i) above.
(1 mark)
21. Give three maintenance practices that should be carried out on a grain storage structure.
(3 marks)

SECTION C – 40 MARKS
Answer any two questions in the spaces provided after the questions
22. (a) Describe construction of a movable calf pen under the following sub-headings.
(i) Selection and construction materials
(i) Requirements of a calf pen (12 marks)

(b) Describe the management of a dairy calf for the first week after calving. (8 marks)

23. (a) Outline any seven factors that would determine the use of jembe instead of use of
a disc plough in primary cultivation. (6 marks)
(b) State seven structural difference between petrol and diesel engines. (14 marks)

24. Explain ten management practices that a farmer could carry out to improve milk
production in a low yielding dairy cow. (20 marks)

BIOLOGY PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS
1. All Questions are Compulsory
2. Write your Answers in the Spaces Provided
3. Wrong Spelling of Technical Terms shall be Penalized
Max Student’s Score

Score
80

1. The photomicrograph shown below is a section of a cell
a) Using the letters provided, label the organelle that: (2mks

i) Is found in high number in kidney cells (KC)
ii) Is abundant in secretory glands (SG)
b) State the importance of cytoplasmic streaming to a cell (1mk
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2. An athlete experienced a muscle cramp after a sprint race

a) Name the acid that accumulated in her muscles to bring about the discomfort (1mk
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b) Describe the fate of this acid when the athlete takes a rest (2mks
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3. State the functions of the following cells (3mks

i) Sertoli cells
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ii) Interstitial cells
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iii) Guard cells
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4. The experimental set up shown below was placed in the sunshine for 2 hours to study a
particular phenomenon in plants
a) What is the expected result after the 2hours of experiment? (1mk

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b) Account for the answer given in a) above (2mks
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c) What is the expected result if the experiment was done under high humidity? (1mk
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5. Name (2mks
a) A cell in the human body that lacks mitochondria
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b) A Kingdom whose members lack mitochondria
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6. Fill the table below to show differences between guttation and transpiration (2mks

Guttation Transpiration
7. A plant cell was placed in solution X and after a while it appeared as cell B shown below
a) Which TWO features show that cell B is plasmolysed? (2mks

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b) Which process facilitated the presence of solution X in part P? (1mk
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c) What is the nature of solution X? (1mk
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8. Name the tissue that forms the following hormones (2mks

a) Glucagon ………………………………………………………………………………
b) Progesterone ……………………………………………………………………………
9. Learners suspected that a liquid they found in the laboratory contained starch
a) Describe a procedure they will use to determine whether starch was present (2mks
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b) State the expected colour change for them to conclude that starch was present (1mk
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c) What is the advantage of plants storing carbohydrates as starch? (1mk
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10. The diagram below shows the root of a leguminous plant
a) Name the bacterium found in the root nodules (1mk

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b) How are the bacteria named in a) important to the legume? (1mk
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11. The following data was collected from study of same crop grown in different temperature
a) Which is the ideal temperature for the growth of this crop? (1mk
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b) Account for the yield obtained in plot D (2mks

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12. Explain the ways by which movement of the ovum is achieved along the oviduct.
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13. a) Name the salivary gland found beneath the tongue (1mk
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b) Outline TWO ways in which saliva is suited to its function (2mks
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14. The picture below shows a disorder that affects blood vessels in humans
a) Name the disorder shown above (1mk

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b) Which blood vessel is affected by this disorder? (1mk
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15. A tall garden pea plant was crossed with a dwarf garden pea plant.
a) Given that the allele ‘d’ for dwarfness is recessive, write the genotype of the offspring
if the tall garden pea used was: (2mks
i) Pure breed
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ii) Heterozygous
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b) Write the base sequence of the DNA from which the messenger-RNA shown below
was derived. ACUGAACCGUAU (1mk
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16. Use the illustration shown below to answer the questions that follow
a) Why is the right kidney slightly pushed higher up compared to the left kidney? (1mk
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b) Explain how gland labelled Z help raise amount of Sodium ions (Na+) in the blood
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17. The illustration shown below is of a common organism

a) Why is the above organism medically important globally? (2mks
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b) Name the class to which the organism belongs. (1mk
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c) Give TWO reasons for your answer in b) above (2mks
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18. How are the following significant to the development of seeds
a) Seed dormancy (2mks
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b) Seed dispersal (2mks
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19. Use the images shown below to answer questions that follow

a) Why are the structures above said to be homologous structures? (1mk
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b) Which type of evolution is represented above? (1mk
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c) What is the significance of the type of evolution named in b) to animals? (1mk
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20. A protein has 100 amino acids. Calculate the number of nitrogenous bases in the gene for
this protein (2mks
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21. Study the photomicrograph shown below and answer the questions that follow
100ߎm
a) Name the parasite shown in the photo above (1mk

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b) Which organism is the vector of the parasite? (1mk
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c) Calculate the magnification used to obtain the image shown above (3mks
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22. a) Name the chemical form in which the following are transported in the blood (2mks
i) Carbohydrates
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ii) Carbon (IV) Oxide
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b) Explain why transfusion of blood from a blood group B donor to a recipient with blood
group A may be fatal. (2mks
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23. Use the photograph shown below to answer questions that follow
a) Explain the role of prothoracic gland during this phase of metamorphosis (2mks
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b) State the significance of this process to the life of the insect (1mk
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24. An animal has 6 molars, 2 canines, 4 incisors and 6 premolars in the lower jaw while the
upper jaw has 6 molars, 4 premolars, 0 incisors and 2 canines in the upper jaw
a) What is the significance of absence of incisors in the upper jaw to the feeding of the
animal (2mks
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b) Write the correct dental formula for the animal (1mk
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c) Why do such animals have a longer alimentary canal? (2mks
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25. Describe double fertilization in flowering plants (4mks

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NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
1. Write your name, admission number, school and sign in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
3. This paper contains two sections A and B. Answer ALL questions in section A. In section B,
answer question 6 (Compulsory) and EITHER question 7 or 8.
4. Note that all questions in section A carry equal marks.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Question Maximum score Candidates score
A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20
Total score 80

Section A: 40MKS: Answer all the questions
1. A cross between red flowered plant and white flowered plant produced plants with pink
flowers. Using letter R to represent the gene for red color and W to represent white color;
a. Work out a cross between F1 plants (4mks)
b. Give the;
i. Phenotypic ratio of F2 plants (1mk)
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ii. Genotypic ratio of F2 plants (1mk)
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c. Name a characteristic in humans which is controlled by multiple alleles. (1mk)
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d. Which is the biological term used to refer to the condition exhibited by F1 plants.
(1mk)
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2. The photograph below shows red blood cells that have been put in different solutions.
Examine them and answer the questions that follow.
a) i)Identify the type of solution in which F was placed. (1mk)
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ii) State the process which the red blood cells underwent in illustration G. (1mk)
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b) Account for the appearance the red blood cells underwent in illustration E. (3mks)
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c) Explain what would happen if plant cells are placed in the solution in which the cells
in G were immersed. (3mks)
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3. The diagram below shows blood circulation in a mammalian tissue.
a. Name the parts labelled P and Q. (2mks)
P
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Q……………………………………………………………………………………………
b. Name the substances that are:
i. Required for respiration that move out of capillaries. (1mk)

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ii. Removed from tissue cells as a result of respiration. (1mk)
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c. Explain how substances move from the blood capillaries into the tissue cells. (3mks)
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d. Name one blood component that is not found in the part labeled P. (1mk)
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4. a. The diagram below represents a member of kingdom Animalia.
i. Name the phylum to which the organism belong. (1mk)
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ii. Using observable features in the diagram, give three reasons for the answer in 4a
(i) above. (3mks)

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b. To estimate the population size of crabs in a certain lagoon, traps were laid at random.
400 crabs were caught, marked and released back into the lagoon on the first day. Four
days later, traps were laid again at random. Out of the 374 crabs caught the second time,
80 were found to have been marked.
i. Calculate the population size of the crabs in the lagoon. (3mks)
iii. What is the name given to this method of estimating the population size? (1mk)
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5. An experiment was set up as show below.
(a) A student blew air in and out through point X. Using arrows indicate how air gets in and
out of the set up. (2mks)
(b) [i] In which of the tube would lime water form white precipitate first. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii] Give a reason. (1mk)

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(c)What is the effect of lactic acid in the thigh muscle of an athlete after a short fast race?
(2mks)
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(d) Identify the type of muscle in human being where the formation and effect of lactic acid is
not felt. (1mk)
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(e) What is the biological significance of boiling milk. [1mk]
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SECTION B: 40 Mks: Answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8.
6. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of
reaction catalyzed by an enzyme. The results are shown in the table below.
Temperature 0c Rate of reaction in mg of

product per unit time
5 0.2
10 0.5
15 0.8
20 1.1
25 1.5
30 2.1
35 3.0
40 3.7
45 3.4
50 2.8
55 2.1
60 1.1
(a) On the grid provided draw a graph of rate of reaction against temperature. ( 6marks)

(b) When was the rate of reaction 2.6 mg of product per unit time? ( 2 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Account for the shape of the graph between
(i) 50 C and 400 C ( 2 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) 450 C and 600C ( 3 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(d) Other than temperature name two ways in which the rate of reaction between 50C and 400C
could be increased. (2 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) (i) Name one digestive enzymes in the human body which works best in acidic condition
( 1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) How is the acidic condition for the enzyme named in (e) (i) above attained? ( 2 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) The acidic conditions in (e) (ii) above is later neutralized

(i) Where does the neutralization take place? ( 1 mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Name the substance responsible for neutralization (1 mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Describe:
a. How the structure of mammalian heart is adapted to its function. (15mks)
b. The process of blood clotting. (5mks)
8. a) After a meal of carbohydrate, the glucose level in the blood rose to 150mg/ cm3 .
Explain the role of the liver in bringing the sugar level down back to normal. (8mks)
b) Explain six importance of plants excretory products. (12mks)

BIOLOGY PAPER 3 CONFIDENTIAL FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
All candidates to be supplied with:

1. Pestle and mortar
2. Specimen Q: LIVER. (1cm by 1cm per student)
3. Specimen R: Banana/ raw: 3 students can share 1
4. Measuring cylinder
5. Ruler
6. 20ml Hydrogen peroxide (Solution X)
7. Source of heat
8. 2 Boiling tubes
9. 4 test tubes
10. Distilled water
11. Labels
12. Stop watch.
13. A mango twig with about three leaves labeled m. – (leaves should be less than 15cm long)
14. Any grass twig with about three leaves labeled G.
15. A magnifying/ hand lens.


NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions: Answer all question in the spaces provided.
1. a) (i) You are provided with a pestle, mortar, scalpel, specimen Q and R. Cut from each a cube,
each measuring 1cm by 1cm. Put them each in a different test tube having 10mls of solution X.
Record the observations in the table below? (2 Mks)
Specimen Observation
Specimen Q
Specimen R
(ii) Account for the observations in the experiment involving specimen Q and R? (2 mks)
b) i) Using the remaining portion of specimen Q, Cut 2 other pieces measuring 1cm by
1cm, Crush them separately to form a paste and put them in boiling tubes labelled A and B.

To the paste in boiling tube labelled A, add 5mls of solution X. Record the observation in the
table below. (1mk)
BOILING TUBE OBSERVATION
To the paste in boiling tube labeled B add 10mls of distilled water and boil for
5 minutes then allow it cool then add 5mls of solution X. Record the observation
in the table below. (1 mk)
BOILING TUBE OBSERVATION
ii) Account for the observations made in b (i) above involving boiling tube A and B
(4 marks)
Boiling tube A
Boiling tube B
iii) Name the biological substance being investigated and its significance to the living tissues
(2mks)
Biological substance
Significance
iv) Name the factor being investigated in question 2(b) above (1mk)
2.
a. Identify specimens labeled M and G provided. (1mk)
b. From specimen labeled G name any two organs (2mks)
c.
i. From specimen M – remove one leaf.
List any two observable features (2mks)
ii. Use the leaf in part C (i) above; place that leaf on graph paper provided and trace it
carefully on the graph paper.

From the traced outline,
a) Count the number of complete full square= …….. (1mk)

b) Count the number of incomplete squares = ……… (1mk)
c) Calculate the area of each square in cm2=................... (1mk)
d) Calculate the area of the leaf outline...................... (2mks)

e) From the information obtained in part (d) above compare it with a leaf in
specimen G. What advantage does a leaf from specimen G has over leaf from
specimen M? (1mk)
f) Giving a reason, in which class does a plant from which specimen G was
obtained. (2mks)
Class Reason

3. A) Study the photographs below of specimen. A, B, and D and then answer the questions that
follows.
a) Name the condition exhibited in A which hinders self- fertilization. (1mk)
b) Explain how the above condition hinders self-fertilization. (1mkn)
c) i) State the division where plant in photograph D belong and give reason for your answer.
Division (1mk)
Reason (1mk)

ii) State the type of nutrition exhibited by specimen D. (1mk)
iii) Give a reason for your answer in d (ii) above. (1mk)
iv) Give the function of the structure labelled Y. (1mk)
3 (B) Photograph 1 below represent a plant that grow in relatively wet habitats.
Photograph 2 is a magnified portion of the underside of the leaf of photograph 1.
a) State the common name of the plant and state the plant division it belongs. (2mks)
Common name:
Division:
b) Name the structure labelled T and state its function. (2mks)

c) Name the structure labeled A and B. (2mks)
A–
B–
d) State one major difference between structure labelled B and the rhizoids of a moss plant.
(1mk)

BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
1. Highlight four ways in which business studies may be of benefit to an individual. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
2. Outline four features of economic resources. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
3. Outline four challenges that a firm would experience as a result of expansion of the entire industry
in which it is found. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................

4. Outline four factors that affect business activities and which the business has control over. (4
Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
5. Identify four gaps that may create a business opportunity in a market. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
6. Highlight four merits of an open office layout to a business (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
7. Outline four reasons why cash payment is preferred to cheque payment. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................

iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
8. Identify four types of insurance policies relevant to a supermarket owner. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
9. The following information relates to Kembe Traders as at 31st December 2008
Rate of stock turnover 3 times
Mark up 20%
Opening stock sh.160,000
Closing stock sh.200,000
Required : Determine
i) Gross profit
.............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................
ii) Sales
.............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................
10. Highlight four characteristics of a perfect competitive market. (4 marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
11. The table below relates to four different businesses, insert the correct values for A, B, C and D.
(4marks)
ASSETS CAPITAL LIABILITIES
2,310,642 A 486,932
B 40,385 96,483
941,682 31,685 C
3,104,611 D 395,348
12. The population of the youth in country X is likely to be 3/4 of the total population in ten years
time. Highlight four challenges this country will face at this point in time. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................

iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
13. Highlight four factors that may cause the demand curve to shift to the right (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
14. For each of the following transactions indicate the account to be debited or credited.
Transaction A/C debited A/C
credited
a) Received discount from Top
suppliers
b) Allowed discount to Shujaa
Traders
c) Sold furniture to Owuor on
credit
d) Took stock worth sh.200 for
personal use
15. List four items that may affect the capital of a business (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................

ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
16. State four ways in which advertising agencies assist in sales promotion. (4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
17. State four ways in which the Kenyan currency qualifies as good money. (4 marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
18. State four advantages of using the internet as a means of communication. (4 marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
19. Highlight four ways in which transport is important to a business. (4 marks)

i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
20. State four circumstances under which a producer would sell his goods directly to the consumer. (4
marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
21. In the spaces provided state the source document for each of the subsidiary books given below. (4
marks)
Subsidiary book Source document
a) Sales Journal
b) Purchases journal
c) Returns inwards journal
d) Returns outwards journal
22. List four assumptions of the circular flow of income in a two sector closed economy. (4 marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................

iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
23. Mention four small scale retailers with shops. (4marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................
24. The following balances were extracted from the books of Highway stores on 31st Dec. 2015
Land and buildings 650000
Stock 470000
Bank overdraft 80000
Debtors 350000
Ten year loan 500000
Creditors 220,000
Cash 50000
Motor van 150000
Required :
i) Prepare a balance sheet for Highway Stores as at 31st Dec. 2015. (4 marks)

25. Chumo industries want to open a warehouse for her products. Give the management some advice on
four factors it should consider in establishing the warehouse. ( 4 Marks)
i) ....................................................................................................................................................
ii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iii) ....................................................................................................................................................
iv) ...................................................................................................................................................

BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER 2 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions to candidates
➢ This paper consists of six questions

➢ Answer any five questions
➢ All questions carry equal marks
➢ Write your answers in spaces provided.
For Examiner’s Use Only
Question Maximum score Candidate’s Score

1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
TOTAL SCORE

1. a) Highlight four ways in which the economic environment may positively influence the
activities of a business. (8 marks)
(b) On 1st July 2021, Shujaa Traders had Shs.36,500 at bank and cash in hand Shs. 250.
During the month the following transactions took place.
July 2 Cash sales Shs.42,630 paid directly to the bank.

July 3 Received a cheque for Shs.14,100 from Mkora in full settlement of a debt.
July 7 Credit sales Shs. 15,500 to Otonglo
July 8 Bought goods for Shs.26,240 on credit from Mali Mali Enterprises.
July 12 Cash sales Shs.42,450.
July 14 Paid Mwema by cheque Shs.23,750 in full settlement of his account after deducting 5% cash
discount.
July 15 Paid wages Shs.24,000 in cash.
July 16 Withdrew Shs.36,000 from the bank for office use.
July 17 Cleared Mali Mali account of Shs. 26,240 in cash less 12.5% discount.
July 18 Otonglo cleared her account of Shs 15,500 in cash less 11.5% discount.
July 20 Cheque received from Mkora was dishonoured.
July 28 Paid salaries by cheque Shs.48,600.
July 30 All cash was banked except Shs.5,000.
Required: Prepare a three-column cash book. (12 marks)
2. a) Zeraki is launching a new Bookshop for schools in Kenya. If you are their
marketing manager what five factors would you consider when choosing an
appropriate media for promoting the bookshop. (10 marks)
b) Highlight five accounting documents used in home trade. (10 marks)
3. a) Explain five factors that influence entrepreneurial practices in Kenya. (10 marks)
b) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, show the effects of increase in supply on
equilibrium price and quantity. (10 marks)
4. a) Nyalego is an importer of assorted goods from different countries. Explain five

advantages he may enjoy while his goods are stored in a bonded warehouse.
(10 marks)

b) The following information relates to Msafi traders.
MSAFI TRADERS
TRIAL BALANCE
AS AT 31/12/2021
Details Dr. (Shs.) Cr. (Shs.)
Capital 200,000
Motor vehicle 10,000
Machinery 16,000
Stock (1/1/2021) 12,000
Debtors 83,500
Cash 68,000
Bank 112,800
Creditors 45,000
Sales 280,000
Purchases 120,000
Carriage inwards 2,000
Returns 1,200 1,000
Carriage on sales 4,000
Discount 3,000 4,000
Salaries 2,000
Rent 21,500
Insurance 10,000
Electricity 17,000
551,500 551,500
Closing stock Shs.8,000.

Required: Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account. (10 marks)
5. a) The graph below represents population and output levels of three countries, A B and C
Output(Q)
A B C
Population (p)
(i) State the type of population found in each country
Country B......................................................................... (1 mark)
Country C......................................................................... (1 mark)
(ii) Explain four challenges that country C may be facing (8 marks)
(b) Explain five circumstances under which an insurance contract may be terminated.
(10 marks)
6. a) Explain five activities that may be carried out in the process of distributing goods.
(10 marks)
(b) Outline five internal diseconomies of scale that a firm that grows in size is likely to
encounter. (10 marks)

CHEMISTRY PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
• Write your name, admission number, date, index number and school in the spaces
provided
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
• All working MUST BE clearly shown where necessary
• Scientific calculators may be used
• Candidates should answer the questions in English
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Questions Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 – 28 80
This paper contains 11 printed pages. The candidates should check to confirm that all pages are
printed and that no question is missing
1. State and explain the change in mass that occur when the following substances are separately
heated in open crucibles.
𝟏
a) Copper metal (1 𝟐 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
𝟏
b) Copper (II) nitrate (1 𝟐 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. (a) State Graham’s law of diffusion (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) A volume of 120 cm3 of nitrogen gas diffused through a membrane in 40 seconds, how long
will 240cm3 of carbon (IV) oxide defuse through the same membrane? (2 marks)
3. A reaction of Propane with chlorine gas gave a compound of formula C3H7Cl.

a) What condition is necessary for the above reaction to take place. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Draw the structural formula of the compound C3H7Cl (2 marks)
4. Name a gas which is used together with Oxygen in welding. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow.
(The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements)
Element B C D E F
Atomic number 18 5 3 5 20
Mass number 40 10 7 11 40
(i) Which two letters represent the same elements? Give reason. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Give the number of neutrons in an atom of element D. (Show your working)
(1 mark)
6. A hydrated salt of copper has the formula CuSO4.nH2O. About 25g of the salt was heated until
all the water evaporated. If the mass of the anhydrous salt is 16.0g, find the value of n.
(Cu = 64.0, S = 32.0, O = 16.0, H = 1) (3 marks)
7. The table below shows the pH values of the solutions I, II, III and IV
Solution I II III IV
pH 2 7 11 14
a) Which solution is likely to be that of calcium hydroxide? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Select the solution in which a sample of aluminum oxide is likely to dissolve. Give a reason
for your answer. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Select a pair of solutions that would likely give a pH of 7 when equal volumes are reacted
with each other. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Sodium chloride has a higher melting point than hydrogen chloride, explain. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………...
9. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow

substance M.pt oC B.pt oC Electrical conductivity Electrical conductivity
in solid state in molten state
J 365 463 Nil Nil
K 1323 2773 Good Good
L 1046 1680 Nil Good
M 2156 2776 Nil Nil
Place J, K, L and M in the appropriate categories from the following:
i. Metallic solid ______________________________ (1 mark)
ii. Covalent network solid ________________________ (1 mark)
iii. Ionic solid __________________________________ (1 mark)
iv. Covalent molecular solid_______________________ (1 mark)
10. The diagram below shows how two gases, P and Q were collected.
a) Name the two methods used. (2 marks)

(i)..…………………………………………(ii) …………………………………………….....
b) State properties of P and Q that enable them to be collected through the methods shown.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………...
11. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions in the table below and answer
the questions below the table
Bond Bond Energy (KJmol-1)
C-H 414

Cl-Cl 244
C-Cl 326
H-Cl 431
Calculate the enthalpy change of the following reaction
CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) U.V. light CH3Cl(g)+HCl (g) (3 marks )
12. Study the diagram below used to investigate the property of steam on aluminium
Aluminium
powder
Steam
(a) Explain why no gas was collected in the set up above. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Explain why the reaction between aluminium and steam stops after a short time.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. A pupil analyzed a commercial vinegar solution by titration and found that 24.5cm3 of 0.09 M
sodium hydroxide solution was required for titration of 1cm3 of vinegar. Calculate the molarity
of ethanoic acid CH3COOH in vinegar. (3 marks)
14. The diagram below shows a ‘jiko’ when in use. Study it and answer the questions that follow
Region B
Burning charcoal
Region A
Air
Ash
(a) Identify the gas formed at region B (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Using an equation, explain what happens at region A (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. Sodium chloride is contaminated with copper (II) oxide. Explain how pure sodium chloride can
be obtained from the mixture. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. The table below gives three experiments on the reaction of excess sulphuric (VI) acid and 0.5g of
zinc done under different conditions. In each the volume of gas was recorded at different time
intervals.
Experiment Form of zinc Sulphuric (VI) acid
solution
I Powder 0.8M
II Powder 1.0M
III Granules 0.8M
On the axis below, draw and label the three curves that could be obtained from such results.
(3 marks)
17. The set-up of apparatus below used to prepare sulphur (VI) oxide:
Dry gas N
Catalyst X
Drying agent Y
Dry gas M
Ice Solid SO3
(i) Name Gas N………………………… and Gas M………………………….. (1 mark)
(ii) Catalyst X …………………………………………………………………... (1 mark)

(iii) Why is it necessary to use drying agent Y? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. State and explain the observation made when chlorine gas is bubbled into potassium iodide
solution. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. The diagram below shows an arrangement of electrons in Aluminium chloride dimer.
(i) Write down the structural formula of the above molecule. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) On the diagram, indicate using an arrow the dative bond. (1 mark)
20. When Magnesium metal is burnt in air, it reacts with both oxygen and nitrogen gases giving a
white solid with black specs. Write two equations for the reactions that take place. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Below is a representation of an electrochemical cell.

Pb(s)|Pb2+(aq)||Ag+(aq)|Ag(s)
a) What does || represent? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Given the following:
Eᶿ (volts)

Pb2+(aq) + 2e- Pb(s) -0.13
Ag+(aq) + e- Ag(s) +0.80
Calculate the E.M.F of the electrochemical cell (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. When hot concentrated nitric (V) acid is added to sulphur, a red – brown gas and a colourless
liquid are formed.
(i) Write an equation for the reaction. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Identify the oxidizing agent in the reaction above. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) State one environmental hazard of the nitrogen compounds. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
23. Draw the dot (.) and cross (x) structure of:
a) Carbon (II) oxide - CO (2 marks)
b) Ammonium ion - NH4+ (2 marks)
24. Using sodium hydroxide solution, describe a chemical test that can be used to distinguish
between copper (II) ions and iron (II) ions. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
25. State and explain what would be observed if concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid is added to:
(a) Sugar crystals (1 ½ marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Copper (II) sulphate crystals (1 ½ marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
26. When 100 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution, H2SO4, react with 100 cm3 of 1 M sodium hydroxide
solution, NaOH, the temperature rises by 6.85 Kelvins. Calculate the molar heat of neutralization
described by the equation: (3 marks)
H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)
27. Filtration is carried out in the apparatus shown

𝟏
a) Name X ……………………………………………………………………… (𝟐 mark)
𝟏
b) State one property that makes it possible to separate mixtures using filtration. (𝟐 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
28. Calculate the oxidation numbers of Sulphur in the following species: (3 marks)
a) SO32-
b) SO3
c) S2O32-
This is the last printed page


NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions
✓ Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
✓ Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
✓ Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
✓ Silent electronic calculators may be used.
✓ All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
✓ This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
✓ Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
For Examiner’s use only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 13
2 12
3 12
4 10
5 11
6 10
7 12
Total Score 80

1. The grid below shows part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements.
A B C D
E F
G
H
(a) Give the name of the family to which element F belongs. (1mk)
(b) Identify an element which forms a stable divalent anion (1mk)
(c) Give the formula of:

(i) The compound formed between A and B (½mk)
(ii) The sulphate of H (½mk)
(d) Using dot(.) and cross(x) diagram, show the bonding in the compound formed between E
and C. (2mks)
(e) Compare the atomic radii of elements C and D. Explain. (2mks)
(f) Select the element that has the lowest ionization energy. Explain. (1mk)

(g) 0.081g of element A reacts with 20cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. Calculate the molarity of
the hydrochloric acid. (R.A.M = 27) (3mks)
(h) The graph below shows the trend of the melting points and the boiling points of the family
to which element G belongs. Explain the trend in the melting points. (2mks)

2. (a) (i) What is a fuel? (1 mk)
(ii) Calculate the heating value of propane, C3H8, given that its molar enthalpy of
combustion is 2200 kJ mol-1. . (2 mks)
(C=12, H=1)
(b) (i) Define molar enthalpy of combustion. (1 mk)
(ii) Use the information provided by the thermochemical equations below to calculate the
molar enthalpy of combustion of ethyne. (3 mks)
C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) ∆H= -394 kJ mol-1
H2(g) + ½O2(g) H2O(g) ∆H= -286 kJ mol-1
2C(s) + H2(g) C2H2(g) ∆H= +226 kJ mol-1
(c) Study the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Substance/ion Enthalpy change

CaCl2(s) Lattice energy = -2237 kJ mol-1
Ca2+(g) Hydration energy = -1650 kJ mol-1
Cl-(g) Hydration energy = -364 kJ mol-1

(i) Determine the molar enthalpy of solution of calcium chloride in water. (2 mks)
(ii) Draw an energy level diagram for the dissolution of calcium chloride in water.
(3 mks)
3. (a) The diagram below shows the preparation of an oxide of nitrogen. Study the diagram and
answer the questions that follow.
Flask M
Mixture of
ammonium
sulphate Heat
and solid D Gas jar
Oxide of nitrogen
(Gas L)

(i) Name the solid D. (1mk)
(ii) Write the equation for the reaction in the flask M (1mk)
(iii) Burning magnesium ribbon was lowered into the gas jar containing gas L. State and
explain the observations made. (2mks)
(iv) Write the two equations for the reactions taking place in (iii) above. (2mks)
I.
II.
(v) A drop of water was added to the product formed in (iii) above. A colourless gas K with
a choking smell was produced. Write the chemical equation for the production of gas K
(1mk)
(b) (i) Give two uses for nitric (V) acid. (2mks)
(ii) A factory uses nitric (V) acid and ammonia gas as the only reactants for the preparation of
ammonium nitrate. If the daily production of the ammonium nitrate is 4800kg, calculate the
mass of ammonia gas used daily in kg. (N=14.0, O = 16.0 H= 1.0) (3 mks)

4. A group of form four students of Cockelbet Secondary School carried out an experiment to
determine the solubility of potassium chlorate. The table below shows the results obtained.
Total volume of water added(cm3) 10.0 20.0 30.0 40.0 50.0

Mass of KClO3(g) 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0
Temperature at which crystals appear(0C) 80.0 65.0 55.0 45.0 30.0
Solubility of KClO3(g/100gH2O)
(a) Complete the table to show the solubility of KClO3 at different temperatures. (3mks)
(b) Plot a graph of mass of KClO3 per 100g water against temperature at which crystals form.
(3mks)
(c) From the graph, determine ;

(i) The solubility of KClO3 at 40oC. (1mk)
(ii) The temperature at which the solubility of KClO3 is 35g/100g water. (1mk)
(d) Explain the shape of the graph. (1mk)
(e) State one application of solubility and solubility curves. (1mk)
5. (a) Use the standard reduction potentials for elements P, Q, R, S and T given below to answer
the questions that follow. (The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements).
Eθ (Volts)
P2+ (aq) + 2e P (s) - 2.90
Q2+(aq) + 2e Q (s) -2.36
R+ (aq) + e ½R2 (g) 0.00
S2+ (aq) + 2e S (s) + 0.33
½ T2 (g) + e T- (aq) +2.86
(i) Which element is likely to be hydrogen? Give a reason for your answer.
(1½mks)
(ii) What is the Eθ value of the strongest reducing agent? (1mk)
(iii) A form four student chose S2+(aq) / S(s) as the reference half-cell. Use the space at the
right side of Eθ Volts) to rewrite the Eθ values of the above half-cells. (2½mks)
(iv) In the space provided below draw a labeled diagram of the electrochemical cell that
would be obtained when half-cells of elements Q and S are combined. (3mks)

(b) An iron spoon is placed in an electrochemical cell with AuCl3 solution to be gold plated. How
long must the spoon be in the electrolytic cell if the spoon is to be plated with 0.293 g of Au and the
current of the cell is 1.03A. ( RAM of Au =197; 1F = 96,485 C). (3mks)
6 The diagram below represents a blast furnace used for the extraction of iron.
Charge
mixture
L Tuyere
s
A
B
(a) Name three substances contained in the charge mixture. (1½mks)

(b) Name the substances labeled A and B. (2mks)
A…………………………………………………………………………………………….
B…………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) Arrange regions J, K and L in order of decreasing temperature. (1mk)
(d) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs in region L. (1mk)
(e) What is the function of the tuyeres? (1mk)
(f) Distinguish between cast iron and wrought iron. (1mk)
(g) Write an equation for the reaction between heated iron and chlorine. (1mk)
(h) Iron-60 is a radioisotope of iron (half-life 2.6 x 106 years). Its ultimate decay product is
nickel-60. Write a nuclear equation for this process.
(Atomic numbers: Fe= 26, Ni= 28) (1mk)
(i) State one use of stainless steel. (½mks)

7. (a) Draw and name all the isomers of C4H6 (2mks)
(b) The following monomers react to form a polymer:
Draw and name the structure of the polymer (2mks)
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons have a wide range of uses. However they have been linked to depletion
of ozone.
(i) Explain the problem caused by depletion of ozone layer. (1mk)
(ii) Give one other environmental problem caused by chlorofluorocarbons. (1mk)
(d) Study the flow chart below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
Conc. H3PO4
Propanol Gas A
Heat
Process W
NaOH(aq) NaOH(s)
Propanoic acid B C
Heat

(i) Name:
I: Process W (½mk)
II: Substances A, B and C (1½mks)
A:
B:
C:
(ii) Write an equation for the combustion of substance C (1mk)
(iii) Give one use of gas A (1mk)
(e) Explain how a sample of propan-1-ol could be distinguished from a sample of propanoic acid by
means of a chemical reaction (2mks)
THIS IS THE LAST PAGE PRINTED.

CHEMISTRY CONFIDENTIAL FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
In addition to the fittings and apparatus found in chemistry laboratory, each student will require the
following.
1. About 6.2 g of solid W in a stoppered container.
2. About 100 cm3 of solution T.
3. Solid K, about 0.6g in a stoppered container.
4. About 0.2 g sodium hydrogen carbonate solid in a stoppered container.
5. 10 cm3 dilute nitric (V)acid .
6. 10 cm3of liquid H in a stoppered container.
7. Distilled water in a wash bottle.
8. One pipette and pipette filler
9. Burette.
10. Filter funnel.
11. 6 test tubes.
12. 2 Filter papers
13. Means of labeling (2 labels).
14. 50 cm3 measuring cylinder.
15. 250ml volumetric flask.
16. Thermometer.(-10 0c-1100c)
17. Glass rod
18. 250 cm3 beaker.
19. Two conical flasks.
20. 2 boiling tubes.
21. Metallic spatula
22. A test-tube holder.
23. Bunsen burner.
24. Watch glass.
BENCH REAGENTS/ ACCESS REAGENTS

1. Phenolphthalein indicator – supplied with dropper
2. Distilled water in a 500ml wash bottle
3. 2M Sodium hydroxide solution with dropper.
4. 0.1M Barium nitrate solution with dropper
5. Acidified Potassium manganate (VII) solution with a dropper.
6. Acidified Potassium dichromate(VI) solution with a dropper
7. 0.1 M Potassium iodide solution with a dropper or sodium iodide
NOTES
✓ Solid W is 6.2 g oxalic acid.
✓ Solution T is 2M sodium hydroxide solution.
✓ Solid K is 0.5 g sodium sulphite and 0.1g lead (II)carbonate.
✓ Liquid H is absolute ethanol.
✓ Acidified potassium manganate (VII) is prepared by dissolving 3.16g of KMnO4 in
600cm3 of 2M H2SO4 and made to one litre solution.
✓ - Acidified potassium dichromate (VI) is prepare by dissolving 6g of K2Cr2O7 in
600cm3 of 2M H2SO4 and made to one litre solution
✓ HNO3 is prepared by dissolving 125 cm3 of concentrated HNO3 ( density
1.41g/cm3) in about 500cm3 of distilled water and topping up to 1 litre of solution.


NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your Name and ADM numbers in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
c) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
d) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
e) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
1 21
2 12
3 07
TOTAL
40
SCORE

1. You are provided with:
➢ 6.2 g of an alkanoic acid labelled solid W in a boiling tube.

➢ 2 M sodium hydroxide solution labelled solution T.
You are required to:

i) Determine the solubility of solid W at different temperatures.
ii) Find the molar mass of the alkanoic acid.
Procedure 1
i) Using a burette, add 10cm3 of distilled water to solid W in the boiling tube. Heat the
mixture while stirring with the thermometer to about 75 0C. When the entire solid had
dissolved, allow the solution to cool while stirring with the thermometer. Note the
temperature at which crystals of solid W appear. Record this temperature in table I.
ii) Using the burette, add 2cm3 of distilled water to the contents of the boiling
tube. Warm the mixture while stirring with the thermometer until all the solid dissolves.
Allow the mixture to cool while stirring. Note the temperature at which crystals of solid W
appear.
iii) Repeat procedure (ii) two more times and record the temperatures in table I.
Retain the contents of the boiling tube for use in procedure II.
a) i) Complete table I by calculating the solubility of solid W at different

temperatures. (6 marks)

Table I
Volume of water in the boiling Temperature at which Solubility of W

tube (cm3) crystals of solid W appear
(g/100g water)
(0C)
10
12
14
16
ii) On the grid provided, plot a graph of the solubility of solid W against temperature. (3 marks)
iii) Using the graph determine the temperature at which 52 g of solid W would dissolve in
100cm3 of water. (1 mark)

Procedure II
i) Transfer the contents of the boiling tube in procedure I into a 250ml volumetric flask. Rinse
both the boiling tube and the thermometer with distilled water and add it to the volumetric
flask. Add more distilled water to make up to the mark. Transfer the solution into a 250ml
beaker. Label this solution R. Rinse the volumetric flask with distilled water ready for use
in step (ii).
ii) Using a measuring cylinder, place 25cm3 of solution T into a 250ml volumetric flask. Add
about 200cm3 of distilled water and shake well. Add more distilled water to make up to the
mark. Label this solution M.
iii) Fill the burette with solution R. Using a pipette and a pipette filter, place 25cm3 of solution
M into a conical flask. Add 2 – 3 drops of phenolphthalein indicator and titrate with
solution R. Record your results in table II. Repeat the procedure (iii) two more times to
complete the table.
Table 2
Titration 1 2 3
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading (cm3)
Volume of solution R used (cm3)
(4 marks)
Determine:
i) Average volume of solution R used. (1 mark)
ii) Number of moles in 25cm3 of solution T (1 mark)
iii) Concentration of solution M in moles per litre (1 mark)

iv) Moles of alkanoic acid, solution R used (1 mark)
(1 mole of acid reacts with 2 moles of base)
v) Concentration of solution R in moles per litre (1 mark)
vi Relative formula mass of the alkanoic acid, solid T. (2 mark)
2. You are provided with solid K, carry out the tests below and record your observations and
Inferences in the spaces provided
a) Place all the solid K provided into a test tube. Add about 6cm3 of distilled water and shake
thoroughly. Filter and rinse the residue thoroughly with distilled water. Keep the Residue for use
in procedure (c). Divide the filtrate into four portions.
i. To the first portion add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until in excess
Observations Inferences
( ½ mark) (1 mark)
ii. To the second position dip a clean glass rod and hold its tip in the non-luminous Bunsen burner
flame.
(1 mark) (1/2 mark)

iii. To the third portion add two drops of barium nitrate solution
(1 mark) (1 mark)
iv. To the fourth portion add two drops of acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
(1 mark) ( 1 mark)
b. Put the residue in a boiling tube and add about 5 cm3 of dilute nitric (V) acid provided and shake
thoroughly.
( 1 mark) ( 1 mark)
Divide the solution into two equal portions.
i. To the first portion add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until in excess

( 1 mark) (1 mark)
ii. To the second portion add two drops of potassium iodide solution.
( ½ mark) (1/2 mark)
3. You are provided with liquid H in stoppered container. Carry out the tests and record your
observations and inferences.
a) Place about 3 drops of liquid H on a watch glass and ignite using a Bunsen burner flame.
(1 mark) (1 mark)
b) Divide the remaining liquid H into four portions in test tubes.
(i) To the first portion, add about 6cm3 of distilled water and shake well.
( ½ mark) ( ½ mark)
(ii) To the second portion, add the sodium hydrogen carbonate solid provided.

(iii) To the third portion, add two drops acidified potassium manganate (VII) solution.
( 1 mark) ( 1 mark)
iv) To the last portion, add two drops acidified potassium dichromate (VI) solution and warm

CRE PAPER 1 FORM 4
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS: Answer any FIVE questions
1 a) Describe what took place when Mary visited Elizabeth (6mks)
b) State the differences between the work of John the Baptist and that of Jesus Christ. (8mks)
c) Give reasons why Christians dedicate children to God in church today. (6mks)
2. a) With reference to Luke 5:17-26, describe the healing of the paralytic man.(8mks)
b) Give six lessons learnt about Jesus from the cure of the Paralytic man. (6mks)
c) State six reasons why some Christians do not believe in miracles today (6mks)
3. a) Identify six petitions in the Lord’s prayer. (6mks)
b) With reference to Jesus ‘journey to Jerusalem, state four teachings of Jesus about salvation
(7mks)
c) What seven lessons can Christians learn from the parable of the prodigal son? (7mks)
4. a) Explain the gift of the Holy Spirit as taught by Saint Paul. (7mks)
b) Identify Peter’s understanding of the person of Jesus during the Day of Pentecost. (6mks)
c) Outline the causes of disunity in the church today. (7mks)
5. a) State ways in which sex is abused in Kenya (6mks)
b) Explain the Christian teaching on responsible sexual behaviour (8mks)
c) State the ways used by traditional communities to prevent pre-marital sex among the youth.
(6mks)

6. a)Give reasons why Christians pay taxes to the government of Kenya. (7mks)
b) What are the obstacles to effective maintenance of law and order? (7mks)
c) Outline steps the church is taking to reduce lawlessness in Kenya today. (6mks)

CRE PAPER 2 FORM 4
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS: Answer any FIVE questions
1 a) Describe what took place when Mary visited Elizabeth (6mks)
b) State the differences between the work of John the Baptist and that of Jesus Christ. (8mks)
c) Give reasons why Christians dedicate children to God in church today. (6mks)
2. a) With reference to Luke 5:17-26, describe the healing of the paralytic man.(8mks)
b) Give six lessons learnt about Jesus from the cure of the Paralytic man. (6mks)
c) State six reasons why some Christians do not believe in miracles today (6mks)
3. a) Identify six petitions in the Lord’s prayer. (6mks)
b) With reference to Jesus ‘journey to Jerusalem, state four teachings of Jesus about salvation
(7mks)
c) What seven lessons can Christians learn from the parable of the prodigal son? (7mks)
4. a) Explain the gift of the Holy Spirit as taught by Saint Paul. (7mks)
b) Identify Peter’s understanding of the person of Jesus during the Day of Pentecost. (6mks)
c) Outline the causes of disunity in the church today. (7mks)
5. a) State ways in which sex is abused in Kenya (6mks)
b) Explain the Christian teaching on responsible sexual behaviour (8mks)
c) State the ways used by traditional communities to prevent pre-marital sex among the youth.
(6mks)

6. a)Give reasons why Christians pay taxes to the government of Kenya. (7mks)
b) What are the obstacles to effective maintenance of law and order? (7mks)
c) Outline steps the church is taking to reduce lawlessness in Kenya today. (6mks)

ENGLISH PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions to candidates:
a) Write your name, school and admission number in the spaces provided.
b) Sign and write the date of exam in the spaces provided.
c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided.
For Examiner’s Use Only:

S/No. Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 Functional Writing 20
2 Cloze Test 10
3 Oral Skills 30
TOTAL 60
This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.

1.FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20MARKS)
You are the environment club chairperson in your school. You have been invited to give a speech on
how to conserve the environment during the “Environmental Awareness Day” in your sub-county. The
sub-county director of environment, the area chief, students, the club patrons and members from the
community will attend.
In your speech you will address the following issues: deforestation, pollution and waste disposal.
Write the speech that you will deliver. (20 marks
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2.Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with the most appropriate word.
(10 marks)
Curriculum reform in education is a worldwide-practiced phenomenon that is involved in striving for
the (i)........................educational practices, primarily with the demands of the twenty-first-century
knowledge economy. African (ii)........................immediately after
independence had to inherit the colonial education system, which (iii)....................................
discriminative and which demanded realignment to societal and cultural demands of the nation.
Coincidentally, curriculum (iv)............................. in most African nations adopted the content or
knowledge-based approach. Not long, the Knowledge-based curriculum dissatisfied most countries for
its products were too academic, but lacking skills and knowledge (v)..............................the applicability as
required by the demands from the workplace. Kenya and Tanzania adopted a curriculum with the
philosophy of education for self-reliance;(vi) .......................... due to the inadequately trained teachers
and insufficient resources, it ended up being (vii).......................examinable and losing its goal. That
(viii)........................to unemployment, increased vices, and rampant dropouts, among other factors.
Currently, due to technological advancement, most countries have opted (ix).............................a
competency-based curriculum (CBC), which appears as worldwide trends in offering skills that match
with the requirements of companies’ employers. (x).....................question shall be: does the job market
currently determine the curriculum reforms in education?
3. a) Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow: 30 MARKS
The Song of the Engine by Worsely Benison
With a snort and pant the engine dragged
Its heavy train uphill,
And puffed these words the while she puffed
And laboured with a will:
“I think-I can-I think-I can

I’ve- got- to reach- the top.
I’m sure- I can- I will- get there
I sim-ply must-not stop.”
At last, the top was reached and passed,

And then-how changed the song!
The wheels all joined in the engine’s joy,
As quickly she tore along.
“I knew I could do it; I knew I could win,

Oh, rickety, rackety, rack!
And now for a roaring rushing race
On my smooth and shining track!”
i) How has the poet made the above poem rhythmic? (4 marks)
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ii) How would you say the last two lines of the poem? (2 marks)
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b) The underlining indicates the stressed word in the sentences below. Briefly explain what each
sentence means. (3 marks)
I bought a camera for you.
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c) Write another word with a similar pronunciation for each of the ones given below. (4 marks)
(i) Clime................................................................................................
(ii) Packed.............................................................................................
(iii) Blew................................................................................................
(iv) Serial................................................................................................
d) Your friend wishes to visit you over the December holidays but she has never been to your place.
She requests you to give her directions that will enable her reach your home. How would you ensure
that the directions you give enable her to reach her destination? (4 Marks)
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e) Imagine you have been invited to give a speech on the topic “Devastating effects of Covid19.” State
three introductory strategies of your speech. (3 Marks)
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f. Study the genre below and answer the questions that follow.
If Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers, where’s the peck of pickled peppers Peter Piper
picked?
i) Giving a reason, classify the genre. (2 marks)
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ii) Identify the dominant sound pattern used in the above genre. (2 marks)
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iii) State two functions of the genre above. (2marks)

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iv) If the above genre was to be translated to another language, what would be lost? (1 mark)
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g. Indicate whether you would use falling intonation or rising intonation in the sentences below.
(3mks)
i) Did you remember to buy tomatoes? ………………………………………………
ii) Where did you buy these? ………………………………………………………..
iii) Open the window! ………………………………………………………………

NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM……………….:…………….
INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE………………………………
SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE…………………………
101/2
ENGLISH
PAPER 2
(COMPREHENSION, LITERARY APPRECIATION AND GRAMMAR)
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
ENGLISH
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

• Write your name, index number and the name of your school in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer all the questions in this question paper.
• All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
For Examiner’s Use Only:
Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

Comprehension
20
Excerpt
25
Poetry
20
Grammar
15
TOTAL SCORE 80
This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
©KNEC 2024 [Contact 0724333200 for Marking Schemes or Order online at

www.kenyaeducators.co.ke]
Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated.
And that no questions are missing.
Comprehension (20 Marks)
1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Drugs: So what are you curious about?
This, my friend, is about you, and it is about me. It is about every sensible man or woman who has
not gone down the drain. And, believe you me, many have gone down the drain. Who have gone
down the drain, you may wonder, and which drain? Just think for a moment.
Diego Maradona, one of the most talented footballers of all time, turned out in his later years to be a
human wreck, continuously in and out of drug rehabilitation centers. Another famous sportsman who
ended up in disgrace is Canadian sprinter Ben Johnson. He won a gold medal and set a world record
in the 100-metre sprint at the 1988 Olympic Games in Seoul. But it was soon discovered that he had
been using banned drugs. He was stripped of his gold medal, his record was erased from the books
and he was eventually banned from competitive athletics for life.
First star Marilyn Monroe was in her time considered to be the most beautiful woman in
Hollywood. One day she was found dead in her apartment, having taken an overdose of drugs called
barbiturates. Elvis Presley, one of the greatest performers in the history of rock music, died of an
overdose of drugs. In addition, Whitney Houston, an American singer and artist, accidentally
drowned in a bathtub after suspected cocaine abuse in 2012. These are famous people who have gone
down the drain of drug addiction and substance abuse.
Now, of course, we get to hear of these people’s tales of woe because they are famous and high-
profile victims. However, there are millions of us ordinary people who are at risk. We all know of
alcoholic wrecks in our villages and estates or, even sadly, within our own families. We know of
bhang junkies roaming our streets looking like demented ghosts. We may have khat-chewing
neighbors whose jaws are in constant grinding motion, like goats chewing the cud. A recent school
survey revealed that thousands of secondary school students in Kenya are drug addicts! Some time
back, it was discovered that a kiosk owner in an upmarket Nairobi suburb was selling marijuana to
pupils in a primary school next to his kiosk. The problem is right here with us and the first thing we
need to do is to admit that it does exist.
How does this problem start? Why do perfectly intelligent and normal people, many of them
highly educated and specially talented, get themselves into this mess? The reasons can be summed up
in three words. Since they all happen to begin with the letter ‘c’, we shall call them the ‘three Cs’.
These are company, curiosity and coping.

“Oh, come on, be a sport!” This is the commonest bait our so-called friends use to lure us into
drug abuse and substance abuse. It is also called peer pressure. The depraved group may be puffing
away at ‘grass’ cigarettes or knocking back tots of chang’aa behind the school hedge, and they invite
you to join them- for company of course. If you hesitate, they start teasing you, calling you a coward,
a ‘softie’, a spoilsport and all sorts of names. After all, they will tell you, everybody is doing it. If you
eventually give in- mostly because you don’t want to be the odd girl or odd boy out- and take your
first puff at a marijuana fag or down a tot of chang’aa, there will be a tremendous cheer from that
demented crowd of your ‘friends’.
Don’t be deceived. They are not cheering you. They are only congratulating themselves on having
pulled down to their level one more pretentious, self-righteous little snob who thought he or she was
an angel. No one is going to pay any more attention to you once you’re down there, groveling in
substance abuse. The rest is your shauri. So, next time anyone tries to tell you that you should indulge
in drug, tobacco or alcohol consumption because ‘everyone is doing it’ , tell them that you will not do
it, for the very good reason that you are not everybody. You are you, and you want your mind, your
life and your future to remain clean.
Nor should you succumb to curiosity. A lot of young people fall into the drug and substance
abuse trap simply because they want to find out what it feels like to be ‘high’ on these things. They
use the impressive sounding euphemism, ‘experience’. The truth of the matter is that being drunk or
being intoxicated with drugs is not a worthwhile experience. We have all seen drunks and we know
how disgustingly they behave. Why should anyone want to go staggering along the streets,
slobbering, vomiting or even peeing on themselves, among a host of other silly kinds of behavior, in
the name of experience?
How many people have, in a state of drunkenness, done things or got themselves into situations
which they have lived to regret for the rest of their lives? Some people have committed murder,
others have maimed themselves in road accidents while others have found themselves pregnant or
infected with HIV after engaging in drunken orgies. These surely are not experiences to be
particularly curious about!
The worst part of this ‘experience’ of drug consumption is that it is addictive. Once you start the
habit, it becomes more difficult to abandon. Addicts become so dependent on these substances that
they will do anything in order to get hold of them to satisfy their craving. Many young people drift
into crime in order to get money to buy heroin or cocaine. Some even take to prostitution. A drug or
alcohol addict simply must have his or her ‘fix’.
The saddest group of addicts comprises those who start on these poisons in the false belief that
the drugs will help them to cope with life. There are people who are naturally shy. Others are in
competitive sport. Yet others are performers in fields such as drama and music. Such people are
sometimes deceived into believing that consuming substances like alcohol or the so-called

‘performance-enhancing drugs’ will make them ‘brave’ and strong. Indeed, some drugs boost
physical power, as in the case of Ben Johnson. That is cheating and sports authorities crack down
very hard on such behavior. As for musicians and other performers, drugs are no good at all. Artistic
performance requires control and discipline. Since drugs invariably weaken a person’s power of
judgment, a drugged artist’s performance can hardly be expected to be satisfactory.
Moreover, all these substances are poisonous. They harm and ruin the bodies and minds of those
who use them. The damage may not be immediately noticeable but drugs users invariably end up as
human wrecks. The more the performers take to drugs, the sadder their world becomes, littered with
ruined talents, broken relationships and, at times, suicide.
Those of us who are not hooked on drugs should struggle to remain clean. For those who are may
have started consuming those dangerous substances, the time to stop is NOW!
Questions
1. What does ‘to go down the drain’ mean? ( 1 Mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Why do we get to hear of the drug problems of people like Diego Maradona, Ben Johnson and
Elvis Presley? ( 1Mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Name three substances easily abused by ordinary people. ( 3 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Why are addicts happy when a new person joins them? ( 1 Mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. What can one do to avoid getting influenced by friends to take drugs? ( 2 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Which embarrassing behaviors results from drug abuse? ( 2Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. Why is addiction said to be the worst ‘experience’ of drug consumption? ( 2Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. What three situations in life can make people turn to drugs for solutions? ( 3 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. Which of the three attractions – company, curiosity and coping- do you think affects the youth
most? Why? ( 2 Mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
10. ‘Nor should you succumb to curiosity.’ Rewrite beginning: You …. (Do not change the meaning.)
( 1Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. ( 2 Mks)
(i) Pretentious…………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Depraved……………………………………………………………………………………
2. Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow. ( 25 Mks) Fathers Of Nations
"Believe me, officer," he told the youth. "Without this medicine, I couldn't live a day."
"Is that right?" The youth yawned, making even more obvious his indifference to what he had just heard.
"I wouldn't know, sir," he added, meaning he could not be any less interested, his interest being zero already.
Then, suddenly, he snapped to alert. He had remembered something. "Hey! You could hurt other people
with that."
"With this needle?"

"Yes, with that needle."
"And what would I use for my next shot?" "Just as I thought. What next shot?" "Officer, let me ask you
something. How old do you think I am? seventy?" "Yes, plus or minus five."
"That's correct. Now, out of every one hundred people in that age range, thirty of us are diabetic. We are
unable to regulate the sugar level in our blood, and that kills most of us. This medicine is what keeps
those of us who survive alive." He brandished his cellophane pouch again. "We
shoot it into our veins with needles like that one."

"That may be so, sir. But you cannot take that stuff in. Leave it here with me." "I'll do no such thing if I have
to wait here until the cows come home."
"What cows? Sir, you are holding up the line." "This needle is my life, officer."
QUESTIONS
a) Place the excerpt in its immediate 4 marks
b) Discuss three major issues in this excerpt 6 marks
c) Discuss two-character traits of Comrade Melusi in this excerpt. (4 marks)
d) "I wouldn't know, sir." Add a question tag. (1 mark)

e) Discuss any three aspects of style in this excerpt. (6 marks)
f) Explain the meaning of the following expressions from the excerpt. (4 marks)
i)Yearned –
ii) Brandished-
iii) Holding up –
iv) difference –
3. Oral literature
Read the oral piece below and answer the questions that follow. (20 Mks)
Blood iron and trumpets

Forward we march
(Others fall on the way)
We shall hack kill and cure
Singers of the datsun blue

Forward we drove breaking the records
Let bullets find their targets and the earth be softened
Let the dogs of war rejoice
And the carrion birds feed
We are reducing population explosion
Blood iron and trumpet
The uniformed machines are around
Put on your helmet iron and rest
Only through fire can be baptized to mean business
So once again
We shall always march along
Blood alone
Questions
1. With reasons, classify the above oral piece. ( 2 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Identify the functions of the above oral piece. ( 2 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Identify and illustrate two features of oral poetry evident in the above oral item. ( 4 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Briefly explain any two issues that the above oral poem is talking about. ( 4 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. Identify one social and one economic activity of the community from which the oral poem is
taken. ( 2 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Who would be the most suitable audience for the oral poem? Give reasons for your answer.
( 2 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. “The uniformed machines are around” Give the meaning of this statement. (2 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
8. What is the mood of the poem? (2 Mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. GRAMMAR ( 15 MKS)
1. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Do not change
the meaning. (3 Mks)
(i) We would have not succeeded if James had not helped us.
(Begin: Were…………….)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) You should not leave your house unlocked at any time. (Begin: …………….)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) If we had more time, we would have stayed there. (Begin: Had………………...)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Fill in the blanks with the correct preposition. ( 3 Mks)
(i) Jane has a special liking ………………………………..Mathematics.

(ii) Her performance was amazing………………………………………any standards.
(iii) Since he no longer runs the business, he has been reduced ……………………begging.
3. Use the words in brackets to complete the following sentences with the most appropriate
phrasal verb. ( 3 Mks)
(i) The new students could not ………………………………………………their way to the

dormitory. ( make)

(ii) The man agreed to………………………………………the role of the manager. (take)
(iii) It is not easy to ………………………………………..a debt of more than one thousand

shillings. ( write)
4. Fill in the blank spaces with the correct forms of the words given in brackets. ( 4 Mks)
(i) She may consider helping the orphan on ………………………………………………

(human) grounds.
(ii) Ndeko still wants more food even after clearing a whole plateful of Ugali. His appetite is
simply …………………………………………………..( satisfy)
(iii) His ……………………………………………………..(mediocre) can only be compared

to that of his great grandfather.
(iv) After the inferno, the Roche’s had to buy new ……………………………………….
(furnish) for their house.
5. Appropriately punctuate the following sentences to indicate parenthesis. ( 2 Mks)
(i) When we meet next and I am not sure when a lot of things will have changed.
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Any information you have including minor details should be submitted to the office.
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

SUCCESS IN YOUR EXAM!!!

NAME…………………………………………….………..INDEX NO………….…...................
SCHOOL………………………………………………..CANDIDATES SIGN…………...........
CLASS………………………………………………… DATE…………………....................
ENGLISH
101/3
PAPER 3
(Creative composition and essays based on set texts)
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
English paper 3
(Creative composition and essays based on set texts)
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the space provided.
3. Answer three questions only
4. Questions 1 and 2 are compulsory
5. In question 3 choose only one of the optional set texts you have prepared on.
6. Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional set text, only the first one to
appear will be marked.
7. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words
8. All your answers must be written on the answer sheet provided.
9. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated
and no questions are missing.
10. Candidates must answer the questions in English.
For examiners use only.

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total 60
©KNEC 2024 [Contact 0724333200 for Marking Schemes or Order online

at www.kenyaeducators.co.ke]
1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION (COMPULSORY)
Either
a) Write a story ending with the following words. (20 Marks)

...................... when I look back at the events of that day, I thank God that I am still alive
Or
b) Write a composition to illustrate the saying

“Honesty is the best policy.” (20 Marks)
2. Compulsory Set Text (20marks)
The Samaritan
"Betrayal pervades every level of the society." Basing your illustrations on play, The
Samaritan, by John Lara, write a composition to show the truth of this assertion.
3. OPTIONAL SET TEXTS.

Either;
a) A silent song and other stories, (20 marks)
People with admirable traits stand out. Basing your illustrations on Vrenika Pather’S
Ninema,write an essay to validate this assertion.
Or
b) Parliament of Owls (20 marks)
Discuss how Adipo Sidang' has addressed oppression in the "parliament of Owls."
Or
c) An artist of the floating world by Ishiguru.20marks.

Discuss the use of Noriko’s marriage negotiation as a means to drive this novel’s plot forward
while revealing Ono’s past.
©KNEC 2024 [Contact 0724333200 for Marking Schemes or Order online

at www.kenyaeducators.co.ke]
GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B
(c) Answer all the questions in section A
(d) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
(e) All answers must be written in the spaces provided after Question 10.
(f) This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
(g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
SECTION A
Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. (a) What is a weather station? (2 marks)
(b) Give three factors that influence wind direction. (3 marks)
2. (a) Name two types of tectonic plate boundaries. (2 marks)

(b) Give three effects of the movement of tectonic plates. (3 marks)
3. State four causes of the decline of the areas under forests in Kenya. (4 marks)
4. The diagram below shows a section of a river. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
(a) Identify the stage of development of the section of the river. (1 mark)
(b) A part from feature marked R, give two other features formed at this stage. (2 marks)
(c) State three conditions necessary for the formation of the feature marked R. (3 marks)
5. (a) Differentiate between an aquifer and a water table. (2 marks)
(b) Give three problems associated with artesian wells. (3 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section
6. Study the map of Nyeri 1:50,000 (sheet 120/4) provided and answer the following questions.
(a) (i) Give the longitudinal extent of the area covered by the map. (2 marks)
(ii) Give the six figure grid reference of the trigonometric station at Nyeri Hill forest. (2 marks)
(iii) Calculate the area of Nyeri forest. Give your answer in square kilometres. (2 marks)

(b) (i) What is the bearing of The Ark Lodge from the trigonometric station 120 UT 16. (2 marks)
(ii) Identify three man-made features in grid square 7263. (3 marks)
(iii) Give three drainage features found in the area covered by the map. (3 marks)
(c) Describe the relief of the area covered by the map. (5 marks)
(d) Citing evidence from the map, identify three social services offered in Nyeri Township.
(6 marks)
7. (a) (i) What is a mineral? (2 marks)
(ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals:
• Lustre (2 marks)
• Colour (2 marks)
• Cleavage (2 marks)
(b) Describe three ways in which igneous rocks are formed. (9 marks)
(c) Explain four significance of rocks to the economy of Kenya. (8 marks)
8. (a) (i) State three causes of faulting. (3 marks)
(ii) Differentiate between a normal fault and a reverse fault. (4 marks)
(b) (i) A part from rift valley, give three other relief features formed due to faulting. (3 marks)
(ii) With the aid of diagrams, describe how compressional forces can lead to formation of a rift
valley. (8 marks)
(c) Students from your class are planning to carry out a field study on an area affected by faulting.
(i) State four reasons why it is important to have a pre-visit to the area. (4 marks)
(ii) Give three reasons why it would be inappropriate to use observation to collect data during the
field study. (3 marks)
9. (a) (i) What are ocean tides? (2 marks)
(ii) Name two ocean currents along the western coast of Africa. (2 marks)
(b) State three factors that determine the rate of coastal erosion. (3 marks)
(c) With the aid of labeled diagrams, describe the formation of the following coastal features:
(i) Fringing reef (5 marks)
(ii) Spit (5 marks)
(d) Explain the significance of oceans to human activities. (8 marks)
10. (a) Name three components of soil. (3 marks)
(b) Explain how the following factors influence the formation of soil:
(i) Climate (4 marks)
(ii) Topography (4 marks)
(c) Describe how laterization occurs. (6 marks)
(d) Explain four ways in which human activities contribute to soil erosion. (8 marks)

GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 FORM 4
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
• This paper consists of two sections: A and B
• Answer all the questions in section A
• Answer question 6 and any two questions from section B
• All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided
SECTION A 25 MARKS
1.a) Name three tourist attractions found in the Rift Valley of Kenya. (3marks)
b. Give any two measures the Kenyan government has taken to attract more tourists. (2marks)
2. a) Define the term agroforestry. (2 marks)

b) State three reasons why agroforestry is being encouraged in Kenya. (3 marks)
3. a) State two characteristics of market gardening. (2 marks)
b) Give two reasons why horticulture is more developed in Netherlands than in Kenya. (2 marks)
c) Cite two advantages of growing horticultural crops in green houses. (2 marks)
4. a) What is energy crisis? (2 marks)
b) State any three effects of energy crisis in Kenya in the recent past. (3 marks)
5. a) State two reasons why some industries are located near the sources of raw materials. (2 marks)
b) State two reasons why the new county government system should encourage the Jua Kali industries
in their regions. (2 marks)

SECTION B
6. The table below shows three main crops produced in Kenya in the years 2008 – 2010(amounts
in metric tonnes). Use it to answer questions below.
Crop 2008 2009 2010
Maize 200,000 380,000 400,000
Wheat 100,000 130,000 150,000
Tea 250,000 300,000 350,000
a) i) Using a scale of 1cm represent 50,000 metric tonnes, draw a comparative bar graph to
represent the data above. (8mks)
ii) State two advantages of using comparative bar graph. (2mks)
b) i) Name two countries in Kenya where wheat is grown in large scale. (2mks)
ii) State three conditions that favour wheat farming in Kenya. (3mks)
c) State four benefits of wheat growing in Kenya. (4mks)
d) Explain three factors that make Canada produce more wheat than Kenya. (6mks)
7.(a) (i) Name three types of minerals. (3 marks)
(ii) State three ways in which minerals occur. (3 marks)
(b) (i) Describe shaft mining method. (5 marks)
(ii) Outline three challenges faced by shaft miners. (3 marks)
(c) Explain four problems facing the mining industry in Kenya. (8 marks)

(d) Highlight three ways in which mining derelicts can be reclaimed. (3 marks)
8. .(a) Name four major fishing grounds in the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. (4mks)
(b) State five main factors favouring these fishing grounds. (5mks)
(c) Name three types of fishing and for each one, state one method of fishing used. (6mks)
(d) (i) Give four reasons why the marine fishing industry in East Africa is not well developed. (4mks)
(ii) State six ways in which the fishing industry is of significance in Kenya. (6mks)
9. (a) Apart from Mwea, name five large irrigation schemes in Kenya. (5mks)
(b) Explain four conditions that made Mwea a suitable location for irrigation scheme. (8mks)
(c) Explain three benefits to farmers in the Pekerra irrigation scheme. (6mks)
(d) Explain three problems experienced by farmers in the Perkera irrigation scheme. (6mks)
10. (a) Name two breeds of dairy cattle reared in Kenya. (2mks)
(b) State four factors that favour dairy farming in Denmark (4mks)
(c) State five problems faced by dairy farmers in Kenya. (5mks)
(d) Explain six factors that favour beef farming in Argentina. (6mks)
(e) Explain four ways in which the government of Kenya could assist nomadic pastoralists to
improve the quality of their livestock. (8mks)

HISTORY & GOVERNMENT PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions to the candidate
• This paper consists of three sections A, B and C
• Answer all questions in section A ,three in section B and two in section C.
• This paper consists of eight printed pages. The candidate should check the question paper
to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
• The candidate should answer all the questions in English
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions from this section
1. Name two pre-historic sites in Kenya. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
2. State the first settlement area of the Luo during their migration from Sudan. (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
3. Identify the main economic activity of the Cushite’s during the pre-colonial period.
(1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
4. Identify one age- grade for elders among the Akamba. (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

5. Give two evidences which show that Chinese traders reached the Kenyan coast before
1500 A.D (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
6. Identify the town that was established by missionaries in Kenya as a centre for freed
slaves during the 19th century. (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
7. Name the document which contains the rights of the child in Kenya. (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
8. Name the type of constitution used in Kenya. (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
9. Name two houses of parliament that were provided for in the independence constitution
of Kenya. (2marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
10. State two reasons why the British used imperial British East African Company to
administer Kenya up to 1895. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
11. Identify two terms of Anglo-German Treaty of 1886. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

12. Give the main reason why British were able to conquer Kenya during the 19th C.
(1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
13. Give two reasons why Nabongo Mumia collaborated with the British. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
14. Identify two methods used by the British to administer Kenya colony between 1920 and
1963. (2mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
15. State two reasons for the construction of Uganda Railway. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
16. Identify one problem which independent schools faced during the colonial period. (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
17. What was the main contribution of Thomas Joseph Mboya to the History of Kenya? (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer all the questions form this section
18. a) Name three Bantu communities that settled at Mt. Elgon area. (3 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

b) Explain six results of the migration and settlement of the plain Nilotes in Kenya.
(12 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
19. a) Give three reasons why Africans migrated to urban centres during the colonial period.
(3 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
b) Explain six ways through which the colonial government promoted settler farming in
Kenya. (12 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
20. a) State five objectives of the Kikuyu Central Association(KCA) (5 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
b) Explain five ways in which trade Union movement contributed to the struggle for
independence in Kenya. (10 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
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21. a) State five causes of the Nandi Resistance against the British invasion. (5 marks)
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b) Explain five effects of the Maasai collaboration with the British in the early 20th C.
(10 marks)
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SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.
22. a) Identify three situations that may lead to a by-election in Kenya. (3 marks)
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b) Describe the stages through which a bill passes before it becomes law in Kenya.
(12 marks)
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23. a) State five functions of the Attorney General in Kenya. (5 marks)
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b) Explain five challenges facing the National Police Service in their work. (10 marks)
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24. a) Name three superior courts in Kenya. (3 marks)
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b) Explain six ways in which the independence of the judiciary in Kenya is guaranteed.
(12 marks)
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-------- this is the last printed page -------

HISTORY & GOVERNMENT PAPER 2 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS
a. This paper consists of three sections.
b. Answer all the questions in section A, three questions in section B and two questions
in section C.
c. Answers must be written in English.
SECTION A(25 MARKS)

1. Give the meaning of social History. (1mk)
2. Identify two archaeological sources of information on History and government.

(2mks)
3. Give two characteristics of Homo erectus. (2mks)
4. Give one reason why early man moved from the forests to settle in the grass lands.
(1mk)

5. List two negative effects of land enclosure system in Britain during the 18th Century.
(2mks)
6. Identify two methods of trade. (2mks)
7. Identify the main item of trade from West Africa during the Trans-Saharan trade.
(1mk)
8. Give the main use of steam power during the industrial revolution in Europe.
(1mk)
9. Name one reason that led to the decline of Meroe as an early urban centre.
(1mk)
10. Name the main factor that unified the communities of the shona kingdom during the pre-
colonial period. (1mk)
11. State two ways through which the Europeans maintained peace among themselves during
the partition of Africa. (2mks)
12. Name one treaty signed between Lobengula and the British during the process of
colonization of Africa. (1mk)
13. State two objectives of the African National congress in South Africa. (2mks)

14. Name two nations which were members of the Tripple Entente during the first world war.
(2mks)
15. What is “Veto power” as used by the United Nations? (1mk)
16. Identify two Africa leaders who attended the 5th Pan African congress in 1945.
(2mks)
17. Name one English speaking member countries of the Economic community of West
Africa states (ECOWAS) (1mk)
SECTION B: 45 MARKS
Answer any three questions from this section in the space provided.
18. (a) State three disadvantages of hunting as an economic activity of the early man.
(3mks)
(b) Explain six benefits of man’s settlements in villages during the late stone Age.
(12mks)

19. (a) Give three forms of print media used in communication. (3mks)
(b) explain six ways in which the invention of railway promoted industrialization in Europe.
(12mks)
20. (a) Name the effects of scientific inventions on Medicine. (3mks)
(b) Explain six problems which South Africa has faced in the process of industrialization.
(12 mks)

21. Identify three roles which were played by Kwame Nkurumah during the struggle for
independence in Ghana. (3mks)
(b) Explain six factors that favored the success of FRELIMO nationalists in their quest for
independence in Mozambique. (12 mks)
SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

22. (a) Identify three similarities between the French and British structure of administration
in Africa during the colonial period. (3mks)
(b) Explain six problems which were faced by the nationalists in South Africa during the
apartheid rule. (12mks)

23. (a) Identify three reasons why the United States of America did not join the first war
until 1917. (3mks)
(b) Explain six impact of the first world war. (12mks)
24. (a) Name five major organs of the united Nations. (5mks)
(b) Explain five causes of the cold war after 1945. (10mks)

KISWAHILI PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Maagizo
a. Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi
ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b. Tia sahihi yako kisha andika tarehe.
c. Andika Insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
d. Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
e. Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
f. Kila insha ina alama 20.
g. Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee.
Swali Upeo Alama

1 20
20
Jumla 40

1. Wewe ndiye Chifu wa eneo la Kazamoyo. Katika eneo hili kumekuwa na
kudorora kwa amani kwa muda. Waandikie Wanakazamoyo MEMO
ukiwaarifu kuhusu umuhimu wa kudumisha amani.
2. “Tamasha za muziki zina umuhimu kwa wanafunzi” Jadili.
3. Andika Insha itakayodhihirisha maana ya methali:

Mti mkuu ukigwa wana wa nyuni huyumba.
4. Andika kisa kitakachomalizikia kwa maneno yafuatayo:

…sikuyaamini maneno aliyoyasema. Maneno yake yalinipenya moyoni
kama mshale. Machozi yakaanza kunilengalenga.Wingu kubwa la simanzi
likanigumbika.Nilizirai kwa muda.

KISWAHILI PAPER 2 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
1.SEHEMU YA A UFAHAMU (15)
Soma ufahamu huu kisha uyajibu maswali yanayofuata:
Basi huu ni mwanzo tu Mwanzo wa ngoma ni lele.Huu ni mwanzo wa safari ndefu .Itachukua
miaka na mikaka.Lakini msiwe na papara.Sharti mwanzo tutanabahi twaelekea wapi ndipo
tuamue tutasafirije .Tahadhari na hatari ya hasira , visasi na papara pamoja na maradhi
yanayozidi yote yaani maradhi ya matumaini yanayozidi uhalisia.Matumaini yaliopindukia ndiyo
huwalewesha watu wakadhani watapata afueni wakizifuata pepo za siasa za chama kimoja au
siasa za vyama vingi , mfumo wa soko huria au mfumo wa ukiritimba , mfumo wa utandawazi
au mfumo wa kibepari , utawala wa kidekteta au utawala wa kidemokrasia na udini, ujamaa na
ukomonisti na kadhalika.
Hatari kabisa ni ya kujenga nyumba ya karata.Nasema tena,tahadhari na ulevi wa ushindi .Mimi
nashauri hivi ;hatua ya kwanza ya elimu si elimu ya shahada au stashahada zipatikanazo
vyuoni.Elimu ya kuijielewa sisi ni nani twatoka wapi , twaelekea wapi na tutaurejeshaje utu
pahali pake mahsusi toka kule mwituni kwa wanyama uliotokomea.
“Amani awe mtemi !”Umati ukadai Hapana hata kidogo.Badala yake acha amani iwe na mtemi
mpya msinivishe joho ambalo si makamo yangu kulivaa,” aliwaambia .”Kaeni mfikirie vyema
juu ya mustakabali wenu.Nilichodhamiria mimi ni kushirikiana na ndugu yangu Madhubuti
kumnyonyoa kipungu mmoja , ila sikutaka niingie pahala pake niruke juu nikijihadaa kwamba
nitafika mbinguni.”
Ila msikubali dhuluma .Dhuluma msikubali , ikija dhuluma tena msimlaumu mtu mwingine,
jilaumini wenyewe.Jilaumini tu wenyewe .Nawakumbusha tu kwamba kuwepo mamlakani kwa
mtemi Hamisi muda huu wote si kosa lake tu .Alisema Amani.Ni kosa letu sote .Ni kosa letu sote
kwa kukubali dhuluma zake na udahlili wetu.Kwa kila mtawala katili kuna umma uliomruhusu
ama kumpa uwezo wa kutekeleza ukatili wake.
Pia hatuwezi kuwa binadamu kamili endapo hatuoni walemavu kama wenzetu .Tutakuwa
tumelemaa ulemavu mbaya zaidi kuliko ulemavu.Kauli hii ilkuwa tokeo la funzo alilojifunza
Mwalimu Fasiri kutokana na amali na kalima za imani kuwaelekea Watoto wake walemavu.
Maswali
a)Kulingana na mwandishi ni mambo gani ambayo yafaa tujitahadharishe nayo? (alama 3)
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b)Tambua aina za elimu katika maisha .(alama3)
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c)Kulingana na taarifa ni mambo gani yanayochochea dhuluma katika jamii? (alama 4)
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d)Ukirejelea kifungu hiki, eleza maana ya ngoma ni lele. (alama 2)
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e)Binadamu kamili ana sifa gani? (alama 1)
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f)Eleza maana ya vifungu hivi kama vilivyotumika katika kifungu;
i)nikijihadaa nitafika mbinguni (alama 1)
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ii)Kumnyonyoa kipungu(alama 1)
2. SEHEMU YA B. UFUPISHO (alama 15)

Soma kifungu kisha ujibu maswali
Ripoti za kila mara kuhusu uharibifu wa pesa za umma katika serikali za kaunti ni za kusikitisha
.Kuna mabilioni ya pesa za mlipa ushuru ambazo hufujwa katika serikali kuu na hivyo basi
wananchi wanakosewa sana wanapoona mtindo huu ukiendelea pia katika serikali za kaunti.
Wakati katiba ilipitishwa mwaka wa 2010, Wakenya wengi walikuwa na matumaini mno
kwamba ugatuzi ungewatatulia matatizo ambayo walikuwa wakiyapitia katika tawala
zilizotangulia hasa katika maeneo yaliotengwa kimaendeleo.
Miaka Ishirini na mbili baadaye, kuna mafanikio yamepatikana ila hatua kubwa Zaidi inaweza
kupigwa katika kuboresha Maisha ya raia kama mianya ianyotumiwa kufuja pesa za raia
itazibwa. Wizi huu unajumuisha pia jinsi magavana wanavyobuni nafasi za kazi zisizo na maana
ambazo wakati mwingine hutoewa kwa jamaa na marafiki wao , ni sharti ukomeshwe mara
moja.
Kuna wananchi wengi ambao tayari wameanza kufa moyo kuhusu umuhimu wa ugatuzi ilhali
ukwel ni kwamba hatungependa kurejelea utawala ulio chini ya serikali kuu pekee.Changamoto
za ugatuzi zinazosababishwa na ulafi wa viongozi wachache zinatoa nafasi kwa wakosoaji wa
mfumo wa uongozi kushawishi wananchi n ahata wahisani wasishughulike kuchangia katika
maendeleo ya kaunti zao.
Juhudi zozote zile za maendeleo haziwezi kufanikishwa bila ushirikiano kutoka kwa wananchi na
wahisani na hivyo basi ni jukumu la viongozi kuonyesha nia ya kutumia mamlaka walizopewa
kwa manufaa ya raia. Tume ya maaddili ya kupambana na ufisadi (EACC) kufikia sasa
imeonekana kufanya kazi nzuri kwa kuwasaka na kuwashtaki magavana walio mamlakani na
wengine walioondoka kwa kushukiwa kufuja mali za umma.Tungependa asasi zote zinazohusika
na msuala ya kupambana na uhalifu , Pamoja na wadu wengine katika jamii wenye nia njema
kwa wananchi wasitambue mambo maovu yanayotendeka katika kaunti zao.

Nchi hii inatawala kwa misingi ya kisheria na hivyo basi hakuna sababu kumhurumia kiongozi
yeyote anayekiuka sheria anapokuwa mamlakani kwa msingi wa mamlaka anayoyashikilia .Ni
kupitia adhabu kali za kisheria pekee ambapo tutafanikiwa kukomesha uongozi mbaya kwani
kama wananchi watakuwa wakisubiri kuwaadhibu wahusika kwa kuwaondoa mamlakani pekee
watakuwa wametoa nafasi ya ufujaji kwa viongozi wapya kila miaka mitano.
a) Fupisha ujumbe wa aya tatu za kwanza kwa maneno 80. (Alama 8, alama 1 ya mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Nakala safi
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b)Fupisha aya mbili za mwisho kwa maneno 70.(alama 7, 1 ya mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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3.SEHEMU YA C: SARUFI NA MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (alama40)

a)
i)Andika vigezo muhimu vya kuainisha konsonanti(alama 2)
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ii)Tofautisha sauti zifuatazo /sh/ na /ch/ (alama 1)
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b)Tumia kiimbo katika sentensi mbili tofauti sahii kudhihirisha uamilifu wake.(al.2)
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c)Eleza maana za maneno yafuatayo kwa kuzingatia mahali ambapo shadda imewekwa (alama
2)
‘ala………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Fafanua dhana ya sauti mwambatano kwa kutolea mfano sahihi.(alama 2)
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e)Bainisha majukumu ya viambishi katika kitenzi hiki(alama 2)
Nimemkimbilia
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f)Weka nomino hizi katika ngeli mwafaka
i)debe………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………(alama1)
ii)Mtaimbo……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….(alama 1)
g)Yakinisha
Mgonjwa yule hasikii wala kusema lolote.(alama2)
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h)Andika kwa ukubwa (alama2)
Panya huyo alinaswa mtegoni na nyama kubwa mdomoni.
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i)Geuza kauli iliyo kwenye mabano

i)Wanyama pori huwavutia watalii(tendwa)(alama1)

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j)Andika katika usemi halisi(alama3)
Mama alitaka kujua kama kulikuwa na jamaa yake ambaye alikuwa ameugua ugonjwa huo.
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k)Tumia kiwakilishi cha pekee chenye kuleta dhana ya msisitizo katika sentensi sahihi( alama2)
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l)Changanua kwa njia ya mstari(alama 4)
Waswahili husema chema chajiuza ,kibaya chajitembeza.
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m)Andika sentensi upya kulingana na maagizo(alama2)

Ongezeko la visa vya uhalifu linatishia kuangamiza amani katika miaka ya hivi karibuni.
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n)Tunga sentensi moja kwa kutumia kirai kihusishi kisha uigie mstari( alama 2)
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o)Bainisha vishazi
Tangu alipowasili kutoka Nairobi amewasaidia maskini wengi.( alama 2)
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p)Eleza matumizi mawili ya alama ya mkato( alama2)
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q)Onyesha shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo(alama 3)
Wanawali walirembeshwa nyusi kwa wanja mweusi.
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r)Kamilisha methali ifuatayo (alama 1)
Mchama ago hanyeli…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4.ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

a)Taja mambo matatu yanayopelekea kufa kwa lugha (alama 3)
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b)Isimujamii ina umuhimu gani kwa wanafunzi wa Shule ya Upili ? (alama 4)
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c)Andika sifa tatu utakayotumia kuwatangazia watu kuhusu kinyang’anyiro cha soka. (alama3)
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MWISHO

JINA.................................................................................................................NAMABARI.............................
SHULE............................................................................................................TAREHE...................................
DARASA.....................................................................................................SAHIHI.........................................
102/3
KISWAHILI
MUDA: SAA 2½
KARATASI YA TATU (FASIHI)

Hati ya kihitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya (K.C.S.E)
KIDATO CHA NNE
MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu
b) Jibu maswali manne pekee
c) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
d) Maswali hayo mengine yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobakia yaani : Riwaya, hadithi fupi,ushairi
na fasihi simulizi
e) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja
f) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
g) Majibu yote sharti yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
USHAIRI 20
TAMTHILIA 20
RIWAYA 20
HADITHI FUPI 20
FASIHI SIMULIZI 20
JUMLA

SEHEMU YA A: SWALI LA LAZIMA
RIWAYA YA NGUU ZA JADI
1. Eleza jinsi mwandishi wa riwaya ya nguu za jadi ameangazia asasi ya ndoa.(al.20)
SEHEMU YA B: TAMTHILIA YA BEMBEA YA MAISHA (TIMOTHY M. AREGE)
JIBU SWALI LA 2 AU 3
2.''Mwache mtoto apumzike.Hivi atayashika mangapi?''
(a)Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

(b)Fafanua toni ya dondoo hili. (alama 3)
(c) Eleza sifa za mnenewa. (alama7)
(d) Mnenaji ana umuhimu upikatika tamthilia? (alama 6)
Au
3.Tamthilia ya Bembea ya maisha inaashiria mabadiliko mengi maishani.Jadili jinsi mabadiliko haya
yanavyojitokeza. (alama20)
SEHEMU YA C: HADITHI FUPI.

MAPAMBAZUKO YA MACHWEO NA HADITHI NYINGINE.
Jibu swali la 4 au 5
4.Nilisikia kama maruweruwe,''Mamangu eeh!Mama eeh!''....
(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo. (alama 4)

(b) Pambanua mbinu mbili za lugha zinazojitokeza katika dondoo. (alama 4)
(c) Fafanua matukio yaliyomfanya mnenaji kuyanena maneno yale. (alama 6)
(d) Jadili sifa za mnenaji wa maneno haya. (alama 6)
Au
5.Eleza matatizo yanayomkumba mtoto msichana kwa mujibu wa hadithi zifuatazo:

a) Sabina
b) pupa
c) kifo cha suluhu
d) Ahadi ni deni
SEHEMU YA D: USHAIRI

Jibu swali la 6 au 7
6.Soma shairi hili kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata:
Jukwani naingia, huku hapa pasokota,

Kwa uchungu ninalia, hii tumbo nitaikata,
Msiba mejiletea, nimekila kiso takata,
We tumbo nitakupani, uwe umetosheka?
Wazee hata vijana,wote umewasubua,

Huruma nao hauna, heshima kawakosea,
Ukambani na Sagana, hata mbwa wararua,
Wahasibu ofisini,kibwebwe mejifunga,

Miaka mingi vitabuni, ili wasikose unga,
Nadhari wanadhamini, hesabu wanazirenga,
Wapenzi wa kiholela, pia wanakuogopa,

Baada yao kulala, wana wao wanatupa,
Wakihitaji chakula, wanachokora mapipa,
Wafugaji hata nao, kama dawa wakwamini,

Hawajali jiranio, wamesusia amani,
Wanaiba ng'ombe wao, na kuzua kisirani,
Nayo mizozo ya maji, kaonekana kwa mara,

Hiyo nayo ni dibaji, sababu sio harara,
Njaa wahepe wenyeji, huo ndio mkarara,
Ningeweza kukuuza, ingekuwa siku njema,

Tena kwa bei ya meza, sokoni nimesimama,
Wala tena singewaza, kuhusu wali na sima,
Hatima umefikika, naenda zangu nikale,

Mate yanidondoka, kwa mnukio wa wale,
Naomba kwenda kukaa, wala sio nikalale,

Maswali
(i) Lipe anwani mwafaka shairi hili. (alama 2)
(ii) Shairi hili ni la aina gani? Toa sababu. (alama 2)
(iii) Huku ukitolea mifano mwafaka, taja arudhi zilizotumiwa katika ubeti wa tatu. (alama 4)
(iv) Andika ubeti wa nne kwa lugha nathari. (alama 4)
(v) Thibitisha kuwepo kwa idhini ya ushairi. (alama 2)
(vi) Taja madhila anayoelezea mtunzi wa shairi hili yaletwayo na tumbo. (alama 4)
(vi) Elezea maana ya maneno yafuatayo. (alama 2)
(a) Dibaji
(b) Harara
AU
7.Soma shairi hili kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.
Nimechoka
Nilivyofikisha hapa, na juu kupandishwa
Na kwa hila gani, au, zilipofungwa
Ncha za waya hii ngumu ya maisha, sijui.
Wanadamu wameinama.Wanasali kwa haraka sasa.

Utafikiri wanahesabu mchanga utakaojaza kaburi langu.
Vichwa vyeupe vinacheka.Kingine kinasema tena:
“Mnaliona Hilo! Joga !” Vichwa vinachela.Wanasali.
“Nyinyi nyote hamna akili!Mnaniudhi!
Hamwoni hali yangu!” Napiga kelele.Lakini vichwa
Havitishi,na wanadamu hawatingishiki.
Sauti ya baba inasema kwa msisitizo

“Najua utafika wakati itakulazimu kudondoka.
“Lakini unazo nguvu bado,na usikate tamaa,
Ila usitegemee kusifiwa au kusaidiwa;
Vichwa vyote hivi vilidondoka kutoka umbali huo,
Nawe kudondoka,utadondoka!
Ninaendelea kuning’inia.Nimechoka.Mikono
Inaniuma;hatari ya vitimbo.Vinacheka.Wanasali
Sasa wanaimba.Sitaki nyimbo zao;maana
Mimi bado nimeniong’inia na vitimbo having’oki.
Lakini pole pole ninaanza kutabasamu.
Sijafikia hatua ya kucheka;maana nimechoka,
Kichomi kimenipata na sijadondoka
Lakini najiona nimening’inia kama ndege

Aliyenaswa na mtego wa mtoto mdogo

Mimi,Lakini ni mwanadamu na akili zangu
Timamu.Ninaweza kudondoka, kama nikipenda.
Lakini ninaogopa chini yangu naona miti

Iliyochongwa ikifuata usawa wa waya hii,
Ikingoja kwa hamu,kama mshikaki kunichoma,
Kunitoboa na kufurahia kimya kimya,
Uzuri wa kupita katika mwili mwororo wa binadamu.
Lazima nishike kwa nguvu nisianguke kama kifurushi
Cha pamba cha mtoto mdogo kilichokwisha pimwa.
Mikono inaniuma, na waya imekwishanikata vidole.

Damu imetiririka hadi kwapani;kujipangusa siwezi.
Nimechoka.Kadiri niendeleavyo kunig’inia, ndivyo
Sura yangu ionyeshavyo vizuri alama za uchovu.
Ninatazama huku na huko kuwatafuta wenye huruma.
Lakini wanadamu wote wazima wanainamisha vichwa
Chini kama kwamba hawanijui;hata jamaa zangu!
Ninaendelea kuning’inia kama picha iliyotundikwa

Katika shamba la mawele, na mwenye shamba
Huvuta waya kutoka nyumbani,itingishike kuwatisha
ndege.
Machozi yananitoka,kuyapangua siwezi.
Ninajitahidi kutoa sauti kwa nguvu;
“Jamani e! Nisaidie! Ng’oeni hivyo vitimbo!”
Lakini wanadamu wameinama.Wanaanza sasa kusali.
Kati ya vitimbo, vichwa vinazuka ardhini

Ukweli wa maisha unakuwa kama ndoto ya uwongo.
Kichwa kimoja kinasema kwa sauti “Mnaliona Hilo!”
Halafu vichjwa vyote vyeupe vinacheka.Ninashangaa.
Ninashangaa zaidi kusikia sauti ya baba
Ikicheka miongoni mwa vichwa hivyo vyeupe.
Siyaamini macho,siyaamini masikio, sikiamini kichwa.
Maswali:
1. Shairi hili ni la “udhanaishi” Fafanua kauli hii. (alama 4)
2. onyesha kwa kutoa mifano miwili, jinsi msanii alivyotumia tamathali zifuatazo (alama 6)
(a) Jazanda
(b) Uhuishi
3. Andika ubeti wa saba kwa lugha tutumbi. (alama 4)

4. Eleza maana ya mishororo “vichwa vyote hivi vilidondoka kutoka umbali huo, nawe
kudondoka utadondoka”. (alama 2)
5. Eleza umbo la shairi hili. (alama 4)
SEHEMU YA E: FASIHI SIMULIZI
8. (a) Maghani ni nini? (alama 2)
(b) Eleza sifa za maghani. (alama 6)
(c) Fafanua aina zozote tatu za maghani. (alama 6)
(d) Eleza matatizo yoyote sita yanayomkumba mtafiti anapotafiti maghani.

(alama 6)

MATHEMATICS PAPER 1 FORM 4
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces provided below each question
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used, except where stated
otherwise.
(h) This paper consists of 14 printed pages.
(i) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no
questions are missing.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Section II
Total Grand
Total
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided below each question
1. Ibrahim spends a quarter of his monthly salary on school fees, one-ninth on water and electricity bills, two-
thirds of the remainder on house up keep and saves the rest. The difference between what he saves and the
amount he spends on house up keep is Kshs. 10,350. Calculate Ibrahim’s monthly salary. (3 marks)
2. Lessons in Lake Primary and Kisumu Girls High Schools take 30 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. The
two bells ring simultaneously at 7.50 a.m. How many times will they ring together again between 7.50 a.m.
and 3 p.m.? (3 marks)
3. Complete the figure below to show a rotational symmetry of order 6 about O. (3 marks)
4. The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is 12600. Find the number of sides of the polygon, hence
give the name of the polygon. (3 marks)

5. Find the inequalities that satisfy the region labeled R in the figure below. (3 marks)
6. Rodi walked from Kisian to Otonglo, a distance of 8 km for 1½ hours. He then took a motorbike to Rabuor that traveled
at a speed of 80 km/h and took 15 minutes. From Rabuor, he boarded a car to Kendu Bay, 60 km away and took 45
minutes to arrive in Kendu Bay. Calculate his average velocity for the whole journey. (3 marks)
7. Simplify the expression (3 marks)

(−4𝑏 + 3𝑎)2 − (3𝑎 + 4𝑏)2
12𝑎
8. A saleslady earns a commission of 3% and 5% for sale of goods up to Kshs. 100,000 and above Kshs.
100,000 respectively. In a certain month. Sarah’s total commission was Kshs. 15,100. Calculate the value of
goods that Sarah sold that month. (3 marks)

9. The position vectors of points A and B are 2𝒊 − 3𝒋 + 9𝒌 and −5𝒊 + 𝒌 respectively. Calculate |𝑨𝑩|, leaving
your answer in surd form. (4 marks)
10. Nerry paid Kshs. 955,000 for a car at Sammy Traders. This was a discount of 4.5%. Sammy Traders made a
profit of 16% from this sale. What is the amount of profit that Sammy Traders realized from this sale? Give
your answer to the nearest Kshs. 100. (4 marks)
11. Solve for 𝜃 in the equation

2 sin(2𝜃 − 300 ) = 1 for 00 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 3600 (4 marks)

12. The line below shows a diagonal of a rhombus PQRS. Given that QS=5 cm, complete the rhombus. Hence
find the PQ. (3 marks)
13. The cost of three toners and four cartridges is Kshs. 36,000. Oyoo bought one more toner and one less
cartridge that are similar to the above and paid and paid Kshs. 1,500 more. Calculate the cost of one toner and
one cartridge. (3 marks)
14. A measuring cylinder has a diameter of 7 cm. Water fills the cylinder up to a height of 6 cm. A solid sphere is
immersed into the cylinder and the height of water in the cylinder increases to 10 cm. calculate the radius of
the sphere correct to 4 significant figures. (3 marks)

15. The figure below shows an open cuboid ABCDEFGH. A particle traces a path from A to E through C as
indicated by the arrows.
Draw the net of the solid and show the path on it. (3 marks)
16. Without using a calculator or mathematical table, solve for 𝑥 in (2 marks)

𝑥 5 = 161,051

SECTION II (50 marks)
Answer any five questions in this section
17. A cylindrical milk urn has diameter 40 cm and height 1.4 metres.
22
(a) Calculate the capacity of milk in litres in the urn when it is full, to the nearest litre. Use π = 7
. (2 marks)
(b) The milk is packed into tetrahedron packets of capacity 200 ml. Calculate the number of packets used. (2 marks)
(c) The packets are packed into boxes that contain 24 packets each. How many complete boxes are used to package the
milk? (2 marks)
(d) Each box is sold at Kshs. 840, a profit of 12%. Calculate the buying price of each packet. (4 marks)

18. The figure below shows a histogram drawn for marks scored by students in a mathematics contest
(a) State the modal class. (1 mark)
(b) Draw a frequency distribution table from the histogram. (2 marks)
(c) Use the table in (b) above to calculate the mean mark (3 marks)
(d) On the histogram, draw a vertical line showing where the median mark lies (4 marks)

5
19. The displacement 𝑆 of a particle after t seconds is given by 𝑆 = 4𝑡 3 − 𝑡 2 − 3𝑡 + 3.
2
Determine the:
(a) velocity of the particle when 𝑡 = 3 (3 marks)
(b) value of 𝑡 when the particle is instantaneously at rest (3 marks)
(c) displacement when the particle is instantaneously at rest. (2 marks)
(d) acceleration of the particle when 𝑡 = 2 seconds (2 marks)

20. The distance between towns A and B is 360km. A minibus left town A at 8.15 a.m. and traveled towards town B at an
1
average speed of 90km/hr. A matatu left town B, 2 hours later on the same day and travelled towards A at average
3
speed of 110km/hr.
(a) (i) At what time of the day did the two vehicles meet? (4 marks)
(ii) How far from A did the two vehicles meet? (2 marks)
(b) A motorist started from her home at 10.30 a.m. on the same day as the matatu and travelled at an average speed of
100 km/h. She arrived at B at the same time as the minibus. Calculate the distance from A to her house. (4 marks)

21. In the figure below, PQRS is a trapezium. PQ is parallel to SR. The diagonals SQ and PR intersect at T and SR=2PQ.
𝑷𝑸 = 𝒒, 𝑷𝑺 = 𝒔, 𝑷𝑻 = ℎ𝑷𝑹 and 𝑺𝑻 = 𝑘𝑺𝑸, where ℎ and 𝑘 are constants
(a) Find in terms of 𝒒 and 𝒔:

(i) 𝑸𝑹; (2 marks)
(ii) 𝑷𝑻; (2 marks)
(iii) 𝑺𝑻. (1 mark)
(b) Determine the values of ℎ and 𝑘 (5 marks)

22. The figure below, two circles, centres E and G and radii 5 cm and 12 cm respectively intersect at F and H. EG = 13 cm.
(a) Show that EFG = 900 . (3 marks)
(b) Calculate
(i) the size of obtuse FEH (3 marks)
(ii) the area of the shaded part, correct to 2 decimal places. Use π=3.142 (4 marks)

23. (a) Fill the table below for the function 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 2 for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 5 (2 marks)
𝑥 −1 0 1 2 3 4 5
𝑦
(b) (i) Draw the graph of the function 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 2 for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 5 (3 marks)
(ii) On the same axes, draw line 𝑦 = 𝑥 – 1 (1 mark)
(c) Determine the values of x at the points of intersection between the curve 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 2 and line
𝑦 = 𝑥– 1 (2 marks)
(d) Give the equation of the line of symmetry of the curve (2 marks)

24. In the figure below, ABC is a tangent to the circle at B.
(a) Given that ABG = 420 , EBD = 270 and BGD = 490 , calculate the sizes of the following angles. Give reasons
in each case
(i) DGE (2 marks)
(ii) GFE (3 marks)
(iii)  DBC (2 marks)
(b) Given that BC = 10 cm and CD = 7 cm, calculate TS (3 marks)

MATHEMATICS PAPER 2 FORM 4
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces provided below each
question
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used, except where stated
otherwise.
(h) This paper consists of 16 printed pages.
(i) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no
questions are missing.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Section II
Total
Grand
Total

SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided below each question
1. A milk urn has a capacity of 18.48 litres. A cylindrical container of diameter 14 cm and height 10 cm is used to
draw milk from the urn for sale. How many times will it be used to completely drain the milk from the urn?
(3 marks)
2. An arithmetic progression is such that its first term and common difference are 3 and 2 respectively. The difference
of the last and forty-first terms of this progression is 48. Find the number of terms in the progression. (3 marks)
3. Make 𝑥 the subject of the formula; (3 marks)

𝑥2 − 𝑞
𝑝=√
𝑟 + 𝑥2

3 1
4. Find the value of p if the expression 𝑝𝑥 2 − 2 𝑥 + 16 is a perfect square, given that p is a constant. (2 marks)
5. In the figure below, PT is a tangent to the circle from an external point P. PT=24 cm and OP=25 cm.
Calculate the shaded area correct to 2 decimal places. (4 marks)
6. The cost 𝐶 of hiring a conference facility for one day consists of two parts, one which is fixed and the other varies
as the number of participants 𝑛 attending a conference. If Kshs. 45,000 is charged for hiring the facility for 100
participants and Kshs. 40,000 for 60 participants, find the number of participants if Kshs. 63,000 is used to hire the
facility. (4 marks)

7. (a) Expand (1 + 2𝑥)6 in ascending powers of 𝑥 up to the term in 𝑥 4 (1 mark)
(b) Use the expansion in (a) above to find the value of (0.98)6 correct to 5 decimal place. (2 marks)
8. The cash price of a deep freezer is Kshs. 50,000. Mary bought the freezer on hire purchase terms by paying a
deposit of Kshs. 25,000 followed by 24 equal monthly instalments of Kshs. 2,250 each. An annual interest,
compounded quarterly was charged on the balance for a period of 2 years. Determine, correct to 1 decimal place,
the interest rate per month. (4 marks)
9. The equation of a trigonometric function is 𝑦 = 3 sin(𝑎𝜃 − 60)0 . The function has a period of 7200 .
(a) Identify the phase angle of the function (1 mark)
(b) Determine the value of 𝑎 (1 mark)

10. An airport R is 4320 nautical miles to the north of another airport T (450S, 1080E). find the position of T
(3 marks)
11. The table below show the number of days (𝑑) and heights of tree seedlings (ℎ) in a tree nursery
Number of days (𝑑) 1 2 3 4 5
Height (ℎ cm) 3.7 6.0 7.5 8.3 8.8
(a) On the grid provided, draw a graph to represent the information in the table given. (2 marks)
(b) Use the graph to determine the rate of change of height (ℎ) with the number of days at 𝑑 = 3 (2 marks)

7
12. The probability of Kisumu Day High School to win a hockey match is 8. If it losses in hockey, then it has a
3 2
probability of winning in soccer as 4. Otherwise, the probability of winning the soccer match is 3. Calculate the
probability of the school winning either of the two games. (3 marks)
13. The figure below shows a ranch ABCD drawn to a scale of 1: 100,000. A security light tower is to be installed in
the ranch such that it meets the following conditions:
• It is nearer to A than it is to B
• It is at least 200 metres from the point C
• It is further from the line CD than it is to A
Shade the possible region in the ranch where the tower would be installed to meet the above conditions. (4 marks)
14. Calculate the percentage error in the perimeter of a circle of radius 3.5 cm. (3 marks)

15. Use logarithms only to evaluate, correct to 4 decimal places (4 marks)
3 14.70 tan 350 24′
√
69.852
16. Solve for x in the equation (3 marks)

log(5𝑥 + 75) − 2 log 3 = log(2𝑥 − 9)

SECTION II (50 marks)
Answer any five questions in this section
17. The table below shows the heights of tree seedlings measured in a tree nursery.
(a) Complete the table below. (2 marks)
Height 𝑓 𝑥 𝑑 = 𝑥 − 5.45
3.0 – 3.9 3
4.0 – 4.9 5
5.0 – 5.9 7
6.0 – 6.9 8
7.0 – 7.9 5
8.0 – 8.9 2
(b) Use the table to calculate the standard deviation correct to decimal places. (4 marks)
(c) (i) On the grid provided, draw an ogive to represent the information above. (2 marks)
(ii) Use the ogive to find the range of height between the 20th and the 80th percentile. (2 marks)

18. The table below show income tax rate for the year 2019.
Taxable Income (Kshs. per month) Tax rate (Kshs per Kshs. 20)
1 – 12,000 2
12,001 – 22,500 3
22,501 – 33,000 4
33, 000 – 43,500 5
43,501 – 54,000 6
54,001 and over 7
Emerick earns a basic salary of Kshs. 38,780. He is entitled to the following allowances per month: house allowance –
Kshs. 10,000, medical allowance – Kshs. 3,850 and a non-taxable transport allowance of Kshs. 5,200. He is entitled to a
personal tax relief of Kshs. 1,054 monthly.
Calculate:
(a) Emerick’s monthly taxable income. (2 marks)
(b) Emerick’s monthly Pay As You Earn. (5 marks)
(c) His net monthly salary given that the following deductions are made from his monthly pay: NHIF – Kshs. 3,000,
Bank loan – Kshs. 7,568, WCPS – Kshs. 780. (3 marks)

19. The figure below shows a hockey field of dimensions 60 metres by 48 m. The shaded area is an astroturf that is
𝑥 metres wide.
(a) Form and simplify an expression in x for the:

(i) Area of the field and the astroturf ; (1 mark)
(ii) Area covered by the astroturf. (2 marks)
(b) Given that the shaded area is 220 m2,

(i) find the value of 𝑥; (4 marks)
(ii) calculate the perimeter of the field with the turf. (3 marks)

20. A′(−6,0), B′(−2, −3) and C′(−2, 0) are the vertices of the image of triangle ABC under a transformation described
1 −2
by the matrix 𝐌 = ( )
0 1
(a) Determine the coordinates of triangle ABC (3 marks)
(b) (i) On the same grid, draw triangles ABC, A′B′C′ (2 marks)
(ii) Describe fully the transformation M (1 mark)

(c) Triangle A′′B′′C′′ is the image of triangle A′B′C′ such that A′′(0, 6), B′′(6, 2) and C′′(0, 2)
(i) Draw triangle A′′B′′C′′on the same axes (1 mark)
(ii) Find a single matrix of transformation that maps triangle ABC onto triangle A′′B′′C′′ (3 marks)

21. (a) Complete the table below giving the values correct to 1 decimal place. (2 marks)
𝑥0 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240 270 300 330 360

3 3 −2.0
𝑦 = 2 sin ( 𝑥) − 2 cos ( 𝑥) −2.0 −1.1 0.0 2.0 2.8 2.0 1.1 0.0
4 4
𝑦 = 1 + 2 cos 𝑥 3.0 2.0 1.0 0.0 −0.7 −1.0 0.0 1.0 2.7 3.0
(b) On the grid provided and using the same axes, draw the graphs of
3 3
𝑦 = 2 sin ( 𝑥) − 2 cos ( 𝑥) and 𝑦 = 1 + 2 cos 𝑥 for 00 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3600
4 4
(4 marks)
(c) Using graphs in part (b),

(i) find the values of 𝑥 for which: (3 marks)
3 3
1 + cos ( 𝑥) = sin ( 𝑥)
4 4

(ii) determine the values of 𝑥 for which: (1 mark)
3 3
2 sin ( 𝑥) − 2 cos ( 𝑥) = 1 + 2 cos 𝑥
4 4

22. Awuor was paid an initial salary of Kshs. 180,000 per annum with a fixed annual increment. Wasonga was paid and
initial salary of Kshs. 150,000 per annum with a 10% increment compounded annually.
(a) Given that Awuor’s annual salary in the 11th year was Kshs. 288,000, determine:
(i) Her annual increment (3 marks)
(ii) The total amount of money Awuor earned during the 11 years (3 marks)
(b) Determine Wasonga’s monthly earning, correct to the nearest 10 shillings during the 11th year. (4 marks)

23. The figure below represents a prism ABCDEFGH of length 6 cm. the section ADEH of the prism is a trapezium in
which AD=11 cm, HE=8 cm, BG=5 cm and ADE=DEH=900
(a) Calculate correct to 1 decimal place;

(i) The angle between line DG and the plane ABCD. (3 marks)
(ii) The angle between planes ABGH and ABCD (3 marks)
(b) Calculate the volume of the prism (4 marks)

24. The figure below shows the area bound by the curve 𝑦 = 5𝑥 − 𝑥 2 and the line 𝑦 = 𝑥
(a) Find 𝑎, the value of 𝑥 at the point of intersection of the curve and the line. (3 marks)
(b) Using the trapezium rule with 4 trapezia, estimate the area of the shaded region. (4 marks)
(c) By integration, calculate the exact area of the shaded region (3 marks)

PHYSICS PAPER 1 FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
• This paper consists of two sections A and B.

• Answer all the questions in the two sections in the spaces provided after each question
• All working must be clearly shown.
• Electronic calculators, mathematical tables may be used.
• All numerical answers should be expressed in the decimal notations.
• You may use ‘g’ as 10m/s2
For Examiner use only

SECTION QUESTION MAX MARKS CANDIDATE’S
SCORE
A 1 – 14 25
15 13
16 13
B 17 13
18 09
19 07
TOTAL 80
This paper consists of 10 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

SECTION A (25 Marks)
1. The figure 1, below shows a section of a tape measure used for measuring the circumference of a
cylindrical water tank.
Figure 1
i. State the accuracy of the tape (1 mark)
ii. Determine the diameter of the tank (2 marks)
2. Figure 2, shows a metal bolt which is threaded. Explain how a metre-rule may be used to measure
the pitch (distance between adjacent peaks) of the threading (2 marks)
Figure 2
3. State the advantage of fitting wide tyres on a vehicle that move on earth roads (1 mark)
4. It may not be possible to suck liquid into your mouth using drinking straw on the surface of the
moon. Explain (2 marks)
5. A drop of blue ink is introduced at the bottom of a beaker containing water. It is observed that
after sometime, all the water in the beaker turns blue. Name the process that takes place.
(1 mark)

6. In the set-up shown below, water near the top of the boiling tube boils while at the bottom it
remains cold. Give a reason for this. (2 marks)
Figure 3
7. The diagram below shows two glass-tubes of different diameters dipped in water. Explain why h2
is greater than h1 (3 marks)
Figure 4
8. A solid copper sphere will sink in water while a hollow copper sphere of the same mass may
float. Explain (2 marks)
9. Name the instrument that would be most suitable for measuring the thickness of one sheet of this
question paper (1 mark)
10.
a) State how pressure of a moving fluid varies with the speed of the fluid (1 mark)
b) State Bernoulli’s principle (1 mark)

11. The solid marble shown below is in a stable equilibrium. On the space provided, sketch the same
marble in a neutral state of equilibrium (1 mark)
Figure 5
12. The figure below shows how pressure and volume of a fixed mass of a gas vary at constant
temperature. Sketch on the same axes, a graph for the same mass of gas at temperature,T2 such
that 𝑇2 < 𝑇1 (1 mark)
Figure 6
13. The figure below shows a ball being whirled in a vertical plane. Sketch on the same figure the
path followed by the ball if the string cuts when the ball is in the same position shown.
(1 mark)
ball
String 𝜔
Figure 7
14. A spring extends by 6cm when supporting a mass of 0.06kg on earth. When the spring is used to
support the same mass on moon, it extends by 1 cm. determine the moon’s gravitational strength
(3 marks)

15.
a) Define the following terms:
i. Angular velocity (1 mark)
ii. Centripetal acceleration (1 mark)
b) State two ways in which the centripetal force on a body of mass m can be increased (2 marks)
c) Figure 8 shows an object at the end of a light spring balance connected to a peg using a
string. The object is moving in a circular path on a smooth horizontal table with a
constant speed.
Figure 8
i. State what provides the centripetal force (1 mark)
ii. On the same diagram Indicate with an arrow the direction of the centripetal force
(1 mark)
iii. State a reason why the object is accelerating while its speed remains constant
(1 mark)

iv. The mass of the object is 0.5kg and it is moving at a speed of 8m/s at a radius of 2m.
determine the reading on the spring balance (3 marks)
d) A body moving with uniform angular velocity found to have covered an angular distance 170
radians in t seconds. Thirteen seconds later it is found to have covered a total angular distance
of 300 radians. Determine t (3 marks)
16.
a) State the pressure law for an ideal gas (1mark)
b) The set up shows an arrangement to determine the relationship between temperature and
pressure of a gas constant volume.
Figure 9
(i) Describe how measurements are obtained in the experiment. (3marks)

(ii) Explain how the result form the experiment can be used to determine the relationship
between temperature and pressure. (2marks)
c) A bicycle tire is pumped to a pressure of 2.2 × 105pa at230C. After a race the pressure is found
to be 2.6 × 105 pa. Assuming the volume of the tyre did not change, what is the temperature of
the air in the tyre. (3marks)
d) Air is trapped inside a glass tube by a thread of mercury 240 mm long. When the tube is held
horizontally the length of the air column is 240mm.
750 mmHg
240mm
L1 = 240 mm
Figure 10
Assuming that the atmospheric pressure is 750mm Hg and the temperature is constant;
calculate the length of the air column when the tube is vertical with open end down.
(3marks)
e) What is an ‘ideal gas?’ (1 mark)
17.
a) Define the following terms:
i. Mechanical advantage (1 mark)
ii. Velocity ratio (1 mark)

b) Sketch a labeled diagram to show how an arrangement of a single pulley may be used to
provide a mechanical advantage of 2. (3 marks)
c) The figure 11, below shows a loaded wheelbarrow.

i. Indicate and label on the diagram three forces acting on the wheelbarrow when a
worker is just about to lift the handle. (3 marks)
Figure 11
ii. Suppose the handle-bars of the wheelbarrow were extended, which force(s) would
change? Explain (2 marks)
d) A ball rolls on a table in a straight line. A part from the transitional kinetic energy, state the
other form of kinetic energy possessed by the ball. (1 mark)
e) The figure 12, below shows how the potential Energy (P.E) of a ball thrown vertically
upwards.

(J)
8
6
P.E
4
2
2 4 6 8 height, m
Figure 12
On the same axes, plot a graph of kinetic energy of the ball. (2 marks)
18.
a) State the law of floatation (1 mark)
b) When a piece of metal is placed on water, it sinks. But when the same piece of metal is
placed on a block of wood, both are found to float. Explain this observation. (2 marks)
c) Figure 13 shows a cork floating on water and held to the bottom of the beaker by a thin
thread
Figure 13
i. Name the force acting on the cork. (3marks)

ii. Describe how each of the forces mentioned in (i) above changes when water is added
into the beaker until it fills up. (3marks)
19.
a) Water flows in a horizontal smooth pipe. State the changes that would be observed in the
nature of flow if the speed of water is steadily increased from low to high value (2 marks)
b) A pipe of radius 6mm is connected to another pipe of radius 9mm. if water flows in the wider
pipe at a speed of 2m/s, what is the speed in the narrower pipe? (3 marks)
c) State the reason why it may not be possible to suck liquid into your mouth using drinking
straw on the surface of the moon (1
mark)

d) A can with a hole on the side is filled with water to a certain height. Water jets out as shown
below (figure 14, a). A second identical can is filled with water to the same height and a block
of wood floated on the water as shown (figure 14, b). give a reason why the water jet in (b) is
longer than that in (a). (1 mark)
Figure 14


NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
(a) Write your Name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two Sections; A and B.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in Sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(e) All workings must be clearly shown.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 11
14 12
B 15 13
16 10
17 09
Total Score 80

SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Figure 1 below shows the formation of a band of colors when white light traverses a drop of water:
Figure 1
(i) Why does it split into different colors between P and Q? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) What natural phenomenon is associated with the above? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. An electric iron is rated at 1.5 KW, 240 V. Calculate the resistance of the element.
( 2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
3. A model preparing for beauty contest stands 70 cm away from a concave mirror of focal length 90 cm.
State two characteristics of the image observed. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

4. The diagram below shows a soft iron ring lying next to the south-pole of a magnet.
Figure 2
(a) Complete the diagram to show the magnetic field patterns between the magnet and the ring.
(1 mark)
(b) State a practical application of the above effect. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. A boy standing in front of a high wall claps his hands once and hears an echo after 0.64 seconds. If he moves
20 m farther away from the wall and claps again, he hears the echo after 0.76 seconds. Calculate the speed of
sound. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. The table shows part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Figure 3
(a) What happens to photo energy as one moves across the spectrum from gamma to radio waves?
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a TV remote control gadget make use of?
(1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Explain why sound from a distance source is heard more clearly at night than during the day.
(2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
8. Explain why the resistance of a metal conductor increases with increase in temperature.
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Figure 4 below shows a graph of displacement against time for a particular point in a wave.
Figure 4
(a) From the graph, determine the frequency of the wave. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
10. Using a ray diagram, illustrate the use of a lens as a magnifying glass. (3 marks)
11. State ONE advantage of the lead-acid accumulator over the dry cell. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
12. State the two functions of the earth-pin on the three-pin plug. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
13. (a) Define the term capacitance of a capacitor. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State two factors that affect the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Figure 5 below shows an arrangement of capacitors connected to a 12 V D.C. supply
Figure 5
(i) Determine the effective capacitance. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Calculate the charge through the 3 μF capacitor. ( 2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

(d) The following figure shows an electrical circuit with a network of resistors connected to a battery
Figure 6
A current of 1.2 A flows through the 4 Ω resistor when the switch is closed. Determine:
i) the total resistance in the circuit. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
ii) the voltmeter reading. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
14. (a) State two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to occur. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………
(b) The figure shows a diver positioned at point D below the water surface, and a setting sun S.
In what direction above the horizontal surface of the water will the diver see the setting sun? (Refractive index
of water = 1.33). (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
(c) A coin is placed at the bottom of a beaker containing two immiscible liquids A and B of refractive indices
ηA = 1.36 and ηB = 1.44 respectively as in the diagram below.

Calculate the apparent depth of the coin as seen by an observer from the top. (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………
(d) A tree of height 7.5 m is focused on the screen of pinhole camera made using a box of length 15 cm. If the
height of the image is 10 cm, determine the distance of the tree from the camera.
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
15. (a) State ONE way of minimizing power loss during transmission. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A step-down transformer with turns ratio 12:1 and efficie ncy 95% has 2 000 turns in the primary coil.
When the primary circuit is connected to a 240 V a.c. source, the power delivered to a load is found to be 500
W.
Determine:
(i) the number of turns in the secondary coil. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) the input power. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) The secondary voltage. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) the secondary current. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) A consumer uses the following electrical appliances daily: four 60 W bulbs working for 3½ hours, two 75
W bulbs working for 3 hours 45 minutes, an electric blender rated 500 W working for 15 minutes, and a
television set rated 100 W working for 12 hours.
(i) Calculate the total number of units consumed in a day. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………
(iii) If the appliances are used for 30days, determine the total cost if the cost per unit is 4.80 cents.
(2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
16. (a) In an experiment to observe interference of light waves a double slit is placed close to the source. See
figure 7

Figure 7
(i) State the function of the double slit (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….………………………………
……………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Describe what is observed on the screen (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) State what is observed on the screen when
I). The slit separation S1 S2 is reduced (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
II) White light source is used in place of monochromatic source (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Figure 8 below shows a set up made by a Form 2 student to study an aspect of a wave.

Figure 8
(i) State what happens to the sound from the bell as the bottle and its contents are cooled to 0°C
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………Explain the observation in (i) above
(2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
c) Water waves of same wavelength are incident on different apertures A and B as shown below.
Complete the diagrams to show the pattern of the waves beyond the apertures in each case.
(2 marks)

17. You are provided with the following apparatus: connecting wires, a soft iron rod, a battery of 3 cells, a
switch, a long insulated copper wire and a rheostat.
(a) Using a suitable diagram, show how an electromagnet can be made with the given apparatus.
(3 marks)
(b) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………
(c) (i) State Flemings left hand rule (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………

(ii) The figure below shows current flowing in coil placed in a magnetic field.
(I) Show on the diagram the direction of the force acting on the coil labelled P and Q. (1 mark)
(II) State two ways of increasing the force on the coil. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
# END #

PHYSICS PAPER 3 CONFIDENTIAL FORM 4

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
The physics teacher should ensure availability of the following apparatus for the learner to carry-out
this practical examination.
QUESTION ONE
• Two new size ‘D’ dry cells
• A two-cell holder
• A bulb (2.5 V )
• A volt-meter (0-3V)
• An ammeter (0-1A)
• A switch
• Amounted resistance wire labelled AB (swg 32)
Question two
- A candle
- A lens and a lens holder (lens should be of focal length of 10 cm)
- A screen
- A metre-rule
- Some plasticine
- rubber bung.

2.7 cm
Rubber-bung
2.9 cm
2.1 cm
- Vernier calipers.
- beam balance. (or electric balance)

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all the questions in this paper
1
• You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 2 hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before starting your work.
• Marks are given for clear record of the observations made, their suitability and accuracy and the use
made of them.
• Candidates are advised to record observations as soon as they are made
• Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.
For Examiner’s use only:
QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 20
2 20
GRAND TOTAL 40
This paper consists of 5 printed pages

QUESTION ONE
You are provided with the following apparatus:
• Two dry cells

• A cell holder
• A bulb
• A volt-meter
• An ammeter
• A switch
• Amounted resistance wire labelled AB
a) Set up the apparatus as shown in the circuit below.
Figure 1
b) With the crocodile clip at A (i.e. L = 100cm) take the voltmeter reading (V) and the ammeter reading
(I). Record V and I in the table 1 below.
Table 1
Length l(cm) 100 80 60 40 20 0
Voltage (V)
Current I (A)
Length, L (m)
(7 marks)
c) Repeat the procedure in (b) above for the lengths shown and complete the table above.
d) Explain the changes you observe on the bulb as L decrease from A. (2 marks)

e) Plot a graph of voltage against current (5 marks)
f) Determine the slope of the graph when L = 0.60 m (3 marks)
g) State the significance of the gradient (1 mark)

QUESTION TWO
PART A
You are provided with the following
- A candle
- A lens and a lens holder
- A screen
- A metre-rule
- Some plasticine
a) Set up the apparatus as shown in figure 2 below (ensure that the candle flame and the lens are
approximately the same height above the bench)
Figure 2
b) Set the position of the lens so that it is 40cm from the candle (U = 40 cm). Adjust the position of the
screen until a sharp image of the candle flame is obtained. Measure the distance, V between the lens
and the screen. Record the value of V
V = ………… cm (1mark)
c) Repeat the procedures in b) above for other values of U in the table b below. (4 marks)
Table 2
U(cm) 45 50 55
V(cm)
𝑣
Magnification (m) = 𝑢
𝑣
d) Given that f = 𝑚+1, where f is the focal length of the lens, use the results in table above to determine
the average values of ‘f’ (4 marks)

PART B.
You are provided with the following:
- rubber bung.
- Vernier calipers.
- beam balance. (or electric balance)
Proceed as follows:
e) Using a Vernier caliper, measure the lengths D, d, and h as shown in figure 2.
D
d
Figure 2
D = ....................................................... m (1 mark)
d = ........................................................ m (1 mark)
h = ........................................................ m (1 mark)
f) Measure the mass, M of the rubber bung using the electric balance.
M = …………………. g M = ............................................... kg (2 marks)
g)
𝑑+𝐷
(i) Given that 𝑄 = determine the value of Q. (2 marks)
4
𝑀
(ii) Determine the value of r given that: 𝜋𝑟𝑄 2 = (3 mark)
ℎ

h) State the significance of r (1 mark)
This is the last printed page


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F4 ENDTERM 2 SET 2 EXAM

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KENYA EDUCATORS CONSULTANCY

©Copyright Kenya Educators Consultancy Compilation & Publication

AGRICULTURE PAPER 1 FORM 4

• This paper contains three sections A, B and C

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATES

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided

2. State two ways in which crop rotation controls weeds (1mk)

3. Name two methods of sowing pasture crops (1mk)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

6. State three physical agents of weathering in soil formation (1 ½ mks)

7. Give three properties of a foliar fertilizer which makes it possible to be used

8. Give three reasons why Banana should be pruned (1 ½ mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

9. State four factors considered when classifying crop pests (2mks)

10. Give four reasons for land fragmentation (2mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

13. State three effects of raindrops on bare soil ( 1 ½ mks)

15. State the forms in which nitrogen is absorbed by plants (1mk)

16. Outline four factors which effect herbraidal selectivity (2mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

18. Name four disadvantages of zero grazing (2mks)

19. Outline four factors which encourage soil erosion (2mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

Answer ALL Questions in this section

(a) Identify the weeds (2mks)

(b) State the harmful effects of the weed B above (1mk)

(c) Give four advantages of leasehold tenure systems (2mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

22.. (a) What is soil sampling? (1 mark)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

(ii) name the other method of soil sampling (1mark)

23. . Identify the rotational grazing system shown below (1mk)

b) Give the FOUR advantages of the system named above (4mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

Answer any two Questions in this section

24. (a) Describe harvesting of pyrethrum under the following sub-headings

(i) Procedure (4mks) (ii)

(a) Land preparation (5mks) (b)

Pasture establishment (8mks) (c)

(i) Land preparation (4mks)

(b) Explain the method and procedure of harvesting of sugarcane (4mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

2. State one use of each of the following farm tools. ( 2 marks )

(ii) A pair of tin snips

4. Name two functions of calcium in dairy cows. ( 1 mark )

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

7. Outline four methods used to control Tse-tse flies. ( 2 marks )

(b) What is the duration of oestrous cycle in a cow? ( 1 mark )

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

13. Name two methods of identifying piglets in the farm. ( 1 mark )

16. Name four benefits of a good farm layout. ( 2 marks )

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

(c ) Outline three necessary conditions required in a brooder. ( 3 marks )