AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT

2022 TEST PREP

STUDY & PREPARE
Pass your test and know what is essential to become a safe, competent pilot
and aircraft dispatcher — from the most trusted source in aviation training
AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT

2022 TEST PREP

STUDY & PREPARE
Pass your test and know what is essential to become a safe, pilot and
aircraft dispatcher — from the most trusted source in aviation training

READER TIP
The FAA Knowledge Exam Questions can
change throughout the year. Stay current with
test changes; sign up for ASA’s free email
update service at asa2fly.com/testupdate

TM

AVIATION SUPPLIES & ACADEMICS, INC.

NEWCASTLE, WASHINGTON
Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep About the Contributors
2022 Edition
Jackie Spanitz
Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc. General Manager
7005 132nd Place SE Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc.
Newcastle, Washington 98059
As ASA General Manager, Jackie Spanitz oversees
[email protected] | 425.235.1500 | asa2fly.com
maintenance and development of more than 1,000 titles
and pilot supplies in the ASA product line. Ms. Spanitz
© 2021 Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc.
has worked with airman training and testing for more than
25 years, including participation in the Airman Certifica-
Visit asa2fly.com/reader/ TPATP for the Reader
tion Standards (ACS) development committees. Jackie
Resources page containing additional information and
holds a Bachelor of Science in Aviation Technology from
updates related to this book.
Western Michigan University, a Master of Science from
Embry-Riddle Aeronautical University, and Instructor and
Sample Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) ques-
Commercial Pilot certificates. She is the author of Guide
tions herein contain information as of: September 2021.
to the Flight Review, and the technical editor for ASA’s
Stay informed of changes since the book was printed:
Test Prep and FAR/AIM series.
asa2fly.com/testupdate
None of the material in this publication supersedes
any documents, procedures or regulations issued by the Andrea Georgio
Federal Aviation Administration. Associate Professor
Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc. (ASA), assumes Middle Tennessee State University (MTSU)
no responsibility for any errors or omissions. Neither is
Andrea Georgiou is an associate professor and the flight
any liability assumed for damages resulting from the use
dispatch coordinator in the MTSU Aerospace depart-
of the information contained herein.
ment. She earned a B.S. in Aerospace and Master of
Aerospace Education from MTSU and a PhD in General
Important: This Test Prep should be sold with and used
Psychology from Capella University. Dr. Georgiou holds
in conjunction with Airman Knowledge Testing Supple-
an FAA Aircraft Dispatch Certificate and a Private Pilot
ment for Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Dispatcher
Certificate. She serves as an honors faculty member
(FAA-CT-8080-7D). ASA reprints the FAA test figures
and teaches a wide range of undergraduate and gradu-
and legends contained within this government document,
ate courses including flight dispatch, aviation laws and
and it is also sold separately and available from aviation
regulations, advanced aviation weather, professional
retailers nationwide. Order #ASA-CT-8080-7D.
pilot, introduction to aerospace, human factors, and
aviation industries.
Cover photo: iStock.com/dell640

ASA-TP-ATP-22-PD Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc. (ASA) is an

ISBN 978-1-64425-154-6 industry leader in the development and sale of aviation
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Softcover ISBN 978-1-64425-153-9 traffic controllers, flight attendants, and drone operators.
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Contents
Instructions Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation,
Updates and Practice Tests.........................................v and Facilities
Introduction.................................................................vi Inoperative Equipment........................................... 2 – 3
Description of the Tests............................................. vii Pitot-Static Instruments......................................... 2 – 4
Knowledge Test Registration................................. viii Electronic Flight Instruments............................... 2 – 10
Knowledge Test Eligibility...................................... viii Safety of Flight Equipment.................................. 2 – 13
Acceptable Materials...............................................ix Communications.................................................. 2 – 17
Testing Procedures for Applicants Navigation Equipment......................................... 2 – 18
Requesting Special Accommodations................ix Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)..................... 2 – 23
Test Reports.............................................................x Global Navigation................................................ 2 – 29
Retesting Procedures...............................................x Approach Systems.............................................. 2 – 30
Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct................x GPS..................................................................... 2 – 37
Test-Taking Tips.......................................................xi Automatic Dependent Surveillance –
ATP Certificate Eligibility Requirements ................... xii Broadcast (ADS-B)....................................... 2 – 43
Knowledge Exam References.................................. xiii Airport Lighting and Marking............................... 2 – 44
ASA Test Prep Layout............................................... xiv Approach Lighting................................................ 2 – 54

Chapter 1 Regulations Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Applicable Regulations.......................................... 1 – 3 Lift and Drag.......................................................... 3 – 3
The ATP Certificate............................................... 1 – 3 Critical Engine and VMC ........................................ 3 – 8
Flight Engineer Requirements............................... 1 – 8 Maneuvering Flight.............................................. 3 – 10
Flight Attendants.................................................... 1 – 9 Stability................................................................ 3 – 13
Experience and Training Requirements............... 1 – 10 High Speed Flight................................................ 3 – 15
Part 135 Flight Crew Requirements.................... 1 – 17 Primary Flight Controls........................................ 3 – 18
Flight Crew Duty Time Limits............................... 1 – 25 Tabs..................................................................... 3 – 23
Flight Duty Periods........................................... 1 – 26 High-Lift Devices................................................. 3 – 25
Dispatching and Flight Release........................... 1 – 35 Helicopter Aerodynamics..................................... 3 – 27
Fuel Requirements.............................................. 1 – 44
Carriage of Passengers and Cargo..................... 1 – 47
Part 135 Carriage of Passengers and Chapter 4 Performance
Cargo Requirements.................................... 1 – 52 Engine Performance.............................................. 4 – 3
Emergency Equipment and Operations............... 1 – 55 Helicopter Systems................................................ 4 – 9
Part 135 Oxygen Requirements.......................... 1 – 67 Takeoff Performance Terminology....................... 4 – 10
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)..... 1 – 71 Calculating V-Speeds.......................................... 4 – 15
Part 135 Regulations........................................... 1 – 73 CRJ200 V-Speeds............................................ 4 – 15
Helicopter Regulations........................................ 1 – 89 Q400 V-Speeds................................................ 4 – 15
Transport Aircraft 2 V-Speeds........................... 4 – 15
Transport Aircraft 1 V-Speeds........................... 4 – 16

(continued)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA iii

Calculating Takeoff Power................................... 4 – 20 Chapter 6 Flight Operations
CRJ200 Takeoff Thrust Settings ...................... 4 – 20 Airspace................................................................. 6 – 3
Q400 Takeoff Power ........................................ 4 – 20 NOTAMs (NOtices To AirMen)............................. 6 – 13
Transport Aircraft 2 Takeoff EPR...................... 4 – 20 Flight Plans.......................................................... 6 – 14
Climb Performance.............................................. 4 – 22 Alternate Airport Planning................................... 6 – 17
CRJ200 Performance Tables ........................... 4 – 22 ATC Clearances................................................... 6 – 21
Q400 Performance Tables ............................... 4 – 23 Takeoff Procedures.............................................. 6 – 26
Q400 Climb and Cruise Power Tables ............. 4 – 23 Instrument Approaches....................................... 6 – 28
Transport Aircraft 2 Climb Performance Landing................................................................ 6 – 36
Tables........................................................... 4 – 23 Communications.................................................. 6 – 39
Transport Aircraft 2 Climb and Cruise Speed Adjustments............................................. 6 – 42
Power Tables................................................ 4 – 23
Holding................................................................ 6 – 44
Cruise Performance............................................. 4 – 29
Charts.................................................................. 6 – 50
Landing Considerations....................................... 4 – 30
Landing Performance Tables and Graphs........... 4 – 34
Miscellaneous Performance................................ 4 – 37 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards,
Engine-Out Procedures....................................... 4 – 41 and Flight Physiology
C208 Aircraft Performance.................................. 4 – 46 Flight Emergencies and Hazards.......................... 7 – 3
Cessna 208 Performance Tables......................... 4 – 53 Flight Physiology................................................. 7 – 11
Commuter Aircraft Performance.......................... 4 – 56
Helicopter Performance....................................... 4 – 70
Flight Planning Graphs and Tables...................... 4 – 78 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather
Typical Flight Logs............................................... 4 – 83 Services
Computation of Temperature The Atmosphere.................................................... 8 – 3
at Cruise Altitude ......................................... 4 – 83 Weather Systems.................................................. 8 – 8
Computation of True Airspeed Stability and Instability of Air................................ 8 – 11
Using Mach Number.................................... 4 – 83
Fog and Rain....................................................... 8 – 15
Specific Range................................................. 4 – 84
Thunderstorms.................................................... 8 – 18
Wind Shear.......................................................... 8 – 22
Chapter 5 Weight and Balance Frost and Ice........................................................ 8 – 29
Icing.................................................................. 8 – 29
Center of Gravity Computation.............................. 5 – 3
Hazards of Structural Icing............................... 8 – 30
Stabilizer Trim Setting............................................ 5 – 7
Frost Formation................................................ 8 – 31
Changing Loading Conditions............................... 5 – 8
Turbulence........................................................... 8 – 38
C208 Weight and Balance................................... 5 – 12
Arctic and Tropical Weather Hazards................... 8 – 42
Commuter Aircraft Weight and Balance.............. 5 – 13
Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)......... 8 – 43
Helicopter Weight and Balance........................... 5 – 24
The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)............ 8 – 47
Helicopter Weight and Balance: CG Shifts.......... 5 – 25
Enroute Forecasts............................................... 8 – 48
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Load Limits....... 5 – 27
Surface Analysis and Constant Pressure
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Lateral CG........ 5 – 29
Charts........................................................... 8 – 51
Floor Loading Limits............................................ 5 – 30
Reports and Forecasts of Hazardous Weather... 8 – 53
PIREPs................................................................ 8 – 56

Cross References
A: Question Number and Page Number.............. A – 1
B: Airman Knowledge Test Report
Codes and Question Numbers................... B – 1

iv ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Updates and Practice Tests

Free Test Updates for the One-Year Life Cycle of Test Prep Books
The FAA modifies tests as needed throughout the year. ASA keeps abreast of changes to the tests and
posts free Test Updates on the ASA website. Before taking your test, be certain you have the most cur-
rent information by visiting the ASA Test Updates webpage: asa2fly.com/testupdate. Additionally, sign
up for free email notifications, which are sent when new Test Updates are available.

We Invite Your Feedback

After you take your FAA exam, let us know how you did. Were you prepared? Did ASA’s products meet
your needs and exceed your expectations? We want to continue to improve these products to ensure
applicants are prepared and become safe aviators. Send your feedback to: [email protected].

prepware.com
Helping you practice for written exams.
As the experts in FAA Knowledge Exam preparation, we want you to
have the confidence needed before heading to the testing center,
and help eliminate the hassle and expense of retaking exams.

> Realistic Test Simulation > Performance Graphs > Gain Confidence > Succeed
Test questions and time Review how you did, track Go into your exam fully Pass your exam,
allowed replicate the your performance and prepared after practicing achieve your goals,
official FAA exam review explanations for the up to 5 simulated tests and set new ones
questions you missed

Remote Pilot • Sport Pilot • Private Pilot • Instrument Rating • Commercial Pilot • Flight Instructor • Ground Instructor
Fundamentals of Instructing • Flight Engineer • Airline Transport Pilot • Aviation Mechanic General • Airframe • Powerplant
Practice tests are also available as an app! asa2fly.com/apps

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA v

Introduction
Welcome to the Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc., (ASA) Test Prep Series. This series has been helping
pilots prepare for the FAA Knowledge Tests for more than 60 years with great success. We are confident
that with proper use of this book you will score very well on any of the Airline Transport Pilot tests.
Begin your studies with a classroom or home-study ground school course, which will involve reading
a comprehensive textbook. Visit the dedicated Reader Resource webpage for this Test Prep (asa2fly.
com/reader/TPATP) and become familiar with the FAA guidance materials available for this certification
exam. Then use this Test Prep to prepare for your exam: read the question, select your choice for the
correct answer, and then read the explanation. Use the references that conclude each explanation to
identify additional resources for further study of a subject. Upon completion of your studies, take practice
tests at prepware.com.
The questions in this book have been arranged into chapters based on subject matter to promote better
understanding, aid recall, and provide a more efficient study guide. Place emphasis on questions most
likely to be included in your test (identified by the aircraft category above each question). For example,
a pilot preparing for the ATP Multi-engine test would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “ATM”; a
pilot preparing for the ATP Single-engine test would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “ATS”; a
pilot preparing for the ATP Helicopter (135) test would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “RTC”;
and candidates for the Dispatcher certificate would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “ADX.”
Prior to taking an FAA Airman Knowledge Test, all applicants must establish an FAA Tracking Number
(FTN) by creating a profile in the Integrated Airman Certification and Rating Application (IACRA) system
at iacra.faa.gov. Then visit faa.psiexams.com to register for your exam and take FAA-created practice
tests to become familiar with the computer testing platform.
It is important to answer every question assigned on your FAA Knowledge Test. If in their ongoing
review, the FAA decides a question has no correct answer, is no longer applicable, or is otherwise defec-
tive, your answer will be marked correct no matter which one you chose. However, you will not be given
the automatic credit if you have not marked an answer. Unlike some other exams you may have taken,
there is no penalty for guessing in this instance.
The FAA exams are “closed tests” which means the exact database of questions is not available to the
public. The question and answer choices in this book are based on our extensive history and experience
with the FAA testing and airman certification process. You might see similarly worded questions on your
official FAA exam, or answer stems might be rearranged from the order you see in this book. Therefore,
be sure to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer while studying, rather
than memorizing the letter associated with the correct response. You may be asked a question that has
unfamiliar wording; studying and understanding the information in this book and the associated refer-
ences will give you the tools to answer question variations with confidence.

If your study leads you to question an answer The FAA appreciates testing experience feedback.
choice, we recommend you seek the assistance You can contact them at:
of a local instructor. We welcome your questions, Federal Aviation Administration
recommendations, and concerns—send them to: AFS-630, Airman Testing Standards Branch
Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc. PO Box 25082
7005 132nd Place SE Oklahoma City, OK 73125
Newcastle, WA 98059-3153 Email: [email protected]
Voice: 425.235.1500 Fax: 425.235.0128
Email: [email protected] Website: asa2fly.com

vi ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Description of the Tests
The FAA Knowledge Exam is an objective, multiple choice test. Each question can be answered by one
of the three choices. Each test question is independent of the others—a correct response to one question
does not depend on the correct response to another. You must score at least 70 percent to pass the test.
The FAA Knowledge Exams are designed to test your knowledge in many subject areas. If you are
pursuing an airline transport pilot certificate or added rating, you should review the appropriate sections
of 14 CFR Part 61 for the specific knowledge areas on each test. Those taking the ATM or “ATP–Airline
Transport Pilot Multi-engine” exam will be tested on Part 121 as one of the knowledge areas. Those
taking the ATS or “ATP–Airline Transport Pilot Single-engine” exam will be tested on Part 135 as one of
the knowledge areas.
An applicant for an Aircraft Dispatcher Certificate should review the appropriate sections of 14 CFR Part
65 for the specific knowledge areas on the test. The applicant will be tested on Part 121 as one of the
knowledge areas. If Part 135 commuter operators (as defined in DOT Part 298) are required to have
aircraft dispatchers in the future, Part 135 questions will be added to the test. The aircraft dispatcher
applicant is not required to have the flying skills of an airline transport pilot but is expected to have the
same knowledge.
If it’s been more than 24 months since you took the initial ATP FAA Knowledge Exam, we recommend
that you prepare for the Add-On test using the “ATP Single-engine” or “ATP–Helictoper (Part 135)” test.
This will better prepare you for all questions that may be included on your add-on test.
The table below lists the number of questions and the allotted time for each test. Each question in
this book is preceded by a category. Use these categories to study the content that may appear on your
test. Study all the questions first, then refer to the following table, placing emphasis on those questions
most likely to be included on your test (identified by the test prep category above each question number).

Test Test Name Test Prep Number of Min. Allotted

Code Study Questions Age Time (hrs)
ADX Aircraft Dispatcher ALL, ADX 80 21 3.5
ATM ATP Multi-engine Airplane ALL, ATM 125 18 or 21 4.0
ATS ATP Single-engine Airplane ALL, ATS 90 21 3.0
(Part 135)
ATH ATP–Helicopter (Part 135) ALL, RTC 80 21 3.0
ARH ATP–Helicopter–Added Rating ALL, RTC 50 21 2.5
(Part 135)*
ACM ATP Canadian Conversion ME** ALL, ATM 60 23 2.5
ASC ATP Canadian Conversion SE** ALL, ATS 40 23 2.0
ACH ATP Canadian Conversion– ALL, RTC 40 23 2.0
Helicopter**
* This test focuses on U.S. regulations, procedures, and operations.

Note: All applicants transitioning from ATP airplane and/or helicopter need to take the additional knowl-
edge test. For example, an applicant adding a helicopter rating to an existing ATP airplane certificate
will need to take the 50-question add-on test.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA vii

Knowledge Test Registration
The FAA testing provider authorizes hundreds of test center locations that offer a full range of airman
knowledge tests. For information on authorized testing centers and to register for the knowledge test,
visit faa.psiexams.com.
When you contact a knowledge testing center, be prepared to select a test date and make payment.
You may register for test(s) several weeks in advance online or by phone, and you may cancel in accor-
dance with the testing center’s cancellation policy.
Regardless of your registration method, you will need an FAA Tracking Number (FTN) prior to reg-
istering for the FAA Airman Knowledge Test. This FTN will follow you throughout your aviation career.
You will obtain your FTN as part of the test registration process, by creating a profile in the Integrated
Airman Certificate and Rating Application (IACRA) system at iacra.faa.gov/IACRA. This FTN will be
printed on your Airman Knowledge Test Report (AKTR).
The test registration process includes collection of this information: name, FTN, physical address,
date of birth, email address, photo identification, phone number, test authorization (credentials for an
individual, such as a graduation certificate for an authorized ATP certification training program [CTP]),
and previous number of test attempts.

For more information, contact:

PSI Services LLC
844-704-1487 or [email protected]
faa.psiexams.com

Knowledge Test Eligibility

When you take your FAA Knowledge Test, you will be required to show proper identification. The ATP
and dispatcher tests do not require instructor endorsements or other form of written authorization, except
in the case of retesting (see Retesting Procedures).
An applicant taking the ATM test must present a graduation certificate that shows completion of an
ATP Certification Training Program (CTP) described in 14 CFR §61.156. A graduation certificate must
contain the following information in order to be considered valid:
1. The full name, address, and FAA certificate number of the training provider authorized to conduct
the course.
2. The full name, FAA pilot certificate number, and address of the graduate.
3. The following statement: “The applicant named above has successfully completed the airline transport
pilot Certification Training Program as required by §61.156, and therefore has met the prerequisite
required by §61.35(a)(2) for the airline transport pilot airplane knowledge test.”
4. The date of issuance.
5. The signature of the authorized instructor who completed the academic portion of the course.
6. A sequential number on the certificate starting with the first four identifiers of the training provider’s
certificate number.

viii ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Acceptable Materials
The applicant may use test aids and materials within the guidelines listed below during the test, if actual
test questions or answers are not revealed.
Acceptable Materials Unacceptable Materials Notes
Supplement book provided by Written materials that are hand- Testing centers may provide
proctor. written, printed, or electronic. calculators and/or deny the use
of personal calculators.
All models of aviation-oriented calcu- Electronic calculators incorpo- Test proctor may prohibit the
lators or small electronic calculators rating permanent or continuous use of your calculator if he or
that perform only arithmetic functions. type memory circuits without she is unable to determine the
erasure capability. calculator’s erasure capability.
Calculators with simple programma- Magnetic cards, magnetic Printouts of data must be sur-
ble memories, which allow addition tapes, modules, computer rendered at the completion of
to, subtraction from, or retrieval of chips, or any other device upon the test if the calculator incorpo-
one number from the memory; or which pre-written programs or rates this design feature.
simple functions, such as square root information related to the test
and percentages. can be stored and retrieved.
Scales, straight-edges, protractors, Dictionaries. Before, and upon completion of
plotters, navigation computers, blank the test, while in the presence of
log sheets, holding pattern entry aids, the test proctor, actuate the ON/
and electronic or mechanical calcu- OFF switch or RESET button,
lators that are directly related to the and perform any other function
test. that ensures erasure of any data
stored in memory circuits.
Manufacturer’s permanently inscribed Any booklet or manual contain- Test proctor makes the final
instructions on the front and back of ing instructions related to use of determination regarding aids,
such aids, such as formulas, conver- test aids. reference materials, and test
sions, regulations, signals, weather materials.
data, holding pattern diagrams,
frequencies, weight and balance
formulas, and ATC procedures.

Testing Procedures for Applicants Requesting Special

Accommodations
If you are an applicant with a learning or reading disability, you may request approval from the local FAA
office to take an airman knowledge test, using the special accommodations procedures outlined in the
most current version of FAA Order 8080.6 Conduct of Airman Knowledge Tests.
Prior to approval of any option, the FAA Aviation Safety Inspector must advise you of the regulatory
certification requirement of being able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA ix

Test Reports
Your test will be graded immediately upon completion and your score will display on the computer screen.
You will receive your Airman Knowledge Test Report (AKTR), which will state your score.
Visit faa.psiexams.com to request a duplicate or replacement AKTR due to loss or destruction.
Airman Knowledge Test Reports are valid for 24 calendar months preceding the month you com-
plete the practical test. If the AKTR expires before completion of the practical test, you must retake the
knowledge test.
The AKTR lists the Airman Certification Standard (ACS) code (if an Airman Certification Standard is
available for the certificate and rating specific to the test) or Learning Statement Code (LSCs) (if a Practical
Test Standard is in effect for the certificate and rating specific to the test) for questions answered incor-
rectly. The total number of ASCs/LSCs shown on the AKTR is not necessarily an indication of the total
number of questions answered incorrectly. Study these knowledge areas to improve your understanding
of the subject matter. See Cross-Reference B in the back of this book for a listing of ASCs/LSCs and
their associated questions.
Your instructor is required to provide instruction on each of the knowledge areas listed on your AKTR
and to complete an endorsement of this instruction. You must present this to the examiner prior to taking
the practical test. During the oral portion of the practical test, the examiner is required to evaluate the
noted areas of deficiency.

Retesting Procedures
Applicants retesting after failure are required to submit the applicable AKTR indicating failure, along
with an endorsement (on the test report) from an authorized instructor, who gave the applicant the addi-
tional training, certifying the applicant is competent to pass the test. The original failed AKTR and retest
endorsement presented as authorization shall be retained by the proctor and attached to the applicable
sign-in/out log. The latest test taken will reflect the official score.
Applicants retesting in an attempt to achieve a higher passing score may retake the same test for
a better grade after 30 days. The latest test taken will reflect the official score. Applicants are required
to submit the original applicable AKTR indicating previous passing score to the testing center prior to
testing. Testing center personnel must collect and destroy this report prior to issuing the new test report.
Dispatcher (ADX) retests do not require a 30-day waiting period if the applicant presents a signed
statement from an airman holding a certificate and rating sought by the applicant. This statement must
certify that the airman has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed, and
that the airman considers the applicant ready for retesting. However, this test requires a 30-day waiting
period for retesting if the applicant presents a failed test report without a signed statement.

Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct

Computer testing centers must follow strict security procedures to avoid test compromise. These proce-
dures are established by the FAA and are covered in FAA Order 8080.6 Conduct of Airman Knowledge
Tests. The FAA has directed testing centers to terminate a test at any time a test proctor suspects a
cheating incident has occurred. An FAA investigation will then be conducted. If the investigation deter-
mines that cheating or unauthorized conduct has occurred, then any airman certificate or rating that you
hold may be revoked, and you will be prohibited for one year from applying for or taking any test for a
certificate or rating under Part 61.

x ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Test-Taking Tips
Prior to launching the actual test, the test proctor’s testing software will provide you with an opportunity to
practice navigating through the test. This practice (or tutorial) session may include a “sample” question(s).
These sample questions have no relation to the content of the test, but are meant to familiarize you
with the look and feel of the system screens, including selecting an answer, marking a question for later
review, time remaining for the test, and other features of the testing software.
Follow these time-proven tips, which will help you develop a skillful, smooth approach to test-taking:
• Be careful to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer while studying,
rather than memorize the A, B, C answer choice—answer stems may appear in a different order
than you studied and have some wording differences.
• Remember to bring an ATP-CTP graduation certificate (as applicable), photo I.D., the testing fee,
calculator, flight computer (ASA’s E6-B or CX-3 Flight Computer), plotter, magnifying glass, and a
sharp pointer, such as a safety pin.
• Your first action when you sit down should be to write any formulas and information you can remember
from your study on the scratch paper they will provide. Remember, some of the formulas may be on
your E6-B.
• Read each question carefully before looking at the possible answers. You should clearly understand
the problem before attempting to solve it.
• After formulating an answer, determine which answer choice corresponds the closest with your
answer. The answer chosen should completely resolve the problem.
• From the answer choices given, it may appear that there is more than one possible answer. However,
there is only one answer that is correct and complete. The other answers are either incomplete,
erroneous, or represent popular misconceptions.
• Answer each question in accordance with the latest regulations and guidance publications.
• If a certain question is difficult for you, tag it for REVIEW and proceed to the other questions. After
you answer the less difficult questions, return to those which you tagged and answer them. Be sure
to untag these questions once you have answered them. The review marking procedure will be
explained to you prior to starting the test. Although the computer should alert you to unanswered
questions, make sure every question has an answer recorded. This will allow you to use the available
time to your maximum advantage.
• Perform each math calculation twice to confirm your answer. If adding or subtracting a column of
numbers, reverse your direction the second time to reduce the possibility of error.
• When solving a calculation problem, select the answer nearest to your solution.
• Remember that information is provided in the Legends and Figures contained within the Airman
Knowledge Testing Supplement (FAA-CT-8080 document) you’ll be using during the test.
• Remember to answer every question, even the ones with no completely correct answer, to ensure
the FAA gives you credit for a bad question.
• Take your time and be thorough but relaxed. Take a minute off every half-hour or so to relax your
brain and body. Get a drink of water halfway through the test.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA xi

ATP Certificate Eligibility Requirements
If you are pursuing an airline transport or aircraft dispatcher certificate, you should review 14 CFR §61.23
“Medical Certificates: Requirement and Duration,” §61.35 “Knowledge Test: Prerequisites and Passing
Grades,” and Part 61 (ATP or Part 65 (ADX) for certificate requirements.
To be eligible for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate, a person must:
1. Be at least 23 years old (or 21 if meeting §61.160 requirements).
2. Be of good moral character.
3. Read, write, and understand English, and speak it without impediment that would interfere with radio
conversation.
4. Have a current third-class medical certificate.
5. Pass a knowledge examination on the appropriate subjects with a score of at least 70 percent.
6. Pass an oral and flight check on the subjects and maneuvers in the Airline Transport Pilot and Type
Rating Practical Test Standards (#ASA-8081-5).
7. Have a Commercial Pilot Certificate or foreign or military equivalent.
8. For an ATP–Airplane Multi-Engine or an ATP obtained concurrently with an airplane type rating,
receive a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider certifying completion of an ATP
certification training program specified in §61.156 before applying for the knowledge test.
9. For an ATP certificate with an airplane category and class rating, have at least 1,500 hours of total
time as a pilot that includes at least:
a. 500 hours of cross-country flight time.
b. 100 hours of night flight time.
c. 50 hours of flight time in the class of airplane for the rating sought.
d. 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument conditions.
e. 250 hours of PIC time.
10. For a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, have 1,200 hours pilot time including:
a. 500 hours cross-country flight time.
b. 100 hours night time, at least 15 hours in helicopters.
c. 200 hours in helicopters including 75 hours PIC time.
d. 75 hours of actual or simulated instrument time with at least 50 hours in flight and 25 hours PIC
time in helicopters.

xii ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Knowledge Exam References
The FAA references the following documents to write the FAA Knowledge Exam questions. You should
be familiar with all of these as part of your ground school studies, which you should complete before
starting test preparation.

Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators

Aeronautical Chart User’s Guide

FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook

FAA-H-8083-2 Risk Management Handbook
FAA-H-8083-3 Airplane Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-6 Advanced Avionics Handbook
FAA-H-8083-15 Instrument Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-16 Instrument Procedures Handbook
FAA-H-8083-21 Helicopter Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-25 Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

FAA-S-ACS-11 Airline Transport Pilot and Type Rating for Airplane Airman Certification Standards

AC 00-6 Aviation Weather

AC 00-24 Thunderstorms
AC 00-30 Atmospheric Turbulence Avoidance
AC 00-45 Aviation Weather Services
AC 00-54 Pilot Wind Shear Guide
AC 20-117 Hazards Following Ground Deicing & Ground Operations in Conditions Conducive to Aircraft
Icing
AC 91-6 Water, Slush and Snow on the Runway
AC 91-43 Unreliable Airspeed Indication
AC 91-51 Effect of Icing on Aircraft Control and Airplane Deice and Anti-Ice Systems
AC 91-74 Pilot Guide: Flight in Icing Conditions
AC 135-17 Pilot Guide-Small Aircraft Ground Deicing
AC 120-51 Crew Resource Management Training
AC 120-100 Basics of Aviation Fatigue
AC 120-58 Pilot Guide for Large Aircraft Ground Deicing

Chart Supplements U.S.

IFR Enroute High Altitude Chart
IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart
U.S. Terminal Procedures

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

14 CFR Parts 1, 23, 25, 61, 63, 71, 91, 97, 110, 111, 117, 119, 121, 135
49 CFR Parts 172, 175, 830, 1544

Visit asa2fly.com for these and many more titles and pilot supplies for your aviation endeavors.
Visit asa2fly.com/reader/TPATP for resources useful to airline transport pilots and aircraft dispatchers.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA xiii

ASA Test Prep Layout
Sample FAA questions have been sorted into chapters according to subject matter. Within each chap-
ter, similar questions are grouped together following introductory chapter text. Figures referenced in the
chapter text are numbered with the appropriate chapter number, e.g., “Figure 1-1” is Chapter 1’s first
chapter text figure.
Some sample FAA questions refer to Figures or Legends immediately following the question number,
e.g., “8201. (Refer to Figure 14.).” These are FAA Figures and Legends which can be found in the sepa-
rate booklet Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Dispatcher
(CT-8080-7D). This supplement is bundled with this Test Prep and is the exact same material you will
have access to when you take your computerized test. We provide it separately so you can become
accustomed to referring to the FAA Figures and Legends as you would during the test.
Following each sample FAA test question is ASA’s explanation in italics. The last line of the expla-
nation contains a Learning Statement Code (LSC), for those tests referencing an FAA Practical Test
Standard (PTS), or Airman Certification Standards (ACS) code, for those tests with an ACS, as well as
a reference for further study. Some questions include an explanation for the incorrect answers for added
clarity. When you encounter a difficult question, find the LSC or ACS code in Cross-Reference B, and
then look for material relating to the subject description within the given reference(s). Refer to Cross-
Reference B for more information on how to use LSCs or ACS codes for effective studying.
Answers to each question are found at the bottom of each page.

EXAMPLE: Chapter text

Four aerodynamic forces are considered to be basic because they act upon an aircraft during all flight
maneuvers. There is the downward-acting force called WEIGHT which must be overcome by the
upward-acting force called LIFT, and there is the rearward-acting force called DRAG, which must be
overcome by the forward-acting force called THRUST.
Category rating. This question may be
found on tests for these ratings.*
ALL, ATM, ATS, ADX, RTC
8201. (Refer to Figure 14.) The four forces acting on an
See separate book Airman Knowledge
airplane in flight are
Testing Supplement (CT-8080-XX)
A— lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
B— lift, weight, gravity, and thrust. Question and answer choices
C— lift, gravity, power, and friction.

Lift, weight, thrust, and drag are the four basic Explanation
aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft in flight.
(PLT235, AA.III.A.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because the force of gravity is always the same
number and reacts with the airplane’s mass to produce a different
weight for almost every airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect because
weight is the final product of gravity, thrust is the final product of power,
and drag is the final product of friction. Power, gravity, and friction are
only parts of the aerodynamic forces of flight. Code line. FAA LSC and ACS codes in
parentheses, followed by references
for further study.
Incorrect answer explanation. Reasons why
answer choices are incorrect explained here.

* Note: The FAA does not identify which questions are on the different ratings’ tests. Unless the wording of a question is pertinent to only one
rating category, it may be found on any of the tests.
ALL = All operations ATM = Multi-engine operations
ATS = Single-engine operations ADX = Dispatcher RTC = Rotorcraft

xiv ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 1
Regulations
Applicable Regulations 1–3
The ATP Certificate 1–3
Flight Engineer Requirements 1–8
Flight Attendants 1–9
Experience and Training Requirements 1 – 10
Part 135 Flight Crew Requirements 1 – 17
Flight Crew Duty Time Limits 1 – 25
Flight Duty Periods 1 – 26
Dispatching and Flight Release 1 – 35
Fuel Requirements 1 – 44
Carriage of Passengers and Cargo 1 – 47
Part 135 Carriage of Passengers and Cargo Requirements 1 – 52
Emergency Equipment and Operations 1 – 55
Part 135 Oxygen Requirements 1 – 67
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) 1 – 71
Part 135 Regulations 1 – 73
Helicopter Regulations 1 – 89

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1–1

Chapter 1 Regulations

1–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Applicable Regulations
Although “FAR” is used as the acronym for “Federal Aviation Regulations,” and found throughout the
regulations themselves and hundreds of other publications, the FAA is now actively discouraging its use.
“FAR” also means “Federal Acquisition Regulations.” To eliminate any possible confusion, the FAA is
now citing the federal aviation regulations with reference to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
For example, “FAR Part 91.3” is now referenced as “14 CFR Part 91 Section 3.” The regulations change
frequently; answer all questions in compliance with the most current regulations.
Three different Federal Aviation Regulation Parts can apply to operations of aircraft covered by this
chapter: Parts 91, 121, and 135. Part 91 encompasses the general operation and flight rules for all aircraft
operating within the United States. Often the rules of Part 121 or 135 supplement or even supersede
Part 91. When an airplane is not operated for compensation, only the Part 91 rules apply. For the test,
assume Part 121 or 135 rules apply unless the question specifically states otherwise.
Part 121 applies to air carriers (airlines) engaged in interstate or overseas air transportation. Carriers
which operate under Part 121 engage in common carriage. This means that they offer their services
to the public and receive compensation for those services.
Part 121 operators are subdivided into three categories. Carriers authorized to conduct scheduled
operations within the 48 contiguous states are domestic air carriers. Flag air carriers conduct scheduled
operations inside and outside the 48 contiguous states. A supplemental carrier conducts its opera-
tions anywhere that its operations specifications permit but only on a nonscheduled basis. There is a
fourth category, commercial operators of large aircraft, but they must comply with the rules covering
supplemental carriers and the distinction is unimportant to this discussion.
Part 135 applies to air taxi operators. These operators are subdivided into two categories, commuter
and on-demand operations.
Other parts of the regulations apply as well. Part 61 governs certification of pilots and flight instruc-
tors. Part 67 covers the issuing and standards for medical certificates. Part 1 contains definitions and
abbreviations.

The ATP Certificate

All required flight crew of an air carrier flight must hold Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certificates with the
appropriate type rating.
The pilot-in-command of a large aircraft (gross weight over 12,500 pounds) or of a turbojet powered
airplane must have a type rating from that aircraft issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant who successfully completes an ATP check-
ride will be included on the ATP Certificate with the privileges and limitations of the ATP Certificate,
provided the applicant passes the checkride in the same category and class of aircraft for which the
applicant holds the type rating(s). However, if a type rating for that category and class of aircraft on the
superseded pilot certificate is limited to VFR, that limitation will be carried forward to the person’s ATP
Certificate level.
An ATP certificate holder may give instruction in “air transportation service” in aircraft for which he/
she holds category, class and type ratings as an ATP. An ATP may not instruct more than 8 hours a day
and not more than 36 hours in any 7-day period.
If a person’s pilot or medical certificate is lost or destroyed he/she can request the FAA to send a FAX
confirming that they were issued. This FAX can be used as a temporary replacement for the certificates
for up to 60 days.
(continued)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1–3

Chapter 1 Regulations

If a pilot certificate holder is convicted of driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs, the pilot
must report that conviction to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division within 60 days. Failure to do so
is grounds for suspending or revoking any pilot or flight instructor certificates held by that person.
A crewmember is a person assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight. This includes pilots, flight
engineers, navigators, flight attendants or anyone else assigned to duty in the airplane. A flight crew-
member is a pilot, flight engineer or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight.
No one may serve as a pilot on an air carrier after that person has reached his/her 65th birthday.
Note that this rule applies to any pilot position in the aircraft, but it does not apply to other flight crew
positions such as flight engineer or navigator. This is known as the “Age 65 Rule.”
To exercise ATP privileges (such as pilot-in-command of an air carrier flight), a pilot must hold a
first-class medical certificate issued within the preceding (6 or 12) calendar months—depending on
whether the applicant is over or under 40 years of age. To exercise commercial pilot privileges (e.g. flying
a parachute jump operation) a pilot must hold either a first- or second-class medical certificate within the
preceding (6 or 12) calendar months. For example, a first-class certificate issued in February to a pilot
over 40 years of age would be good anytime in February for ATP privileges through August 31 and then
good through the last day of February the next year for commercial pilot privileges.
A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires the applicant hold at least a current third-class
med­ical certificate, if a medical certificate is required. If the practical test is scheduled in an aircraft, the
applicant is required to have the third-class medical certificate. The applicant is not required to hold a
medical certificate when taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or authorization conducted in a
flight simulator or flight training device.

ALL ALL
9350. Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot- 9350-1. According to 14 CFR Part 121, what require-
in-command required to hold a type rating? ments must the second-in-command possess?
A— When operating an aircraft that is certificated for A— ATP certificate with appropriate type rating.
more than one pilot. B— ATP certificate with appropriate second-in-
B— When operating an aircraft having a gross weight command type rating.
of more than 12,500 pounds. C— ATP certificate and Third Class Medical
C— When operating a multiengine aircraft having a Certificate.
gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.
No certificate holder may use nor may any pilot act
A person must hold a type rating to act as pilot-in- as second-in-command (SIC) unless the pilot holds
command of a large aircraft (over 12,500 pounds gross an airline transport pilot certificate and an appropriate
takeoff weight), or of a turbojet-powered airplane. aircraft type rating for the aircraft being flown. A second-
(PLT443, AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §61.31 in-command type rating obtained under 61.55 does not
Answer (A) is incorrect because an aircraft requiring more than one satisfy these requirements. (PLT450, AA.I.G.K4) — 14
pilot does not constitute the need for a type rating. Answer (C) is CFR §121.436
incorrect because it does not matter if the aircraft is single-engine or
multi-engine, and the aircraft must weigh over 12,500 lbs., not 6,000.

Answers
9350 [B] 9350-1 [A]

1–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL A Category II or Category III pilot authorization is issued

9328. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 by a letter of authorization as part of an applicant’s
and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the instrument rating or ATP certificate. Upon original issue,
Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges the authorization contains the following limitations: for
may be exercised regarding these airplanes? Category II operations, the limitation is 1,600 feet RVR
A— Commercial – B-737; ATP – B-727 and B-747. and a 150-foot decision height. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K1) —
B— ATP – B-747; Commercial – B-727 and B-737. 14 CFR §61.13
C— ATP – B-747, B-727, and B-737.

Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant ALL

who successfully completes an ATP checkride will be 9329-2. The lowest authorized ILS minimums associ-
included on the ATP Certificate with the privileges and ated with CAT II approaches are
limitations of the ATP Certificate, provided the applicant A— Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway
passes the checkride in the same category and class of Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown
aircraft for which the applicant holds the type rating(s). zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 feet).
However, if a type rating for that category and class B— DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
of aircraft on the superseded pilot certificate is limited C— No DH or DH below 50 feet and RVR less than
to VFR, that limitation shall be carried forward to the 700 feet but not less than 150 feet.
person’s ATP Certificate level. (PLT443, AA.I.G.K1)—14
CFR §61.157 Category I (CAT I) operation is a precision instrument
approach and landing with a decision altitude that is not
lower than 200 feet (60 meters) above the threshold and
ALL with either a visibility of not less than 1/2 statute mile
9329. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type rat- (800 meters), or a runway visual range of not less than
ings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport 1,800 feet (550 meters). Category II (CAT II) operation
Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may is a precision instrument approach and landing with a
be exercised? decision height lower than 200 feet (60 meters), but not
A— ATP – B-727 and DC-3; Commercial – DC-9. lower than 100 feet (30 meters), and with a runway visual
B— ATP – B-727 only; Commercial – DC-9 and DC 3. range of not less than 1,200 feet (350 meters). Category
C— ATP – B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. III (CAT III) operation is a precision instrument approach
and landing with a decision height lower than 100 feet
Any type rating(s) on the pilot certificate of an applicant (30 meters) or no DH, and with a runway visual range
who successfully completes an ATP checkride will be less than 1200 feet (350 meters). (PLT442, AA.I.C.K5)
included on the ATP Certificate with the privileges and — FAA-H-8083-16
limitations of the ATP Certificate, provided the applicant
passes the checkride in the same category and class of
aircraft for which the applicant holds the type rating(s). ALL
However, if a type rating for that category and class 9330. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the
of aircraft on the superseded pilot certificate is limited maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that
to VFR, that limitation shall be carried forward to the an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air
person’s ATP Certificate level. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K1) — transportation service?
14 CFR §61.157 A— 6 hours.
B— 8 hours.
C— 10 hours.
ALL
9329-1. The lowest CAT II minimums are An airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in
A— DH 100 and RVR 1200. air transportation service in aircraft of the category,
B— DH 150 and RVR 1600. class and type for which he/she is rated. However, the
C— DH 50 and RVR 1200. ATP may not instruct for more than 8 hours in one day
nor more than 36 hours in any 7-day period. (PLT460,
AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §61.167

Answers
9328 [C] 9329 [C] 9329-1 [B] 9329-2 [B] 9330 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1–5

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL “Crewmember” means a person assigned to perform

9331. The flight instruction of other pilots in air transpor- duty in an aircraft during flight time. (PLT395, AA.I.G.K4)
tation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to — 14 CFR §1.1
A— 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. Answer (A) is incorrect because “crewmember” pertains to any-
B— 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. one assigned duty in the aircraft during flight. Answer (C) is also
incorrect because “crewmember” also includes the pilot and flight
C— 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. engineer.

The ATP may not instruct for more than 8 hours in one
day nor more than 36 hours in any 7-day period. (PLT460, ATM, ATS, RTC
AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §61.167 9349. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is sched-
uled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the
ALL
applicant is
9351. When a facsimile replacement is received for an
airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum time is A— required to have a least a current third-class
this document valid? medical certificate.
B— required to have a current first-class medical
A— 30 days. certificate.
B— 60 days. C— not required to hold a medical certificate.
C— 90 days.
A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that
A person who has lost an Airman’s Certificate or a Medi- the applicant hold at least a current third-class medical
cal Certificate, or both, may obtain a FAX from the FAA certificate, if a medical certificate is required. In this
confirming that it was issued. The FAX may be carried case, since part of the practical test is scheduled in an
as temporary certificate(s) for a period not to exceed 60 aircraft, the applicant is required to have at least a cur-
days. (PLT447, AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §61.29 rent third-class medical certificate. (PLT427, AA.I.G.K1)
— 14 CFR §61.39
ALL
9332. How soon after the conviction for driving while ATM, ATS, RTC
intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to 9335. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a
the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate,
A— No later than 30 working days after the motor in an approved simulator, is
vehicle action. A— required to have a first-class medical certificate.
B— No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle B— required to have a second-class medical
action. certificate.
C— Required to be reported upon renewal of medical C— not required to have a medical certificate.
certificate.
A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that
Each person holding a certificate issued under this part the applicant hold at least a current third-class medi-
shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action cal certificate, if a medical certificate is required. The
to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division, no later applicant is not required to hold a medical certificate
than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. (PLT463, when taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or
AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §61.15 authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight
training device. In this case, since the practical test is
ALL
scheduled in an approved flight simulator, the applicant
9325. Which is a definition of the term “crewmember”?
is not required to have a medical certificate. (PLT427,
AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §§61.39, 61.23
A— Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator
assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B— A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft
during flight time.
C— Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during
flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

Answers
9331 [C] 9351 [B] 9332 [B] 9325 [B] 9349 [A] 9335 [C]

1–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

9333. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test 9340. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical
for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft,
flight simulator, is needs
A— required to have at least a current third-class A— a first-class medical certificate.
medical certificate. B— at least a current third-class medical certificate.
B— not required to have a medical certificate. C— a second-class medical certificate.
C— required to have a first-class medical certificate.
A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that
A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that the applicant hold at least a current third-class medi-
the applicant hold at least a current third-class medi- cal certificate, if a medical certificate is required. In
cal certificate, if a medical certificate is required. The this case, since the practical test is scheduled in an
applicant is not required to hold a medical certificate aircraft, the applicant is required to have at least a cur-
when taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or rent third-class medical certificate. (PLT427, AA.I.G.K1)
authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight — 14 CFR §61.39
training device. In this case, since the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight simulator, the applicant
is not required to have a medical certificate. (PLT427, ATM, ADX
AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §61.39 and §61.23 8191. The “age 65 rule” of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to
A— any required pilot crewmember.
B— any flight crewmember.
ATM, ATS, RTC
C— the pilot-in-command only.
9343. When a type rating is to be added to an airline
transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is No person may serve as a pilot on an airplane engaged
scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or in operations under 14 CFR Part 121 if that person has
approved flight simulator, the applicant is reached his/her 65th birthday. (PLT443, AA.I.G.K4) —
A— required to have at least a third-class medical 14 CFR §121.383
certificate. Answer (B) is incorrect because the “age 65” rule excludes flight
B— is not required to have a medical certificate. engineers and navigators. Answer (C) is incorrect because the “age
65” rule applies to every pilot crewmember.
C— required to have a first-class medical certificate.

A prerequisite for taking a practical test requires that

the applicant hold at least a current third-class medi-
cal certificate, if a medical certificate is required. The
applicant is not required to hold a medical certificate
when taking a test or check for a certificate, rating, or
authorization conducted in a flight simulator or flight
training device. In this case, since the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or
approved flight simulator, the applicant is not required
to have a medical certificate. (PLT427, AA.I.G.K1) — 14
CFR §§61.39, 61.23

Answers
9333 [B] 9343 [B] 9340 [B] 8191 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1–7

Chapter 1 Regulations

Flight Engineer Requirements

Many air carrier aircraft have a flight engineer as a required flight crewmember. All older airplanes that
have a maximum takeoff weight of more than 80,000 pounds must have a flight engineer. On aircraft
types certified after 1963, the aircraft’s “type certificate” states whether or not a flight engineer is required.
On each flight that requires a flight engineer, at least one other member of the flight crew must be quali-
fied to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer’s duties if he/she becomes ill or incapacitated.
Either pilot can fulfill the function and they need not hold a Flight Engineer Certificate to be “qualified.”

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8189. Under which condition is a flight engineer required 8212. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for
as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations? operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engi-
A— If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, neer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,
with revenue cargo aboard. A— at least one other flight crewmember must be
B— If the airplane is powered by more than two qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.
turbine engines. B— one crewmember must be qualified to perform
C— If required by the airplane’s type certificate. the duties of the flight engineer.
C— one pilot must be qualified and have a flight
No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer
a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, duties.
having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more
than 80,000 pounds without a flight crewmember holding On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one
a current Flight Engineer Certificate. For each airplane flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must
type certificated after January 1, 1964, the requirement be qualified to provide emergency performance of the
for a flight engineer is determined under the type cer- flight engineer’s functions for the safe completion of the
tification requirements of 14 CFR §25.1523. (PLT409, flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.387 incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a Flight Engineer’s
Answer (A) is incorrect because the type certificate is the determin- Certificate to perform the flight engineer’s functions in
ing factor for a flight engineer. Answer (B) is incorrect because the such a situation. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.385
type certificate is the determining factor for a flight engineer.

ATM, ADX
ATM, ADX 8213. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember
8190. When the need for a flight engineer is determined on a flight, it is necessary for
by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires
a flight engineer? A— one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and
be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties
A— 80,000 pounds. in an emergency.
B— More than 80,000 pounds. B— the flight engineer to be properly certificated
C— 300,000 pounds. and qualified, but also at least one other flight
crewmember must be qualified and certified to
No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which perform flight engineer duties.
a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, C— at least one other flight crewmember to be
having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a
than 80,000 pounds without a flight crewmember certificate is not required.
holding a current Flight Engineer Certificate. (PLT440,
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.387 On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one
flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must
be qualified to provide emergency performance of the
flight engineer’s functions for the safe completion of the
flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise
incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a Flight Engineer’s
Certificate to perform the flight engineer’s functions in
such a situation. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.385
Answers
8189 [C] 8190 [B] 8212 [A] 8213 [C]

1–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one

8188. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must
flight, who may perform the flight engineer’s duties? be qualified to provide emergency performance of the
A— The second in command only. flight engineer’s functions for the safe completion of the
B— Any flight crewmember, if qualified. flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise
C— Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a Flight Engineer’s
certificate. Certificate to perform the flight engineer’s functions
in such a situation. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR
§121.385

Flight Attendants
One or more flight attendants are required on each passenger carrying airplane operating under Part
121 that has more than nine passenger seats. The number of flight attendants is determined by the
number of installed passenger seats—not by the actual number of passengers on board.
One flight attendant is required on airplanes that can seat from 10 through 50 passengers. Two
flight attendants are required on airplanes having a seating capacity from 51 through 100 seats. After
that, an additional flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats above 100. For
example, three flight attendants are required on airplanes having from 101 through 150 seats, and four
flight attendants must be on aircraft with 151 through 200 seats.

ATM, ADX For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than

8192. An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and 100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide
eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
A— Four. seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The
B— Three. number of flight attendants is determined by the number
C— Two. of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number
of passengers on board). For an airplane with a seat-
For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than ing capacity of 187 passengers, four flight attendants
100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide are required. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §121.391
at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The ATM, ADX
number of flight attendants is determined by the number 8201. What is the minimum number of flight attendants
of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number required on an airplane having a passenger seating
of passengers on board). For an airplane with a seat- capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?
ing capacity of 149 passengers, three flight attendants A— Five.
are required. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §121.391 B— Four.
C— Three.

ATM, ADX For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than

8193. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capac- 100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide
ity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
minimum number of flight attendants required? attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
A— Five. seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The
B— Four. number of flight attendants is determined by the number
C— Three. of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number
of passengers on board). For an airplane with a seat-
ing capacity of 188 passengers, four flight attendants
are required. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §121.391

Answers
8188 [B] 8192 [B] 8193 [B] 8201 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1–9

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX For airplanes having a seating capacity of more than

8202. What is the minimum number of flight attendants 100 passengers, each certificate holder shall provide
required on an airplane with a passenger seating capac- at least two flight attendants plus one additional flight
ity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? attendant for a unit (or partial unit) of 50 passenger
A— Seven. seats above a seating capacity of 100 passengers. The
B— Six. number of flight attendants is determined by the number
C— Five. of installed passenger seats (not by the actual number
of passengers on board). For an airplane with a seating
capacity of 333 passengers, seven flight attendants
are required. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §121.391

Experience and Training Requirements

For these definitions of training, aircraft are divided into two “groups.” Group I aircraft are propeller driven.
Turbojet aircraft are Group II. Initial training is the training required for crewmembers and dispatchers
who have not qualified and served in the same capacity (i.e., flight engineer, co-pilot, pilot-in-command)
on another aircraft of the same group. Transition training is the training required for crewmembers or
dispatchers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another aircraft of the same group.
Upgrade training is the training required for crewmembers who have qualified and served as second-in-
command or flight engineer on a particular airplane type (e.g., Boeing 727) before they can serve as pilot-
in-command or second-in-command, respectively, on that airplane. Differences training is the training
required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have qualified and served on a particular type of airplane
before they can serve in the same capacity on a variation of that airplane. For example, a crewmember
who is qualified on a Boeing 727-100 would need differences training to serve on a Boeing 727-200.
The pilot-in-command (PIC) of an air carrier flight must have had a proficiency check within the pre-
ceding 12 calendar months. In addition, within the preceding 6 calendar months the pilot-in-command
must have either passed a proficiency check or completed an approved simulator training course. Pilots
other than the PIC must have either passed a proficiency check or completed “line oriented” simulator
training within the last 24 calendar months. In addition, the co-pilot must have had a proficiency check
or any other kind of simulator training within the last 12 calendar months.
The pilot-in-command of an air carrier flight must have completed a line check in one of the aircraft
types he/she is qualified to fly within the preceding 12 calendar months. If the PIC is qualified in more
than one type aircraft, a line check in any of them satisfies this requirement.
Recurrent training and checkrides are always due during a calendar month rather than by a certain
date. In addition, if recurrent training or a check is taken during, before, or after the month, it is consid-
ered to have been taken during the month it was due. For example, if a crewmember had a check due in
December, he/she could take it November, December or January and it would be considered as having
been done in December. Also, January would be considered a “grace month” in that the crewmember
could fly, even though he/she had technically gone beyond the due date of the check.
Every pilot on an air carrier flight must have made at least 3 takeoffs and landings in the type of
airplane flown within the preceding 90 days. If a pilot doesn’t meet these requirements, he/she must
re-establish the recency of experience by making 3 takeoffs and 3 landings under the supervision of a
check airman. These takeoffs and landings must meet the following:
• At least 1 takeoff must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.

Answers
8202 [A]

1 – 10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

• At least 1 landing must be made from an ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for
the certificate holder.
• At least 1 landing must be made to a full stop.

Air Carriers’ Operations Specifications are usually written so that the instrument experience require-
ments of 14 CFR Part 61 do not apply to their pilots. This test asks four questions on the Part 61 require-
ments: 9333, 9339, 9342, 9344.
The pilot-in-command of an airplane who has less than one hundred hours in the aircraft type has
higher than published landing minimums at the destination airport. Such a pilot-in-command must add
100 feet to the published DH or MDA and add 1/2-mile (or 2,400 feet RVR) to the required visibility. If
a flight diverts to an alternate airport, the pilot-in-command may use the published minimums for the
approach there, but in no event may the landing minimums be less than 300 and 1. If a pilot has at least
100 hours PIC in another aircraft under Part 121 operations, he/she may reduce the current restriction
by 1 hour for each landing, up to 50 hours maximum.
A Category II Instrument Approach is an ILS approach with a published minimum visibility of less
than 1,800 RVR but equal to or greater than 1,200 RVR. Most CAT II approaches have published deci-
sion heights of 150 and 100 feet HAT. To fly a published CAT II approach, the aircraft must meet certain
equipment and maintenance requirements and the pilots must be trained and qualified. Part 61 sets
forth requirements for pilot qualification and an Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications may modify or
replace those requirements. The test limits its questions to Part 61 rules. To qualify for CAT II approach
authorization, a pilot must take a CAT II checkride. To be eligible for the checkride he/she must meet
all recent experience requirements of Part 61 and have certain recent experience with regard to ILS
approaches. Within the previous 6 months the pilot must have made at least 6 ILS approaches down
to minimums (CAT I minimums are OK). At least 3 of the approaches must have been hand flown. The
other 3 may have been flown using an approach coupler. When issued an original CAT II certification,
a pilot is restricted to a DH of 150 feet and a minimum RVR of 1,600. This restriction is lifted when the
pilot logs 3 CAT II approaches to the 150-foot DH within the previous 6 months.
An aircraft dispatcher must have spent at least five hours observing flight deck operations within the
preceding 12 calendar months. The dispatcher must have done this for at least one of the types for each
group he/she is to dispatch.

ATM, ATS, RTC No pilot may act as pilot-in-command under IFR unless
9339. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, suc- he/she has, within the preceding 6 calendar months
cessfully completes the instrument competency check in the aircraft category for the instrument privileges
specified in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot sought, logged at least 6 instrument approaches,
remain current if no further IFR flights are made? performed holding procedures, and intercepted and
A— 12 months. tracked courses through the use of navigation systems,
B— 90 days. or passed an instrument competency check in the
C— 6 months. category of aircraft involved. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K1) — 14
CFR §61.57
Answer (A) is incorrect because, upon completion of an instrument
competency check, a pilot will remain current for 6 months. Answer
(B) is incorrect because ninety days defines the 3 takeoffs and land-
ings experience required to carry passengers.

Answers
9339 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 11

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ATS, RTC ATP certificate holders may use the 1,000 hours required
9344. To satisfy the minimum required instrument to serve as PIC in Part 121 operations, as SIC in Part
experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish 121 operations, or PIC in Part 91 and 135 operations.
during the past 6 months at least (PLT450, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.436
A— six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting
and tracking courses through the use of
ALL
navigation systems in an approved flight training
9342-2. The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted
device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to
privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft
be flown.
type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as
B— six instrument approaches, three of which must
be in the same category and class of aircraft to A— a PIC for a Part 121 supplemental air carrier.
be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking B— a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as
courses in any aircraft. a Part 121 SIC.
C— six instrument approaches and 6 hours of C— an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.
instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
The holder of an ATP-Restricted certificate may serve
No pilot may act as pilot-in-command under IFR unless as second-in-command (SIC) for Part 121 operations
he/she has, within the preceding 6 calendar months in requiring less than three pilots. (PLT450, AA.I.G.K4) —
the aircraft category for the instrument approaches, 14 CFR §61.167
performed holding procedures, and intercepted and
tracked courses through the use of navigation systems.
(PLT442, AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR §61.57 ATM, ATS, RTC
9334. What recent experience is required to be eligible
for the practical test for the original issue of a Category
ALL II authorization?
9342. What instrument flight time may be logged by a A— Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches
second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? flown manually to the Category I DH.
A— All of the time the second-in-command is B— Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS
controlling the airplane solely by reference to approaches flown by use of an approach coupler
flight instruments. to the Category I or Category II DH.
B— One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C— Within the previous 6 months, six ILS
C— One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR approaches, three of which may be flown to the
conditions. Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

A pilot may log as instrument flight time only that time To be eligible for Category II authorization, a pilot must
during which he/she operates the aircraft solely by have made at least 6 ILS approaches since the begin-
reference to the instruments, under actual or simulated ning of the 6th month before the test. These approaches
instrument flight conditions. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K1) — 14 must be under actual or simulated instrument flight
CFR §61.51 conditions down to the minimum landing altitude for the
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because only when the pilot is fly- ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the flight test is
ing in actual or simulated instrument flying conditions and is the sole to be conducted. However, the approaches need not be
manipulator of the controls may he/she log instrument flight time. conducted down to the decision heights authorized for
Category II operations. At least 3 of these approaches
must have been conducted manually, without the use
ALL
of an approach coupler. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K1) — 14 CFR
9342-1. An example of air carrier experience a pilot
§61.67
may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as
Answer (A) is incorrect because only 3 of the approaches must be
PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC flown manually to Category I DH. Answer (B) is incorrect because
A— in Part 121 operations. the 6 ILS approaches must be flown within the preceding 6 calendar
months and 3 of the approaches must be flown without an approach
B— in Part 91, subpart K operations. coupler.
C— in Part 135 operations.

Answers
9344 [A] 9342 [A] 9342-1 [A] 9342-2 [C] 9334 [C]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ATS, RTC ALL

9345. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal 9347. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when origi-
of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument nally issued, is normally limited to
approach experience is required? A— Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR
A— Within the previous 6 months, six ILS and a 150-foot DH.
approaches, three of which may be flown to the B— pilots who have completed an FAA-approved
Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Category II training program.
B— Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches C— Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR
flown by use of an approach coupler to the and a 100-foot DH.
Category I DH.
C— Within the previous 12 calendar months, three Upon original issue, a Category II authorization contains
ILS approaches flown by use of an approach a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
coupler to the Category II DH. and a 150-foot decision height. This limitation is removed
when the holder shows that since the beginning of the
To be eligible for Category II authorization, a pilot must 6th preceding month he/she has made 3 Category II
have made at least 6 ILS approaches since the begin- ILS approaches to a landing under actual or simulated
ning of the 6th month before the test. These approaches instrument conditions with a 150-foot decision height.
must be under actual or simulated instrument flight (PLT407, AA.VI.E.K1) — 14 CFR §61.13
conditions down to the minimum landing altitude for the Answer (B) is incorrect because all pilots must undergo FAA-
ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the flight test approved training for a Category II authorization. The initial limitation
is to be conducted. However, the approaches need not is to RVR and DH for 6 months. Answer (C) is incorrect because
a 1,200 RVR and a 100-foot DH are the Category II minimums
be conducted down to the decision heights authorized after the initial limitation is removed by the pilot completing 3 ILS
for Category II operations. At least 3 of these appro­ approaches to a 150-foot DH in the preceding 6 months.
aches must have been conducted manually, without
the use of an approach coupler. (PLT442, AA.VI.E.K1)
— 14 CFR §61.67 ALL
Answer (B) is incorrect because only 3 of the 6 approaches may be 9348. What is the lowest decision height for which a
flown using an approach coupler. Answer (C) is incorrect because Category II applicant can be certified during the original
the requirement is for a total of 6 approaches, only 3 of which may issuance of the authorization?
be flown by the use of an approach coupler. The approaches are not
required to be flown down to Category II DH. Also, they must have A— 100 feet AGL.
been flown within the preceding 6 calendar months. B— 150 feet AGL.
C— 200 feet AGL.
ATM, ATS, RTC Upon original issue, a Category II authorization contains
9346. When may a Category II ILS limitation be a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
removed? and a 150-foot decision height. (PLT420, AA.VI.E.K1)
A— When three Cat II ILS approaches have been — 14 CFR §61.13
completed to a 150-foot decision height and Answer (A) is incorrect because a 100-foot DH is allowed only
landing. after completion of 3 Category II ILS approaches to a 150-foot DH.
Answer (C) is incorrect because 200 feet is the standard Category I
B— When six ILS approaches to Category II ILS DH.
minimums and landing have been completed in
the past 6 months.
C— 120 days after issue or renewal.

Upon original issue, a Category II authorization contains

a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
and a 150-foot decision height. This limitation is removed
when the holder shows that since the beginning of the
6th preceding month he/she has made 3 Category II
ILS approaches to a landing under actual or simulated
instrument conditions with a 150-foot decision height.
(PLT407, AA.VI.E.K1) — 14 CFR §61.13

Answers
9345 [A] 9346 [A] 9347 [A] 9348 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 13

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX Transition training is the training required for crew­

8215. The training required by flight crewmembers who members and dispatchers who have qualified and
have not qualified and served in the same capacity served in the same capacity on another airplane of the
on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet same group. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.400
powered) is Answer (A) is incorrect because difference training is required of a
A— upgrade training. crewmember who is qualified on a particular type of airplane prior
to becoming qualified in a variation of that same type. Answer (C)
B— transition training. is incorrect because upgrade training is required of a crewmember
C— initial training. who is qualified in a particular type of airplane and then desires
to advance to the next higher position in that airplane, e.g., from
Initial training is the training required for crewmembers copilot to pilot.
and dispatchers who have not qualified and served in the
same capacity on another airplane of the same group.
ATM, ADX
(PLT407, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.400
8205. A pilot-in-command must complete a proficiency
Answer (A) is incorrect because upgrade training is required of
a flight engineer or second-in-command when he/she trains for
check or simulator training within the preceding
the next higher position in a particular airplane type. Answer (B) A— 6 calendar months.
is incorrect because transition training is the training required for
crewmembers and dispatchers who have qualified and served in the
B— 12 calendar months.
same capacity on another airplane of the same group. C— 24 calendar months.

For a person to serve as pilot-in-command he/she

ATM, ADX must have completed a proficiency check within the
8216. A crewmember who has served as second-in- preceding 12 calendar months and, in addition, within
command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), the preceding 6 calendar months, either a proficiency
may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which check or an approved simulator training course. (PLT407,
training program? AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.441
A— Upgrade training. Answer (B) is incorrect because a proficiency check is mandatory
within the preceding 12 months. Additionally, a proficiency check or
B— Recurrent training. simulator training is required within the preceding 6 months. Answer
C— Initial training. (C) is incorrect because a 24-month time frame applies to pilots
other than the pilot-in-command.
Upgrade training is the training required for crewmem-
bers who have qualified and served as second-in-
command or flight engineer on a particular airplane ATM
type, before they serve as pilot-in-command or second- 8207. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot-in-
in-command respectively, on that airplane. (PLT407, command, must have received a proficiency check or
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.400 line-oriented simulator training within the preceding
Answer (B) is incorrect because recurrent training is a periodic A— 6 calendar months.
requirement of crewmembers who are qualified in their positions. B— 12 calendar months.
Answer (C) is incorrect because initial training is the first training
received for crewmembers who have not previously qualified and
C— 24 calendar months.
served in the same airplane group (e.g., turboprop or turbojet).
Pilots other than the pilot-in-command must have
completed either a proficiency check or a line-oriented
ATM, ADX simulator training course within the preceding 24 calen-
8217. The training required for crewmembers or dis- dar months. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.441
patchers who have been qualified and served in the Answer (A) is incorrect because 6 months is the requirement for
same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is pilot-in-command to complete a proficiency check or simulator
training. Answer (B) is incorrect because 12 months is the require-
A— difference training. ment for pilots other than pilot-in-command to receive a proficiency
B— transition training. check or “any other kind of simulation training” (not necessarily
line-oriented simulator training).
C— upgrade training.

Answers
8215 [C] 8216 [A] 8217 [B] 8205 [A] 8207 [C]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX When a pilot has not made 3 takeoffs and landings within
8210. What are the line check requirements for the the preceding 90 days, the pilot must make at least 3
pilot-in-command for a domestic air carrier? takeoffs and landings in the type of airplane in which
A— The line check is required every 12 calendar that person is to serve or in an advanced simulator.
months in one of the types of airplanes to be These takeoffs and landings must include:
flown. 1. At least 1 takeoff with a simulated failure of the most
B— The line check is required only when the pilot is critical powerplant;
scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.
2. At least 1 landing from an ILS approach to the lowest
C— The line check is required every 12 months in
ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder;
each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
and
No certificate holder may use any person nor may any 3. At least 1 landing to a full stop.
person serve as pilot-in-command of an airplane unless, (PLT442, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.439
within the preceding 12 calendar months that person Answer (A) is incorrect because at least 1 takeoff is required with
has passed a line check in which he/she satisfactorily a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant. Answer (C) is
performs the duties and responsibilities of a pilot-in- in­correct because only 1 landing to a complete stop is required.
command in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.
(PLT442, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.440
ATM
8209. What is one of the requirements that must be met
ATM, ADX by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?
8214. If a flight crewmember completes a required A— At least one landing must be made from a circling
annual flight check in December 2010 and the required approach.
annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter B— At least one full stop landing must be made.
check is considered to have been taken in C— At least one precision approach must be made to
A— November 2010. the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate
B— December 2011. holder.
C— January 2011.
When a pilot has not made 3 takeoffs and landings
Whenever a crewmember or aircraft dispatcher who is within the preceding 90 days, the pilot must make at
required to take recurrent training, a flight check, or a least 3 takeoffs and landings in the type of airplane in
competency check, takes the check or completes the which that pilot is to serve, or in an advanced simulator.
training in the calendar month before or after the month These takeoffs and landings must include:
in which that training or check is required, he/she is 1. At least 1 takeoff with a simulated failure of the most
considered to have taken or completed it in the calendar critical powerplant;
month in which it was required. (PLT449, AA.I.G.K4) —
14 CFR §121.401 2. At least 1 landing from an ILS approach to the lowest
ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder;
and
ATM 3. At least 1 landing to a full stop.
8208. Which is one of the requirements that must be met
by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing (PLT442, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.439
recency of experience? Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the only instrument
approach required is an ILS approach to the lowest minimums
A— At least one landing must be made with a authorized for the certificate holder.
simulated failure of the most critical engine.
B— At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS
minimums authorized for the certificate holder
and a landing from that approach.
C— At least three landings must be made to a
complete stop.

Answers
8210 [A] 8214 [B] 8208 [B] 8209 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 15

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX If the pilot-in-command of an airplane has not served

8289. When a pilot’s flight time consists of 80 hours’ 100 hours as pilot-in-command in operations under 14
pilot-in-command in a particular type airplane, how does CFR Part 121 in the type of airplane he/she is operating,
this affect the minimums for the destination airport? the MDA or DH and visibility landing minimums in the
A— Has no effect on destination but alternate certificate holder’s operations specifications for regular,
minimums are no less than 300 and 1. provisional, or refueling airports are increased by 100
B— Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. feet and 1/2 mile (or the RVR equivalent). In addition,
C— Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. CAT II minimums and the sliding scale do not apply.
Upon original issue, a Category II authorization contains
If the pilot-in-command has not served 100 hours as a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 feet RVR
pilot-in-command in operations under Part 121 in the and a 150-foot decision height. This limitation is removed
type of airplane he/she is operating, the MDA or DH and when the holder shows that since the beginning of the
visibility landing minimums in the certificate holder’s 6th preceding month he/she has made 3 Category II
operations specifications for regular, provisional, or ILS approaches to a landing under actual or simulated
refueling airports are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 instrument conditions with a 150-foot decision height.
mile (or the RVR equivalent). (PLT443, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 (PLT444, AA.VI.E.K1) — 14 CFR §121.652 and §61.13
CFR §121.652
ADX
ATM 8230. To remain current as an aircraft dispatcher, a
8285. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR person must, in addition to other requirements,
and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot-in- A— within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend
command has 2.5 hours observing flight deck operations, plus
A— logged 90 hours’ flight time, 10 takeoffs and two additional takeoff and landings, in one of
landings in make and model airplane and the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to
three Category II ILS approaches in actual or dispatch.
simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since B— within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend
the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations
operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/
B— made at least six Category II approaches in she is to dispatch.
actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the C— within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend
preceding 12 calendar months. at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations
C— logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model in each type of airplane, in each group that he/
airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three she is to dispatch.
Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated
IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the No domestic or flag air carrier may use any person as
beginning of the sixth preceding month. an aircraft dispatcher unless, within the preceding 12
calendar months, he/she has satisfactorily completed
operating familiarization consisting of at least 5 hours
observing operations from the flight deck under 14 CFR
Part 121 in one of the types of airplanes in each group
he/she is to dispatch. (PLT450) — 14 CFR §121.463

Answers
8289 [C] 8285 [C] 8230 [B]

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Part 135 Flight Crew Requirements

ATS ATS
8082. What are the minimum certificate and rating 8094. Which takeoff computation must not exceed
requirements for the pilot-in-command of a multiengine the length of the runway plus the length of the stopway
airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier? for a turbine-engine-powered small transport category
A— Airline transport pilot; airplane category; airplane?
multiengine class. A— Takeoff distance.
B— Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine B— Acceleration-stop distance.
class; instrument rating; airplane type rating, if C— Acceleration-climb distance.
required.
C— Airline transport pilot; airplane category; The accelerate-stop distance, as defined in 14 CFR
multiengine class; airplane type rating, if §25.109, must not exceed the length of the runway plus
required. the length of any stopway. (PLT456, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
CFR §135.379 and §135.397
No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any
person serve, as pilot-in-command in passenger-car-
rying operations of a turbojet airplane, or an airplane ATS
having a passenger seating configuration, excluding 8100. A person is assigned as pilot-in-command to fly
any crewmember seat, of 10 seats or more, or a multi- both single-engine and multiengine airplanes and has
engine airplane being operated by “commuter opera- passed the initial instrument proficiency check in a mul-
tions,” unless that person holds an Airline Transport tiengine airplane. Which requirement applies regarding
Pilot Certificate with appropriate category and class each succeeding instrument check?
ratings and, if required, an appropriate type rating for A— The instrument check must be taken every 6
that aircraft. (PLT443, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.243 calendar months in both a single-engine and a
multiengine airplane.
B— The instrument check must be taken alternately
ATS
in single-engine and multiengine airplanes every
8083. What are the minimum certificate and rating 6 calendar months.
requirements for the pilot-in-command of a multiengine C— The instrument check may be taken in either a
airplane in commuter air carrier service under IFR? single-engine or multiengine airplane if taken at
A— Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine intervals of 6 calendar months.
class rating.
B— Airline transport pilot; airplane category; No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person
multiengine class rating; airplane type rating, if serve as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR
required. unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month
C— Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine before that service, that pilot has passed an instrument
class and instrument rating. proficiency check given by the FAA or authorized check
pilot. If the pilot-in-command is assigned to both single-
No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any engine aircraft and multi-engine aircraft, that pilot must
person serve, as pilot-in-command in passenger-car- initially take the instrument proficiency check in a multi-
rying operations of a turbojet airplane, or an airplane engine aircraft and each succeeding check alternately
having a passenger seating configuration, excluding in single-engine and multi-engine aircraft. (PLT442,
any crewmember seat, of 10 seats or more, or a multi- AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.297
engine airplane being operated by “commuter opera-
tions,” unless that person holds an Airline Transport
Pilot Certificate with appropriate category and class
ratings and, if required, an appropriate type rating for
that aircraft. (PLT443, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.243

Answers
8082 [C] 8083 [B] 8094 [B] 8100 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 17

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS ATS
8103. A person is acting as pilot-in-command of a 8108. A person is acting as pilot-in-command of a multi-
multiengine, turboprop-powered airplane operated in engine, reciprocating engine powered airplane operated
passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier. in passenger-carrying service by a commuter air carrier.
If eight takeoffs and landings are accomplished in that If five takeoffs and landings have been accomplished
make and basic model, which additional pilot-in-com- in that make and basic model, which additional pilot-
mand experience meets the requirement for designation in-command experience meets the requirement for
as pilot-in-command? designation as the pilot-in-command?
A— 7 hours, and two takeoffs and landing. A— Two takeoffs and landings, and 8 hours.
B— 10 hours, and three takeoffs and landings. B— Five takeoffs and landings, and 5 hours.
C— 10 hours, and two takeoffs and one landings. C— Three takeoffs and landings, and 7 hours.

No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any
person serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft oper- person serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft oper-
ated by “commuter operations” in passenger-carrying ated by “commuter operations” in passenger-carrying
operations, unless that person has completed, on that operations, unless that person has completed, on that
make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember
position the following operating experience: position the following operating experience:
1. Aircraft, single-engine—10 hours; 1. Aircraft, single-engine—10 hours;
2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow- 2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow-
ered—15 hours; ered—15 hours;
3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20 3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20
hours; or hours; or
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours. 4. Airplane, turbojet-powered — 25 hours.
The hours of operating experience may be reduced to The hours of operating experience may be reduced to
not less than 50% of the hours required above by the not less than 50% of the hours required above by the
substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for each substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for each
hour of flight. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.244 hour of flight. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.244

ATS ATS
8107. What are the minimum certificate and rating 8109. A person is acting as pilot-in-command of a
requirements for the pilot-in-command of a turbojet turbojet powered airplane operated in passenger-
airplane with two engines being operated by a Com- carrying service by a commuter air carrier. If 10 takeoffs
muter Air Carrier? and landings have been accomplished in that make
A— Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine and basic model, which additional pilot-in-command
class rating; airplane type rating, if required. experience meets the requirement for designation as
B— Airline transport pilot of any category; multiengine pilot-in-command?
class rating; airplane type rating. A— 10 hours.
C— Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine B— 15 hours.
class rating; instrument rating; airplane type rating. C— 10 hours, and five takeoffs and landings.

No certificate holder may use a person, nor may any No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any
person serve, as pilot-in-command in passenger-car- person serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft oper-
rying operations of a turbojet airplane, or an airplane ated by “commuter operations” in passenger-carrying
having a passenger seating configuration, excluding operations, unless that person has completed, on that
any crewmember seat, of 10 seats or more, or a multi- make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember
engine airplane being operated by “commuter opera- position the following operating experience:
tions” unless that person holds an Airline Transport 1. Aircraft, single-engine—10 hours;
Pilot Certificate with appropriate category and class
ratings and, if required, an appropriate type rating for 2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow-
that aircraft. (PLT443, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.243 ered—15 hours;

Answers
8103 [B] 8107 [A] 8108 [A] 8109 [B]

1 – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20 No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any
hours; or person serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft oper-
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours. ated by “commuter operations” in passenger-carrying
operations, unless that person has completed, on that
The hours of operating experience may be reduced to make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember
not less than 50% of the hours required above by the position the following operating experience:
substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for each
hour of flight. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.244 1. Aircraft, single-engine—10 hours;
2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow-
ered—15 hours;
ATS
3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20
8110. A pilot’s experience includes 8 hours in a parti­cular
hours; or
make and basic model multiengine, turboprop airplane
while acting as pilot-in-command. Which additional 4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours.
pilot-in-command experience meets the requirements The hours of operating experience may be reduced to
for designation as pilot-in-command of that airplane not less than 50% of the hours required above by the
when operated by a commuter air carrier in passenger- substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for each
carrying service? hour of flight. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.244
A— Twelve takeoffs and landings.
B— Five takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours.
C— Ten takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours. ATS
9618. (Refer to Figure 301.) The PIC (single pilot 135
No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any with A/P) of PTZ 70 has less than 100 hours of PIC
person serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft oper- time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100
ated by “commuter operations” in passenger-carrying feet, 1/4 mile in blowing snow, which is below landing
operations, unless that person has completed, on that minimums, the PIC requested and received clearance
make and basic model aircraft and in that crewmember to SYR, the filed alternate. Under Part 135, what are the
position the following operating experience: PIC’s minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10?
1. Aircraft, single-engine—10 hours; A— 800/2.
B— 719/42.
2. Aircraft, multi-engine, reciprocating engine-pow-
C— 619/50.
ered—15 hours;
3. Aircraft, multi-engine, turbine engine-powered—20 The MDA or DA/DH and visibility landing minimums pre-
hours; or scribed in 14 CFR Part 97 or in the operator’s operations
4. Airplane, turbojet-powered—25 hours. specifications are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile
respectively, but not to exceed the ceiling and visibility
The hours of operating experience may be reduced to minimums for that airport when used as an alternate
not less than 50% of the hours required above by the airport, for each pilot-in-command of a turbine-powered
substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for each airplane who has not served at least 100 hours as pilot-
hour of flight. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.244 in-command in that type of airplane. Since the pilot is
operating with an autopilot, as noted in the question
with “(single pilot 135 with A/P),” the chart notes indicate
ATS
that an RVR of 1800 is authorized. Adding a 1/2 mile (or
8111. A person is acting as pilot-in-command of a single-
2400 RVR) to that would make the visibility requirement
engine airplane operated in passenger-carrying service
4200 RVR. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.225
by a commuter air carrier. If six takeoffs and landings
have been accomplished in that make and basic model,
which additional pilot-in-command experience meets
the requirement for designation as pilot-in-command?
A— 4 hours
B— 5 hours
C— 6 hours

Answers
8110 [C] 8111 [B] 9618 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 19

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8018. Which person, other than the second in com- 8027. Before each takeoff, the pilot-in-command of an
mand, may the pilot-in-command permit to manipulate aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all pas-
the flight controls? sengers have been orally briefed on the
A— A member of the National Transportation Safety A— location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen
Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for masks, and life preservers.
the aircraft. B— use of safety belts, location and operation of fire
B— An authorized FAA safety representative who extinguishers, and smoking.
is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight C— use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use
operations. of survival equipment.
C— A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is
authorized by the certificate holder to conduct Before each takeoff the pilot-in-command shall ensure
flight tests. that all passengers have been orally briefed on:
1. Smoking;
No pilot-in-command may allow any person to manipu-
late the controls of an aircraft during flight unless that 2. Use of seatbelts;
person is: 3. The placement of seat backs in an upright position
1. A pilot employed by the certificate holder and quali- before takeoff and landing;
fied in the aircraft; or 4. Location and means of opening the passenger entry
2. An authorized safety representative of the Adminis- door and emergency exits;
trator who has permission of the pilot-in-command, 5. Location of survival equipment;
is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight 6. If the flight involves extended overwater operation,
operations. ditching procedures and the use of required flotation
(PLT444, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.115 equipment;
7. If the flight involves operations above 12,000 feet
ATS, RTC
MSL, the normal and emergency use of oxygen; and
8026. A flight attendant crewmember is required on 8. Location and operation of fire extinguishers.
aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, (PLT384, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.117
excluding any pilot seat, of
A— 15 or more.
B— 19 or more. ATS, RTC
C— 20 or more 8028. Before takeoff, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers
No certificate holder may operate an aircraft that has have been orally briefed on the normal and emergency
a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot use of oxygen
seat, of more than 19 unless there is a flight attendant A— if the flight involves operations above 12,000 feet
crewmember on board the aircraft. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K5) MSL.
— 14 CFR §135.107 B— regardless of the altitude at which the flight will
operate.
C— if the flight involves operations at or above 12,000
feet MSL for more than 30 minutes.

Before each takeoff the pilot-in-command shall ensure

that all passengers have been orally briefed on the nor-
mal and emergency use of oxygen if the flight in­volves
operations above 12,000 feet MSL. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5)
— 14 CFR §135.117

Answers
8018 [B] 8026 [C] 8027 [B] 8028 [A]

1 – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8029. The oral before flight briefing required on pas- 8035. Which is a condition that must be met by a com-
senger-carrying aircraft shall be muter air carrier certificate holder to have an aircraft
A— supplemented by an actual demonstration of approved for operation with an autopilot system and
emergency exit door operation by a crewmember. no second in command?
B— presented by the pilot-in-command or another A— The passenger seating configuration is 10 or
flight crewmember, as a crewmember more, including any pilot seat.
demonstrates the operation of the emergency B— The autopilot system is capable of operating the
equipment. controls to maintain flight and to maneuver the
C— conducted by a crewmember or the pilot-in- aircraft about the three axes.
command and supplemented by printed cards for C— The operation is restricted to VFR or VFR over-
the use of each passenger. the-top.

The required oral briefing must be given by the pilot- The autopilot used in lieu of a second-in-command must
in-command or other crewmember. It must be supple- be capable of operating the aircraft controls to maintain
mented by printed cards which must be carried in the flight and maneuver it about the three axes. (PLT443,
aircraft in locations convenient for the use of each AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.105
passenger. (PLT384, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.117

ATS, RTC
ATS, RTC 8036. An autopilot may not be used in place of a second
8034. A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to in command in any aircraft
assign a pilot as pilot-in-command of an aircraft having A— being operated in commuter air carrier service.
eight passenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying B— having a passenger seating configuration,
operations. Which experience requirement must that excluding any pilot’s seat, of 10 seats or more.
pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative C— having a total seating capacity of 10 or more
approved autopilot and no second in command? seats and being operated in commuter air
A— 100 hours as pilot-in-command in the category, service.
class, and type.
B— 50 hours and 10 landings as pilot-in-command in Unless two pilots are required by 14 CFR for operations
the make and model. under VFR, a person may operate an aircraft without a
C— 100 hours as pilot-in-command in the make and second-in-command, if it is equipped with an operative
model. approved autopilot system and the use of that system
is authorized by appropriate operations specifications.
When using an autopilot in lieu of a second-in-command No certificate holder may operate an aircraft without a
in commuter airline passenger-carrying operations, second-in-command if that aircraft has a passenger
the pilot-in-command must have at least 100 hours of seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10
PIC time in the make and model of aircraft to be flown. seats or more. (PLT443, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.99
(PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.105 and §135.105

ATS, RTC
8044. What is the minimum passenger seating configu-
ration that requires a second in command?
A— 15 seats.
B— 12 seats.
C— 10 seats.

No certificate holder may operate an aircraft without

a second-in-command if that aircraft has a passenger
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10
seats or more. (PLT443, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.99

Answers
8029 [C] 8034 [C] 8035 [B] 8036 [B] 8044 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 21

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC 4. For a pilot authorized for IFR operations, at least one
8076. When is a pilot not required to keep the shoulder flight shall be flown over a civil airway, an approved
harness fastened during takeoff and landing while at a off-airway route, or a portion of either of them.
pilot station?
(PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.299
A— When operating an aircraft having a passenger
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of
10 seats or less. ATS, RTC
B— When the pilot cannot perform the required duties 8096. What are the minimum requirements for the line
with the shoulder harness fastened. check required of each pilot-in-command authorized
C— When serving as pilot-in-command or second for IFR air taxi operations? The line check shall be
in command of an aircraft having a total seating given over
capacity of eight seats or less. A— one route segment in each type of airplane the
pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and landings at
Each flight crewmember occupying a station equipped one or more representative airports.
with a shoulder harness must fasten the shoulder har- B— a civil airway or an approved off-airway route, or
ness during takeoff and landing, except that the shoulder a portion of either of them, in one type of airplane
harness may be unfastened if the crewmember is unable the pilot is to fly and includes takeoffs and
to perform required duties with the shoulder harness landings at one or more representative airports.
fastened. (PLT464, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.171 C— a civil airway or an approved off-airway route
in each make and model airplane the pilot is to
ATS, RTC
fly and includes takeoffs and landings at one or
8095. To serve as pilot-in-command in an IFR opera-
more representative airports.
tion, a person must have passed a line check
No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any
A— consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, person serve, as a pilot-in-command of a flight unless,
with at least three instrument approaches since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before
at representative airports, within the past 12 that service, that pilot has passed a flight check (line
calendar months, in one type of aircraft which check) in one of the types of aircraft that pilot is to fly.
that pilot is to fly. The flight check shall:
B— within the past 12 months, which include a
1. Be given by an approved check pilot or by the FAA;
portion of a civil airway and one instrument
approach at one representative airport, in one of 2. Consist of at least one flight over one route segment;
the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. and
C— since the beginning of the 12th month before that 3. Include takeoffs and landings at one or more repre-
service, which included at least one flight over a sentative airports;
civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any
4. For a pilot authorized for IFR operations, at least one
portion of either, in one type of aircraft which that
flight shall be flown over a civil airway, an approved
pilot is to fly.
off-airway route, or a portion of either of them.
No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any (PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.299
person serve, as a pilot-in-command of a flight unless,
since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before
that service, that pilot has passed a flight check (line ATS, RTC
check) in one of the types of aircraft that pilot is to fly. 8097. No certificate holder may use a person as pilot-
The flight check shall: in-command unless that person has passed a line check
1. Be given by an approved check pilot or by the FAA; A— since the beginning of the 12th month before
serving as pilot-in-command.
2. Consist of at least one flight over one route segment; B— since the beginning of the 6th month before
and serving as pilot-in-command.
3. Include takeoffs and landings at one or more repre- C— within the past 6 months.
sentative airports;

Answers
8076 [B] 8095 [C] 8096 [B] 8097 [A]

1 – 22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any 2. Properly conduct air-ground communications and
person serve, as a pilot-in-command of a flight unless, comply with complex air traffic control instructions.
since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before (PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.297
that service, that pilot has passed a flight check (line
check) in one of the types of aircraft that pilot is to fly.
(PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.299 ATS, RTC
8101. A person may not serve as pilot-in-command
in an IFR operation unless that person has passed an
ATS, RTC
8098. A person may act as pilot-in-command of both A— aircraft competency, an instrument proficiency,
type A and type B aircraft under IFR, if an instrument and autopilot check within the previous 6
proficiency check has been passed in calendar months prior to the date to serve.
B— instrument proficiency check in the airplane
A— either type A or B since the beginning of the 12th in which to serve, or in an approved aircraft
month before time to serve. simulator, within the previous 12 calendar
B— type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and months.
in type B since the beginning of the 6th month C— instrument proficiency check under actual or
before time to serve. simulated IFR conditions, since the beginning of
C— type A since the beginning of the 12th month, and the 6th calendar month prior to the date to serve.
in type B since the beginning of the 24th month
before time to serve. No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person
serve as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR
No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month
serve, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR before that service, that pilot has passed an instrument
unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month proficiency check given by the FAA or authorized check
before that service, that pilot has passed an instrument pilot. If the pilot-in-command is assigned to both single-
proficiency check given by the FAA or authorized check engine aircraft and multi-engine aircraft, that pilot must
pilot. If the pilot-in-command is assigned to pilot more initially take the instrument proficiency check in a multi-
than one type of aircraft, that pilot must take the instru- engine aircraft and each succeeding check alternately
ment proficiency check for each type of aircraft to which in single-engine and multi-engine aircraft. (PLT442,
that pilot is assigned in rotation, but not more than one AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.297
flight check in each period. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
CFR §135.297
ATS, RTC
8102. A pilot-in-command who is authorized to use an
ATS, RTC autopilot system, in place of a second in command, may
8099. A pilot-in-command is authorized to use an take the autopilot check
autopilot system in place of a second in command.
During the instrument proficiency check, that person A— concurrently with the instrument proficiency
is required to demonstrate (without a second in com- check, but at 12 month intervals.
mand) the ability to B— in any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing
the check is taken at 6 month intervals.
A— comply with complex ATC instructions with, but C— concurrently with the competency check,
not without, the autopilot. providing the check is taken at 12 month
B— properly conduct air-ground communications intervals.
with, but not without, the autopilot.
C— properly conduct instrument operations If the pilot-in-command is authorized to use an autopilot
competently both with, and without, the autopilot. system in place of a second-in-command, that pilot
must show during the required instrument proficiency
If the pilot-in-command is authorized to use an autopilot check, that the pilot is able both with and without using
system in place of a second-in-command, that pilot the autopilot to:
must show during the required instrument proficiency
check, that the pilot is able both with and without using 1. Conduct instrument operations competently; and
the autopilot to: 2. Properly conduct air-ground communications and
1. Conduct instrument operations competently; and comply with complex air traffic control instructions.
(PLT424, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.297
Answers
8098 [B] 8099 [C] 8101 [C] 8102 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 23

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8104. Pilot flight time limitations under 14 CFR Part 8106. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which
135 are based operations are considered to be in the “critical phase
A— on the flight time accumulated in any commercial of flight”?
flying. A— All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff,
B— solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi landing, and all other operations conducted
operations. below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight.
C— solely on flight time accumulated during commercial B— Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations,
flying, in the last 30 day and/or 12 month period. irrespective of altitudes MSL.
C— All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff,
Pilot flight time limitations are based on the flight time landing, and all other operations conducted
accumulated under 14 CFR Part 135 and any other below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.
commercial flying time. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR
§135.265 For the purpose of this section, critical phases of flight
include all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and
landing, and all other flight operations conducted below
ATS, RTC 10,000 feet, except cruise flight. (PLT029, AA.I.G.K5)
8105. No person may serve, as second in command — 14 CFR §135.100
of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a com-
mercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category,
class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under ATS, RTC
IFR, that person must have accomplished within the 8113. Other than in cruise flight, below what altitude
last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew-
A— using the navigation systems for interception and members prohibited?
tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches A— 12,000 feet.
and holding. B— 10,000 feet.
B— using the navigation systems to intercept and C— 8,000 feet.
track 3 inbound/3 outbound courses, 6 holding
patterns and 6 instrument approaches. No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight
C— holding procedures, using the navigation systems crewmember perform, any duties during a critical phase
for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 of flight except those duties required for the safe opera-
instrument approaches. tion of the aircraft. For purposes of this section, critical
phases of flight include all ground operations involving
To act as second-in-command under IFR, a person taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations
must meet the recent instrument experience require- conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
ments of 14 CFR Part 61. These requirements are: in (PLT440, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.100
the last 6 months, the pilot must have logged 6 instru-
ment approaches, performed holding procedures, and
intercepted and tracked courses through the use of
navigation systems. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR
§135.245

Answers
8104 [A] 8105 [C] 8106 [C] 8113 [B]

1 – 24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Flight Crew Duty Time Limits

Familiarize yourself with 14 CFR Part 117 to understand flight crew duty time limits. The limitations of Part
117 apply to all flying by flightcrew members on behalf of any certificate holder or 91K program manager
during the applicable periods. Each flightcrew member must report for any flight duty period rested and
prepared to perform his or her assigned duties. Each certificate holder must develop and implement an
education and awareness training program that is approved by the Administrator. This program must
provide the training to all employees of the certificate holder who are responsible for administering the
provisions of Part 117, including flightcrew members, dispatchers, individuals directly involved in the
scheduling of flightcrew members or in operational control, and any employee providing direct manage-
ment oversight of these areas.
A person cannot be assigned to any ground or flight duties during required rest periods. The term
“deadhead” is used to describe the transportation of crewmembers by the air carrier to or from their flight
assignments when that transportation is not local in character. Time spent in deadhead air transportation
cannot be considered as part of a required rest period.
Other new terms and definitions associated with Part 117 to be aware of are as follows:
Airport/standby reserve means a defined duty period during which a flightcrew member is required
by a certificate holder to be at an airport for a possible assignment. For airport/standby reserve, all time
spent in a reserve status is part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
Augmented, or unaugmented operations. An unaugmented flight contains the minimum number
of flightcrew members necessary to safely pilot an aircraft. An augmented flight contains additional
flightcrew members and at least one onboard rest facility, which allows flightcrew members to work in
shifts and sleep during the flight.
Calendar day means a 24-hour period from 0000 through 2359 using Coordinated Universal Time
or local time.
Fatigue means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability resulting
from lack of sleep or increased physical activity, which can reduce a flightcrew member’s alertness and
ability to safely operate an aircraft or perform safety-related duties.
Physiological night’s rest means 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700
at the flightcrew member’s home base, unless the individual has acclimated to a different theater. If the
flightcrew member has acclimated to a different theater, the rest must encompass the hours of 0100 and
0700 at the acclimated location.
Rest period means a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member
is free from all restraint by the certificate holder, including freedom from present responsibility for work
should the occasion arise.
Short-call reserve means a period of time in which a flightcrew member is assigned to a reserve
availability period. For short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed 14 hours.
Theater means a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member’s flight
duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude. The appli-
cable flight duty period is based on the local time at the theater in which the flightcrew member was last
acclimated.
Unforeseen operational circumstance means an unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow
for adjustments to schedules, including unforecast weather, equipment malfunction, or air traffic delay
that is not reasonably expected. For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unforeseen operational
circumstances arise prior to takeoff, the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may extend the

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 25

Chapter 1 Regulations

maximum flight duty period permitted up to 2 hours. For augmented and unaugmented operations, if
unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff, the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder
may extend maximum flight duty periods to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next
destination airport or alternate airport, as appropriate.
Window of circadian low means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and
0559 during a physiological night’s rest. No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may
accept more than three consecutive flight duty periods that infringe upon the window of circadian low.

Flight Duty Periods

No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew
member’s total flight duty period (FDP) will exceed 60 flight duty hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a flightcrew member must be given at least 30 con-
secutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive-hour period.
No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the
flightcrew member’s total flight duty period will exceed 190 FDP hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
No certificate holder may schedule, and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any
reserve or flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is given a rest period of at least 10 consecu-
tive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or flight duty period measured from the time the
flightcrew member is released from duty. The 10-hour rest period must provide the flightcrew member
with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity. If a flightcrew member determines that
this rest period will not provide eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity, he or she must notify the
certificate holder. The flightcrew member cannot report for the assigned flight duty period until he or she
receives this specified rest period.
For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew member is provided with a rest opportunity (an
opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her flight duty period, the time that the
flightcrew member spends there is not part of his/her flight duty period if the time spent in that accom-
modation is at least 3 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member arrives there.
A Part 117 excerpt will be available for your reference during the FAA test. You will not be required to
memorize the tables; however, you will need to know which table to use—that is, which one is applicable
to the question being asked.
The maximum flight time for unaugmented operations is as follows (14 CFR §117.11 Table A):
Time of report (acclimated) Maximum flight time
(hours)
0000-0459 8
0500-1959 9
2000-2359 8

The maximum flight duty period (hours) for lineholders is based on the number of flight segments
and the scheduled time of start (14 CFR §117.13 Table B):

1 – 26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Scheduled Maximum flight duty period (hours) for lineholders

time of start based on number of flight segments
(acclimated 1 2 3 4 5 6 7+
time)
0000-0359 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
0400-0459 10 10 10 10 9 9 9
0500-0559 12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
0600-0659 13 13 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
0700-1159 14 14 13 13 12.5 12 11.5
1200-1259 13 13 13 13 12.5 12 11.5
1300-1659 12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
1700-2159 12 12 11 11 10 9 9
2200-2259 11 11 10 10 9 9 9
2300-2359 10 10 10 9 9 9 9

If the flightcrew member is not acclimated, the maximum flight duty period in Table C of Part 117 is
reduced by 30 minutes (14 CFR Part 117 Table C):
Scheduled Maximum flight duty period (hours) based on
time of start rest facility and number of pilots
(acclimated Class 1 rest facility Class 2 rest facility Class 3 rest facility
time)
3 pilots 4 pilots 3 pilots 4 pilots 3 pilots 4 pilots
0000-0559 15 17 14 15.5 13 13.5
0600-0659 16 18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5
0700-1259 17 19 16.5 18 15 15.5
1300-1659 16 18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5
1700-2359 15 17 14 15.5 13 13.5

ALL ALL
8706. Fatigue can be evident in others if they 8706-1. Which of the following is an effect of acute
A— talk more than usual. fatigue on performance?
B— yawn excessively. A— Loss of accuracy and smoothness in control
C— are overly helpful. movements.
B— Heightened acuity in peripheral vision.
Physical signs of fatigue include yawning repeatedly, C— Mild euphoria, impaired judgment, and increased
heavy eyelids or microsleeps, eye-rubbing, nodding off reaction time.
or head dropping, headaches, nausea, upset stomach,
slowed reaction time, lack of energy, weakness, and light Acute fatigue is characterized by inattention, distract-
headedness. (PLT409, AA.I.F.K1h) — FAA-H-8083-2 ibility, errors in timing, neglect of secondary tasks, loss
of accuracy and control, lack of awareness of error
accumulation, and irritability. (PLT409, AA.I.F.K1h) —
AIM ¶8-1-1

Answers
8706 [B] 8706-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 27

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ATM, ADX

8707. You did not get a good night’s rest and have been 8227. How does deadhead transportation, going to or
on duty for several hours. A sign you may be fatigued is from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight
A— improved dexterity. time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is
B— decreased short term memory. A— considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew
C— mental acuteness. includes more than two pilots.
B— considered part of the rest period for flight
Short term memory loss is a sign of mental fatigue. engineers and navigators.
Additional signs of mental fatigue include: difficulty con- C— not considered to be part of a rest period.
centrating on tasks, lapse in attention, failure to commu-
nicate important information, failure to anticipate events Time spent in deadhead transportation to or from duty
or actions, making mistakes even on well-practiced assignment is not considered part of a rest period.
tasks, forgetfulness, difficulty thinking clearly, and poor (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §§121.471, 121.491,
decision making. (PLT409, AA.I.F.K1h) — FAA-H-8083-2 and 121.519
Answer (A) is incorrect because deadhead transportation does
not count for part of the required rest period. Answer (B) is incor-
ATM, ADX rect because flight engineers and navigators are defined as flight
8708. Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member crewmembers. The same rest period requirements apply to them
as to pilot and copilot.
of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not
exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive
day period? ATM, ADX
A— 48. 8228. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members
B— 52. are limited to
C— 32. A— 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
B— 180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
No pilot may fly more than 32 hours during any seven C— 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
consecutive days, and each pilot must be relieved from
all duty for at least 24 consecutive hours at least once No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew
during any seven consecutive days. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew
— 14 CFR §121.481 member’s total Flight Duty Period will exceed 190 flight
duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours. (PLT409,
AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.23
ATM, ADX
8709. Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member
of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not ATM, ADX
exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month 8220. Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members
period? are limited to
A— 120. A— 180 hours in any 28 consecutive days.
B— 100. B— 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
C— 80. C— 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
No pilot may fly as a member of a crew more than No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew
100 hours during any one calendar month. (PLT409, member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew
AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §121.481 member’s total Flight Duty Period will exceed 190 flight
duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours. (PLT409,
AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.23

Answers
8707 [B] 8708 [C] 8709 [B] 8227 [C] 8228 [A] 8220 [B]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8221. “Window of circadian low” means a period of 8223. “Airport standby reserve” means
maximum sleepiness that occurs between A— a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close
A— 0100 – 0500. proximity of assignment being available for flight
B— 1200 – 0459. duty assignments in less than 2 hours.
C— 0200 – 0559. B— being within 90 minutes of the airport and
available for immediate flight duty assignments of
Window of circadian low means a period of maximum 8 hours duration.
sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during C— a defined duty period during which a flight
a physiological night’s rest. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 crewmember is required by the certificate holder
CFR §117.3 to be available for possible assignment.

Airport/standby reserve means a defined duty period

ATM, ADX during which a flightcrew member is required by a cer-
8219. For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability tificate holder to be at an airport for a possible assign-
period may not exceed ment. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.3
A— 12 hours.
B— 14 hours.
ATM, ADX
C— 16 hours.
9714. Each flightcrew member must report
Short-call reserve means a period of time in which a A— in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish
flightcrew member is assigned to a reserve availability all assignments.
period. For short-call reserve, the reserve availability B— to the airport on time and fully prepared to
period may not exceed 14 hours. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) accomplish assigned duty.
— 14 CFR §117.21 C— for any flight duty period rested and prepared to
perform his duty.
ATM, ADX Each flightcrew member must report for any flight
8222. If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest duty period rested and prepared to perform his or her
facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the assigned duties. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.5
flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder?
A— No, as long as the crew member has the
ATM, ADX
opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest.
B— No, as long as the crew member has the 8211. You are on the last day of a four day trip and
opportunity for 8 hours rest. haven’t slept well. What is a warning sign that you are
C— Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the fatigued?
opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours A— Improved dexterity.
free from duty. B— Head bobbing.
C— Mental acuteness.
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew
member may accept an assignment for any reserve Common physical signs of fatigue include yawning
or flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is repeatedly, heavy eyelids, microsleeps, eye rubbing,
given a rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours nodding off or head dropping, headaches, nausea, or
immediately before beginning the reserve or flight duty upset stomach, slowed reaction time, lack of energy,
period measured from the time the flightcrew member weakness, or light headedness. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3)
is released from duty. The 10 hour rest period must — FAA-H-8083-2, 14 CFR §117.3
provide the flightcrew member with a minimum of 8
uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity. If a flightcrew
member determines that this rest period will not pro-
vide eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity, the
flightcrew member must notify the certificate holder. The
flightcrew member cannot report for the assigned flight
duty period until he or she receives this specified rest
period. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.25

Answers
8221 [C] 8219 [B] 8222 [B] 8223 [C] 9714 [C] 8211 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 29

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX Rest period means a continuous period determined

8224. No flightcrew member may accept an assign- prospectively during which the flightcrew member is
ment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the free from all restraint by the certificate holder, including
flight crew member is given freedom from present responsibility for work should the
A— 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before occasion arise. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.3
beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.
B— 12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before
ATM, ADX
beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.
8231-1. For passenger-carrying operations under 14
C— 8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before
CFR Part 121, which situation would be considered part
beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.
of the required rest period?
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew A— Deadheading to home base after the last
member may accept an assignment for any reserve or scheduled flight.
flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is given a B— Electing to fly as a passenger from home base
rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours immediately after the flight duty period ends.
before beginning the reserve or flight duty period mea- C— Training conducted in a flight simulator.
sured from the time the flightcrew member is released
from duty. The 10-hour rest period must provide the Duty means any task that a flight crewmember performs
flightcrew member with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted as required by the certificate holder, including but not
hours of sleep opportunity. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 limited to flight duty period, flight duty, pre- and post-
CFR §117. 25 flight duties, administrative work, training, deadhead
transportation, aircraft positioning on the ground, aircraft
loading, and aircraft servicing. Rest period means a
ATM, ADX continuous period determined prospectively during
8229. You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint
121 and are in a required rest period. When can you by the certificate holder, including freedom from pres-
be contacted about your next day duty assignment? ent responsibility for work should the occasion arise.
A— At any time during your required rest period. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.3
B— At the end of your required rest period. Answer (A) is incorrect because deadhead transportation is con-
C— No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your sidered duty time and does not count for part of the required rest
period. Answer (C) is incorrect because no training counts for part
required rest period. of the required rest period.

No certificate holder may assign and no flightcrew mem-

ber may accept assignment to any reserve or duty with ATM, ADX
the certificate holder during any required rest period. 8238. “Theater” means
(PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.25
A— a geographical area in which the distance
between the flightcrew member flight duty period
ATM, ADX departure point and arrival point differs by no
8231. “Rest period” means more than 90 degrees longitude.
B— a geographical area in which the distance
A— an 8-hour continuous period determined between the flightcrew member flight duty period
prospectively during which the flightcrew member departure point and arrival point differs by no
is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. more than 75 degrees longitude.
B— a continuous period determined prospectively C— a geographical area in which the distance
during which the flightcrew member is free from between the flightcrew member flight duty period
all restraint by the certificate holder. departure point and arrival point differs by no
C— a 12-hour continuous period determined more than 60 degrees longitude.
prospectively during which the flightcrew member
is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

Answers
8224 [A] 8229 [B] 8231 [B] 8231-1 [B] 8238 [C]

1 – 30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Theater means a geographical area in which the dis- ATM, ADX

tance between the flightcrew member’s flight duty period 9839. Flightcrew members must receive fatigue educa-
departure point and arrival point differs by no more tion and awareness training
than 60 degrees longitude. The applicable flight duty A— with all required air carrier dispatcher and every
period is based on the local time at the theater in which flightcrew member training activity.
the flightcrew member was last acclimated. (PLT409, B— annually for flightcrew members and every 24
AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.3 and §117.13 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member
schedulers, and operational control individuals.
C— annually for flightcrew member schedulers,
ATM, ADX
operational control individuals and flightcrew
9837. “Physiological night’s rest” means
members and dispatchers.
A— 9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of
0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. Each certificate holder must develop and implement
B— 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of an education and awareness training program that is
0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. approved by the Administrator. This program must pro-
C— 12 hours of rest that encompasses any vide the training to all employees of the certificate holder
continuous 8 hour period for uninterrupted or responsible for administering the provisions of Part 117,
disturbed rest. including flightcrew members, dispatchers, individuals
directly involved in the scheduling of flightcrew members
Physiological night’s rest means 10 hours of rest that or in operational control, and any employee providing
encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the flight- direct management oversight of these areas. (PLT409,
crew member’s home base, unless the individual has AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.9
acclimated to a different theater. If the flightcrew mem-
ber has acclimated to a different theater, the rest must
encompass the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the acclimated ATM, ADX
location. (PLT395), AA.I.G.K3 — 14 CFR §117.3 9840. In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight
crew of two, your flight time may not exceed
A— 9 hours if assigned to report at 0330.
ATM, ADX
B— 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500.
9838. In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew
C— 9 hours if assigned to report at 2030.
member must report
A— on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to The maximum flight time for unaugmented operations
accomplish all assigned duties. is as follows:
B— to the airport on time, after the designated rest Time of report Maximum flight time
period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned (acclimated) (hours)
duties.
C— for any flight duty period rested and prepared to 0000-0459 8
perform his/her assigned duties. 0500-1959 9
2000-2359 8
Each flightcrew member must report for any flight
duty period rested and prepared to perform his or her A Part 117 excerpt will be available for your reference
assigned duties. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.5 during the FAA test. You will not be required to memo-
rize the tables; however, you will need to know which
table to use as applicable to the question being asked.
(PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.11 and Table A

Answers
9837 [B] 9838 [C] 9839 [C] 9840 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 31

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

9841. For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your 9842. In an airplane with an augmented crew of three
maximum flight duty period limit is flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty
A— 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight period is
segments. A— 17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a
B— 13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight Class 3 rest facility available.
segments. B— 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a
C— 10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight Class 1 rest facility available
segments. C— 15 hours if assigned to report at 1730 with a
Class 2 rest facility available.
The maximum flight duty period (hours) for linehold-
ers is based on the number of flight segments and the Maximum flight duty period (hours)
scheduled time of start. for lineholders base on number of
flight segments
Scheduled Maximum flight duty period (hours)
time of start for lineholders base on number of Scheduled Class 1 Class 2 Class 3
(acclimated flight segments time of start rest facility rest facility rest facility
time) (acclimated 3 4 3 4 3 4
1 2 3 4 5 6 7+
time) pilots pilots pilots pilots pilots pilots
0000-0359 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
0000-0559 15 17 14 15.5 13 13.5
0400-0459 10 10 10 10 9 9 9
0600-0659 16 18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5
0500-0559 12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
0700-1259 17 19 16.5 18 15 15.5
0600-0659 13 13 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
1300-1659 16 18.5 15 16.5 14 14.5
0700-1159 14 14 13 13 12.5 12 11.5 1700-2359 15 17 14 15.5 13 13.5
1200-1259 13 13 13 13 12.5 12 11.5
A Part 117 excerpt will be available for your reference
1300-1659 12 12 12 12 11.5 11 10.5
during the FAA test. You will not be required to memo-
1700-2159 12 12 11 11 10 9 9 rize the tables; however, you will need to know which
2200-2259 11 11 10 10 9 9 9 table to use as applicable to the question being asked.
(PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.17 and Table C
2300-2359 10 10 10 9 9 9 9

A Part 117 excerpt will be available for your reference ATM, ADX
during the FAA test. You will not be required to memo- 9843. The time spent resting during unaugmented
rize the tables; however, you will need to know which operations will not be counted towards the flight duty
table to use as applicable to the question being asked. period limitation if the rest period is at least
(PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.13 and Table B A— 3 hours long after reaching suitable
accommodations.
B— 4 hours long after reaching suitable
accommodations.
C— 4 hours long which can include transportation to
suitable accommodations.

For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew mem-

ber is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity
to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her
flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member
spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of that
flightcrew member’s flight duty period if the time spent
in that accommodation is at least 3 hours, measured
from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the
accommodation. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.15

Answers
9841 [A] 9842 [B] 9843 [A]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

9844. Notification of the rest opportunity period during 9847. After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise.
unaugmented operations, must be In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by
A— given before the next to last flight segment. as much as
B— given before the beginning of the flight duty A— 2 hours.
period. B— necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate
C— provided no later than after the first flight segment crew base airport.
offered after the first flight segment is completed. C— necessary to land at the next destination airport
or alternate airport.
For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew
member is provided with a rest opportunity (an oppor- For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unfore-
tunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during seen operational circumstances arise after takeoff, the
his or her flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may extend
member spends in that accommodation is not part of maximum flight duty periods to the extent necessary to
that flightcrew member’s flight duty period if the rest safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or
opportunity is scheduled before the beginning of the alternate airport, as appropriate. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3)
flight duty period in which that rest is taken. (PLT409, — 14 CFR §117.19
AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.15

ATM, ADX
ATM, ADX 9847-1. “Unforeseen operational circumstance” means
9845. If the augmented flightcrew member is not accli- an
mated, the A— unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow
A— maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part for adjustments to schedules.
117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by B— unforecast weather and expected ATC delays.
30 minutes. C— event of sufficient duration to create increased
B— flight duty period assignment must be reduced flight times for the certificate holder’s operation.
15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude
difference from the previous rest location. Unforeseen operational circumstance means an
C— minimum rest period must be extended by 3 unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for
hours. adjustments to schedules, including unforecast weather,
equipment malfunction, or air traffic delay that is not
If the flightcrew member is not acclimated the maximum reasonably expected. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR
flight duty period in Table C of Part 117 is reduced by §117.3
30 minutes. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.17

ATM, ADX
ATM, ADX 9847-2. For passenger operations under Part 121, a
9846. The flight duty period may be extended due to flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time
unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as limitations if
A— 2 hours. A— immediately followed by 11 hours of rest.
B— 1 hour. B— unforeseen operational circumstances arise after
C— 30 minutes. takeoff.
C— known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.
For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unfore-
seen operational circumstances arise prior to takeoff, For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unfore-
the pilot-in-command and the certificate holder may seen operational circumstances arise after takeoff, the
extend the maximum flight duty period permitted up to PIC and the certificate holder may extend maximum flight
2 hours. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.19 duty periods to the extent necessary to safely land the
aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate airport,
as appropriate. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.3

Answers
9844 [B] 9845 [A] 9846 [A] 9847 [C] 9847-1 [A] 9847-2 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 33

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a

9848. For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in flightcrew member must be given at least 30 consecutive
airport/standby reserve time is hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive-
A— not part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty hour period. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.25
period.
B— part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
ATM, ADX
C— part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period
9852. No flightcrew member may accept an assignment
after being alerted for flight assignment.
without scheduled rest opportunities for
For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in a reserve A— more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that
status is part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period infringe on the window of circadian low.
(PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.21 B— more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that
infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168
hour period.
ATM, ADX C— consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001
9849. Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members hours local home base time.
will include
A— instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew
flying for any certificate holder. member may accept more than three consecutive flight
B— any flying by flightcrew members for any duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian
certificate holder or 91K program manager. low. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.27
C— flying by flightcrew members for any certificate
holder or 91K program manager and any other
ADX
commercial flight time.
8194. Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag opera-
The limitations of Part 117 include all flying by flightcrew tions should be scheduled for no more than
members on behalf of any certificate holder or 91K pro- A— 10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours.
gram manager during the applicable periods. (PLT409, B— 8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours.
AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.23 C— 10 consecutive hours of duty.

Except in cases where circumstances or emergency

ATM, ADX conditions beyond the control of the certificate holder, no
9850. Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations
limited to may schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive
A— 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. hours of duty. (PLT450, AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §121.465
B— 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
C— 60 hours in any 7 days.
ATM, ADX
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew 8724. What is the minimum rest period required before
member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew a flight or reserve duty period?
member’s total flight duty period will exceed 60 flight A— 8 consecutive hours rest.
duty hours in any 168 consecutive hours. (PLT409, B— 10 consecutive hours rest.
AA.I.G.K3) — 14 CFR §117.23 C— 12 consecutive hours rest.

No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew

ATM, ADX member may accept an assignment for any reserve or
9851. A flightcrew member must be given a rest period flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is given a
before beginning any reserve or flight duty period of rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours immediately
A— 24 consecutive hours free from any duty in the before beginning the reserve or flight duty period mea-
past 7 consecutive calendar days. sured from the time the flightcrew member is released
B— 36 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive from duty. The 10 hour rest period must provide the
hours. flightcrew member with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted
C— 30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours of sleep opportunity. (PLT409, AA.I.G.K3) — 14
hours. CFR §117.25

Answers
9848 [B] 9849 [B] 9850 [A] 9851 [C] 9852 [A] 8194 [C]
8724 [B]

1 – 34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Dispatching and Flight Release

Operational control with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting
or terminating a flight.
The air carrier or commercial operator is responsible for operational control. The pilot-in-command
and the director of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termi-
nation of flight in compliance with regulations and the company’s operations specifications. The pilot-in-
command is responsible for the preflight planning and the operation of the flight.
Each flag and domestic flight must have a dispatch release on board. The dispatch release can be
in any form but must contain the following information.
• The identification number of the aircraft
• The trip number
• The departure, destination, intermediate and alternate airports
• The type of operation (IFR or VFR)
• The minimum fuel supply
• The latest weather reports and forecasts for the complete flight (may be attached to the release rather
than be part of it)

The aircraft dispatcher must provide the pilot-in-command with all available current reports or informa-
tion on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of flight. The
aircraft dispatcher must provide the pilot-in-command with all available weather reports and forecasts of
weather phenomena that may affect the safety of flight including adverse weather. The aircraft dispatcher
must update this information during a flight.
When a domestic flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and
departs again within 1 hour, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the ground for more
than 1 hour, a redispatch release must be issued.
When a flag flight lands at an intermediate airport named in its original dispatch release and departs
again within 6 hours, it does not need a new dispatch release. If it remains on the ground for more than
6 hours, a redispatch is required.
The pilot-in-command of a flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination:
• A copy of the completed load manifest
• A copy of the dispatch release
• A copy of the flight plan.

The air carrier must keep copies of these documents for at least 3 months.
Each supplemental carrier or commercial operator flight must have a flight release on board. The
flight release can be in any form but must contain the following information:
• The company or organization name
• Make, model and registration number of the aircraft used
• The flight or trip number and the date of the flight
• The name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant and the pilot designated as pilot-in-command
• The departure, destination, intermediate and alternate airports and route
• The type of operation (e.g., IFR or VFR)
(continued)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 35

Chapter 1 Regulations

• The minimum fuel supply

• The latest weather reports and forecasts for the complete flight (may be attached to the release rather
than be part of it)

Before beginning a flight, the pilot-in-command must obtain all available current reports or informa-
tion on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight.
During a flight, the pilot-in-command must obtain any additional available information of meteorological
conditions and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight.
A provisional airport is defined as an airport approved by the Administrator for use by a certificate
holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate
holder is not available. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is
authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued an
Operating Certificate. Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or commuter operations must obtain
operations specifications containing, among many other provisions, the kinds of operations authorized.
Extended-range twin-engine operational performance standards (ETOPS) is a rating accompanied by
a time limit (such as 180-minute ETOPS) that allows twin-engine civil transport aircraft to fly over oceans
and deserts provided that the aircraft is never more than 180 minutes away from a suitable airfield. An
ETOPS “entry point” is the first point on an ETOPS route at which the airplane is farther than a distance
of 60 minutes flying time, with one engine inoperative, from an emergency or diversion airport that is
adequate for an airplane with two engines.
When filing an alternate using the 180-minute ETOPS rule, the alternate airport must have rescue
and fire fighting services (RFFS) that meet ICAO Category 4 standard or higher. If filing an alternate
using the beyond-180-minute ETOPS rule, the alternate must have RFFS that meet the ICAO Category
4 standard or higher, and the aircraft must remain within the ETOPS authorized diversion time from an
adequate airport that has RFFS equal to ICAO Category 7 or higher.

ALL ALL
9326. “Operational control” of a flight refers to 8003. Which document specifically authorizes a person
A— the specific duties of any required crewmember. to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
B— exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or A— Operations Specifications.
terminating a flight. B— Operating Certificate.
C— exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of C— Dispatch Release.
an aircraft.
Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or
“Operational Control,” with respect to flight, means commuter operations must obtain operations specifica-
the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or tions containing authorization and limitations for routes
terminating a flight. (PLT432, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §1.1 and areas of operations. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14
Answer (A) is incorrect because “crewmember” refers to any per- CFR §119.49
son assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time, which
includes cabin crew as well as cockpit crew. Answer (C) is incorrect
because “pilot-in-command” refers to the pilot responsible for the
operation and safety of an aircraft during flight time, which does not
include the initiation of a flight.

Answers
9326 [B] 8003 [A]

1 – 36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL A provisional airport is defined as an airport approved

9745. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil by the Administrator for use by a certificate holder for
aircraft the purpose of providing service to a community when
A— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved available. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §110.2
operator’s manual available.
B— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21
ALL
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
8767. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct
AFM or RFM available.
air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the
C— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21
Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. com-
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
mercial operator, will be issued
AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in
part 135 section 135.19(b). A— an Air Carrier Certificate.
B— a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate.
No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft C— an Operating Certificate.
for which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is
required by §21.5 unless there is available in the aircraft A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air
a current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Adminis-
or the manual provided for in §121.141(b). (PLT373, trator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial opera-
AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §91.9 tor, will be issued an Operating Certificate. (PLT389,
AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §119.5
Answer (A) is incorrect because a person authorized by the Admin-
ALL istrator to conduct operations as a direct air carrier is issued an Air
8429. An airport approved by the Administrator for Carrier Certificate. Answer (B) is incorrect because wherever in
the Federal Aviation Regulations the term “supplemental air carrier
use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose operating certificate” appears, it shall be deemed to mean an “Air
of providing service to a community when the regular Carrier Operating Certificate.”
airport is not available is a/an:
A— destination airport.
ALL
B— provisional airport.
8768. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is
C— alternate airport.
authorized to conduct are specified in the
A provisional airport is defined as an airport approved A— certificate holder’s operations specifications.
by the Administrator for use by a certificate holder for B— application submitted for an Air Carrier or
the purpose of providing service to a community when Operating Certificate, by the applicant.
the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not C— Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
available. (PLT395, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §110.2
Answer (A) is incorrect because the destination airport is the term Each certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or
used to describe the primary airport of intended landing. Answer commuter operations must obtain operations specifi-
(C) is incorrect because the alternate airport is generally defined as cations containing, among many other provisions, the
an airport at which an aircraft may land if a landing at the intended
airport becomes inadvisable. kinds of operations authorized. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7)
— 14 CFR §119.49
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the operations specifica-
ALL tions are continually updated and amended relative to the opera-
tor’s needs and not contained in the original application or on the
8430. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the certificate itself.
Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder
for the purpose of
A— obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to
winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport.
B— having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or
supplies).
C— providing service to a community when the
regular airport is unavailable.

Answers
9745 [B] 8429 [B] 8430 [C] 8767 [C] 8768 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 37

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ATM, ADX

9782. All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report 8290. Which information must be contained in, or
A— accident and incident data annually. attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier
B— noise complaint statistics for each departure flight?
procedure or runway. A— Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
C— declared distances for each runway. B— Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on
board the airplane.
All 14 CFR Part 139 airports report declared runway C— Passenger manifest, company or organization
distance for each runway. (PLT078, AA.II.A.K2b) — name, and cargo weight.
AIM ¶4-3-6
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because this information is only The dispatch release of a flag or domestic air carrier may
furnished upon request by the administrator per 14 CFR §139.301. be in any form but must contain at least the following
information concerning the flight:
ATM, ADX
1. Identification number of the aircraft;
8243. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, 2. Trip number;
continuation, diversion, and termination of a supple- 3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination
mental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the airports, and alternate airports;
A— pilot-in-command and chief pilot. 4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR);
B— pilot-in-command and director of operations.
C— pilot-in-command and the flight follower. 5. Minimum fuel supply.
(PLT455, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.687
For operations of supplemental air carriers or commer- Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because fuel on board, a passen-
cial operators, the pilot-in-command and the director ger list, and cargo weights are found in the load manifest. Although
of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, separate items, both the dispatch release and the load manifest are
required to be carried on the flight.
continuation, diversion, and termination of a flight.
(PLT444, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.537
ATM, ADX
ATM, ADX
8292. What information must be contained in, or
8243-1. You are the pilot-in-command of a 14 CFR Part attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air
121 domestic operation flight. In addition to yourself, carrier flight?
who is jointly responsible for preflight planning, delay, A— Departure airport, intermediate stops,
and dispatch release of the flight? destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
A— The director of operations. B— Names of all passengers on board and minimum
B— The chief pilot or designed. fuel supply.
C— The aircraft dispatcher. C— Cargo load, weight and balance data, and
identification number of the aircraft.
The PIC and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly respon-
sible for the preflight planning, delay, and dispatch The dispatch release of a flag or domestic air carrier may
release of a flight in compliance with this chapter and be in any form but must contain at least the following
operations specifications. (PLT444, AA.I.E.K9) — 14 information concerning the flight:
CFR §121.533 1. Identification number of the aircraft;
2. Trip number;
3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination
airports, and alternate airports;
4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR);
5. Minimum fuel supply.
(PLT400, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.687
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the passenger names,
cargo load, and weight and balance data are part of the required
load manifest. A copy of the load manifest must also be carried
on the flight. The load manifest is not part of the dispatch release.

Answers
9782 [C] 8243 [B] 8243-1 [C] 8290 [A] 8292 [A]

1 – 38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8293. What information must be included on a domestic 8280. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot-in-
air carrier dispatch release? command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane
A— Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to information concerning weather, and irregularities of
schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. facilities and services?
B— Minimum fuel supply and trip number. A— The aircraft dispatcher.
C— Company or organization name and identification B— Air route traffic control center.
number of the aircraft. C— Director of operations.

The dispatch release of a flag or domestic air carrier may The aircraft dispatcher for a flag or domestic flight shall
be in any form but must contain at least the following provide the pilot-in-command all available reports or
information concerning the flight: information on airport conditions and irregularities of
1. Identification number of the aircraft; navigation facilities that may affect safety of the flight.
(PLT398, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.601
2. Trip number; Answer (B) is incorrect because air route traffic control center may
3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination have information concerning irregularities of facilities and service,
but it is not the proper source of that information. That information
airports, and alternate airports; should be provided by the aircraft dispatcher. Answer (C) is incorrect
4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR); because the director of operations (who may also be the general
manager) is an administrative person, responsible for the day-to-
5. Minimum fuel supply. day operations and not usually involved in specific flight operations.
(PLT412, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.687
Answer (A) is incorrect because the proper loading of the airplane is
ATM, ADX
documented in the load manifest. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the company or organization name is not required on the dispatch 8283. Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane
release. find the latest FDC NOTAMs?
A— Any company dispatch facility.
ATM, ADX
B— Notices To Airmen publication.
8294. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air car- C— Chart Supplements U.S.
rier must contain or have attached to it
The aircraft dispatcher for a flag or domestic flight shall
A— minimum fuel supply and weather information for provide the pilot-in-command all available reports or
the complete flight. information on airport conditions and irregularities of
B— trip number and weight and balance data. navigation facilities that may affect safety of the flight.
C— weather information for the complete flight and a Since FDC NOTAMs are regulatory in nature and apply
crew list. to instrument approach procedures and enroute charts,
they would have to be available. (PLT323, AA.I.E.K14)
The dispatch release must contain, or have attached — 14 CFR §121.601
to it, weather reports, available weather forecasts,
or a combination thereof, for the destination airport,
intermediate stops, and alternate airports, that are the ATM, ADX
latest available at the time the release is signed by the 8284. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing
pilot-in-command and dispatcher. It may include any a domestic or flag air carrier pilot-in-command on all
additional available weather reports or forecasts that available weather information?
the pilot-in-command or the aircraft dispatcher consid- A— Company meteorologist.
ers necessary or desirable. (PLT412, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 B— Aircraft dispatcher.
CFR §121.687 C— Director of operations.

Before the beginning of a flag or domestic flight, the air-

craft dispatcher shall provide the pilot-in-command with
all available weather reports and forecasts of weather
phenomena that may affect the safety of flight. (PLT398,
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.601

Answers
8293 [B] 8294 [A] 8280 [A] 8283 [A] 8284 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 39

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8232. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on 8266. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an
the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time
a redispatch release is required? it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch
A— Not more than 1 hour. authorization?
B— Not more than 2 hours. A— 1922Z.
C— More than 6 hours. B— 1952Z.
C— 0022Z.
Except when a domestic air carrier airplane lands at an
intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch No person may continue a flag air carrier flight from an
release and remains there for not more than 1 hour, no intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane
person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher has been on the ground more than 6 hours. (PLT398,
specifically authorizes that flight. (PLT452, AA.II.A.K2e) AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.595
— 14 CFR §121.593
Answer (B) is incorrect because domestic air carriers may remain
at an intermediate stop for 1 hour before a redispatch release is ATM, ADX
required. Answer (C) is incorrect because flag, supplemental, and 8267. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate
commercial operators may remain at an intermediate stop up to 6 airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the
hours before a redispatch release is required.
latest time it may depart for the next airport without a
redispatch release?
ATM, ADX A— 1945Z.
8260. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an B— 2015Z.
intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may C— 0045Z.
depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft
dispatcher is No person may continue a flag air carrier flight from an
A— 1945Z. intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane
B— 1915Z. has been on the ground more than 6 hours. (PLT398,
C— 1845Z. AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.595

Except when a domestic air carrier airplane lands at an

ATM, ADX
intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch
8226. What information must the pilot-in-command of
release and remains there for not more than 1 hour, no
a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator
person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher
carry to the destination airport?
specifically authorizes that flight. (PLT398, AA.II.A.K2e)
— 14 CFR §121.593 A— Cargo and passenger distribution information.
B— Copy of the flight plan.
C— Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot-
ATM, ADX in-command.
8259. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate
airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart The pilot-in-command shall carry in the airplane to its
without being redispatched is destination: load manifest, flight release, airworthiness
A— 2005Z. release, pilot route certification, and flight plan. (PLT400,
B— 1905Z. AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.687
C— 0005Z. Answer (A) is incorrect because this information is only part of the
load manifest. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is only one ele-
ment of the flight release which is required on board.
No person may continue a flag air carrier flight from an
intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane
has been on the ground more than 6 hours. (PLT398,
AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.595

Answers
8232 [A] 8260 [B] 8259 [C] 8266 [C] 8267 [C] 8226 [B]

1 – 40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8286. Which documents are required to be carried 8287. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or com-
aboard each domestic air carrier flight? mercial operator retain a record of the load manifest,
A— Load manifest (or information from it) and flight airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight
release. release, and flight plan?
B— Dispatch release and weight and balance A— 1 month.
release. B— 3 months.
C— Dispatch release, load manifest (or information C— 12 months.
from it), and flight plan.
A supplemental air carrier must retain a copy of each
The pilot-in-command of a domestic or flag air carrier load manifest, flight release and flight plan at its prin-
flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination: cipal operations base for at least 3 months. (PLT453,
1. A copy of the completed load manifest; AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.697
2. A copy of the dispatch release; and
3. A copy of the flight plan. ATM, ADX
8291. The certificated air carrier and operators who
(PLT400, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.695 must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the
name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and
ATM, ADX
designated pilot-in-command are
8288. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of A— supplemental and commercial.
the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests B— supplemental and domestic.
for at least C— flag and commercial.
A— 3 months.
Supplemental air carrier and commercial operators
B— 6 months.
must attach to, or include on, the flight release form,
C— 30 days.
containing at least the following information concerning
The air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, each flight:
dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least 3 1. Company or organization name;
months. (PLT453, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.695 2. Make, model and registration number of the aircraft
being used;
ATM, ADX 3. Flight or trip number and the date of the flight;
8296. Which documents are required to be carried 4. Name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant,
aboard each flag air carrier flight? and pilot designated as pilot-in-command;
A— Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and 5. Departure airport, destination airports, alternate
balance release. airports, and route;
B— Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.
6. Minimum fuel supply; and
C— Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
7. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR).
The pilot-in-command of a domestic or flag air carrier (PLT455, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.689
flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination:
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because domestic and flag
1. A copy of the completed load manifest; carriers, unlike supplemental and commercial operators, utilize a
dispatch release. Commercial operators and supplemental carriers
2. A copy of the dispatch release; and utilize a flight release. A flight release contains the crew names, but
a dispatch release does not.
3. A copy of the flight plan.
(PLT400, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.695
Answer (A) is incorrect because a dispatch release is required but
there is no required document called a weight and balance release.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a flight release is used by supple-
mental air carriers and commercial operators.

Answers
8286 [C] 8288 [A] 8296 [C] 8287 [B] 8291 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 41

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM

8295. The information required in the flight release for 9746. Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an
supplemental air carriers and commercial operators ETOPS
that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and A— preflight check must be conducted by a certified
domestic air carriers is the A&P and signed off in the logbook.
A— weather reports and forecasts. B— pre-departure service check must be certified by
B— names of all crewmembers. a PDSC Signatory Person.
C— minimum fuel supply. C— pre-departure check must be signed off by an
A&P or the PIC for the flight.
The flight release of a supplemental air carrier or com-
mercial operator may be in any form but must contain An appropriately-trained, ETOPS-qualified maintenance
at least the following information concerning each flight: person must accomplish and certify by signature ETOPS
1. Company or organization name; specific tasks. Before an ETOPS flight may commence,
an ETOPS pre-departure service check (PDSC) Signa-
2. Make, model and registration number of the aircraft tory Person, who has been authorized by the certificate
being used; holder, must certify by signature, that the ETOPS PDSC
3. Flight or trip number and the date of the flight; has been completed. (PLT425, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR
4. Name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, §121.374
and pilot designated as pilot-in-command;
5. Departure airport, destination airports, alternate ATM
airports, and route; 9746-1. An ETOPS entry point means
6. Minimum fuel supply; and A— the first entry point on the route of flight of an
7. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR). ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise
speed that is more than 60 minutes from an
The dispatch release of a flag or domestic air carrier may adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.
be in any form but must contain at least the following B— the first entry point on the route of flight of an
information concerning the flight: ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise
1. Identification number of the aircraft; speed that is more than 200 minutes from an
2. Trip number; adequate airport for airplanes having more than
two engines.
3. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination C— the first entry point on the route of flight of an
airports, and alternate airports; ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise
4. A statement of the type of operation (IFR, VFR); speed that is more than 90 minutes from an
5. Minimum fuel supply. adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.
(PLT412, AA.II.A.K2e) — 14 CFR §121.689 “ETOPS entry point” means the first point on the route
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because weather reports and of an ETOPS flight that is (1) more than 60 minutes
forecasts and minimum fuel supply information are required in the from an adequate airport for airplanes with two engines,
flight release for supplemental and commercial operators and in the
dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers. and (2) more than 180 minutes from an adequate air-
port for passenger-carrying airplanes with more than
two engines. This is determined using a one-engine-
inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in
still air. (PLT425, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.7

Answers
8295 [B] 9746 [B] 9746-1 [A]

1 – 42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM ATM, ADX

9746-2. For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS 8281. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all
Alternate Airport current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of
A— for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?
equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, A— Aircraft dispatcher.
unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by B— Director of operations or flight follower.
local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. C— Pilot-in-command.
B— for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS
equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, Before beginning a flight, each pilot-in-command of a
unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight
local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. shall obtain all available current reports or information
C— for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS on airport conditions and irregularities or navigation
equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, facilities that may affect the safety of the flight. (PLT444,
unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by AA.II.A.K5) — 14 CFR §121.603
local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. Answer (A) is incorrect because an aircraft dispatcher is responsible
for briefing a flag or domestic (not supplemental) air carrier pilot.
For ETOPS up to 180 minutes, each designated Answer (B) is incorrect because the director of operations (who
may also be the general manager) is an administrative person,
ETOPS alternate airport must have RFFS equivalent to responsible for the day-to-day operations and not usually involved
that specified by ICAO as Category 4 or higher. If the in specific flight operations.
equipment and personnel required are not immediately
available at an airport, the certificate holder may still
list the airport on the dispatch or flight release if the ATM, ADX
airport’s RFFS can be augmented from local fire fighting 8282. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is
assets. A 30-minute response time for augmentation responsible for obtaining information on meteorological
is adequate if the local assets can be notified while the conditions?
diverting airplane is en route. (PLT398, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 A— Aircraft dispatcher.
CFR §121.106 B— Pilot-in-command.
C— Director of operations or flight follower.
ALL During a flight, the pilot-in-command of a supplemental
9761. What is considered “north polar”? air carrier or commercial operator flight shall obtain any
A— north of 60° N latitude. additional available information of meteorological con-
B— north of 68° N latitude. ditions and irregularities of facilities and services that
C— north of 78° N latitude. may affect the safety of the flight. (PLT444, AA.II.A.K5)
— 14 CFR §121.603
As an example, operations in the “North Polar Area” Answer (A) is incorrect because an aircraft dispatcher is responsible
and “South Polar Area” require a specific passenger for obtaining weather information for a flag or domestic air carrier
recovery plan for each diversion airport. North Polar flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because the director of operations
(who may also be the general manager) or flight follower is an
Area means the entire area north of 78° N latitude. administrative person, responsible for day-to-day operations and
(PLT425, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.7 not usually involved in specific flight operations.

ALL
9762. What is considered “south polar”?
A— south of 60° S latitude.
B— south of 68° S latitude.
C— south of 78° S latitude.

As an example, operations in the “North Polar Area”

and “South Polar Area” require a specific passenger
recovery plan for each diversion airport. South Polar
Area means the entire area south of 60° S latitude.
(PLT425, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.7

Answers
9746-2 [A] 9761 [C] 9762 [A] 8281 [C] 8282 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 43

Chapter 1 Regulations

Fuel Requirements
All domestic flights must have enough fuel to:
1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (if an alternate is required) and
3. Thereafter, fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(The fuel required for a flag flight landing in the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia is
the same as for domestic flights.)
(The fuel requirements for reciprocating-powered supplemental or commercial operations
landing in the contiguous 48 states is the same as for domestic operations.)

If an alternate is not required or the flight is being made to a remote airport where no alternate is
available, the fuel requirements are:
1. Enough fuel to fly to the destination, and then;
2. Fly for two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A turbojet supplemental flight (with an alternate available) landing outside the 48 contiguous states
must have fuel to:
1. Fly to the destination, then
2. Fly 10% of the total time required to fly to the destination, then
3. Fly to the alternate, then
4. Fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate.

Propeller driven flag flights must have enough fuel to:

1. Fly to the airport to which the flight was dispatched;
2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate; and
3. Thereafter, fly for 30 minutes plus 15% of the total flying time to the destination and the alternate at
normal cruising fuel consumption; or fly for 90 minutes, whichever is less.

If an alternate is not required or the flight is being made to a remote airport where no alternate is
available, the fuel requirements for reciprocating engine powered flights are:
1. Enough fuel to fly to the destination, and then;
2. Fly for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

ATM, ADX For domestic operations, no person may dispatch or

8268. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air car- takeoff an airplane unless it has enough fuel to:
rier flight is
1. Fly to the airport to which it was dispatched;
A— 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel
2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
consumption in addition to the fuel required to the
alternate airport (if an alternate is required); and
alternate airport.
B— 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in 3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising
addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at fuel consumption.
the most distant alternate airport. (PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.639
C— 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition
to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

Answers
8268 [B] 8269 [A]

1 – 44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8269. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be 8272. An alternate airport is not required for a supple-
a­board a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight mental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered air-
with­­­in the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching plane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United
the most distant alternate airport, should be States, if enough fuel
A— 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. A— is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise
B— 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal
C— enough fuel to return to the destination airport holding speed.
or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel B— is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination
consumption, whichever is less. and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal
cruising fuel consumption.
A turbine-engined flag air carrier operation within the 48 C— to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at
contiguous United States and the District of Columbia holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried
may use the fuel requirements of a domestic air car- aboard the airplane.
rier. For domestic operations, no person may dispatch
or takeoff in an airplane unless it has enough fuel to: No person may dispatch a turbojet-powered airplane
1. Fly to the airport to which it was dispatched; to an airport for which no alternate is available unless
it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather
2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant conditions, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for
alternate airport (if an alternate is required); and at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising (PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.645
fuel consumption.
(PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.639 ATM, ADX
Answer (B) is incorrect because 2 hours normal cruising fuel is 8276. A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane
required at the destination airport when an alternate is not specified
and the flight is conducted outside the 48 contiguous United States. is released to an airport which has no available alternate.
Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no provision for return to What is the required fuel reserve?
the destination airport in calculating fuel requirements.
A— 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind
condition fuel consumption.
ATM, ADX B— 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
8271. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an C— 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
island airport for which an alternate airport is not avail-
able, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough No person may dispatch a turbojet-powered airplane
fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly to an airport for which no alternate is available unless
it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather
A— at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. conditions, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for
B— for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C— back to the departure airport. (PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.645
No person may dispatch a turbojet-powered airplane
to an airport for which no alternate is available unless
it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather
conditions, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for
at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.645

Answers
8271 [A] 8272 [B] 8276 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 45

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX No person may release for flight or takeoff a nonturbine

8273. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine- or turbopropeller-powered airplane unless, considering
powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has
carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alter- enough fuel to:
nate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is
1. Fly to the airport to which it was released;
A— 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over
2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
the airport.
alternate airport specified in the flight release; and
B— 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at
cruising speed. 3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising
C— 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption fuel consumption.
rate. (PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.643
For any flag air carrier, supplemental air carrier, or com-
mercial operator operation outside the 48 contiguous ATM, ADX
United States or District of Columbia, no person may 8277. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-
release for flight or takeoff a turbine engine-powered engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon
airplane (other than a turbopropeller-powered airplane) arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight
unless, considering wind and other weather conditions in the 48 contiguous United States is
expected, it has enough fuel: A— 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
1. To fly to and land at the airport to which it was B— the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10
released; percent.
2. After that, to fly for a period of 10% of the total time C— 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
required to fly from the airport of departure to and
land at, the airport to which it was released; No person may release for flight or takeoff a nonturbine
or turbopropeller-powered airplane unless, considering
3. After that, to fly to and land at the most distant the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has
alternate airport specified in the flight release, if an enough fuel to:
alternate is required; and
1. Fly to the airport to which it was released;
4. After that, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at
1,500 feet above the alternate airport (or destination 2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
airport if no alternate is required) under standard alternate airport specified in the flight release; and
temperature conditions. 3. Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising
(PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.645 fuel consumption.
(PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.643

ATM, ADX
8270. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a com- ATM, ADX
mercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered 8274. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what
airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag
upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport speci- air carrier airplane?
fied in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A— 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel
A— 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of
to fly at normal cruising consumption to the cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less.
alternate. B— 45 minutes at holding altitude.
B— to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel C— 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time
consumption. required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise,
C— 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. whichever is less.

Answers
8273 [A] 8270 [C] 8277 [A] 8274 [C]

1 – 46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

No person may dispatch or takeoff in a flag air carrier ATM, ADX

nonturbine or turbopropeller-powered airplane unless, 8275. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller
considering the wind and other weather conditions supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a
expected, it has enough fuel: destination airport for which an alternate airport is not
specified, is
1. To fly to and land at the airport to which it is dis-
patched; A— 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition.
B— 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
2. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant
C— 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
alternate airport specified in the dispatch release;
and No supplemental air carrier or commercial operator
3. Thereafter to fly for 30 minutes plus 15% of numbers may release a nonturbine or turbopropeller-powered
1 and 2 above, or to fly for 90 minutes at normal airplane to an airport for which no alternate is specified
cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and weather
(PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.641 conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter
to fly for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(PLT413, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.643

Carriage of Passengers and Cargo

Before takeoff all the passengers must be briefed on:
• Smoking,
• the location of emergency exits,
• the use of seatbelts,
• the location and use of any required means of emergency flotation.

After the seatbelt sign has been turned off in flight, the passengers must be briefed to keep their
seatbelts fastened while seated. In addition to the required briefings, passengers must be provided with
printed cards that contain diagrams of and methods of operating the emergency exits and the use of
other emergency equipment. Before flight is conducted above FL250, a crewmember must instruct the
passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, and must point out
to them the location and demonstrate the use of the oxygen dispensing equipment.
Each passenger two years old and older must have their own seat or berth and approved seatbelt.
During takeoff and landing, all passengers must be in their seat with their seatbelts fastened. A child
under two may be held by an adult. During the enroute portion of a flight, two passengers may share a
seatbelt while seated in a multiple lounge or divan seat.
There are certain persons who have to be admitted to the flight deck in flight (such as crewmem-
bers, FAA inspectors, etc.) and certain others who may be admitted (e.g., deadheading crew), but the
pilot-in-command has emergency authority to exclude any person from the flight deck in the interest of
safety. In what is commonly known as the “sterile cockpit rule,” crewmembers are required to refrain from
nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. As defined in the regulation, critical phases of flight
are all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations below 10,000
feet except cruise flight. Nonessential activities include such activities as eating, reading a newspaper,
or chatting.
Law enforcement officers may carry firearms on board an air carrier flight if their duties so require.
Except in an emergency, the carrier should be given at least one hour prior notice that a person carry-
ing a deadly weapon is going to be on the flight. If a passenger is carrying a firearm in their checked

Answers
8275 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 47

Chapter 1 Regulations

baggage, the weapon must be unloaded and the bag locked. The passenger must retain the key to the
bag. The bag must be stowed in a portion of the aircraft that is inaccessible to both the passenger and
to crewmembers in flight.
Prisoners are sometimes carried on air carrier flights. The prisoners are always escorted and no
more than one prisoner who is classified as “maximum risk” can be allowed on the aircraft. Certain rules
apply to the carriage of prisoners. These include:
• The prisoner and escort must be boarded before all other passengers and must stay on board until
all other passengers have deplaned.
• The prisoner and escort must sit in the most rearward passenger seats and the escort must sit
between the prisoner and the aisle.
• The carrier may serve the prisoner and the escort food and beverages, but neither of them may be
served alcohol.

If a person who appears to be intoxicated creates a disturbance on a flight, a report of the incident
must be made to the Administrator (the FAA) within 5 days.
Certain passengers may be carried on an all-cargo flight without the carrier having to comply with all
the passenger-carrying rules. Passengers carried on an all-cargo flight must have a seat with an approved
seatbelt in the cargo compartment. They must have access to the pilot compartment or to an exit. The
pilot-in-command must be able to notify them when they must have their seatbelt fastened and when
smoking is prohibited. They must receive an emergency briefing from a crewmember prior to takeoff.
The pilot-in-command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the flight crew compartment.
Cargo (including carry-on baggage) may be carried in the passenger compartment of an aircraft if
certain conditions are met. If the cargo is carried in an approved cargo bin, it can be located anywhere
in the passenger compartment. The bin:
• Must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats multiplied by 1.15.
• May not be installed in a position that restricts access to or use of any required emergency exit, or
of the aisle in the passenger cabin.
• Must be completely enclosed and made of material that is at least flame resistant.

If the cargo is not placed in an approved cargo bin it must be located aft of a bulkhead or divider (i.e.,
not aft of a passenger) and it must meet certain other requirements. These include:
• It must be properly secured by a safety belt or other tie down.
• It must be packaged or covered in a manner so as to avoid injury to occupants of the passenger
cabin.
• It must not impose an excessive load on the floor or seat structures of the aircraft.
• Its location must not restrict access to or use of the aisle, any regular exit or any required emergency
exit.
• Its location must not obscure any passenger’s view of the “seatbelt,” “no smoking,” or required “exit”
signs unless an auxiliary sign is installed.

Each person who has duties concerning the handling or carriage of dangerous articles or magnetized
materials must have completed a training course within the preceding 12 calendar months.

1 – 48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL Commonly known as the “sterile cockpit rule,” 14 CFR

8131. A certificate holder is notified that a person specifi- §121.542 requires flight crewmembers to refrain from
cally authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard nonessential activities during critical phases of flight.
an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before As defined in the regulation, critical phases of flight are
loading that flight should the air carrier be notified? all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and land-
A— Notification is not required, if the certificate holder ing, and all other flight operations below 10,000 feet
has a security coordinator. except cruise flight. Nonessential activities include such
B— A minimum of 1 hour. activities as eating, reading a newspaper, or chatting.
C— A minimum of 2 hours. (PLT498, AA.I.E.K8) — 14 CFR §121.542

The certificate holder, except in an emergency, must be

given at least 1 hour notice when an authorized person ALL
intends to have a weapon accessible in flight. (PLT498, 9763-1. Under 14 CFR Part 121, when may nonessential
AA.I.G.S1) — 49 CFR §1544.219 communications take place below 10,000 feet?
A— In VMC conditions.
B— Before the final approach fix.
ALL C— During cruise flight.
8137. When a passenger notifies the certificate holder
prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is Commonly known as the sterile cockpit rule, 14 CFR
in the baggage, what action is required by regulation §121.542 requires flight crewmembers to refrain from
regarding this baggage? nonessential activities during critical phases of flight.
A— The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew As defined in the regulation, critical phases of flight are
compartment, provided the baggage remains all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and land-
locked, and the key is given to the pilot-in- ing, and all other flight operations below 10,000 feet
command. except cruise flight. Nonessential activities include such
B— The baggage must remain locked and carried in activities as eating, reading a newspaper, or chatting.
an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and (PLT498, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.542
only the passenger retains the key.
C— The baggage must remain locked and stored
ALL
where it would be inaccessible, and custody
8132. When a person in the custody of law enforcement
of the key shall remain with a designated
personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures
crewmember.
are required regarding boarding of this person and the
No certificate holder may knowingly permit any person escort?
to transport any unloaded firearm in checked baggage A— They shall be boarded before all other
unless the baggage in which it is carried is locked and passengers board, and deplaned after all the
only the passenger checking the baggage retains the other passengers have left the aircraft.
key or combination. The baggage containing the fire- B— They shall be boarded after all other passengers
arm must be carried in an area, other than the flight board, and deplaned before all the other
crew compartment, that is inaccessible to passengers. passengers leave the aircraft.
(PLT498, AA.I.G.S1) — 49 CFR §1544.203(f) C— They shall board and depart before the other
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the baggage containing passengers.
the unloaded firearm will be carried in the baggage area, and only
the passenger checking the baggage retains the key. When a person in custody of law enforcement is to
be carried on a flight, the prisoner and escort must be
boarded before any other passengers and deplaned
ALL
after all other passengers have deplaned. (PLT325,
9763. What is meant by “sterile cockpit”?
AA.I.G.S1) — 49 CFR §1544.221(f)(1)
A— All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft
is ready for engine starting.
B— Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities
during critical phases of flight.
C— Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their
required stations.

Answers
8131 [B] 8137 [B] 9763 [B] 9763-1 [C] 8132 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 49

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ATM, ADX

8136. Which applies to the carriage of a person in the 8153. When may two persons share one approved
custody of law enforcement personnel? safety belt in a lounge seat?
A— The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages A— When one is an adult and one is a child under 3
to the person in custody or the law enforcement years of age.
escort. B— Only during the en route flight.
B— No more than one person considered to be in C— During all operations except the takeoff and
the maximum risk category may be carried on landing portion of a flight.
a flight, and that person must have at least two
armed law enforcement escorts. No person may operate an airplane unless there are
C— The person in custody must be seated between available during the takeoff, enroute flight, and landing
the escort and the aisle. an approved seatbelt for separate use by each person
on board the airplane who has reached his/her second
No more than one passenger, of whom the certificate birthday, except that two persons occupying a berth
holder has been notified as being in a maximum risk may share one approved seatbelt and two persons
category, can be carried on an airplane. (PLT325, occupying a multiple lounge or divan seat may share one
AA.I.G.S1) — 49 CFR §1544.221(c)(2), (d)(3) approved seatbelt during en route flight only. (PLT465,
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.311
Answer (A) is incorrect because the regulations do not specify an
ATM, ADX age of persons sharing a seatbelt on a lounge seat. Sharing a seat-
8225. Which announcement must be made if the seat belt in a lounge seat can only be done during the enroute portion of
belt sign will be turned off during flight? the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because two persons may share
one seatbelt in a lounge seat only during the enroute portion of the
A— Clearly explain the location of the fire flight, which excludes taxi and takeoff as well as landing.
extinguishers and emergency exits.
B— Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened
while seated. ATM, ADX
C— Passengers are free to leave their seats once the 8244. The pilot-in-command has emergency authority
seat belt sign is turned off. to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the
flight deck
After each takeoff, immediately before or immediately A— except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks.
after turning the seat belt sign off, an announcement B— in the interest of safety.
shall be made that passengers should keep their seat C— except persons who have authorization from the
belts fastened, while seated, even when the seat belt certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.
sign is off. (PLT384, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.571
The pilot-in-command has the emergency authority to
exclude anyone from the flight deck in the interest of
ATM, ADX safety. (PLT444, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.547
8181. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because persons who have
given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using specific authorization of the certificate holder and FAA inspectors
oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to may be admitted to the flight deck except when excluded in an
flights conducted above emergency.

A— FL200.
B— FL240.
C— FL250.

Before flight is conducted above FL250, a crewmember

shall instruct the passengers on the necessity of using
oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, and
shall point out to them the location and demonstrate
the use of the oxygen dispensing equipment. (PLT438,
AA.I.A.K11) — 14 CFR §121.333

Answers
8136 [B] 8225 [B] 8181 [C] 8153 [B] 8244 [B]

1 – 50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger com-

8233. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance partment if it is carried in an approved cargo bin. The
aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder bin must meet the following requirements:
must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the
1. The bin must be able to withstand the load factors
Administrator within
and emergency landing conditions applicable to the
A— 7 days. passenger seats of the airplane in which it is installed,
B— 5 days. multiplied by a factor of 1.15;
C— 48 hours.
2. The cargo bin may not be installed in a position that
If an intoxicated person causes an incident on the air- restricts access to or use of any required emergency
craft the certificate holder shall, within 5 days, report exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment;
that incident to the Administrator. (PLT366, AA.I.G.K4) 3. The bin must be fully enclosed and made of material
— 14 CFR §121.575 that is at least flame resistant.
(PLT385, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.285
Answer (A) is incorrect because the bin may not be installed in a
ATM, ADX
position that restricts access to or use of any required emergency
8234. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo exit. Answer (C) is incorrect because the bin must be fully enclosed
aircraft, which of the following applies? and made of material that is at least flame resistant.
A— The passenger must have access to a seat in the
pilot compartment. ATM, ADX
B— The pilot-in-command may authorize the 8175. Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a pas-
passenger to be admitted to the crew senger compartment? The bin
compartment.
C— Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the A— may have an open top if it is placed in front of the
passenger. passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo
net.
When a passenger is allowed on an all-cargo flight, B— must withstand the load factor required of
the pilot-in-command may authorize admittance to the passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the
flight deck. (PLT444, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.583 combined weight of the bin and the maximum
Answer (A) is incorrect because the seat does not have to be on the weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin.
flight deck, but there must be an approved seat with an approved C— must be constructed of flame retardant material
seatbelt for each person. Answer (C) is incorrect because crew- and fully enclosed.
type oxygen is not required for passengers. It is only required that
the person be briefed on the use of oxygen and emergency oxygen
equipment. Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger com-
partment if it is carried in an approved cargo bin. The
bin must meet the following requirements:
ATM, ADX 1. The bin must be able to withstand the load factors
8139. What requirement must be met regarding cargo and emergency landing conditions applicable to the
that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment passenger seats of the airplane in which it is installed,
of an air carrier airplane? multiplied by a factor of 1.15;
A— The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be 2. The cargo bin may not be installed in a position that
installed in a position that restricts access to, or restricts access to or use of any required emergency
use of, any exit. exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment;
B— The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be
installed in a position that restricts access to, or 3. The bin must be fully enclosed and made of material
use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. that is at least flame resistant.
C— The container or bin in which the cargo is carried (PLT385, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.285
must be made of material which is at least flash Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the cargo bin must be
resistant. fully enclosed, and be constructed of materials that are at least
flame resistant.

Answers
8233 [B] 8234 [B] 8139 [B] 8175 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 51

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX Cargo may be carried aft of a bulkhead or divider in any

8138. What restrictions must be observed regarding passenger compartment provided the cargo is restrained
the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of to required load factors, and it is properly secured by
an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121? a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength
A— All cargo must be separated from the passengers to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally
by a partition capable of withstanding certain load anticipated flight and ground conditions. (PLT385,
stresses. AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.285
B— All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because cargo may be carried in
resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the the passenger compartment if it is properly covered and secured
so as not to be a hazard.
floor structure of the airplane.
C— Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly
secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having
enough strength to eliminate the possibility of
shifting.

Part 135 Carriage of Passengers and Cargo Requirements

ATS, RTC 6. The registration number of the aircraft or flight num-
8007. Where must a certificate holder keep copies of ber;
completed load manifests and for what period of time?
7. The origin and destination; and
A— 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a
8. Identification of crewmembers and their crew position
location approved by the Administrator.
assignments.
B— 30 days at its principal operations base, or
another location used by it and approved by the (PLT440, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.63
Administrator.
C— 30 days, at the flight’s destination.
ATS, RTC
The certificate holder shall keep copies of completed 8009. Who is responsible for the preparation of a
load manifests for at least 30 days at its principal required load manifest?
operations base, or at another location used by it and A— PIC or the Dispatcher.
approved by the Administrator. (PLT400, AA.I.G.K5) — B— Company official designated by the Administrator.
14 CFR §135.63 C— The certificate holder.

For multi-engine aircraft, each certificate holder is

ATS, RTC responsible for the preparation and accuracy of a load
8008. Which is NOT a required item on the load mani- manifest. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.63
fest?
A— List of passenger names and the weight of each.
ATS, RTC
B— Aircraft registration number or flight number.
8032. Which restriction must be observed regarding
C— Identification of crewmembers and their crew
position. the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?
A— It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
The load manifest must be prepared before each takeoff to occupants.
and must include: B— All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and
1. The number of passengers; secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure
of the aircraft.
2. The total weight of the loaded aircraft; C— Cargo carried in passenger seats must be
3. The maximum allowable takeoff weight for that flight; forward of all passengers.
4. The center of gravity limits;
5. The center of gravity of the loaded aircraft;

Answers
8138 [C] 8007 [B] 8008 [A] 8009 [C] 8032 [A]

1 – 52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage, ATS, RTC

in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following 8039. In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded
criteria is met: A— so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the
1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com- crew and cargo compartments.
partment; B— in such a manner that at least one emergency or
regular exit is available to all occupants.
2. It is secured by approved means; or
C— in such a manner that at least one emergency or
3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an
are met: emergency occurs.
a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt
or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi- For cargo-only operations, the cargo must be loaded
nate the possibility of shifting under all normally so at least one emergency or regular exit is available to
anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for provide all occupants of the aircraft a means of unob-
carry-on baggage, it is restrain­ed so as to prevent structed exit from the aircraft if an emergency occurs.
its movement during air turbulence; (PLT385, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.87
b. It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
to occupants; ATS, RTC
c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the 8040. Which is a requirement governing the carriage
floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for of cargo, on a scheduled passenger flight?
those components; A— Cargo must be carried in an approved rack, bin,
d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the or compartment.
access to, or use of, any required emergency or B— Cargo not stowed in an approved bin must be
regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the secured by a safety belt or approved tiedown
crew and passenger compartment, or located in device.
a position that obscures any passenger’s view C— All cargo carried in the passenger compartment
of the “seatbelt” sign, “no smoking” sign or any must be packaged and stowed ahead of the
required exit sign; foremost seated passenger.
e. It is not carried directly above seated occupants. No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage,
(PLT385, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.87 in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following
criteria is met:
1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com-
ATS, RTC
partment;
9720. A person whose duties include the handling or
carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized mate- 2. It is secured by approved means; or
rials must have satisfactorily completed an approved 3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following
training program established by the certificate holder are met:
within the previous
a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt
A— 6 calendar months. or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi-
B— 12 calendar months. nate the possibility of shifting under all normally
C— 24 calendar months. anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for
carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent
No certificate holder may use any person or perform, its movement during air turbulence;
and no person may perform, any assigned duties and
responsibilities for the handling or carriage of hazard- b. It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
ous materials unless within the preceding 12 calendar to occupants;
months that person has satisfactorily completed initial c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the
or recurrent training in an appropriate training program floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for
established by the certificate holder. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) those components;
— 14 CFR, SFAR 99 d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the
access to, or use of, any required emergency or

Answers
9720 [B] 8039 [B] 8040 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 53

Chapter 1 Regulations

regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the ATS, RTC
crew and passenger compartment, or located in 8042. If carry-on baggage or cargo is carried in the
a position that obscures any passenger’s view passenger compartment, it must be
of the “seatbelt” sign, “no smoking” sign or any A— stowed ahead of the foremost seated passengers
required exit sign; and secured by approved means.
e. It is not carried directly above seated occupants. B— placed in an approved rack, bin, or compartment
installed in the aircraft.
(PLT385, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.87
C— so located that it does not obstruct the access to, or
the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.
ATS, RTC
No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage,
8041. Which is a requirement governing the carriage
in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following
of carry-on baggage?
criteria is met:
A— All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that
1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com-
its movement is prevented during air turbulence.
partment;
B— Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the
seat in front of the owner. 2. It is secured by approved means; or
C— Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following
10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack are met:
or bin.
a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt
No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage, or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi-
in or on any aircraft unless one of the three following nate the possibility of shifting under all normally
criteria is met: anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for
carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent
1. It is carried in an approved cargo rack, bin or com- its movement during air turbulence;
partment;
b. It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury
2. It is secured by approved means; or to occupants;
3. If number 1 or 2 is not met, then all of the following c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the
are met: floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for
a. For cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt those components;
or other tie-down having enough strength to elimi- d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the
nate the possibility of shifting under all normally access to, or use of, any required emergency or
anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the
carry-on baggage, it is restrained so as to prevent crew and passenger compartment, or located in
its movement during air turbulence; a position that obscures any passenger’s view
b. It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury of the “seatbelt” sign, “no smoking” sign or any
to occupants; required exit sign;
c. It does not impose any load on seats or on the e. It is not carried directly above seated occupants.
floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for (PLT385, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.87
those components;
d. It is not located in a position that obstructs the ATS, RTC
access to, or use of, any required emergency or 8043. The load manifest must be prepared prior to
regular exit, or the use of the aisle between the each takeoff for
crew and passenger compartment, or located in
a position that obscures any passenger’s view A— any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of
of the “seatbelt” sign, “no smoking” sign or any 10 seats or more.
required exit sign; B— any aircraft with more than one engine.
C— all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a
e. It is not carried directly above seated occupants. commuter air carrier.
(PLT385, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.87
For multi-engine aircraft, each certificate holder is
responsible for the preparation and accuracy of a load
manifest. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.63
Answers
8041 [A] 8042 [C] 8043 [B]

1 – 54 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

Emergency Equipment and Operations

Certain emergency equipment must be carried on every air carrier airplane. This equipment includes
fire extinguishers, megaphones, first aid kits, and a crash ax. All this equipment must:
• Be inspected regularly.
• Be readily accessible to the crew and, for items carried in the passenger cabin, to the passengers.
• Be clearly identified and marked with its method of operation (this applies to any containers in which
the equipment is carried).

Only one crash ax is required on the airplane and must be carried on the flight deck. At least one
hand fire extinguisher must be carried on the flight deck. The number of extinguishers carried in the
cabin is determined by the number of installed passenger seats. The following table applies.

Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers in the Passenger Cabin:

Passenger Seating Capacity Extinguishers Required
6 through 30 .................................................................................. 1
31 through 60 ................................................................................ 2
61 through 200 .............................................................................. 3
201 through 300 ............................................................................ 4
301 through 400 ............................................................................ 5
401 through 500 ............................................................................ 6
501 through 600 ............................................................................ 7
601 or more ................................................................................... 8

The number of megaphones carried on the airplane is determined by the number of installed pas-
senger seats. On airplanes with a seating capacity of 60 through 99 passengers, one megaphone must
be carried in the most rearward location in the passenger cabin that is readily accessible to a normal
flight attendant seat. On airplanes with a seating capacity of 100 or more seats, one megaphone must
be carried at the rear of the cabin and another megaphone must be carried at the front of the cabin.
Passenger carrying airplanes must have an emergency exit light system. This system must be oper-
able manually from both the flight crew station and from a point in the passenger compartment read-
ily accessible to a flight attendant. When the system is armed it must come on automatically with the
interruption of the airplane’s normal electrical power. The exit lights must be armed or turned on during
taxiing, takeoff and landing. Every emergency exit (other than an over wing exit) that is more than 6 feet
from the ground must have a means of assisting occupants to the ground in the event of an emergency
evacuation. The most common means of complying with this requirement is an inflatable slide that deploys
automatically when the door is opened. If such an automatic escape slide is installed, it must be armed
during taxi, takeoff and landing. If any required emergency exit for passengers is located in other than
the passenger compartment (such as the flight deck), the door separating the compartments must be
latched open during takeoff and landing.
A public address system and a separate crewmember interphone system must be installed on all
airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 19 seats.
Each crewmember on a flight must have a flashlight in good working order readily available.

(continued)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 55

Chapter 1 Regulations

When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet there must be enough oxygen for all crewmem-
bers for the entire flight at those altitudes, and in no event less than a 2-hour supply.
When operating at flight altitudes above FL410 each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must have
an oxygen mask, within immediate reach, so designed that it can be rapidly placed on his/her face. This is
commonly referred to as a “quick-donning” oxygen mask. To meet the requirements, regulations require
that the mask be designed so that it can be put on the user’s face within 5 seconds. If, while operating
above FL410, one pilot leaves his/her station, the other pilot must put on his/her oxygen mask.
Above FL410 one pilot must wear his/her mask at all times. Notice that the rule applies only to the
pilots. Above FL250 the flight engineer need only have a quick-donning mask readily available. Note:
For Part 135 operations one pilot must wear the oxygen mask above FL350.
The oxygen requirements for passengers vary with the type of aircraft, but oxygen must be provided
to all passengers for the entire time the cabin altitude is above 15,000 feet.
Passengers on turbine powered airplanes must be supplied oxygen according to the following
schedule.
• For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet, up to and including 14,000 feet, there must
be enough oxygen to supply 10% of the passengers for any time at those altitudes in excess of 30
minutes.
• For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet, up to and including 15,000 feet, there must
be enough oxygen for 30% of the passengers for the entire time at those altitudes.
• For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet there must be enough oxygen for all the
passengers for the entire time of flight at those altitudes.

The amount of oxygen carried for passengers in the event of loss of pressurization varies depending
on the ability of the airplane to make an emergency descent. If the aircraft can make a descent to 14,000
feet within 4 minutes it may carry less oxygen than would otherwise be required.
A certain amount of first aid oxygen must be carried for passengers on flights that operate above
FL250. The amount of oxygen is determined by the actual number of passengers but in no case may
there be less than 2 oxygen dispensing units.
On extended over-water flights (more than 50 nautical miles from the shoreline) the airplane must
have a life preserver for each occupant of the aircraft, and enough life rafts to accommodate all the
occupants. This equipment must be easily accessible in the event of a ditching.
• Each life raft and each life vest must be equipped with a survivor locator light.
• A survival kit, appropriate for the route flown, must be attached to each life raft.
• There must be at least one portable emergency radio transmitter carried on the airplane.

When flag or supplemental carriers or commercial operators fly over uninhabited terrain, the following
survival equipment must be carried on the airplane:
• Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
• A survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
• Enough survival kits, appropriate for the route flown, for all the occupants of the airplane.

In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot-in-command may
take any action that he/she considers necessary under the circumstances. In such a case the PIC may
deviate from prescribed procedures and methods, weather minimums and regulations to the extent

1 – 56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

required in the interest of safety. In an emergency situation arising during flight that requires immediate
decision and action by an aircraft dispatcher, the dispatcher must advise the pilot-in-command of the
emergency, shall ascertain the decision of the pilot-in-command and shall have that decision recorded.
If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot, he/she shall declare an emergency and take any
action he/she considers necessary under the circumstances.
Each certificate holder (airline) must, for each type and model of airplane, assign to each category of
crewmember, as appropriate, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or in a situation
requiring emergency evacuation. The certificate holder must describe those duties in its manual.
Crewmembers must receive emergency training annually on several subjects. Besides the training
they must perform emergency drills in:
• The operation of emergency exits;
• Hand fire extinguishers;
• The emergency oxygen system and protective breathing equipment;
• Donning, inflation and use of individual flotation equipment; and
• Ditching.

Crewmembers who serve above 25,000 feet must receive instruction in hypoxia, respiration and
decompression. Crewmembers must actually operate certain emergency equipment in their recurrent
training at least once every 24 months.
The pilot-in-command must make a report to the appropriate ground radio station of the stoppage
of an engine’s rotation in flight (due either to failure or intentional shutdown) as soon as practicable and
must keep that station informed of the progress of the flight. As a general rule, when an engine fails or is
shutdown, the pilot-in-command must land the aircraft at the nearest suitable airport, time-wise, at which
a safe landing can be made. There is an exception to the rule for airplanes with 3 or more engines. If
only 1 engine has failed, the pilot-in-command may elect to continue to a more distant airport (possibly
the original destination) if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
The certificate holder must provide a cockpit check procedure (checklist) for each type of aircraft it
operates. The procedures must include each item necessary for flight crewmembers to check for safety
before starting engines, taking-off or landing, and in engine and systems emergencies. The procedures
must be designed so that a flight crewmember will not need to rely on memory for items to be checked.
The flight crew must use the approved check procedure.
Whenever a pilot-in-command or dispatcher exercises emergency authority, he/she shall keep the
appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person
declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation through the air carrier’s operations
manager to the Administrator (FAA). A dispatcher must send this report within 10 days after the date of the
emergency. A pilot-in-command must send the report within 10 days after returning to his/her home base.
When ATC gives priority to an aircraft in an emergency, the chief of the ATC facility involved may ask
the pilot-in-command to submit a report. If asked, the pilot-in-command must submit a detailed written
report to the ATC facility manager within 48 hours. This is required whether or not there was a deviation
from regulations.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 57

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL ATM, ATS, RTC

9636. (Refer to Legend 12.) Newport News/Williamsburg 9379. During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does
Intl is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. The Chart Supple- not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority
ments U.S. (previously A/FD) contains the following by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot
entry: ARFF Index A. What is the minimum number required to submit a written report?
of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the A— To the manager of the General Aviation District
type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport Office within 10 days.
should have? B— To the manager of the facility in control within 10
A— Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) days.
or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 C— Upon request by ATC, submit a written report
gallons of water. within 48 hours to the ATC manager.
B— One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical
(DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 Each pilot-in-command who (though not deviating from
gallons of water. a rule) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall,
C— One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that
(DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 emergency within 48 hours to the chief of that ATC
gallons of water. facility. (PLT383, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.123

FAA Legend 15 indicates that an index A airport must

have at least one vehicle with either 500 pounds of dry ATM, ATS, RTC
chemical or Halon 1211, or 450 pounds of dry chemical 9388. When may ATC request a detailed report on an
plus 100 gallons of water. (PLT143, AA.II.A.K5) — Chart emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
Supplements U.S. A— When priority has been given.
B— Anytime an emergency occurs.
C— When the emergency occurs in controlled
ALL
airspace.
9668. (Refer to Legend 12 and Figure 185A.) McCar-
ran Intl (LAS) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the Each pilot-in-command who (though not deviating from
minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting a rule) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall,
vehicles and the type and amount of fire fighting agents if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that
that the airport should have? emergency within 48 hours to the chief of that ATC
A— Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical facility. (PLT044, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.123
(DC) or HALON 1211, or 450 pounds of DC and Answer (B) is incorrect because a pilot may deviate from a regulation
100 gallons of water plus 6,000 gallons of water. in order to meet an emergency, as long as ATC is notified imme-
diately. A detailed report is usually not required if ATC priority was
B— Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) not given. Answer (C) is incorrect because, regardless of the type of
or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 airspace in which it occurs, only when priority has been given may
gallons of water. a detailed report be requested by ATC.
C— Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical
(DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000
gallons of water. ATM, ATS, RTC
9388-1. If available, what action could a pilot of an air
Using FAA Figure 185A, the second line of the McCar- carrier take if they violate a federal regulation because
ran entry indicates it is an ARFF (Aircraft Rescue and of an air traffic control direction?
Fire Fighting) index E airport. FAA Legend 12 indicates A—File a report through the Voluntary Disclosure
that an index E airport must have the requirements for Reporting Program (VDRP).
Index A plus 6,000 gallons of water. An index E airport B—File a report through the Aviation Safety Action
must have at least three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry Program (ASAP).
chemical (DC) or HALON 1211, or 450 pounds of DC C—File a report through the Flight Operational
and 100 gallons of water plus 6,000 gallons of water. Quality Assurance Program (FOQA).
(PLT143, AA.II.A.K5) — Chart Supplements U.S.

Answers
9636 [B] 9668 [A] 9379 [C] 9388 [A] 9388-1 [A]

1 – 58 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

The VDRP is used to collect information on 14 CFR ATM, ADX

regulation violations to improve the overall safety of the 8177. Which requirement applies to emergency equip-
NAS. (PLT044, AA.I.E.K13) — AC 00-58 ment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and
Answer (B) is incorrect because ASAP is used is to encourage crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?
employees of air carriers or repair stations to voluntarily report safety A— All emergency equipment, must be readily
information that may be critical to identifying potential precursors
to accidents. Answer (C) is incorrect because an FOQA program accessible to the passengers.
is used to reveal operational situations in which risk is increased in B— Emergency equipment cannot be located in a
order to enable early corrective action before that risk results in an compartment or area where it is not immediately
incident or accident.
visible to a flight attendant in the passenger
compartment.
ALL
C— Emergency equipment must be clearly identified
9388-2. What is the purpose of a Flight Operational and clearly marked to indicate its method of
Quality Assurance (FOQA) program? operation.
A— To identify pilots who are having problems Each item of required emergency equipment must
operationally. be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its
B— To identify aggregate information for error trends. method of operation. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR
C— To provide accountability within the air carrier §121.309
system. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the requirement is that
the emergency equipment be “readily accessible” to the crew.
FOQA is a voluntary safety program that is designed to
make commercial aviation safer by allowing commer-
cial airlines and pilots to share de-identified aggregate ATM, ADX
information with the FAA, so that the FAA can moni- 8176. Which factor determines the minimum number
tor national trends in aircraft operations and target its of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14
resources to address operational risk issues (e.g., CFR Part 121?
flight operations, ATC, airports). (PLT044, AA.I.E.K13) A— Number of passengers and crewmembers
— AC 120-82 aboard.
B— Number of passenger cabin occupants.
C— Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
ALL
9388-3. Your airline recently initiated a new safety part-
The minimum number of hand fire extinguishers car-
nership with the FAA utilizing the Aviation Safety Action ried on an air carrier flight is determined by the seating
Program (ASAP) for all pilots, flight attendants, dispatch- capacity of the airplane. (PLT408, AA.I.A.K14) — 14
ers, and mechanics. What does ASAP encourage? CFR §121.309
A— Encourages an employee to utilize an ASAP Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because passenger capacity, not
report after receiving a criminal substance abuse actual passenger count, determines the number of extinguishers
conviction so they do not face additional FAA required.
enforcement.
B— Encourages operational situations in which risk
ATM, ADX
is increased in order to enable early corrective
8160. Where should the portable battery-powered
action before that risk results in an incident or
megaphone be located if only one is required on a
accident.
passenger-carrying airplane?
C— Encourages airline management to utilize ASAP
reports and voluntarily report safety information A— The most forward location in the passenger cabin.
to derive synergies and cost savings for the B— In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit.
airline. C— The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

ASAP is used is to encourage employees of air carriers One megaphone must be installed on each airplane
or repair stations to voluntarily report safety information with a seating capacity of more than 60 and less than
that may be critical to identifying potential precursors to 100 passengers, at the most rearward location in the
accidents. (PLT044, AA.I.E.K13) — AC 120-66 passenger cabin where it would be readily accessible
to a normal flight attendant seat. (PLT462, AA.I.A.K14)
— 14 CFR §121.309

Answers
9388-2 [B] 9388-3 [C] 8177 [C] 8176 [C] 8160 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 59

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8161. How many portable battery-powered mega- 8159. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior
phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a emergency lights must
seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment A— operate automatically when subjected to a
when 45 passengers are carried? negative G load.
A— Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the B— be operable manually from the flightcrew station
most rearward location in the passenger cabin. and a point in the passenger compartment.
B— Two; one at the most rearward and one in the C— be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight
center of the passenger cabin. operations.
C— Two; one located near or accessible to the
flightcrew, and one located near the center of the The emergency exit light system must be operable
passenger cabin. from both the flight crew station and from a point in the
passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a
Two megaphones are required in the passenger cabin normal flight attendant seat. Each emergency exit light
of each airplane with a seating capacity of more than must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and
99 passengers, one installed at the forward end and the landing. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.310
other at the rearward location where it would be readily Answer (A) is incorrect because interior emergency lights must
accessible to a normal flight attendant seat. (PLT462, operate automatically with the interruption of the airplane’s normal
AA.I.A.K14) — 14 CFR §121.309 electrical power. Answer (C) is incorrect because the interior emer-
gency light system must only be armed during taxi, takeoff, and
landing portions of the flight.

ATM, ADX
8162. How many portable battery-powered mega- ATM, ADX
phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a 8157. If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to
seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when
when 75 passengers are carried? must this system be armed?
A— Two; one located near or accessible to the A— For taxi, takeoff, and landing.
flightcrew, and one located near the center of the B— Only for takeoff and landing.
passenger cabin. C— During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.
B— Two; one at the most rearward and one in the
center of the passenger cabin. Each passenger-carrying landplane with an emergency
C— Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the exit (other than over-the-wing) that is more than 6 feet
most rearward location of the passenger cabin. from the ground must have an approved means to assist
the occupants in descending to the ground. An assisting
Two megaphones are required in the passenger cabin means that deploys automatically must be armed during
of each airplane with a seating capacity of more than taxi, takeoffs, and landings. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14
99 passengers, one installed at the forward end and the CFR §121.310
other at the rearward location where it would be readily
accessible to a normal flight attendant seat. (PLT462,
AA.I.A.K14) — 14 CFR §121.309

ATM, ADX
8144. The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying
airplane must be armed or turned on during
A— taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing.
B— taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
C— takeoff, cruise, and landing.

Each emergency exit light must be armed or turned on

during taxiing, takeoff, and landing. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K4)
— 14 CFR §121.310
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the emergency lights are
not required to be armed or turned on during cruise.

Answers
8161 [A] 8162 [C] 8144 [B] 8159 [B] 8157 [A]

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ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8158. If there is a required emergency exit located in 8235. Each crewmember shall have readily available
the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates for individual use on each flight a
the compartment from the passenger cabin must be A— key to the flight deck door.
A— unlocked during takeoff and landing. B— certificate holder’s manual.
B— locked at all times, except during any emergency C— flashlight in good working order.
declared by the pilot-in-command.
C— latched open during takeoff and landing. Each crewmember shall, on each flight, have readily
available for use a flashlight that is in good working
If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separat- order. (PLT405, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.549
ing the passenger cabin from other areas to reach a
required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the
door must have means to latch it open, and the door ATM, ADX
must be latched open during each takeoff and landing. 8173. How much supplemental oxygen for emergency
(PLT459, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.310 descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air trans-
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the door must always be port airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight
latched open during takeoff and landing. deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above
10,000 feet?
A— A minimum of 2-hours’ supply.
ATM, ADX
B— Sufficient for the duration of the flight above
8178. A crewmember interphone system is required
8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude.
on which airplane?
C— Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000
A— A large airplane. feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50
B— A turbojet airplane. minutes.
C— An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.
When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet, the
No person may operate an airplane with a seating certificate holder shall supply enough oxygen for each
capacity of more than 19 passengers unless the airplane crewmember for the entire flight at those altitudes and
is equipped with a crewmember interphone system. not less than a 2-hour supply for each flight crewmem-
(PLT462, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.319 ber on flight deck duty. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the crewmember inter- §121.331 and §121.333
phone system requirement is based upon the number of seats.

ATM, ADX
ATM, ADX 8183. Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight
8179. An air carrier airplane must have an operating deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that
public address system if it can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at
A— has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. flight altitudes
B— has a seating capacity for more than 19 A— of FL260.
passengers. B— of FL250.
C— weighs more than 12,500 pounds. C— above FL250.
No person may operate an airplane with a seating When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250,
capacity of more than 19 passengers unless the airplane each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be
is equipped with an operating public address system. provided with an oxygen mask so designed that it can
(PLT462, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.318 be rapidly placed on his/her face from its ready position,
properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen within
5 seconds; and so designed that after being placed on
the face it does not prevent immediate communication
between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers
over the airplane intercom system. When not being
used at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the mask
must be kept ready for use and within immediate reach.
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.333

Answers
8158 [C] 8178 [C] 8179 [B] 8235 [C] 8173 [A] 8183 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 61

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATM, ADX and supplying oxygen, except that the one pilot need
8184. A flight crewmember must be able to don and not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below
use a quick-donning oxygen mask within flight level 410 if each flight crewmember on flight deck
A— 5 seconds. duty has a quick-donning type oxygen mask. (PLT438,
B— 10 seconds. AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.333
C— 15 seconds.

When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, ATM, ADX
each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be 8187. What is the highest flight level that operations may
provided with an oxygen mask so designed that it can be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing
be rapidly placed on his/her face from its ready position, and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away
properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen within from the duty station?
5 seconds; and so designed that after being placed on A— FL410.
the face it does not prevent immediate communication B— FL250.
between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers C— Above FL410.
over the airplane intercom system. When not being
used at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the mask If for any reason, at any time it is necessary for one pilot
must be kept ready for use and within immediate reach. to leave the controls of the airplane when operating at
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.333 flight altitudes above FL410, the remaining pilot at the
controls shall put on and use his or her oxygen mask
until the other pilot has returned to their duty station.
ATM, ADX (PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.333
8155. If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the
duty station while flying at FL410, the other pilot
ATM, ADX
A— and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen
8174. What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement
masks and breathe oxygen.
for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin
B— shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.
pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough
C— must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask
oxygen for
available.
A— each passengers for the entire flight above
When operating at flight altitudes above FL410 each flight 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
crewmember on flight deck duty must have an oxygen B— 30 percent of the passengers.
mask, within immediate reach, so designed that it can C— 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.
be rapidly placed on his/her face. This is commonly
referred to as a “quick-donning” oxygen mask. To meet For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet,
the requirements, regulations require that the mask be the certificate holder must provide enough oxygen for
designed so that it can be put on the user’s face within each passenger carried during the entire flight at those
5 seconds. If, while operating above FL410, one pilot altitudes. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §§121.327,
leaves his/her station, the other pilot must put on his/her 121.329
oxygen mask. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.333
ATM, ADX
ATM, ADX 8186. For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen
8156. If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane be provided for all passengers during the entire flight
is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what at those altitudes?
is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one A— 15,000 feet.
pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? B— 16,000 feet.
A— FL200. C— 14,000 feet.
B— FL300.
C— FL250. For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet,
the certificate holder must provide enough oxygen for
When operating at flight altitudes above flight level each passenger carried during the entire flight at those
250, one pilot at the controls of the airplane shall at all altitudes. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §§121.327,
times wear and use an oxygen mask secured, sealed, 121.329

Answers
8184 [A] 8155 [C] 8156 [C] 8187 [A] 8174 [A] 8186 [A]

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ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8185. For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine- 8164. Which emergency equipment is required for a flag
powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International
feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance Airport and London, England?
must be provided? Enough oxygen for A— A life preserver equipped with an approved
A— 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. survivor locator light or other flotation device for
B— 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. the full seating capacity of the airplane.
C— each passenger for 30 minutes. B— An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to
each required liferaft.
For flight in reciprocating-engine-powered airplanes, C— A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-
at cabin pressure altitudes above 8,000 feet, up to type emergency locator transmitter for each
and including 14,000 feet, each certificate holder shall required liferaft.
provide enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10% of the
passengers. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.327 No person may operate an airplane in extended over­
water operations without having on the airplane the
following equipment:
ATM, ADX
1. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor
8182. The supplemental oxygen requirements for pas-
locator light for each occupant of the airplane;
sengers when a flight is operated at FL250 is depen-
dent upon the airplane’s ability to make an emer­gency 2. Enough life rafts (each equipped with an approved
descent to a flight altitude of survivor locator light) to accommodate the occupants
of the airplane;
A— 10,000 feet within 4 minutes.
B— 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. 3. At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each
C— 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate life raft;
of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker. 4. One survival-type emergency locator transmitter;
The supplemental oxygen requirements for passen­gers 5. A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route
on pressurized aircraft is dependent upon the ability to be flown, must be attached to each life raft.
of the aircraft to descend to 14,000 feet within 4 min- (PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.339
utes in the event of a loss of pressurization. (PLT438, Answer (A) is incorrect because a life preserver or other flotation
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.333 device for each occupant is required. The requirement is not based
upon seating capacity. Answer (C) is incorrect because only one
survival type emergency locator transmitter is required to be carried
in the aircraft, not one for each life raft.
ATM, ADX
8180. What is the minimum number of acceptable
oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occu- ATM, ADX
pants who might require undiluted oxygen for physi- 8166. Each large aircraft operating over water must
ological reasons? have a life preserver for each
A— Two. A— aircraft occupant.
B— Four. B— seat on the aircraft.
C— Three. C— passenger seat, plus 10 percent.
There must be an appropriate number of oxygen dis- No person may operate an airplane in extended over­
pensing units for first aid treatment of passengers, but water operations without having on the airplane the
in no case less than 2. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR following equipment:
§121.333
1. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor
locator light for each occupant of the airplane;
2. Enough life rafts (each equipped with an approved
survivor locator light) to accommodate the occupants
of the airplane;
3. At least one pyrotechnic signaling device for each
life raft;

Answers
8185 [A] 8182 [B] 8180 [A] 8164 [B] 8166 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 63

Chapter 1 Regulations

4. One survival-type emergency locator transmitter; Unless it has the following equipment, no flag or supple-
5. A survival kit, appropriately equipped for the route mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an
to be flown, must be attached to each life raft. operation over an uninhabited area:
(PLT417, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.339 1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices;
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because unlike some regulations 2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and
that are based upon the number of seats in the aircraft, the number
of life preservers required is based on the number of occupants for 3. Enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the
a particular flight. route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the
airplane.
(PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.353
ATM, ADX
8169. Life preservers required for overwater oper­a­tions
are stored ATM, ADX
A— within easy reach of each passenger. 8170. An airplane operated by a supplemental air car­
B— under each occupant seat. rier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which
C— within easy reach of each seated occupant. emergency equipment?
A— Survival kit for each passenger.
The required life rafts, life preservers, and survival-type B— Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
emergency locator transmitter must be easily acces- C— Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
sible in the event of a ditching without appreciable time
for preparatory procedures. (PLT417, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 Unless it has the following equipment, no flag or supple-
CFR §121.339 mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an
operation over an uninhabited area:
ATM, ADX 1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices;
8167. For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane 2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and
operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry
3. Enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the
enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the
A— all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. airplane.
B— all aircraft occupants.
(PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.353
C— all passenger seats.

Unless it has the following equipment, no flag or supple- ATM, ADX

mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an 8171. An airplane operated by a commercial operator
operation over an uninhabited area: flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emer-
1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices; gency equipment?
2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and A— A signal mirror and colored smoke flares.
3. Enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the B— Survival kit for each passenger.
route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the C— An approved survival-type emergency locator
airplane. transmitter.
(PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.353 Unless it has the following equipment, no flag or supple-
mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an
operation over an uninhabited area:
ATM, ADX
8168. When a supplemental air carrier is operating over 1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices;
an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped 2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and
survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?
3. Enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the
A— One for each passenger seat. route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the
B— One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. airplane.
C— One for each occupant of the aircraft.
(PLT402, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.353

Answers
8169 [C] 8167 [B] 8168 [C] 8170 [B] 8171 [C]

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ATM, ADX Answer (A) is incorrect because the Airplane Flight Manual may
8172. An airplane operated by a flag air carrier opera- contain emergency procedures as a convenience, but they are not
required by 14 CFR §121.141. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
tor flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which “Emergency Procedures Handbook” does not exist.
emergency equipment?
A— Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
B— Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. ATM, ADX
C— Survival kit for each passenger. 8200. The required crewmember functions that are to
be performed in the event of an emergency shall be
Unless it has the following equipment, no flag or supple- assigned by the
mental carrier or commercial operator may conduct an A— pilot-in-command.
operation over an uninhabited area: B— air carrier’s chief pilot.
1. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices; C— certificate holder.
2. A survival-type emergency locator transmitter; and
Each certificate holder shall, for each type and model
3. Enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the of airplane, assign to each category of required crew-
route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the member, as appropriate, the necessary functions to be
airplane. performed in an emergency or a situation requiring emer-
(PLT404, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.353 gency evacuation. The certificate holder shall describe
in its manual the functions of each category of required
crewmember. (PLT374, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.397
ATM, ADX Answer (A) is incorrect because, although the pilot-in-command may
8245. If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with assign duties as necessary during an emergency, the required crew-
member functions shall be assigned and described in the certificate
the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the holder’s manual. Answer (B) is incorrect because the chief pilot does
aircraft dispatcher should not have the authority to assign crewmember functions that are to
be performed in the event of an emergency. Those functions shall
A— take any action considered necessary under the be described in the certificate holder’s manual.
circumstances.
B— comply with the company’s lost aircraft plan.
C— phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ATM, ADX
ask for a phone patch with the flight. 8204. The air carrier must give instruction on such
subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression
If the aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes
pilot, he/she shall declare an emergency and take any operated above
action considered necessary under the circumstances.
(PLT403, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.557 A— FL180.
B— FL200.
C— FL250.
ATM, ADX
8198. Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000
includes descriptions of the required crewmember func- feet must receive instruction in respiration, hypoxia, and
tions to be performed in the event of an emergency? decompression. (PLT460, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.417
A— Airplane Flight Manual.
B— Certificate holder’s manual. ATM, ADX
C— Pilot’s Emergency Procedures Handbook. 8218. How often must a crewmember actually operate
the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?
Each certificate holder shall, for each type and model Once every
of airplane, assign to each category of required crew-
member, as appropriate, the necessary functions to A— 6 calendar months.
be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring B— 12 calendar months.
emergency evacuation. The certificate holder shall C— 24 calendar months.
describe in its manual the functions of each category
of required crewmember. (PLT436, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 Emergency drill requirements must be accomplished
CFR §121.397 during initial training and once each 24 calendar months
during recurrent training. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K4) — 14
CFR §121.417

Answers
8172 [A] 8245 [A] 8198 [B] 8200 [C] 8204 [C] 8218 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 65

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ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8236. If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot- 8163. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of
in-command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is
A— appropriate ground radio station. A— encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on
B— nearest FAA district office. the procedure are accomplished.
C— operations manager (or director of operations). B— required by regulations to prevent reliance upon
memorized procedures.
The pilot-in-command shall report each stoppage of C— required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the
engine rotation in flight to the appropriate ground radio memorized procedure has been accomplished.
station as soon as practicable and shall keep that sta-
tion fully informed of the progress of the flight. (PLT366, Each certificate holder shall provide an approved
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.565 cockpit check procedure for each type of aircraft. The
approved procedures must include each item neces-
sary for flight crewmembers to check for safety before
ATM, ADX starting engines, taking off, or landing, and in engine
8237. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine and systems emergencies. The procedures must be
on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, designed so that a flight crewmember will not need to
the pilot-in-command rely upon memory for items to be checked. (PLT404,
A— must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.315
of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
B— may continue to the planned destination if
ATM, ADX
approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C— may continue to the planned destination if this 8240. When the pilot-in-command is responsible for a
is considered as safe as landing at the nearest deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit
suitable airport. a written report within
A— 10 days after the deviation.
If not more than one engine of an airplane that has B— 10 days after returning home.
three or more engines fails or its rotation is stopped, the C— 10 days after returning to home base.
pilot-in-command may proceed to an airport that he/she
selects if, after considering the following, he/she decides A pilot-in-command declaring an emergency shall send
that proceeding to that airport is as safe as landing at a written report of any deviation, through the air car-
the nearest suitable airport. (PLT406, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 rier’s director of operations, to the Administrator within
CFR §121.565 10 days after returning to the home base. (PLT403,
AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.557

ATM, ADX
8241. What action shall the pilot-in-command take if it ATM, ADX
becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines 8246. Who is required to submit a written report on a
on an air carrier airplane? deviation that occurs during an emergency?
A— Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be A— Pilot-in-command.
as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of B— Dispatcher.
time. C— Person who declares the emergency.
B— Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of
time at which a safe landing can be made. The person declaring the emergency shall send a written
C— Land at the nearest airport, including military, that report of any deviation, through the air carrier’s direc-
has a crash and rescue unit. tor of operations, to the Administrator within 10 days.
(PLT366, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.557
Whenever an engine of an airplane fails or whenever
the rotation of an engine is stopped to prevent possible
damage, the pilot-in-command shall land the airplane at
the nearest suitable airport, time-wise, at which a safe
landing can be made. Note: There are no exceptions to
this rule for two-engine airplanes. (PLT223, AA.I.G.K4)
— 14 CFR §121.565

Answers
8236 [A] 8237 [C] 8241 [B] 8163 [B] 8240 [C] 8246 [C]

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ADX ATM, ATS

8239. An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for 8725. Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the
a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be A— nearest state or federal wildlife office on company
sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by the letterhead.
A— dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 B— FAA on an FAA form 5200-7.
days of the event. C— nearest FSS via telephone.
B— certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within
10 days of the event. Pilots are urged to report any bird or other wildlife strike
C— pilot-in-command to the FAA Administrator within using FAA Form 5200−7, Bird/Other Wildlife Strike
10 days of the event. Report (Appendix 1). (PLT366, AA.I.G.K4) — AIM ¶7-4-3

An aircraft dispatcher declaring an emergency shall

send a written report of any deviation, through the air
carrier’s director of operations, to the Administrator within
10 days after the date of the emergency. (PLT394) — 14
CFR §121.557

Part 135 Oxygen Requirements

ATS Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen
8020. Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of continuously when flying:
oxygen masks in a pressurized cabin airplane?
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet
A— Both pilots at the controls shall use oxygen MSL for that part of the flight at those altitudes that
masks above FL350. is more than 30 minutes duration; and
B— At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot
2. Above 12,000 feet MSL.
leaves the pilot duty station, the remaining pilot at
the controls shall use an oxygen mask. Whenever a pressurized aircraft is operated with the
C— At altitudes above FL250, one of the two pilots cabin pressure altitude more than 10,000 feet MSL,
at the controls shall use an oxygen mask each pilot shall comply with the rules for unpressur-
continuously. ized aircraft.
Whenever a pressurized airplane is operated above
One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an oxygen 25,000 feet MSL flight altitude both pilots must have a
mask any time the aircraft is flown above 35,000 feet “quick-donning”-type oxygen mask.
MSL. In addition, one pilot must wear an oxygen mask One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an
above a flight altitude of 25,000 feet MSL if the other oxygen mask any time the aircraft is flown above 35,000
pilot leaves the duty station. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 feet MSL. In addition, one pilot must wear an oxygen
CFR §135.89 mask above a flight altitude of 25,000 feet MSL if the
other pilot leaves the duty station. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5)
— 14 CFR §135.89
ATS Answer (B) is incorrect because the regulation states “above 25,000
8022. Which is a requirement for pilot use of oxygen feet MSL.” Answer (C) is incorrect because above 25,000 feet MSL,
in a pressurized airplane? the pilot at the controls must wear an approved oxygen mask any
time the other pilot is away from the duty station.
A— The pilot at the controls shall use oxygen
continuously any time the cabin pressure altitude
is more than 12,000 feet MSL.
B— At FL250 and above, each pilot shall have an
approved quick-donning oxygen mask.
C— At FL250 and above, the pilot at the controls
must have an approved oxygen mask any time
the other pilot is away from the duty station.

Answers
8239 [A] 8725 [B] 8020 [B] 8022 [A]

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ATS ATS
8055. The two pilot stations of a pressurized aircraft are 8073. At what altitude, in an unpressurized airplane,
equipped with approved quick-donning oxygen masks. must all passengers be supplied oxygen?
What is the maximum altitude authorized if one pilot is A— Above 12,000 feet MSL.
not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen? B— Above 14,000 feet MSL.
A— 41,000 feet MSL. C— Above 15,000 feet MSL.
B— 35,000 feet MSL.
C— 25,000 feet MSL. In unpressurized aircraft, at altitudes above 10,000 feet
MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail-
One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an oxygen able for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots,
mask any time the aircraft is flown above 35,000 feet for the part of the flight, at those altitudes, in excess of
MSL. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.89 30-minute duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen
must be available to all occupants, other than the pilots.
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.157
ATS
8056. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000
feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized airplane must ATS
use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that 8074. Between what altitudes must oxygen be available
is of a duration of more than to at least 10 percent of the occupants, in an unpres-
A— 20 minutes. surized airplane, other than the pilots?
B— 30 minutes. A— Above 12,000 feet through 16,000 feet MSL, for
C— 45 minutes. any time period.
B— Above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL,
Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen if flight at those altitudes is of more than a
continuously when flying: 30-minute duration.
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet C— 10,000 feet to 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those
MSL for the part of the flight, at those altitudes, that altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration.
is more than 30 minutes duration; and
In unpressurized aircraft, at altitudes above 10,000 feet
2. Above 12,000 feet MSL. MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail-
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.89 able for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots,
for that part of the flight at those altitudes in excess of
30-minute duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen
ATS must be available to all occupants. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5)
8072. A pressurized airplane being operated at FL330 — 14 CFR §135.157
can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes.
What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants
other than the pilots? ATS
8080. The oxygen requirements for occupants of a
A— 60 minutes.
B— 45 minutes. pressurized airplane operated at altitudes above FL250
C— 30 minutes. is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to descend
safely to an altitude of
No person may operate a pressurized aircraft above A— 10,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.
15,000 feet MSL unless it is equipped to supply oxygen B— 12,000 feet MSL at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min.
to each occupant, other than the pilots, for 1 hour. This C— 15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.
is reduced to a 30-minute supply if the aircraft, at all
times during flight above 15,000 feet MSL, can safely No person may operate a pressurized aircraft above
descend to 15,000 feet within 4 minutes. (PLT438, 15,000 feet MSL unless it is equipped to supply oxygen
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.157 to each occupant, other than the pilots, for 1 hour. This
is reduced to a 30-minute supply if the aircraft, at all
times during flight above 15,000 feet MSL, can safely
descend to 15,000 feet within 4 minutes. (PLT438,
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.157

Answers
8055 [B] 8056 [B] 8072 [C] 8073 [C] 8074 [B] 8080 [C]

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ATS, RTC When the oxygen is stored in the form of a liquid, the
8021. Above which altitude/flight level must at least equipment must have been under the certificate holder’s
one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized approved maintenance program since its purchase new,
aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and or since the storage container was last purged. (PLT438,
sealed oxygen mask? AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.91
A— FL300.
B— FL350.
ATS, RTC
C— FL250.
8025. Which is a condition that must be met when a
One pilot of a pressurized aircraft must wear an oxygen person is administered medical oxygen in flight?
mask any time the aircraft is flown above 35,000 feet A— The distance between a person using medical
MSL. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.89 oxygen and any electrical unit must not be less
than 5 feet.
B— A person using oxygen equipment must be
ATS, RTC seated to avoid restricting access to, or use of,
8023. Which is a pilot requirement for oxygen? any required exit.
A— Each pilot of a pressurized aircraft operating at C— A person being administered oxygen must
FL180 and above shall have an approved quick- be monitored by equipment that displays and
donning type oxygen mask. records pulse and respiration.
B— On pressurized aircraft requiring a flightcrew of
two pilots, both shall continuously wear oxygen Oxygen equipment must be stowed, and each person
masks whenever the cabin pressure altitude using the equipment must be seated, so as not to restrict
exceeds 12,000 feet MSL. access to or use of any required emergency or regular
C— On unpressurized aircraft, flying above 12,000 exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment.
feet MSL, pilots shall use oxygen continuously. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.91

Each pilot of an unpressurized aircraft shall use oxygen

continuously when flying: ATS, RTC
8030. Which is a requirement regarding the carriage
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet and operation of oxygen equipment for medical use by
MSL for that part of the flight at those altitudes that passengers?
is more than 30 minutes duration; and
A— No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen
2. Above 12,000 feet MSL. storage and dispensing equipment.
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.89 B— When oxygen equipment is used for the medical
Answer (A) is incorrect because quick-donning type oxygen masks treatment of a patient, the rules pertaining to
are required above 25,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect emergency exit access are waived.
because both pilots should continuously use oxygen masks when C— No person may connect oxygen bottles or any
the cabin pressure altitude is more than 10,000 feet MSL.
other ancillary equipment until all passengers are
aboard the aircraft and seated.
ATS, RTC
8024. Which requirement applies when oxygen is stored
No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen-dispens-
in liquid form? ing equipment. (PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.91

A— Smoking is not permitted within 50 feet of stored

liquid oxygen.
B— Liquefied oxygen is a hazardous material and
must be kept in an isolated storage facility.
C— The equipment used to store liquid oxygen must
be covered in the certificate holder’s approved
maintenance program.

Answers
8021 [B] 8023 [C] 8024 [C] 8025 [B] 8030 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 69

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC RTC

8031. If a certificate holder deviates from the provisions 9638. (Refer to Figures 186, 187, 188, and 188A.) What
of regulations which pertain to medical use of oxygen are the passenger oxygen requirements on this 14 CFR
by passengers, a complete report of the incident shall Part 135 flight from Las Vegas to Provo?
be sent to the FAA within A— When above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet,
A— 7 working days. oxygen must be supplied to at least 10 percent of
B— 10 working days. the aircraft occupants, including the pilots.
C— 10 days of the deviation. B— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants until
Each certificate holder who deviates from the provisions reaching cruise at 15,000 feet then all occupants
of the regulations pertaining to use of medical oxygen must be supplied oxygen until descending below
by passengers, must send a report of the deviation to 15,000 feet, then 10 percent down to 10,000 feet.
the FAA Flight Standards District Office within 10 days C— Starting 30 minutes after climbing through 10,000
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. feet, 10 percent of the aircraft occupants, except
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.91 pilots, must be supplied oxygen until descending
below 10,000 feet.
ATS, RTC No person may operate an unpressurized aircraft at
8081. An unpressurized aircraft with 20 occupants other altitudes prescribed in this section unless it is equipped
than the pilots will be cruising at 14,000 feet MSL for with enough oxygen dispensers and oxygen to supply
25 minutes. For how many, if any, of these occupants the pilots under §135.89(a) and to supply when flying —
must there be an oxygen supply?
1. At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 15,000 MSL,
A— Five. oxygen to at least 10% of the occupants of the air-
B— Two. craft, other than pilots, for the part of the flight at those
C— None. altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration; and
In unpressurized aircraft, at altitudes above 10,000 feet 2. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen to each occupant
MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail- of the aircraft other than the pilots.
able for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots, (PLT438) — 14 CFR §135.157
for the part of the flight, at those altitudes, in excess of
30-minutes duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen
must be available to all occupants, other than the pilots.
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.157

ATS, RTC
9819. What are the oxygen requirements for passengers
if operating at 14,000 feet?
A— 30 minutes for each passenger.
B— available for 10% of the occupants.
C— available for 10% of the occupants other than the
pilots.

In unpressurized aircraft at altitudes above 10,000 feet

MSL through 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen must be avail-
able for 10% of the occupants, other than the pilots,
for the part of the flight at those altitudes in excess of
30-minutes duration. Above 15,000 feet MSL, oxygen
must be available to all occupants, other than the pilots.
(PLT438, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.157

Answers
8031 [B] 8081 [C] 9819 [C] 9638 [C]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

Aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft that takes place
between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight, and the time all such per-
sons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft
receives substantial damage.
Serious injury means any injury that:
• Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours commencing within 7 days from the date the injury
was received.
• Results in fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose).
• Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage.
• Involves any internal organ.
• Involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.

Substantial damage means damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength, perfor-
mance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and that would normally require major repair or replacement
of the affected component. Damage not considered substantial for accident reporting purposes are as
follows: engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings
or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller
blades, and damage to the landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes or wing tips.
The operator of an aircraft must immediately notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board
field office if any of the following occur:
• Flight control system malfunction.
• An aircraft accident.
• Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform his normal flight duties as the result of injury
or illness.
• Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and
vanes.
• Inflight fire.
• Aircraft collide in flight.
• Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimate to exceed $25,000 for repair or fair market value
in the event of total loss whichever is less.
• Certain incidents on large, multi-engine airplanes.
• An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

The operator of an aircraft must submit a written report of an aircraft accident within 10 days of the
accident. The operator of an overdue aircraft must submit a written report within 7 days if the aircraft is
still missing. The operator of an aircraft that was involved in an incident requiring immediate notification
of the NTSB must submit a written report of the incident only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 71

Chapter 1 Regulations

ALL first degree burns over more than 5% of the body are defined as a
8317. What period of time must a person be hospital- serious injury. (First degree burns are less serious than second and
third degree burns.)
ized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as
a “serious injury”?
A— 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date ALL
of injury. 8318. Within what time period should the nearest NTSB
B— 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an
the injury. accident which results in substantial damage?
C— 10 days, with no other extenuating A— Immediately.
circumstances. B— 7 calendar days.
C— 10 days.
“Serious injury” means any injury which requires hos-
pitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by
7 days from the date the injury was received. (PLT366, the most expeditious means available, notify the near-
AA.I.G.K6) — NTSB §830.2 est NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs.
(PLT366, AA.I.G.K6) — NTSB §830.5
ALL
8319. Which of the following constitutes “substantial ALL
damage” according to NTSB Part 830? 8321. Which incident requires an immediate notifica-
A— Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. tion to NTSB?
B— Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case A— Aircraft colliding on the ground.
of a helicopter). B— Flight control system malfunction.
C— Failure of a component which would adversely C— Damage to property, other than the aircraft,
affect the performance, and which would require estimated to exceed $10,000.
replacement.
The NTSB lists a flight control malfunction or failure as
“Substantial damage” is defined as damage or failure an incident requiring immediate notification to the field
which would adversely affect the structural strength, office. (PLT416, AA.I.G.K6) — NTSB §830.5
performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft
which would normally require major repair or replace-
ment of the damaged component. (PLT395, AA.I.G.K6) ALL
— NTSB §830.2 8322. Within how many days must the operator of an
Answer (A) is incorrect because ground damage to landing gear, aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?
wheels, or tires is not considered “substantial damage” for the
purpose of NTSB Part 830. Answer (B) is incorrect because dam- A— 3 days.
age to wing tips (or rotorblades, in the case of a helicopter) is not B— 7 days.
considered “substantial damage” for the purpose of NTSB Part 830. C— 10 days.

The NTSB requires a report to be filed within 10 days

ALL of the accident. (PLT366, AA.I.G.K6) — NTSB §830.15
8320. Which of the following meets the requirements
of a “serious injury” as defined by the NTSB?
A— A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity. ALL
B— An injury which caused severe tendon damage. 8323. When is an operator of an aircraft, which has
C— First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body. been involved in an incident, required to submit a report
to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
“Serious injury” includes severe tendon damage and A— Within 7 days.
second or third degree burns covering more than five B— Within 10 days.
percent of the body. (PLT395, AA.I.G.K6) — NTSB C— Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.
§830.2
Answer (A) is incorrect because simple fractures, such as of the An aircraft involved in an incident is required to file
finger, toe, or nose, are not considered a serious injury. Answer a report only on request from the NTSB. (PLT366,
(C) is incorrect because only second and third degree burns or
AA.I.G.K6) — NTSB §830.15

Answers
8317 [B] 8319 [C] 8320 [B] 8318 [A] 8321 [B] 8322 [C]
8323 [C]

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ALL ALL
9836. Pilots and/or flightcrew members involved in near 9836-1. What information is de-identified when a report
midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report is submitted through the Aviation Safety Reporting
each incident immediately System (ASRS)?
A— by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards A— Crew identity information when criminal offenses
District Office, as this is an emergency. have occurred.
B— to local law enforcement. B— Crew identity information involving time-sensitive
C— by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC data.
facility or FSS. C— Crew identity information when prompt NTSB
reporting is required.
The primary purpose of the Near Midair Collision
(NMAC) Reporting Program is to provide information The ASRS is a voluntary, confidential, and non-punitive
for use in enhancing the safety and efficiency of the incident reporting system. All identifying information is
National Airspace System. Pilots and/or flightcrew mem- removed from the report before the data is entered into
bers involved in NMAC occurrences are urged to report the ASRS database. The FAA will not use reports submit-
each incident immediately by radio or telephone to the ted to this program (or information derived therefrom) in
nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS. (PLT526, AA.I.G.K6) any enforcement action except information concerning
— AIM ¶7-7-3 accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded
from the program. (PLT526, AA.I.E.K13) — AC 00-46

Part 135 Regulations

ATS A third gyroscopic pitch-and-bank indicator is required
8053. What aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135 on all turbojet-powered airplanes. This indicator must
are required to have a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch be able to continue reliable operation for at least 30
indicator installed? minutes after the failure of the aircraft’s electrical gener-
A— All airplanes that are turbojet powered. ating system. (PLT405, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.149
B— All multiengine airplanes that require a two pilot
flightcrew.
ATS
C— All turbine powered aircraft having a passenger
8069. In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS required?
seating capacity of 30 seats or more.
A— All airplanes having a passenger seating
A third gyroscopic pitch-and-bank indicator is required configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats
on all turbojet-powered airplanes. (PLT405, AA.I.G.K5) or more.
— 14 CFR §135.149 B— Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of
10 seats or more.
ATS C— Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger
8054. In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-and- seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of
pitch indicator is required, that instrument must 10 seats or more.
A— continue reliable operation for at least 30 minutes
after the output of the airplane’s electrical No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane
generating system falls below an optimum level. having a passenger seating configuration, excluding
B— be operable by a selector switch which may be any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more unless it is equipped
actuated from either pilot station. with a terrain awareness system (TAWS). (PLT139,
C— continue reliable operation for a minimum of AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.154
30 minutes after total failure of the electrical
generating system.

Answers
9836 [C] 9836-1 [B] 8053 [A] 8054 [C] 8069 [B]

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ATS No person may operate an aircraft in IFR conditions

8075. Which airplanes must have a shoulder harness unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather
installed at each flight crewmember station? reports and forecasts) to:
A— All airplanes used in commuter air service, having 1. Complete the flight to the first airport of intended
a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding landing;
any pilot seat.
2. Fly from that airport to the alternate airport (if one is
B— All airplanes operating under 14 CFR Part 135,
required); and
having a seating configuration for 10 persons.
C— All turbojet-powered airplanes. 3. Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
(PLT413, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.223
No person may operate a turbojet aircraft or an aircraft
having a passenger seating configuration, excluding
any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more unless it is equipped ATS
with an approved shoulder harness installed for each 8089. If the weather forecasts require the listing of an
flight crewmember station. (PLT464, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry
CFR §135.171 enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
then to the alternate, and fly thereafter for a minimum of
ATS, ADX
A— 45 minutes at normal holding speed.
8165. What emergency equipment is required for B— 45 minutes at normal cruise speed and then
extended overwater operations? complete an approach and landing.
C— 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
A— A portable survival emergency locator transmitter
for each liferaft. No person may operate an aircraft in IFR conditions
B— A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather
preserver. reports and forecasts) to:
C— A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator
1. Complete the flight to the first airport of intended
light, for each person on the airplane.
landing;
No person may operate an aircraft in extended overwater 2. Fly from that airport to the alternate airport (if one is
operations unless it carries an approved life preserver required); and
(easily accessible to each seated occupant) equipped 3. Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
with an approved survivor locator light for each occupant
of the aircraft, and enough approved life rafts of a rated (PLT413, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.223
capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants
of the aircraft. An approved survival-type emergency
ATS
locator transmitter must be attached to one of the life
8115. When computing the takeoff data for reciprocat-
rafts. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.167
ing powered airplanes, what is the percentage of the
Answer (A) is incorrect because only one survival emergency loca- reported headwind component that may be applied to
tor transmitter is required to be carried on the airplane. Answer (B)
is incorrect because one pyrotechnic signaling device is required the “still air” data?
for each life raft. A— Not more than 150 percent.
B— Not more than 100 percent.
C— Not more than 50 percent.
ATS
8088. If the weather forecasts do not require the listing
When computing takeoff data not more than 50% of
of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must the reported headwind component may be taken into
carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and account. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — 14 CFR §135.389
A— make one missed approach and thereafter have
a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising speed.
B— fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising
speed.
C— fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise
climb speed.

Answers
8075 [C] 8165 [C] 8088 [B] 8089 [C] 8115 [C]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS ATS
8116. When computing takeoff data, what is the per- 8792. The crewmember interphone system on a large
centage of the effective tailwind component which may turbojet-powered airplane provides a means of two-way
be applied to the “still air” data? communications between ground personnel and at least
A— Not less than 150 percent. one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment,
B— Not less than 100 percent. when the aircraft is on the ground. The interphone sta-
C— Not more than 50 percent. tion for use by ground personnel must be located so
that those using the system from that station
When computing takeoff data not less than 150% of the A— are always visible, from within the airplane.
reported tailwind component may be taken into account. B— are able to avoid the intake areas of the engines.
(PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — 14 CFR §135.389 C— may avoid visible detection from within the
airplane.
ATS The interphone system station for use by ground person-
8050. Which performance requirement applies to nel must be so located that personnel using the system
passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.
water? (PLT462, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.150
A— Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with
the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at
ATS
1,500 feet above the surface.
B— Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an 8831. For which of these aircraft may part of the “clear-
altitude that will allow them to reach land in case way” distance, for a particular runway, be considered in
of engine failure. computing the takeoff distance?
C— Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with A— Passenger-carrying transport aircraft.
the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min B— Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes,
at 1,000 feet above the surface. certificated after September 30, 1958.
C— U.S. certified transport airplane, certificated
No person may operate a land aircraft carrying pas- before August 26, 1957.
sengers over water unless it is operated at an altitude
that allows it to reach land in the case of engine failure. “Clearway” may be used in computing the takeoff dis-
(PLT437, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.183 tance of turbine-engine-powered airplanes certificated
after September 30, 1958. (PLT456, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
CFR §1.1
ATS
8051. What performance is required of a multiengine
airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while car- ATS
rying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions? 8832. What requirement must be met regarding cargo
A— Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment
of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, of a commuter air carrier airplane?
whichever is higher. A— Cargo may not be carried anywhere in the rear of
B— Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA’s of the route the passenger compartment.
to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is B— The bin in which the cargo is carried may not
higher. be installed in a position that restricts access
C— Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA’s of the route to, or use of the aisle between the crew and the
to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is passenger compartment.
higher. C— The container or bin in which the cargo is carried
must be made of material which is at least flash
No person may operate a multi-engine airplane carry- resistant.
ing passengers Over-The-Top or in IFR conditions at
a weight that will not allow it to climb, with the critical No person may carry cargo, including carry-on baggage
engine inoperative, at least 50 feet a minute when oper- in an aircraft unless it is in an approved cargo rack, bin,
ating at the MEAs of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet or compartment, and it does not obstruct access to,
MSL, whichever is higher. (PLT223, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 or use of, the aisle between the passenger and crew
CFR §135.181 compartment. (PLT385, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.87

Answers
8116 [A] 8050 [B] 8051 [C] 8792 [C] 8831 [B] 8832 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 75

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS holder’s operations specifications. (PLT454, AA.I.G.K5)

8833. Information recorded during normal operation — 14 CFR §135.25
of a cockpit voice recorder in a multiengine turbine
powered airplane
ATS, RTC
A— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except
8005. Where is the certificate holder required to list the
for the last 30 minutes.
name and title of each person authorized to exercise
B— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except
operational control for a particular flight?
for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
C— may all be erased, prior to each flight, unless the A— Operations Specifications.
NTSB has requested that it be kept for 60 days. B— Attached to the load manifest.
C— Certificate holder’s manual.
Information recorded more than 30 minutes earlier may
be erased or obliterated. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 Each certificate holder is responsible for operational
CFR §135.151 control and shall list in the manual the name and title of
each person authorized to exercise operational control.
(PLT282, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.77
ATS
8842. An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier,
flying in extended overwater operations must carry ATS, RTC
enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoy- 8010. An aircraft being operated outside of the United
ancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135
Each liferaft must be equipped with operator must comply with
A— one approved pyrotechnic signaling device. A— the International Civil Aviation Organization
B— colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air.
C— one fishing kit for each person the raft is rated to B— regulations of the foreign country.
carry. C— rules of the U.S. State Department and the
foreign country.
Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations
must carry enough appropriately equipped life rafts to Each person operating an aircraft under Part 135 while
accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each raft operating outside the United States, shall comply with
must have an approved pyrotechnic signaling device Annex 2, Rules of the Air, to the Convention of Inter-
(either smoke or flare type flare). (PLT082, AA.I.G.K5) national Civil Aviation or the regulations of any foreign
— 14 CFR §135.167 country, whichever applies. (PLT392, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
Answer (B) is incorrect because the survival kit is not required to CFR §135.3
have colored smoke flares. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
survival kit is only required to have one fishing kit per liferaft, not
one per person. ATS, RTC
8011. Who is responsible for keeping copies of the
certificate holder’s manual up to date with approved
ATS, RTC
changes or additions?
8001. A certificate holder must have “exclusive use” of
A— Each of the certificate holder’s employees who
A— at least one aircraft that meets the requirements are furnished a manual.
of each kind of operation authorized in the B— An employee designated by the certificate holder.
Operations Specifications. C— A representative of the certificate holder
B— at least one aircraft that meets the requirements approved by the Administrator.
of at least one kind of operation authorized in the
certificate holder’s Operations Specifications. Each employee of the certificate holder to whom a
C— at least one aircraft that meets the requirements manual (or appropriate portions of it) is furnished shall
of the specific operations authorized in the keep it up to date with changes and additions furnished
certificate holder’s Operations Specifications. to them. (PLT282, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.21
Each certificate holder must have the exclusive use of
at least one aircraft that meets the requirements for at
least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate

Answers
8833 [A] 8842 [A] 8001 [B] 8005 [C] 8010 [B] 8011 [A]

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ATS, RTC No person may carry a deadly weapon on a Part 135

9807. No person may operate a U.S. registered civil flight except for:
aircraft
1. Officials or employees of a municipality or a state
A— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 or of the United States, who are authorized to carry
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved arms; or
operator’s manual available.
2. Crewmembers and other persons authorized by the
B— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21
certificate holder to carry arms.
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
AFM or RFM available. (PLT440, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.119
C— for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21
section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved
ATS, RTC
AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in
8038. Which person may be carried aboard an aircraft
part 135 section 135.19(b).
without complying with the passenger-carrying require-
Per 14 CFR §21.5, with each airplane or rotorcraft not ments of 14 CFR Part 135?
type certificated with an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight A— An individual who is necessary for the safe
Manual and having no flight time before March 1, 1979, handling of hazardous material on the aircraft.
the holder of a type certificate (including amended or B— A representative of the Administrator, traveling to
supplemental type certificates) or the licensee of a type attend a meeting.
certificate must make available to the owner at the time C— A member of the United States diplomatic corps
of delivery of the aircraft a current approved Airplane on an official courier mission.
or Rotorcraft Flight Manual. (PLT373, AA.I.G.S1) — 14
CFR §21.5 The following persons may be carried on an aircraft
without complying with the passenger-carrying rules
of Part 135:
ATS, RTC
1. A crewmember or other employee of the certificate
8013. What is the lowest altitude above the terrain that
holder;
an autopilot may be used during en route operations,
if the Airplane Flight Manual specifies a malfunction 2. A person necessary for the safe handling of animals
under cruise conditions? on the aircraft;
A— 1,000 feet. 3. A person necessary for the safe handling of hazard-
B— 500 feet. ous materials;
C— 100 feet. 4. A person performing duty as a security or honor
guard accompanying a shipment made by or under
Except for approaches, no person may use an autopilot the authority of the U.S. Government;
at an altitude above the terrain which is less than 500 5. A military courier or a military route supervisor carried
feet or less than twice the maximum altitude loss speci- by a military cargo contract air carrier or commercial
fied in the approved Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent operator;
for a malfunction of the autopilot, whichever is higher.
6. An authorized representative of the Administrator
(PLT424, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.93
conducting an enroute inspection; or
7. A person, authorized by the Administrator, who is
ATS, RTC performing a duty connected with a cargo operation
8033. Who may be allowed to carry a deadly weapon of the certificate holder.
on board an aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 135? (PLT385, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.85
A— Official bodyguards attached to foreign legations.
B— Crewmembers and/or others authorized by the
certificate holder.
C— Employees of a municipality or a state, or of the
United States.

Answers
9807 [B] 8013 [B] 8033 [B] 8038 [A]

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8004. If previous arrangements have not been made 8019. Procedures for keeping copies of the aircraft
by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing maintenance log in the aircraft and available to appro-
the aircraft be found? priate personnel shall be set forth in
A— Certificate holder’s maintenance manual. A— the certificate holder’s manual.
B— Certificate holder’s manual. B— the maintenance procedures handbook.
C— Pilot’s Handbook. C— the Operations Specifications.

The certificate holder’s manual must contain proce- Each certificate holder shall establish a procedure
dures to be followed by the pilot-in-command to obtain for keeping copies of the aircraft maintenance log in
maintenance, preventative maintenance, and servicing the aircraft for access by appropriate personnel and
of the aircraft at a place where previous arrangements shall include that procedure in the manual. (PLT282,
have not been made by the operator, when the pilot is AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.65
authorized to so act for the operator. (PLT282, AA.I.G.K5)
— 14 CFR §135.23
ATS, RTC
8093. If a certificate holder makes arrangements for
ATS, RTC another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that
8006. Who is directly responsible for determining the maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the
status of each mechanical irregularity previously entered A— certificate holder’s manual and 14 CFR Parts 43,
in the aircraft maintenance log? 91, and 135.
A— Aircraft dispatcher. B— provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate
B— Line maintenance supervisor. holder and approved by the supervising FAA
C— The next pilot-in-command. district office.
C— provisions and standards as outlined in the
Before each flight, the pilot-in-command shall deter- certificate holder’s manual.
mine, if the pilot does not already know, the status of
each irregularity entered in the maintenance log at the The certificate holder shall ensure that any mainte-
end of the preceding flight. (PLT374, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 nance, preventative maintenance, or alteration that is
CFR §135.65 performed by another person is performed under the
certificate holder’s manual and regulations. (PLT282,
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.413
ATS, RTC
8012. What document contains procedures that explain
how the required return-to-service conditions have ATS, RTC
been met? 8112. Who is responsible for submitting a Mechanical
A— Maintenance manual. Reliability Report?
B— Pilot’s Handbook. A— Each certificate holder.
C— Certificate holder’s manual. B— Director of maintenance at the facility that
discovers the reportable condition.
The certificate holder’s manual must include procedures C— Chief inspector at the facility where the condition
for ensuring that the pilot-in-command knows that is found.
required airworthiness inspections have been made
and that the aircraft has been returned to service in The certificate holder is responsible for submitting
compliance with applicable maintenance requirements. required mechanical reliability reports. (PLT443,
(PLT375, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.23 AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.415

Answers
8004 [B] 8006 [C] 8012 [C] 8019 [A] 8093 [A] 8112 [A]

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8014. The maximum altitude loss specified for malfunc- 8017. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning
tion of a certain autopilot under cruise conditions is 50 autopilot without an approach coupler is 45 feet. If the
feet. What is the lowest altitude this autopilot may be MDA is 1,620 feet MSL and the TDZE is 1,294 feet, to
used en route? which minimum altitude may you use the autopilot?
A— 500 feet AGL. A— 1,510 feet MSL.
B— 550 feet AGL. B— 1,339 feet MSL.
C— 600 feet AGL. C— 1,570 feet MSL.

Except for approaches, no person may use an autopilot When using an instrument approach facility other than
at an altitude above the terrain which is less than 500 ILS, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above
feet or less than twice the maximum altitude loss speci- the terrain that is less than 50 feet below the approved
fied in the approved Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent minimum descent altitude for that procedure, or less
for a malfunction of the autopilot, whichever is higher. than twice the maximum loss specified in the approved
(PLT424, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.93 Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent for malfunction of
the autopilot under approach conditions, whichever is
higher. (PLT424, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.93
ATS, RTC
8015. The maximum altitude loss for a particular mal-
functioning autopilot under approach conditions is 55 ATS, RTC
feet. If the TDZE is 571 feet and the MDA is 1,100 feet, 8037. The altitude loss for a particular malfunctioning
to which minimum altitude may you use this autopilot? autopilot with an approach coupler is 60 feet. If the
A— 626 feet MSL. reported weather is below basic VFR minimums and
B— 990 feet MSL. an ILS approach using the approach coupler is to be
C— 1,050 feet MSL. used, what minimum altitude may be used?
A— 50 feet AGL.
When using an instrument approach facility other than B— 55 feet AGL.
ILS, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above C— 60 feet AGL.
the terrain that is less than 50 feet below the approved
minimum descent altitude for that procedure, or less For ILS approaches, when reported weather is less than
than twice the maximum loss specified in the approved VFR, no person may use an autopilot with an approach
Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent for malfunction of coupler at an altitude that is less than 50 feet above the
the autopilot under approach conditions, whichever is terrain, or the maximum altitude loss specified in the
higher. (PLT424, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.93 approved Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent, for the
malfunction of the autopilot with an approach coupler,
whichever is higher. (PLT424, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR
ATS, RTC §135.93
8016. The maximum altitude loss for a malfunctioning
autopilot with an approach coupler is 40 feet. To which
minimum altitude may the autopilot be used during an ATS, RTC
ILS approach in less than basic VFR conditions? 8045. During which time period must a required voice
A— 40 feet AGL. recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be continu-
B— 50 feet AGL. ously operated?
C— 80 feet AGL. A— From the beginning of taxi to the end of the
landing roll.
For ILS approaches, when reported weather is less than B— From engine start at departure airport to engine
VFR, no person may use an autopilot with an approach shutdown at landing airport.
coupler at an altitude that is less than 50 feet above the C— From the use of the checklist before the flight to
terrain, or the maximum altitude loss specified in the completion of the final check at the end of the
approved Airplane Flight Manual or equivalent, for the flight.
malfunction of the autopilot with an approach coupler,
whichever is higher. (PLT424, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR
§135.93

Answers
8014 [A] 8015 [C] 8016 [B] 8017 [C] 8037 [C] 8045 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 79

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No person may operate a multi-engine, turbine-powered In complying with this section, information recorded more
airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating con- than 30 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise
figuration of 20 or more seats unless it is equipped with obliterated. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.151
an approved cockpit voice recorder that:
1. Is installed in compliance with Part 23, 25, 27 or 29
ATS, RTC
as applicable to Part 135; and
8048. Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved
2. Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist public address and crewmember interphone system?
before the flight to completion of the final check at
A— All turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a
the end of the flight.
seating configuration of more than 19 seats.
(PLT405, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.151 B— Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration,
excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats.
C— Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating
ATS, RTC configuration of 10 seats or more.
8046. An approved cockpit voice recorder is required
equipment in No person may operate an aircraft having a passen­ger
A— large turbine-powered airplanes having a seat­ing configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more
maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more than 19 unless an approved public address and crew
seats. interphone system is installed. (PLT462, AA.I.G.K5) —
B— multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having 14 CFR §135.150
a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more
seats.
ATS, RTC
C— all aircraft operated in commuter air carrier
service having a passenger seating configuration 8052. To operate an aircraft with certain equipment
of 20 seats or more. inoperative under the provisions of a minimum equip-
ment list, what document authorizing it must be issued
No person may operate a multi-engine, turbine-powered to the certificate holder?
airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating con- A— Letter of Authorization from the Regional
figuration of 20 or more seats unless it is equipped with Airworthiness Office authorizing such an
an approved cockpit voice recorder. (PLT405, AA.I.G.K5) operation.
— 14 CFR §135.151 B— Operations specifications issued by the FAA
district office having certification responsibility.
C— Letter of Authorization issued by the FAA district
ATS, RTC office having certification responsibility.
8047. IInformation recorded during normal operation
of a cockpit voice recorder in a large turbine powered No person may takeoff with inoperable instruments
airplane or equipment installed unless the following conditions
A— may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for are met:
the last 30 minutes prior to landing. 1. An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that
B— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except aircraft.
for the last 30 minutes.
2. The certificate-holding district office has issued the
C— may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not
certificate holder operations specifications authoriz-
required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
ing operations in accordance with an approved Mini-
No person may operate a multi-engine, turbine-powered mum Equipment List. The flight crew shall have direct
airplane or rotorcraft having a passenger seating con- access at all times prior to flight to all of the informa-
figuration of 20 or more seats unless it is equipped with tion contained in the approved Minimum Equipment
an approved cockpit voice recorder that: List through printed or other means approved by the
Administrator in the certificate holders operations
1. Is installed in compliance with Part 23, 25, 27 or 29 specifications. An approved Minimum Equipment
as applicable to Part 135; and List, as authorized by the operations specifications,
2. Is operated continuously from the use of the checklist constitutes an approved change to the type design
before the flight to completion of the final check at without requiring recertification
the end of the flight. (PLT428, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.179

Answers
8046 [B] 8047 [A] 8048 [B] 8052 [B]

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8058. When a crash ax is required equipment on an 8061. Airborne weather radar equipment must be
aircraft, where should it be located? installed in large transport category aircraft, in the
A— In the flight crew compartment. conterminous 48 United States,
B— At a location inaccessible to the passengers A— that are engaged in passenger-carrying
during normal operations. operations.
C— At a location accessible to both the crew and B— that are engaged in either cargo or passenger-
passengers during normal operations. carrying operations.
C— and be fully operational, although weather
No person may operate an aircraft having a passen- forecasts indicate no hazardous conditions.
ger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of
more than 19 seats unless it is equipped with a crash No person may operate a large, transport category air-
ax carried that is accessible to the crew but inacces- craft in passenger-carrying operations unless approved
sible to passengers during normal operations. (PLT404, airborne weather radar equipment is installed in the
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.177 aircraft. (PLT367, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.175

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8059. How many, if any, approved first aid kits are 8062. In which aircraft, or under what conditions, is
required on an aircraft having a passenger seating airborne thunderstorm detection equipment required?
configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14? A— Large multiengine turbine-powered aircraft
A— None. having a passenger seating configuration of 19
B— One. seats or more being operated by a commuter air
C— Two. carrier.
B— Any aircraft having a passenger seating
No person may operate an aircraft having a passenger configuration of 19 seats or more that is engaged
seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more in passenger-carrying operations under IFR or at
than 19 seats unless it is equipped with one approved night.
first aid kit for the treatment of injuries likely to occur in C— Small aircraft having a passenger seating
flight or in a minor accident. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 configuration of 10 seats or more, excluding
CFR §135.177 any pilot seat, that are engaged in passenger-
carrying operations.
ATS, RTC No person may operate an aircraft that has a pas-
8060. An aircraft has a passenger seating configuration senger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat,
of 19 seats, excluding any pilot seats. How many, if any, of 10 seats or more in passenger-carrying operations
approved first aid kits are required? unless the aircraft is equipped with either approved
A— One. thunderstorm detection equipment or approved airborne
B— Two. weather radar equipment. (PLT367, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
C— None. CFR §135.173

No person may operate an aircraft having a passenger

seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more
than 19 seats unless it is equipped with one approved
first aid kit for the treatment of injuries likely to occur in
flight or in a minor accident. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
CFR §135.177

Answers
8058 [B] 8059 [B] 8060 [C] 8061 [A] 8062 [C]

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8070. When a ground proximity warning system is 8077. Which group of aircraft must have a shoulder
required under 14 CFR Part 135, it must harness installed at each flight crewmember station?
A— convey warnings of any deviation below glide slope A— Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration,
and of excessive closure rate with the terrain. excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.
B— convey warnings for excessive closure rates with B— All passenger-carrying aircraft operating under 14
the terrain but not for deviation from an ILS glide CFR Part 135, having a seating configuration for
slope. 10 persons.
C— alert the pilot by an audible and visual warning C— Large aircraft being operated in commuter air
signals when deviation above or below glide service, having a passenger seating configuration
slope occurs. of 9, excluding any pilot seat.

An approved ground proximity warning system must No person may operate a turbojet aircraft or an aircraft
convey warnings of excessive closure rates with the having a passenger seating configuration, excluding
terrain and any deviations below glide slope by visual any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more unless it is equipped
and audible means. (PLT139, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR with an approved shoulder harness installed for each
§135.154 flight crewmember station. (PLT464, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
CFR §135.171

ATS, RTC
8071. When a ground proximity warning system is ATS, RTC
required, it must 8078. Which is a requirement for life preservers during
A— apply corrective control pressure when deviation extended overwater operations? Each life preserver
below glide slope occurs. must be equipped with
B— incorporate a means of alerting the pilot when a A— a dye marker.
system malfunction occurs. B— an approved survivor locator light.
C— incorporate a backup feature that activates C— one flashlight having at least two size “D” cells or
automatically upon total failure of the aircraft’s equivalent.
electrical generating system.
No person may operate an aircraft in extended over-
An approved ground proximity warning system must water operations unless it carries an approved life pre-
convey warnings of excessive closure rates with the server equipped with an approved survivor locator light
terrain and any deviations below glide slope by visual for each occupant of the aircraft. (PLT437, AA.I.G.K5)
and audible means. It must also incorporate a means of — 14 CFR §135.167
alerting the pilot when a malfunction occurs. (PLT139,
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.154
ATS, RTC
8079. In addition to fully-equipped liferafts and life pre-
servers, what emergency equipment must be provided
during extended overwater operations?
A— One water resistant, self-buoyant, portable
survival-type emergency radio transmitter for
each liferaft.
B— Each aircraft must have at least one liferaft,
equipped with a survival-type emergency locator
transmitter.
C— One pyrotechnic signaling device for each aircraft.

No person may operate an aircraft in extended over-

water operations unless there is attached to one of the
required life rafts, a survival-type emergency locator
transmitter. (PLT437, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.167

Answers
8070 [A] 8071 [B] 8077 [A] 8078 [B] 8079 [B]

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8057. A pilot may make an IFR departure from an airport 8064. A pilot may not designate an airport as an alter-
that does not have an approved standard instrument nate unless the weather reports, or forecasts, or any
approach procedure if combination of them indicate that it will be at or above
A— there is a departure alternate within 60 minutes alternate airport landing minimum at the
and the weather there is above landing minimums. A— time of departure.
B— the Administrator has issued Operations B— estimated time of arrival, plus or minus 1 hour.
Specifications to the certificate holder approving C— estimated time of arrival.
the procedure.
C— the departure airport is within 30 minutes flying No person may designate an alternate airport unless
time of another airport that has an approved the weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of
standard instrument approach procedure. them, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or
above authorized alternate airport landing minimums
The Administrator may issue operations specifications for that airport at the estimated time of arrival. (PLT379,
to the certificate holder to allow it to depart at an airport AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.221
that does not have an approved standard instrument
approach procedure when the Administrator determines
that it is necessary to make an IFR departure from that ATS, RTC
airport and that the proposed operations can be con- 8065. A takeoff may not be made from an airport that
ducted safely. (PLT459, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.215 is below the authorized IFR landing minimums unless
A— there is an alternate airport with the required IFR
landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time,
ATS, RTC
at normal cruising speed in still air.
8063. Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate B— the departure airport is forecast to have the
for the destination airport is not required under 14 CFR required IFR landing minimums within 1 hour.
135 if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the C— there is an alternate airport with the required
forecast visibility is at least IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying
A— 5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable time, at normal cruising speed in still air with one
visibility minimums for the instrument approach engine inoperative.
procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
B— 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an
visibility minimums for the instrument approach airport where weather conditions are at or above takeoff
procedure to be used, whichever is greater. minimums, but are below landing minimums, unless
C— 3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than there is an alternate airport within one hour’s flying
the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the time (at normal cruising speed in still air) of the airport
approach procedure to be used, which ever is of departure. (PLT459, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.217
greater.

An alternate airport need not be designated if the ceiling ATS, RTC

criteria is met and the visibility is forecast to be at least 3 8066. A pilot may not begin an IFR operation unless
miles or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility the next airport of intended landing is forecast to be at
minimums, whichever is the greater, for the instrument or above authorized IFR landing minimums at
approach procedure to be used at the destination airport. A— the estimated time of arrival, ±1 hour.
(PLT379, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.223 B— the estimated time of arrival.
C— the estimated time of arrival, ±30 minutes.

No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR or begin an

IFR or over-the-top operation unless the latest weather
reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indi-
cate that weather conditions at the estimated time of
arrival at the next airport of intended landing will be at
or above authorized IFR landing minimums. (PLT459,
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.219

Answers
8057 [B] 8063 [B] 8064 [C] 8065 [A] 8066 [B]

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8068. Which condition must be met to conduct IFR 8085. Which is one required condition for a pilot to take
operations from an airport that is not at the location off under IFR with less-than-standard takeoff minimums
where weather observations are made? at an airport where a straight-in instrument approach
A— An “Authorization Letter” permitting the procedure procedure is authorized and there is an approved
must be issued by the FAA district office charged weather reporting source?
with the overall inspection of the certificate A— The pilot must have at least 100 hours as pilot-in-
holder. command in the type airplane to be flown.
B— A “Letter of Waiver” authorizing the procedure B— The certificate holder has been approved for
must be issued by the Administrator, after an such operation and the visibility at the time of
investigation by the U.S. National Weather takeoff must be at least RVR 16.
Service and the FSDO which find the standard of C— Wind direction and velocity must be such that a
safety to be satisfactory. straight-in approach can be made to the runway
C— The Administrator must issue Operations served by the procedure.
Specifications that permit the procedure.
At airports where straight-in instrument approach pro-
The Administrator may issue operations specifications cedures are authorized, a pilot may takeoff in an aircraft
to the certificate holder to allow it to depart at an airport under IFR when the weather conditions are equal to or
that does not have an approved standard instrument better than the lowest straight-in landing minimums if:
approach procedure when the Administrator determines 1. The wind direction and velocity at the time of take-
that it is necessary to make an IFR departure from that off are such that a straight-in instrument approach
airport and that the proposed operations can be con- can be made to the runway served by instrument
ducted safely. (PLT282, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.215 approach;
2. The associated ground facilities upon which the
ATS, RTC landing minimums are predicated and the related
8084. Which is an operational requirement concerning airborne equipment are in normal operation; and
ice, snow, or frost on structural surfaces? 3. The certificate holder has been approved for such
A— A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost operations.
adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control (PLT459, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.225
surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing
and deicing equipment is operating.
B— If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane’s ATS, RTC
lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a 8086. After passing the final approach fix on a VOR
takeoff may be made. approach, a weather report is received indicating the
C— A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is visibility is below prescribed minimums. In this situa-
adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control tion, the pilot
surfaces. A— may continue the approach and land, if at the
MDA, the actual weather conditions are at
No pilot may takeoff in an aircraft that has snow or ice least equal to the minimums prescribed for the
adhering to the wings, stabilizing, or control surfaces. procedure.
(PLT493, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.227 B— may continue the approach and land regardless
of the visibility observed at the MDA, if prior
to beginning the approach, the visibility was
reported at or above minimums.
C— should leveloff and continue to fly the approach
to the MAP, and execute the missed approach.

Answers
8068 [C] 8084 [C] 8085 [C] 8086 [A]

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If a pilot has begun the final approach segment of a ATS, RTC

VOR, NDB or comparable approach procedure and has 8091. A pilot may not take off under IFR at a foreign
passed the final approach fix when he/she receives a airport unless the visibility is
weather report indicating below minimum conditions, A— 1/2 mile or more above landing minimums.
he/she may continue the approach and, if upon reach- B— 1 mile or more and the ceiling is 500 feet or more.
ing the MDA finds the weather at least equal to the C— at least 1 mile.
prescribed minimums, may land. (PLT379, AA.I.G.K5)
— 14 CFR §135.225 Each pilot making an IFR takeoff or approach and
landing at a military or foreign airport shall comply with
applicable instrument approach procedures and weather
ATS, RTC minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdic-
8087. An alternate for a destination airport (circling not tion over that airport. In addition, no pilot may takeoff
authorized) is not required if, for at least 1 hour before at that airport when the visibility is less than one mile.
and after the ETA, the required visibility exists, and the (PLT459, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.225
forecast ceiling is at least
A— 1,500 feet above the lowest published minimum,
or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, ATS, RTC
whichever is higher. 8092. An instrument approach procedure to an airport
B— 1,500 feet above the lowest MDA or 2,000 feet may not be initiated unless the latest weather report
above the runway touchdown zone elevation, issued by an authorized weather reporting facility indi-
whichever is higher. cates that weather conditions
C— 1,000 feet above the lowest published minimum, A— are at or above the circling minimums for the
or 1,500 feet above the airport elevation, runway the pilot intends to use.
whichever is higher. B— are at or above the authorized IFR landing
minimums for that procedure.
An alternate airport need not be designated if the C— exceed the straight-in minimums for all
required visibility criteria exists and the ceiling is fore- nonprecision approaches.
cast to be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling
approach MDA. If no circling approach is authorized No pilot may begin an instrument approach procedure
the ceiling must be forecast to be 1,500 feet above to an airport unless the latest weather report issued by
the lowest published minimum, or 2,000 feet above that weather reporting facility indicates that weather
the airport elevation, whichever is higher. (PLT380, conditions are at or above the authorized IFR landing
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.223 minimums for that airport. (PLT420, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
CFR §135.225
ATS, RTC
8090. At a military airport, a pilot may not take off under ATS, RTC
IFR unless the reported weather conditions indicate 8114. What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for an
that the airplane to operate under VFR in Class G airspace?
A— visibility is at least 1 mile. A— 2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile visibility.
B— ceiling is at least 500 feet and the visibility is 1 B— 2,000-foot ceiling; 1-mile flight visibility.
mile or more. C— 1,000-foot ceiling; 2-miles flight visibility.
C— airport has landing minimums.
No person may operate an airplane under VFR in
Each pilot making an IFR takeoff or approach and uncontrolled airspace when the ceiling is less than 1,000
landing at a military or foreign airport shall comply with feet unless flight visibility is at least 2 miles. (PLT163,
applicable instrument approach procedures and weather AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.205
minimums prescribed by the authority having jurisdic-
tion over that airport. In addition, no pilot may takeoff
at that airport when the visibility is less than one mile.
(PLT459, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.225

Answers
8087 [A] 8090 [A] 8091 [C] 8092 [B] 8114 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 85

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC No person may serve as pilot-in-command of an aircraft

8807. Which document would constitute an approved carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 90
change to the type design without requiring a recerti- days, that person has, for operation during the period
fication? beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before
A— An approved Minimum Equipment List. sunrise (as published in the air almanac), made 3
B— The Operations Specifications as approved by takeoffs and 3 landings as the sole manipulator of the
the Administrator. flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and
C— A special flight permit. class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type
in which the person is to serve. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) —
An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by 14 CFR §135.247
the operations specifications, constitutes an approved
change to the type design without requiring recertifica-
tion. (PLT428, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.179 ATS, RTC
8813. An employee who performs safety-sensitive func-
tions, for a certificate holder, who has actual knowledge
ATS, RTC of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she
8808. No person may operate an aircraft under 14 performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time
CFR Part 135, carrying passengers under VFR at of the accident shall not use alcohol
night, unless A— until 4 hours after the accident.
A— each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at B— within 8 hours of the accident.
least two size “D” batteries or the equivalent. C— until given a release by the NTSB or FAA.
B— it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two
size “D” cell or the equivalent. No covered employee who has actual knowledge of an
C— each crewmember has a flashlight having at least accident involving an aircraft for which he or she has
two size “D” cells and a spare bulb. performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time
of the accident shall use alcohol for 8 hours following
No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers the accident. (PLT463, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §120.215
under VFR at night unless it is equipped with a flashlight
having at least two size “D” cells or equivalent. (PLT405,
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.159 ATS, RTC
8814. What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot
may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in commercial
ATS, RTC flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier?
8809. For operations during the period beginning 1 A— 32 hours.
hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise B— 34 hours.
(as published in the Air Almanac), no certificate holder C— 35 hours.
may use any person, nor may any person serve, as
pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers No certificate holder may schedule any flight crewmem-
unless that person has made three takeoffs and three ber for flight in scheduled operations if that crewmem-
landings, within the preceding 90 days, ber’s total time in commercial flying will exceed:
A— as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an 1. 1,200 hours in any calendar year.
aircraft of the same category and class and, if a
2. 120 hours in any calendar month.
type rating is required, of the same type in which
that person is to serve. 3. 34 hours in any seven consecutive days.
B— as pilot-in-command of an aircraft of the same (PLT409, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.265
category and class and, if a type rating is
required, of the same type in which that person is
to serve.
C— as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an
aircraft of the same type in which that person is
to serve.

Answers
8807 [A] 8808 [B] 8809 [A] 8813 [B] 8814 [B]

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 Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8815. What is the maximum number of hours that a 8821. A crewmember who has served as second in
commuter air carrier may schedule a flight crewmember command on a particular aircraft type (e.g., BE-1900),
to fly in scheduled operations and other commercial may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which
flying in any calendar month? training program?
A— 100. A— Upgrade training.
B— 110. B— Transition training.
C— 120. C— Initial training.

No certificate holder may schedule any flight crewmem- Upgrade training is the training required of crewmembers
ber for flight in scheduled operations if that crewmem- who have qualified and served as second-in-command
ber’s total time in commercial flying will exceed: on a particular aircraft before they serve as pilot-in-
1. 1,200 hours in any calendar year. command of that aircraft. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
CFR §135.321
2. 120 hours in any calendar month.
3. 34 hours in any seven consecutive days.
ATS, RTC
(PLT409, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.265 8827. The training required for crewmembers who
have been qualified and served in the same capacity
ATS, RTC
on another aircraft is
8819. The pilot-in-command may deviate from 14 CFR A— difference training.
Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of B— transition training.
persons or property only C— upgrade training.
A— after ATC is notified of the emergency and the
Transition training is the training required of crew-
extent of deviation required.
members who have qualified and served in the same
B— to the extent required to meet that emergency.
capacity on another aircraft. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
C— if required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.
CFR §135.321
In an emergency involving the safety of persons or
property, the pilot-in-command may deviate from the ATS, RTC
rules of 14 CFR Part 135 to the extent required to meet 8828. The certificate holder must give instruction on
that emergency. (PLT444, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.19 such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, gas expansion,
and decompression to crewmembers who serve in
ATS, RTC
operations above
8820. The training required for flight crewmembers who A— FL180.
have not qualified and served in the same capacity on B— FL200.
an aircraft is C— FL250.
A— upgrade training.
Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000
B— transition training.
feet must receive instruction in respiration, hypoxia,
C— initial training.
duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen
Initial training is the term used for the training required at altitude, gas expansion, gas bubble formation and
for crewmembers who have not qualified and served in physical phenomena and incidents of decompression.
the same capacity on an aircraft. (PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) (PLT460, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.331
— 14 CFR §135.321

Answers
8815 [C] 8819 [B] 8820 [C] 8821 [A] 8827 [B] 8828 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 87

Chapter 1 Regulations

ATS, RTC Emergency exit lights must be operable manually from

8829. The air carrier must give instruction on such the flight crew station and from a station in the passenger
subjects as gas bubble formation, hypoxia, decompres- compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight
sion, and length of consciousness without supplemental attendant seat. (PLT404, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.178
oxygen at altitude to crewmembers serving on aircraft Answer (A) is incorrect because the lights must operate auto-
operated above matically either with loss of normal electrical power or when an
emergency assist means is activated, depending on the aircraft
A— FL250. certification. Answer (C) is incorrect because the lights must be
B— FL200. armed or turned on during taxi, takeoff and landing but not neces-
C— FL180. sarily during all other flight operations.

Crewmembers who serve in operations above 25,000

feet must receive instruction in respiration, hypoxia, ATS, RTC
duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen 8838. What emergency equipment is required for
at altitude, gas expansion, gas bubble formation and extended overwater operations?
physical phenomena and incidents of decompression. A— A portable survival emergency locator transmitter
(PLT407, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.331 for each life raft.
B— A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life
preserver.
ATS, RTC C— A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator
8830. What is one of the requirements that must be light, for each person on the airplane.
met by a pilot-in-command to re-establish recency of
experience? Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations
A— At least one full stop landing must be made from must carry an approved life preserver for every occupant
a circling approach. of the aircraft. This life preserver must be equipped with
B— Three takeoffs and landings must be made as the an approved survivor locator light. A life preserver must
sole manipulator of the controls, in the type, if a be readily accessible to each seated occupant. In addi-
type rating is required, if not in the same category tion, there must be enough appropriately equipped life
and class aircraft that the person is to serve. rafts to accommodate all the occupants of the aircraft.
C— At least one nonprecision approach must be One of the life rafts must have a survival type emer-
made to the lowest minimums authorized for the gency locator transmitter. (PLT437, AA.I.G.K5) — 14
certificate holder. CFR §135.167

No person may serve as pilot-in-command of an aircraft

carrying passengers unless, within the preceding 90 ATS, RTC
days, that person has made 3 takeoffs and 3 landings 8840. Each aircraft being operated in extended over-
as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft water operations, must have a life preserver for each
of the same category and class and, if a type rating is A— aircraft occupant.
required, of the same type in which the person is to B— seat on the aircraft.
serve. (PLT442, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.247 C— passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations

ATS, RTC must carry an approved life preserver for every occupant
8834. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior of the aircraft. (PLT437, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.167
emergency lights, on aircraft having a passenger seat-
ing configuration of 20 to
A— operate automatically when subjected to a
negative G load.
B— be operable manually from the flight crew station
and a point in the passenger compartment.
C— be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight
operations.

Answers
8829 [A] 8830 [B] 8834 [B] 8838 [C] 8840 [A]

1 – 88 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

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ATS, RTC ATS, RTC

8841. Life preservers required for extended overwater 8843. No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from
operations are stored an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that
A— within easy reach of each passenger. is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate
B— under each occupant seat. airport within
C— within easy access of each seated occupant. A— 1 hour at normal indicated airspeed of the
departure airport.
Every aircraft flown in extended overwater operations B— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the
must carry an approved life preserver for every occupant departure airport.
of the aircraft. A life preserver must be readily accessible C— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one
to each seated occupant. (PLT437, AA.I.G.K5 ) — 14 engine operating.
CFR §135.167
No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an
airport where weather conditions are at or above take-
off minimums, but are below authorized IFR landing
minimums unless there is an alternate airport within 1
hour’s flying time (in still air) of the airport of departure.
(PLT459, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.217

Helicopter Regulations
RTC feet AGL. Helicopters should avoid overflight of other
8002. What minimum rest period must be provided aircraft, vehicles, and personnel during air taxi opera-
for a pilot assigned to Helicopter Hospital Emergency tions. (PLT112) — AIM ¶4-3-17
Medical Evacuation Service (HEMES) who has been
on duty for a 47 hour period?
RTC
A— 16 consecutive hours.
9336. What minimum instrument experience in the
B— 14 consecutive hours.
past 6 calendar months meets the second-in-command
C— 12 consecutive hours.
requirement to maintain IFR currency in a helicopter?
Each pilot must be given a rest period upon completion A— 6 hours in actual IFR conditions or 3 hours actual
of the HEMES assignment and prior to being assigned and 3 hours simulated IFR in a helicopter plus six
any further duty with the certificate holder of at least instrument approaches.
12 consecutive hours for an assignment of less than B— Holding procedures, intercepting and tracking
48 hours, and at least 16 consecutive hours for an courses using the navigation equipment, six
assignment of more than 48 hours. (PLT409) — 14 instrument approaches logged in actual or
CFR §135.271 simulated IFR in a helicopter, simulator or a flight
training device.
C— 6 hours of actual or simulated time in a helicopter
RTC of the same type, plus six instrument approaches.
9043. What is a helicopter pilot’s responsibility when
cleared to “air taxi” on the airport? For flight under IFR, the second-in-command must meet
A— Taxi direct to destination as quickly as possible. the recent instrument requirements of Part 61: No pilot
B— Taxi at hover altitude using taxiways. may act as pilot-in-command under IFR unless the pilot
C— Taxi below 100 feet AGL avoiding other aircraft has performed and logged, within the past 6 calendar
and personnel. months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding
procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses
Air taxi is the preferred method for helicopter ground through the use of navigation systems in the appropriate
movements on airports. Unless otherwise requested category of aircraft for the instrument privileges sought.
or instructed, pilots are expected to remain below 100 (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.245 and §61.57

Answers
8841 [C] 8843 [B] 8002 [C] 9043 [C] 9336 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 89

Chapter 1 Regulations

RTC For flight under IFR, the second-in-command must meet

9337. What minimum conditions are necessary for the the recent instrument requirements of Part 61: No pilot
instrument approaches required for second-in-command may act as pilot-in-command under IFR unless the pilot
IFR currency in a helicopter? has performed and logged, within the past 6 calendar
A— Six must be performed and logged under actual months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding
or simulated instrument conditions in a rotorcraft. procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses
B— Six must be performed and logged under actual through the use of navigation systems in the appropriate
or simulated instrument conditions; three must be category of aircraft for the instrument privileges sought.
in a rotorcraft, three may be in an airplane or an (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.245 and §61.57
approved flight simulator.
C— All must be made in a rotorcraft category of
RTC
aircraft, or approved simulator, or flight training
9341. Within the past 6 months, a pilot has accom-
device and logged while under actual or
plished:
simulated IFR conditions.
Two approaches and intercepting, tracking courses
For flight under IFR, the second-in-command must meet using the navigation systems in a helicopter.
the recent instrument requirements of Part 61: No pilot Two approaches, missed approaches and holding
may act as pilot-in-command under IFR unless the pilot in an approved airplane flight simulator.
has performed and logged, within the past 6 calendar Two approaches and holding in an approved rotor-
months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding craft flight training device.
procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses What additional instrument experience, if any, must the
through the use of navigation systems in the appropriate pilot perform to act as second in command (under 14
category of aircraft for the instrument privileges sought. CFR part 135) on an IFR helicopter flight?
(PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.245 and §61.57
A— None.
B— Two approaches in a rotorcraft category aircraft.
RTC C— Two approaches in either a helicopter or an
9338. Within the past 6 months, a pilot has accom- airplane.
plished:
For flight under IFR, the second-in-command must meet
Two approaches in a helicopter.
the recent instrument requirements of Part 61: No pilot
Two approaches in an airplane.
may act as pilot-in-command under IFR unless the pilot
Two approaches in a glider.
has performed and logged, within the past 6 calendar
What additional instrument experience must the pilot months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding
obtain prior to acting as second in command (under 14 procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses
CFR part 135) on an IFR flight? through the use of navigation systems in the appropriate
A— Four approaches in an aircraft, approved training category of aircraft for the instrument privileges sought.
device, flight simulator (that is representative of (PLT442) — 14 CFR §135.245, §61.57
the aircraft category), holding, intercepting and
tracking courses using the navigation systems.
RTC
B— Passes an instrument proficiency check in any
9366. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule
category aircraft, approved simulator or training
regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a
device.
helicopter during an off-airways IFR flight over non-
C— Holding, intercepting and tracking courses (using
mountainous terrain?
the navigation systems) in an aircraft, approved
simulator or approved flight training device. A— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4
nautical miles of course.
B— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5
statute miles of course.
C— 1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a
horizontal distance of 3 statute miles of course.

Answers
9337 [C] 9338 [A] 9341 [B] 9366 [A]

1 – 90 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 1 Regulations

In the case of operations over areas that are not desig- RTC
nated as mountainous areas; no person may operate an 9373. What minimum altitude should a helicopter main-
aircraft under IFR below an altitude of 1,000 feet above tain while en route?
the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 A— Over congested areas such as towns, no lower
nautical miles from the course to be flown. (PLT430) — than 1,000 feet over the highest obstacle within a
14 CFR §91.177 horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the helicopter.
B— That specifically prescribed by the air carrier for
the operation.
RTC
C— That prescribed by the Administrator.
9367. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule
regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a Each person operating a helicopter shall comply with
helicopter during an IFR off-airways flight over moun- routes or altitudes specifically prescribed for helicopters
tainous terrain? by the Administrator. (PLT430) — 14 CFR §91.119
A— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a
horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles.
B— 2,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a RTC
horizontal distance of 3 nautical miles of course. 9414. In addition to a two-way radio capable of com-
C— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a municating with ATC on appropriate frequencies, which
horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles. equipment is the helicopter required to have to oper-
ate within Class B airspace? (Letter of agreement not
In the case of operations over areas designated as applicable.)
mountainous, no person may operate an aircraft under A— A VOR or TACAN receiver.
IFR below an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest B— DME, a VOR or TACAN receiver, and an
obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles appropriate transponder beacon.
from the course to be flown. (PLT430) — 14 CFR §91.177 C— An appropriate ATC transponder.

An operable ATC transponder is required to operate

RTC all aircraft in Class B airspace except for helicopters
9371. According to 14 CFR Part 91, when takeoff operated at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms
minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what of a letter of agreement. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §91.131
are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a multiengine and §91.215
helicopter?
A— 1 SM visibility.
B— 1/2 SM visibility. RTC
C— 1200 RVR. 9415. Which of the following is a transponder require-
ment for helicopter operations?
If takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97, A— Helicopters with a certified gross weight of
the takeoff minimums under IFR for helicopters are 1/2 more than 12,500 pounds that are engaged
statute mile visibility. (PLT459) — 14 CFR §91.175 in commercial operations are required to be
equipped with operable ATC transponders.
B— Helicopters may not be operated at or below
RTC
1,000 feet AGL within Class B airspace without
9372. According to 14 CFR Part 91, when takeoff
an operable ATC transponder.
minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what
C— Operable ATC transponders are required when
are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a single-engine
operating helicopters within Class D airspace at
helicopter?
night under special VFR.
A— 1/2 SM visibility.
B— 1 SM visibility. An operable ATC transponder is required to operate
C— 1200 RVR. all aircraft in Class B airspace except as authorized by
ATC. (PLT405) — 14 CFR §91.215
If takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97,
the takeoff minimums under IFR for helicopters are 1/2
statute mile visibility. (PLT459) — 14 CFR §91.175

Answers
9367 [C] 9371 [B] 9372 [A] 9373 [C] 9414 [C] 9415 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 1 – 91

Chapter 1 Regulations

RTC
8975. Which of the following are required for a heli-
copter ILS approach with a decision height lower than
200 feet HAT?
A— Special aircrew training and aircraft certification.
B— Both a marker beacon and a radio altimeter.
C— ATP helicopter certificate and CAT II certification.

Approaches with a HAT below 200 feet are annotated

with the note: “Special Aircraft & Aircraft Certification
Required” since the FAA must approve the helicopter
and its avionics, and the flight crew must have the
required experience, training, and checking. (PLT356)
— FAA-H-8083-16

Answers
8975 [A]

1 – 92 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 2
Equipment, Navigation, and Facilities
Inoperative Equipment 2–3
Pitot-Static Instruments 2–4
Electronic Flight Instruments 2 – 10
Safety of Flight Equipment 2 – 13
Communications 2 – 17
Navigation Equipment 2 – 18
Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) 2 – 23
Global Navigation 2 – 29
Approach Systems 2 – 30
GPS 2 – 37
Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Broadcast (ADS-B) 2 – 43
Airport Lighting and Marking 2 – 44
Approach Lighting 2 – 54

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2–1

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

2–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Inoperative Equipment
A certificate holder’s manual must contain enroute flight, navigation and communication procedures,
including procedures for the dispatch, release or continuance of a flight if a required piece of equipment
becomes inoperative.
When any required instrument or equipment in an aircraft is inoperative, the airplane cannot be flown
unless that aircraft’s Minimum Equipment List (MEL) allows such a flight.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace shall report to ATC immedi-
ately any malfunction of navigational, approach or communications equipment that occurs in flight. The
report must include:
• Aircraft identification;
• Equipment affected;
• Degree to which the capability of the aircraft to operate IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and
• Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.

ALL The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in

9407. An approved minimum equipment list or FAA controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
equipment communication equipment that occurs in flight. (PLT356,
A— to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an AA.VI.E.K1) — 14 CFR §91.187
aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. Answer (A) is incorrect because any malfunction of approach equip-
B— to be inoperative anytime with no other ment must be reported in flight, not by a written report. Answer (B)
is incorrect because, although another type of instrument approach
documentation required or procedures to be may be executed if permission is granted by ATC, any malfunction
followed. of approach equipment should be reported.
C— to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a
large airplane to a maintenance base without
further documentation from the operator or FAA ATM, ATS, RTC
with passengers on board. 9381. What action should be taken if one of the two
VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
The Minimum Equipment List and the letter of autho- A— Notify ATC immediately.
rization constitute a supplemental type certificate for B— Squawk 7600.
the aircraft. The approved Minimum Equipment List C— Monitor the VOR receiver.
must provide for the operation of the aircraft with the
instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in
(PLT405, AA.II.A.K2c) — 14 CFR §91.213 controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
communication equipment that occurs in flight. (PLT162,
ATM, ATS, RTC
AA.VI.D.K3) — 14 CFR §91.187
9380. What action is necessary when a partial loss of
Answer (B) is incorrect because, although you have experienced a
ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in con- communications failure, it is only a partial one. You still have one
trolled airspace under IFR? operational VHF radio and all other radios are working normally, so a
squawk of 7600 is not needed. Answer (C) is incorrect because you
A— Continue as cleared and file a written report to still have an operable VHF radio for communication, so monitoring of
the Administrator if requested. a NAVAID is not needed. The only pilot action required is notification
B— If the aircraft is equipped with other radios to ATC of the problem.
suitable for executing an instrument approach, no
further action is necessary.
C— Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

Answers
9407 [A] 9380 [C] 9381 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2–3

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in

9386. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
should the pilot-in-command follow? communication equipment that occurs in flight. (PLT406,
A— No call is required if one of the two VOR AA.VI.D.K3) — 14 CFR §91.187
receivers is operating properly. Answer (A) is incorrect because controlled airspace exists far
B— Advise ATC immediately. below positive control airspace (base of 18,000 feet MSL), and
any loss of a navigational aid should be reported to ATC. Answer
C— Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. (B) is incorrect because, although this may be a common practice
among the air carriers, the regulations require notification to ATC
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in of the malfunction.
controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
communication equipment that occurs in flight. (PLT406, ATM, ADX
AA.VI.D.K3) — 14 CFR §91.187 8278. If a required instrument on a multi-engine air-
Answer (A) is incorrect because any malfunction of a navigational
plane becomes inoperative, which document required
radio should be reported, no matter how slightly it may affect the under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may
conduct of the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because, although this continue en route?
may be a common practice among the air carriers, the regulations
require notification to ATC of the malfunction. A— A Master Minimum Equipment List for the
airplane.
B— Original dispatch release.
ATM, ATS, RTC C— Certificate holder’s manual.
9387. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the
ADF fails. What action is required? Each certificate holder’s manual must contain enroute
flight, navigation, and communication procedures for
A— Descend below Class A airspace.
the dispatch, release or continuance of flight if any item
B— Advise dispatch via company frequency.
of equipment required for the particular type of opera-
C— Notify ATC immediately.
tion becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route.
(PLT436, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.135

Pitot-Static Instruments
Modern jet transports usually have three pitot-static systems. There are separate systems for the cap-
tain’s and co-pilot’s instruments plus an auxiliary system that provides a backup for either of the two
primary systems. The instruments that require static pressure input are airspeed, Mach, altitude and
vertical speed indicators. In addition, the airspeed and Mach indicators need a source of pitot pres-
sure. Besides the flight instruments, static pressure input is required for the Mach warning, autopilot,
flight director, flight recorder and cabin differential pressure. Pitot input is required for all those systems
except for cabin differential pressure. The usual source for these non-flight instruments is the auxiliary
pitot-static system. See Figure 2-1.
Altimeters compare the sea level pressure setting in their window with the outside air pressure sensed
through the static system. The difference is displayed as the altitude above sea level. Part of the preflight
check is to verify the accuracy of the altimeters. An altimeter should be considered questionable if the
indicated altitude varies by more the 75 feet from a known field elevation.
The altimeter setting used by pilots is always the station pressure of the reporting station corrected
to sea level. Station pressure is the actual pressure at field elevation.
True altitude is the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. This is the same as indicated alti-
tude when standard temperatures exist. When the temperature is warmer than standard, true altitude
is higher than indicated altitude. When the temperature is colder than standard day conditions, just the
opposite is true. Corrected altitude (approximately true altitude) can be calculated but it is neither practical

Answers
9386 [B] 9387 [C] 8278 [C]

2–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

nor useful to do so in most situations. When setting an altimeter, a pilot should just use the appropriate
altimeter setting and disregard the effects of nonstandard atmospheric pressures and temperatures.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to standard sea level pressure
of 29.92" Hg. Density altitude is used in aircraft performance computations. It is pressure altitude cor-
rected for nonstandard temperatures. If the temperature is warmer than standard, density altitude will
be higher than pressure altitude.
The local altimeter setting is used when flying below FL180 and the altimeter is 31.00" Hg or less.
Special procedures apply when the local pressure is more than 31.00" Hg because most altimeters can-
not be set higher than that. In the United States, all altimeters are set to 29.92" Hg when climbing through
FL180. Caution: outside the United States the transition altitude is often something other than FL180.
A common reason for altimeter errors is incorrect setting of the altimeter. If the setting in the altimeter
is higher than the actual sea level pressure, the altimeter will read higher than the actual altitude. If the
setting is too low, the altimeter will read lower than it really is. As a rough rule of thumb, the magnitude of
the error is about 1,000 feet for each 1" Hg that the altimeter is off. For example, if the altimeter is set to
29.92" Hg, but the real sea level pressure is 30.57" Hg, the altimeter will read about 650 feet lower than
the actual airplane’s altitude (30.57 – 29.92 = .65" Hg = 650 feet). In this example, the airplane would be
650 feet higher than the indicated altitude.
(continued)

Figure 2-1. Typical pitot-static system

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2–5

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

The airspeed indicators compare pitot pressure with static pressure and display the difference as
indicated airspeed. This indicated airspeed equals the aircraft’s actual speed through the air (True Air-
speed) only under standard day conditions at sea level. Under almost all flight conditions, true airspeed
will be higher than indicated airspeed because of the lower ambient pressures at altitude.
The Machmeter displays aircraft speed as a percentage of the speed of sound. For example, an
aircraft cruising at a Mach number of .82 is flying at 82% of the speed of sound. The Machmeter works
in a manner similar to the airspeed indicator in that it compares pitot and static pressure, but these inputs
are corrected by an altimeter mechanism.
If a pitot tube becomes blocked, the airspeed and Mach indicators will read inaccurately. If pres-
sure is trapped in the pitot line, the airspeed will read inaccurately high as the aircraft climbs, low as it
descends, and will be unresponsive to changes in airspeed. The airspeed indicator acts as an altimeter
because only the static pressure changes. This situation occurs in icing conditions if both the ram air
inlet and the drain hole of the pitot tube become completely blocked by ice.
If the pitot tube is blocked but the static port and the pitot drain hole remain open, the indicated
airspeed will drop to zero. The drain pitot tube drain hole allows the pressure in the pitot line to drop to
atmospheric and therefore there is no differential between the static and pitot pressures.
Pitot tubes and static ports are electrically heated to prevent ice formations that could interfere with
proper operation of the systems. They are required to have “power on” indicator lights to show proper
operation. In addition, many aircraft have an ammeter that shows the actual current flow to the pitot and
static ports.
Since the magnetic compass is the only direction-seeking instrument in most airplanes, the pilot must
be able to turn the airplane to a magnetic compass heading and maintain this heading. It is influenced
by magnetic dip which causes northerly turning error and acceleration/deceleration error. When north-
erly turning error occurs, the compass will lag behind the actual aircraft heading while turning through
headings in the northern half of the compass rose, and lead the aircraft’s actual heading in the southern
half. The error is most pronounced when turning through north or south, and is approximately equal in
degrees to the latitude.
The acceleration/deceleration error is most pronounced on headings of east and west. When accel-
erating, the compass indicates a turn toward the north, and when decelerating it indicates a turn toward
the south. The acronym ANDS is a good memory aid:
A accelerate
N north
D decelerate
S south
No errors are apparent while on east or west headings, when turning either north or south.

2–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9174. Which pressure is defined as station pressure? 9173. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard
A— Altimeter setting. at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude
B— Actual pressure at field elevation. and pressure altitude?
C— Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. A— They are both the same, 31,000 feet.
B— True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
The pressure measured at a station or airport is “sta- C— Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
tion pressure” or the actual pressure at field elevation.
(PLT166, AA.I.A.K13) — AC 00-6 True altitude is indicated altitude corrected for the fact
Answer (A) is incorrect because altimeter setting is the value to that nonstandard temperatures will result in nonstan-
which the scale of a pressure altimeter is adjusted to read field dard pressure lapse rates. In warm air, you fly at a true
elevation. Answer (C) is incorrect because station barometric pres- altitude higher than indicated. In cold air, you fly at a
sure reduced to sea level is a method to readily compare station
pressures between stations at different altitudes. true altitude lower than indicated. Pressure altitude is
the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to the
standard sea level pressure (29.92" Hg). In the United
ALL States, altimeters are always set to 29.92" Hg at and
9164. What is corrected altitude (approximate true above 18,000 feet. This question assumes the differ-
altitude)? ence between the pressure altitude and the indicated
A— Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. altitude (local altimeter setting) is not significant enough
B— Indicated altitude corrected for temperature to reverse the effects of the temperature. (PLT023,
variation from standard. AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6
C— Density altitude corrected for temperature Answer (A) is incorrect because both true and pressure altitude
would be the same at FL310 if the ambient air temperature was
variation from standard. standard. Answer (C) is incorrect because pressure altitude would
be lower than true altitude in warmer than standard air temperature.
True altitude is indicated altitude corrected for the fact
that nonstandard temperatures will result in nonstandard
pressure lapse rates. (PLT023, AA.I.A.K13) — AC 00-6 ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because pressure altitude corrected for 9173-1. When the temperature is -20°C at 15,000 feet
instrument error is a nonexistent concept. Answer (C) is incorrect indicated, you know that
because density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for tempera-
ture variation from standard. Density altitude is a final figure and not A— altimeters automatically compensate for
subject to additional adjustments. temperature variations.
B— the altimeter is indicating higher than true
altitude.
ATM, ATS, RTC C— the altimeter is indicating lower than true altitude.
9099. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard
A— effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures The ISA for 15,000 feet is -15°C. When the temperature
and pressures. is colder than standard, the altimeter will indicate higher
B— corrections for static pressure systems. than true altitude. (PLT023, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6
C— corrections for instrument error.

Pilots should disregard the effect of nonstandard atmo-

spheric temperatures and pressures except that low
temperatures and pressures need to be considered
for terrain clearance purposes. (PLT166, AA.I.A.K13)
— AIM ¶7-2-2
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because altimeters are subject to
instrument errors and to errors in the static pressure system. A pilot
should set the current reported altimeter setting on the altimeter set-
ting scale. The altimeter should read within 75 feet of field elevation.
If not, it is questionable and should be evaluated by a repair station.

Answers
9174 [B] 9164 [B] 9099 [A] 9173 [B] 9173-1 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2–7

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9172. If the ambient temperature is warmer than stan- 9163. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly.
dard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter set-
to pressure altitude? ting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the
A— Lower than pressure altitude. altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate
B— Higher than pressure altitude. upon landing?
C— Impossible to determine without information on A— 585 feet.
possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B— 1,300 feet.
C— Sea level.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the
altimeter is set to the standard sea level pressure (29.92" One inch of Hg pressure is equal to about 1,000 feet of
Hg). Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for altitude. In the United States, altimeters are always set
nonstandard temperature. A warmer than standard to 29.92" Hg at and above 18,000 feet. If the altimeter
temperature will result in a density altitude higher than is not reset when descending into an area with a local
the pressure altitude. (PLT023, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6 altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg, an error of 650 feet will
Answer (A) is incorrect because density altitude is higher when result (30.57 – 29.92 = .65 = 650 feet). If the altimeter
air temperature is warmer than standard. Answer (C) is incorrect is set lower than the actual setting, it will read lower
because density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non- than the actual altitude. (PLT166, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6
standard temperatures. Pressure altitude is based on a standard
pressure atmosphere at a particular altitude, and inversion layers Answer (A) is incorrect because 585 feet is the result of subtract-
at lower levels have no effect on pressure altitude. ing 65 feet rather than subtracting 650 feet. Answer (B) is incorrect
because 1,300 feet is the result of adding 650 feet rather than
subtracting 650 feet.
ALL
9813. Given
ATM, ATS, RTC
Pressure altitude.............................................. 1,000 ft 9080. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust
True air temperature............................................. 10°C and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air
From the conditions given, the approximate density input and drain hole of the pitot system become com-
altitude is pletely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be
A— 1,000 feet MSL expected?
B— 650 feet MSL A— Increase in indicated airspeed.
C— 450 feet MSL B— Decrease in indicated airspeed.
C— Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to
1. Using an E6B flight computer, refer to the right-hand icing.
“Density Altitude” window. Note that the scale above
the window is labeled air temperature (°C). The scale If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked,
inside the window itself is labeled pressure altitude the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change and
(in thousands of feet). Rotate the disc and place the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. The
the pressure altitude of 1,000 feet opposite an air airspeed will not change in level flight even when actual
temperature of 10°C. airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a
climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
2. The density altitude shown in the window is 650 feet. descent the airspeed indication will decrease. (PLT128,
You can also answer this using an electronic flight com- AA.I.D.K3) — AC 91-43
puter, such as the CX-3. Select Altitude from the CX-3 Answer (A) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will decrease in
FLT menu. (PLT005, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6 a descent. Answer (C) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will
remain at the same value during level flight.

Answers
9172 [B] 9813 [B] 9163 [C] 9080 [B]

2–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

9081. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram 9222. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram
air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain
A— The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. hole and static port are not?
B— The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with A— Indication will drop to zero.
an increase in altitude. B— Indication will rise to the top of the scale.
C— No airspeed indicator change will occur during C— Indication will remain constant but will increase in
climbs or descents. a climb.

If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, If the pitot tube becomes blocked but pressure is not
the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change and trapped in the pitot lines, the indicated airspeed will drop
the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. The to zero since the pitot pressure will be approximately
airspeed will not change in level flight even when actual equal to the static pressure. (PLT337, AA.VII.A.K6) —
airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a AC 00-6
climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a Answer (B) is incorrect because the airspeed indication will drop if
descent the airspeed indication will decrease. (PLT337, only the ram air input is blocked. Answer (C) is incorrect because
AA.VII.A.K6) — AC 91-43 the pressure in the airspeed line will vent out through the hole and
the indication will drop to zero.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the airspeed indicator will show an
increase (not decrease) with an increase in altitude. Answer (C) is
incorrect because differential pressure between the pitot tube and
static air source changes, and so does indicated airspeed. ATM, ATS, RTC
9934. During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the
freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and
ATM, ATS, RTC altitude are increasing. This indicates the
9082. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the A— aircraft is in an unusual attitude.
pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indica- B— gyroscopic instruments have failed.
tion can be expected? C— pitot-static system has malfunctioned.
A— No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if
large power changes are made. If the pitot tube ram pressure hole and drain hole
B— Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. become obstructed, the airspeed indicator operates
C— Constant indicated airspeed during a descent. like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends.
In this situation as the aircraft climbs and the altimeter
If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, increases, so will the airspeed indicator. (PLT337,
the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change and AA.VII.A.K6) — FAA-H-8083-15
the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. The Answer (A) is incorrect because an aircraft in an unusual attitude
airspeed will not change in level flight even when actual with an increasing airspeed will result in a decreasing altitude.
airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a Answer (B) is incorrect because the airspeed indicator and altimeter
operate off the pitot-static system.
climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
descent the airspeed indication will decrease. (PLT337,
AA.VII.A.K6) — AC 91-43
Answer (B) is incorrect because, during a climb, it will indicate an
increase due to the stronger differential pressure in the blocked pitot
tube relative to the static vents. Answer (C) is incorrect because
indicated airspeed would change with changes in altitude.

Answers
9081 [A] 9082 [A] 9222 [A] 9934 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2–9

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Electronic Flight Instruments

Electronic flight instrument systems integrate
many individual instruments into a single presen-
tation called a primary flight display (PFD). Flight
instrument presentations on a PFD differ from
conventional instrumentation not only in format,
but sometimes in location as well. For example, the
attitude indicator on the PFD is often larger than
conventional round-dial presentations of an artifi-
cial horizon. Airspeed and altitude indications are
presented on vertical tape displays that appear on
the left and right sides of the primary flight display.
The vertical speed indicator is depicted using con-
ventional analog presentation. Turn coordination
is shown using a segmented triangle near the top
of the attitude indicator. The rate-of-turn indicator
appears as a curved line display at the top of the
Figure 2-2. A typical primary flight display (PFD)
heading/navigation instrument in the lower half of
the PFD.

ATM, ATS, RTC the TAS is correspondingly low. The pitot lines need to
8206. (See Figure shown below.) You see the indication be cleared; applying pitot heat may or may not help at
in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator this point. (PLT524, AA.I.A.K9) — FAA-H-8083-6
reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise Answer (B) is incorrect because you cannot assume the standby is
in level flight. You decide the failed if you have cruise power and level attitude; the red Xs appear
on the speed tape when the ADC fails or when one of the pres-
A— pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. sure transducers fail. Answer (C) is incorrect because an attitude
B— standby indicator is defective because there is no instrument savvy pilot would discern attitude correctness by cross
red ‘X’ on the speed tape display. referencing other instruments and hearing the pitch of the engine
would decide that power and a level attitude must be an indicator
C— airspeed means attitude is incorrect. problem and have nothing to do with attitude correctness.

The airspeed indicator on the

PFD is indicating a TAS of 64 ALL
knots. If this instrument had failed, 9769-3. What manual should the crewmembers of an
the numbers would be replaced air carrier reference when determining if a portable elec-
with a large red X. The stand-by tronic device is allowed to be operated on an aircraft?
airspeed indicator reading 120
knots suggests this instrument is A— The aircraft’s approved flight manual.
working fine. The line coming out B— The air carrier’s policy and procedures manual.
of the pitot tube splits to feed mul- C— The operating manual for the device.
tiple instruments. The most likely
For operating certificate holders, the decision to allow
culprit is a bug or ice blockage
PED usage must be made by the operator. Pilots can
occurring past the split, in the line
reference the air carrier’s policy and procedures manual
that feeds the Air Data Computer
to determine if PEDs are allowed. (PLT524, AA.I.E.K11)
(ADC) for the PFD. This would
— AC 91.21-1
allow the stand-by gauge to work
properly, but cause the ASI on
the PFD to give a false indication.
True Airspeed is calculated in the
ADC by correcting CAS with OAT Question 8206
probe data, so this explains why

Answers
8206 [A] 9769-3 [B]

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 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9769. Automated flight decks or cockpits 9853. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable
A— enhance basic pilot flight skills. operations closer to personal or environmental limits,
B— decrease the workload in terminal areas. A— greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved.
C— often create much larger pilot errors than B— risk is increased.
traditional cockpits. C— risk is decreased.

Advanced avionics were designed to increase safety Advanced avionics can sometimes have a negative
as well as the utility of the aircraft, particularly during effect on pilot risk-taking behavior, where more informa-
increased workload phases, such as in the terminal tion results in pilots taking more risk than they might
areas. (PLT524, AA.I.E.K2) — FAA-H-8083-6 be willing to accept without the information. Advanced
Answer (A) is incorrect because automation has been shown to avionics should be used to increase safety, not risk.
erode some flying skills when they are not kept proficient. Answer (PLT104, AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-6
(C) is incorrect because while automation can make some errors
more evident and hide others, it does not result in larger pilot errors
than traditional cockpits.
ALL
9853-1. In advanced avionics aircraft, proper automa-
ALL tion management requires
9769-1. Automated flight decks or cockpits A—relying on flight management systems to navigate
A— improve basic flight skills. in order for the pilot to perform other tasks.
B— decrease the workload in terminal areas. B—a thorough understanding of how the autopilot
C— sometimes hide errors. interacts with other systems.
C—the pilot to refrain from monitoring the automation
Automation can make some errors more evident and after initial programming.
hide others. (PLT524, AA.I.E.K2) — FAA-H-8083-6
Advanced avionics offer multiple levels of automation,
from strictly manual flight to highly automated flight.
ALL No one level of automation is appropriate for all flight
9769-2. When flying an aircraft with electronic flight situations, but in order to avoid potentially dangerous
displays (EFDs), risk increases distractions when flying with advanced avionics, the
A— if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance pilot must know how to manage the CDI, the navigation
flight safety and remove pilot error. source, and the autopilot. It is important for a pilot to
B— when the pilot expects the equipment to know the peculiarities of the particular automated system
malfunction on occasion. being used. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for
lack of skill and knowledge. ALL
9854. Automation in aircraft has proven
Automation has been shown to erode some flying skills
when they are not kept proficient. (PLT524, AA.I.E.K2) A— to present new hazards in its limitations.
— FAA-H-8083-6 B— that automation is basically flawless.
C— effective in preventing accidents.

ALL Advanced avionics were designed to increase safety as

9830. Automation has been found to well as the utility of the aircraft. However, the systems
A— create higher workloads in terminal areas. are not infallible. While automation does help prevent
B— improve crew situational awareness skills. many existing types of errors, it has also created new
C— substitute for a lack of aviation experience. kinds of errors. (PLT104, AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-6

Advanced avionics were designed to increase safety

as well as the utility of the aircraft. Safety is enhanced
by enabling better situational awareness. (PLT104,
AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-6

Answers
9769 [B] 9769-1 [C] 9769-2 [C] 9830 [B] 9853 [B] 9853-1 [B]
9854 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 11

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9855. The lighter workloads associated with glass 8711. Reliance on automation can translate to
(digital) flight instrumentation A— decreased cockpit workload.
A— are useful in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. B— increased error awareness.
B— have proven to increase safety in operations. C— lack of manual handling skills.
C— may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.
A reliance on automation translates into a lack of basic
Risk management is the last of the three flight man- flying skills that may affect the pilot’s ability to cope with
agement skills needed for mastery of the advanced an in-flight emergency, such as a sudden mechanical
avionics aircraft. The enhanced situational awareness failure. (PLT104, AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-8083-25
and automation capabilities offered by a glass flight
deck vastly expand its safety and utility, especially for
personal transportation use. At the same time, there is ALL
some risk that lighter workloads could lead to compla- 9941. Risk is increased when flightcrew members
cency. (PLT104, AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-2 A— fail to monitor automated navigation systems.
B— allocate time to verify expected performance of
automated systems.
ALL
C— question the performance of each other’s duties.
9857. Humans are characteristically
A— disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by Flightcrew members must stay vigilant and actively
automation. involved throughout the flight, and avoid being compla-
B— disposed to expect automation to fail often. cent and overly dependent on the automated navigation
C— poor monitors of automated systems. systems. (PLT047, AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-2

Humans are characteristically poor monitors of

automated systems. When passively monitoring an
automated system for faults, abnormalities, or other
infrequent events, humans perform poorly. The more
reliable the system is, the worse the human perfor-
mance becomes. For example, the pilot monitors only
a backup alert system, rather than the situation that the
alert system is designed to safeguard. It is a paradox
of automation that technically advanced avionics can
both increase and decrease pilot awareness. (PLT104,
AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-2

Answers
9855 [C] 9857 [C] 8711 [C] 9941 [A]

2 – 12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Safety of Flight Equipment

Airborne weather radar is used to detect and avoid areas of heavy precipitation such as thunderstorms.
With few exceptions, all air carrier aircraft must be equipped with an approved airborne weather radar
unit. The radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch on an IFR or night VFR flight
if thunderstorms (or other hazardous weather) that could be detected by the radar are forecast along
the intended route of flight. An aircraft may be dispatched with an inoperative radar unit if one of two
conditions is met:
• The flight will be able to remain in day VFR flight conditions, or
• Hazardous weather is not forecast.
An air carrier’s operations manual must contain procedures for the flight crew to follow if the weather
radar fails in flight.
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS) must be installed on all large turbine powered airplanes.
The GPWS gives aural and visual warnings when an aircraft too close to the terrain is in an improper
configuration for landing, or when it deviates below glide slope on an ILS approach.
TCAS I (Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System) provides proximity warning only, to assist the
pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft. No recommended avoidance maneuvers are provided
nor authorized as a result of a TCAS I warning. TCAS II provides traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution
advisories (RAs). Resolution advisories provide recommended maneuvers in a vertical direction to avoid
conflicting traffic. TCAS does not alter or diminish the pilot’s basic authority and responsibility to ensure
safe flight. After the conflict, return to the ATC clearance in effect. If a deviation occurs, contact ATC as
soon as practical.
Cockpit voice recorders are required on large turbine engine powered airplanes and large four engine
reciprocating powered airplanes. The recorder must operate from before the start of the before starting
checklist to the completion of the secure cockpit checklist. Although the recorder runs for the entire flight,
only the most recent 30 minutes of information need be retained on the recorder tape.
An approved flight recorder must be installed on all airplanes certified for operations above 25,000
feet and on all turbine powered airplanes. What the flight recorder must record varies from airplane to
airplane, but at a minimum it must record:
• Time.
• Altitude.
• Airspeed.
• Vertical acceleration.
• Heading.
• Time of each radio transmission to or from ATC.
An air carrier must keep the flight recorder data until an aircraft has been operated at least 25 hours
after the data was removed. However, 1 hour of the oldest recorded data may be erased to test the flight
recorder.
The cockpit voice and flight recorder data can be used to identify malfunctions and irregularities
with the aircraft and in carrying out investigations under NTSB Part 830. It cannot be used by the FAA
for enforcement purposes. If an incident occurs which would require the immediate notification of the
NTSB, the data must be kept by the operator for at least 60 days.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 13

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL In the event of an accident or occurrence requiring imme-

9410. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit diate notification to NTSB Part 830, and that results in
voice recorders shall be used only for determining the termination of a flight, any operator who has installed
A— who was responsible for any accident or incident. approved flight recorders and approved cockpit voice
B— evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. recorders shall keep the recorded information for at
C— possible causes of accidents or incidents. least 60 days. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.609

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice

recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of ATM, ATS
accidents or occurrences in connection with investiga- 9428. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance
tion under NTSB Part 830. The Administrator does in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is
not use the cockpit voice recorder record in any civil expected to
penalty or certificate action. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 A— maintain the course and altitude resulting from
CFR §91.609 the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.
Answer (A) is incorrect because flight data or cockpit voice recorders B— request ATC clearance for the deviation.
are only used to determine possible causes of accidents or inci- C— notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
dents. Answer (B) is incorrect because flight data or cockpit voice
recorders may not be used for any civil penalty or certificate action.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in
response to a TCAS II RA shall notify ATC of that devia-
ALL
tion as soon as practicable and expeditiously return to
9356. For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is
and flight data recorders NOT be used? resolved. (PLT195, AA.I.E.K4) — AIM ¶4-4-16
A— Determining causes of accidents and
occurrences under investigation by the NTSB. ATM, ATS, RTC
B— Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, 9425. TCAS I provides
arising out of an accident or occurrence. A— traffic and resolution advisories.
C— Identifying procedures that may have been B— proximity warning.
conducive to any accident, or occurrence C— recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting
resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830. traffic.
Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice TCAS I provides proximity warning only, to assist the
recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft. No
accidents or occurrences in connection with investiga- recommended avoidance maneuvers are provided nor
tion under NTSB Part 830. The Administrator does authorized as a result of a TCAS I warning. (PLT195,
not use the cockpit voice recorder record in any civil AA.I.E.K4) — AIM ¶4-4-16
penalty or certificate action. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K2) — 14
Answer (A) is incorrect because traffic and resolution advisories are
CFR §91.609 provided by TCAS II. Answer (C) is incorrect because no recom-
Answer (A) is incorrect because cockpit voice recorders and flight mended avoidance maneuvers are provided nor authorized as a
data recorders are used to determine causes of accidents or occur- result of a TCAS I warning.
rences. Answer (C) is incorrect because flight data recorders and
cockpit voice recorders are used to identify any procedures, malfunc-
tion, or failure that may have contributed to an accident or occurrence.
ATM, ATS, RTC
9426. TCAS II provides
ALL A— traffic and resolution advisories.
9357. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight B— proximity warning.
recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occur- C— maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting
rence resulting in terminating the flight? traffic.
A— 60 days.
TCAS II provides traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution
B— 90 days.
advisories (RAs). (PLT195, AA.I.E.K4) — AIM ¶4-4-16
C— 30 days.
Answer (B) is incorrect because TCAS I provides proximity warning
only. Answer (C) is incorrect because resolution advisories provide
recommended maneuvers in a vertical direction only to avoid con-
flicting traffic.

Answers
9410 [C] 9356 [B] 9357 [A] 9428 [C] 9425 [B] 9426 [A]

2 – 14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ADX

9427. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance 8151. An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be
in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if
ATC and the flight will be
A— maintain the course and altitude resulting from A— conducted under VFR conditions at night with
the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. scattered thunderstorms reported en route.
B— request a new ATC clearance. B— carrying passengers, but not if it is “all cargo.”
C— expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in C— conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector
effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is the flight around areas of weather.
resolved.
No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or night
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate
response to a TCAS II RA shall notify ATC of that devia- that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous
tion as soon as practicable and expeditiously return to weather conditions that can be detected with airborne
the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the
resolved. (PLT195, AA.I.E.K4) — AIM ¶4-4-16 route to be flown, unless the weather radar is in satis-
factory operating condition. (PLT469, AA.I.E.K3) — 14
CFR §121.357
ALL Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no difference between “all
9427-1. With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 cargo” and “passenger” air carrier operations. The airborne radar
miles of visibility, you must be operational prior to dispatch into an area of expected thun-
derstorms. Answer (C) is incorrect because airborne radar needs
A— can rest assured that no other aircraft is near. to be in operating condition for IFR or night VFR conditions, regard-
B— must continually scan for other traffic. less of ATC’s ability to vector the flight around the areas of weather.
C— must scan only for hot air balloons and gliders.

TCAS does not alter or diminish the pilot’s basic author- ATM, ADX
ity and responsibility to ensure safe flight. Since TCAS 8148. What action should be taken by the pilot-in-
does not respond to aircraft that are not transponder- command of a transport category airplane if the airborne
equipped or aircraft with a transponder failure, TCAS weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an
alone does not ensure safe separation in every case. IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible
(PLT195), AA.I.E.K4 — AIM ¶4-4-16 thunderstorms?
A— Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest
suitable airport and land.
ATM, ADX
B— Proceed in accordance with the approved
8150. If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inopera- instructions and procedures specified in the
tive and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed operations manual for such an event.
route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only C— Return to the departure airport if the
A— when able to climb and descend VFR and thunderstorms have not been encountered, and
maintain VFR/OT en route. there is enough fuel remaining.
B— in VFR conditions.
C— in day VFR conditions. No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or night
VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate
No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or night that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous
VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate weather conditions that can be detected with airborne
that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather radar, may reasonably be expected along
weather conditions that can be detected with airborne the route to be flown, unless the weather radar is in
weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the satisfactory operating condition. If the airborne radar
route to be flown, unless the weather radar is in satis- becomes inoperative en route, the airplane must be
factory operating condition. (PLT469, AA.I.E.K3) — 14 operated in accordance with the approved instructions
CFR §121.357 and procedures specified in the operations manual for
such an event. (PLT469, AA.I.E.K3) — 14 CFR §121.357
Answer (A) is incorrect because radar vectors to land at the nearest
suitable airport are not required when airborne weather detection
radar malfunctions. Radar vectors to avoid weather would be a wise

Answers
9427 [C] 9427-1 [B] 8150 [C] 8151 [A] 8148 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 15

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

request. Answer (C) is incorrect because return to the departure When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an air-
airport upon malfunction of airborne weather detection radar would plane, it must be operated continuously from the start
be the correct action if it were the procedure specified in the air car-
rier’s operations manual. However, it is not required by regulation. of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for
the purpose of flight), to completion of the final checklist
at the termination of flight. Information recorded more
ATM, ADX than 30 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise
8154. Which airplanes are required to be equipped obliterated. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §121.359
with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation Answer (A) is incorrect because the requirement is that any infor­
alerting system? mation more than 30 minutes old may be erased. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the requirement is to retain any information that
A— All turbine powered airplanes. was recorded within the last 30 minutes.
B— Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only.
C— Large turbine-powered airplanes only.
ATM, ADX
No person may operate a turbine-powered airplane 8143. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated
unless it is equipped with a ground proximity warn- A— from the start of the before starting engine
ing/glide slope deviation alerting system. (PLT139, checklist to completion of final checklist upon
AA.I.E.K4) — 14 CFR §121.356 termination of flight.
B— from the start of the before starting engine
ATM, ADX
checklist to completion of checklist prior to
8140. Information recorded during normal operation of
engine shutdown.
a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane C— when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine
with four reciprocating engines shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

A— may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an air-
for the last 30 minutes. plane, it must be operated continuously from the start
B— may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for
the last 30 minutes prior to landing. the purpose of flight), to completion of the final checklist
C— may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not at the termination of flight. Information recorded more
required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. than 30 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise
obliterated. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §121.359
When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an air-
plane, it must be operated continuously from the start
of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for ATM, ADX
the purpose of flight), to completion of the final checklist 8142. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder
at the termination of flight. Information recorded more system,
than 30 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise A— a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data
obliterated. (PLT405, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §121.359 must be erased to get a valid test.
Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no requirement for infor­ B— a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data
mation to be retained for 30 minutes after landing. However, under
some circumstances involving an accident or occurrence, the certifi- accumulated at the time of testing may be
cate holder may be required to retain the information up to 60 days. erased.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a cockpit voice recorder is required C— a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data
in large pressurized airplanes with four reciprocating engines. may be erased.

A total of 1 hour of recorded data may be erased for

ATM, ADX
the purpose of testing a flight recorder or flight recorder
8141. Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice
system. Any erasure must be of the oldest recorded data
recorder erasure feature? accumulated at the time of testing. (PLT388, AA.I.G.K2)
A— All recorded information may be erased, except — 14 CFR §121.343
for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. Answer (A) is incorrect because a maximum of 1 hour of data may
B— Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased for testing. Answer (C) is incorrect because a total of no
be erased. more than 1 hour of flight recorder data may be erased, but it must
be 1 hour of the oldest recorded data.
C— All recorded information may be erased, unless
the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.

Answers
8154 [A] 8140 [A] 8141 [B] 8143 [A] 8142 [B]

2 – 16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Communications
Each flag and domestic operator must have a two-way radio system that, under normal conditions,
allows reliable and rapid communications between its aircraft and the appropriate dispatch office. For
operations within the 48 contiguous states, this system must be independent of any operated by the
U.S. government.

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

9258. ATC asks you to follow the B737 3 NM ahead of 9783. When should transponders be operated on the
you on the approach path. ATC is responsible to ensure ground while taxiing?
A— wake turbulence avoidance. A— Only when ATC specifically requests that the
B— traffic separation only. transponder to be activated.
C— wind shear avoidance. B— Any time the airport is operating under IFR.
C— All the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.
A pilot’s acceptance of instructions to follow another
aircraft or provide visual separation from it is an acknowl- If operating at an airport with Airport Surface Detection
edgment that the pilot will maneuver the aircraft as Equipment - Model X (ASDE-X), transponders should
necessary to avoid the other aircraft or to maintain in- be transmitting “on” with altitude reporting continuously
trail separation. In operations conducted behind heavy while moving on the airport surface if so equipped.
jet aircraft, it is also an acknowledgment that the pilot (PLT149, AA.II.C.K6) — AIM ¶4-1-20
accepts the responsibility for wake turbulence separa-
tion. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K6) — AIM ¶4-4-14
ATM, ATS, RTC
9783-1. If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one
ATM of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you
8135. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air car- should suspect
rier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal A— your VHF receiver is inoperative.
conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) B— your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably
of flight? have a stuck microphone.
A— ARINC. C— the radio is performing a self-test function.
B— Any FSS.
C— Appropriate dispatch office. If radio communications are unusually quiet, suspect
radio problems or a stuck microphone, and then contact
Each domestic and flag air carrier must show that a ATC and look for light gun signals. (PLT542, AA.I.A.K9)
two-way air/ground radio communications system is — AIM
available at points that will ensure reliable and rapid
communications, under normal operating conditions over
the entire route (either direct or via approved point to ATM, ATS, RTC
point circuits) between each airplane and the appropri- 9784. When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you
ate dispatch office, and between each airplane and the should
appropriate air traffic control unit. (PLT390, AA.I.G.K4) A— operate the transponder only when the airport is
— 14 CFR §121.99 under IFR or at night during your taxi.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the aircraft must be able to com- B— operate the transponder with altitude reporting all
municate directly with the air carrier dispatch office, not just ARINC. of the time during taxiing.
ARINC is a commercial message company which subscribers may
use to relay messages, telephone calls, etc. Answer (B) is incorrect C— be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC
because regulations require that the company communications request while taxing.
system be independent of any system operated by the FAA or any
other third party. If operating at an airport with Airport Surface Detection
Equipment – Model X (ASDE-X), transponders should
be transmitting “on” with altitude reporting continuously
while moving on the airport surface if so equipped.
(PLT149, AA.II.C.K6) — AIM ¶4-1-20

Answers
9258 [B] 8135 [C] 9783 [C] 9783-1 [B] 9784 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 17

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Navigation Equipment
When an aircraft is flown IFR or VFR Over-the-Top it must have a dual installation of the navigation radios
required to fly that route. This means that an aircraft flying Victor airways or jet routes must have two
operable VOR systems. Only one ILS system and one marker beacon system is required under Part 121.
When an aircraft is navigating over routes using low frequency, ADF or Radio Range, it only needs
one receiver for those NAVAIDs, if it is also equipped with two VOR receivers. If that is the case, the VOR
stations must be located such that the aircraft could complete the flight to a suitable airport and make
an instrument approach if the low frequency system fails. The airplane must also be fueled to allow for
such a failure.
Whenever a different VOR station is tuned, the pilot must listen to the Morse code identification. This
will ensure that the correct frequency has been tuned and that a usable signal is available. Occasion-
ally, when a VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance, it will broadcast a signal that is not reliable
enough to use for navigation. This condition is indicated in one of two ways. Either the coded ident will
be turned off or the ident will be changed to the letters T - E - S - T. Other than the identifier, the station
may appear to be broadcasting a normal signal.
To be flown IFR, an aircraft must have had its VORs checked within the past 30 days. The pilots may
check the accuracy of the VORs in one of several ways.
The VORs may be checked using a VOT facility on an airport. The VOT broadcasts the 360° radial
and so the CDI needle should center either on a setting of 360° with a FROM indication or on 180° with
a TO indication. A deviation of ±4° is acceptable for a VOT check.
If a VOT is not available, a VOR checkpoint may be used instead. The aircraft must be moved to the
checkpoint and the designated radial set in the CDI course. The acceptable variation for a ground check
is ±4°. For an airborne check the allowable variation is ±6°.
If no VOT or VOR check point is available, the VORs may be checked against each other. This is
called a “dual VOR check.” Tune the VORs to the same station and check the difference in indicated
bearing. If they are within 4° of each other, the check is satisfactory. This check can be performed on
the ground or in the air.
The person making a VOR check must make an entry in the aircraft log or other record. A proper
entry includes the date, place and bearing error. The checker must sign the entry. Besides the VOR
check, the altimeter system and the transponder must have been checked within the last 24 calendar
months (14 CFR §91.411 and §91.413).
Whenever VOR receivers are required on board an aircraft operating within the United States, it must
also have at least one DME receiver on board as well. Note: 14 CFR §91.205 requires a DME only if the
aircraft is operated above FL240. 14 CFR §121.349 makes the DME required equipment for all air carrier
aircraft operating in the U.S. If the DME fails in flight, the pilot must inform ATC as soon as possible.
DME indicates the actual distance from the station to the receiving aircraft in nautical miles. That is
different from the horizontal distance because the aircraft is always higher than the DME ground station
and altitude is included in the slant range. As a practical matter, the difference between the horizontal
distance and the “slant range” is insignificant at distances of more than 10 miles from the station. There
is a considerable error close to the station when the aircraft is at high altitudes. In such a situation, almost
all of the slant range distance is vertical. When an aircraft passes over a DME station, the distance indi-
cated at station passage is the altitude of the aircraft above the station in nautical miles. For example, if
an airplane flew over a VORTAC site 12,000 feet above the station, the DME would indicate 2.0 NM.

2 – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

A multi-function display (MFD) presents information drawn from a variety of aircraft information
systems. The moving map function uses the MFD to provide a pictorial view of the present position of
the aircraft, the route programmed into the flight management system, the surrounding airspace, and
geographical features. The MFD and moving map can help you maintain the “big picture” and awareness
of potential landing sites.

ALL ALL
9019. What would be the identification when a VORTAC 9020-1. Why does the FAA maintain a VOR Minimum
is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered Operational Network (MON)?
unreliable? A— To provide VOR navigation service in the western
A— A test signal, “TESTING,” is sent every 30 mountainous United States below GPS signal
seconds. coverage.
B— Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent B— To maintain the enroute Victor airway structure
“OFF” flag would appear. on overwater routes in the Gulf of Mexico.
C— The identifier would be removed. C— To support navigation of non-DME/DME
equipped RNAV aircraft in the event of GPS
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, outage.
coded identification (or code and voice, where appli-
cable) is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. During For those aircraft that do not carry DME, the FAA is
periods of maintenance, VHF ranges may radiate a retaining a limited network of VORs, called the VOR
T-E-S-T code. (PLT300, AA.I.A.K9) — AIM ¶1-1-3 MON, to provide a basic conventional navigation ser-
Answer (A) is incorrect because a facility may send a T-E-S-T vice for operators to use if GNSS becomes unavailable.
code (not “TESTING”) during periods of maintenance. Answer (B) (PLT300, AA.II.A.K6) — AIM ¶1-1-3
is incorrect because an identifier preceded by “M” designates an
identification group for the Microwave Landing System (MLS), a
system no longer in operation.
ALL
9375. What is the maximum permissible variation
ALL between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR
9020. Which indication may be received when a VOR is system when checking one VOR against the other?
undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable? A— 4° on the ground and in flight.
A— Coded identification T-E-S-T. B— 6° on the ground and in flight.
B— Identifier is preceded by “M” and an intermittent C— 6° in flight and 4° on the ground.
“OFF” flag might appear.
C— An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is If a dual system VOR (units independent of each other
out-of-service for maintenance. except for the antenna) is installed in the aircraft, the
person checking the equipment may check one system
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, against the other. The maximum permissible variation
coded identification (or code and voice, where appli- between the two indicated bearings is 4°. (PLT508,
cable) is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. During AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §91.171
periods of maintenance, VHF ranges may radiate a Answer (B) is incorrect because 6° is the maximum permissible
bearing error when checking a single VOR system against a pub-
T-E-S-T code. (PLT300, AA.I.A.K9) — AIM ¶1-1-3 lished radial while in the air, not when checking a dual VOR system.
Answer (B) is incorrect because an identifier preceded by “M” des- Answer (C) is incorrect because 6° is the maximum permissible
ignates an identification group for the Microwave Landing System bearing error when checking a single VOR system while in the air.
(MLS), a system no longer in operation. Answer (C) is incorrect Regardless of whether you are on the ground or airborne, the maxi-
because this is used to identify a station and it is removed when mum permissible bearing error is only 4° when using a cross-check
the VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable. between dual VORs.

Answers
9019 [C] 9020 [A] 9020-1 [C] 9375 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 19

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9405. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the 9404. What record shall be made by the pilot perform-
course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/ ing a VOR operational check?
FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may A— The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of
A— be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and hours flown since last check, and signature in the
subtracted from all VOR courses. aircraft log.
B— be used during IFR flights, since the error is B— The date, place, bearing error, and signature in
within limits. the aircraft log or other record.
C— not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/ C— The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading,
FROM should read TO. and signature in the aircraft log or other
permanent record.
With the course deviation indicator (CDI) centered, the
omni-bearing selector should read 0° (±4°) with the TO/ Each person making the VOR operational check required
FROM indicator showing FROM or 180° (±4°) with the by regulations shall enter the date, place, bearing error
TO/FROM indicator showing TO. (PLT508, AA.I.A.K9) and sign the aircraft log or other record. (PLT508,
— 14 CFR §91.171 AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §91.171
Answer (A) is incorrect because 4° is the maximum permissible Answer (A) is incorrect because neither the frequency nor number
bearing error for a VOT check, and no correction card exists for of hours flown since the last check need to be entered in the log or
VORs. VORs are either within or not within acceptable limits. Answer record. Answer (C) is incorrect because neither the tach reading nor
(C) is incorrect because a “TO” reading would be indicated if the approval or disapproval need to be entered in the record of a VOR
omni-bearing selector were selected to 180°, not 0°. operational check.

ALL ALL
9406. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the 9377. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments
VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing or instrument systems must be accomplished before an
error permissible is aircraft can be flown under IFR?
A— plus or minus 6°. A— VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and
B— plus 6° or minus 4°. transponder within 24 calendar months.
C— plus or minus 4°. B— ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within
12 calendar months, and transponder within 24
If neither a VOT nor a designated ground checkpoint is calendar months.
available, a pilot may use a designated airborne check- C— Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months,
point for the VOR check. The maximum permissible bear- altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and
ing error is ±6°. (PLT508, AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §91.171 transponder within 12 calendar months.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the maximum bearing error is ±6.
Answer (C) is incorrect because ±4° is the maximum permissible No person may operate an aircraft under IFR using the
bearing error when using a VOT check or a radio repair facility.
VOR system of radio navigation unless the VOR equip-
ment of that aircraft has been operationally checked
ALL within the preceding 30 days. No person may operate
9376. Which entry shall be recorded by the person an airplane in controlled airspace under IFR unless,
performing a VOR operational check? within the preceding 24 calendar months, each static
pressure system, each altimeter instrument, and each
A— Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing
automatic pressure altitude reporting system has been
error.
tested and inspected. No person may use an ATC
B— Flight hours and number of days since last check,
transponder required by regulations unless, within the
and bearing error.
preceding 24 calendar months, it has been tested and
C— Date, place, bearing error, and signature.
inspected. (PLT508, AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §§91.171,
Each person making the VOR operational check required 91.411, 91.413
by regulations shall enter the date, place, bearing error Answer (B) is incorrect because ELTs do not have to be tested
and sign the aircraft log or other record. (PLT508, every 30 days, and the altimeter must be checked along with tran-
sponder every 24 calendar months (not 12 months). Answer (C) is
AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §91.171 incorrect because the airspeed indicator is part of the pitot-static
Answer (A) is incorrect because the frequency and radial used are system which must be inspected every 24 calendar months and the
not required entry items. Answer (B) is incorrect because flight hours transponder which must be inspected every 24 calendar months.
and number of days since last check are not required entry items.

Answers
9405 [B] 9406 [A] 9376 [C] 9404 [B] 9377 [A]

2 – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ATM, ADX

9408. When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an 8145. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR
instrument flight? or over-the-top on “victor airways,” which navigation
A— At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
equipment is required. A— VOR.
B— In terminal radar service areas. B— ADF.
C— Above 12,500 feet MSL. C— VOR and DME.

If VOR navigational equipment is required, no person No person may operate IFR or Over-the-Top unless
may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the the airplane is equipped with the radio equipment
50 states and District of Columbia, at or above 24,000 necessary for the route, and is able to satisfactorily
feet MSL, unless that aircraft is equipped with approved receive radio navigational signals from all primary en
distance measuring equipment (DME) or a suitable route and approach navigational facilities intended for
RNAV system. (PLT429, AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §91.205 use, by either of two independent systems. (PLT322,
AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §121.349

ALL
9023. What DME indications should a pilot observe ATM, ADX
when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet? 8195. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top
A— 0 DME miles. conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required
B— 2 DME miles. to be a dual installation?
C— 2.3 DME miles. A— VOR.
B— VOR and ILS.
Distance information displayed on DME equipment is C— VOR and DME.
slant range from the station in nautical miles. 12,000
feet directly over a VORTAC is almost exactly 2 NM. No person may operate IFR or Over-the-Top unless the
(PLT202, AA.I.A.K9) — FAA-H-8083-15 airplane is equipped with the radio equipment neces-
Answer (A) is incorrect because the DME would indicate 0 DME sary for the route and is able to satisfactorily receive
miles if the DME were sitting on top of the VORTAC site. Answer radio navigational signals from all primary en route and
(C) is incorrect because 2.3 DME miles would be indicated if the approach navigational facilities intended for use, by
airplane were at 13,800 feet (6,000 × 2.3) above the VORTAC site.
either of two independent systems. (PLT429, AA.I.A.K9)
— 14 CFR §121.349
ALL
9024. Where does the DME indicator have the great-
ATM, ADX
est error between the ground distance and displayed
8195-1. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-
distance to the VORTAC?
top conditions where pilotage is not used. What radio
A— High altitudes close to the VORTAC. navigation equipment is required?
B— Low altitudes close to the VORTAC.
A— single VOR and DME installed.
C— Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
B— dual approved independent navigation systems.
Distance information displayed on DME equipment C— dual VOR, ILS’s, and DME.
is slant range from the station in nautical miles. The
No person may operate IFR or over-the-top unless the
greatest difference between displayed distance and
airplane is equipped with the radio equipment neces-
ground distance will occur at high altitudes close to
sary for the route and is able to satisfactorily receive
the VORTAC. (PLT202, AA.I.A.K9) — FAA-H-8083-15
radio navigational signals from all primary en route and
Answer (B) is incorrect because at low altitudes close to the VOR-
TAC, the slant-range error is less than at high altitudes close to the
approach navigational facilities intended for use, by
VORTAC. Answer (C) is incorrect because the slant-range error is either of two independent systems. (PLT429, AA.I.A.K9)
at its smallest at low altitudes far from the VORTAC. — 14 CFR §121.349

Answers
9408 [A] 9023 [B] 9024 [A] 8145 [A] 8195 [A] 8195-1 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 21

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8149. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single 8146. When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suit-
ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, able RNAV system equipped?
the flight must be able to A— In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top
A— proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR operations.
aids and complete an instrument approach by B— Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required.
use of the remaining airplane radio system. C— For flights at or above FL180.
B— continue to the destination airport by means of
dead reckoning navigation. Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required by
C— proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, regulation, at least one approved distance measuring
complete an instrument approach and land. equipment (DME) unit or suitable RNAV system capable
of receiving and indicating distance information from
In the case of IFR operation over routes in which naviga- VORTAC facilities must be installed on each airplane
tion is based on low-frequency radio range or automatic when operated in the 50 states and the District of
direction finding, only one low-frequency radio range Columbia. (PLT405, AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §121.349
or ADF receiver need be installed if the airplane is Answer (A) is incorrect because DME is only required if VOR
equipped with two VOR receivers, and VOR navigational equipment is required and not only in Class E airspace. Answer
aids are so located and the airplane is fueled so that, (C) is incorrect because DME is only required if VOR receivers are
required.
in the case of failure of the low-frequency radio range
or ADF receiver, the flight may proceed safely to a suit-
able airport by means of VOR aids and complete an ATM, ADX
instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane 8152. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace,
radio system. (PLT429, AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §121.349 the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate
report to ATC?
ATM, ADX A— One engine, on a multiengine aircraft.
8147. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, B— Airborne radar.
which rule applies? C— DME.
A— The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, If the distance measuring equipment (DME) becomes
by means of one other independent navigation inoperative enroute, the pilot shall notify ATC of that
system, to a suitable airport and complete an failure as soon as it occurs. (PLT429, AA.I.A.K9) — 14
instrument approach by use of the remaining CFR §121.349
airplane radio system.
B— The pilot must be able to return to the departure
airport using other navigation radios anywhere
along the route with 150% of the forecast
headwinds.
C— The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed,
by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport
and land anywhere along the route with 150% of
the forecast headwinds.

In the case of IFR operation over routes in which naviga-

tion is based on low-frequency radio range or automatic
direction finding, only one low-frequency radio range
or ADF receiver need be installed if the airplane is
equipped with two VOR receivers, and VOR navigational
aids are so located and the airplane is fueled so that,
in the case of failure of the low-frequency radio range
or ADF receiver, the flight may proceed safely to a suit-
able airport by means of VOR aids and complete an
instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane
radio system. (PLT322, AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §121.349

Answers
8149 [A] 8147 [A] 8146 [B] 8152 [C]

2 – 22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL
9751. (See Figure shown at right.) The moving map
below reflects a loss of
A— position information.
B— the AHRS.
C— the ADC.

Failure indications on the moving map can be quite

subtle. The MFD in Figure 242 reflects a loss of posi-
tion information, indicated by the removal of the aircraft
symbol, compass labels, and other subtle differences.
(PLT524, AA.I.A.K9) — FAA-H-8083-6
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because an AHRS or ADC failure
would be depicted by red X’s on the PFD.

Question 9751

Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)

The Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) is a combination of two instruments: the heading indicator
and the VOR. See Figure 2-3.
The aircraft heading displayed on the rotating
azimuth card under the upper lubber line in Figure
2-2 is 330°. The course-indicating arrowhead that
is shown is set to 300°. The tail of the course-
indicating arrow indicates the reciprocal, or 120°.
The course deviation bar operates with a VOR/
LOC navigation receiver to indicate either left or
right deviations from the course that is selected
with the course-indicating arrow. It moves left or
right to indicate deviation from the centerline in
the same manner that the angular movement of a
conventional VOR/LOC needle indicates deviation
from course.
The desired course is selected by rotating the
course-indicating arrow in relation to the azimuth
card by means of the course set knob. This gives
the pilot a pictorial presentation. The fixed aircraft
symbol and the course deviation bar display the Figure 2-3. Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
aircraft relative to the selected course as though
the pilot was above the aircraft looking down.
The TO/FROM indicator is a triangular-shaped pointer. When this indicator points to the head of the
course arrow, it indicates that the course selected, and if properly intercepted and flown, will take the
aircraft TO the selected facility, and vice versa.
The glide slope deviation pointer indicates the relationship of the aircraft to the glide slope. When
the pointer is below the center position, the aircraft is above the glide slope and an increased rate of
descent is required. (continued)
Answers
9751 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 23

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

To orient where the aircraft is in relation to the facility, first determine which radial is selected (look at
the arrowhead). Next, determine whether the aircraft is flying to or away from the station (look at the TO/
FROM indicator) to find which hemisphere the aircraft is in. Next, determine how far from the selected
course the aircraft is (look at the deviation bar) to find which quadrant the aircraft is in. Last, consider
the aircraft heading (under the lubber line) to determine the aircraft’s position within the quadrant.
Aircraft displacement from course is approximately 200 feet per dot per nautical mile. For example, at
30 NM from the station, 1-dot deflection indicates approximately 1 NM displacement of the aircraft from
the course cen­terline. Therefore, a 2.5-dot deflection at 60 NM would mean the aircraft is approximately
5 NM from the course centerline.

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8999. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft 9001. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation “D” correspond? position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?
A— 4. A— 10.
B— 15. B— 14.
C— 17. C— 16.

HSI Indicator “D” has a course selection of 180°, and HSI Indicator “F” has a course selection of 180°, and
the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the
course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the
station, and is south of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar station, and is south of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar
is deflected left, which means the aircraft is west of is centered, which means the aircraft is on R-180. The
R‑180. The aircraft heading is 180°, which describes aircraft heading is 045°, which describes position 16.
position 17. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15 (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 4 is to the north of the Answer (A) is incorrect because position 10 is north of R-270 and
270/090 radials, which would require a TO indication. Answer (B) R-090 and east of R-360 and R-180, which would require a TO
is incorrect because the course deflection bar on position 15 would indication and a right course deflection. Answer (B) is incorrect
have a centered deflection bar and a heading of 360°. because position 14 is to the east of R-180, which would require a
right course deflection.

ATM, ATS, RTC

9000. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft ATM, ATS, RTC
position does HSI presentation “E” correspond? 9002. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation “A” correspond?
A— 5.
B— 6. A— 1.
C— 15. B— 8.
C— 11.
HSI Indicator “E” has a course selection of 360°, and
the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the HSI Indicator “A” has a course selection of 090°, and
course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the head of the
station, and is north of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar is course arrow. So the aircraft is flying TO the station, and
deflected left, which means the aircraft is east of R-180. is west of R-180 and R-000. The CDI bar is deflected
The aircraft heading is 360°, which describes position right, which means the aircraft is north of R-270. The
6. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15 aircraft heading is 205°, which describes position 1.
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 5 would have a centered (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
deflection bar and a heading of 180°. Answer (C) is incorrect Answer (B) is incorrect because position 8 is to the right of R-360
because position 15 is to the south of the R-270 and R-090, which and R-180, which would require a FROM indication. Answer (C) is
would require a TO indication, and the deflection bar would be incorrect because airplane 11 is to the right of R-360 and R-180 and
centered. is south of R-270 and R-090, which would require a FROM indication
and a left deviation indication.

Answers
8999 [C] 9000 [B] 9001 [C] 9002 [A]

2 – 24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC Aircraft displacement from course is approximately 200

9003. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft feet per dot per nautical mile. For example, at 30 NM
position does HSI presentation “B” correspond? from the station, 1-dot deflection indicates approximately
A— 9. 1 NM displacement of the aircraft from the course cen­
B— 13. terline. Therefore, a 2.5-dot deflection at 60 NM would
C— 19. mean the aircraft is approximately 5 NM from the course
centerline. (PLT276, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
HSI Indicator “B” has a course selection of 270°, and Answer (B) is incorrect because 7.5 NM would be indicated by a
the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the displacement of almost 4 dots. Answer (C) is incorrect because 10.0
NM would be indicated by a full deflection.
course arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the
station, and is west of R-180 and R-000. The CDI bar
is deflected right, which means the aircraft is south of ATM, ATS, RTC
R-270. The aircraft heading is 135°, which describes 8985. (Refer to Figure 139.) On which radial is the
position 19. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15 aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 9 would require a left
course deflection bar indication and a TO indication. Answer (B) is A— R-175.
incorrect because position 13 is to the right of R-360 and R-180 and B— R-165.
would require a TO indication. C— R-345.

The No. 1 Nav has a course selection of 350°, and the

ATM, ATS, RTC TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the course
9004. (Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the station,
position does HSI presentation “C” correspond? and is in the north hemisphere. The CDI bar is deflected
A— 6. right, which means the aircraft is in the northwestern
B— 7. quadrant. The aircraft heading is 140°. The only answer
C— 12. choice in the northwest is R-345. (PLT276, AA.VI.D.K3)
— FAA-H-8083-15
HSI Indicator “C” has a course selection of 360°, and Answer (A) is incorrect because R-175 would require a TO indicator.
the TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the head of the Answer (B) is incorrect because R-165 would require a TO indicator
course arrow. So the aircraft is flying TO the station, and and a left deflection.
is south of R-270 and R-090. The CDI bar is deflected
left, which means the aircraft is east of R-180. The
ATM, ATS, RTC
aircraft heading is 310°, which describes position 12.
8986. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on
(PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 6 has a heading of 360°
and is north of R-270 and R-090, which would require a FROM ambiguity indication to a TO?
indication. Answer (B) is incorrect because position 7 is north of A— 175.
R-270 and R-090 radials, which would require a FROM indication.
B— 165.
C— 345.
ATM, ATS, RTC
The No. 1 Nav has a course selection of 350°, and the
8984. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displace-
TO/FROM indicator is pointing to the tail of the course
ment of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial
arrow. So the aircraft is flying away FROM the station,
selected on the No. 1 NAV?
and is in the north hemisphere. The CDI bar is deflected
A— 5.0 NM. 2.5° right and the aircraft heading is 140°, which would
B— 7.5 NM. put the aircraft on R-345. To center the CDI and change
C— 10.0 NM. the ambiguity indication to a TO, rotate the OBS to 165°
(the reciprocal of R-345). (PLT276, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-
H-8083-15
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the aircraft is currently
on R-345.

Answers
9003 [C] 9004 [C] 8984 [A] 8985 [C] 8986 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 25

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8987. (Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral dis- 8990. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
placement in degrees from the desired radial on the position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond?
No. 2 NAV? A— 9 and 6.
A— 1°. B— 9 only.
B— 2°. C— 6 only.
C— 4°.
HSI Indicator “A” is set up with the head of the arrow
Full scale deflection is 10°, so each dot represents 2°. pointing to 270° (normal sensing). The Course Devia-
The CDI is displaced two dots. Therefore, the lateral dis- tion Indicator is centered; therefore, the aircraft is on
placement is: 2 dots × 2°/dot = 4°. (PLT276, AA.VI.D.K3) the extended centerline of runway #9 and #27. With
— FAA-H-8083-15 a heading of 360, Indicator “A” represents an aircraft
Answer (A) is incorrect because a 1° lateral displacement would at position #6 or #9. See the figure below. (PLT355,
be indicated by a 1/2-dot displacement of the CDI. Answer (B) is AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
incorrect because a 2° lateral displacement would be indicated by
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the indication will be the
a 1-dot displacement of the CDI.
same on both the front course and the back course.

ATM, ATS, RTC

8988. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on
the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?
A— 174.
B— 166.
C— 335. Question 8990

Full scale deflection is 10°, so each dot represents 2°.

The CDI is displaced two dots (4°). The OBS is set at ATM, ATS, RTC
170° with a FROM indication, and the aircraft is 4° to the 8991. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
right of course (or on R-174). Simply rotating the OBS position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond?
to 174° would center the CDI. (PLT276, AA.VI.D.K3) — A— 11.
FAA-H-8083-15 B— 5 and 13.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a right deflection would indicate C— 7 and 11.
R-166. Answer (C) is incorrect because the TO-FROM indicator is
on FROM, not TO. HSI Indicator “B” is set up with the head of the arrow
pointing to 090° (reverse sensing). The CDI indication
is deflected right, which means the aircraft is actually
ATM, ATS, RTC
to the south of the extended centerline. Indicator “B”
8989. (Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on
then, with the aircraft flying on a heading of 090°, could
the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the be at position #13 and #5. Remember that the local
ambiguity indication to a TO? receiver does not know where you are in relationship
A— 166. to the antenna site. See the figure below. (PLT355,
B— 346. AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
C— 354. Answer (A) is incorrect because position 11 has a 270° heading.
Answer (C) is incorrect because positions 7 and 11 have 270°
Rotating the OBS to the reciprocal of 170° (350°) under headings.
the course arrow will cause the ambiguity indication to
change to a TO. The CDI indicates that the aircraft is
4° to the left of course. Rotating the OBS to 354° will
center the CDI. (PLT276, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because a right deflection would currently
mean the airplane is on R-166. To change the ambiguity indicator
to a TO, 180° must be added to the current radial. Answer (B) is
incorrect because a right deflection would mean the airplane is Question 8991
currently on R-166.

Answers
8987 [C] 8988 [A] 8989 [C] 8990 [A] 8991 [B]

2 – 26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8992. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft 8994. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation “C” correspond? position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond?
A— 9. A— 8 only.
B— 4. B— 8 and 3.
C— 12. C— 3 only.

HSI Indicator “C” is set up with the head of the arrow HSI Indicator “E” is set up with the head of the arrow
pointing to 090° (reverse sensing). With the CDI cen- pointing to 090° (reverse sensing). With the CDI deflected
tered, the aircraft is on the extended centerline. With a right, the aircraft is to the south of the extended center-
heading of 090°, position #12 is the only one which would line. On a heading of 045°, position #8 or #3 are the only
have that indication. See the figure below. (PLT355, answers. See the figure below. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3)
AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15 — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 9 has a 360° heading. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because both positions 8 and 3
Answer (B) is incorrect because position 4 has a 270° heading. have a 045° heading and are south of the localizer.

Question 8992
Question 8994

ATM, ATS, RTC

8993. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft ATM, ATS, RTC
position does HSI presentation “D” correspond? 8995. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?
A— 1.
B— 10. A— 4.
C— 2. B— 11.
C— 5.
HSI Indicator “D” is set up with the head of the arrow
pointing to 090° (reverse sensing). The CDI is deflected HSI Indicator “F” is set up with the head of the arrow
right, which means the aircraft is to the south of course. pointing to 270° (normal sensing). The CDI is centered;
On a heading of 310°, position #2 is the only choice. therefore, the aircraft is on the extended centerline of
See the figure below. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA- runway #9 and #27. With a heading of 270°, Indicator
H-8083-15 “F” represents an aircraft at position #4. See the figure
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 1 is on a 225° heading and below. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
is north of the localizer. Answer (B) is incorrect because position 10 Answer (B) is incorrect because position 11 has a left CDI deflec-
has a 135° heading, and is north of the localizer. tion. Answer (C) is incorrect because position 5 has a 090° head-
ing. It also should have a right deflection because it is south of the
localizer.

Question 8993 Question 8995

Answers
8992 [C] 8993 [C] 8994 [B] 8995 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 27

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8996. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft 9932. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which HSI
position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond? presentation does aircraft 8 correspond, if on a back
A— 4 only. course to the Runway 9 approach?
B— 11 only. A— Figure H.
C— 12 only. B— Figure I.
C— Figure E.
HSI indicator “G” is set up with the head of the arrow
pointing to 270° (normal sensing). The CDI is centered. Position 8 shows the aircraft just south of the extended
Therefore, the aircraft is on the extended centerline of centerline for Runway 9 on a northeast heading. HSI
Runway 9 and 27. With a heading of 270°, indicator “G” “E” is the only one that corresponds to aircraft position
represents an aircraft at position 4. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3) 8, and shows the aircraft on a heading of 045° with
— FAA-H-8083‑15 the head of the arrowing pointing to 090°. (PLT355,
Answer (B) is incorrect because position 11 has a left CDI deflection. AA.VI.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (C) is incorrect because position 12 has a 090° heading. Answer (A) is incorrect because it depicts the aircraft on the
extended centerline of Runway 9 and 27 with a heading of 215°.
Answer (B) is incorrect because it also depicts the aircraft on the
extended centerline of Runway 9 and 27 with a heading of 270°.

Question 8996

ATM, ATS, RTC

8998. (Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft
position does HSI presentation “I” correspond?
A— 12 only.
B— 9 only.
C— 4 only.

HSI Indicator “I” is set up with the head of the arrow

pointing to 090° (reverse sensing). The CDI is centered.
Therefore, the aircraft is on the extended centerline of
Runway 9 and 27. With a heading of 270°, indicator “I”
represents an aircraft at position 4. (PLT355, AA.VI.D.K3)
— FAA-H-8083-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 12 is on a heading of 090°.
Answer (B) is incorrect because position 9 is on a heading of 360°.

Question 8998

Answers
8996 [A] 8998 [C] 9932 [C]

2 – 28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Global Navigation
When an air carrier operates on routes outside of the 48 contiguous states where the aircraft’s position
cannot be reliably fixed for more than one hour, special rules apply. The aircraft must either be equipped
with a “specialized means of navigation” (INS or Doppler Radar), or one of the flight crewmembers must
have a current flight navigator certificate. The FAA may also require either a navigator or the specialized
navigation on routes which meet the one hour rule if they feel it’s necessary. All routes that require either
the navigator or specialized means of navigation must be listed in the air carrier’s operations specifications.
Certain routes over the North Atlantic Ocean between North America and Europe require better than
normal standards of navigation. Appendix C of 14 CFR Part 91 defines these routes and the required
navigation standards. The Administrator (the FAA) has the authority to grant a deviation from the naviga-
tion standards of Appendix C if an operator requests one.

ATM, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8196. Routes that require a flight navigator are listed 8197-1. What would authorize an air carrier to conduct
in the a special instrument approach procedure?
A— Airplane Flight Manual. A— Operations specifications.
B— International Flight Information Manual. B— Compliance statement.
C— Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications. C— Training specifications.

Operations where a flight navigator, special navigation No person may make an instrument approach at an air-
equipment, or both are required, are specified in the port except in accordance with IFR weather minimums
operations specifications of the air carrier or commercial and instrument approach procedures set forth in the
operator. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §121.389 certificate holder’s operations specifications. (PLT389,
AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §§121.389 and 135.78

ATM, ADX
8197. Where is a list maintained for routes that require ADX
special navigation equipment? 9811. What document(s) must be in a person’s posses-
A— Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications. sion for that person to act as a flight navigator?
B— International Flight Information Manual. A— Third-Class Medical Certificate and current Flight
C— Airplane Flight Manual. Navigator Certificate.
B— Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a current
Operations where a flight navigator, special navigation Second-Class (or higher) Medical Certificate.
equipment, or both are required, are specified in the C— Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a valid
operations specifications of the air carrier or commercial passport.
operator. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — 14 CFR §121.389
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because while the International No person may act as a flight navigator of a civil aircraft of
Notices to Airmen and the International Aeronautical Information U.S. registry unless he has in his personal possession a
Manual may contain information on the location and operation of current flight navigator certificate issued to him under this
the flight navigation equipment, the air carrier’s operations specifi-
cations determine the routes in which a flight navigator is required. part and a second-class (or higher) medical certificate
issued to him under Part 67 within the preceding 12 months.
(PLT427) — 14 CFR §63.3

Answers
8196 [C] 8197 [A] 8197-1 [A] 9811 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 29

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ADX No certificate holder may operate an airplane outside

8199. A flight navigator or a specialized means of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia,
navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane when its position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of
operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and more than one hour, without a flight crewmember who
District of Columbia when holds a current flight navigator certificate, or unless the
A— operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. aircraft is equipped with an approved specialized means
B— operations are conducted over water more than of navigation. (PLT374, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.389
50 miles from shore. Answer (A) is incorrect because whether IFR or VFR-On-Top, the
C— the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for requirement applies if the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed
for more than 1 hour. Answer (B) is incorrect because the require-
a period of more than 1 hour. ment applies over water or land if the airplane’s position cannot be
reliably fixed for more than 1 hour.

Approach Systems
The primary instrument approach system in the United States is the Instrument Landing System
(ILS). The system can be divided operationally into three parts: guidance, range and visual information.
If any of the elements is unusable, the approach minimums may be raised or the approach may not be
authorized at all.
The guidance information consists of the localizer for horizontal guidance and the glide slope for
vertical guidance. The localizer operates on one of 40 frequencies from 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. The
glide slope operates on one of 40 paired UHF frequencies. The Morse code identifier of the localizer is
the letter “I” (• •) followed by three other letters unique to that facility. The portion of the localizer used
for the ILS approach is called the front course. The portion of the localizer extending from the far end of
the runway is called the back course. The back course may be used for missed approach procedures
or for a back course approach if one is published.
Range information is usually provided by 75 MHz marker beacons or, occasionally, by DME. There
are four types of marker beacons associated with ILS approaches—the outer marker, the middle marker,
the inner marker and the back course marker. Flying over any marker beacon will result in both visual
and aural indications. The outer marker is identified by a blue light and continuous dashes in Morse code
at a rate of 2 per second. The middle marker is indicated by a flashing amber light and alternating dots
and dashes at a rate of 2 per second. The inner marker flashes the white light and sounds continuous
dots at 6 per second. The back course marker will also flash the white light and sound a series of 2-dot
combinations. See Figure 2-4.
Often, an ADF facility (called a compass locator) is associated with an ILS approach. Usually it is
located at the outer marker, but occasionally it is co-located with the middle marker. An outer compass
locator is identified with the first 2 letters of the localizer identification group. A middle compass locator
is identified by the last 2 letters of the localizer.
If a middle marker is out of service, the middle compass locator or PAR radar can be substituted.
The middle marker being inoperative does not affect minimums during a Category I ILS approach.
The visual information portion of the ILS consists of approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights
and runway lights.
The localizer is very narrow. In fact a full scale deflection (CDI moving from the center to full scale
left or right) is only about 700 feet at the runway threshold.
Different aircraft will require different rates of descent to stay on glide slope. A good rule of thumb
is that the vertical speed in feet per minute will be equal to about five times the ground speed in knots.

Answers
8199 [C]

2 – 30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

For example, an aircraft with an approach speed of 140 knots will require a descent rate of about 700
feet per minute (140 × 5 = 700).
The lowest approach minimums that can be used for a normal (Category I) ILS approach are a DH
of 200 feet and 1,800 feet RVR. A Category II ILS approach will have minimums as low as a DH of 100
feet and a visibility requirement of 1,200 feet RVR. The approach has to be approved for Category II
minimums. In addition to suitable localizer, glide slope and marker beacons, the approach must have
certain additional equipment working on the landing runway. This equipment includes an approach light

Figure 2-4. Instrument Landing System (ILS)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 31

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

system, High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL), Touchdown Zone Lights (TDZL), Runway Centerline Lights
(CL) and Runway Visual Range (RVR). Radar, VASI and Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are not
required components of a Category II approach system. To descend below the DH from a Category II
approach the pilot must be able to see one of the following:
• The runway threshold;
• The threshold markings;
• The threshold lights;
• The touchdown zone or the touchdown zone markings;
• The touchdown zone lights; or
• The approach light system, except that a pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown
zone unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are distinctly visible and identifiable.

The Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) and the Localizer-type Directional Air (LDA) are approach
systems that give a localizer-type indication to the pilot, but with some significant differences. The LDA
is essentially a localizer, but it is not aligned within 3° of the runway as a localizer must be. The localizer
can be any width from 3° to 6° wide. If the LDA is within 30°, straight-in minimums will be published for
it; if not, only circling minimums will be published. The SDF may or may not be aligned with the runway.
The main difference between it and a localizer is that its width is fixed at either 6° or 12°.

ALL ALL
8961. Within what frequency range does the localizer 8958. What aural and visual indications should be
transmitter of the ILS operate? observed over an ILS inner marker?
A— 108.10 to 118.10 MHz. A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
B— 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
C— 108.10 to 117.95 MHz. C— Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per
second.
The localizer transmitter operates on one of 40 ILS
channels within the frequency range of 108.10 to 111.95 The code and light identifications of marker beacons
MHz. (PLT358, AA.VI.E.K1) — AIM ¶1-1-9 are as follows:
Answer (A) is incorrect because communications frequencies are Marker Code Light
above 117.95 MHz. Answer (C) is incorrect because 108.10 to 117.95
MHz is the frequency band in which VORs operate. OM ——— BLUE
MM •—•— AMBER
ALL IM •••• WHITE
8966. What functions are provided by ILS? BC •• •• WHITE
A— Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. (PLT356, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-9
B— Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Answer (B) is incorrect because continuous dashes at the rate of two
C— Guidance, range, and visual information. per second indicate the ILS outer marker. Answer (C) is incorrect
because alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second
The ILS system may be divided into three functional parts: indicate the ILS middle marker.

1. Guidance information — localizer, glide slope;

2. Range information — marker beacon, DME; and
3. Visual information — approach lights, touchdown
and centerline lights, runway lights.
(PLT356, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because azimuth and distance information
are provided by a TACAN. Answer (B) is incorrect because a local-
izer/DME approach provides azimuth and range information.

Answers
8961 [B] 8966 [C] 8958 [A]

2 – 32 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8959. What aural and visual indications should be 8962. If installed, what aural and visual indications
observed over an ILS middle marker? should be observed over the ILS back course marker?
A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second, A— A series of two dot combinations, and a white
identified as a high pitch tone. marker beacon light.
B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second, B— Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second,
identified as a low-pitched tone. and a white marker beacon light.
C— Alternate dots and dashes identified as a low- C— A series of two dash combinations, and a white
pitched tone. marker beacon light.

The code and light identifications of marker beacons The code and light identifications of marker beacons
are as follows: are as follows:
Marker Code Light Marker Code Light
OM ——— BLUE OM ——— BLUE
MM •—•— AMBER MM •—•— AMBER
IM •••• WHITE IM •••• WHITE
BC •• •• WHITE BC •• •• WHITE
(PLT277, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-9 (PLT277, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because continuous dots at the rate of six Answer (B) is incorrect because this is not a marker indication of any
per second indicate an ILS inner marker. Answer (B) is incorrect kind, but it most closely resembles an ILS outer marker. Answer (C)
because continuous dashes at the rate of two per second indicate is incorrect because this is not marker indication of any kind, but it
an ILS outer marker. most closely resembles an ILS middle marker.

ALL ALL
8960. What aural and visual indications should be 8956. Which component associated with the ILS is
observed over an ILS outer marker? identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?
A— Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. A— Inner marker.
B— Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. B— Middle compass locator.
C— Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per C— Outer compass locator.
second.
Compass locators transmit two-letter identification
The code and light identifications of marker beacons groups. The outer locator transmits the first two letters of
are as follows: the localizer identification group, and the middle locator
Marker Code Light transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification
group. (PLT356, AA.VI.E.K1) — AIM ¶1-1-9
OM ——— BLUE Answer (A) is incorrect because a simple marker beacon is not
MM •—•— AMBER identified by letters; only compass locators are so identified. Answer
(C) is incorrect because an outer compass locator is identified by
IM •••• WHITE the first two letters of the localizer identification group.
BC •• •• WHITE
(PLT277, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because continuous dots at the rate of six
per second indicate an ILS inner marker. Answer (C) is incorrect
because alternating dots and dashes at the rate of two per second
indicate an ILS middle marker.

Answers
8959 [C] 8960 [B] 8962 [A] 8956 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 33

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8957. Which component associated with the ILS is 8968. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI)
identified by the first two letters of the localizer identi- considered to have a full-scale deflection?
fication group? A— When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-
A— Inner marker. scale right, or vice versa.
B— Middle compass locator. B— When the CDI deflects from the center of the
C— Outer compass locator. scale to full-scale left or right.
C— When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-
Compass locators transmit two-letter identification scale right, or vice versa.
groups. The outer locator transmits the first two letters of
the localizer identification group, and the middle locator Full-scale deflection is 5 dots to either side of center.
transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification (PLT276, AA.VI.E.K2) — FAA-H-8083-15
group. (PLT356, AA.VI.E.K1) — AIM ¶1-1-9 Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because when the CDI deflects
Answer (A) is incorrect because marker beacons are not identified full-scale left to full-scale right (or vice versa), this represents 2 full-
by letters; only compass locators. Answer (B) is incorrect because scale deflections.
a middle compass locator is identified by the last two letters of the
localizer identification group.
ALL
8969. Which “rule-of-thumb” may be used to approxi-
ALL mate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?
9403. Which facility may be substituted for the middle
marker during a Category I ILS approach? A— 5 times groundspeed in knots.
B— 8 times groundspeed in knots.
A— VOR/DME FIX. C— 10 times groundspeed in knots.
B— Surveillance radar.
C— Compass locator. The descent rate in feet per minute required to maintain
a 3° glide slope is roughly five times your ground speed
A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted in knots. (PLT170, AA.VI.E.K4) — FAA-P-8740-48
for the outer or middle marker. (PLT356, AA.VI.E.K1)—14 Answer (B) is incorrect because 8 times the ground speed in knots
CFR §91.175 would result in a 5% glide slope. Answer (C) is incorrect because
Answer (A) is incorrect because VOR/DME may be substituted for 10 times the ground speed in knots would result in a 6% glide slope.
the outer marker only. Answer (B) is incorrect because surveillance
radar may be substituted for the outer marker only.
ALL
9749. The rate of descent for a 3.5º angle of descent
ALL glidescope is
8970. If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach
is inoperative, A— 740 ft/min at 105 knots groundspeed.
B— 740 ft/min at 120 knots airspeed.
A— the RVR required to begin the approach in C— 740 ft/min at 120 knots groundspeed.
increased by 20%.
B— the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet. Refer to Legend 72. Follow 3.5º to right to 740 ft/min
C— the inoperative middle marker has no effect on and go up to find the ground speed of 120. (PLT045,
straight-in minimums. AA.VI.E.K1) — AIM ¶1-1-20

The middle marker being inoperative does not affect

minimums. (PLT277, AA.VI.E.K3) — 14 CFR §91.175

Answers
8957 [C] 9403 [C] 8970 [C] 8968 [B] 8969 [A] 9749 [C]

2 – 34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
8963. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are 9412. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above
A— DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS
B— DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. instrument approach when only the approach lights
C— DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. are visible?
A— After passing the visual descent point (VDP).
The lowest authorized ILS minimums with all required B— When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more.
ground and airborne systems components operative, C— When the red terminal bar of the approach light
are: systems are in sight.
Category I — Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway
Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone A pilot may descend below the DH on a Category II
and runway centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 Category A, approach using the approach light system as the sole
B, C; RVR 2,000 Category D), visual reference. However, the pilot may not descend
below 100 feet above touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)
Category II — DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet, and using the approach lights as a reference unless the
Category IIIA — RVR 700 feet. red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also
(PLT356, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-9 distinctly visible and identifiable. (PLT356, AA.VI.E.K3)
— 14 CFR §91.189
Answer (A) is incorrect because a DH of 50 feet is for Category III
operations. Answer (C) is incorrect because a DH of 150 feet is for a Answer (A) is incorrect because a VDP is not used in conjunction
pilot’s initial Category II authorization (for the initial 6-month period) with Category II ILS instrument approaches. Answer (B) is incorrect
only and is not the lowest DH for Category II operations. because, although 1,600 feet may be the required inflight visibility, in
order to descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone eleva-
tion based on the approach lights also requires sighting of the red
terminating bars.
ALL
9411. Which ground components are required to be
operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, ALL
glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? 9413. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker
A— Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground
RVR. components are required to be operative for a Category
B— RCLS and REIL. II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?
C— All of the required ground components. A— RCLS and REIL.
B— Radar, VOR, ADF, runway exit lights, and RVR.
No person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category C— Each required ground component.
II or Category III operation unless each ground com-
ponent required for that operation and the related air- In addition to localizer, glide slope, marker beacons,
borne equipment is installed and operating. (PLT420, and approach light system a Category II ILS must have
AA.VI.E.K3) — 14 CFR §91.189 high-intensity runway lights (HIRL), runway centerline
Answer (A) is incorrect because radar is not a required Category II lights (RCLS), touchdown zone lights (TDZL), and run-
ILS ground component. Answer (B) is incorrect because runway end way visual range (RVR). (PLT420, AA.VI.E.K3) — 14
identifier lights (REIL) are used to provide rapid identification of the
approach component for Category II ILS. CFR §91.189
Answer (A) is incorrect because runway end identifier lights (REIL)
are used to provide rapid identification of the approach end of a
runway. Answer (B) is incorrect because radar is not a required
ground component for Category II ILS operations.

Answers
8963 [B] 9411 [C] 9412 [C] 9413 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 35

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC RTC

8967. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC? 9795. (Refer to Figure 253.) You are cleared to LXV in
A— LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. your helicopter and expect to be given the GPS RWY
B— LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS – aligned 16 approach. Your helicopter is equipped with an IFR
with runway. certified WAAS GPS. Your approach minimums will be
C— LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°. A— 11,360' MDA and 3/4 mi.
B— 11,360' MDA and 1-1/4 mi.
The LDA is not aligned with the runway. (PLT356, C— 11,360' MDA and 6,600 RVR, or 1-1/2 mi.
AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1‑1-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because an SDF (not LDA) is fixed at either Helicopters flying conventional (non-copter) SIAP’s may
6° or 12° wide. Answer (C) is incorrect because the usable off- reduce the visibility minima to not less than one half the
course indications are limited to 35° for both types of approaches published Category A landing visibility minima, or 1/4
within 10 NM.
statute mile visibility/1200 RVR, whichever is greater
unless the procedure is annotated with “Visibility Reduc-
ATM, ATS, RTC tion by Helicopters NA.” (PLT354) — AIM ¶10-1-2
8965. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?
A— SDF – 6° or 12° wide, ILS – 3° to 6°. ALL
B— SDF – offset from runway plus 4°, ILS – aligned 9796. (Refer to Figure 250.) You arrive at DUMBB for
with runway. the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. The preflight briefer issued
C— SDF – 15° usable off course indications, ILS – 35°. an unreliable advisory before takeoff. Your avionics are
good and you have full GPS service. You
The SDF signal is fixed at either 6° or 12° as necessary
to provide maximum flyability and optimum course qual- A— can descend to the LNAV MDA of 1,200 feet and
ity. (PLT356, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-10 2,400 RVR due to the FSS advisory.
B— descend to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2,400
Answer (B) is incorrect because an SDF may or may not be aligned
with the centerline of the runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because RVR in your CAT B aircraft.
the usable off course indications are limited to 35° for both types C— can descend to the LNAV MDA of 518 feet due to
of approaches. the FSS advisory.

Upon commencing an approach at locations with a

ALL “WAAS UNRELIABLE” NOTAM, if the WAAS avion-
9794. (Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL ics indicate LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available,
and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. then vertical guidance may be used to complete the
Assuming you have received the training, you approach using the displayed level of service. (PLT354,
A— should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-20
with the radio frequency to fly this approach.
B— can use the GPS and radio frequency
communications to fly this approach to minimums.
C— must know ahead of time whether or not your
FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

Some RNP approaches have a curved path, also called

a radius-to-fix (RF) leg. Since not all aircraft have the
capability to fly these arcs, pilots are responsible for
knowing ahead of time whether or not they can conduct
an RNP approach with an arc. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2)
— AIM ¶5-4-18

Answers
8967 [B] 8965 [A] 9794 [C] 9795 [A] 9796 [B]

2 – 36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9796-1. (Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The 8703. (Refer to Figure 251.) In the RNAV (RNP) RWL
preflight briefer issued you an “unreliable” advisory on 26L at HNL profile, what does the shaded triangle below
the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates the DA indicate?
good signal. You A— The visual segment below the DA is not clear of
A— know you can only fly the approach down to obstacles.
LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft. because of the FSS B— The approach does not have a visual glide slope
advisory. landing aid.
B— can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400 C— The visual segment is clear.
RVR in your CAT B airplane.
C— can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA The shaded fan (or triangle) indicates visual segment
of 560'. below DA is clear of obstacles on a 34:1 slope. (PLT354,
AA.VI.E.K2) — Instrument Approach Procedures
Upon commencing an approach at locations with a
“WAAS UNRELIABLE” NOTAM, if the WAAS avion-
ics indicate LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available,
then vertical guidance may be used to complete the
approach using the displayed level of service. (PLT354,
AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-20

GPS
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite-based radio navigational, positioning, and time transfer
system. The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS satellites
through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted
information. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. If
RAIM is not available, another type of navigation and approach system must be used, another destina-
tion selected, or the trip delayed until RAIM is predicted to be available on arrival. The authorization to
use GPS to fly instrument approaches is limited to U.S. airspace. The use of GPS in any other airspace
must be expressly authorized by the appropriate sovereign authority.
If a visual descent point (VDP) is published, it will not be included in the sequence of waypoints.
Pilots are expected to use normal piloting techniques for beginning the visual descent. The database
may not contain all of the transitions or departures from all runways and some GPS receivers do not
contain DPs in the database. The GPS receiver must be set to terminal (±1 NM) course deviation indi-
cator (CDI) sensitivity and the navigation routes contained in the database in order to fly published IFR
charted departures and DPs. Terminal RAIM should be automatically provided by the receiver. Terminal
RAIM for departure may not be available unless the waypoints are part of the active flight plan rather
than proceeding direct to the first destination. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during
an approach will cancel the approach mode annunciation. The RAIM and CDI sensitivity will not ramp
down, and the pilot should not descend to MDA, but fly to the MAWP and execute a missed approach.
It is necessary that helicopter procedures be flown at 70 knots or less since helicopter departure
procedures and missed approaches use a 20:1 obstacle clearance surface (OCS), which is double the
fixed-wing OCS, and turning areas are based on this speed as well.
The pilot must be thoroughly familiar with the activation procedure for the particular GPS receiver
installed in the aircraft and must initiate appropriate action after the missed approach waypoint (MAWP).
Activating the missed approach prior to the MAWP will cause CDI sensitivity to immediately change to
terminal (±1 NM) sensitivity and the receiver will continue to navigate to the MAWP. The receiver will not

Answers
9796-1 [B] 8703 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 37

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

sequence past the MAWP. Turns should not begin prior to the MAWP. A GPS missed approach requires
pilot action to sequence the receiver past the MAWP to the missed approach portion of the procedure.
If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display an extension of the inbound final
approach course and the ATD will increase from the MAWP until it is manually sequenced after crossing
the MAWP.
Any required alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure other than
GPS, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival and which the
aircraft is equipped to fly. Missed approach routings in which the first track is via a course rather than
direct to the next waypoint require additional action by the pilot to set the course. Being familiar with all
of the inputs required is especially critical during this phase of flight.

ALL ALL
9429. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor- 9431. Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity
ing (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS during a GPS approach will
approach, the pilot should A— cancel the approach mode annunciation.
A— continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites B— require flying point-to-point on the approach to
are recaptured. comply with the published approach procedure.
B— proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until C— have no affect if the approach is flown manually.
satellite reception is satisfactory.
C— select another type of approach using another Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during
type of navigation aid. an approach will cancel the approach mode annuncia-
tion. The RAIM and CDI sensitivity will not ramp down,
If RAIM is not available, another type of navigation and and the pilot should not descend to MDA, but fly to
approach system must be used, another destination the MAWP and execute a missed approach. (PLT354,
selected, or the trip delayed until RAIM is predicted to be AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19
available on arrival. (PLT354, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19

ALL
ALL 9432. If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on
9430. Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor- a GPS approach, it
ing (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived A— will be coded in the waypoint sequence and
A— altitude information should not be relied upon to identified using ATD.
determine aircraft altitude. B— will not be included in the sequence of waypoints.
B— position is not affected. C— must be included in the normal waypoints.
C— velocity information should be relied upon to
determine aircraft groundspeed. If a visual descent point (VDP) is published, it will not
be included in the sequence of waypoints. Pilots are
The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the expected to use normal piloting techniques for beginning
signals received from the GPS constellation through the visual descent. (PLT354, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19
RAIM, to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted
information. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no
assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. (PLT354, ALL
AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19 9722. GPS instrument approach operations, outside
the United States, must be authorized by
A— the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or
flight manual supplement.
B— a sovereign country or governmental unit.
C— the FAA Administrator only.

The authorization to use GPS to fly instrument approaches

is provided by a sovereign country or governmental unit.
(PLT354, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19

Answers
9429 [C] 9430 [A] 9431 [A] 9432 [B] 9722 [B]

2 – 38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL only, the presence of a gray-shaded line (or “fan,” or

9723. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation arrowhead-shaped symbol) from the MDA to the run-
under IFR requires that way symbol in the profile view, is an indication that the
A— the equipment be approved in accordance with visual segment below the MDA is clear of obstructions
TSO C-115a. on the 34:1 slope. Absence of this gray-shaded area
B— the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight indicates that the 34:1 visual surface area is not free
manual (AFM), and operation of the particular of obstructions. (PLT354, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶5-4-5,
GPS receiver. FAA-H-8083-16
C— air carrier and commercial operators must meet
the appropriate provisions of their approved
ALL
operations specifications.
9742. A pilot employed by an air carrier and/or com-
The GPS operation must be conducted in accordance mercial operator may conduct GPS/WAAS instrument
with the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or approaches
flight manual supplement. Flight crewmembers must be A— if they are not prohibited by the FAA-approved
thoroughly familiar with the particular GPS equipment aircraft flight manual and the flight manual
installed in the aircraft, the receiver operation manual, supplement.
and the AFM or flight manual supplement. Air carrier B— only if approved in their air carrier/commercial
and commercial operators must meet the appropriate operator operations specifications.
provisions of their approved operations specifications. C— only if the pilot was evaluated on GPS/WAAS
(PLT354, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19 approach procedures during their most recent
Answer (A) is incorrect because the equipment must be approved in proficiency check.
accordance with TSO C-129, not TSO C-115a. Answer (B) is incor-
rect because while the pilot is responsible for reviewing the weather Air carrier and commercial operators must meet the
before any flight, this requirement is not specific to GPS operations.
appropriate provisions of their approved operations
specifications. (PLT420, AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-20
ALL
9812. What does the absence of the shaded arrowhead
ALL
after the VDP on a GPS approach indicate? 9724. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation
A— Obstacle obstructions between the VDP and the under IFR requires that
runway. A— the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight
B— A 20:1 glideslope. manual (AFM), and operation of the particular
C— A 60:1 glideslope. GPS receiver.
B— air carrier and commercial operators must meet
Absence of the shaded area indicates that the 34:1
the appropriate provisions of their approved
visual surface area is not clear of obstructions. (PLT354,
operations specifications.
AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶5-4-5
C— the equipment be approved in accordance with
TSO C-115a.
ALL
9812-1. (Refer to Figure 252.) In reviewing the RNAV/ Properly certified GPS equipment may be used as a
GPS procedure RWY 4 LEW, the lack of shaded fan supplemental means of IFR navigation for domestic
from the 1.6 NM point to the runway indicates enroute, terminal operations, and certain instrument
approach procedures (IAPs). This approval permits the
A— the visual segment below the MDA/DA is not use of GPS in a manner that is consistent with current
clear of obstacles on a 34-to-1 slope. navigation requirements as well as approved air carrier
B— it does not have VASI. operations specifications. (PLT389, AA.II.A.K7) — AIM
C— you can descend on a 20-to-1 slope and remain ¶1-1-19
clear of all obstacles. Answer (A) is incorrect because while the pilot is responsible for
reviewing the weather before any flight, this requirement is not
This question is referring to the area near the black specific to GPS operation. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
triangle symbol in the IAP profile view that is pointing equipment must be approved in accordance with TSO C-129, not
to the 1.6 NM to RW04 location. For RNAV approaches TSO C-115a.

Answers
9723 [C] 9812 [A] 9812-1 [A] 9742 [B] 9724 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 39

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL A GPS missed approach requires pilot action to sequence

9725. When using GPS for navigation and instrument the receiver past the MAWP to the missed approach
approaches, a required alternate airport must have portion of the procedure. If the missed approach is not
A— an approved instrument approach procedure, activated, the GPS receiver will display an extension
besides GPS, that is expected to be operational of the inbound final approach course and the ATD will
and available at the ETA. increase from the MAWP until it is manually sequenced
B— a GPS approach that is expected to be after crossing the MAWP. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM
operational and available at the ETA. ¶1-1-19
C— authorization to fly approaches under IFR using
GPS avionics.
ALL
Use of a GPS for IFR requires that the avionics nec- 9739. “Unreliable,” as indicated in the following GPS
essary to receive all of the ground based facilities NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND
appropriate for the route to the destination airport and LPV MNM UNRELBL WEF0512182025-0512182049
any required alternate airport must be installed and means
operational. (PLT354, AA.VI.D.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-19 A— within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the
Answer (B) is incorrect because the operational nature of GPS is not predicted level of service will not support LPV
facility dependent. Answer (C) is incorrect because the GPS equip- approaches.
ment, not the pilot-in-command, is authorized for use under IFR. B— satellite signals are currently unavailable to
support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches.
C— within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the
ALL
predicted level of service will not support RNAV
9727. A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot
and MLS approaches.
take action to sequence the receiver
A— over the MAWP. The term “unreliable” is used in conjunction with GPS
B— after the MAWP. NOTAMs; the term is an advisory to pilots indicating the
C— just prior to the MAWP. expected level of service may not be available. GPS
operation may be NOTAMed UNRELIABLE due to test-
The pilot must be thoroughly familiar with the activation ing or anomalies. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19
procedure for the particular GPS receiver installed in
the aircraft and must initiate appropriate action after
the MAWP. Activating the missed approach prior to ALL
the MAWP will cause CDI sensitivity to immediately 9743. What does “UNREL” indicate in the following
change to terminal (±1 NM) sensitivity and the receiver GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/
will continue to navigate to the MAWP. The receiver will VNAV MNM UNREL WEF 0305231700 -0305231815?
not sequence past the MAWP. Turns should not begin A— Satellite signals are currently unavailable to
prior to the MAWP. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19 support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches to the
Boston airport.
B— The predicted level of service, within the time
ALL
parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV
9728. If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS
approaches.
receiver will display
C— The predicted level of service, within the time
A— an extension of the outbound final approach parameters of the NOTAM, will not support LNAV/
course, and the ATD will increase from the VNAV and MLS approaches.
MAWP.
B— an extension of the outbound final approach The term UNRELIABLE is used in conjunction with GPS
course. and WAAS NOTAMs for flight planning purposes. The
C— an extension of the inbound final approach term UNRELIABLE is an advisory to pilots indicating the
course. expected level of WAAS service (LNAV/VNAV, LPV) may
not be available. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-20
Answer (A) is incorrect because UNREL indicates the expected level
of WAAS service merely might not be available, and this states that
it is definitely unavailable. Answer (C) is incorrect because MLS
approaches are not included in the UNREL advisory.

Answers
9725 [A] 9727 [B] 9728 [C] 9739 [A] 9743 [B]

2 – 40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL ALL
9917. It is important for a pilot to ask for site-specific 9729-1. To use a substitute means of guidance on
WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS for your destination departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV
airport before a flight because systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must
A— Air Traffic Control will not advise pilots of site- A— ensure their aircraft navigation system position
specific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS. is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of
B— Air Traffic Control will confirm that you have site- takeoff roll.
specific information from a pre-flight briefing. B— ensure their aircraft navigation system position
C— this provides for a second level of safety in the is confirmed within 2,000 feet of the initialization
National Airspace System. point.
C— ensure their aircraft navigation system position is
Site-specific WAAS MAY NOT BE AVBL NOTAMs confirmed within 1,000 feet of pushback.
indicate an expected level of service; for example,
LNAV/VNAV, LP, or LPV may not be available. Pilots For RNAV 1 DPs and STARs, pilots of aircraft without
must request site-specific WAAS NOTAMs during flight GPS using DME/DME/IRU, must ensure the aircraft
planning. In flight, Air Traffic Control will not advise navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet
pilots of WAAS MAY NOT BE AVBL NOTAMs. (PLT354, at the start point of take-off roll. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2)
AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-18 — AIM ¶5-5-16

ALL ALL
9729. If flying a published GPS departure, 9730. Missed approach routing in which the first track
A— the data base will contain all of the transition or is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint
departures from all runways. requires
B— and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by A— that the GPS receiver be sequenced to the
the pilot should not be required. missed approach portion of the procedure.
C— the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course B— manual intervention by the pilot, but will not be
deviation indicator sensitivity. required, if RAIM is available.
C— additional action by the operator to set the
The GPS receiver must be set to terminal (±1 NM) course.
course deviation indicator (CDI) sensitivity and the navi-
gation routes contained in the data base in order to fly Missed approach routings in which the first track is via
published IFR charted departures and SIDs. Terminal a course rather than direct to the next waypoint require
RAIM should be automatically provided by the receiver. additional action by the pilot to set the course. Being
Terminal RAIM for departure may not be available unless familiar with all of the inputs required is especially critical
the waypoints are part of the active flight plan rather during this phase of flight. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM
than proceeding direct to the first destination. (PLT354, ¶1-1-19
AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶1-1-19 Answer (A) is incorrect because a GPS missed approach requires
Answer (A) is incorrect because the data base may not contain all pilot action to sequence the receiver, and routing in which the
of the transitions or departures from all runways and some GPS first track is via a course requires additional action by the opera-
receivers do not contain SIDs in the data base. Answer (B) is incor- tor. Answer (B) is incorrect because manual intervention for GPS
rect because certain segments of a SID may require some manual missed approach routing is not dependent upon RAIM availability.
intervention by the pilot, especially when radar vectored to a course
or required to intercept a specific course to a waypoint.

Answers
9917 [A] 9729 [C] 9729-1 [A] 9730 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 41

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ALL RTC
9310. An aircraft not equipped with DME/DME experi- 9721. Obstacles in most areas where “Copter GPS”
ences a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) instrument approaches are needed, require the approach
disruption while en route. The flight crew will need to speed must be limited to
navigate using A— 80 knots on initial and final segments.
A— RNAV. B— 60 knots on all segments except the missed
B— VOR MON. approach.
C— GPS. C— 70 knots on final and missed approach segments.

VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON) provides As long as the obstacle environment permits, helicop-
a basic conventional navigation service for operators ter approaches can be flown at a speed of 70 knots
to use if GNSS becomes unavailable. During a GNSS from the initial approach waypoint until reaching the
disruption, the MON will enable aircraft to navigate missed approach holding waypoint. It is necessary
through the affected area or to a safe landing at a MON that helicopter procedures be flown at 70 knots or less
airport without reliance on GNSS. (PLT354, AA.I.E.K3) since helicopter departure procedures and missed
— AIM ¶1-1-3 approaches use a 20:1 obstacle clearance surface.
Answer (A) is incorrect because in the event of a GNSS disruption (PLT382) — AIM ¶1-1-19
only an aircraft that carries DME/DME equipment can use RNAV
which provides a backup to continue flying Performance Based
Navigation (PBN). Answer (C) is incorrect because a GNSS disrup- RTC
tion will not allow for GPS navigation.
9726. The maximum speed and obstacle clearance
surface (OCS) that a “Copter GPS” standard instru-
ALL ment departure (SID) or departure procedure (DP) is
8837. Outside the Western U.S. Mountainous Area, the based upon is
VOR MON will provide nearly continuous navigation A— 70 knots and 20:1 OCS.
signal coverage across the national airspace system B— 70 knots and 10:1 OCS.
an altitude of C— 60 knots and 20:1 OCS.
A— 5,000 feet AGL.
B— 5,000 feet MSL. As long as the obstacle environment permits, helicop-
C— 10,000 feet MSL. ter approaches can be flown at a speed of 70 knots
from the initial approach waypoint until reaching the
Use of the MON will provide nearly continuous VOR sig- missed approach holding waypoint. It is necessary
nal coverage at 5,000 feet AGL across the NAS, outside that helicopter procedures be flown at 70 knots or less
of the Western U.S. Mountainous Area (WUSMA). There since helicopter departure procedures and missed
is no plan to change the NAVAID and route structure in approaches use a 20:1 obstacle clearance surface.
the WUSMA. (PLT354, AA.I.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-3 (PLT354) — AIM ¶1‑1-19

ALL
8839. Over the contiguous U.S., the VOR MON assures
that a MON airport will be available within how many
miles of the aircrafts position?
A— 80 NM.
B— 100 NM.
C— 120 NM.

The VOR MON will ensure that regardless of an aircraft’s

position in the contiguous U.S. (CONUS), a MON airport
(equipped with legacy ILS or VOR approaches) will be
within 100 NM. (PLT354, AA.I.E.K3) — AIM ¶1-1-3

Answers
9310 [B] 8837 [A] 8839 [B] 9721 [C] 9726 [A]

2 – 42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Broadcast (ADS-B)

As of January 1, 2020, aircraft operating in airspace previously requiring the use of a transponder will
be required to have an Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Broadcast (ADS-B) system that includes a
certified position source capable of meeting requirements defined in 14 CFR §91.227. For altitudes below
FL180 this system can be either a 1090-ES or Universal Access Transceiver (UAT). Operations in Class
A airspace require the use of extended squitter ADS-B and Traffic Information Services – Broadcast
(TIS-B) equipment operating on the radio frequency of 1090 MHz. This equipment is simply referred to
as 1090-ES.
ADS-B Out is a function of an aircraft’s avionics that periodically broadcasts the aircraft’s three-
dimnesional position and velocity along with additional identifying information prescribed by §91.227. If
the aircraft is equipped with ADS-B Out, it must be operated in transmit mode at all times. At any time,
the pilot of an aircraft with inoperable ADS-B equipment may request a deviation from the ATC facility that
has jurisdiction over the airspace for flight to the ultimate destination airport, including any intermediate
stops, or to proceed to a place where suitable repairs can be made.

ALL ALL
9944. Flight operations conducted in Class A airspace 9946. Requests for deviations for inoperable ADS-B
require the aircraft be equipped with a equipment may be made to
A— Extended Squitter ADS-B operating on radio A— the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the
frequency 1090 MHz. airspace at any time.
B— Universal Access Transceiver ADS-B operating B— the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the
on the frequency of 978 MHz. airspace at least 1-hour prior.
C— Extended Squitter ADS-B operating on radio C— the Federal Aviation Administration 24 hours
frequency 978 MHz. before the scheduled operation.

Extended squitter ADS-B operates on radio frequency Requests for deviations for inoperable ADS-B equip-
1090 MHz. (PLT354, AA.I.A.K9) 14 CFR §91.225 ment may be made at any time to the ATC facility having
Answer (B) is incorrect because this equipment is only allowed jurisdiction over the airspace. (PLT354, AA.I.A.K9) — 14
for operations below FL180. Answer (C) is incorrect because, for CFR §91.225
operations in Class A airspace, the ADS-B must operate on radio
frequency 1090 MHz.
ALL
9946-1. Each person operating an aircraft equipped
ALL
with ADS-B Out must operate it in the transmit mode
9945. Operations at and above FL180 require the use
of what onboard avionics equipment? A— at all times unless otherwise authorized by the
FAA or directed by ATC.
A— Flight Information Services – Broadcast and
B— when operating in Class B and C airspace,
Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Broadcast.
excluding operations conducted under day VFR.
B— Traffic Information Services – Broadcast and
C— all classes of airspace when the flight is operated
Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Broadcast.
for compensation or hire but not otherwise.
C— Traffic Information Services – Broadcast and
Flight Information Services – Broadcast. Regardless of airspace or whether the aircraft was
originally certificated with an electrical system, it must
Operation at and above FL180 in Class A airspace
operate any installed ADS-B Out equipment in transmit
require the use of Automatic Dependent Surveillance
mode. (PLT354, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.225
– Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services
– Broadcast (TIS-B) equipment. (PLT354, AA.I.A.K9)
— 14 CFR §91.227

Answers
9944 [A] 9945 [B] 9946 [A] 9946-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 43

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Airport Lighting and Marking

A rotating beacon not only aids in locating an airport at night or in low visibility, it can also help to identify
which airport is seen. Civilian airports have a beacon that alternately flashes green and white. A military
airport has the same green and white beacon but the white beam is split to give a dual flash of white. A
lighted heliport has a green, yellow and white beacon.
FAA Figure 129 shows the basic marking and lighting for a runway with a nonprecision approach. The
threshold is marked with 4 stripes on either side of the centerline. 1,000 feet from the threshold, a broad
“fixed distance” marker is painted on either side of the centerline (A). The runway lights are white for the
entire length of the runway (as are the centerline lights if installed). The threshold is lit with red lights.
FAA Figure 130 shows the somewhat more elaborate ICAO markings for a nonprecision runway. In
addition to the fixed distance marker, there are stripes painted on the runway every 500 feet to a distance
of 3,000 feet from the threshold. This runway has either High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) or Medium
Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL) installed. These lights are amber rather than white in the areas within
2,000 feet of the threshold. This gives the pilot a “caution zone” on landing rollout.
FAA Figure 131 shows the lighting and marking for a precision instrument runway. The runway strip-
ing has been modified to make it easier to tell exactly how much runway remains. The stripes are still
at 500 foot intervals for the 3,000 feet from the threshold. The HIRL or MIRL turns amber for the 2,000
feet closest to the threshold. The centerline lighting has alternating red and white lights from 3,000 feet
to 1,000 feet to go, and has all red lights in the 1,000 feet closest to the threshold.
In addition to the markings discussed above, some runways have distance remaining markers. These
are simply signs showing the remaining runway in thousands of feet.
Taxi leadoff lights associated with runway centerline lights are green and yellow alternating lights,
curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.
Some runways have Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) installed at the threshold. These are syn-
chronized flashing lights (usually strobes) placed laterally at either side of the runway threshold. Their
purpose is to facilitate identification of a runway surrounded by numerous other lighting systems.
LAHSO is an acronym for “Land And Hold Short Operations.” These operations include landing
and holding short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point
on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. At controlled airports, ATC may clear a pilot
to land and hold short. The pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and
hold short clearance. The safety and operation of the aircraft remain the responsibility of the pilot. To
conduct LAHSO, pilots should become familiar with all available information concerning LAHSO at their
destination airport. Pilots should have, readily available, the published Available Landing Distance (ALD)
and runway slope information for all LAHSO runway combinations at each airport of intended landing.
Additionally, knowledge about landing performance data permits the pilot to readily determine that the
ALD for the assigned runway is sufficient for safe LAHSO. If, for any reason, such as difficulty in dis-
cerning the location of a LAHSO intersection, wind conditions, aircraft condition, etc., the pilot elects to
request to land on the full length of the runway, to land on another runway, or to decline LAHSO, a pilot
is expected to promptly inform ATC, ideally even before the clearance is issued. A LAHSO clearance,
once accepted, must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless an amended clearance is
obtained or an emergency occurs. However, a LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing.
The airport markings, signage, and lighting associated with LAHSO consist of a three-part system of
yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage and, in certain cases, in-pavement lighting.

2 – 44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ALL

8905. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? 9421-2. In the United States, there is an average of
A— Green, yellow, and white beacon light. A— 2 runway incursions every week.
B— White and red beacon light with dual flash of the B— 3 runway incursions every day.
white. C— 4 runway incursions every month.
C— Green and white beacon light with dual flash of
the white. Runway safety is a significant challenge and a top pri-
ority for everyone in aviation. In the United States, an
Military airport beacons flash alternately white and average of three runway incursions occur daily. (PLT141,
green, but are differentiated from civil beacons by a dual AA.I.E.K10) — FAA-H-8083-25
peaked (two quick) white flashes between the green
flashes. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-1-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because a sequential green, yellow, and ALL
white beacon light identifies a lighted civilian heliport. Answer (B) is 9421-3. Detailed investigations of runway incursions
incorrect because no type of airfield is marked by a beacon with a have identified
red and white light with dual flash of the white.
A— 2 major areas of contributing factors.
B— 3 major areas of contributing factors.
ATM, ATS, RTC C— 4 major areas of contributing factors.
8906. How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?
Detailed investigations of runway incursions have
A— Green, yellow, and white beacon light. identified 3 major areas contributing to these events: (1)
B— White and red beacon light with dual flash of the failure to comply with ATC instructions; (2) lack of airport
white. familiarity; (3) nonconformance with standard operating
C— Green and white beacon light with dual flash of procedures. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K6) — FAA-H-8083-25
the white.

A rotating beacon flashing green, yellow and white identi- ATM, ATS, RTC
fies a lighted heliport. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-1-9 9422. Airport information signs, used to provide desti-
Answer (B) is incorrect because no type of airfield is marked by a nation or information, have
white and red beacon with a dual flash of white. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because a green and white beacon light with a dual flash of the A— yellow inscriptions on a black background.
white identifies a military airfield. B— white inscriptions on a black background.
C— black inscriptions on a yellow background.
ATM, ATS, RTC Information signs have a yellow background with a
9421. Holding position signs have black inscription. They are used to provide the pilot
A— white inscriptions on a red background. with information on such things as areas that cannot
B— red inscriptions on a white background. be seen from the control tower, applicable radio fre-
C— yellow inscriptions on a red background. quencies, and noise abatement procedures. (PLT141,
AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3‑12
Holding position signs are mandatory instruction signs,
and mandatory instruction signs have a red background
with a white inscription. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ATM, ATS, RTC
¶2-3-8 9735. (Refer to Figure 223.) The “runway hold position”
sign denotes
A— an area protected for an aircraft approaching a
ATM, ATS, RTC
runway.
9421-1. The most important markings on an airport are
B— an entrance to runway from a taxiway.
A— ILS critical area. C— intersecting runways.
B— hold markings.
C— taxiway identification markings. Runway holding position signs are located at the
holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway
The hold markings depict where the aircraft is supposed or on runways that intersect other runways. (PLT141,
to stop and are a critical component to safe airport AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2‑3‑8
operations. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-5

Answers
8905 [C] 8906 [A] 9421 [A] 9421-1 [B] 9421-2 [B] 9421-3 [B]
9422 [C] 9735 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 45

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ALL

9735-1. (Refer to Figure 228.) What is the purpose of 8901. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an
the runway/runway hold position sign? IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
A— Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. A— Lights are closer together and easily
B— Denotes area protected for an aircraft distinguished from surrounding lights.
approaching or departing a runway. B— Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet
C— Denotes intersecting runways. of runway for a caution zone.
C— Alternate red and white lights replace the white
Mandatory instruction signs are used to denote an on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution
entrance to a runway or critical area and areas where zone.
an aircraft is prohibited from entering. The runway
holding position sign is located at the holding position Runway edge lights (HIRL or MIRL) are white on VFR
on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that runways. On IFR runways, HIRL or MIRL lights are
intersect other runways. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM amber on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length
¶2-3-8 (whichever is less), to indicate a caution zone for land-
ing. (PLT148, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2‑1-4
Answer (A) is incorrect because MIRL and HIRL are runway edge
ATM, ATS, RTC light systems, and are not spaced closer together on instrument
9735-2. (Refer to Figure 225.) What is the purpose of runways. Answer (C) is incorrect because alternate red and white
No Entry sign? runway centerline lights are on the last 3,000 feet of a runway to the
last 1,000 feet of runway (the last 1,000 feet of runway centerline
A— Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited lights are marked by red lights).
from entering.
B— Identifies area that does not continue beyond
intersection. ALL
C— Identifies the exit boundary for the runway 8901-1. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on a
protected area. VFR runway as compared to an IFR Runway?
A— Yellow lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet
The no entry sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an or half of the runway length.
area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway B— Lights are spaced closer together.
intended to be used in only one direction or at the C— Runway edge lights are white.
intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways
or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a Runway edge lights (HIRL or MIRL) are white on VFR
taxiway or other aircraft movement surface. (PLT141, runways. On IFR runways, HIRL or MIRL lights are
AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-8 amber on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the purpose of a hold posi- (whichever is less), to indicate a caution zone for land-
tion sign. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the ing. (PLT148, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶ 2-1-4
runway boundary sign.

ATM, ATS, RTC

ATM, ATS, RTC 8902. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL).
9735-3. (Refer to Figure 226.) What does the outbound
destination sign identify? A— Two rows of transverse light bars disposed
symmetrically about the runway centerline.
A— Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. B— Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals
B— Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. extending through the touchdown zone.
C— Identifies direction to take-off runways. C— Alternate white and green centerline lights
extending from 75 feet from the threshold through
Outbound destination signs define directions to takeoff
the touchdown zone.
runways. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-11
Answer (A) is incorrect because this is a runway marking. Answer
(B) is incorrect because this is a runway location sign.

Answers
9735-1 [C] 9735-2 [A] 9735-3 [C] 8901 [B] 8901-1 [C] 8902 [A]

2 – 46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) consists of two rows ATM, ATS, RTC
of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about 8904. Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the
the runway centerline in the runway touchdown zone. centerline lighting system.
(PLT148, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-5 A— Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the
Answer (B) is incorrect because flush centerline lights spaced at centerline of the runway to the centerline of the
50-foot intervals extending the length of the runway, including the taxiway.
touchdown zone, are runway centerline lighting. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because runway centerline lights extend from 75 feet from the B— Alternate green and yellow lights curving from
threshold through the touchdown zone and are white, not alternating the centerline of the runway to the edge of the
white and green. taxiway.
C— Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the
centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.
ATM, ATS, RTC
8722. When approaching a holding position sign for a Taxiway leadoff lights extend from the runway centerline
runway approach area you must to a point on an exit taxiway to expedite movement of
A— obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing. aircraft from the runway. These lights alternate green
B— hold only when specifically instructed by ATC. and yellow from the runway centerline to the runway
C— hold only when the weather is below 800 feet and holding position or the ILS critical area, as appropriate.
2 miles visibility. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-5

At some airports, it is necessary to hold an aircraft on

a taxiway located in the approach or departure area ATM, ATS, RTC
for a runway so that the aircraft does not interfere with 8907. Identify the runway distance remaining markers.
operations on that runway. In these situations, a sign A— Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance
with the designation of the approach end of the runway remaining.
followed by a “dash” ( - ) and letters “APCH” will be B— Red markers laterally placed across the runway
located at the holding position on the taxiway. (PLT141, at 3,000 feet from the end.
AA.II.C.K2) — AIM ¶2-3-8 C— Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway
with signs on the side denoting distance to end.
ATM, ATS, RTC Runway distance remaining markers are signs located
8903. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline along the sides of a runway to indicate the remaining
lighting systems. runway distance in increments of 1,000 feet. (PLT141,
A— Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-3
alternate red and white lights to the end. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because distance remaining
B— Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to markers are along the side of the runway and are black and white.
1,000 feet, then red lights to the end.
C— Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to
ALL
the end of the runway.
8907-1. Runway centerline lights as seen from the flight
Centerline lighting systems consist of alternating red deck begin to alternate white and red in the last
and white lights from 3,000 feet remaining to the 1,000- A— 1,000 feet of runway distance remaining.
foot point, and all red lights for the last 1,000 feet of the B— 2,000 feet of runway distance remaining.
runway. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-5 C— 3,000 feet of runway distance remaining.
Answer (A) is incorrect because alternate red and white lights are
from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. Answer (C) Runway centerline lights as seen from the approach
is incorrect because runway remaining lighting alternates red and end of the runway are white until the last 3,000 feet of
white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, and red lights from 1,000
feet to the end of the runway. the runway. The white lights begin to alternate red for
the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the
runway, all centerline lights are red. (PLT141, AA.VI.F.K2)
— AIM ¶2-1-5

Answers
8722 [A] 8903 [B] 8904 [C] 8907 [A] 8907-1 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 47

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8922. (Refer to Figure 129.) What is the runway distance 8925. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance
remaining at “A” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? remaining at “C” for a daytime takeoff on run­way 9?
A— 1,000 feet. A— 2,500 feet.
B— 1,500 feet. B— 2,000 feet.
C— 2,000 feet. C— 1,500 feet.

The fixed distance marker is located 1,000 feet from the Since each fixed-distance marker in this problem rep-
threshold (in this case the end of the runway). (PLT141, resents 500 feet, the distance to “C” from the departure
AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-3 end is 2,000 feet. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-3-3
Answer (B) is incorrect because the 1,500 feet distance of runway Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,500 feet would be the second dis-
remaining is not marked on an FAA nonprecision runway. Answer tance marker encountered. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1,500
(C) is incorrect because 2,000 feet is the distance remaining on an feet would be the fourth distance marker encountered.
ICAO (not FAA) nonprecision instrument runway where the runway
edge lights are amber.
ATM, ATS, RTC
8926. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance
ATM, ATS, RTC
remaining at “D” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
8923. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance
remaining at “A” for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A— 500 feet.
B— 1,000 feet.
A— 1,000 feet. C— 1,500 feet.
B— 2,000 feet.
C— 2,500 feet. The fixed-distance marker at “D” corresponds to 1,000
feet remaining. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-3-3
According to the key, a half-shaded circle indicates yel-
Answer (A) is incorrect because 500 feet would be the sixth distance
low lights. Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500 marker encountered. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1,500 feet
feet. Four markers from the departure end to the first would be the fourth distance marker encountered.
yellow light measures 2,000 feet remaining. (PLT141,
AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-3-3
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the beginning of yellow ATM, ATS, RTC
runway edge lights on an ICAO nonprecision instrument runway 8927. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance
indicates 2,000 feet of runway remaining. remaining at “E” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A— 1,500 feet.
ATM, ATS, RTC B— 2,000 feet.
8924. (Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance C— 2,500 feet.
remaining at “B” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500 feet. “E” is
A— 2,000 feet. 2,000 feet from the departure end. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4)
B— 2,500 feet. — AIM ¶2‑3-3
C— 3,000 feet.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,500 feet would be the second
pair of double markers encountered on either side of the centerline.
Each fixed-distance marker measures 500 feet. From Answer (C) is incorrect because 2,500 feet would be the second
the departure end, it is 3,000 feet. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) pair of single markers encountered on either side of the centerline.
— AIM ¶2‑3-3
Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,000 feet would be the third
distance marker encountered. At night, 2,000 feet is identified by
the beginning of amber runway edge lights. Answer (B) is incor-
rect because 2,500 feet would be the second distance marker
encountered.

Answers
8922 [A] 8923 [B] 8924 [C] 8925 [B] 8926 [B] 8927 [B]

2 – 48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8928. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance 8931. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance
remaining at “A” for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? remaining at “F” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?
A— 2,000 feet. A— 2,000 feet.
B— 3,000 feet. B— 1,500 feet.
C— 3,500 feet. C— 1,000 feet.

This question and figure reference remaining runway Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500 feet. “F”
lighting/centerline lighting systems in the final 2,000 corresponds to the 1,000-foot fixed-distance marker.
feet as viewed from the takeoff or approach position. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-3-3
Alternate red and white lights are seen from the 3,000- Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,000 feet would be the first pair
foot points to the 1,000-foot points, and all red lights of double markers encountered on either side of the centerline. At
are seen for the last 1,000 feet of the runway. (PLT141, night it is marked by the beginning of amber runway edge lights.
Answer (B) is incorrect because 1,500 feet would be the second
AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-5 pair of double markers encountered on either side of the centerline.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,000 feet is marked by the begin-
ning of amber runway edge lights. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the runway remaining lights begin alternating between red and white
ATM, ATS, RTC
at 3,000 feet of remaining runway.
8932. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance
remaining at “C” for a takeoff on runway 9?
ATM, ATS, RTC A— 1,000 feet.
8929. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance B— 1,500 feet.
remaining at “D” for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? C— 1,800 feet.
A— 3,000 feet.
B— 2,500 feet. All red lights along the runway centerline correspond
C— 1,500 feet. to the last 1,000 feet of runway. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4)
— AIM ¶2-1-5
Each fixed-distance marker marks off 500 feet. “D” Answer (B) is incorrect because the start of red lights on centerline
corresponds to 3,000 feet. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM lighting indicates 1,000 feet of remaining runway. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the start of red lights on centerline lighting indi-
¶2-3-3 cates 1,000 feet of remaining runway.
Answer (B) is incorrect because 2,500 feet would be the second
pair of single markers encountered on either side of the centerline.
Answer (C) is incorrect because 1,500 feet would be the second
ATM, ATS, RTC
pair of double markers encountered on either side of the centerline.
8914. What is the purpose of REIL?
A— Identification of a runway surrounded by a
ATM, ATS, RTC preponderance of other lighting.
8930. (Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance B— Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent
remaining at “B” for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? landing short.
A— 1,000 feet. C— Establish visual descent guidance information
B— 2,000 feet. during an approach.
C— 2,500 feet.
Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are effective for:
The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument 1. Identification of a runway surrounded by numerous
runways. There, amber replaces white on the last 2,000 other lighting systems,
feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to
2. Identification of a runway which lacks contrast with
form a caution zone for landings. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4)
surrounding terrain, or
— AIM ¶2-1-4
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,000 feet would be indicated by 3. Identification of a runway during reduced visibility.
the start of red centerline lighting. Answer (C) is incorrect because (PLT145, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-3
the beginning of yellow runway edge lights on an instrument runway
indicates 2,000 feet of remaining runway. Answer (B) is incorrect because the touchdown zone is identified
by in-runway lighting of two rows of transverse light bars on either
side of the runway centerline from 100 feet to 3,000 feet from the
landing threshold. Answer (C) is incorrect because a VASI (not REIL)
assists in providing visual descent guidance information during an
approach.

Answers
8928 [B] 8929 [A] 8930 [B] 8931 [C] 8932 [A] 8914 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 49

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8915. Identify REIL. 9733. In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations
A— Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available:
B— Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far A— the published Available Landing Distance (ALD),
end of runway. landing performance of the aircraft, and slope
C— Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of all LAHSO combinations at the destination
of the runway threshold. airport.
B— the published runway length and slope for all
The REIL system consists of a pair of synchronized LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended
flashing lights located laterally on each side of the landing.
runway threshold. (PLT145, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-3 C— the landing performance of the aircraft, published
Answer (A) is incorrect because amber lights are used on the last Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO
2,000 feet of runway edge lights to form a caution zone on instru- combinations at the airport of intended landing,
ment runways. Answer (B) is incorrect because green lights at the
threshold mark the runway edge for landing aircraft and red lights at
plus the forecast winds.
the far end mark the runway edge to a departing or landing aircraft.
To conduct LAHSO, pilots should become familiar with
all available information concerning LAHSO at their
ATM, ATS, RTC destination airport. Pilots should have, readily avail-
9731. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include able, the published Available Landing Distance (ALD)
landing and holding short: and runway slope information for all LAHSO runway
A— of an intersecting taxiway only. combinations at each airport of intended landing.
B— of some designated point on the runway. Additionally, knowledge about landing performance
C— only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. data permits the pilot to readily determine that the ALD
for the assigned runway is sufficient for safe LAHSO.
Land And Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include (PLT140, AA.VI.F.R3b) — AIM ¶4-3-11
landing and holding short of an intersecting runway, an
intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on
ATM, ATS, RTC
a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway.
9734. The airport markings, signage and lighting asso-
(PLT140, AA.VI.F.R3b) — AIM ¶4-3-11
ciated with Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) consists of:
A— yellow hold-short markings, red and white
ATM, ATS, RTC signage, and in-pavement lights.
9732. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) B— red and white signage, yellow hold-short
clearance, that the pilot accepts: markings, and at some airports, in-pavement
A— must result in a landing. lights.
B— does not preclude a rejected landing. C— red and black signage, in-pavement lights, and
C— precludes a rejected landing. yellow hold-short markings.

A LAHSO clearance, once accepted, must be adhered The airport markings, signage, and lighting associated
to unless an amended clearance is obtained or an with LAHSO consist of a three-part system of yellow
emergency occurs. However, a LAHSO clearance does hold-short markings, red and white signage and, in cer-
not preclude a rejected landing. (PLT140, AA.VI.F.R3b) tain cases, in-pavement lighting. (PLT140, AA.VI.F.R3b)
— AIM ¶4‑3‑11 — AIM ¶4-3-11

Answers
8915 [C] 9731 [B] 9732 [B] 9733 [A] 9734 [B]

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 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

9416-1. (Refer to Figure 224.) The ILS critical area 9423. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways
markings denote and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two
A— where you are clear of the runway. dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway.
B— where you must be to start your ILS procedure. These lines are
C— where you are clear of the ILS critical area. A— white in color and the dashed lines are nearest
the runway.
The ILS critical area sign is located adjacent to the ILS B— yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest
holding position marking on the pavement and can the runway.
be seen by pilots leaving the critical area. The sign C— yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the
is intended to provide pilots with another visual cue runway.
which they can use as a guide in deciding when they
are clear of the ILS critical area. (PLT141, AA.II.C.S3) Holding position markings for taxiway/runway intersec-
— AIM ¶2-3-9 tions consist of four yellow lines—two solid and two
dashed. The solid lines are always on the same side
where the aircraft is to hold. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) —
ATM, ATS, RTC AIM ¶2-3-5
9416-2. The ILS critical area sign indicates
A— where aircraft are prohibited.
ATM, ATS, RTC
B— the edge of the ILS critical area.
C— the exit boundary. 8203. All runway hold markings consist of
A— 2 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.
The ILS critical area sign is located adjacent to the ILS B— 2 dashed and 2 solid yellow lines.
holding position marking on the pavement and can C— 1 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.
be seen by pilots leaving the critical area. The sign is
intended to provide pilots with another visual cue to use Holding position markings for taxiway/runway intersec-
as a guide in deciding when they are clear of the ILS tions consist of four yellow lines—two solid and two
critical area. (PLT141, AA.II.C.S3) — AIM ¶2-3-9 dashed. The solid lines are always on the same side
where the aircraft is to hold. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K3) —
AIM ¶2-3-5
ATM, ATS, RTC
9423-1. (Refer to Figure 227.) The “taxiway ending”
marker ATM, ATS, RTC
A— identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. 9436. (Refer to Figure 156.) This sign, which is visible
B— indicates taxiway does not continue. to the pilot on the runway, indicates
C— provides general taxiing direction to named A— a point at which the pilot should contact ground
taxiway. control without being instructed by the tower.
B— a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the
Taxiway ending marker is an airport sign indicating the runway.
taxiway does not continue. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM C— the point at which the emergency arresting gear
¶2-3-11 is stretched across the runway.
Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the purpose of a no entry
sign. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the purpose of direc- The runway boundary sign has a yellow background
tion signs. with a black inscription with a graphic depicting the
pavement holding position. This sign, which faces the
runway and is visible to the pilot exiting the runway, is
located adjacent to the holding position marking on the
pavement. The sign is intended to provide pilots with
another visual cue which they can use as a guide in
deciding when they are “clear of the runway.” (PLT141,
AA.I.E.K4) — AIM ¶2-3-9

Answers
9416-1 [C] 9416-2 [B] 9423-1 [B] 9423 [B] 8203 [B] 9436 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 51

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC to takeoff because the runway is occupied or about to

9417. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells be occupied by another aircraft or ground vehicle. Two
you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You aircraft, or a surface vehicle and an aircraft, are required
are considered clear of the runway when for the lights to illuminate. The departing aircraft must be
A— the aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway in position for takeoff or beginning takeoff roll. Another
location sign. aircraft or a surface vehicle must be on or about to
B— the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the cross the runway. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-6
hold line.
C— all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.
ATM, ATS, RTC
An aircraft is not “clear of the runway” until all parts 9785-1. Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the
have crossed the applicable holding position marking. A— automatic runway status light system.
(PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-5 B— tower operated runway stop light system.
C— ground controller operated ramp status holding
light system.
ATM, ATS, RTC
9764. Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights are color Runway Status Light (RWSL) System is a fully automated
coded to warn pilots that system that provides runway status information to pilots
A— they are within the runway environment or run-up and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when
danger critical area. it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or land on a
B— they are within the runway environment or ILS runway. The RWSL system processes information from
critical area. surveillance systems and activates Runway Entrance
C— they are within the taxiway end environment or Lights (REL), Takeoff Hold Lights (THL), Runway
ILS critical area. Intersection Lights (RIL), and Final Approach Runway
Occupancy Signal (FAROS) in accordance with the
Taxiway centerline lead-off lights provide visual guidance position and velocity of the detected surface traffic and
to persons exiting the runway. They are color-coded to approach traffic. REL, THL, and RIL are in-pavement
warn pilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the light fixtures that are directly visible to pilots and surface
runway environment or ILS critical area, whichever is vehicle operators. (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-6
more restrictive. Alternate green and yellow lights are
installed, beginning with green, from the runway center-
line to one centerline light position beyond the runway ATM, ATS, RTC
holding position or ILS critical area holding position. 9786. REL is the acronym for
(PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-5 A— Runway exit lights.
B— Runway entrance lights.
C— Ramp entry lights.
ATM, ATS, RTC
9785. THL is the acronym for The Runway Entrance Lights (REL) system is composed
A— Takeoff hold lights. of flush mounted, in-pavement, unidirectional fixtures
B— Taxi holding lights. that are parallel to and focused along the taxiway cen-
C— Terminal holding lights. terline and directed toward the pilot at the hold line. A
specific array of REL lights include the first light at the
The Takeoff Hold Lights (THL) system is composed of hold line followed by a series of evenly spaced lights
in-pavement, unidirectional fixtures in a double longi- to the runway edge; and one additional light at the run-
tudinal row aligned either side of the runway centerline way centerline in line with the last two lights before the
lighting. Fixtures are focused toward the arrival end of runway edge. When activated, these red lights indicate
the runway at the “position and hold” point, and they that there is high-speed traffic on the runway or there is
extend for 1,500 feet in front of the holding aircraft. an aircraft on final approach within the activation area.
Illuminated red lights provide a signal, to an aircraft in (PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-6
position for takeoff or rolling, indicating that it is unsafe

Answers
9417 [C] 9764 [B] 9785 [A] 9785-1 [A] 9786 [B]

2 – 52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

9786-1. Runway Status Lights (REL) are 9437. (Refer to Figure 157.) This is an example of
A— an independent light system. A— an ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign.
B— automatically activated. B— a Runway Boundary Sign.
C— ATC tower controlled. C— an ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign.

The runway status light (RWSL) system, which includes This sign has a yellow background with a black inscrip-
runway entrance lights (REL), is a fully automated sys- tion with a graphic depicting the ILS pavement holding
tem that provides runway status information to pilots position marking. This is located adjacent to the ILS
and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when holding position marking on the pavement and can be
it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or land on a seen by the pilots leaving the critical area. (PLT141,
runway. RWSL is an independent safety enhancement AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-9
that does not substitute for or convey an ATC clearance.
(PLT141, AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-6
ATM, ATS, RTC
9416. When instructed by ATC to “Hold short of a runway
ATM, ATS, RTC (ILS critical area, etc.),” the pilot should stop
9786-2. A runway status light (RWSL) system at an A— with the nose gear on the hold line.
airport B— so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the
A— relies on ASDE-X/airport surface surveillance hold line.
capability (ASSC). C— so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with
B— allows ATC to override any RWSL false the hold line.
indications.
C— does not require pilots to tell ATC when executing When the ILS critical area is being protected the pilot
a go-around. should stop so no part of the aircraft extends beyond
the holding position marking. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K2) —
RWSL is an independent safety enhancement that does AIM ¶2-3-5
not substitute for or convey an ATC clearance. ATC
maintains all authority over airport operations. (PLT141,
AA.III.A.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-6 ATM, ATS, RTC
9798. When you see this pavement marking from the
cockpit, you
ATM, ATS, RTC
A— can taxi past this point at your own risk.
9787. (Refer to Figure 241). Hot Spots are depicted on B— must hold short until “cleared” to taxi onto or past
airport diagrams as the runway.
A— squares or rectangles around “HS” and a C— may not cross the line until ATC allows you to
number. “enter” or “cross” by instruction.
B— circles or polygons around “HS” and a number.
C— triangles or blocks filled with “HS” and a number. This question will likely include an onscreen image
depicting runway hold position markings. These mark-
Runway hotspots (some FAA Regions refer to them ings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop
as high alert areas) are locations on particular airports when approaching a runway. ATC will not use the word
that historically have hazardous intersections. Hotspots “cleared” in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to
are depicted on some airport charts as circled areas. taxi. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-5, 4-3-18
(PLT149, AA.II.C.K6) — FAA-H-8083-16

Answers
9786-1 [A] 9786-2 [B] 9787 [B] 9437 [C] 9416 [B] 9798 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 53

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

9799. The sign shown is an example of 8701. Airport “hot spots” are
A— a mandatory instruction sign. A— reserved for contaminated aircraft.
B— runway heading notification signage. B— parking spots for military aircraft.
C— an airport directional sign. C— known hazardous runway intersections.

This question will likely include an onscreen image A hot spot is defined as a location on an airport move-
depicting a runway hold position sign. This is a manda- ment area with a history of potential risk of collision or
tory instruction sign, used to hold an aircraft on a taxiway runway incursion, and where heightened attention by
located in the approach or departure area for a runway pilots and drivers is necessary. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K6)
so the aircraft does not interfere with operations on that — FAA-H-8083-16
runway. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K3) — AIM ¶2-3-8

Approach Lighting
An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)
must remain on or above the glide slope (except for normal bracketing) until a lower altitude is neces-
sary for a safe landing.
A VASI gives the pilot a visual glide slope to follow when landing on certain runways. A VASI glide
slope is normally about 3° (the same as an ILS) and the aim point is about 1,000 feet down the runway
from the threshold. The angle and aim point of the VASI can be adjusted as necessary to accommodate
the runway conditions. If a pilot of a high performance airplane is flying a VASI with a glide slope steeper
than 3.5°, he/she should be aware that a longer than normal roll-out may result from the flare maneuver
required by the steep angle.
Many runways used by air carrier aircraft have a three-bar VASI system to accommodate aircraft
with a high cockpit such as Boeing 747 or DC-10. These aircraft need a glide slope that has an aim point
further down the runway to ensure adequate clearance for the landing gear at the runway threshold. The
pilot of such an airplane must use the two upwind lights (middle and far bars) for glide slope information.
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) approach light system consists of a row of four
lights perpendicular to the runway. Each light can be either red or white depending on the aircraft’s posi-
tion relative to the glide slope. The glide slope indications of a PAPI are as follows:
• High—4 white lights
• Slightly high—1 red, 3 white lights
• On glidepath—2 red, 2 white lights
• Slightly low—1 white, 3 red lights
• Low—4 red lights

Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color
visual approach path. The below glidepath indication is normally pulsating red and the above glidepath
indication is normally pulsating white. The “on glide slope” indication for one type of system is a steady
white light, while for another type it is an alternating red and white.

Answers
9799 [A] 8701 [C]

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 Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide­
9378. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered paths. The lower glidepath is provided by the near and
aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall middle bars and is normally set at 3° while the upper
A— not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI glide­path, provided by the middle and far bars is normally
approach is received. 1/4° higher. This higher glidepath is intended for use only
B— use the VASI only when weather conditions are by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold
below basic VFR. crossing height. (PLT147, AA.III.B.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-2
C— maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope Answer (A) is incorrect because the three-bar VASI provides a
until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe glide slope for high cockpit aircraft, not a choice of glide angles for
pilots. Answer (C) is incorrect because both the two- and three-bar
landing. VASI are visible from 3-5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles
or more at night, and the three-bar VASI does not provide use at a
An airplane approaching to land on a runway served greater height.
by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), shall
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a
lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. (PLT147, ATM, ATS, RTC
AA.III.B.K4) — 14 CFR §91.129 8913. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is
Answer (A) is incorrect because a VASI should be used at all times
intended for use by
when available, and is not considered an instrument approach. A— high performance aircraft.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a VASI should be used at all times
in both VFR and when transitioning out of IFR weather.
B— helicopters.
C— high cockpit aircraft.

ATM, ATS, RTC Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide­
8912. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should paths. The lower glidepath is provided by the near and
be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide middle bars and is normally set at 3° while the upper
slope angle may result in glidepath, provided by the middle and far bars is normally
1/4° higher. This higher glidepath is intended for use only
A— a hard landing. by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold
B— increased landing rollout. crossing height. (PLT147, AA.III.B.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-2
C— landing short of the runway threshold.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the higher glide slope of a three-bar
VASI is for use only by high cockpit aircraft, which may or may not
Although normal VASI glidepath angles are 3°, angles be high performance aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because the
at some locations may be as high as 4.5° to give proper higher glide slope of a three-bar VASI is for use only by high cockpit
obstacle clearance. Pilots of high performance aircraft aircraft, not specifically for use by helicopters.
are cautioned that use of VASI angles in excess of 3.5°
may cause an increase in runway length required for
ATM, ATS, RTC
landing and rollout. (PLT147, AA.III.B.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-2
8921. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator
Answer (A) is incorrect because flying a steeper-than-normal VASI
may result in an increased landing rollout in a high-performance
(PAPI) consist of?
airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect because a landing short of the A— Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red,
runway threshold would be a result of flying a lower-than-normal
VASI glide slope angle.
white, and green.
B— Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway;
red and white.
ATM, ATS, RTC C— One light projector with two colors; red and white.
8911. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) uses light
A— Pilots have a choice of glide angles. units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row
B— A normal glide angle is afforded both high and of either two- or four-light units. (PLT147, AA.III.B.K4)
low cockpit aircraft. — AIM ¶2‑1‑2
C— The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can
Answer (A) is incorrect because PAPI has a row of four lights per-
be used at a greater height. pendicular to the runway, and projects red and white light. Answer
(C) is incorrect because PAPI consists of a row of four light projec-
tors emitting red or white light.

Answers
9378 [C] 8912 [B] 8911 [B] 8913 [C] 8921 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 2 – 55

Chapter 2 Equipment, Navigation and Facilities

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8908. What are the indications of Precision Approach 8910. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?
Path Indicator (PAPI)? A— High – pulsing white, on glidepath – green, low –
A— High – white, on glidepath – red and white; low – red. pulsing red.
B— High – white, on glidepath – green; low – red. B— High – pulsing white, on glidepath – steady
C— High – white and green, on glidepath – green; low white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low –
– red. pulsing red.
C— High – pulsing white, on course and on glidepath
The Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) uses light – steady white, off course but on glidepath –
units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row pulsing white and red; low – pulsing red.
of either two or four light units:
High......................................................... 4 white lights Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally
consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color
Slightly high...................................1 red, 3 white lights visual approach path into the final approach area of the
On glide path.................................2 red, 2 white lights runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below
Slightly low....................................1 white, 3 red lights glidepath indication is normally pulsating red, and the
above glidepath indication is normally pulsating white.
Low............................................................. 4 red lights The on glidepath indication for one type of system is a
(PLT147, AA.III.B.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-2 steady white light, while for another type system the on
Answer (B) is incorrect because the on glidepath indication of PAPI glidepath indication consists of an alternating red and
is both red and white lights. Answer (C) is incorrect because above white. (PLT147, AA.III.B.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-2
the glidepath indication of PAPI is all white, on glidepath is two red Answer (A) is incorrect because the on glidepath indication of a
and two white, and below glidepath is all red. pulsating VASI is either a pulsing red and white or steady white,
not green. Answer (C) is incorrect because the pulsating VASI only
provides glidepath indications, not lateral, or course, indications.
ATM, ATS, RTC Above glidepath is pulsing white, on glidepath is pulsing red and
8909. What does the pulsating VASI consist of? white or steady white, and below glidepath is pulsing red.

A— Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady.

B— Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. ATM, ATS, RTC
C— One-light projector, pulsing white when above 8705. Lights which indicate the runway is occupied are
glide slope or red when more than slightly below
A— strobe lights located next to the PAPIs.
glide slope, steady white when on glide slope,
B— flashing PAPIs.
steady red for slightly below glide path.
C— yellow flashing lights located below the PAPIs.
Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally
The standalone final approach runway occupancy sig-
consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color
nal (FAROS) is a fully automated system that provides
visual approach path into the final approach area of the
runway occupancy status to pilots on final approach to
runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below
indicate whether it may be unsafe to land. When an air-
glidepath indication is normally pulsating red, and the
craft or vehicle is detected on the runway, the precision
above glidepath indication is normally pulsating white.
approach path indicator (PAPI) light fixtures flash as a
The on glidepath indication for one type of system is a
signal to indicate the runway is occupied and that it may
steady white light, while for another type system, the on
be unsafe to land. (PLT147, AA.III.B.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-7
glidepath indication consists of an alternating red and
white. (PLT147, AA.III.B.K4) — AIM ¶2-1-2
Answer (A) is incorrect because the pulsating VASI is a two-light
system, in which below glidepath is pulsating red, above glidepath
is pulsating white, and on glidepath is a steady white light. Answer
(B) is incorrect because the pulsating VASI is a single light projecting
unit emitting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach
area of the runway.

Answers
8908 [A] 8909 [C] 8910 [B] 8705 [B]

2 – 56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 3
Aerodynamics
Lift and Drag 3–3
Critical Engine and VMC 3–8
Maneuvering Flight 3 – 10
Stability 3 – 13
High Speed Flight 3 – 15
Primary Flight Controls 3 – 18
Tabs 3 – 23
High-Lift Devices 3 – 25
Helicopter Aerodynamics 3 – 27

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3–1

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

3–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Lift and Drag

The four forces acting on an aircraft in flight are lift, weight, thrust and drag. Weight always acts verti-
cally toward the center of the earth. Lift acts perpendicular to the relative wind (not always vertically).
Thrust and drag act opposite each other and parallel to the relative wind.
Lift is produced by air flowing over the curved wing surfaces. The air flowing over the upper surface
of the wing is deflected further than that flowing across the lower surface and therefore is accelerated.
Bernoulli’s Principle states that when a gas is accelerated, its pressure decreases. Thus the pressure
on the upper wing surface is lower than that on the lower surface and lift is produced.
Angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line of wing. At zero angle of attack,
the pressure on the upper surface of the wing is still less than atmospheric, but the wing is producing
minimum lift. As the angle of attack is increased, the lift developed by the wing increases proportionately.
This is true until the angle of attack exceeds a critical value, when the air flowing over the top of the wing
breaks up into a turbulent flow and the wing stalls.
Angle of attack and indicated airspeed determine the total lift. An increase in either indicated
airspeed or angle of attack increases total lift (up to the stalling angle of attack) and a decrease in either
decreases total lift. To maintain the same total lift (i.e., maintain level flight), a pilot has to change the angle
of attack anytime indicated airspeed is changed. For example, as indicated airspeed is decreased, the
angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the loss of lift. The relationship between indicated
airspeed and lift for a given angle of attack involves the law of squares. If the angle of attack does not
change, total lift varies with the square of the indicated airspeed. For example, if the airspeed doubles,
the lift will increase by four times.
Indicated airspeed can be thought of as having two elements—the actual speed of the airplane
through the air (true airspeed) and the density of the air. As altitude increases, air density decreases. To
maintain the same indicated airspeed at altitude an aircraft must fly at a higher true airspeed. To produce
the same amount of lift at altitude, a higher true airspeed is required for a given angle of attack.
A wing will always stall at the same angle of attack. The load factor, weight and density altitude will
cause the stalling true airspeed to vary, but the stall angle of attack will always be the same.
A curve comparing total drag to parasite and induced drag reveals an airspeed at which drag is at a
minimum value. At higher airspeeds, total drag increases because of increasing parasite drag. At lower
airspeeds, induced drag increases which increases the total drag. Since the lift stays constant (equal
to weight), the low point on the curve is the airspeed that produces the best lift to drag (L/D) ratio. This
point is referred to as L/DMAX. See Figure 3-1.
A change in weight changes the L/D curve. The amount of parasite drag is mainly a function of indi-
cated airspeed. The amount of induced drag is a function of angle of attack. When an aircraft’s weight
is increased, any indicated airspeed will require a higher angle of attack to produce the required lift.
This means that induced drag will increase with increases in weight while there will be little change in
parasite drag.
When an airplane is within about one wingspan of the ground, the flow of air around the wingtips is
inhibited by the close proximity of the ground. This ground effect reduces induced drag (and therefore
total drag) and increases lift. As an airplane flies out of ground effect on takeoff, the increased induced
drag will require a higher angle of attack.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3–3

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Figure 3-1. Typical drag curves

ALL Lift is proportional to the square of the airplane’s velocity.

8377. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift For example, an airplane traveling at 200 knots has four
if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant times the lift as the same airplane traveling at 100 knots
and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant.
A— the same. (PLT242, AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— two times greater. Answer (A) is incorrect because lift is proportional to the square
C— four times greater. of the airplane’s velocity, it is not constant. Answer (B) is incorrect
because, as airspeed is doubled, the lift will be four times greater.

Answers
8377 [C]

3–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ALL
8378. What true airspeed and angle of attack should 8346. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if
be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed
is increased? for maximum L/D?
A— The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A— Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
B— A higher true airspeed for any given angle of B— Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
attack. C— Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
C— A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
Note in the following figure that the airspeed at which
If the density factor is decreased and the total lift must minimum drag occurs is the same airspeed at which
equal the total weight to remain in flight, it follows that the maximum lift/drag ratio (L/D) takes place. At speeds
one of the other factors must be increased. The fac- below maximum L/D, any decrease in airspeed will
tors usually increased are the airspeed or the angle of result in an increase in total drag due to the increase in
attack, because these can be controlled by the pilot. induced drag. (PLT303, AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25
(PLT168, AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer (B) is incorrect because parasite drag varies directly (not
Answer (A) is incorrect because true airspeed must be increased inversely) with airspeed. Answer (C) is incorrect because drag
(not remain the same) as altitude increases. Answer (C) is incorrect increases (not decreases) from any speed other than that for maxi-
because true airspeed must increase (not decrease) for any given mum L/D.
angle of attack.

ALL
8348. What affects indicated stall speed?
A— Weight, load factor, and power.
B— Load factor, angle of attack, and power.
C— Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

An airplane will always stall at the same angle of attack.

The indicated airspeed at which the stalling angle of
attack is reached will vary with weight, load factor, and
(to an extent) power setting. (PLT477, AA.I.B.K4) —
FAA-H-8083‑25
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because indicated stall speed is
not affected by the angle of attack or air density.

ALL
9808. The stall speed of an airplane
A— is constant regardless of weight or airfoil
configuration.
B— is affected by weight, and bank angle. Question 8346
C— is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift co-
efficient.

Airplanes stall at the same angle of attack regardless

of weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, etc. The stall
speed of the aircraft will be affected by weight, bank
angle, and other factors since the product of dynamic
pressure, wing area, and lift coefficient must produce
the required lift. (PLT477, AA.I.B.K4) — ANA

Answers
8378 [B] 8348 [A] 9808 [B] 8346 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3–5

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL Lift is required to counteract the aircraft’s weight. If

9942. How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you weight is increased, lift must be also. To increase lift,
climb from sea level to 33,000 feet? angle of attack must be increased, so induced drag
A— It varies directly with a change in altitude. also increases. Parasite drag is due to form and friction
B— It remains relatively unchanged throughout the drag, so there would be little or no change in parasite
climb. drag. (PLT015, AA.I.B.K4) — ANA
C— It varies indirectly with a change in altitude. Answer (A) is incorrect because parasite drag increases less (not
more) than induced drag as airplane weight increases. Answer (C) is
incorrect because induced drag increases more than parasite drag
The indicated airspeed (or calibrated airspeed) at which with increases in airplane gross weight.
an aircraft stalls can be considered constant, but the
true airspeed at which it stalls increases with altitude
because of the lower air density. (PLT124, AA.I.B.K4) ALL
— FAA-H-8083-25 8397-1. How does an increase in an aircraft’s weight
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the question is specifi- affect its climb performance?
cally asking about the knots calibrated airspeed (KCAS) and not true
airspeed (TAS) or Mach. A— The aircraft will climb at a lower angle of attack,
which allows for a higher TAS and higher rate of
climb.
ALL B— Both parasite and induced drag are increased,
9942-1. As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes, what which will lower the reserve thrust available to
happens to the calibrated airspeed in relation to true climb.
airspeed? C— A higher aircraft weight requires that the aircraft
A— It remains equal. is configured for climb earlier in the departure
B— It decreases. which allows a greater climb gradient.
C— It increases.
Climb performance is most critical at high weight, high
True airspeed is calibrated airspeed corrected for alti- altitude, or during a malfunction of a powerplant. A
tude and nonstandard temperature. Because air density change in aircraft weight affects both climb angle and
decreases with an increase in altitude, an aircraft has climb rate and will alter the drag and power required.
to be flown faster at higher altitudes to cause the same Generally, an increase in weight will reduce the maxi-
pressure difference between pitot impact pressure and mum rate of climb, but the airplane must be operated at
static pressure. Therefore, for a given calibrated air- an increased speed to achieve the reduced maximum
speed, true airspeed increases as altitude increases; or rate of climb. (PLT015, AA.I.B.K2c) — ANA
for a given true airspeed, calibrated airspeed decreases
as altitude increases. (PLT124, AA.I.B.K3a) — FAA-H-
ALL
8083-25
9767. How does VS (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?
A— Remains the same at all altitudes.
ALL B— Varies directly with altitude.
8397. What is the relationship between induced and C— Varies inversely with altitude.
parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
True airspeed (KTAS) is based on the density of the
A— Parasite drag increases more than induced drag.
air, which is affected by pressure, temperature, and
B— Induced drag increases more than parasite drag.
humidity—together, these determine air density. While
C— Both parasite and induced drag are equally
flying at a constant indicated airspeed, an increase in
increased.
density altitude will indicate that the air has become less
dense, and the true airspeed as well as ground speed
will increase. (PLT124, AA.V.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9942 [B] 9942-1 [B] 8397 [B] 8397-1 [A] 9767 [B]

3–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ATM, ATS, ADX

8368. What is the reason for variations in geometric 8399. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude
pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? cause an airplane to climb?
A— It permits a relatively constant angle of attack A— Low speed.
along its length when in cruising flight. B— High speed.
B— It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub C— Any speed.
or root from stalling during cruising flight.
C— It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence When operating at speeds below L/DMAX, an increase
along its length when in cruising flight. in pitch or decrease in speed causes total drag to
increase, thus causing a descent with a fixed power
“Twisting,” or variations in the geometric pitch of the setting. When operating at speeds above L/DMAX and
blades permits the propeller to operate with a relatively pitch is increased (or airspeed is decreased), total drag
constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising will decrease, thus causing a climb with a fixed power
flight. (PLT214, AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25 setting. (PLT303, AA.I.B.K4) — ANA
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because below L/DMAX, perfor-
mance decreases with increases in pitch.
ALL
8375. What flight condition should be expected when
an aircraft leaves ground effect? ATM, ATS, ADX
8379. How can an airplane produce the same lift in
A— An increase in induced drag requiring a higher
ground effect as when out of ground effect?
angle of attack.
B— A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower A— The same angle of attack.
angle of attack. B— A lower angle of attack.
C— An increase in dynamic stability. C— A higher angle of attack.

An airplane leaving ground effect will require an increase The reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground
in angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient, effect alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces
experience an increase in induced drag and thrust the induced angle of attack and induced drag. Therefore,
required, experience a decrease in stability with a nose- the wing will require a lower angle of attack in ground
up change in pitch, and produce a reduction in static effect to produce the same lift coefficient. (PLT131,
source pressure and increase in indicated airspeed. AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-3
(PLT131, AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer (A) is incorrect because, if the same angle of attack is
Answer (B) is incorrect because, at slow airspeeds when taking off, maintained, an increase in lift coefficient will result. Answer (C) is
induced (not parasite) drag predominates. Answer (C) is incorrect incorrect because a lower angle of attack is required to produce the
because, when leaving ground effect, expect a decrease in stability same lift in ground effect.
and a nose-up change in moment.

ATM, ATS, ADX

ATM, ATS, ADX 8379-1. What is the absolute ceiling of an airplane?
8382. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the A— The point where the minimum rate of climb
pilot can control the airplane’s becomes lower than the optimum L/DMAX speed.
A— lift, gross weight, and drag. B— The altitude at which the aircraft is unable to
B— lift, airspeed, and drag. climb at more than 100 feet per minute.
C— lift and airspeed, but not drag. C— When the maximum rate of climb and the
maximum angle of climb speeds converge.
By changing the angle of attack, the pilot can control
lift, airspeed, and drag. Even the total load supported At the absolute ceiling, there is no excess of power
in flight by the wing may be modified by variations in and only one speed will allow steady level flight. Con-
angle of attack. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3 sequently, the absolute ceiling of the airplane produces
Answer (A) is incorrect because angle of attack cannot control the zero rate of climb. This occurs when the maximum rate
airplane’s gross weight. Answer (C) is incorrect because the pilot of climb and the maximum angle of climb speeds con-
can control the amount of induced drag by changing the angle of verge. (PLT131, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
attack.

Answers
8368 [A] 8375 [A] 8382 [B] 8399 [B] 8379 [B] 8379-1 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3–7

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Critical Engine and VMC

Because of “P-Factor” on most propeller-driven airplanes, the loss of one particular engine at high angles
of attack would be more detrimental to performance than the loss of the other. One of the engines has its
thrust line closer to the aircraft centerline (see Figure 3-2). The loss of this engine would more adversely
affect the performance and handling of the aircraft; therefore this is the “critical engine.”
For unsupercharged engines, VMC decreases
as altitude is increased. Stalls should never be
practiced with one engine inoperative because
of the potential for loss of control. Engine out
approaches and landings should be made the
same as normal approaches and landings.
Banking at least 5° into the good engine
ensures the airplane will be controllable at any
speed above the certificated VMC, that the airplane
will be in a minimum drag configuration for best
climb performance, and that the stall characteris-
tics will not be degraded. Engine out flight with the Figure 3-2
ball centered is never correct.

ATM Lift-off should be made at no less than VMC + 5. After

8357. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine lift-off, the airplane should be allowed to accelerate to
inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of the all-engine best-rate-of-climb speed VY, and then
a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the refer- the climb maintained at this speed with takeoff power
ence lines? until a safe maneuvering altitude is attained. (PLT459,
A— While maneuvering at minimum controllable AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3
airspeed or less to avoid overbanking.
B— When operating at any airspeed of VMC or greater
ATM
with only enough deflection to zero the side slip.
8360. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-
C— When practicing imminent stalls in a banked
engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC?
attitude of over 60°.
A— Heading.
Banking at least 5° into the good engine ensures that B— Heading and altitude.
the airplane will be controllable at any speed above the C— Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.
certificated VMC , that the airplane will be in a minimum
drag configuration for best climb performance, and that VMC can be defined as the minimum airspeed at which
the stall characteristics will not be degraded. Engine out the airplane is controllable when the critical engine is
flight with the ball centered is never correct. (PLT223, suddenly made inoperative, and the remaining engine
AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3 is producing takeoff power. This does not mean that the
airplane must be able to climb or even hold altitude. It
only means that a heading can be maintained. (PLT208,
ATM AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3
8358. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and
initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane?
Accelerate to
A— best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on
the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
B— VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at
maximum angle-of-climb airspeed.
C— an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and
climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

Answers
8357 [B] 8358 [C] 8360 [A]

3–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM ATM, ADX

8364. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed 8362. What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for
indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent? an airplane with unsupercharged engines?
A— Maximum single-engine rate of climb. A— None.
B— Maximum single-engine angle of climb. B— Increases with altitude.
C— Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine C— Decreases with altitude.
operation.
For an airplane without supercharged engines, VMC
The airspeed indicator in a twin-engine airplane is decreases as altitude is increased. Consequently, direc-
marked with a red radial line at the minimum controllable tional control can be maintained at a lower airspeed than
airspeed with the critical engine inoperative (VMC), and at sea level. (PLT314, AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3
a blue radial line at the best rate of climb airspeed with
one engine inoperative (VYSE ). (PLT132, AA.VII.B.K1)
— FAA-H-8083-3 ATM, ATS
9813-1. High density altitude can reduce turbojet aircraft
performance in which of the following ways?
ATM, ADX
A— It reduces the likelihood of maintaining laminar
8359. What procedure is recommended for an engine- flow over the airfoils as airspeed and altitude
out approach and landing? increase.
A— The flightpath and procedures should be almost B— It reduces thrust because there is a reduced
identical to a normal approach and landing. mass of gases to force out of the exhaust.
B— The altitude and airspeed should be considerably C— It reduces thrust because there is an increased
higher than normal throughout the approach. mass of gases that inhibits the outflow of
C— A normal approach, except do not extend the exhaust.
landing gear or flaps until over the runway
threshold. The engine’s compressor section has to work harder
when air density is decreased. Power capability is
Essentially, an engine-out approach and landing is the reduced at high density altitudes, and power use may
same as a normal approach and landing. (PLT223, have to be modulated to keep engine temperature within
AA.VII.C.K2) — FAA-H-8083-3 limits. (PLT005, AA.I.B.K3a) — FAA-H-8083-3

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8361. Which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin- 8363. Under what condition should stalls never be
engine airplane? practiced in a twin-engine airplane?
A— The one with the center of thrust closest to the A— With one engine inoperative.
centerline of the fuselage. B— With climb power on.
B— The one designated by the manufacturer which C— With full flaps and gear extended.
develops most usable thrust.
C— The one with the center of thrust farthest from the With full power applied to the operative engine, as the
centerline of the fuselage. airspeed drops below VMC , the airplane tends to roll as
well as yaw into the inoperative engine. This tendency
The critical engine is defined as the engine whose failure becomes greater as the airspeed is further reduced.
would most adversely affect performance or handling. Since this tendency must be counteracted by aileron
Because of “P-factor,” most propeller-driven airplanes control, the yaw condition is aggravated by aileron roll
do not develop symmetrical thrust at high angles of (the “down” aileron creates more drag than the “up”
attack. If the engine with the thrust line closest to the aileron). If a stall occurs in this condition, a violent roll
airplane centerline fails, the resulting yawing moment will into the dead engine may be experienced. (PLT459,
be greater than if the other engine had failed. (PLT347, AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3
AA.VII.B.K2) — FAA-H-8083-3

Answers
8364 [A] 8359 [A] 8361 [A] 8362 [C] 9813-1 [B] 8363 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3–9

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Maneuvering Flight
In a turn, centrifugal force is counterbalanced by a portion of the lift of the wing. The horizontal compo-
nent of lift turns the airplane and the vertical component of lift opposes gravity. When the pilot rolls the
airplane into a turn he must increase the total lift of the wing so that the vertical component is equal to
the airplane’s weight. This is done by increasing the angle of attack. If no compensation is made for the
loss of vertical component of lift in a turn, the aircraft will develop a sink rate.
Load factor is the ratio of the weight supported by the wings to the actual weight of the aircraft.
For example, if an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000
pounds in flight, the load factor would be 3 Gs. On the ground or in unaccelerated flight the load factor
is one. Conditions which can increase the load factor are vertical gusts (turbulence) and level turns. In a
level turn, the load factor is dependent only on the angle of bank. Airspeed, turn rate or aircraft weight
have no effect on load factor.
Rate of turn is the number of degrees per second at which the aircraft turns. The rate of turn is
dependent on both the aircraft’s airspeed and its angle of bank. To increase the rate of turn, the pilot
must increase the angle of bank or decrease the airspeed or both. The rate of turn will decrease if the
bank angle is decreased or if the airspeed is increased. The radius of turn is also dependent on both
the bank angle and the airspeed. If angle of bank is increased or airspeed is decreased, the radius of
turn will decrease. If bank angle is shallowed or if airspeed is increased, the radius of turn will increase.

ALL ALL
8349. If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle 8350. Why must the angle of attack be increased during
of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of a turn to maintain altitude?
lift and sink rate affected? A— Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift.
A— Lift increases and the sink rate increases. B— Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to
B— Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. the vertical component.
C— Lift decreases and the sink rate increases. C— Compensate for increase in drag.

When an airplane is banked, its lift can be broken into When an airplane is banked, its lift can be broken into
two vectors, a vertical component of lift and a horizontal two vectors, a vertical component of lift and a horizontal
component. If the airplane is to maintain altitude in the component. If the airplane is to maintain altitude in the
turn, the vertical component of lift must be equal to turn, the vertical component of lift must be equal to
the aircraft’s weight. This means that total lift must be the aircraft’s weight. This means that total lift must be
increased. Lift can be increased either by increasing increased. Lift can be increased either by increasing
airspeed or by increasing angle of attack. If the vertical airspeed or by increasing angle of attack. If the vertical
component of lift is less than the aircraft’s weight, the component of lift is less than the aircraft’s weight, the
airplane will descend. (PLT348, AA.IV.A.K2e) — FAA- airplane will descend. (PLT348, AA.IV.A.K2e) — FAA-
H-8083-3 H-8083-3
Answer (A) is incorrect because lift will decrease, not increase. Answer (B) is incorrect because angle of attack is increased in order
Answer (B) is incorrect because the sink rate increases as the lift to increase the vertical component of lift to equal weight. Answer (C)
decreases. is incorrect because additional thrust (power) is used to compensate
for increase in drag.

Answers
8349 [C] 8350 [A]

3 – 10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ALL
8347. What is load factor? 8354. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds
A— Lift multiplied by the total weight. were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight,
B— Lift subtracted from the total weight. the load factor would be
C— Lift divided by the total weight. A— 2 Gs.
B— 3 Gs.
Load factor is the ratio of the total load supported by the C— 9 Gs.
airplane’s wings to the actual weight of the airplane and
its contents, or the actual load supported by the wings’ Load factor is the ratio of the total load supported by the
lift divided by the total weight of the airplane. (PLT310, airplane’s wings to the actual weight of the airplane and
AA.IV.A.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-25 its contents, or the actual load supported by the wings
divided by the total weight of the airplane:
6,000 pounds ÷ 2,000 pounds = 3 Gs
ALL
9823. During a turn with constant power (PLT018, AA.IV.A.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— the aircraft nose will pitch down.
B— the aircraft will decelerate. ALL
C— the rate of descent will increase. 8353. Upon which factor does wing loading during a
level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?
While in a turn, part of the vertical component of lift has
been diverted to horizontal lift. If total lift is not increased A— Rate of turn.
(increase in angle of attack) the aircraft nose will pitch B— Angle of bank.
down. (PLT348, AA.IV.A.K2e) — FAA-H-8083-3 C— True airspeed.

Load factor is independent of airspeed and dependent

ALL on angle of bank; therefore, with a constant bank angle,
9740. During a skidding turn to the right, what is the load factor is not affected. There is no change in centrifu-
relationship between the component of lift and cen- gal force for any given bank — the load factor remains
trifugal force? the same. (PLT248, AA.IV.A.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— Centrifugal force is less than the horizontal lift Answer (A) is incorrect because in a coordinated turn, the rate of
turn does not have any impact on the load factor — it is determined
component and the load factor is increased. wholly by the angle of bank. Answer (C) is incorrect because true
B— Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift airspeed has no impact on the load factor.
component.
C— Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component
are equal, and the load factor is decreased. ALL
8396. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed
A skidding turn results from excess centrifugal force over on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-
the horizontal lift component, pulling the aircraft toward altitude turn
the outside of the turn. As centrifugal force increases, A— increases with an increase in airspeed.
the load factor also increases. (PLT234, AA.IV.A.K2e) B— remains constant regardless of airspeed
— FAA-H-8083-15 changes.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a slipping turn will occur if centrifu- C— decreases with an increase in airspeed.
gal force is less than horizontal lift. Answer (C) is incorrect because
centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal in a coordinated turn
and load factor will increase. For any given angle of bank, the load factor remains
constant. (PLT309, AA.IV.A.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8347 [C] 9823 [A] 9740 [B] 8354 [B] 8353 [B] 8396 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 11

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL For any given angle of bank, the rate of turn varies with
8351. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and the airspeed. A constant bank angle does not change
decrease the radius at the same time? the load factor. If the angle of bank is held constant and
A— Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease.
B— Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. The radius of turn will vary with airspeed. As airspeed
C— Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. is increased the radius will also increase. (PLT248,
AA.IV.A.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-25
Any increase in the angle of bank will increase the rate Answer (A) is incorrect because, at a constant bank angle, the
of turn and decrease the radius of turn. Turn radius higher airspeed will decrease the rate of turn to compensate for
added centrifugal force, allowing the load factor to remain the same.
will decrease with decreasing airspeed. (PLT348, Answer (B) is incorrect because, for any bank angle, the rate of
AA.IV.A.K2e) — FAA-H-8083-3 turn varies with the airspeed; the higher the speed, the slower the
rate of turn.

ALL
8352. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with ATM, ATS, ADX
the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but 8345-1. Generally, the turning performance of an air-
increasing airspeed? plane is defined by
A— Rate will decrease and radius will increase. A— structural and power limits at high altitude.
B— Rate will increase and radius will decrease. B— aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude.
C— Rate and radius will increase. C— control and structural limits at high altitude.

For any given angle of bank, the rate of turn varies with Each of the three limiting factors (aerodynamic, struc-
the airspeed. If the angle of bank is held constant and tural, and power) may combine to define the turning
the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease. performance of an airplane. Generally, aerodynamic and
The radius of turn will vary with airspeed. As airspeed structural limits predominate at low altitude while aero-
is increased the radius will also increase. (PLT248, dynamic and power limits predominate at high altitude.
AA.IV.A.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-3 The knowledge of this turning performance is particularly
Answer (B) is incorrect because to maintain a constant angle of bank necessary for effective operation of fighter and intercep-
while increasing airspeed, the radius of turn will increase. Answer tor types of airplanes. (PLT237, AA.IV.A.K2d) — ANA
(C) is incorrect because to maintain a constant angle of bank while
increasing airspeed, the rate of turn will decrease.
ATM, ATS, ADX
8345-2. A bank angle of 15° will increase induced drag
ALL
by about
8345. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on
a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle A— 3%.
of bank and altitude? B— 7%.
C— 15%.
A— The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a
decreased load factor. Due to the increased load factor in a coordinated turn,
B— The rate of turn will increase resulting in an there will be an increase in stall speed and—of greater
increased load factor. importance to engine-out performance—an increase in
C— The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no induced drag. A bank angle of 15 degrees will increase
changes in load factor. induced drag by about 7%. (PLT237, AA.IV.A.K2d) —
ANA

Answers
8351 [B] 8352 [A] 8345 [C] 8345-1 [B] 8345-2 [B]

3 – 12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Stability
Static stability describes the initial reaction of an aircraft after it has been disturbed from equilibrium in
one or more of its axes of rotation. If the aircraft has an initial tendency to return to its original attitude
of equilibrium, it has positive static stability. When it continues to diverge, it exhibits negative static
stability. If an aircraft tends to remain in its new, disturbed state, it has neutral static stability. Most
airplanes have positive static stability in pitch and yaw, and are close to neutrally stable in roll.
When an aircraft exhibits positive static stability in one of its axes, the term “dynamic stability”
describes the long term tendency of the aircraft. When an aircraft is disturbed from equilibrium and then
tries to return, it will invariably overshoot the original attitude and then pitch back. This results in a series
of oscillations. If the oscillations become smaller with time, the aircraft has positive dynamic stability. If
the aircraft diverges further away from its original attitude with each oscillation, it has negative dynamic
stability.
The entire design of an aircraft contributes to its stability (or lack of it) in each of its axes of rotation.
However, the vertical tail is the primary source of direction stability (yaw), and the horizontal tail is the
primary source of pitch stability. The center of gravity (CG) location also affects stability. If the CG is
toward its rearward limit, the aircraft will be less stable in both roll and pitch. As the CG is moved forward,
the stability improves. Even though an airplane will be less stable with a rearward CG, it will have some
desirable aerodynamic characteristics due to reduced aerodynamic loading of horizontal tail surface. This
type of an airplane will have a slightly lower stall speed and will cruise faster for a given power setting.

ALL ALL
8365. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude 8373. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude
remains in the new position after the controls have tends to return to its original position after the controls
been neutralized. have been neutralized.
A— Negative longitudinal static stability. A— Positive dynamic stability.
B— Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. B— Positive static stability.
C— Neutral longitudinal static stability. C— Neutral dynamic stability.

Neutral static stability is the initial tendency of an airplane Positive static stability is the initial tendency of the
to remain in a new position after its equilibrium has been airplane to return to the original state of equilibrium
disturbed. (PLT236, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-25 after being disturbed. (PLT236, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-
Answer (A) is incorrect because a negative longitudinal static H-8083-25
stability means the airplane would tend to move even further from Answer (A) is incorrect because positive dynamic stability refers to
the original position. Answer (B) is incorrect because, with neutral oscillations being dampened or decreasing. Answer (C) is incorrect
longitudinal dynamic stability, the airplane would continue to oscil- because neutral dynamic stability refers to oscillations continuing
late without a tendency to increase or decrease. without a tendency to increase or decrease.

ALL ALL
8372. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude 8366. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?
tends to move farther from its original position after the
controls have been neutralized. A— Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.
B— Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.
A— Negative static stability. C— Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.
B— Positive static stability.
C— Negative dynamic stability. A longitudinally unstable airplane has a tendency to dive
or climb progressively into a very steep dive or climb, or
Negative static stability is the initial tendency of the even a stall. (PLT213, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-25
airplane to continue away from the original state of Answer (B) is incorrect because longitudinal stability refers to pitch
equilibrium after being disturbed. (PLT213, AA.I.B.K3e) (not bank) oscillations. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is not
— FAA-H-8083‑25 considered a stability problem. Stability is the reaction of the air-
plane when its equilibrium is disturbed.

Answers
8365 [C] 8372 [A] 8373 [B] 8366 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 13

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ALL ATM, ATS, ADX

8367. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. 8380. What are some characteristics of an airplane
A— Motion about the longitudinal axis. loaded with the CG at the aft limit?
B— Motion about the lateral axis. A— Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and
C— Motion about the vertical axis. least stability.
B— Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and
Longitudinal stability is the quality which makes an air- least stability.
plane stable about its lateral axis. (PLT236, AA.I.B.K3e) C— Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and
— FAA-H-8083-25 highest stability.
Answer (A) is incorrect because motion about the airplane’s longitu-
dinal axis is lateral (not longitudinal) stability. Answer (C) is incorrect An airplane loaded with the CG at its aft limit will have
because motion about the vertical axis is directional stability. a lower stall speed, higher cruise speed, but be less
stable. (PLT240, AA.I.B.K5) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answer (B) is incorrect because an aft CG would cause the airplane
ALL
to have the lowest stall speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because an
8367-1. When does a typical aircraft exhibit reduced aft CG would cause an airplane to have the highest cruise speed
longitudinal stability? and the least stability.
A— With the center of gravity (CG) near the aft limit.
B— With the center of gravity (CG) near the forward ADX
limit. 8380-1. An airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit
C— With the center of gravity (CG) at a mid-range will
location.
A— fly more efficiently.
A tail-heavy condition has a serious effect on longitudi- B— be very unbalanced in lateral control forces.
nal stability and reduces the capability to recover from C— feel heavy in the longitudinal axis.
stalls and spins. (PLT236, AA.I.B.K5) — FAA-H-8083-25
The stick force gradient is low at low airspeeds; when
the airplane is at low speeds, high power, and with a
ALL CG positioned near the aft limit, the “feel” for airspeed
8376. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is will be weak. (PLT240) — ANA
loaded to the rear of its CG range?
A— Sluggish in aileron control. ATM, ATS, ADX
B— Sluggish in rudder control. 9921. An airplane loaded with the CG aft of the rear-
C— Unstable about the lateral axis. CG limit could
If an airplane is loaded too far rearward it may not A— make it easier to recover from stalls and spins.
dampen out a vertical displacement of the nose. B— make it more difficult to flare for landing.
Instead, when the nose is momentarily pulled up, it may C— increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress.
alternately climb and dive becoming steeper with each
oscillation. (PLT236, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-25 If an airplane is loaded too far rearward, it may not
Answer (A) is incorrect because an aft location of the CG has a dampen out a vertical displacement of the nose.
greater effect on the longitudinal stability, not the lateral (aileron) Instead, when the nose is momentarily pulled up, such
controllability. Answer (B) is incorrect because an aft CG has a as when flaring for landing, it may alternately climb and
greater effect on the longitudinal stability, not vertical (rudder) dive becoming steeper with each oscillation. (PLT240,
controllability.
AA.I.B.K5) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8367 [B] 8367-1 [A] 8376 [C] 8380 [A] 8380-1 [C] 9921 [B]

3 – 14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

High Speed Flight

Mach number is the ratio of the true airspeed to the speed of sound (TAS ÷ Speed of Sound). For
example, an aircraft cruising at Mach .80 is flying at 80% of the speed of sound. The speed of sound is
Mach 1.0.
A large increase in drag occurs when the air flow around the aircraft exceeds the speed of sound
(Mach 1.0). Because lift is generated by accelerating air across the upper surface of the wing, local air
flow velocities will reach sonic speeds while the aircraft Mach number is still considerably below the
speed of sound. With respect to Mach cruise control, flight speeds can be divided into three regimes—
subsonic, transonic and supersonic. The subsonic regime can be considered to occur at aircraft Mach
numbers where all the local air flow is less than the speed of sound. The transonic range is where
some but not all the local air flow velocities are Mach 1.0 or above. In supersonic flight, all the air flow
around the aircraft exceeds Mach 1.0. The exact Mach numbers will vary with each aircraft type but as
a very rough rule of thumb the subsonic regime occurs below Mach .75, the transonic regime between
Mach .75 and Mach 1.20, and the supersonic regime over Mach 1.20.
A limiting speed for a subsonic transport aircraft is its critical Mach number (MCRIT). That is the speed
at which airflow over the wing first reaches, but does not exceed, the speed of sound. At MCRIT there
may be sonic but no supersonic flow.
When an airplane exceeds its critical Mach number, a shock wave forms on the wing surface that
can cause a phenomenon known as shock stall. If this shock stall occurs symmetrically at the wing roots,
the loss of lift and loss of downwash on the tail will cause the aircraft to pitch down or “tuck under.” This
tendency is further aggravated in sweptwing aircraft because the center of pressure moves aft as the
wing roots shock stall. If the wing tips of a sweptwing airplane shock stall first, the wing’s center of pres-
sure would move inward and forward causing a pitch up motion. See Figure 3-3.
The less airflow is accelerated across the wing, the higher the critical Mach number (i.e., the maxi-
mum flow velocity is closer to the aircraft’s Mach number). Two ways of increasing MCRIT in jet transport
designs are to give the wing a lower camber and increase wing sweep. A thin airfoil section (lower
camber) causes less airflow acceleration. The sweptwing design has the effect of creating a thin airfoil
section by inducing a spanwise flow, thus increasing the effective chord length. See Figure 3-4.
Although a sweptwing design gives an airplane
a higher critical Mach number (and therefore a
higher maximum cruise speed), it results in some
undesirable flight characteristics. One of these is a
reduced maximum coefficient of lift. This requires
that sweptwing airplanes extensively employ high
lift devices, such as slats and slotted flaps, to get
acceptably low takeoff and landing speeds. The
purpose of high lift devices such as flaps, slats
and slots is to increase lift at low airspeeds and to
delay stall to a higher angle of attack.
Another disadvantage of the sweptwing design
is the tendency, at low airspeeds, for the wing tips
to stall first. This results in loss of aileron control
early in the stall, and in very little aerodynamic
buffet on the tail surfaces.

Figure 3-3. Local airstream Mach numbers

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 15

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Flight regimes are defined as follows:

Subsonic – Mach numbers below 0.75
Transonic – Mach numbers from 0.75 to 1.20
Supersonic – Mach numbers from 1.20 to 5.00
Hypersonic – Mach numbers above 5.00.
(PLT214, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA
Answer (B) is incorrect because .75 to 1.20 Mach would be transonic
flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1.20 to 2.50 Mach would be
supersonic flight.

ATM, ATS, ADX

8388. What is the highest speed possible without
supersonic flow over the wing?
A— Initial buffet speed.
B— Critical Mach number.
C— Transonic index.

The highest speed possible without supersonic flow is

called the Critical Mach Number. (PLT214, AA.I.D.K1)
— ANA

ATM, ATS, ADX

Figure 3-4. Effect of wing sweep on MCRIT 8389. What is the free stream Mach number which
produces first evidence of local sonic flow?
ATM, ATS, ADX A— Supersonic Mach number.
8387. Within what Mach range does transonic flight B— Transonic Mach number.
regimes usually occur? C— Critical Mach number.
A— .50 to .75 Mach. The highest speed possible without supersonic flow is
B— .75 to 1.20 Mach. called the Critical Mach Number. (PLT214, AA.I.D.K1)
C— 1.20 to 2.50 Mach. — ANA
Flight regimes are defined as follows:
Subsonic – Mach numbers below 0.75 ATM, ATS, ADX
Transonic – Mach numbers from 0.75 to 1.20 8389-1. When piloting a turbojet transport airplane,
Supersonic – Mach numbers from 1.20 to 5.00 what is a possible result when operating at speeds 5 to
Hypersonic – Mach numbers above 5.00. 10 percent above the critical Mach number?
(PLT032, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA A— Increased aerodynamic efficiency.
Answer (A) is incorrect because .50 to .75 Mach would be subsonic
B— Decreased control surface effectiveness.
flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because 1.20 to 2.50 Mach would be C— Occasional low speed Mach buffet warnings.
supersonic flight.
Critical Mach number is the boundary between sub-
sonic and transonic flight. When shock waves form on
ATM, ATS, ADX the aircraft, airflow separation followed by buffet and
8390. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight aircraft control difficulties can occur. Shock waves,
range normally occur? buffet, and airflow separation take place above critical
A— Below .75 Mach. Mach number. (PLT214, AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— From .75 to 1.20 Mach.
C— From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

Answers
8387 [B] 8390 [A] 8388 [B] 8389 [C] 8389-1 [B]

3 – 16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8392. What is the result of a shock-induced separation 8391-1. Swept wings
of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of A— improve specific fuel consumption.
a sweptwing aircraft? B— increase the critical Mach number.
A— A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. C— increase the speed of sound quotient.
B— A severe moment or “Mach tuck.”
C— Severe porpoising. One of the advantages of sweep in wing design is the
increase in the critical Mach number it creates. The
If the shock-induced separation occurs symmetrically increase in critical Mach number, force divergence Mach
near the wing root, there is an accompanying loss of number, and the Mach number at which the drag-rise
lift. A decrease in downwash on the horizontal tail will peaks will delay the onset of compressibility effects.
create a diving moment and the aircraft will “tuck under.” (PLT094, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA
(PLT214, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA
Answer (A) is incorrect because there is a sudden pitch down when
a shock-induced separation of airflow occurs symmetrically near the ATM, ATS, ADX
wing root of a sweptwing aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because 8391-2. For significant benefit, wing sweep must be
there is a diving moment when a shock-induced separation of airflow at least
occurs symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft.
A— 30 to 35°.
B— 45 to 50°.
ATM, ATS, ADX C— 55°or more to substantially delay compressibility
8395. What is the movement of the center of pressure effects.
when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-
stalled first? If sweepback is to be used at all, at least 30 to 35
A— Inward and aft. degrees must be used to produce any significant benefit.
B— Inward and forward. (PLT094, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA
C— Outward and forward.
ATM, ATS, ADX
Shock formation at the wing tip first moves the center of
8391-3. What is an advantage of a sweptback wing?
pressure forward and inboard and the resulting climbing
moment and tail downwash can contribute to “pitch up.” A— It allows shock wave induced flow separation.
(PLT214, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA B— The design delays the onset of compressibility.
Answer (A) is incorrect because when the wing tips are shock-stalled C— The wings tend to stall at the wing root first.
first, the center of pressure moves forward. Answer (C) is incorrect
because when the wing tips are shock-stalled first, the center of The sweptback wing design delays the onset of com-
pressure moves inward. pressibility. (PLT094, AA.I.B.K4) — ANA
Answer (A) is incorrect because sweptback wings are designed to
avoid the formation of shock waves. Answer (C) is incorrect because
ATM, ATS, ADX sweptback wings stall at the tip first.
8391. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback
design wing over a straightwing design?
ATM, ATS, ADX
A— The critical Mach number will increase
significantly. 8393. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?
B— Sweepback will increase changes in the A— The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.
magnitude of force coefficients due to B— The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.
compressibility. C— Severe pitchdown moment when the center of
C— Sweepback will accelerate the onset of pressure shifts forward.
compressibility effect.
When sweepback is combined with taper there is an
One of the most important advantages of sweep is an extremely powerful tendency for the wing tip to stall
increase in critical Mach number, force divergence Mach first. (PLT214, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA
number, and the Mach number at which the drag rise
will peak. In other words, the sweep will delay the onset
of compressibility effects. (PLT214, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA

Answers
8392 [B] 8395 [B] 8391 [A] 8391-1 [B] 8391-2 [A] 8391-3 [B]
8393 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 17

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX.

9803. Swept wings causes a significant 8394-3. While operating a turbojet transport airplane
A— increase in effectiveness of flaps. at high altitude, which of the following is most likely to
B— reduction in effectiveness of flaps. cause a low speed Mach buffet?
C— flap actuation reliability issue. A— Reducing the angle of attack after a high speed
Mach buffet.
Thin airfoil sections with sweepback impose distinct B— The airplane is flown too fast for its weight and
limitations on the effectiveness of flaps. (PLT266, altitude.
AA.I.D.K1) — ANA C— The airplane is flown too slow for its weight and
altitude.
ATM, ATS, ADX Mach buffet is a function of the speed of the airflow
8394-2. A turbojet airplane has an increase in specific over the wing—not necessarily the speed of the air-
range with altitude, which can be attributed to three craft. An aircraft flown at a speed too slow for its weight
factors. One of those factors is and altitude necessitating a high angle of attack is the
A— an increase in altitude in the troposphere results most likely situation to cause a low speed Mach buffet.
in higher energy air flow. (PLT094, AA.I.D.K9) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— an increase in proportion of velocity versus thrust
required.
C— decreased engine turbine speeds.

One of the three factors that leads to the increase in

specific range with altitude in a turbojet airplane is that
higher altitude increases the proportion of V/Tr (velocity
versus required thrust), which in turn provides a greater
true airspeed for the same amount of thrust.
The other two factors involved are that, (1) an increase
in tropospheric altitude produces a lower inlet air tem-
perature, which then reduces the specific fuel consump-
tion, and (2) an increase in altitude requires increased
engine RPM for cruise thrust, and then the specific fuel
consumption is reduced as the engine approaches the
normal-rated RPM. (PLT094, AA.I.D.K1) — ANA

Primary Flight Controls

Because of the high air loads, it is very difficult to move the flight control surfaces of jet aircraft with
just mechanical and aerodynamic forces. So flight controls are usually moved by hydraulic actuators.
Flight controls are divided into primary flight controls and secondary or auxiliary flight controls.
The primary flight controls are those that maneuver the aircraft in roll, pitch and yaw. These include the
ailerons, elevator and rudder. Secondary (or auxiliary) flight controls include tabs, trailing-edge flaps,
leading-edge flaps, spoilers and slats. See Figure 3-5.
Roll control of most jet aircraft is accomplished by ailerons and flight spoilers. The exact mix of
controls is determined by the aircraft’s flight regime. In low speed flight all control surfaces operate to
provide the desired roll control. As the aircraft moves into higher speed operations, control surface move-
ment is reduced to provide approximately the same roll response to a given input through a wide range
of speeds.
Many aircraft have two sets of ailerons—inboard and outboard. The inboard ailerons operate in all
flight regimes. The outboard ailerons work only when the wing flaps are extended and are automatically

Answers
9803 [B] 8394-2 [B] 8394-3 [C]

3 – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

locked out when flaps are retracted. This allows good roll response in low speed flight with the flaps
extended and prevents excessive roll and wing bending at high speeds when the flaps are retracted.
Spoilers increase drag and reduce lift on the wing. If raised on only one wing, they aid roll control by
causing that wing to drop. If the spoilers raise symmetrically in flight, the aircraft can either be slowed in
level flight or can descend rapidly without an increase in airspeed. When the spoilers rise on the ground
at high speeds, they destroy the wing’s lift which puts more of the aircraft’s weight on its wheels which
in turn makes the brakes more effective.
Often aircraft have both flight and ground spoilers. The flight spoilers are available both in flight
and on the ground. However, the ground spoilers can only be raised when the weight of the aircraft is
on the landing gear. When the spoilers deploy on the ground, they decrease lift and make the brakes
more effective. In flight, a ground-sensing switch on the landing gear prevents deployment of the ground
spoilers.
Vortex generators are small (an inch or so high) aerodynamic surfaces located in different places
on different airplanes. They prevent undesirable airflow separation from the surface by mixing the bound-
ary airflow with the high energy airflow just above the surface. When located on the upper surface of a
wing, the vortex generators prevent shock-induced separation from the wing as the aircraft approaches
its critical Mach number. This increases aileron effectiveness at high speeds.

Figure 3-5. Typical transport aircraft flight controls

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 19

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8326. Which of the following is considered a primary 8324. When are inboard ailerons normally used?
flight control? A— Low-speed flight only.
A— Slats. B— High-speed flight only.
B— Elevator. C— Low-speed and high-speed flight.
C— Dorsal fin.
During low-speed flight, all lateral control surfaces
The primary group of flight control surfaces consists of operate to provide maximum stability. This includes all
ailerons, elevators, and rudders. (PLT346, AA.I.A.K12) four ailerons, flaps, and spoilers. (PLT346, AA.I.A.K12)
— FAA-H-8083-25 — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (A) is incorrect because slats are high-lift devices, not a Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the inboard ailerons are
flight control device. Answer (C) is incorrect because a dorsal fin is used during both high- and low-speed flight.
not a primary flight control, but is used to provide directional stability.

ATM, ATS, ADX

ATM, ATS, ADX 8325. When are outboard ailerons normally used?
8327. Which of the following is considered an auxiliary
flight control? A— Low-speed flight only.
B— High-speed flight only.
A— Ruddervator. C— Low-speed and high-speed flight.
B— Upper rudder.
C— Leading-edge flaps. At high speeds, flaps are retracted and the outboard
ailerons are locked out of the aileron control system.
Auxiliary wing flight surfaces include trailing edge flaps, (PLT346, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25
leading edge flaps, speed brakes, spoilers, and leading Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the outboard ailerons are
edge slats. (PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25 locked when airspeed is increased and flaps are raised.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a ruddervator is a primary flight
control surface that incorporates both a rudder and elevator into
one surface. Answer (B) is incorrect because upper rudders (found ATM, ATS, ADX
on the B-727) are stand-by rudders, which are used in the event of
a hydraulic system failure. 8342. Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/
outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?
A— Increased surface area provides greater
ATM, ATS, ADX controllability with flap extension.
8343. Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport B— Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend
category airplane to twist the wingtips at high speeds.
A— can be effective when turbulence is encountered. C— Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed
B— is difficult and therefore not recommended. flight provides variable flight control feel.
C— should be considered to assist the yaw damper.
Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist
The lateral control of an airplane is accomplished by the wing tips at high speeds. This results in deformation
producing differential lift on the wings. The differential great enough to nullify the effect of aileron deflection
lift for control in roll is usually obtained by some type and create rolling moments opposite to the direction
of ailerons or spoilers. Rudders are not recommended commanded. Because of this, outboard ailerons are
as the primary method to achieve precise roll control used for slow flight only. (PLT346, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-
as they can contribute to dihedral effect. Excessive H-8083-25
dihedral effect can lead to many problems including
Dutch rolls. (PLT346, AA.I.A.K12) — ANA

Answers
8326 [B] 8327 [C] 8343 [B] 8324 [C] 8325 [A] 8342 [B]

3 – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8332. What is a purpose of flight spoilers? 9793. Upon landing, spoilers
A— Increase the camber of the wing. A— decrease directional stability on the landing rollout.
B— Reduce lift without decreasing airspeed. B— function by increasing tire to ground friction.
C— Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high C— should be extended after the thrust reversers
angles of attack. have been deployed.

The purpose of the spoilers is to disturb the smooth Spoilers should be deployed immediately after touch-
airflow across the top of the wing thereby creating an down because they are most effective at high speed. The
increased amount of drag and a reduced amount of lift. spoilers increase wheel loading by as much as 200%
(PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25 in the landing flap configuration. This increases the tire
Answer (A) is incorrect because flaps (not spoilers) increase the ground friction force making the maximum tire braking
camber of the wing. Answer (C) is incorrect because slots and slats and cornering forces available. (PLT170, AA.I.A.K12)
direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. — FAA-H-8083-3A

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8333. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? 9793-1. Aerodynamic braking is only effective up to
A— Reduce the wings’ lift upon landing. approximately
B— Increase the rate of descent without increasing A— 30% of touchdown speed.
aerodynamic drag. B— 40 to 50% of touchdown speed.
C— Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an C— 60 to 70% of touchdown speed.
airplane into a turn.
The aerodynamic drag of the airplane must be consid-
An additional purpose or use for flight spoilers is to ered during the landing roll. Because of the reduced
re­duce lift when the aircraft lands. (PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) induced drag when in ground effect, aerodynamic
— FAA-H-8083-25 braking will be of greatest significance only when
Answer (B) is incorrect because spoilers will increase the aero- partial stalling of the wing can be accomplished. The
dynamic drag. Answer (C) is incorrect because trim devices (not
spoilers) aid in balancing forces on an aircraft about the three axes.
reduced drag when in ground effect accounts for the
fact that the brakes are the most effective source of
deceleration for the majority of airplane configurations.
ATM, ATS, ADX At speeds less than 60 to 70% of the touchdown speed,
8336. Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? aerodynamic drag is so slight as to be of little use, and
therefore aerodynamic braking must be utilized to pro-
A— Reduce the wings’ lift upon landing.
duce continued deceleration of the airplane. (PLT247,
B— Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn.
AA.I.A.K12) — ANA
C— Increase the rate of descent without gaining
airspeed.
ATM, ATS, ADX
Ground spoilers are speed brakes extended on the 9793-2. Ground spoilers used after landing are
ground or landing roll to kill lift and keep the aircraft
from flying again after touchdown. (PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) A— more effective at low speed.
— FAA-H-8083-25 B— equally effective at any speed.
Answer (B) is incorrect because an aid in rolling an airplane into a
C— more effective at high speed.
turn is a flight spoiler. Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing
the rate of descent without gaining airspeed is the purpose of a Spoilers should be deployed immediately after touch-
flight spoiler. down because they are most effective at high speed.
(PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-3

Answers
8332 [B] 8333 [A] 8336 [A] 9793 [B] 9793-1 [C] 9793-2 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 21

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8341. Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex 8356. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed
generators? by using vortex generators
A— Delays the onset of drag divergence at A— directing high pressure air over the top of the
high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron wing or flap through slots and making the wing
effectiveness at high speeds. surface smooth.
B— Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in B— directing a suction over the top of the wing or
aileron effectiveness at low speeds. flap through slots and making the wing surface
C— Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will smooth.
progress from the root out to the tip of the wing. C— making the wing surface rough and/or directing
high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap
“Vortex generators” are used to delay or prevent shock through slots.
wave-induced boundary layer separation encountered in
transonic flight. Vortex generators create a vortex which Vortex generators prevent undesirable airflow separa-
mixes the boundary airflow with the high energy airflow tion from the surface by mixing the boundary airflow
just above the surface. This produces higher surface with the high energy airflow just above the surface. The
velocities and increases the energy of the boundary vortex generators mix the turbulent outer layers of the
layer. Thus, a stronger shock wave will be necessary boundary layers with the slow moving laminar lower
to produce airflow separation. (PLT266, AA.I.A.K12) — layers thus reenergizing them. (PLT266, AA.I.A.K12)
FAA-H-8083-25 — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because vortex generators are most effec-
tive at high speeds and the increased drag that they produce is not
their primary function. Answer (C) is incorrect because a stall strip ALL
breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the 9759. If the boundary layer separates
root out to the tip of the wing.
A— drag is decreased.
B— the wing is about to stall and stop producing lift.
C— ice will sublimate and not freeze.

The boundary layer gives any object an “effective” shape

that is usually slightly different from the physical shape.
The boundary layer may also separate from the body,
thus creating an effective shape much different from
the physical shape of the object. This change in the
physical shape of the boundary layer causes a dramatic
decrease in lift and an increase in drag. When this
happens, the airfoil has stalled. (PLT266, AA.V.A.K1)
— FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8341 [A] 8356 [C] 9759 [B]

3 – 22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Tabs
Flight control surfaces are sometimes equipped with servo tabs. These tabs are on the trailing edge of
the control surface and are mechanically linked to move opposite the direction of the surface. If the tab
moves up, the surface moves down. This “servo” movement moves the control surface. See Figure 3-6.
One method of modifying the downward tail load through changes in airspeed and configuration is
by using trim tabs. Trim tabs are moved by a separate trim control from the cockpit. Movement of the
trim tab (like the servo tab) is opposite that of the primary control surface.
Anti-servo tabs move in the same direction as
the primary control surface. This means that as the
control surface deflects, the aerodynamic load is
increased by movement of the anti-servo tab. This
helps to prevent the control surface from moving
to a full deflection. It also makes a hydraulically-
boosted flight control more aerodynamically effec-
tive than it would otherwise be.
Some jet aircraft have control tabs for use in
the event of loss of all hydraulic pressure. Move-
ment of the control wheel moves the control tab
which causes the aerodynamic movement of the
control surface. The control tab is used only during
manual reversion; that is, with the loss of hydraulic
pressure. They work the same as a servo tab but
only in the manual mode.

Figure 3-6

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8330. What is the purpose of a servo tab? 8338. Which direction from the primary control surface
A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual does a servo tab move?
reversion. A— Same direction.
B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper B— Opposite direction.
direction to move a primary flight control. C— Remains fixed for all positions.
C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-
deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. The servo tab attached to the flight control moves in the
opposite direction, to assist in moving and holding the
The servo tab moves in response to the cockpit control. flight control by way of the airflow against it. (PLT473,
The force of the airflow on the servo tab then moves AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25
the primary control surface. (PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — Answer (A) is incorrect because an anti-servo tab, as found on
FAA-H-8083-25 the trailing edge of stabilators, moves in the same direction as the
stabilator to provide a feel to the pilot control pressures. Answer
Answer (A) is incorrect because, in the event of “manual reversion”
(C) is incorrect because servo tabs move in response to the pilot’s
on some transport category aircraft, the control tabs would move
control movements.
the flight controls. Answer (C) is incorrect because the purpose of
the anti-servo tab is to preclude full deflection of control surfaces.

Answers
8330 [B] 8338 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 23

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8339. Which direction from the primary control surface 8329. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?
does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual
control surface is moved? reversion.
A— Same direction. B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper
B— Opposite direction. direction to move a primary flight control.
C— Remains fixed for all positions. C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-
deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.
Trim tabs remain fixed for all positions of primary control
surface movement until mechanically adjusted from the Anti-servo tabs add resistance and increase control
cockpit. A trim tab is hinged to its parent primary con- forces required as the surface moves toward its limit to
trol surface but is operated by an independent control. avoid overcontrolling and offset deflection caused by
(PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25 aerodynamic forces rather than control input. (PLT473,
Answer (A) is incorrect because once adjusted, trim tabs remain AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25
fixed to the primary control surface as the primary control surface Answer (A) is incorrect because in the event of “manual reversion”
is moved. Answer (B) is incorrect because a tab having a linkage the control tabs (not servo or anti-servo tabs) would move the flight
designed to move in the opposite direction from the main control controls. Answer (B) is incorrect because the anti-servo usually will
surface is called a balance tab. increase the pressure required to deflect the control surfaces (the
anti-servo tab moves in the same direction as the control surface).

ATM, ATS, ADX

8340. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? ATM, ATS, ADX
A— Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is 8337. Which direction from the primary control surface
increased to allow hands-off flight. does an anti-servo tab move?
B— Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds A— Same direction.
in flight allowing neutral control forces. B— Opposite direction.
C— Modify the downward tail load for various C— Remains fixed for all positions.
airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control
pressures. Anti-servo tabs move in the same direction as the
primary control surface. (PLT346, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-
The air flowing downward behind the trailing edge of H-8083-25
the wing strikes the upper surface of the horizontal Answer (B) is incorrect because a servo tab moves in the opposite
stabilizer, creating a downward tail force. The use of the direction from the primary control surface. Answer (C) is incorrect
trim tab will allow the pilot to reduce the hinge moment because trim tabs remain fixed during control inputs.
to zero and trim the control forces to zero for a given
flight condition. (PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25
ATM, ATS, ADX
Answer (A) is incorrect because the elevator trim tab permits
8328. What is the purpose of a control tab?
“hands-off” flight at any airspeed, not only when the airspeed is
increasing, and provides longitudinal balance. Answer (B) is incor- A— Move the flight controls in the event of manual
rect because the elevator trim tab adjusts the downward tail load for
various airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.
reversion.
B— Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper
direction to move a primary flight control.
C— Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-
deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

The flight controls of large jet airplanes are usually

hydraulically powered. They are equipped with control
tabs in the event of a total hydraulic failure. When this
happens, the control tab can still be moved with con-
trol wheel input and the tab displacement creates an
aerodynamic force which moves the control surface.
(PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because servo tabs reduce control forces
by deflecting primary flight controls in the proper direction. Answer
(C) is incorrect because this is the purpose and function of an anti-
servo tab.

Answers
8339 [C] 8340 [C] 8329 [C] 8337 [A] 8328 [A]

3 – 24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

High-Lift Devices
Sweptwing jet aircraft are equipped with a number of high-lift devices. These include leading edge flaps,
slots or slats, and trailing edge flaps. The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots, slats, etc.) is
to increase the maximum coefficient of lift (CLMAX) of the airplane and reduce the stall speed. The
takeoff and landing speeds are consequently reduced.
The two most common types of leading-edge devices are slats and Krueger flaps. The Krueger
flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its camber. The slat also extends from the
wing’s leading edge but it creates a gap or slot. This slot allows high energy from under the wing to flow
over the top of the wing that delays stall to a higher angle of attack than would otherwise occur. It is
common to find Krueger flaps and slats on the same wing.

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8384. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to 8385. What is the primary function of the leading edge
increase the flaps in landing configuration during the flare before
A— L/DMAX. touchdown?
B— lift at low speeds. A— Prevent flow separation.
C— drag and reduce airspeed. B— Decrease rate of sink.
C— Increase profile drag.
The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots,
slats, etc.) is to increase the CLMAX of the airplane and to The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots,
reduce the stall speed. The takeoff and landing speeds slats, etc.) is to increase the CLMAX of the airplane and to
are consequently reduced. (PLT266, AA.I.A.K12) — ANA reduce the stall speed. The takeoff and landing speeds
Answer (A) is incorrect because increasing the lift component is an are consequently reduced. (PLT305, AA.I.A.K12) — ANA
objective of high-lift devices which increase the ratio of L/D. The Answer (B) is incorrect because, to decrease the rate of sink, the
primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase lift at low speeds. coefficient of lift (CL) must increase. This is done by using leading-
Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing the drag to reduce air- edge lift devices, slats, flaps, and other devices with the correct
speed is the function of spoilers, not high-lift devices. power setting. Answer (C) is incorrect because spoilers increase
profile drag and are usually deployed after touchdown to reduce lift.

ATM, ATS, ADX

8331. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps? ATM, ATS, ADX
A— Increase the camber of the wing. 8334. What effect does extending leading edge slats
B— Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. have on an airplane’s wing?
C— Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high A— Increases the pitch up moment of an airfoil.
angles of attack. B— Increases the camber and CLMAX.
C— Allows for earlier airflow separation.
The leading-edge flap extends in a downward direc-
tion to increase the camber or total curve of the wing’s The primary purpose of high-lift devices (flaps, slots,
shape. (PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — ANA slats, etc.) is to increase the CLMAX of the airplane and
Answer (B) is incorrect because leading-edge flaps increase the reduce the stall speed. The takeoff and landing speeds
maximum lift coefficient at higher angles of attack. Answer (C) is are consequently reduced. (PLT473, AA.I.A.K12) — ANA
incorrect because a slot will direct airflow over the top of the wing
at high angles of attack.

Answers
8384 [B] 8331 [A] 8385 [A] 8334 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 25

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8386. What effect does the leading edge slot in the 9766. On which type of wing are flaps most effective?
wing have on performance? A— Thin wing.
A— Decreases profile drag. B— Thick wing.
B— Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher C— Sweptback wing.
angle.
C— Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. The effectiveness of flaps on a wing configuration
depends on many different factors, of which an impor-
The slot delays stall to a higher angle of attack. (PLT305, tant one is the amount of the wing area affected by the
AA.I.A.K12) — ANA flaps. Since a certain amount of the span is reserved
Answer (A) is incorrect because, at low angles of attack, there is little for ailerons, the actual wing maximum lift properties
or no profile drag increase. At high angles of attack, the slot delays will be less than that resulting from the flapped two-
the stall characteristics of the wing. Answer (C) is incorrect because dimensional section. If the basic wing has a low thick-
the leading-edge slot actually increases airflow on the upper wing
surface to allow higher angles of attack. ness, any type of flap will be less effective than on a
wing of greater thickness. Sweepback of the wing can
also cause a significant reduction in the effectiveness
ATM, ATS, ADX of flaps. (PLT266, AA.I.A.K12) — ANA
9765. What is a difference between the fowler flap
system and split flap system?
ATM, ATS, ADX
A— Fowler flaps produce the greatest change in 9771. When compared to plain flaps, split flaps
pitching moment.
B— Fowler flaps produce more drag. A— produce more lift with less drag.
C— Split flaps cause the greatest change in twisting B— produce only slightly more lift, but much more
loads. drag.
C— enhance takeoff performance in high density
Fowler flaps slide out and downward from the trailing conditions.
edge of the wing. When lowered, they increase the wing
area as well as the wing camber. The Fowler flap is The split flap produces a slightly greater change in
characterized by the largest increase in CLMAX with the CLMAX than the plain flap. However, a much larger
least changes in drag. The Fowler flap also creates the change in drag results from the substantial and turbulent
greatest change in pitching moment. Split flaps consist wake produced by this type of flap; although greater drag
of a hinged plate that deflects downward from the lower may be advantageous, for example, when steeper land-
surface of the wing and produce the least change in ing approaches over obstacles are required. (PLT266,
the pitching moments of a wing when it is lowered. The AA.I.A.K12) — ANA
deflection of a flap causes large nose-down moments
which create significant twisting loads on the structure
and pitching moments that must be controlled with the
horizontal tail. Unfortunately, the flap types producing the
greatest increases in CLMAX usually cause the greatest
twisting moments. The Fowler flap causes the greatest
change in twisting moment while the split flap causes
the least. (PLT266, AA.I.A.K12) — ANA

Answers
8386 [B] 9765 [A] 9766 [B] 9771 [B]

3 – 26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

Helicopter Aerodynamics
RTC RTC
8355. What is the ratio between the total load supported 8404. How does VNE speed vary with altitude?
by the rotor disc and the gross weight of a helicopter A— Remains the same at all altitudes.
in flight? B— Increases with an increase in altitude.
A— Power loading. C— Decreases with altitude an increase in altitude.
B— Load factor.
C— Aspect ratio. VNE will decrease with an increase in altitude. Several
factors contribute to VNE including temperature, weight,
The load factor is the actual load on the rotor blades at altitude, and design limitations. (PLT124) — FAA-H-
any time, divided by the gross weight (or apparent gross 8083-21
weight; i.e., when the helicopter is in a bank, the apparent
gross weight increases). (PLT310) — FAA-H-8083‑21
RTC
8405. What limits the high airspeed potential of a
RTC helicopter?
8402. How should the pilot execute a pinnacle-type A— Harmonic resonance.
approach to a rooftop heliport in conditions of high wind B— Retreating blade stall.
and turbulence? C— Rotor RPM limitations.
A— Steeper-than-normal approach, maintaining the
desired angle of descent with collective. The airflow over the retreating blade decreases and the
B— Normal approach, maintaining a slower-than- airflow over the advancing blade increases in forward
normal rate of descent with cyclic. flight. To correct for the resulting dissymmetry of lift,
C— Shallow approach, maintaining a constant line of the retreating blade must operate at increasingly higher
descent with cyclic. angles of attack as the forward speed increases, until
the retreating blade will stall at some high forward air-
High winds can cause severe turbulence and downdrafts speed. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-21
on the leeward side of rooftop helipads. Under these
conditions, a steeper-than-normal approach to avoid
downdrafts is desired. Angle of descent is maintained RTC
with collective and rate of closure (airspeed) is controlled 8406. What corrective action can a pilot take to recover
with cyclic. (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-21 from vortex ring state?
A— Increase forward speed and raise collective pitch.
B— Decrease forward speed and partially raise
RTC
collective pitch.
8403. How should a quick stop be initiated? C— Increase forward speed and partially lower
A— Raise collective pitch. collective pitch.
B— Apply aft cyclic.
C— Decrease RPM while raising collective pitch. By increasing forward speed and/or (if possible) partially
lowering collective pitch, the conditions necessary for
The deceleration (or slowing) is initiated by applying vortex ring state are reduced or eliminated. (PLT208)
aft cyclic to reduce forward speed and simultaneously — FAA-H-8083-21
lowering the collective to counteract any ballooning or
climbing tendency. (PLT170) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8355 [B] 8402 [A] 8403 [B] 8404 [C] 8405 [B] 8406 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 27

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

RTC RTC
8406-1. A traditional recovery from a vortex ring state 8409. During a hover, a helicopter tends to drift in the
condition is accomplished by direction of tail rotor thrust. What is this movement
A— increasing collective pitch. called?
B— increasing airspeed and/or partially lowering A— Translating tendency.
collective pitch. B— Transverse flow effect.
C— lateral cyclic thrust combined with an increase in C— Gyroscopic precession.
power and lateral antitorque thrust.
The entire helicopter has a tendency to move in the
The traditional recovery is accomplished by increasing direction of tail rotor thrust when hovering, which is often
airspeed and/or partially lowering collective pitch to exit referred to as “drift or translating tendency.” (PLT268)
the vortex. (PLT208) — FAA-H-8083-21 — FAA-H-8083-21
Answer (A) is incorrect because increasing collective pitch only
results in increasing the stalled area of the rotor, thereby increas-
ing the rate of descent. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the RTC
Vuichard recovery technique. 8410. What is the purpose of the lead-lag (drag) hinge in
a three-bladed, fully articulated helicopter rotor system?
RTC A— Offset lateral instability during autorotation.
8406-2. A loss of tail rotor effectiveness (LTE) is a B— Compensate for Coriolis effect.
condition that occurs when C— Provide geometric balance.
A— the flow of air through a tail rotor is altered in When a rotor blade of a three-bladed rotor system flaps
some way upward, the center mass of that blade moves closer
B— the flow of air through the main rotor is altered in to the axis of rotation and blade acceleration takes
some way. place. When the blade flaps downward, its center of
C— power to the tail rotor is substantially reduced or mass moves further from the axis of rotation and blade
lost. deceleration (or slowing) occurs. This increase and
decrease of blade velocity in the plane of rotation due
LTE is a condition that occurs when the flow of air
to mass movement is known as Coriolis effect. The
through a tail rotor is altered in some way, by changing
acceleration and deceleration actions (leading and lag-
the angle or speed at which the air passes through the
ging) are absorbed by dampers or the blade structure
rotating blades of the tail rotor disk. (PLT262) — FAA-
itself (hinges) in a three-bladed system. (PLT470) —
H-8083-21
FAA-H-8083-21

RTC
RTC
8408. The lift differential that exists between the advanc-
8411. During an autorotation (collective pitch full down),
ing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade
what is an increase in rotor RPM associated with?
is known as
A— An increase in airflow through the rotor system.
A— Coriolis effect.
B— A decrease in airflow through the rotor system.
B— dissymmetry of lift.
C— A decrease in airspeed.
C— translating tendency.
During an autorotation, the flow of air is upward through
Dissymmetry of lift is created by horizontal flight or by
the rotor. The portion of the blade that produces the
wind during hovering flight, and is the difference in lift
forces causing the rotor to turn in autorotation (approxi-
that exists between the advancing blade of the rotor
mately 25 to 70% of the radius outward from the center)
disc and the retreating blade of the rotor disc. (PLT470)
is the driving region. An increase in the aerodynamic
— FAA-H-8083-21
forces along the driving region (increase in the airflow
through the rotor) tends to speed up the blade rotation.
(PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8406-1 [B] 8406-2 [A] 8408 [B] 8409 [A] 8410 [B] 8411 [A]

3 – 28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

RTC RTC
8412. What corrective action can a pilot take to prevent 8418. How is helicopter climb performance most
a retreating blade stall at its onset? adversely affected?
A— Reduce collective pitch and increase rotor RPM. A— Higher-than-standard temperature and high
B— Increase collective pitch and increase rotor RPM. relative humidity.
C— Reduce collective pitch and decrease rotor RPM. B— Lower-than-standard temperature and high
relative humidity.
At the onset of blade stall vibration, the pilot should C— Higher-than-standard temperature and low
reduce collective pitch, increase rotor RPM, reduce relative humidity.
forward airspeed and minimize maneuvering. (PLT470)
— FAA-H-8083-21 High elevations, high temperatures, and high moisture
content (relative humidity) all contribute to high density
altitude, which lessens helicopter performance. The
RTC thinner air at high density altitudes reduces the amount
8413. Which is a major warning of approaching retreat- of lift of the rotor blades, and unsupercharged engines
ing blade stall? produce less power. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-21
A— High frequency vibration.
B— Tendency to roll opposite the stalled side of the
RTC
rotor.
C— Pitchup of the nose. 8420. What causes Coriolis effect?
A— Differential thrust of rotor blades.
The major warnings of approaching retreating blade B— Changing angle of attack of blades during
stall are: low-frequency vibration equal to the number of rotation.
blades per revolution of the main rotor system, pitchup of C— Shift in center of mass of flapping blade.
the nose and tendency for the helicopter to roll towards
the stalled (retreating blade) side of the rotor system. When a rotor blade of a three-bladed rotor system flaps
(PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21 upward, the center mass of that blade moves closer
to the axis of rotation and blade acceleration takes
place. When the blade flaps downward, its center of
RTC mass moves further from the axis of rotation and blade
8417. How does high density altitude affect helicopter deceleration (or slowing) occurs. This increase and
performance? decrease of blade velocity in the plane of rotation due
A— Engine and rotor efficiency are increased. to mass movement is known as Coriolis effect. (PLT197)
B— Engine and rotor efficiency are reduced. — FAA-H-8083-21
C— Engine efficiency is reduced, but rotor efficiency
is increased.
RTC
High elevations, high temperatures, and high moisture 8421. Why are the rotor blades more efficient when
content (relative humidity) all contribute to high density operating in ground effect?
altitude, which lessens helicopter performance. The A— Induced drag is reduced.
thinner air at high density altitudes reduces the amount B— Induced angle of attack is increased.
of lift of the rotor blades, and unsupercharged engines C— Downwash velocity is accelerated.
produce less power. (PLT124) — FAA-H-8083-21
When a helicopter is operated near the surface, the
downwash velocity of the rotor blades cannot be fully
developed. The reduction in downwash velocity causes
the induced angle of attack of each rotor blade to be
reduced, which causes the induced drag to be less.
(PLT237) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8412 [A] 8413 [C] 8417 [B] 8418 [A] 8420 [C] 8421 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 3 – 29

Chapter 3 Aerodynamics

RTC RTC
8422. What result does a level turn have on the total 8425. Under what condition would it be necessary
lift required and load factor with a constant airspeed? to cause the tail rotor to direct thrust to the left on an
A— Lift required remains constant and the load factor American-made helicopter?
increases. A— To maintain heading with a left crosswind.
B— Lift required increases and the load factor B— To counteract the drag of the transmission during
decreases. autorotation.
C— Both total lift force and load factor increase. C— To execute hovering turns to the right.

When a helicopter is placed in a bank, the resultant lift- The capability for tail rotors to produce thrust to the
ing force acts more horizontally and less vertically. To left (negative pitch angle) is necessary because during
maintain a level turn, the resultant lifting force (total lift autorotation, the drag of the transmission (with no torque
force) must be increased. When a helicopter assumes effect present) tends to yaw the nose to the left, in the
a curved flight path, centrifugal force causes additional same direction that the main rotor is turning. (PLT470)
stresses (load factor) to be imposed. (PLT248) — FAA- — FAA-H-8083-21
H-8083-21

RTC
RTC 9318. Which statement describes the term “V TOSS”?
8423. What causes a helicopter to turn? A— The takeoff safety speed in a turbine-engine
A— Centrifugal force. powered transport category airplane.
B— Horizontal component of lift. B— The takeoff safety speed in a Category A
C— Greater angle of attack of rotor blades on upward helicopter.
side of the rotor disc. C— The takeoff stall speed in the takeoff
configuration in a turbopropeller powered
When a helicopter is placed in a bank, the rotor disc is airplane.
tilted sideward causing the horizontal component of lift
to be increased. The increased horizontal lift component VTOSS means takeoff safety speed for Category A heli-
pulls the helicopter from its straight course. (PLT248) copters. (PLT466) — 14 CFR §1.2
— FAA-H-8083-21

RTC
RTC 9831. A level attitude in flight in a helicopter indicates
8424. What is the primary purpose of the tail rotor A— acceleration.
system? B— descent.
A— Maintain heading during forward flight. C—stable flight.
B— Act as a rudder to assist in coordinated turns.
C— Counteract the torque effect of the main rotor. In straight-and-level, unaccelerated forward flight, lift
equals weight and thrust equals drag (straight-and-level
As the main rotor of a helicopter turns in one direction, flight is flight with a constant heading and at a constant
the fuselage tends to rotate in the opposite direction altitude). If lift exceeds weight, the helicopter climbs; if
(Newton’s Third Law of Motion: For every action there lift is less than weight, the helicopter descends. If thrust
is an equal and opposite reaction). This tendency to exceeds drag, the helicopter speeds up; if thrust is less
rotate is called torque. The tail rotor is used to produce than drag, it slows down. (PLT219) — FAA-H-8083-21
thrust to counteract the torque effect of the main rotor.
(PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8422 [C] 8423 [B] 8424 [C] 8425 [B] 9318 [B] 9381 [C]

3 – 30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 4
Performance
Engine Performance 4–3
Helicopter Systems 4–9
Takeoff Performance Terminology 4 – 10
Calculating V-Speeds 4 – 15
CRJ200 V-Speeds 4 – 15
Q400 V-Speeds 4 – 15
Transport Aircraft 2 V-Speeds 4 – 15
Transport Aircraft 1 V-Speeds 4 – 16
Calculating Takeoff Power 4 – 20
CRJ200 Takeoff Thrust Settings 4 – 20
Q400 Takeoff Power 4 – 20
Transport Aircraft 2 Takeoff EPR 4 – 20
Climb Performance 4 – 22
CRJ200 Performance Tables 4 – 22
Q400 Performance Tables 4 – 23
Q400 Climb and Cruise Power Tables 4 – 23
Transport Aircraft 2 Climb Performance Tables 4 – 23
Transport Aircraft 2 Climb and Cruise Power Tables 4 – 23
Cruise Performance 4 – 29
Landing Considerations 4 – 30
Landing Performance Tables and Graphs 4 – 34
Miscellaneous Performance 4 – 37
Engine-Out Procedures 4 – 41
C208 Aircraft Performance 4 – 46
Cessna 208 Performance Tables 4 – 53
Commuter Aircraft Performance 4 – 56
Helicopter Performance 4 – 70

(continued)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4–1

Chapter 4 Performance

Flight Planning Graphs and Tables 4 – 78

Typical Flight Logs 4 – 83
Computation of Temperature at Cruise Altitude 4 – 83
Computation of True Airspeed Using Mach Number 4 – 83
Specific Range 4 – 84

4–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Engine Performance
Note applicable to Chapters 4 and 5: The ATP Single-engine exam (ATS) focuses on the Cessna
208 and the ATP Multi-engine exam (ATM) focuses on the Bombardier CRJ200 and Q400.
There are four types of engines in use on modern airplanes: reciprocating engine, turboprop
engine, turbofan engine, and turbojet engine. The type of engine selected for a particular airplane
design depends primarily on the speed range of the aircraft. The reciprocating engine is most efficient
for aircraft with cruising speeds below 250 MPH, the turboprop works best in the 250 MPH to 450 MPH
range and the turbofan and turbojet engines are most efficient above 450 MPH.
Manifold pressure (MAP) is a measurement of the power output of a reciprocating engine. It is
basically the pressure in the engine’s air inlet system. In a normally-aspirated (unsupercharged) engine,
the MAP will drop as the aircraft climbs to altitude. This severely limits a piston-powered airplane’s
altitude capability.
Most piston-powered airplanes flown by air carriers are turbocharged. On this type of engine, exhaust
gas from the engine is used as a power source for a compressor that in turn raises the MAP at any given
altitude. The flow of exhaust gas to the turbocharger is controlled by a device called a waste gate.
Turbocharging allows an aircraft to fly at much higher altitudes than it would be able to with normally-
aspirated engines. The term critical altitude is used to describe the effect of turbocharging on the
aircraft’s performance. The critical altitude of a turbocharged reciprocating engine is the highest altitude
at which a desired manifold pressure can be maintained.
The pilots of reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft must be very careful to observe the published
limits on manifold pressure and engine RPM. In particular, high RPM and low MAP can produce severe
wear, fatigue and damage.
Turboprops, turbofans and turbojet engines are types of gas turbine engines. Turbine engines are
classified by the type of compressors they use—centrifugal flow, axial flow, and centrifugal-axial flow.
All gas turbine engines consist of an air inlet section, a compressor section, the combustion section, the
turbine section and the exhaust. Air enters the inlet at roughly ambient temperature and pressure. As
it passes through the compressor the pressure increases and so does the temperature due to the heat
of compression. Bleed air is tapped off the compressor for such accessories as air conditioning and
thermal anti-icing.
The section connecting the compressor and the combustion sections is called the diffuser. In the
diffuser, the cross sectional area of the engine increases. This allows the air stream from the compressor
to slow and its pressure to increase. In fact, the highest pressure in the engine is attained at this point.
Next, the air enters the combustion section where it is mixed with fuel and the mixture is ignited. Note
that after the initial start of the engine there is no need for an ignition system that operates continuously
(such as the spark plugs in a piston engine) because the uninterrupted flow of fuel and air will sustain
combustion after the initial “light off.” The combustion of the fuel-air mixture causes a great increase in
volume and because there is higher pressure at the diffuser, the gas exits through the turbine section.
The temperature of the gas rises rapidly as it passes from the front to the rear of the combustion sec-
tion. It reaches its highest point in the engine at the turbine inlet. The maximum turbine inlet temperature
is a major limitation on turbojet performance, and without cooling, it could easily reach up to 4,000°F,
far beyond the limits of the materials used in the turbine section. To keep the temperature down to an
acceptable 1,100° to 1,500°F, surplus cooling air from the compressor is mixed aft of the burners.
The purpose of the turbine(s) is to drive the compressor(s) and they are connected by a drive shaft.
Since the turbines take energy from the gas, both the temperature and pressure drop.
(continued)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4–3

Chapter 4 Performance

The gases exit the turbine section at very high velocity into the tailpipe. The tailpipe is shaped so
that the gas is accelerated even more, reaching maximum velocity as it exits into the atmosphere. See
Figure 4-1.
Combinations of slow airspeed and high engine RPM can cause a phenomenon in turbine engines
called compressor stall. This occurs when the angle of attack of the engine’s compressor blades
becomes excessive and they stall. If a transient stall condition exists, the pilot will hear an intermittent
“bang” as backfires and flow reversals in the compressor take place. If the transient condition develops
into a steady state stall, the pilot will hear a loud roar and experience severe engine vibrations. The
steady state compressor stall has the most potential for severe engine damage, which can occur literally
within seconds of the onset of the stall.
If a compressor stall occurs in flight, the pilot should reduce fuel flow, reduce the aircraft’s angle of
attack and increase airspeed.
The turboprop is a turbine engine that drives a conventional propeller. It can develop much more
power per pound than can a piston engine and is more fuel efficient than the turbojet engine. Compared
to a turbojet engine, it is limited to slower speeds and lower altitudes (25,000 feet to the tropopause).
The term equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) is used to describe the total engine output. This term
combines its output in shaft horsepower (used to drive the propeller) and the jet thrust it develops.
As the density altitude is increased, engine performance will decrease. When the air becomes less
dense, there is not as much oxygen available for combustion and the potential thrust output is decreased
accordingly. Density altitude is increased by increasing the pressure altitude or by increasing the ambient
temperature. Relative humidity will also affect engine performance. Reciprocating engines in particular
will experience a significant loss of BHP (Brake Horsepower). Turbine engines are not affected as much
by high humidity and will experience very little loss of thrust.

Figure 4-1. Turbojet engine

4–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ALL
9072. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged- 9068-1. How are turbine engines classified?
reciprocating engine? A— The type of compressor or combination of
A— The highest altitude at which a desired manifold compressors they use.
pressure can be obtained. B— The method in which the air/fuel mixture is
B— Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned ignited.
to best power ratio. C— The flow of air through the engine and how power
C— The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP is produced.
can be obtained.
Turbine engines are classified by the type of compres-
The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating sors they use—centrifugal flow, axial flow, and centrif-
engine is the highest altitude at which a desired MAP can ugal-axial flow. (PLT365, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
be maintained. (PLT343, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because critical altitude is the highest alti-
tude at which a manifold pressure can be obtained. Answer (C) is ALL
incorrect because BMEP is pressure representing the mean gas 9058. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected
load on the piston during the power stroke. to the highest temperature?
A— Compressor discharge.
ALL B— Fuel spray nozzles.
9073. What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbo- C— Turbine inlet.
charged-reciprocating engine?
The highest temperatures in any turbine engine will occur
A— Supercharger gear ratio. at the turbine inlet. This TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature)
B— Exhaust gas discharge. is usually the limiting factor in the engine operation.
C— Throttle opening. (PLT499, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
A turbocharger drives exhaust gas from the engine.
The waste gate controls the flow of the exhaust gas ALL
through the turbocharger’s turbine. (PLT343, AA.I.A.K2) 8394. A hot start in a turbine engine is caused by
— FAA-H-8083-25
A— failed ignition.
Answer (A) is incorrect because supercharger gear ratio is not
controlled by the waste gate. Answer (C) is incorrect because the B— the engine’s failure to accelerate.
throttle opening sets the desired manifold pressure. C— too much fuel in the combustion chamber.

A hot start occurs when the exhaust gas temperature

ALL exceeds the safe limit of an aircraft. Caused by either
9068. Under normal operating conditions, which combi- too much fuel entering the combustion chamber or
nation of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, insufficient turbine RPM, this condition is also known
fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating as a hung start. (PLT499, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
engines?
A— High RPM and low MAP.
ALL
B— Low RPM and high MAP.
8394-1. What could cause a turbine engine hot start?
C— High RPM and high MAP.
A— Lack of airflow due to insufficient turbine RPM.
The most severe rate of wear and fatigue damage B— Inlet and compressor airflow imbalance.
occurs at high RPM and low MAP. (PLT365, AA.I.A.K2) C— Insufficient fuel in the combustion chamber.
— FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because while low RPM and high MAP A hot start occurs when the exhaust gas temperature
produce severe wear to high performance reciprocating engines, exceeds the safe limit of an aircraft. Caused by either
the most damage is done by high RPM and low manifold pressure. too much fuel entering the combustion chamber or
Answer (C) is incorrect because a high RPM and a low MAP produce
the most severe wear to high performance reciprocating engines.
insufficient turbine RPM, this condition is also known
as a hung start. (PLT499, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9072 [A] 9073 [B] 9068 [A] 9068-1 [A] 9058 [C] 8394 [C]
8394-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4–5

Chapter 4 Performance

ALL At a low RPM, sudden full power application will tend

9060. The most important restriction to the operation to overfuel the engine resulting in possible compressor
of turbojet or turboprop engines is surge, excessive turbine temperatures, compressor stall,
A— limiting compressor speed. and/or flameout. To prevent this, various limiters such as
B— limiting exhaust gas temperature. compressor bleed valves are contained in the system
C— limiting torque. and serve to restrict the engine until it is at an RPM at
which it can respond to a rapid acceleration demand
The highest temperatures in any turbine engine will occur without distress. (PLT499, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-3
at the turbine inlet. This TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature)
is usually the limiting factor in the engine operation.
In many engines, TIT is measured indirectly as EGT ALL
(Exhaust Gas Temperature). (PLT499, AA.I.A.K2) — 9065. What indicates that a compressor stall has
FAA-H-8083-25 developed and become steady?
Answer (A) is incorrect because the turbine section is the most A— Strong vibrations and loud roar.
critical element of the turbojet engine. Temperature control is more B— Occasional loud “bang” and flow reversal.
restrictive than compressor speed, which may operate above C— Complete loss of power with severe reduction in
10,000 RPM continuously. Answer (C) is incorrect because torque
is a performance measure used on turbopropeller airplanes, but airspeed.
not generally applicable to turbojet engines. The most important
restriction is temperature, even though in cooler weather a torque If a compressor stall is transient and intermittent, the indi-
limitation may be reached before the temperature limitation in a cation will be an intermittent “bang” as backfire and flow
turbopropeller airplane.
reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes
steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from
ALL the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam-
9064. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must
be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting,
A— Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing
shuddering. airspeed. (PLT343, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud
Answer (B) is incorrect because this describes an indication of a
whine. transient stall. Answer (C) is incorrect because a compressor stall
C— Intermittent “bang,” as backfires and flow will not cause a complete loss of power.
reversals take place.

If a compressor stall is transient and intermittent, the indi- ALL

cation will be an intermittent “bang” as backfire and flow 9066. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest
reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes potential for severe engine damage?
steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from A— Intermittent “backfire” stall.
the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam- B— Transient “backfire” stall.
age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must C— Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting,
lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing If a compressor stall is transient and intermittent, the indi-
airspeed. (PLT343, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25 cation will be an intermittent “bang” as backfire and flow
Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes a developed and reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes
steady stall. Answer (B) is incorrect because a transient stall is steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from
characterized by an intermittent “bang.”
the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam-
age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must
ALL be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting,
9768. What prevents turbine engines from developing lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing
compressor stalls? airspeed. (PLT343, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— Deice valves-fuel heat.
B— TKS system.
C— Compressor bleed valves.

Answers
9060 [B] 9064 [C] 9768 [C] 9065 [A] 9066 [C]

4–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ALL
8974. Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected 9067-1. While on an ILS approach, what is the proper
to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces? way to recover from an impending stall?
A— Turbine wheel(s). A— Engaging the autopilot.
B— Turbine vanes. B— Changing flap settings.
C— Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s). C— Reducing the angle of attack.

The turbine wheels are found at the back of the turbine The most important action to take to recover from an
section, in the area of very high temperatures and high impending stall or a full stall is to reduce the angle of
centrifugal forces. Very hot, high pressure gases enter attack. (PLT343, AA.V.C.K5) — FAA-H-8083-3
the turbine section from the combustor. The function
of the gas generator’s turbine wheels is to transfer the
energy from the hot, high pressure gases to drive the ALL
shaft which is connected to the compressor wheel at 9070. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turbo-
the front of the engine. This in turn compresses air into prop engine is a measure of
the combustor where fuel is added and ignited. During A— turbine inlet temperature.
normal operations, the turbine wheel rotates at many B— shaft horsepower and jet thrust.
thousands of RPM. (PLT499, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H- C— propeller thrust only.
8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because although turbine vanes (inlet guide Turboprop engines get 15 to 25% of their total thrust
vanes) are exposed to higher temperatures, they are stationary and output from jet exhaust. ESHP (Equivalent Shaft Horse-
thus are not subject to centrifugal forces. Answer (C) is incorrect power) is the term used to describe the shaft horsepower
because turbine wheels, or disks, with their attached blades, are the
most highly stressed components on a turbojet engine. applied to the propeller plus this jet thrust. (PLT500,
AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25

ALL
9067. What recovery would be appropriate in the event ALL
of compressor stall? 9071. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turbo-
prop engine is normally available in which altitude range?
A— Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the
throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the A— 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet.
compressor blades, creating more airflow. B— 25,000 feet to the tropopause.
B— Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the C— The tropopause to 45,000 feet.
throttle again and decrease the aircraft’s angle of
attack. Minimum specific fuel consumption of a turboprop
C— Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow engine will be obtained in an altitude range of 25,000 to
and decrease the angle of attack on one or more 35,000 feet. The tropopause will be in the neighborhood
compressor blades. of 35,000 feet depending on the season and latitude.
(PLT130, AA.I.A.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25
If a compressor stall is transient and intermittent, the indi-
cation will be an intermittent “bang” as backfire and flow
ALL
reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes
9059. What effect would a change in ambient temperature
steady, strong vibration and a loud roar develop from
or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?
the continuous flow reversal. The possibility of dam-
age is immediate from a steady stall. Recovery must A— As air density decreases, thrust increases.
be accomplished quickly by reducing throttle setting, B— As temperature increases, thrust increases.
lowering the airplane angle of attack, and increasing C— As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
airspeed. (PLT343, AA.I.A.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
Turbine engine thrust varies directly with air density.
As air density decreases, so does thrust. An increase
in temperature will decrease air density. (PLT127,
AA.I.B.K3a) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8974 [A] 9067 [B] 9067-1 [C] 9070 [B] 9071 [B] 9059 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4–7

Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ALL
9061. As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output 9063. What effect, if any, does high ambient tempera-
will ture have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
A— increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in A— Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air
thin air. density.
B— remain the same since compression of inlet air B— Thrust will remain the same, but turbine
will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. temperature will be higher.
C— decrease due to higher density altitude. C— Thrust will be higher because more heat energy
is extracted from the hotter air.
Thrust output decreases with increasing density altitude.
Decreasing air pressure increases density altitude. Turbine engine thrust varies directly with air density.
(PLT127, AA.I.B.K3a) — FAA-H-8083-25 As air density decreases, so does thrust. An increase
in temperature will decrease air density. (PLT127,
AA.I.B.K3a) — FAA-H-8083-25
ALL
9061-1. Low pressure air decreases aircraft perfor-
mance because ALL
A— the air is denser than higher pressure air. 9069. What effect does high relative humidity have upon
B— the air is less dense than high pressure air. the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?
C— air expands in the engine during the combustion A— Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are
process. affected.
B— Reciprocating engines will experience a
Thrust output decreases with increasing density altitude. significant loss of BHP.
Decreasing air pressure increases density altitude. C— Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss
(PLT127, AA.I.B.K3a) — FAA-H-8083-25 of thrust.

While turbojet engines are almost unaffected by high

ALL relative humidity, reciprocating engines will experience
9062. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon a significant loss of BHP (Brake Horsepower). (PLT365,
the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a AA.I.B.K3a) — FAA-H-8083-25
turboprop engine? Answer (A) is incorrect because both reciprocating and turbojet
A— Lower air density and engine mass flow will engines are affected by high relative humidity to some degree.
Answer (C) is incorrect because turbojet engines will have a negli-
cause a decrease in power. gible loss of thrust.
B— Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase
in usable power (ESHP) and thrust.
C— Power will remain the same but propeller
efficiency will decrease.

As altitude is increased, the ESHP of a turboprop

engine will decrease due to lower engine mass flow
and decreased propeller efficiency. (PLT127, AA.I.B.K2)
— FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9061 [C] 9061-1 [B] 9062 [A] 9063 [A] 9069 [B]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

Helicopter Systems
RTC RTC
8407. Which type rotor system is more susceptible to 8415. What type frequency vibration is associated with
ground resonance? the main rotor system?
A— Fully articulated rotor system. A— Low frequency.
B— Semi-rigid rotor system. B— Medium frequency.
C— Rigid rotor system. C— High frequency.

Due to the lead/lag of the blades in a fully articulated Abnormal vibrations in the low-frequency range (100 to
rotor system, a shock from a landing gear striking the 400 cycles per minute) are always associated with the
surface can be transmitted through the fuselage to the main rotor system, and will be somewhat related to the
rotor, forcing the blades straddling the contact point rotor RPM and the number of blades of the main rotor.
closer together and unbalancing the rotor system. (PLT472) — FAA-H-8083-21
This can cause a pendulum-like oscillation which will
increase rapidly unless immediate corrective action is
taken. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21 RTC
9800. A medium or higher frequency vibration mainly
present in the anti-torque pedals is
RTC
A— usually traceable to engine cooling fan assembly.
9781. Ground resonance occurs when B— probably caused by the tail rotor.
A— a fully articulated rotor system is unbalanced. C— to be expected and accepted as normal.
B— a semi-rigid rotor system is out of balance.
C— a pilot lands with over inflated tires. Medium-frequency vibrations are a result of trouble
with the tail rotor in most helicopters. Improper rigging,
Ground resonance is an aerodynamic phenomenon imbalance, defective blades, or bad bearings in the tail
associated with fully articulated rotor systems. It devel- rotor are all sources of these vibrations. If the vibration
ops when the rotor blades move out of phase with each occurs only during turns, the trouble may be caused by
other and cause the rotor disc to become unbalanced. insufficient tail rotor flapping action. (PLT472) — FAA-
(PLT470) — FAA-H-8083-21 H-8083-21

RTC RTC
8414. What type frequency vibration is associated with 8416. What type frequency vibration is indicative of a
a defective transmission? defective tail rotor system?
A— Low frequency only. A— Low and medium frequency.
B— Medium or low frequency. B— Medium and high frequency.
C— High or medium frequency. C— Low and high frequency.

High-frequency vibrations (2,000 cycles per minute or Medium frequency vibrations (1,000–2,000 cycles per
higher) are associated with the engine in most helicop- minute) and high frequency vibrations (2,000 cycles per
ters. Any bearings in the transmission that go bad will minute or higher) are normally associated with out-of-
result in vibrations with frequencies directly related to balance components that rotate at a high RPM, such
the speed of the engine. (PLT472) — FAA-H-8083-21 as the tail rotor, engine, cooling fans, and components
of the drive train, including transmissions, drive shafts,
bearings, pulleys, and belts. (PLT472) — FAA-H-8083‑21

Answers
8407 [A] 9781 [A] 8414 [C] 8415 [A] 9800 [B] 8416 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4–9

Chapter 4 Performance

RTC Fully articulated rotor systems usually have three or more

8426. What is the primary purpose of the free-wheeling rotor blades, each of which is attached to the rotor hub
unit? by a horizontal hinge (flapping), a vertical hinge (drag),
A— To provide speed reduction between the engine, and can be feathered (rotated about their spanwise
main rotor system, and tail rotor system. axis) independently of the other blades. (PLT470) —
B— To provide disengagement of the engine from the FAA-H-8083-21
rotor system for autorotation purposes.
C— To transmit engine power to the main rotor, tail
RTC
rotor, generator/alternator, and other accessories.
8428. The main rotor blades of a semi-rigid system can
The freewheeling coupling provides for autorotative A— flap and feather as a unit.
capabilities by disconnecting the rotor system from the B— flap, drag, and feather independently.
engine when the engine stops or slows below the RPM C— flap and drag individually, but can only feather
of the rotor system. This allows the transmission to be collectively.
driven by the main rotor. The tail rotor will continue to be
turned by the transmission. (PLT470) — FAA-H-8083‑21 In a semirigid (two-bladed) rotor system, the blades
are rigidly interconnected to the hub and flap as a unit
(when one blade flaps up, the other blade flaps down
RTC an equal amount). The swash plate changes the pitch
8427. The main rotor blades of a fully articulated rotor angle in each blade (feathers) an equal amount. (PLT470)
system can — FAA-H-8083-21
A— flap, drag, and feather collectively.
B— flap, drag, and feather independently of each other.
C— flap and drag individually, but can only feather
collectively.

Takeoff Performance Terminology

Clearway—a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be con-
sidered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered transport category airplanes. The first
segment of the takeoff of a turbine-powered airplane is considered complete when it reaches a height of
35 feet above the runway and has achieved V2 speed. Clearway may be used for the climb to 35 feet.
Stopway—an area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. It cannot be used as a part
of the takeoff distance but can be considered as part of the accelerate-stop distance. See Figure 4-2.
Regulation requires that a transport category airplane’s takeoff weight be such that, if at any time
during the takeoff run the critical engine fails, the airplane can either be stopped on the runway and stop-
way remaining, or that it can safely continue the takeoff. This means that a maximum takeoff weight
must be computed for each takeoff. Factors which determine the maximum takeoff weight for an airplane
include runway length, wind, flap position, runway braking action, pressure altitude and temperature.
In addition to the runway-limited takeoff weight, each takeoff requires a computation of a climb-limited
takeoff weight that will guarantee acceptable climb performance after takeoff with an engine inoperative.
The climb-limited takeoff weight is determined by flap position, pressure altitude and temperature.
When the runway-limited and climb-limited takeoff weights are determined, they are compared to the
maximum structural takeoff weight. The lowest of the three weights is the limit that must be observed for
that takeoff. If the airplane’s actual weight is at or below the lowest of the three limits, adequate takeoff
performance is ensured. If the actual weight is above any of the limits a takeoff cannot be made until
the weight is reduced or one or more limiting factors (runway, flap setting, etc.) is changed to raise the
limiting weight.

Answers
8426 [B] 8427 [B] 8428 [A]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

After the maximum takeoff weight is computed and it is determined that the airplane’s actual weight is
within limits, then V1, VR and V2 are computed. These takeoff speed limits are contained in performance
charts and tables of the airplane flight manual, and are observed on the captain’s airspeed indicator. By
definition they are indicated airspeeds. See Figure 4-3.
V1 (takeoff decision speed) is the speed during the takeoff at which the airplane can experience a
failure of the critical engine and the pilot can abort the takeoff and come to a full safe stop on the runway
and stopway remaining, or the pilot can continue the takeoff safely. If an engine fails at a speed less than
V1, the pilot must abort; if the failure occurs at a speed above V1 he/she must continue the takeoff.
VR (rotation speed) is the IAS at which the aircraft is rotated to its takeoff attitude with or without
an engine failure. VR is at or just above V1.
V2 (takeoff safety speed) ensures that the airplane can maintain an acceptable climb gradient with
the critical engine inoperative.
VMU (minimum unstick speed) is the minimum speed at which the airplane may be flown off the
runway without a tail strike. This speed is determined by manufacturer’s tests and establishes minimum
V1 and VR speeds. The flight crew does not normally compute the VMU speed separately.
V1 is computed using the actual airplane gross weight, flap setting, pressure altitude and tempera-
ture. Raising the pressure altitude, temperature or gross weight will all increase the computed V1 speed.
Lowering any of those variables will lower the V1 speed.
A wind will change the takeoff distance. A headwind will decrease it and a tailwind will increase it.
While a headwind or tailwind component does affect the runway limited takeoff weight, it usually has
no direct effect on the computed V1 speed. The performance tables for a few airplanes include a small
correction to V1 for very strong winds. For those airplanes, a headwind will increase V1 and a tailwind
will decrease it.
A runway slope has the same effect on takeoff performance as a wind. A runway which slopes uphill
will increase the takeoff distance for an airplane and a downslope will decrease it. A significant slope
may require an adjustment in the V1 speed. An upslope will require an increase in V1 and a downslope
will require a decrease.
If there is slush on the runway or if the antiskid system is inoperative, the stopping performance of
the airplane is degraded. This requires that any aborted takeoff be started at a lower speed and with
more runway and stopway remaining. This means that both the runway-limited takeoff weight and the
V1 used for takeoff be lower than normal.

Clearway

Runway Stopway

Figure 4-2. Takeoff runway definitions

Figure 4-3. Takeoff speeds

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 11

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX “Clearway” may be considered when determining the

9324. What is the name of an area beyond the end of takeoff distance of turbine-engine-powered transport
a runway which does not contain obstructions and can category airplane certificated after August 29, 1959.
be considered when calculating takeoff performance of (PLT034, AA.I.B.K2b) — 14 CFR §121.189 and §1.1
turbine-powered aircraft? Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the passenger-carrying
A— Clearway. transport aircraft and air carrier airplane would have to be turbine-
engine-powered in order to include the clearway in determining
B— Stopway. runway length for takeoff purposes.
C— Obstruction clearance plane.

“Clearway” means, for turbine-powered airplanes, an ATM, ATS, ADX

area beyond the end of the runway, centrally located 9317. Which is a definition of V2 speed?
about the extended centerline and under the control
A— Takeoff decision speed.
of the airport authorities. Clearway distance may be
B— Takeoff safety speed.
used in the calculation of takeoff distance. (PLT395,
C— Minimum takeoff speed.
AA.I.B.K2b) — 14 CFR §1.1
Answer (B) is incorrect because a stopway is an area beyond the V2 means takeoff safety speed. (PLT466, AA.I.B.K2b)
takeoff runway, not any less wide than the runway, centered upon
the extended centerline of the runway, and able to support the air- — 14 CFR §1.2
plane during an aborted takeoff. Answer (C) is incorrect because an Answer (A) is incorrect because V1 is takeoff decision speed.
obstruction clearance plane is not defined in 14 CFR Part 1. Answer (C) is incorrect because minimum takeoff speed doesn’t
describe a defined speed.

ATM, ATS, ADX

9327. What is an area identified by the term “stopway”? ATM, ATS, ADX
9319. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick
A— An area, at least the same width as the runway,
speed?
capable of supporting an airplane during a
normal takeoff. A— VMU.
B— An area designated for use in decelerating an B— VMD.
aborted takeoff. C— VFC.
C— An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of
supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. V MU means minimum unstick speed. (PLT466,
AA.I.B.K2b) — 14 CFR §1.2
“Stopway” means an area beyond the takeoff runway, Answer (B) is incorrect because VMD is not a concept that is defined
able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the in 14 CFR §1.2. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFC /M FC is maxi-
mum speed for stability characteristics.
airplane during an aborted takeoff. (PLT395, AA.I.B.K2b)
— 14 CFR §1.1
Answer (A) is incorrect because it describes the nonlanding portion ATM, ATS, ADX
of a runway behind a displaced threshold, which may be suitable
for taxiing, landing rollout, and takeoff of aircraft. Answer (C) is
8774. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot
incorrect because it would describe an area that exists before a may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the
displaced threshold. accelerate-stop distance is
A— V2.
ATM, ATS, ADX
B— VREF.
8134. For which of these aircraft is the “clearway” for
C— V1.
a particular runway considered in computing takeoff
The takeoff decision speed, V1, is the calibrated air-
weight limitations?
speed on the ground at which, as a result of engine
A— Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft failure or other reasons, the pilot is assumed to have
certificated between August 26, 1957 and made a decision to continue or discontinue the takeoff.
August 30, 1959. (PLT506, AA.I.B.K2a) — 14 CFR §1.2
B— Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes Answer (A) is incorrect because V2 is the takeoff safety speed.
certificated after September 30, 1958. Answer (B) is incorrect because VREF is the reference landing
C— U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated speed, an airspeed used for final approach, which adjusts the nor-
mal approach speed for winds and gusty conditions.
after August 29, 1959.

Answers
9324 [A] 9327 [B] 8134 [B] 9317 [B] 9319 [A] 8774 [C]

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ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8775. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a 9085. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical
failure of the critical engine at VEF , at which the pilot engine failure speed?
may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height A— Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is B— Low gross weight.
indicated by symbol C— High density altitude.
A— V2min.
B— V1. Critical Engine Failure Speed is an obsolete term for
C— VLOF. V1 which is now called Takeoff Decision Speed. Lower-
ing the airplane’s weight will always have the effect of
The takeoff decision speed, V1, is the calibrated airspeed decreasing V1, while increasing the density altitude will
on the ground at which, as a result of engine failure or have the effect of increasing V1. However, inoperative
other reasons, the pilot is assumed to have made a antiskid or slush on the runway will cause a reduction
decision to continue or discontinue the takeoff. V1 is in the maximum allowable takeoff weight which has
also the speed at which the airplane can be rotated the effect of lowering V1. (PLT347, AA.I.B.K2b) — ANA
for takeoff and shown to be adequate to safely con-
tinue the takeoff, using normal piloting skill, when the
critical engine is suddenly made inoperative. (PLT466, ATM, ATS, ADX
AA.I.B.K2a) — 14 CFR §1.2 9083. What effect does an uphill runway slope have
Answer (A) is incorrect because V2min is the minimum takeoff safety upon takeoff performance?
speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because VLOF is the liftoff speed. A— Increases takeoff distance.
B— Decreases takeoff speed.
C— Decreases takeoff distance.
ATM, ATS, ADX
8780. The symbol for the speed at which the critical An uphill runway will have the effect of decreasing an
engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is airplane’s rate of acceleration during the takeoff roll thus
A— V2. causing it to reach its takeoff speeds (V1 and VR ) further
B— V1. down the runway than would otherwise be the case.
C— VEF. An uphill runway will also necessitate an increased V1
speed in some airplanes. (PLT129, AA.I.B.K2b) — ANA
VEF is the calibrated airspeed at which the critical
engine is assumed to fail. VEF must be selected by the
applicant but must not be less than 1.05 VMC or, at the ATM, ATS, ADX
option of the applicant, not less than VMCG. (PLT466, 9075. Which condition reduces the required runway
AA.I.B.K2b) — 14 CFR Part 25 for takeoff?
Answer (A) is incorrect because V2 is the takeoff safety speed. A— Higher-than-recommended airspeed before
Answer (B) is incorrect because V1 is takeoff decision speed. rotation.
B— Lower-than-standard air density.
C— Increased headwind component.
ATM, ATS, ADX
9076. Which performance factor decreases as airplane
A headwind, in effect, gives an airplane part of its
gross weight increases, for a given runway? airspeed prior to starting the takeoff roll. This allows
A— Critical engine failure speed. the airplane to reach its takeoff speed after a shorter
B— Rotation speed. takeoff roll than in no wind conditions. High rotation
C— Accelerate-stop distance. speeds and lower air density (high density altitude) both
have the effect of increasing takeoff distance. (PLT134,
Critical Engine Failure Speed (also called V1 ) increases AA.I.B.K2b) — ANA
with an increase in weight, resulting in a decrease in Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because higher-than-recom-
performance. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2a) — ANA mended airspeed before rotation and lower-than-standard air den-
sity would increase the required runway for takeoff.

Answers
8775 [B] 8780 [C] 9076 [A] 9085 [A] 9083 [A] 9075 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 13

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

9797. You are rolling out after touchdown and decide 9797-2. You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots
you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff. Your on a 8,501 foot runway and the braking is not working,
airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled so you decide to takeoff and climbout. The engines
down to 71% idle. You need a V2 of 142 to safely lift off require 5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane
and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accel- requires 10 seconds of acceleration to lift off again.
erate after the engines spool up to takeoff thrust, which The 4,000 foot marker flashed by 2 seconds ago. Do
requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require you have enough runway to lift off? (Use 143 knots for
for a safe landing abort from your decision point? (Use average ground speed due to the tailwind.)
an average of 129 knots ground speed.) A— Yes, there will be a margin of about 850 feet
A— 1,738 feet. which is almost 3 seconds of decision time.
B— 2,178 feet. B— Yes, there will be a margin of almost 101 feet
C— 3,601 feet. which is about 1.5 seconds of decision time.
C— No, the runway is 99 feet too short and my
At a ground speed of 129 knots, the question assumes decision was about 0.4 seconds too late.
it takes 10 seconds to takeoff. The distance required
to fly to the decision point would be calculated using 1. Calculate distance traveled per second (1 knot =
129 knots ground speed. 1 knot = 1.69 feet per second 1.69 feet per second) at 143 knots × 1.69 feet per
= 218 ft/seconds. 218 × 10 sec = 2,180 feet. (PLT011, second for 241.67 feet per second.
AA.I.B.K2a) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. Calculate distance past 4,000 marker by 241.67
(distance traveled per second) × 2 (time past marker)
ATM, ATS, ADX = 483.34 feet.
9797-1. You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots 3. Subtract distance past marker from the marker
on a 9,001 foot runway and the braking is not working, so passed (4,000 - 483.34 = 3,516.66) to find remaining
you decide to takeoff and climb out. The engines require runway.
5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10
seconds of acceleration time to lift off again. The 5,000 4. Calculate Liftoff Distance —Total of 15 seconds (5
foot marker flashes by. Do you have enough runway to for spool up and 10 for liftoff) multiplied by distance
lift off? (Use 132 knots for the average groundspeed.) traveled per second 241.67 = 3,625.05 feet of liftoff
distance needed.
A— Yes, there will be a margin of 850 feet and almost
3 seconds of decision time. 5. Calculate if any excess runway is present—3,516.66
B— Yes, there will be a margin of 2,001 feet and feet remaining - 3,625.05 required for liftoff = -108.39
almost 5 seconds of decision time. feet available
C— No, the runway is 1,340 feet too short and my This calculation indicates an extra 108.39 feet would
decision is about 6 seconds too late. be needed to make this takeoff.
6. Calculate time needed to make a decision 108.39
1. Calculate distance traveled per second (1 knot = feet required / 241.67 feet per second =.448 seconds
1.69 feet per second) at 132 knots × 1.69 feet per This calculation indicates the decision would have
second for 223.08 feet per second. needed to be made .448 seconds ago. (PLT011,
2. Calculate Liftoff Distance—Total of 15 seconds (5 AA.I.B.K2a) — FAA-H-8083-25
for spool up and 10 for liftoff) multiplied by distance
traveled per second 223.08 = 3,346.2 feet of liftoff
distance needed.
3. Calculate Distance remaining (at 5000 marker) 5,000
- 3,346.2 (liftoff distance) = 1,653.8 feet remaining.
4. Calculate time for decision by dividing 1,653.8 by
223.08 (distance traveled per second) = 7.41 seconds
available to make a decision.
(PLT011, AA.I.B.K2a) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9797 [B] 9797-1 [B] 9797-2 [C]

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ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

9801. One typical takeoff error is 9802. Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approxi-
A— delayed rotation, which may extend the climb mately a
distance. A— 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of
B— premature rotation, which may increase takeoff additional takeoff speed.
distance. B— 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of
C— extended rotation, which may degrade additional takeoff speed.
acceleration. C— 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of
additional takeoff speed.
In training it is common for the pilot to overshoot VR
and then overshoot V2 because the pilot not flying will An excessive airspeed at takeoff may improve the initial
call for rotation at, or just past VR. The reaction of the rate of climb and “feel” of the airplane but will produce
pilot flying is to visually verify VR and then rotate. The an undesirable increase in takeoff distance. Assuming
airplane then leaves the ground at or above V2. The that the acceleration is essentially unaffected, the takeoff
excess airspeed may be of little concern on a normal distance varies as the square of the takeoff velocity.
takeoff, but a delayed rotation can be critical when run- Thus, a 10% increase excess airspeed would increase
way length or obstacle clearance is limited. (PLT134, the takeoff distance 21%. (PLT134, AA.I.B.K2b) — ANA
AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-3

Calculating V-Speeds
CRJ200 V-Speeds
V1, VR, and V2 are calculated by using the charts in FAA Figures 450, 452, and 454. In order to use these
charts, you must first find a “Reference A” speed in FAA Figure 451. Once you have the Reference A
speed, enter the chart in either Figure 452 or 454 at that speed and then move across directly right to
determine the minimum V1MCA.
From there, continuing to the right, intersect the aircraft weight line and proceed directly down, cor-
recting for runway slope (if present), to note the VR speed. If VR is greater than 1.05 × V1MCA, proceed to
the right until entering the Chart B region; otherwise, use Chart A. Once intersecting the aircraft weight
line in Chart A or B, move directly down and read the V2 speed.

Q400 V-Speeds
V1, VR and V2 for the Q400 are calculated from the charts contained in FAA Figure 470. Using operating
conditions given either through airport diagrams or as part of the question, you must be able to calculate
these important speeds.
Figure 470 is the chart used to determine V1 and VR. Start on this chart at the lower left with the OAT
and move up to the field elevation. Move across to the right until intersecting the reference line. Then
proceed diagonally until intersecting the aircraft weight line. From there, move across to the right and
note the VR speed. Continue to the right and intersect the reference line, then move down and to the left
in parallel with the diagonal lines until intersecting the correct V1/VR ratio. Move directly right and find
your V1 speed. Note that V1 cannot be less than VR.

Transport Aircraft 2 V-Speeds

Using Operating Conditions R-1 (FAA Figure 53), follow the steps for determining the V-speeds (See FAA
Figure 55). Enter the table at the top left in the row appropriate for the pressure altitude and go across
until in a column containing a temperature range which includes the given value. In this case, enter in the

Answers
9801 [A] 9802 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 15

Chapter 4 Performance

row labeled -1 to 1 (pressure altitude = 500 feet, refer to FAA Figure 54) and go to the first column which
contains the temperature of +50°F (be sure to use the Fahrenheit or Celsius ranges as appropriate). Go
down the first column until in the row appropriate for a flap setting of 15° and a gross weight of 90,000
pounds. The V1 speed is 120 knots, the VR speed is 121 knots and the V2 speed is 128 knots. There
are two possible adjustments to make to the V1 speed only. They are noted at the bottom of the table.

Transport Aircraft 1 V-Speeds

The first step for calculating V1 and VR is to find the basic speeds in the table at the top of FAA Figure
47. Using the conditions from Operating Conditions A-1 from FAA Figure 45, the V-speeds for a weight
of 75,000 pounds are: V1 = 120.5, and VR = 123.5 knots. Next, a series of corrections must be applied
for pressure altitude, ambient temperature, runway slope, wind component, and engine and wing ice
protection. There are table values for all these corrections at the bottom of FAA Figure 47 except for
pressure altitude and ambient temperature.
The first step in the altitude correction is to use the table in FAA Figure 46 to determine the pressure
altitude. Using the altimeter setting from Operating Conditions A-1 (29.40" Hg), the table shows a cor-
rection of +500 feet. The pressure altitude then is 3,000 feet (2,500 + 500).
Next, enter the graphs as shown in FAA Figure 47. Draw two vertical lines representing the pressure
altitude of 3,000 feet. Next, draw a horizontal line through the ambient temperature (+10°F) to intersect
each of the vertical lines. In this case, the lines meet in the “zero” correction area for both V1 and VR.
Notice that the correction is marked by bands. For example, if the lines crossed anywhere in the highest
shaded band, the correction would be +1 knot.
Next, set up a table similar to the one below to apply any necessary corrections:
V1 VR
Table Value 120.5 123.5
Pressure Alt & Temp 0 0
Slope (+1%) + 1.5 + .9
10 HW + .3 0
Ice Protection + .8 + .8
Corrected Speeds 123.1 125.2

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ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8717. (Refer to Figures 340, 451, and 452.) With a 8719. (Refer to Figures 340 and 450.) With a reported
reported temperature of 20°C, flaps set at 8, engine temperature of 35°C, flaps set at 8, and 5 knots of head-
bleeds closed, and a takeoff weight of 79,500 pounds, wind at a takeoff weight of 82,300 pounds, the V1MBE is
the takeoff safety speed is A— 174 knots.
A— 154 knots. B— 169 knots.
B— 160 knots. C— 154 knots.
C— 162 knots.
1. On Figure 340, the field elevation is 23 feet. Note
1. On Figure 340, find an airport elevation of 23 feet. that there is no runway slope indicated for runway
2. Use Figure 451 to find Reference A. Locate the 10.
portion of the chart marked Engine Bleeds Closed. 2. On Figure 450, start with the ambient temperature of
Enter the chart at 20°C and work your way up to 35°C, and move right to intersect an airport pressure
a Pressure Altitude of 23 feet. Move right to find a altitude of 23 feet. Then move straight down all the
Reference A of 15. way to the REF. LINE in the wind section. From this
3. On Figure 452, enter the chart from the left at Refer- reference line, move up and right in parallel with the
ence A of 15. Move right to the chart B area—the diagonal lines until you reach the 5 knot wind mark.
notes indicate this is the correct area because VMCA From here, proceed straight down to the REF. LINE
is 114 knots and VR is 146 knots (VR is greater than in the runway slope section. Because there is no
1.05 × VMCA of 114). Intersect your takeoff weight of slope, move straight down and determine the V1MBE
79,500 pounds, then read the takeoff speed below speed of 171 knots.
of 154 knots. 3. Reference Note 2 in the upper right side of chart
(PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25 and see that for each 2,200 pounds under 84,500
pounds, add 3 knots. Since 84,500 – 82,300 = 2,200,
add 3 knots, with the result of an V1MBE speed of 174
ATM, ADX knots.
8718. (Refer to Figures 336, 451, and 452). With a (PLT089, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25
reported temperature of 5°C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds
closed, and a takeoff weight off 82,000 pounds, the VR is
ATM, ADX
A— 150 knots.
B— 147 knots. 8720. (Refer to Figures 342 and 450.) With a reported
C— 158 knots. temperature of 40°C, flaps set at 20, and a 3 knot tailwind
at a takeoff weight of 84,500, the V1MBE is
1. On Figure 336, find a field elevation of 9 feet. A— 160 knots.
B— 143 knots.
2. Use Figure 451 to find a Reference A. Locate the C— 166 knots.
portion of the graph with column marked Engine
Bleeds Closed. Enter the chart at 5°C moving up to In Figure 450, enter the chart on the left at 40°C. Move
intersect an altitude of 9 feet. Move straight across right to locate an airport altitude of 10 feet. Move straight
to the right to find a Reference A of 15.4. down to intersect the tailwind portion of the chart follow-
3. On Figure 452, enter the chart from the left at Refer- ing the line parallel and to the right to -3 knots. Read a
ence A of 15.4. Move right to intersect your takeoff V1MBE of 165 on the bottom portion of the chart. Note
weight of 82,000 pounds. Moving straight down, 1 states with flaps set at 20 degrees increase V1MBE
locate the VR of 147 knots. value by 1 knot.
(PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25 165 + 1 = 166 knots
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8717 [A] 8718 [B] 8719 [A] 8720 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 17

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8721. (Refer to Figures 342, 451, and 452.) With a 8586. (Refer to Figure 470.) What are the V1 and VR
reported temperature of -10°C, flaps set at 8, cowl anti- speeds at 25°C at sea level for an aircraft weighing
ice on, and at a takeoff weight off 77,000 lbs, the VR 54,500 lbs. and a maximum V1/VR ratio of .93?
and V2 speeds are A— 110 and 114 knots.
A— 143 and 153 knots. B— 112 and 121 knots.
B— 153 and 143 knots. C— 97 and 102 knots.
C— 123 and 133 knots.
1. Start at the bottom left on Figure 470 and find 25°C.
1. Start with Figure 342 to determine an airport eleva- Move straight up until intersecting the sea level
tion of 10 feet. line. Move straight to the right until intersecting the
2. Enter Figure 451 at -10°C in the first column labeled reference line. Move diagonally up and to the right
Cowl and Anti-Ice On, and proceed up to a pressure staying parallel with the lines until you intersect the
altitude of approximately 10 feet. Move straight across 54,500 lbs line. Move directly to the right and note
to the right to determine a Reference A of 13.9. a VR speed of 121 knots.
3. On Figure 452, enter the chart at your Reference A 2. Continue to the right until intersecting the reference
of 13.9. Move across to intersect the take-off weight line. Move diagonally down and to the left in parallel
of 77,000 lbs. Proceed straight down to note a VR with the lines until intersecting the 0.93 V1 / VR ratio
speed of 143. line. Move directly to the right and note a V1 of 112
knots.
4. To find V2 speed, once again enter the chart at
13.9 moving straight across to intersect the weight (PLT123, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25
of 77,000 lbs on Chart B. Proceed straight down to
note a V2 speed of 153 knots.
ATM, ADX
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25 8587. (Refer to Figure 470.) What are the V1 and VR
speeds at ISA+30°C and a field elevation of 4,500 feet
for an aircraft weighing 64,000 lbs. and a maximum
ATM, ADX
V1/VR ratio of .98?
8584. (Refer to Figure 465.) At a weight of 60,000
pounds with 35 flaps, the Reference Stall Speed is A— 100 and 104 knots.
B— 112 and 115 knots.
A— 96 knots. C— 135 and 137 knots.
B— 93 knots.
C— 89 knots.
1. Start at the ISA+30°C point in the middle left portion
Start at the bottom of Figure 465 at the weight of 60,000 of Figure 470. Move down and to the right until inter-
pounds. Move straight up until you intersect the 35° secting the 4,500 foot line. Move straight to the right
flap angle reference line. Move straight left and note a until intersecting the reference line. Move diagonally
stall speed of 96 knots. (PLT123, AA.I.B.K5) — FAA- up and to the right staying parallel with the lines until
H-8083-25 you intersect the 64,000 lbs line. Move directly to
the right and note a VR speed of 137 knots.

ATM, ADX
2. Continue to the right until intersecting the reference
8585. (Refer to Figure 465.) What is the reference stall
line. Move diagonally down and to the left in parallel
speed if you will be landing the aircraft at 55,000 pounds with the lines until intersecting the 0.98 V1 / VR ratio
with 35° of flaps? line. Move directly to the right and note a V1 of 135
knots.
A— 92 knots.
B— 97 knots. (PLT123, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 102 knots.

Start at the bottom of Figure 465 at the weight of 55,000

pounds. Move straight up until you intersect the 35° flap
angle reference line. Move straight to the left and note
a reference stall speed (VREF) of 92 knots. (PLT123,
AA.I.B.K5) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
8721 [A] 8584 [A] 8585 [A] 8586 [B] 8587 [C]

4 – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX ADX
8618. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the 8621. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What are critical
takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions R-1? engine failure and takeoff safety speeds for Operating
A— 128 knots. Conditions R-4?
B— 121 knots. A— 131 and 133 knots.
C— 133 knots. B— 123 and 134 knots.
C— 122 and 130 knots.
Pressure altitude = 500 feet
V1 = 120 + 1 (slope) = 121 Pressure altitude = 1,900 feet
VR = 121 V1 = 127 – 2 (Wind) – 2 (Slope) = 123
V2 = 128 VR = 129
Note: V2 is defined as Takeoff Safety Speed. V2 = 134
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 Note: Critical Engine Failure Speed is an obsolete term
for V1. V2 is Takeoff Safety Speed.
Answer (B) is incorrect because 121 knots is the rotation (VR ) speed.
Answer (C) is incorrect because 133 knots is the V2 speed using (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
5 flaps.

ADX
ADX 8622. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What are rota-
8619. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the tion and V2 bug speeds for Operating Conditions R-5?
rotation speed for Operating Conditions R-2?
A— 138 and 143 knots.
A— 147 knots. B— 136 and 138 knots.
B— 152 knots. C— 134 and 141 knots.
C— 146 knots.
Pressure altitude = -150 feet
Pressure altitude = 3,500 feet VR = 138
V1 = 144 – 1 (Wind) – 1 (Slope) = 142 V2 = 143
VR = 146
V2 = 150 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
Note: VR is defined as Rotation Speed.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

ADX
8620. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What are V1,
VR, and V2 speeds for Operating Conditions R-3?
A— 143, 143, and 147 knots.
B— 138, 138, and 142 knots.
C— 136, 138, and 143 knots.

Pressure altitude = 1,450 feet

V1 = 136 + 1 (Wind) + 1 (Slope) = 138
VR = 138
V2 = 142
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8618 [A] 8619 [C] 8620 [B] 8621 [B] 8622 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 19

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 1. Start on FAA Figure 238 since a wet runway is

8642-4. (Refer to Figures 237 and 238.) Given the specified.
following conditions, what are the takeoff V speeds?
2. Enter the Takeoff speeds chart at 170 (1,000 pounds)
Weight..........................................................170,000 lb and proceed to the Flaps 10 column for V1 – 133,
Flaps........................................................................10° VR – 139, V2 – 145.
Temperature (OAT)............................................... 25°C
3. Enter the adjustments table at 27°C and interpolate
Field pressure altitude........................................ 427 ft.
in each column for pressure altitude of 500 feet.
Runway slope.......................................................... 0%
Wind (kts) headwind............................................. 8 kts 4. Enter the V1 Slope and Wind adjustments table at
Runway condition....................................... wet runway the given weight of 170 (1,000 lbs). Since there is no
runway slope, continue right to the wind column of 10
For VR more than or equal to .1 VR, round up VR to the
knots (rounding up from the given 8-knot headwind).
next value (example: 140 + .1 = 141)
Note a minimal -1 knot decrease adjustment for V1.
A— V1 133 kts, VR 140 kts, V2 145 kts.
5. For V1, round down to 133 knots, for VR round up to
B— V1 140 kts, VR 140 kts, V2 145 kts.
140 knots, for V2 the adjustment is 0 so it remains
C— V1 138 kts, VR 141 kts, V2 145 kts.
145.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Calculating Takeoff Power

CRJ200 Takeoff Thrust Settings
Calculating the appropriate thrust settings for the CRJ200 is accomplished by using FAA Figures 428
through 431. Pay special attention to the “Notes” at the bottom of each of these figures, as this tells how
to determine the correct chart to use. For example, Figure 428 depicts thrust settings based on all engines
operating with the bleed valves closed, which is a typical takeoff for the CRJ200. Enter the chart at the
left at the correct temperature and move to the right until intersecting the correct pressure altitude. This
will yield the correct N1 power thrust setting to be used during takeoff.

Q400 Takeoff Power

The Q400 takeoff power settings are determined by the charts in FAA Figures 467 and 468. Figure 467
depicts the appropriate power settings while on the ground and Figure 468 is used in flight (during the
climb). To determine the correct takeoff torque setting, use Figure 467. Start at the bottom of the chart
at the OAT, then move directly up until intersecting the airport elevation. Move directly to the right to find
the torque setting.

Transport Aircraft 2 Takeoff EPR

In the table of FAA Figure 55, two EPR values are found: one for temperature and one for altitude (be sure
to use the table in FAA Figure 54 to determine the pressure altitude). The lower of the two is the takeoff
EPR. For example if the temperature is 50°F at a pressure altitude of 500 feet, the temperature-limited
EPR is 2.04 and the altitude-limited EPR is 2.035. (The altitude-limited EPR is 2.01 from sea level up to
1,000 feet.) The only possible correction would be for if the air conditioning bleeds are off.

Answers
8642-4 [A]

4 – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8712. (Refer to Figures 363 and 429.) At a reported 8715. (Refer to Figures 329 and 429.) At a reported
temperature of 10°C with cowl anti-ice on and packs temperature of -10°C with cowl anti-ice on and packs
on, the takeoff thrust setting is on, the takeoff thrust setting is
A— 90.0%. A— 87.0%.
B— 89.1%. B— 87.2%.
C— 87.4%. C— 87.7%.

Using Figure 363, determine an airport elevation of Using Figure 329, determine an airport elevation of 4,473
3,877 feet. On Figure 429, find the row marked 10°C feet. On Figure 429 find the row marked -10°C and col-
and column marked 4,000. Determine an approximate umn marked 4,000. Interpolate to find an approximate
takeoff thrust setting of 90.0%. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) takeoff thrust setting of 87.2%. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b)
— FAA-H-8083-25 — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8713. (Refer to Figures 330 and 428.) At a reported 8716. (Refer to Figures 332 and 428.) At a reported
temperature of 30°C with engine bleeds closed, the temperature of 5°C with engine bleeds off, the takeoff
takeoff thrust setting is thrust setting is
A— 91.9%. A— 87.0%.
B— 87.4%. B— 87.2%.
C— 90.9%. C— 88.2%.

Using Figure 330, determine an airport elevation of Using Figure 332, determine an airport elevation of
13 feet. On Figure 428, find the row marked 30°C and 13 feet. On Figure 428, find the row marked 5°C and
column marked zero. Determine an approximate takeoff column marked zero. Interpolate to find an approximate
thrust setting of 91.9%. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA- takeoff thrust setting of 88.2%. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) —
H-8083-25 FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8714. (Refer to Figures 329 and 428.) At a reported 8613. (Refer to Figure 393.) (Note: Applicants may
temperature of 20°C with engine bleeds closed, the request a printed copy of the chart(s) or graph(s) for use
takeoff thrust setting is while computing the answer. All printed pages must be
A— 92.1%. returned to test proctor.) With an OAT of 10°C, inertial
B— 92.3%. separator in bypass and cabin heater, you calculate
C— 88.4%. maximum torque for climb to be
A— 1,795 ft-lbs.
Using Figure 329, determine an airport elevation of 4,473 B— 1,695 ft-lbs.
feet. On Figure 428, find the row marked 30°C and col- C— 1,615 ft-lbs.
umn marked 4,000. Interpolate to find an approximate
takeoff thrust setting of 92.3%. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) On Figure 393, find the OAT of 10°C at the bottom of
— FAA-H-8083-25 the chart and move straight up. No pressure altitude is
given, therefore you can move to the maximum torque
limit of 1,865 foot-pounds. Because the inertial separa-
tor is on, the torque is reduced by 100. Furthermore,
assuming the question is asking for cabin heat on, the
torque is reduced by another 80 pounds. This yields a
torque of 1,685 foot-pounds. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) —
FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8712 [A] 8713 [A] 8714 [B] 8715 [B] 8716 [C] 8613 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 21

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX Pressure altitude = 1,450 feet

9874. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the Altitude-limited EPR = 2.083
takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-1? Temperature-limited EPR = 2.01
A— 2.04. Add .03 for air conditioning off.
B— 2.01.
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 2.035.

Pressure altitude = 500 feet ADX

Altitude-limited EPR = 2.035 8616. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the
Temperature-limited EPR = 2.04 takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-4?
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25 A— 2.06.
B— 2.105.
ADX
C— 2.11.
8614. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the
Pressure altitude = 1,900 feet
takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2?
Altitude-limited EPR = 2.105
A— 2.19. Temperature-limited EPR = 2.11
B— 2.18.
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 2.16.

Pressure altitude = 3,500 feet ADX

Altitude-limited EPR = 2.19 8617. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the
Temperature-limited EPR = 2.19 takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-5?
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 A— 1.98.
B— 1.95.
ADX
C— 1.96.
8615. (Refer to Figures 46, 53, and 55.) What is the
Pressure altitude = -150 feet
takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-3?
Altitude-limited EPR = 2.003
A— 2.01. Temperature-limited EPR = 1.95
B— 2.083.
Add .03 for air conditioning off.
C— 2.04.
(PLT007) — FAA-H-8083-25

Climb Performance
The best rate-of-climb speed for any airplane is the speed at which there is the greatest difference
between the power required for level flight and the power available from the engines. The L/DMAX speed
for any airplane is the one that requires the least power for level flight since it is the lowest drag speed.
Because the power output of prop-driven airplanes is relatively constant at all speeds, L/DMAX is the
best rate-of-climb speed for them.
Turbojet engines produce more power as the aircraft speed increases. Even though drag increases
at speeds above L/DMAX, the engine’s power output increases even more so that the maximum differ-
ence between power required and power available is achieved at a higher airspeed. For a turbojet, the
best rate-of-climb speed is faster than L/DMAX.

CRJ200 Performance Tables

FAA Figures 432 through 454 contain the information needed to correctly calculate takeoff performance
data, including V-speeds, takeoff weights, and climb performance. It is very important to note that these

Answers
9874 [C] 8614 [A] 8615 [C] 8616 [B] 8617 [A]

4 – 22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

tables are divided into two categories based upon flap setting used on takeoff. Note the boxed “Flaps 8”
or “Flaps 20” usually found in the lower right-hand side of the figure in order to choose the correct chart.

Q400 Performance Tables

FAA Figures 475 and 476 contain the data needed to calculate first- and second-segment climb perfor-
mance. This is done with one engine operating and is part of the performance pre-planning conducted
prior to each flight. Note that you will start with the OAT on the bottom of the chart and move up. Most of
the time you do not need to worry about the ISA lines—simply intersect the appropriate pressure altitude.
Move right to the “Reference Line,” follow the diagonal lines to the aircraft weight, and then move across
to the right to find your climb gradient.

Q400 Climb and Cruise Power Tables

The Q400 figures include FAA Figures 481 (radius of turn), and Figure 482 (maximum-climb ceiling
chart). The radius of turn depicts the radius in feet that will be flown given a 15-degree steady-state turn.
This can be helpful when calculating distance needed to maneuver during single-engine operations.
The enroute climb ceiling chart (Figure 482) uses two parameters—aircraft weight and temperature—to
determine the maximum ceiling during single-engine operations.

Transport Aircraft 2 Climb Performance Tables

The tables in FAA Figures 57 and 58 allow you to determine the time and fuel required for a climb to
cruising altitude after takeoff. The table in FAA Figure 57 is for ISA temperatures, and the table in FAA
Figure 58 is for ISA +10°C. Each intersection of Brake Release Weight and Cruise Altitude has a box with
four numbers. These are the time, the fuel, the distance and the TAS required to climb from a sea level
airport to cruise altitude in calm wind conditions. For example, with a brake release weight of 110,000
pounds, a climb to 33,000 feet in ISA +10°C conditions will require 26 minutes, 4,100 pounds of fuel and
cover a distance of 154 NM.
A headwind or tailwind component in the climb will change the distance flown. Assume that there
is an average 20-knot headwind in the climb described above. The first step is to compute the average
“no wind” GS. A distance of 154 NM flown in 26 minutes works out to a GS of 355.4 knots. A headwind
component of 20 knots will reduce this GS to 335.4 knots. The distance flown in 26 minutes at 335.4
knots is 145.3 NM.
Note: Using a CX-3 computer, select “Ground Speed” from the FLT menu and enter Duration and
GS. Do not use the TAS from the table as that will result in an inaccurate answer.
Departure from an airport that is significantly above sea level will reduce the fuel required for the
climb. Notice that departure from a 2,000-foot airport will reduce the climb fuel by 100 pounds, however
the effect on time and distance flown is negligible.

Transport Aircraft 2 Climb and Cruise Power Tables

The Max Climb & Max Continuous EPR Table at the top of FAA Figure 60 is similar to the one discussed
in Takeoff EPR. In this table two EPR values are found — one for temperature and one for altitude. The
lower of the two is the maximum climb/continuous EPR. For example, if the temperature is +10°C at a
pressure altitude of 10,000 feet, the temperature-limited EPR is 2.04 and the altitude-limited EPR is 2.30.
(The altitude-limited EPR is 2.30 from 5,660 feet and up.) The max EPR is 2.04.
The Max Cruise EPR Table supplies one EPR value for a given TAT (Total Air Temperature) in one of
two altitude ranges. The correction tables are similar to ones used previously and apply to both tables.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 23

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ADX

8400. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does 8594. (Refer to Figures 273 and 474.) With a reported
maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? temperature of 45°C, and a weight of 52,000 pounds,
A— A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. the first segment takeoff gross climb gradient is
B— A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. A— 0.048%.
C— A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B— 0.044%.
C— 0.0419%.
An airplane’s best rate-of-climb is achieved at the
airspeed where there is the maximum difference 1. From Figure 273, find the field elevation of 1,135 feet.
between the power available from the engines and the 2. On Figure 474, start at the bottom left side of chart
power required for level flight. The L/DMAX airspeed will and note the temperature of 45°C. Move straight up
require the minimum power for level flight since drag until you intersect the 1,135 foot line. Move straight
is at its minimum. However, turbojet engines produce to the right until intersecting the reference line. Move
more power at high speed than at lower speeds and so down and to the right following the diagonal lines in
the speed with the greatest difference between power parallel until you intersect the 52,000 pound line.
required and power available is higher than L/DMAX. Move directly to the right and note a first segment
(PLT303, AA.I.B.K2c) — ANA climb gradient of .045%.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a speed equal to that of L/DMAX is
the maximum rate-of-climb for a propeller airplane. Answer (C) is (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
incorrect because the maximum rate-of-climb is at a speed greater
than L/DMAX.
ATM, ATS, ADX
9935. (Refer to Figure 474.) What is the gross climb
ATM, ATS, ADX gradient with the following conditions?
8400-1. (Refer to Figure 271.) For a takeoff from Runway
Outside air temperature.......................................... 0°C
25L at LAX, what is the minimum climb gradient that
Airfield altitude.............................................. 4,000 feet
ATC expects the aircraft to maintain?
Weight.................................................. 55,000 pounds
A— 500 feet per minute climb.
A— 0.052%
B— 200 feet per minute climb.
B— 0.020%
C— 400 feet per minute climb.
C— 0.074%
At the top of Figure 271, the departure indicates Run-
On Figure 474, start at the bottom left side of the chart
way 25L has a standard climb gradient. The standard
and note the temperature of 0°C. Move straight up until
climb gradient rate is 200 feet per minute. (PLT052,
you intersect the 4,000 foot line. Move straight to the
AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
right until intersecting the reference line. Following the
diagonal line, move down until you intersect the 55,000
ATM, ADX pound line. Move directly to the right and note a gross
8593. (Refer to Figures 273 and 475.) With a reported climb gradient of .052%. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-
temperature of 32°C, and a weight of 58,000 pounds, H-8083-25
the second segment takeoff gross climb gradient is
A— 0.057%. ATM, ADX
B— 0.062%. 8628. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the
C— 0.034%. ground distance covered during en route climb for
Operating Conditions V-1?
1. From Figure 273, find the field elevation of 1,135 feet.
A— 145 NM.
2. On Figure 475, start at the bottom left and find 32°C. B— 137 NM.
Move straight up until you intersect the 1,135 foot C— 134 NM.
line. Move straight to the right until you intersect the
reference line. Move down and to the right following
the diagonal lines in parallel until you intersect the
58,000 pound line. Move directly to the right and
note a second segment climb gradient of .057%.
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
Answers
8400 [A] 8400-1 [B] 8593 [A] 8594 [B] 9935 [A] 8628 [A]

4 – 24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

No wind time = 26 minutes No wind time = 13 minutes

No wind distance = 154 NM No wind distance = 61 NM
No wind GS = 355.4 knots No wind GS = 281.5 knots
Wind adjusted GS = 335.4 knots Wind adjusted GS = 291.5 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 145.3 NM Wind adjusted distance = 63.2 NM
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8629. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the 8632. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the
ground distance covered during en route climb for ground distance covered during en route climb for
Operating Conditions V-2? Operating Conditions V-5?
A— 84 NM. A— 70 NM.
B— 65 NM. B— 52 NM.
C— 69 NM. C— 61 NM.

No wind time = 13 minutes No wind time = 13 minutes

No wind distance = 65 NM No wind distance = 70 NM
No wind GS = 300 knots No wind GS = 323.1 knots
Wind adjusted GS = 320 knots Wind adjusted GS = 283.1 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 69.3 NM Wind adjusted distance = 61.3 NM
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8630. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the 8633. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel
ground distance covered during en route climb for is burned during en route climb for Operating Condi-
Operating Conditions V-3? tions V-1?
A— 95 NM. A— 4,100 pounds.
B— 79 NM. B— 3,600 pounds.
C— 57 NM. C— 4,000 pounds.

No wind time = 16 minutes Fuel to climb from sea level = 4,100 lbs
No wind distance = 87 NM Correction factor = -100 lbs
No wind GS = 326.3 knots (PLT012, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
Wind adjusted GS = 296.3 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 79 NM
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25 ATM, ADX
8634. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel
is burned during en route climb for Operating Condi-
ATM, ADX tions V-2?
8631. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the A— 2,250 pounds.
ground distance covered during en route climb for B— 2,600 pounds.
Operating Conditions V-4? C— 2,400 pounds.
A— 63 NM.
B— 53 NM. Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,400 lbs
C— 65 NM. Correction factor = -150 lbs
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8629 [C] 8630 [B] 8631 [A] 8632 [C] 8633 [C] 8634 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 25

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX Altitude-limited EPR = 2.30

8635. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft TAT-limited EPR = 1.90
weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-3? Correction for engine anti-ice = -.08
A— 82,100 pounds. Max climb EPR setting = 1.82
B— 82,500 pounds. (PLT007, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 82,200 pounds. Answer (B) is incorrect because 1.96 is the max continuous EPR.
Answer (C) is incorrect because 2.04 is the max continuous EPR
Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,600 lbs without the bleed air correction for the engine anti-ice ON.
Correction factor = -100 lbs
Final weight = 85,000 – 2,500 = 82,500 lbs
ATM, ADX
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 8639. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max
continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-2?
ATM, ADX A— 2.10.
8636. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the B— 1.99.
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi- C— 2.02.
tions V-4?
Altitude-limited EPR = 2.20
A— 102,900 pounds.
TAT-limited EPR = 2.10
B— 102,600 pounds.
Engine and wing anti-ice correction = -.12
C— 103,100 pounds.
Air conditioning off correction = +.04
Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,400 lbs Max continuous EPR setting = 2.02
Correction factor = -300 lbs (PLT007, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
Final weight = 105,000 – 2,100 = 102,900 lbs
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 ATM, ADX
8640. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max
ATM, ADX
cruise EPR for Operating Conditions T-3?
8637. (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the A— 2.11.
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi- B— 2.02.
tions V-5? C— 1.90.
A— 73,000 pounds.
Max cruise EPR = 2.02
B— 72,900 pounds.
Engine and wing anti-ice correction = -.12
C— 72,800 pounds.
Max cruise EPR setting = 1.90
Fuel to climb from sea level = 2,100 lbs (PLT007, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
Correction factor = -100 lbs
Final weight = 75,000 – 2,000 = 73,000 lbs
ATM, ADX
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 8641. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max
climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-4?
ATM, ADX A— 2.20.
8638. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max B— 2.07.
climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1? C— 2.06.
A— 1.82.
Altitude-limited EPR = 2.30
B— 1.96.
TAT-limited EPR = 2.20
C— 2.04.
Engine and wing anti-ice correction = -.14
Max climb EPR setting = 2.06
(PLT007, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8635 [B] 8636 [A] 8637 [A] 8638 [A] 8639 [C] 8640 [C]
8641 [C]

4 – 26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ADX

8642-1. (Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max 9876. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-5? ground distance covered during en route climb for
A— 2.00. Operating Conditions W-2?
B— 2.04. A— 85.8 NM.
C— 1.96. B— 87.8 NM.
C— 79.4 NM.
Altitude-limited EPR = 2.30
TAT-limited EPR = 2.00 High speed climb:
Air conditioning off correction = +.04 No wind time = 12.8 minutes
Max continuous EPR setting = 2.04 No wind distance = 85.8 NM
(PLT007, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25 No wind GS = 402.2 knots
Wind adjusted GS = 372.2 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 79.4 NM
ATM, ADX
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
8642-2. (Refer to Figure 231.) Given the following con-
ditions, what is the takeoff climb limit?
Airport OAT........................................................... 38°C ADX
Airport Pressure Altitude...................................... 14 ft. 9877. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
Flaps........................................................................ 15° ground distance covered during en route climb for
Engine Bleed for packs........................................... On Operating Conditions W-3?
Anti-ice.................................................................... Off A— 86.4 NM.
A— 136,000 lb. B— 84.2 NM.
B— 137,500 lb. C— 85.1 NM.
C— 139,000 lb.
Long range climb:
1. Enter FAA Figure 231 at 38° OAT and proceed up to No wind time = 13.3 minutes
the 0 ft pressure altitude (this is closest to 14 feet). No wind distance = 84.2 NM
2. From the point of intersection on the pressure altitude No wind GS = 379.8 knots
line, draw a line horizontally to the Climb Limit Brake Wind adjusted GS = 389.8 knots
Release Weight of 136,000 pounds. Wind adjusted distance = 86.4 NM
(PLT085, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

ADX ADX
9875. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the 8596. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
ground distance covered during en route climb for ground distance covered during en route climb for
Operating Conditions W-1? Operating Conditions W-4?
A— 104.0 NM. A— 58.4 NM.
B— 99.2 NM. B— 61.4 NM.
C— 109.7 NM. C— 60.3 NM.

Long range climb: High speed climb:

No wind time = 17.1 minutes No wind time = 9.1 minutes
No wind distance = 109.7 NM No wind distance = 58.4 NM
No wind GS = 384.9 knots No wind GS = 385.1 knots
Wind adjusted GS = 364.9 knots Wind adjusted GS = 405.1 knots
Wind adjusted distance = 104 NM Wind adjusted distance = 61.4 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8642-1 [B] 8642-2 [A] 9875 [A] 9876 [C] 9877 [A] 8596 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 27

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX ADX
8597. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the 8600. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
ground distance covered during en route climb for aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi-
Operating Conditions W-5? tions W-3?
A— 68.0 NM. A— 75,750 pounds.
B— 73.9 NM. B— 75,900 pounds.
C— 66.4 NM. C— 76,100 pounds.

High speed climb: Long range climb:

No wind time = 11.3 minutes Initial weight 78,000
No wind distance = 73.9 NM Burn – 2,102
No wind GS = 392.4 knots TOC weight 75,898
Wind adjusted GS = 352.4 knots
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
Wind adjusted distance = 66.4 NM
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
ADX
8601. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
ADX aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi-
8598. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the tions W-4?
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi-
A— 86,150 pounds.
tions W-1?
B— 86,260 pounds.
A— 81,600 pounds. C— 86,450 pounds.
B— 81,400 pounds.
C— 81,550 pounds. High speed climb:
Initial weight 88,000
Long range climb:
Burn – 1,738
Initial weight 84,000 TOC weight 86,262
Burn – 2,570
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
TOC weight 81,430
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
ADX
8602. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the
ADX aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi-
8599. (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the tions W-5?
aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Condi-
A— 89,900 pounds.
tions W-2?
B— 90,000 pounds.
A— 82,775 pounds. C— 90,100 pounds.
B— 83,650 pounds.
C— 83,775 pounds. Long-range climb:
Initial weight 92,000
High speed climb:
Burn – 2,079
Initial weight 86,000 TOC weight 89,921
Burn – 2,225
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
TOC weight 83,775
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8597 [C] 8598 [B] 8599 [C] 8600 [B] 8601 [B] 8602 [A]

4 – 28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Cruise Performance
The maximum range speed for an aircraft is determined by its L/D curve. Propeller-driven airplanes will
achieve best range performance if they are flown at the speed that yields L/DMAX. In turbojet aircraft,
a somewhat more complex relationship between lift and drag determines best range. Turbojets always
have a best range speed higher than L/DMAX.
A headwind or tailwind will affect the miles per unit of fuel burned. If an airplane is operating at its
best-range airspeed and encounters a headwind, it should speed up to minimize the time in the adverse
wind. By the same token, an airplane with a tailwind can slow down and let the wind maintain its ground
speed with a lower fuel flow. The exact amount of airspeed change that is useful varies with airplane type.
Turbojet engines have a strong preference for operations at high altitudes and airspeeds. Both lower
temperatures and higher altitudes increase engine efficiency by requiring a lower fuel flow for a given
thrust. Besides increased engine efficiency, lift and drag both decrease at higher altitudes, so less thrust
is required.
Turbine engines are much more efficient when operated at the upper end of their RPM range. Gen-
erally, the optimum cruise altitude for a turbojet airplane is the highest at which it is possible to maintain
the optimum aerodynamic conditions (best angle of attack) at maximum continuous power. The optimum
altitude is determined mainly by the aircraft’s gross weight at the beginning of cruise.
As an aircraft burns fuel and becomes lighter, the optimum cruise altitude slowly increases and the
speed that yields the optimum cruise performance slowly decreases. Since it is seldom practical to
change speed and altitude constantly, it is common procedure to maintain a constant Mach cruise at a
flight level close to optimum. As fuel is burned, thrust is reduced to maintain the constant Mach number.

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8383. What performance is characteristic of flight at 8401. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does
maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane? maximum range for a jet airplane occur?
A— Maximum range and distance glide. A— A speed less than that for L/DMAX.
B— Best angle of climb. B— A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.
C— Maximum endurance. C— A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.

Maximum range and glide distance is achieved at Maximum range is obtained at the aerodynamic condi-
L/DMAX. (PLT242, AA.I.B.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-3 tion which produces a maximum proportion between
Answer (B) is incorrect because best angle of climb is at a high angle the square root of the lift coefficient and the drag coef-
of attack with both high lift and high drag coefficients, which would ficient. It occurs where the proportion between velocity
not result in a maximum L/D ratio. Answer (C) is incorrect because and thrust required is greatest. This point is located
maximum endurance would be obtained at the point of minimum
power required, since this would require the lowest fuel flow to keep by a straight line from the origin tangent to the curve,
the airplane in steady, level flight. This is not at maximum L/D. and is consequently at a higher airspeed than L/DMAX.
(PLT303, AA.I.B.K2d) — ANA
Answer (A) is incorrect because a speed greater than L/DMAX will
obtain maximum range for a jet airplane. Answer (B) is incorrect
because a speed equal to that of L/DMAX is a jet airplane’s maximum
endurance, not range.

Answers
8383 [A] 8401 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 29

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8398. What should a pilot do to maintain “best range” 8381. Which maximum range factor decreases as
airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? weight decreases?
A— Increase speed. A— Angle of attack.
B— Maintain speed. B— Altitude.
C— Decrease speed. C— Airspeed.

While it is only necessary to consider wind velocity As fuel is consumed and the airplane’s weight decreases,
effect on cruise speed at wind velocities that exceed the optimum airspeed and power setting may decrease,
25% of the zero wind cruise speed, generally you should or the optimum altitude may increase. The optimum
increase cruise speed with a headwind and decrease angle of attack does not change with changes in weight.
cruise speed with a tailwind. (PLT303, AA.I.B.K2d) — (PLT006, AA.I.B.K2d) — FAA-H-8083-3
FAA-H-8083‑25 Answer (A) is incorrect because the factors of maximum range are
weight, altitude, and aerodynamic configuration of the airplane, not
angle of attack. Answer (B) is incorrect because maximum range
ATM, ATS, ADX altitude may increase with a decrease in weight.
9078. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel
consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
ATM, ATS, ADX
A— Increase speed for a headwind. 9077. Maximum range performance of a turbojet air-
B— Increase speed for a tailwind. craft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight
C— Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease reduces?
altitude for a tailwind.
A— Increasing speed or altitude.
When flying into a headwind the airspeed should be B— Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.
increased above that used for maximum range in calm C— Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.
winds. Airspeed should be decreased for a tailwind.
As a turbojet-powered airplane burns fuel, its maximum
(PLT015, AA.I.B.K2d) — ANA
range of profile can be maintained by increasing the
cruise altitude to improve the specific fuel consumption
of the engines and by decreasing airspeed to maintain
the optimum L/D ratio. (PLT015, AA.I.B.K2d) — ANA
Answer (A) is incorrect because, as weight decreases, the opti-
mum speed decreases, or altitude increases. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because, as weight decreases, speed decreases, or altitude
increases.

Landing Considerations
VS — stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable.
VS0 —stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
VREF —reference speed. It is normally 1.3 × VS0.

Even with all the aircraft’s high lift devices extended, a typical air carrier airplane has a high approach
speed and a long landing roll. An airplane is normally flown at 1.3 times the VS0 speed for the aircraft’s
weight. Of course, 1.3 times VS0 is an indicated airspeed and the ground speed will vary depending on
wind, altitude and temperature. A high temperature or high altitude approach will increase an aircraft’s
ground speed for any given approach speed.
Once an airplane has touched down on a runway there are 3 ways of slowing it to a stop: aerodynamic
braking, use of the wheel brakes, and reverse thrust.

Answers
8398 [C] 9078 [A] 8381 [C] 9077 [B]

4 – 30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

The typical technique for stopping an aircraft on a normal landing is to apply reverse thrust (or prop
reverse) once the nosewheel is on the ground. This takes maximum advantage of reverse thrust when
it is most effective and it saves wear on the wheel brakes, which heat up very rapidly at high ground
speeds. Shortly after touchdown, the spoilers are deployed. This reduces lift and increases drag. As the
aircraft slows, the main wheel brakes are applied to bring it down to taxiing speed. The brakes are most
effective when lift has been reduced (by spoilers and low airspeed) and more of the aircraft’s weight is
carried by the landing gear.
Water on a runway will increase the landing rollout because the reduced coefficient of friction makes
the wheel brakes less effective. This is particularly true at high ground speeds.
A very dangerous possibility when landing on a wet runway is hydroplaning. When hydroplaning
occurs, the wheel brakes are almost totally ineffective. This not only greatly increases the landing rollout,
but also introduces the possibility of losing directional control on sliding off the side of the runway. There
are three types of hydroplaning.
Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when a tire rolls through standing water, forms a bow wave, and then
rolls up on top of the wave, losing all contact with the runway. The minimum speed at which dynamic
hydroplaning can start is related to tire pressure. As a rule of thumb, dynamic hydroplaning will start at
speeds of greater than nine times the square root of the tire pressure in pounds per square inch. The
practical application is that your nose wheel can hydroplane at a lower speed than the mains because
of its lower pressure. Once dynamic hydroplaning has started, it can continue to much lower speeds.
Viscous hydroplaning occurs when there is a thin film of water covering a smooth surface such as
a painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. Viscous hydroplaning can occur at much lower speeds
than dynamic hydroplaning.
Reverted rubber hydroplaning occurs during a locked wheel skid. Water trapped between the tire
and the runway is heated by friction, and the tire rides along a pocket of steam.
When landing on a water-covered runway, fly the approach as close to “on speed” as possible.
Landing at a higher than recommended speed will greatly increase the potential for hydroplaning. After
touchdown, use aerodynamic braking and reverse thrust to maximum possible extent, saving the use of
wheel brakes until the speed is low enough to minimize the possibility of hydroplaning.
Regulations (14 CFR §121.195) require that when a turbojet aircraft is dispatched to an airport where
the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery, the effective length of the landing runway must be 115%
of what is required under dry conditions. Since runways cannot be lengthened, the effect of this rule is
to lower the maximum allowable landing weight of aircraft on wet runways for dispatch purposes.

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

9323. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed 9322. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum
or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing
is controllable? configuration?
A— VS0. A— VS.
B— VS. B— VS1.
C— VS1. C— VS0.

VS means the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight VS0 means the stalling speed or the minimum steady
speed at which the airplane is controllable. (PLT466, flight speed in the landing configuration. (PLT466,
AA.I.B.K2d) — 14 CFR §1.2 AA.I.B.K2d) — 14 CFR §1.2
Answer (A) is incorrect because VS0 is the stalling speed or the Answer (A) is incorrect because VS is the stalling speed or the
minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. Answer minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable.
(C) is incorrect because VS1 is the stalling speed or the minimum Answer (B) is incorrect because VS1 is the stalling speed or the
steady flight speed in a specific configuration. minimum steady flight speed in a specific configuration.

Answers
9323 [B] 9322 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 31

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8374. What effect does landing at high elevation airports 9079. How should reverse thrust propellers be used
have on groundspeed with comparable conditions rela- during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
tive to temperature, wind, and airplane weight? A— Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as
A— Higher than at low elevation. rollout speed decreases.
B— Lower than at low elevation. B— Use maximum reverse power as soon as
C— The same as at low elevation. possible after touchdown.
C— Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle
An airplane at altitude will land at the same indicated power setting of the engines.
airspeed as at sea level but, because of the reduced
air density, the true airspeed will be greater. Given the Reverse thrust is most effective at high airspeeds. It
same wind conditions, this will also make the ground should be used as soon as possible after touchdown.
speed higher than at sea level. (PLT124, AA.V.B.K1) — (PLT244, AA.VI.E.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25
FAA-H-8083-25
Answer (B) is incorrect because at high elevation there is reduced
air density, and thus TAS will increase. As TAS increases, ground ATM, ATS, ADX
speed will increase. Answer (C) is incorrect because, under com- 9084. Under which condition during the landing roll
parable conditions, TAS will increase and cause the ground speed are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?
to be higher, at higher elevation.
A— When wing lift has been reduced.
B— At high groundspeeds.
ATM, ATS, ADX C— When the wheels are locked and skidding.
9074. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce
landing distance for turbojet aircraft? Wheel brakes are at maximum effectiveness when the
A— Immediately after ground contact. weight of the airplane is used to hold the tires in contact
B— Immediately prior to touchdown. with the runway and the rate of wheel deceleration (or
C— After applying maximum wheel braking. slowing) is just below that which would induce a skid. To
place the maximum weight on the tires it is necessary
Thrust reversers are most effective at high speeds to reduce lift as soon as possible after touchdown by
and should be deployed immediately after touchdown. lowering the nose wheel to the runway and deploying
(PLT170, AA.I.E.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3 wing spoilers. Wheel brakes become more effective
as an airplane decelerates (or slows down) because of
loss of residual lift as the airspeed decreases. (PLT170,
ATM, ATS, ADX AA.VI.E.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25
9074-1. Upon landing, thrust reversers Answer (B) is incorrect because, at high ground speeds, the lift is
greater and the normal force on the wheels is small, thus the brak-
A— are required to obtain the calculated stopping ing friction force is small. Answer (C) is incorrect because, when the
distances. wheels are locked and skidding, the braking friction force is small.
B— should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is
in firm contact with the runway.
C— should be deployed immediately upon landing ATM, ATS
when airspeeds are highest. 9084-1. When is braking performance optimized dur-
ing landing?
If operating an aircraft such as the MD-80, thrust revers- A— Before the nose wheel touches down.
ers should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is B— Wheel spin-up at touchdown.
in firm contact with the runway. (PLT170, AA.I.E.K1) — C— Maximum weight on main wheels.
FAA-H-8083-3
Braking effectiveness is greatest when the aircraft
weight is transferred to the wheels. (PLT170, AA.I.A.K1)
— FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8374 [A] 9074 [A] 9074-1 [B] 9079 [B] 9084 [A] 9084-1 [C]

4 – 32 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8935. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could 8933. A definition of the term “viscous hydroplaning”
dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a is where
pressure of 121 PSI? A— the airplane rides on standing water.
A— 90 knots. B— a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-
B— 99 knots. coated portion of the runway.
C— 110 knots. C— the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a
mixture of steam and melted rubber.
Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when there is standing
water on the runway surface. Water about 1/10th of an Either the moisture or the originally slick surface could
inch deep acts to lift the tire off the runway. The minimum cause problems, and the combination is especially
speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been dangerous. (PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) — FAA-H-8083-3
determined to be about 9 times the square root of the Answer (A) is incorrect because dynamic hydroplaning occurs when
tire pressure in pounds per square inch: the airplane tires ride on standing water. Answer (C) is incorrect
because reverted rubber hydroplaning occurs when the tires of the
Square root of 121 = 11 airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.
11 × 9 = 99
(PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) — FAA-H-8083-3
ATM, ATS, ADX
8938. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what
ATM, ATS, ADX speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing
8936. At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning on a smooth, wet runway?
begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI? A— At approximately 2.0 times the speed that
A— 85 knots. dynamic hydroplaning occurs.
B— 80 knots. B— At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
C— 75 knots. C— At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.

Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when there is standing Viscous hydroplaning occurs due to the viscous proper-
water on the runway surface. Water about 1/10th of an ties of water. In this type, a thin film of fluid (not more
inch deep acts to lift the tire off the runway. The minimum than 1/1,000 of an inch in depth) cannot be penetrated
speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been by the tire and the tire rolls on top of the film. This can
determined to be about 9 times the square root of the occur at a much lower speed than dynamic hydroplan-
tire pressure in pounds per square inch: ing but requires a smooth acting surface. (PLT144,
AA.III.B.R1) — FAA-H-8083-3
Square root of 70 = 8.37
8.37 × 9 = 75.3
(PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) — FAA-H-8083-3 ATM, ATS, ADX
Answer (A) is incorrect because hydroplaning would occur at 85 8934. Which term describes the hydroplaning which
knots with a tire pressure of 95 PSI. Answer (B) is incorrect because occurs when an airplane’s tire is effectively held off a
hydroplaning would occur at 80 knots with a tire pressure of 84 PSI. smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?
A— Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
B— Dynamic hydroplaning.
C— Viscous hydroplaning.

This would typically occur if excessive braking kept a

wheel from rotating. (PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) — FAA-H-
8083-3
Answer (B) is incorrect because dynamic hydroplaning occurs
when there is standing water or slush on the runway which forms a
wedge that lifts the tire away from contact with the runway surface.
Answer (C) is incorrect because viscous hydroplaning occurs on
a thin film of water on a smooth (e.g., painted or rubber-coated)
runway surface.

Answers
8935 [B] 8936 [C] 8933 [B] 8938 [B] 8934 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 33

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ATS, ADX

8937. What is the best method of speed reduction if 8939. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-
hydroplaning is experienced on landing? recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
A— Apply full main wheel braking only. A— No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing
B— Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking roll.
alternately and abruptly. B— Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking
C— Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest is applied.
advantage. C— Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of
braking.
Since occurrence of dynamic hydroplaning is related
to speed, it is prudent to slow the aircraft with spoilers, Hydroplaning is most likely to occur during conditions
reverse thrust, etc., as much as possible prior to apply- of standing water or slush on a runway with a smooth
ing the brakes. (PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) — FAA-H-8083-3 textured surface. The higher the aircraft speed, the
Answer (A) is incorrect because applying full main wheel braking more likely it is to hydroplane. (PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) —
may increase or compound the problems associated with hydro- FAA-H-8083-3
planing. If any brakes are used, a pumping or modulating motion
like an antiskid system can be used. Aerodynamic braking is rec-
ommended. Answer (B) is incorrect because abrupt use of either
the nose wheel or main wheel brakes will lock the wheels and ATM, ADX
compound the problem. 8133. What effective runway length is required for a
turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the
runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
ATM, ATS, ADX
A— 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a
8937-1. Under what conditions might a pilot expect the
height of 50 feet over the threshold.
possibility of hydroplaning?
B— 115 percent of the runway length required for a
A— When landing on a wet runway that is covered in dry runway.
rubber from previous landings. C— 115 percent of the runway length required for a
B— When departing a grooved runway with less than wet runway.
a thousandth of an inch of water.
C— When the adiabatic lapse rate is high, and steam No person may takeoff in a turbojet-powered airplane
is rising from the landing surface. when the appropriate weather reports and forecasts,
or combination thereof, indicate that the runways at
Viscous hydroplaning requires a smooth, or smooth- the destination airport may be wet or slippery at the
acting surface such as asphalt or accumulated rubber estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway
from a past landing coating the touchdown area. To length at the destination airport is at least 115% of the
cause this hydroplaning, all that is needed is a thin runway length required for a landing on a dry runway.
film of fluid no more than 1/1,000th of an inch in depth. (PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) — 14 CFR §121.195
(PLT144, AA.III.B.R1) — FAA-H-8083-3 Answer (A) is incorrect because 70% is the requirement for the
turbopropeller aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because the effective
runway length is based on a dry runway.

Landing Performance Tables and Graphs

FAA Figures 457 and 458 are examples of landing performance charts. These are used to calculate
both the appropriate landing reference speeds and landing distances. As in most performance charts,
OAT, pressure altitude, wind and runway slope are the determining factors for calculating speeds and
distances used. As a general rule, always move to the next reference line on the chart, before making
any adjustments.

Answers
8937 [C] 8937-1 [A] 8939 [C] 8133 [B]

4 – 34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ALL ATM
9791. Approaching the runway 1° below glidepath can 8743. (Refer to Figure 460.) At a weight of 77,500
add how many feet to the landing distance? pounds, and a landing elevation below 5,000 feet, the
A— 250 feet. VREF is
B— 500 feet. A— 139 knots.
C— 1,000 feet. B— 141 knots.
C— 143 knots.
On final approach, at a constant airspeed, the glidepath
angle and rate of descent is controlled with pitch attitude On Figure 460, start on the right side of chart and
and elevator. The optimum glidepath angle is 2.5° to locate 77,500 pounds. Move left until intersecting the
3° whether or not an electronic glidepath reference is reference line for 5,000 feet and below. Move straight
being used. On visual approaches, pilots may have a down and note the VREF speed of 143 knots. (PLT008,
tendency to make flat approaches. A flat approach, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
however, will increase landing distance and should be
avoided. For example, an approach angle of 2° instead of
a recommended 3° will add 500 feet to landing distance. ATM, ADX
(PLT170, AA.I.B.K2e) — FAA-H-8083-3A 8744. (Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) At a weight of
73,500 pounds, the expected landing field length is
A— 6,700 feet.
ALL
B— 5,650 feet.
9792. Arriving over the runway 10 knots over VREF C— 6,450 feet.
would add approximately how many feet to the dry
landing distance? 1. On Figure 331, note the field elevation of 13 feet.
A— 800 feet. 2. On Figure 461, start on the right side of the page
B— 1,700 feet. at 73,500 pounds. Move directly to the left until you
C— 2,800 feet. intersect the S.L. line. Move straight down and note
the 5,650 feet landing field length.
Excess approach speed carried through the threshold
window and onto the runway will increase the minimum (PLT008, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
stopping distance required by 20–30 feet per knot of
excess speed for a dry runway. Worse yet, the excess
ATM, ADX
speed will increase the chances of an extended flare,
8745. (Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) What is the
which will increase the distance to touchdown by
maximum landing weight which will permit stopping
approximately 250 feet for each excess knot in speed.
2,000 feet short of the end of a 7,500-foot dry runway?
(PLT170, AA.I.B.K2e) — FAA-H-8083-3A
A— 32,200 pounds.
B— 71,000 pounds.
ATM C— 72,500 pounds.
8742. (Refer to Figures 327 and 457.) With a weight of
69,000 pounds, flaps 45, calm winds, the VREF is A landing weight of about 71,000 pounds will require
A— 136 knots. a distance of about 5,500 feet. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K1) —
B— 133 knots. FAA-H-8083-25
C— 129 knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because 32,000 is shown on the chart in kg.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a landing weight of 72,500 pounds
would require a landing distance greater than 5,500 feet.
1. On Figure 327, note the field elevation of 7,680 feet.
2. On Figure 457, start at 69,000 pounds on lower left
of chart. Move straight up until you intersect the
10,000 foot line. Move directly to the right and note
a VREF speed of 136 knots.
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9791 [B] 9792 [C] 8742 [A] 8743 [C] 8744 [B] 8745 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 35

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8746. (Refer to Figures 321 and 458.) With a reported 8753. (Refer to Figures 273 and 457). What is the land-
temperature of 15°C, a 0.8% upslope, and calm winds, ing field length on a wet runway with a headwind of 7
the maximum permissible quick turn-around landing knots and an aircraft weight of 83,000 pounds?
weight is A— 6,600 feet.
A— 81,000 pounds. B— 7,200 feet.
B— 81,600 pounds. C— 5,900 feet.
C— 82,000 pounds.
1. On Figure 273, note the field elevation of 1,135 feet.
1. On Figure 321, note the field elevation of 6,535 feet. 2. On Figure 457, start in the left section at the bottom
2. On Figure 458, start at the temperature of 15°C and of the graph, at 83,000 pounds. Move up until you
move directly right. Intersect the airport pressure intersect the 1,135 foot pressure altitude line. Move
altitude of 6,535 feet. Move down until intersecting directly to the right until you intersect the reference
the wind reference line. Winds are calm, so you line. Move diagonally down and to the right in paral-
can move down to the runway slope reference line. lel with the diagonal lines until you intersect the 7
Move diagonally up and to the right in parallel with knot line. Move right until you intersect the REF line.
the diagonal lines until intersecting the .8% upslope Move up and to the right in parallel with the diagonal
line. Move directly down and note the 81,000 pound line until intersecting the WET reference line. Move
maximum permissible landing weight. directly to the right and note a landing field length
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-25 of 6,600 feet.
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX
8750. (Refer to Figure 461.) What is the maximum land- ATM, ADX
ing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of 8756. (Refer to Figures 331 and 457.) What approach
the end of a 5,600 foot runway at sea level? speed and landing distance will be needed when land-
A— 61,000 pounds. ing at a weight of 75,000 pounds on a dry runway with
B— 59,000 pounds. calm winds?
C— 63,000 pounds. A— 131 knots and 5,600 feet.
B— 141 knots and 4,600 feet.
A landing weight of 61,000 pounds will cause the aircraft C— 141 knots and 5,600 feet.
to stop approximately 700 feet short of the end of the
runway. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-8083-25 Figure 331 shows an approximate airport elevation of
Answer (B) is incorrect because the aircraft will stop 950 feet short. 13 feet. At 75,000 pounds, the vertical line indicates
Answer (C) is incorrect because the aircraft will stop more than 700 a VREF speed of 141 knots and a landing distance of
feet short of the end of the runway. 5,600 feet in calm dry conditions. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K1)
— FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8746 [A] 8750 [A] 8753 [A] 8756 [C]

4 – 36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Miscellaneous Performance
VC —design cruising speed.
VMO /MMO —maximum operating limit speed.

An encounter with strong turbulence can result in structural damage to an aircraft, or inadvertent stall.
The sudden changes in wind direction and speed can result in very rapid changes in an aircraft’s angle
of attack. A sudden increase in angle of attack will cause the airplane to accelerate upward, increasing
both the load factor and the stalling speed.
For any combination of weight and altitude there will be a recommended “rough air” speed that pro-
vides the best protection from stalls and from the possibility of overstressing the aircraft. When clear air
turbulence has been reported in the area, a pilot should slow to the rough air speed upon encountering
the first ripple of turbulence.
In severe turbulence, it may be impossible to maintain a constant airspeed or altitude. If this hap-
pens, the pilot should set the power to that which would maintain the desired airspeed and maintain a
level flight attitude, accepting large variations in airspeed and altitude.

ALL ALL
9321. Which is the correct symbol for design cruising 9129. If severe turbulence is encountered, which pro-
speed? cedure is recommended?
A— VC. A— Maintain a constant altitude.
B— VS. B— Maintain a constant attitude.
C— VA. C— Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

VC —design cruising speed. In severe turbulence, the airspeed indicator is inaccu-

(PLT132, AA.I.B.K2d) — 14 CFR §1.2 rate; therefore the pilot should set power for the recom-
mended rough air speed and then maintain a level flight
Answer (B) is incorrect because VS is the stalling speed or minimum
steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable. Answer (C) attitude, accepting variations in indicated airspeed and
is incorrect because VA is maneuvering speed. altitude. (PLT501, AA.I.B.K4) — AC 00-30
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because severe turbulence
causes large variations in both indicated airspeed and altitude. Any
ALL attempt to maintain constant airspeed and altitude may overstress
the aircraft.
8344. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stall-
ing speed of an airfoil?
A— An abrupt change in relative wind. ATM, ATS, ADX
B— A decrease in angle of attack. 9320. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum
C— Sudden decrease in load factor. operating limit speed for an airplane?
A— VLE.
When an airplane flying at a high speed with a low
B— VMO / MMO.
angle of attack suddenly encounters a vertical current
C— VLO / MLO.
of air moving upward, the relative wind changes in an
upward direction as it meets the airfoil. This increases VMO/MMO —maximum operating limit speed.
the angle of attack. A downward gust would have the
effect of decreasing the angle of attack. (PLT245, (PLT466, AA.I.B.K2d) — 14 CFR §1.2
AA.I.B.K4) — FAA-H-8083-25 Answer (A) is incorrect because VLE is maximum landing gear
extended speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because VLO /MLO is the
Answer (B) is incorrect because a decrease in angle of attack would maximum speed for operating the landing gear.
decrease the possibility of a stall. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
sudden decrease in load factor would decrease the stalling speed.

Answers
9321 [A] 8344 [A] 9129 [B] 9320 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 37

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8668. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the 8671. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the rec-
recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under ommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under
Operating Conditions O-1? Operating Conditions O-4?
A— 219 knots and 1.83 EPR. A— 223 knots and 1.33 EPR.
B— 223 knots and 2.01 EPR. B— 225 knots and 1.33 EPR.
C— 217 knots and 1.81 EPR. C— 220 knots and 1.28 EPR.

Interpolation is required for FL310 and 102,000 pounds. Interpolation is required for FL080 and 113,000 pounds.
At FL350, the EPR value for 102,000 is 1.97. At FL300, At FL100, the EPR value for 113,000 is 1.35. At FL050,
the EPR value for 102,000 is 1.77. Interpolation for FL310 the EPR value for 113,000 is 1.29. Interpolation for FL080
results in an EPR value of 1.81. At FL350 the IAS for results in an EPR value of 1.33. At FL100, the IAS for
102,000 is 219 knots. At FL300 the IAS for 102,000 is 113,000 is 223 knots. At FL050, the IAS for 113,000 is
217 knots. Interpolating for FL310 results in an IAS value 222 knots. Interpolating for FL080 results in an IAS value
of 217 knots. (PLT007, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083‑25 of 223 knots. (PLT007, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083‑25

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8669. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the rec- 8672. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the rec-
ommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under ommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under
Operating Conditions O-2? Operating Conditions O-5?
A— 210 knots and 1.57 EPR. A— 219 knots and 1.28 EPR.
B— 210 knots and 1.51 EPR. B— 214 knots and 1.26 EPR.
C— 210 knots and 1.45 EPR. C— 218 knots and 1.27 EPR.

Interpolation is required for FL230 and 93,000 pounds. Interpolation is required for FL040 and 109,000 pounds.
At FL250, the EPR value for 93,000 is 1.56. At FL200, At FL050, the EPR value for 109,000 is 1.28. At FL015,
the EPR value for 93,000 is 1.44. Interpolation for FL230 the EPR value for 109,000 is 1.24. Interpolation for FL040
results in an EPR value of 1.51. At FL250, the IAS for results in an EPR value of 1.27. At FL050, the IAS for
93,000 is 210 knots. At FL200, the IAS for 93,000 is 210 109,000 is 218 knots. At FL015, the IAS for 109,000 is
knots. Interpolating for FL230 results in an IAS value 218 knots. Interpolating for FL040 results in an IAS value
of 210 knots. (PLT007, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 of 218 knots. (PLT007, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083‑25

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8670. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the rec- 8673. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approxi-
ommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating
Operating Conditions O-3? Conditions O-1?
A— 217 knots and 1.50 EPR. A— 1,625 pounds.
B— 215 knots and 1.44 EPR. B— 1,950 pounds.
C— 216 knots and 1.40 EPR. C— 2,440 pounds.

Interpolation is required for FL170 and 104,000 pounds. Compute the fuel flow for the holding time as follows:
At FL200, the EPR value for 104,000 is 1.50. At FL150, Fuel flow per engine = 2,434 × 2 = 4,868 ÷ 60 × 20
the EPR value for 104,000 is 1.40. Interpolation for FL170 = 1,623
results in an EPR value of 1.44. At FL200, the IAS for
104,000 is 216 knots. At FL150, the IAS for 104,000 is (PLT012, AA.VI.J.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
215 knots. Interpolating for FL170 results in an IAS value
of 215 knots. (PLT007, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083‑25

Answers
8668 [C] 8669 [B] 8670 [B] 8671 [A] 8672 [C] 8673 [A]

4 – 38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8674. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approxi­ 8677. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approxi­
mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating
Conditions O-2? Conditions O-5?
A— 2,250 pounds. A— 2,950 pounds.
B— 2,500 pounds. B— 2,870 pounds.
C— 3,000 pounds. C— 2,400 pounds.

Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows: Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows:
Fuel flow per engine = 2,248 × 2 = 4,496 ÷ 60 × 40 Fuel flow per engine = 2,873 × 2 = 5,746 ÷ 60 × 25
= 2,997 = 2,394
(PLT012, AA.VI.J.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012, AA.VI.J.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8675. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approxi­ 9943. (Refer to Figure 69.) Before departure, you
mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating learn that your destination airport’s arrivals are holding
Conditions O-3? for 30 minutes on the arrival. In a two-engine aircraft,
A— 2,940 pounds. how many pounds of fuel would be required to hold at
B— 2,520 pounds. 10,000 feet with an EPR of 1.26 and an airplane weight
C— 3,250 pounds. of 85,000 pounds?
A— 1,155 pounds.
Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows: B— 2,310 pounds.
Fuel flow per engine = 2,518 × 2 = 5,036 ÷ 60 × 35 C— 4,620 pounds.
= 2,938
Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows:
(PLT012, AA.VI.J.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
Fuel flow per engine = 2,310 × 2 = 4,620 ÷ 60 × 30 =
2,310 pounds.
ATM, ADX (PLT012, AA.VI.J.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25
8676. (Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approxi­
mate fuel consumed when holding under Operating
Conditions O-4? ATM, ATS, ADX
A— 2,870 pounds. 8727-1. (Refer to Figure 21.) You are taking off from a
B— 2,230 pounds. runway with a 330° magnetic course. Tower reported
C— 1,440 pounds. winds are 290° at 25 knots. The computed headwind
component for takeoff is
Compute the fuel used for the holding time as follows: A— 19 knots.
Fuel flow per engine = 2,866 × 2 = 5,732 ÷ 60 × 15 B— 25 knots.
= 1,433 C— 16 knots.
(PLT012, AA.VI.J.K2) — FAA-H-8083-25 First, subtract the wind direction from takeoff heading:
330 − 290 = 40 degrees. Then, find the intersection of
40 degrees (angle between wind and runway) and 25
knots (wind velocity). Going to the left, find a headwind
component of 19 knots. (PLT013, AA.III.A.K1) — FAA-
H-8083-25

Answers
8674 [C] 8675 [A] 8676 [C] 8677 [C] 9943 [B] 8727-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 39

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8727. (Refer to Figures 287 and 421.) The winds are 8730. (Refer to Figure 459.) For a supplemental charter,
reported as 220/15. You compute tailwind component, a still-air range of 2,250 NM is required. The payload
hoping for a Runway 33 takeoff. You compute the tail- for this nonstop trip is
wind to be A— 5,100 pounds.
A— 14 knots. B— 5,900 pounds.
B— 10 knots. C— 6,100 pounds.
C— 5 knots.
On Figure 459, and maintaining the por trait
The angle between the winds and the runway is 110°. perspective,start at the right side of the chart and find
On Figure 421, starting on the left side of the chart at the still-air range of 2,250 NM. Move directly to the left
zero, move down and to the right along the 110 line until until you intersect the MAX FUEL 19450 LB reference
intersecting the 15 knots point. Then move directly to line. Then move straight down and note the payload of
the left and note a tailwind (indicated by the minus sign) 5,100 pounds. (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3f) — FAA-H-8083-25
of 5 knots. (PLT013, AA.III.A.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX
ATM, ADX 8731. (Refer to Figure 417.) You find one air data com-
8728. (Refer to Figure 422.) At a weight of 68,500 puter listed on the MEL as inoperative, leaving one ADC
pounds with gear and flaps up, you find the reference operative during your preflight logbook inspection. This
stall speed to be means the flight
A— 148 knots. A— must fly non-RVSM flight levels above FL330.
B— 145 knots. B— can only fly between FL290.
C— 142 knots. C— must remain below FL290 unless dispatch
obtains a deviation from ATC.
On Figure 422, use the upper chart that indicates FLAP
0/GEAR UP. Find the gross weight of 68,500 pounds at Figure 417 indicates that two air data computers (ADCs)
the bottom of the chart and move up until intersecting are required for RVSM operations. Because RVSM
the reference line. Then move directly to the left and airspace starts at FL290, you will not be able to climb
note a reference stall speed of 142 knots. (PLT 018, above FL290 unless you receive special permission
AA.V.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 or a deviation from ATC. (PLT428, AA.I.A.K17) — FAA-
H-8083-25

ATM, ADX
8729. (Refer to Figure 459.) With a payload of 20,000 ATM, ADX
pounds, the still-air range is 8732. (Refer to Figure 438.) With an actual runway
A— 1,350 NM. length of 6,400 feet with 8 flaps, a 1% downslope, a 200
B— 1,410 NM. foot clearway, and 4 knots of tailwind, the Reference A is
C— 1,590 NM. A— 2.12.
B— 2.02.
On Figure 459, find the payload of 20,000 pounds on the C— 1.94.
bottom of the chart. Move directly up until you intersect
the MTOW 82500 LB line. Then move directly to the On Figure 438, start on the left side and find 6,400 feet.
right and note the still-air range of 1,410 NM. (PLT121, Move right until you intersect the REF LINE. Move up
AA.I.B.K3f) — FAA-H-8083-25 and right in parallel with the diagonal lines until you
intersect the 200-foot clearway line. Move directly to
the right until you intersect the next REF LINE. Move
up and left in parallel with the diagonal lines until you
intersect the -1 runway slope line. Move directly right
until intersecting the Reported Wind REF LINE. Move
down and left in parallel with the diagonal lines until
you intersect the -4 wind line. Move directly to the right
and note the 1.94 Reference A. (PLT428, AA.I.B.K2f)
— FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8727 [C] 8728 [C] 8729 [B] 8730 [A] 8731 [C] 8732 [C]

4 – 40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8733. (Refer to Figures 318 and 439.) With a reported 9128. What action is appropriate when encountering
temperature of 30°C with packs on and anti-ice off, the the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)?
Reference B is A— Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.
A— 28.2. B— Extend gear to provide more drag and increase
B— 29.8. stability.
C— 30.7. C— Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

1. On Figure 318 note the field elevation of 4,227 feet. In an area where significant clear air turbulence has
2. On Figure 439, find the section of the chart that been reported or is forecast, the pilot should adjust the
indicates ANTI-ICE OFF PACKS ON and start at speed to fly at the recommended rough air speed on
the bottom of that section at 30°C. Move straight up encountering the first ripple, since the intensity of such
until you intersect the 4,227 feet line. Move directly turbulence may build up rapidly. (PLT501, AA.I.D.R4)
to the right and note the Reference B of 29.8. — AC 00-30
Answer (A) is incorrect because use of flaps increases the camber
(PLT328, AA.I.B.K6) — FAA-H-8083-25 of the wing and angle of attack, but does not decrease the amount
of wing loading. Answer (B) is incorrect because extending the gear
would increase the drag, but would not change the stability of the
ATM, ADX airplane.
8734. (Refer to Figure 440, All Engines.) With a Refer-
ence A of 3.00 and Reference B of 28.5, the takeoff
ATM, ADX
weight is limited to
9937. (Refer to Figure 473.) What is the maximum per-
A— 78,500 pounds. missible takeoff weight with an airfield altitude of 7,300
B— 76,500 pounds. feet and an outside air temperature of 24°C?
C— 75,000 pounds.
A— 65,000 pounds.
On Figure 440, start at the right side of the chart and B— 62,400 pounds.
find the Reference B of 28.5. Move directly right until C— 63,800 pounds.
you intersect the REF LINE. Move up and to the right
On Figure 473, start at the bottom and find 24°C. Move
diagonally until you intersect the Reference A line of
straight up until you intersect the 7,300 foot airfield alti-
3.00. Move directly to the right and note the aircraft
tude line. Move straight to the right and note a maximum
weight of 76,500 pounds. (PLT328, AA.I.B.K2b) —
permissible takeoff weight of 63,800 pounds. (PLT011,
FAA-H-8083-25
AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25

Engine-Out Procedures
VMC —minimum control speed with the critical engine inoperative.
VXSE —best single engine angle-of-climb speed.
VYSE —best single engine rate-of-climb speed.

When an engine fails in flight, the effect on aircraft performance is drastic. For example, the loss of
one engine on a two-engine aircraft will result in a loss of climb performance in excess of 50%. Climb
performance is determined by the amount of power available in excess of that required for level flight.
The one remaining engine must provide all of the power required for level flight. It may be able to develop
little or no excess power that would allow for a climb.
When an engine fails in cruise flight, the pilot should slow the aircraft to its best single-engine rate-
of-climb speed (VYSE) and apply maximum continuous power on the remaining engine. The airplane
may or may not be able to climb. If it cannot climb at the present altitude, at least it will descend at the

Answers
8733 [B] 8734 [B] 9128 [C] 9937 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 41

Chapter 4 Performance

minimum possible rate of sink and level off at its maximum engine-out altitude. It may be necessary to
dump fuel to improve the altitude capability of the aircraft.
A multi-engine airplane should never be flown below its minimum control speed (VMC). If it is below
VMC and an engine failure occurs, it may be impossible to maintain directional control with the other
engine operating at full power. VMC will vary with the aircraft’s center of gravity location. VMC will be
highest with the CG at its most rearward-allowed position.
A three- or four-engine turbine-powered airplane, used by an air carrier, may be ferried to a mainte-
nance base with one engine inoperative if certain requirements are met. These requirements include:
• The airplane model must have been test flown to show that such an operation is safe.
• The operator’s approved flight manual must contain performance data for such an operation.
• The operating weight of the aircraft must be limited to the minimum required for flight plus any required
reserve fuel.
• Takeoffs are usually limited to dry runways.
• The computed takeoff performance must be within acceptable limits (this will vary depending on the
type of aircraft).
• The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.
• Only required flight crewmembers may be on the aircraft.
• Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR.

ATM, ATS, ADX When one engine fails on a light twin, performance is not
8369. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above really halved, but is actually reduced by 80% or more.
single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be main- The performance loss is greater than 50% because an
tained? airplane’s climb performance is a function of the thrust
A— VMC. horsepower, which is in excess of that required for level
B— VYSE. flight. (PLT223, AA.I.B.K2g) — FAA-H-8083-3
C— VXSE. Answer (A) is incorrect because the power loss affects climb capa-
bility much more than it does cruise speed. Answer (C) is incorrect
because climb capability is significantly (more than 50%) reduced.
If an airplane is not capable of maintaining altitude with
an engine inoperative under existing circumstances, the
airspeed should be maintained within ±5 knots of the ATM, ATS, ADX
engine-out best rate-of-climb speed (VYSE), in order to 8371. Under what condition is VMC the highest?
conserve altitude as long as possible to reach a suitable
landing area. (PLT208, AA.I.B.K2g) — FAA-H-8083-3 A— Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.
B— CG is at the most rearward allowable position.
C— CG is at the most forward allowable position.
ATM, ATS, ADX
8370. What is the resulting performance loss when one VMC is greater when the center of gravity is at the most
engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? rearward-allowed position. (PLT466, AA.I.B.K3e) —
FAA-H-8083-3
A— Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the location of the weight (i.e., CG)
B— Reduction of climb by 80 to 90 percent. is more critical than the amount of weight. Answer (C) is incorrect
C— Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. because a forward CG increases rudder effectiveness and reduces
VMC.

Answers
8369 [B] 8370 [B] 8371 [B]

4 – 42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a

9355. Which operational requirement must be observed ferry flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine-
by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three- powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera-
engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
another to repair an inoperative engine? Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include:
A— The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must 1. The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures
not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway and performance data which allow for the safe opera-
length. tion of such a flight.
B— The existing and forecast weather for departure,
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated
en route, and approach must be VFR.
areas.
C— No passengers may be carried.
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a airports must be VFR.
ferry flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine- 4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board
powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera- the aircraft.
tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include: (PLT367, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.611
1. The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures
and performance data which allow for the safe opera- ATM, ATS, ADX
tion of such a flight. 9358. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large,
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane
areas. from one facility to another to repair an inoperative
engine. Which is an operational requirement for the
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination three-engine flight?
airports must be VFR.
A— The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed
4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross
the aircraft. weight.
(PLT367, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.611 B— Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
Answer (A) is incorrect because runway length allowing V1 in less airports must be VFR.
than 70% of the runway is not required for ferry flights with one C— The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must
engine inoperative. Answer (B) is incorrect because the weather not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway
conditions must be VFR only for takeoff and landing.
length.

ATM, ATS, ADX

A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a
9355-1. You are assigned to ferry a large, three-engine, ferry flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine-
turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera-
to repair an inoperative engine. You know you are tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
restricted to Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include:
A— VFR weather for takeoff, en route, and landing. 1. The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures
B— flight crewmembers only aboard. and performance data which allow for the safe opera-
C— a computed takeoff distance to reach V1 that tion of such a flight.
cannot exceed 70 percent of the effective runway 2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated
length. areas.
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
airports must be VFR.
4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board
the aircraft.
(PLT367, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.611

Answers
9355 [C] 9355-1 [B] 9358 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 43

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a

9359. Which operational requirement must be observed ferry flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine-
when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera-
three turbine engines is inoperative? tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
A— The weather conditions at takeoff and destination Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include:
must be VFR. 1. The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures
B— The flight cannot be conducted between official and performance data which allow for the safe opera-
sunset and official sunrise. tion of such a flight.
C— Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated
minimums for the entire route, including takeoff
areas.
and landing.
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a airports must be VFR.
ferry flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine- 4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board
powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera- the aircraft.
tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include: (PLT367, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.611
Answer (B) is incorrect because the weather conditions must be
1. The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures VFR only for takeoff and landing. Answer (C) is incorrect because
and performance data which allow for the safe opera- a ferry flight may be conducted after sunset and before sunrise as
tion of such a flight. long as the takeoff and destination airports are VFR.

2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated

areas. ATM, ATS, ADX
3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination 9361. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be
airports must be VFR. ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine,
which operational requirement must be observed?
4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board
the aircraft. A— Only the required flight crewmembers may be on
board the airplane.
(PLT367, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.611
B— The existing and forecast weather for departure,
Answer (B) is incorrect because a ferry flight may be conducted
after sunset and before sunrise as long as the takeoff and destina-
en route, and approach must be VFR.
tion airports are VFR. Answer (C) is incorrect because the weather C— No passengers except authorized maintenance
conditions must be VFR only for takeoff and landing. personnel may be carried.

A commercial operator of large aircraft may conduct a

ATM, ATS, ADX ferry flight of a four-engine airplane or a turbine-engine-
9360. Which operational requirement must be observed powered, three-engine airplane with one engine inopera-
when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane tive, to a base for the purpose of repairing the engine.
when one of its engines is inoperative? Several restrictions apply to such flights. These include:
A— The weather conditions at takeoff and destination 1. The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures
must be VFR. and performance data which allow for the safe opera-
B— Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR tion of such a flight.
minimums for the entire route, including takeoff
2. The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated
and landing.
areas.
C— The flight cannot be conducted between official
sunset and sunrise. 3. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination
airports must be VFR.
4. Only required flight crewmembers may be on board
the aircraft.
(PLT367, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.611
Answer (B) is incorrect because the weather conditions must be
VFR only for takeoff and landing. Answer (C) is incorrect because
only the required flight crewmembers may be aboard.

Answers
9359 [A] 9360 [A] 9361 [A]

4 – 44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX 1. Initial weight 181,500

8678. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump Zero fuel wt. – 126,000
time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial fuel wt. 55,500
Initial weight................................................. 180,500 lb 2. Ending weight 151,500
Zero fuel weight........................................... 125,500 lb Zero fuel wt. – 126,000
A— 13 minutes. Ending fuel wt. 25,500
B— 15 minutes.
3. Dump time = 12.875 minutes
C— 16 minutes.
(PLT016, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
1. Initial weight 180,500
Zero fuel wt. – 125,500
ATM, ADX
Initial fuel wt. 55,000
8681. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump
2. Ending weight 144,500 time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds
Zero fuel wt. – 125,500 (at 2,350 lbs/min)?
Ending fuel wt. 19,000 Initial weight..................................................175,500 lb
3. Dump time = 15.25 minutes Zero fuel weight........................................... 138,000 lb
(PLT016, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 A— 9 minutes.
B— 10 minutes.
C— 8 minutes.
ATM, ADX
8679. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump 1. Initial weight 175,500
time is required to reduce fuel load to 25,000 pounds? Zero fuel wt. – 138,000
Initial weight..................................................179,500 lb Initial fuel wt. 37,500
Zero fuel weight........................................... 136,500 lb 2. Ending fuel wt. 16,000
A— 10 minutes. 3. Dump time = 8.8125 minutes
B— 9 minutes.
C— 8 minutes. (PLT016, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

1. Initial weight 179,500

ATM, ADX
Zero fuel wt. – 136,500
8682. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi-
Initial fuel wt. 43,000 mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under
2. Ending fuel wt. 25,000 Operating Conditions D-1?
3. Dump time = 7.6 minutes A— 19,400 feet.
(PLT016, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— 18,000 feet.
C— 20,200 feet.

ATM, ADX Assume the aircraft weighs 100,000 pounds at the time
8680. (Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump of its engine failure and the engine anti-ice is on. If the
time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? temperature is ISA, the level-off altitude is 19,400 feet.
(PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — FAA-H-8083-25
Initial weight..................................................181,500 lb
Zero fuel weight........................................... 126,000 lb
A— 15 minutes.
B— 14 minutes.
C— 13 minutes.

Answers
8678 [B] 8679 [C] 8680 [C] 8681 [A] 8682 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 45

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8683. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi- 8685. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi-
mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under
Operating Conditions D-2? Operating Conditions D-4?
A— 14,700 feet. A— 27,900 feet.
B— 17,500 feet. B— 22,200 feet.
C— 18,300 feet. C— 24,400 feet.

Assume the aircraft weighs 110,000 pounds at the time Assume the aircraft weighs 80,000 pounds at the time
of its engine failure. If the temperature is ISA +10°C, the of its engine failure. If the temperature is ISA -10°C, the
level-off altitude is 17,500 feet. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) — level-off altitude is 24,400 feet. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c)
FAA-H-8083-25 — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8684. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi- 8686. (Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approxi-
mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under mate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under
Operating Conditions D-3? Operating Conditions D-5?
A— 22,200 feet. A— 8,800 feet.
B— 19,800 feet. B— 9,600 feet.
C— 21,600 feet. C— 13,000 feet.

Assume the aircraft weighs 90,000 pounds at the time Assume the aircraft weighs 120,000 pounds at the time
of its engine failure. If the temperature is ISA -10°C, the of its engine failure. If the temperature is ISA +20°C, the
level-off altitude is 21,600 feet. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c) level-off altitude is 8,800 feet. When engine bleed-air
— FAA-H-8083-25 for air conditioning is off below 17,000 feet, increase
level-off altitude by 800 feet. Therefore, the level-off
altitude is 9,600 feet (8,800 + 800). (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2c)
— FAA-H-8083-25

C208 Aircraft Performance

ATS, ADX ATS, ADX
8459. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi- 8460. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi-
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff? tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff?
Pressure altitude.............................................. 9,000 ft Pressure altitude.............................................. 4,500 ft
Temperature (OAT)............................................... +3°C Temperature (OAT)............................................. +35°C
Cabin Heat............................................................ OFF Cabin Heat............................................................ OFF
A— 1,800 foot-pounds. A— 1,760 foot-pounds.
B— 1,840 foot-pounds. B— 1,840 foot-pounds.
C— 1,775 foot-pounds. C— 1,675 foot-pounds.

Enter the graph at +3°C and proceed up to 9,000 feet, Enter the graph at +35°C and proceed up to 4,500
then over to the left to read 1,840 foot-pounds of torque. feet, then over to the left to read 1,760 foot-pounds of
Note that the pressure altitude levels are given in thou- torque. Note that the pressure altitude levels are given
sand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to 8,000, 10 in thousand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to
is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA- 8,000, 10 is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169, AA.I.B.K2b)
H-8083-25 — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8683 [B] 8684 [C] 8685 [C] 8686 [B] 8459 [B] 8460 [A]

4 – 46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, ADX Enter the graph at +15°C and proceed up to 9,000

8461. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi- feet, then over to the left to read 1,710 foot-pounds of
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff? torque. Note 4 states that with cabin heat on, decrease
Pressure altitude.............................................. 1,000 ft torque setting by 65 foot-pounds: 1,710 – 65 = 1,645
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +40°C foot-pounds. Note that the pressure altitude levels are
Cabin Heat............................................................ OFF given in thousand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to
8,000, 10 is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169, AA.I.B.K2b)
A— 1,800 foot-pounds. — FAA-H-8083-25
B— 1,725 foot-pounds.
C— 1,865 foot-pounds.
ATS, ADX
Enter the graph at +40°C and proceed up to 1,000 8464. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the fol-
feet, then over to the left to read 1,865 foot-pounds of lowing conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a
torque. Note that the pressure altitude levels are given 50-foot obstacle?
in thousand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to
8,000, 10 is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169, AA.I.B.K2b) Pressure Altitude.......................................... Sea Level
— FAA-H-8083-25 Temperature (OAT)............................................. +20°C
Wind............................................... 11 knots headwind
A— 2,570 feet.
ATS, ADX B— 2,313 feet.
8462. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi- C— 2,160 feet.
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff?
Pressure altitude.............................................. 6,000 ft Find the column marked 20°C and “Total Distance
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +25°C to Clear 50 foot obstacle.” Move down to intersect a
Cabin Heat..............................................................ON pressure altitude of sea level, and find 2,570. Note 2
on Figure 394 requires you to reduce the distance by
A— 1,800 foot-pounds. 10% for each 11 knots of headwind.
B— 1,735 foot-pounds.
C— 1,865 foot-pounds. 2,570 × .10 = 257
2,570 – 257 = 2,313 feet
Enter the graph at +25°C and proceed up to 6,000
feet, then over to the left to read 1,800 foot-pounds of (PLT169, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25
torque. Note 4 states that with cabin heat on, decrease
torque setting by 65 foot-pounds: 1,800 – 65 = 1,735 ATS, ADX
foot-pounds. Note that the pressure altitude levels are 8465. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the follow-
given in thousand feet increments, therefore 8 is equal to ing conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll?
8,000, 10 is equal to 10,000, etc. (PLT169, AA.I.B.K2b)
— FAA-H-8083-25 Pressure Altitude.............................................. 4,000 ft
Temperature (OAT)................................................. 0°C
Wind.................................................... 4 knots tailwind
ATS, ADX A— 1,655 feet.
8463. (Refer to Figure 392.) Given the following condi- B— 1,820 feet.
tions, what is the maximum torque for takeoff? C— 1,986 feet.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 9,000 ft
Temperature (OAT)..............................................+15°C Find the column marked 0°C and “Ground Roll Feet.”
Cabin Heat..............................................................ON Move down to intersect a pressure altitude of 4,000
feet and find 1,655 feet. Note 2 requires you to increase
A— 1,645 foot-pounds.
ground roll by 10% for each two knots of tailwind, there-
B— 1,710 foot-pounds.
fore 4 knots total would equal a 20% increase.
C— 1,675 foot-pounds.
1655 × .20 = 331
1655 + 331 = 1,986 feet
(PLT169, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8461 [C] 8462 [B] 8463 [A] 8464 [B] 8465 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 47

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, ADX At 4,000 feet and 20°C, find 3,295 feet to clear a 50-foot
8466. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the fol- obstacle. At 6,000 and 20°C, find 3,765 feet to clear a
lowing conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle. To find the distance to clear a 50-foot
50-foot obstacle? obstacle at 5,000 feet, interpolate between 4,000 feet
Pressure altitude.............................................. 2,000 ft and 6,000 feet to find 3,530 feet. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b)
Temperature (OAT)..............................................+15°C — FAA-H-8083-25
Weight.............................................................8750 lbs
Wind.....................................................................Calm
ATS, ADX
A— 2,823 feet. 9918. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) With an airport
B— 1,595 feet. pressure altitude of 6,000 feet and an OAT of 10°C,
C— 2,905 feet. INERTIAL SEPARATOR NORMAL, and a 2 knot tailwind,
the short field takeoff ground roll distance is computed as
At 2,000 feet and 10°C, find 2,740 feet to clear a 50-foot
obstacle. At 2,000 and 20°C, find 2,905 feet to clear a A— 3,540 feet.
50-foot obstacle. To find the distance to clear a 50-foot B— 2,015 feet.
obstacle at 15°C, interpolate to find the difference: 2740 C— 2,217 feet.
+ 2905 = 5675 / 2 = 2,823 feet. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b)
At 6,000 feet and 20°C, find 2,015 feet for the ground roll.
— FAA-H-8083-25
This needs to be increased 10% for the 2-knot tailwind:
2,015 + 201.5 = 2,216.5 feet. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) —
ATS, ADX FAA-H-8083-25
8467. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the follow-
ing conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll?
ATS, ADX
Pressure altitude.............................................. 4,000 ft 8479. (Refer to Figures 298, 394, and 395.) With an
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +10°C OAT of 30°C, inertial separator set to normal, and a
Weight.............................................................8750 lbs 12-knot headwind, you calculate the short field takeoff
Wind.........................................................HW 11 knots distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle to be
A— 1,760 feet. A— 3,510 feet.
B— 1,584 feet. B— 3,833 feet.
C— 1,936 feet. C— 4,370 feet.
At 4,000 feet and 10°C, find a ground roll of 1,760 feet. 1. On Figure 298, find the field elevation of 5,837 feet.
On Figure 394, Note 2 requires you to decrease distance
2. On Figure 395, find the OAT of 30°C and note the
10% for each 11 knots of headwind.
distances over a 50-foot obstacle to be 3,510 feet
1760 × .10 = 176 at a 4,000-foot pressure altitude and 4,370 feet at a
1760 – 176 = 1,584 feet 6,000-foot pressure altitude. Interpolating for 5,837
feet yields a distance of 4,300 feet.
(PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Because of the 12-knot headwind, you must reduce
the distance by approximately 10.9% (10% for each
ATS, ADX 11 knots): 4,300 – 469 = 3,831 feet.
8468. (Refer to Figures 394 and 395.) Given the fol-
(PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25
lowing conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a
50-foot obstacle?
Pressure altitude.............................................. 5,000 ft ATS, ADX
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +20°C 8480. (Refer Figure 398.) With an OAT of 20°C, inertial
Weight............................................................8,750 lbs separator normal, and gross weight of 8,750 pounds,
Wind.....................................................................Calm you calculate the climb gradient at 8,000 feet to be
A— 3,530 feet. A— 495 ft/NM.
B— 3,765 feet. B— 410 ft/NM.
C— 2,010 feet. C— 330 ft/NM.

Answers
8466 [A] 8467 [B] 8468 [A] 9918 [C] 8479 [B] 8480 [C]

4 – 48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

On Figure 398, locate the gross weight figure of 8,750 ATS

in the upper left side of the chart. Proceed to the right at 8117. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing
the 8,000 feet pressure altitude level until you intersect distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered,
the 20°C and note the climb gradient of 330 feet per small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24
NM. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25 (dry) at the alternate airport?
A— 5,490 feet.
B— 6,210 feet.
ATS, ADX
C— 6,405 feet.
9919. (Refer to Figure 398.) With an OAT of 0°C, INER-
TIAL SEPARATOR in BYPASS, CABIN HEAT ON, and The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small
a gross weight of 8,750 pounds, calculation of the climb transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
gradient at 6,000 feet is and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
A— 495 feet per nautical mile. runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
B— 535 feet per nautical mile. Compute for runway 24 as follows:
C— 545 feet per nautical mile. 10,350
– 1,200
On Figure 398, locate the gross weight of 8,750 pounds
in the upper left side of the chart. Proceed to the right at 9,150 × .7 = 6,405
the 6,000 feet pressure altitude level until you intersect (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387,
the 0°C and note the climb gradient of 545 ft/NM. The 135.397
notes at the bottom of the figure indicate that the climb
needs to be decreased 10 ft/NM for inertial separator
in bypass and 40 ft/NM for cabin heat on: 545−50 = ATS
495 feet per nautical mile. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2b) — 8118. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing
FAA-H-8083-25 distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-
powered, small transport category airplane to land on
Rwy 24 (dry) at the destination airport?
ATS, ADX A— 5,490 feet.
8481. (Refer to Figure 399.) With an OAT of 15°C, inertial B— 6,210 feet.
separator set in bypass, and a gross weight of 8,750 C— 6,405 feet.
pounds, you calculate the climb fuel to 12,000 feet to be
A— 105 lbs. The maximum landing percentages for reciprocating
B— 112 lbs. transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
C— 147 lbs. and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
On Figure 399, start at the gross weight of 8,750 pounds Compute for runway 24 as follows:
and move to the right across the 12,000 feet pressure 10,350
altitude level until you intersect the “Standard Tempera- – 1,200
ture/Fuel LBS” column. Note the 105 lbs of fuel used in
9,150 × .6 = 5,490
the climb. Note 3 states that for each 2,000 feet of climb,
add 1% to this figure. Because of the climb to 12,000 (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.375, 135.377,
feet, increase the 105 figure by 6% (1% for each 2,000 135.397
feet to 12,000). 6% of 105 is 6.3 feet. 105 + 6.3 = 111.3
feet. Note that 15°C is the standard temperature at sea
level where the climb begins. (PLT004, AA.I.B.K2b) —
FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9919 [A] 8481 [B] 8117 [C] 8118 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 49

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS ATS
8119. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing 8121. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing
distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered,
small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (dry) small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24
at the alternate airport? (dry) at the destination airport?
A— 5,460 feet. A— 5,460 feet.
B— 6,210 feet. B— 5,490 feet.
C— 6,370 feet. C— 6,210 feet.

The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine-
transport category airplanes are 60% at destination powered small transport category airplanes are 60%
and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion). length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear-
Compute for runway 6 as follows: ance portion). Compute for runway 24 as follows:
10,350 10,350
– 1,250 – 1,200
9,100 × .7 = 6,370 9,150 × .6 = 5,490
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387, (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387,
135.395 135.395

ATS ATS
8120. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing 8122. (Refer to Figure 1.) What is the maximum landing
distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine- distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered,
powered, small transport category airplane to land on small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet)
Rwy 6 (dry) at the destination airport? at the destination airport?
A— 5,460 feet. A— 5,460 feet.
B— 6,210 feet. B— 9,100 feet.
C— 6,370 feet. C— 6,279 feet.

The maximum landing percentages for reciprocating The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine-
transport category airplanes are 60% at destination powered small transport category airplanes are 60%
and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion). length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear-
Compute for runway 6 as follows: ance portion). Compute for runway 6 as follows:
10,350 10,350
– 1,250 – 1,250
9,100 × .6 = 5,460 9,100 × .6 = 5,460
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.375, 135.377, 14 CFR §135.385 is misleading here because you
135.397 must increase actual landing distance by 115% to find
the effective runway length wet, but the question asks
for maximum landing distance, not effective landing
distance. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385,
135.387, 135.395

Answers
8119 [C] 8120 [A] 8121 [B] 8122 [A]

4 – 50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATS ATS
8123. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing 8125. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing
distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered,
small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19 small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry)
(dry) at the destination airport? at the destination airport?
A— 6,020 feet. A— 5,010 feet.
B— 5,820 feet. B— 5,820 feet.
C— 5,160 feet. C— 5,845 feet.

The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine-
transport category airplanes are 60% at destination powered small transport category airplanes are 60%
and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion). length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear-
Compute for runway 19 as follows: ance portion). Compute for runway 1 as follows:
9,700 9,700
– 1,100 – 1,350
8,600 × .6 = 5,160 8,350 × .6 = 5,010
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.377, 135.385, (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387,
135.387, 135.397 135.395

ATS ATS
8124. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing 8126. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing
distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine- distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered,
powered, small transport category airplane to land on small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19
Rwy 1 (dry) at the destination airport? (dry) at the destination airport?
A— 5,010 feet. A— 5,160 feet.
B— 5,820 feet. B— 5,820 feet.
C— 5,845 feet. C— 6,020 feet.

The maximum landing percentages for reciprocating The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine-
transport category airplanes are 60% at destination powered small transport category airplanes are 60%
and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion). length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear-
Compute for runway 1 as follows: ance portion). Compute for runway 19 as follows:
9,700 9,700
– 1,350 – 1,100
8,350 × .6 = 5,010 8,600 × .6 = 5,160
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.375, 135.377, (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387,
135.395 135.395

Answers
8123 [C] 8124 [A] 8125 [A] 8126 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 51

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS ATS
8127. (Refer to Figure 2.) May a small transport category, 8128. (Refer to Figure 2.) May a small transport cat-
turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed egory, turboprop airplane that has a computed land-
landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the ing distance of 6,000 feet use either or both runways
runways depicted in the illustration at the destination depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?
airport? A— Only Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist.
A— Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry B— Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used under
conditions exist. any conditions.
B— Only Rwy 19 may be used provided dry C— Either Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether
conditions exist. conditions are wet or dry.
C— Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether
conditions are wet or dry. The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small
transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
The maximum landing percentages for turbine-engine- and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
powered small transport category airplanes are 60% runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
at destination and 70% at alternate of effective runway Compute as follows:
length (actual runway minus shaded obstruction clear- 1. Runway 1
ance portion). Compute as follows:
9,700
1. Runway 1 – 1,350
9,700 8,350 × .6 = 5,010
– 1,350
2. Runway 19
8,350 × .6 = 5,010
9,700
2. Runway 19 – 1,100
9,700 8,600 × .6 = 5,160
– 1,100
3. Computed landing distance is given as 6,000; there-
8,600 × .6 = 5,160 fore neither runway may be used.
3. Computed landing distance is given as 5,500. Since (PLT456, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387,
computed landing distance exceeds both runway 135.395
landing distances even in dry conditions, neither
runway 1 nor 19 may be used if dry conditions exist.
(PLT456, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §135.385 ATS
8129. (Refer to Figure 2.) What is the maximum landing
distance that may be used for a non-transport category,
turbopropeller-driven airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at
the alternate airport?
A— 5,010 feet.
B— 5,845 feet.
C— 6,020 feet.

The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small

transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
Compute as follows:
9,700
– 1,350
8,350 × .7 = 5,845
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §§135.385, 135.387,
135.395

Answers
8127 [A] 8128 [B] 8129 [B]

4 – 52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATS The maximum landing percentages for turboprop small

8130. (Refer to Figure 2.) Which condition meets 14 transport category airplanes are 60% at destination
CFR Part 135 operational requirements for a small, and 70% at alternate of effective runway length (actual
transport category, turboprop airplane to land at the runway minus shaded obstruction clearance portion).
destination airport that has the runway environment Compute as follows:
given in the illustration?
1. Runway 1
A— The airport may be listed as the destination
9,700
airport if the landing distance does not exceed
– 1,350
5,160 feet for Rwy 19.
B— The airport may NOT be listed as the destination 8,350 × .6 = 5,010
airport if the landing distance exceeds 5,100 feet 2. Runway 19
for Rwy 19. 9,700
C— The airport may be listed as the destination – 1,100
airport if the landing distance does not exceed
8,600 × .6 = 5,160
5,350 feet for either runway, wet or dry
conditions. 3. The best answer is to not exceed 5,160 feet.
(PLT456, AA.I.B.K2f) — 14 CFR §135.385

Cessna 208 Performance Tables

The Cessna 208 performance tables start with FAA Figure 392 and continue through Figure 403. With
Cessna charts, be sure to always read closely the “Notes” associated with a particular chart. A good
example of why it’s important to read the Notes is shown in the “Engine torque on takeoff” charts in Fig-
ures 392 and 393. The inertial separator is set to “Normal” for the chart readings, but when it is placed
in bypass, adjustments need to be made. For example, in Figure 392, if you calculate a maximum torque
setting of 1,750, you will have to decrease the torque setting by 15 (see Note 3).
The takeoff and landing distance charts (FAA Figures 395 and 402) are tabular charts that often
require interpolation to obtain accurate results. For example, a landing ground-roll distance is needed
(Figure 402) for a sea level airport at 20°C. Examining the chart, this distance is 930 feet. But it gets more
complicated if the pressure altitude is 1,000 feet. In this case, the value would be halfway between the
sea level value of 930 and the 2,000-foot value of 1,000—or, 965 feet (930 + 1,000 = 1,930 ÷ 2 = 965).
Sometimes the interpolation requires a calculation beyond the simple “halfway-in-between” two
published values. There are a few techniques available for solving these problems but the basic idea
is to set up a ratio. Let’s say the pressure altitude in the above example is a field elevation of 683 feet.
We know from the chart that between sea level and 2,000 feet (a difference of 2,000), the ground roll
increased 70 feet. That makes a ratio of 70/2000, or, for every 2,000 feet, the ground roll increases by
70 feet. (Note that this relationship only works at this altitude, and will change at the higher altitudes.)
In the example, calculate how many feet the ground roll increases when the pressure altitude increases
683 feet. To do this, we cross-multiply: just multiply 683 by 70, and divide by 2,000. This yields 24 feet.
Therefore, add 24 to the 930 sea level value, and calculate a ground roll of 954 feet at a pressure altitude
of 683 feet. Interpolation can also work between temperature settings.
Again—don’t forget to read the Notes in these chart figures; sometimes they can be found on a
further page as in FAA Figure 401.

Answers
8130 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 53

Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, ADX 1. On Figure 295, note the field elevation of 2,417 feet.
8505. (Refer to Figures 298, 401, and 402.) With an
2. On Figure 409, find the 2,000-foot pressure altitude
OAT of 30°C, inertial separator set to Normal, 10 knots
and the 4,000-foot pressure altitude. Move across
of headwind, and a gross weight of 8,500 pounds, you
to the right until you find the ground roll distances
calculate the landing roll to be about
at 20°C. Note the 1,000 feet at 2,000-foot pressure
A— 1,080 feet. altitude and the 1,075 feet at 4,000-foot pressure
B— 1,200 feet. altitude. Interpolating for the field elevation of 2,417
C— 2,140 feet. feet, calculate a distance of 1,016 feet.

1. On Figure 298, note the field elevation of 5,837 feet. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25

2. On Figure 402, find the pressure altitude of 4,000

and 6,000 feet at 30°C and note 1,115 feet (at 4,000 ATS, ADX
feet pressure altitude) and 1,200 feet (at 6,000 feet 8508. (Refer to Figure 409.) Given the following con-
pressure altitude). Interpolating for 5,837 feet, cal- ditions, what would your distance to clear a 50-foot
culate a ground roll of 1,193 feet. obstacle be?
3. Due to the 10-knot headwind, reduce this distance Pressure Altitude.......................................... 2,000 feet
by 9.1% (reduce 10% for each 11 knots of head- OAT...................................................................... 40°C
wind—see Figure 401 for the corresponding note): Wind......................................................................calm
1,193 – 109 = 1,084 feet. Weight.................................................... 8,500 pounds
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25 Runway condition.........................Paved, level and dry
A— 1,960 feet.
B— 1,070 feet.
ATS, ADX C— 1,742 feet.
8506. (Refer to Figures 299 and 409.) What is your
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle at 10°C and On Figure 409, find the 2,000-foot pressure altitude and
8,500 pounds? move across until you intersect the 40°C column. Note
A— 1,715 feet. the 1,960 feet needed to clear the 50-foot obstacle.
B— 965 feet. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 1,747 feet.

1. On Figure 299, note the field elevation of 647 feet. ATS, ADX
8509. (Refer to Figure 409.) Given the following condi-
2. On Figure 409, find the sea level and 2,000-foot tions, what would your ground roll distance be?
pressure altitudes and move across to the right until
you find the distances to clear a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure Altitude.......................................... 4,000 feet
Note the 1,715 feet at sea level and the 1,815 feet OAT...................................................................... 15°C
at 2,000 feet pressure altitude. Interpolating for the Wind......................................................................calm
field elevation of 647 feet, calculate a distance of Weight.................................................... 8,500 pounds
1,747 feet. Runway condition.........................Paved, level and dry
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25 A— 1,040 feet.
B— 1,058 feet.
C— 1,075 feet.
ATS, ADX
8507. (Refer to Figures 295 and 409.) Calculate your On Figure 409, find the 4,000-foot pressure altitude
landing distance with an OAT of 20°C. and move across until you intersect the 10°C and 20°C
columns. Note the ground roll distances of 1,040 feet
A— 1,000 feet. for 10°C and 1,075 feet for 20°C feet. Interpolating for
B— 1,016 feet. 15°C, find a value of 1,058 feet. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f)
C— 1,884 feet. — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8505 [A] 8506 [C] 8507 [B] 8508 [A] 8509 [B]

4 – 54 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATS, ADX ATS, ADX

8510. (Refer to Figure 409.) Given the following condi- 8512. (Refer to Figures 327 and 409.) Calculate your
tions, what would your ground roll distance be? landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle with an OAT
Pressure Altitude.......................................... 1,000 feet of 10°C.
OAT..................................................................... -10°C A— 2,135 feet.
Wind......................................................................calm B— 2,030 feet.
Weight.................................................... 8,500 pounds C— 2,155 feet.
Runway condition.........................Paved, level and dry
1. On Figure 327, note the field elevation of 7,680 feet.
A— 868 feet.
B— 835 feet. 2. On Figure 409, find the pressure altitudes of 6,000
C— 900 feet. and 8,000 feet. Move across to the right until you
find the 10°C distances over a 50-foot obstacle at
On Figure 409, find the sea level and 2,000-foot pres- both pressure altitudes. Note the distance of 2,030
sure altitudes and move across until you intersect the feet at the pressure altitude of 6,000 feet, and the
-10°C. Note the ground roll distances of 835 feet at sea distance of 2,155 at the pressure altitude of 8,000
level and 900 feet at the 2,000-foot pressure altitude. feet. Interpolating for the field elevation of 7,680 feet,
Interpolating for 1,000 feet pressure altitude, find a value calculate a distance of 883 feet.
of 868 feet. (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATS, ADX
8511. (Refer to Figures 342 and 409.) Calculate your
landing distance with an OAT of 5°C.
A— 865 feet.
B— 883 feet.
C— 900 feet.

1. On Figure 342, note the field elevation of 10 feet.

2. On Figure 409, find the sea level pressure altitude.
Move across to the right until you find the ground
roll distances at 0°C and at 10°C. Note the 0°C dis-
tance of 865 feet, and the 10°C distance of 900 feet.
Interpolating for the temperature of 5°C, calculate a
distance of 883 feet.
(PLT008, AA.I.B.K2f) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8510 [A] 8511 [B] 8512 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 55

Chapter 4 Performance

Commuter Aircraft Performance

ADX The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice
9894. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi- vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the left-hand
Pressure altitude.............................................. 9,000 ft graph at +9°C, proceed up to 7,500 feet, then over to
Temperature (OAT)............................................... +3°C the left to read torque of 3,160 foot-pounds. (PLT169)
Ice vanes.......................................................Extended — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 3,100 foot-pound.
B— 3,040 foot-pound. ADX
C— 3,180 foot-pound. 9897. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi-
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff?
The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice
vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used Pressure altitude.............................................. 3,500 ft
when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the left-hand Temperature (OAT)............................................. +43°C
graph at +3°C, proceed up to 9,000 feet, then over to Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
the left to read torque of 3,100 foot-pounds. (PLT169) A— 3,000 foot-pound.
— FAA-H-8083-25 B— 3,050 foot-pound.
C— 3,110 foot-pound.

ADX The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice
9895. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi- vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the right-hand
Pressure altitude.............................................. 7,500 ft graph at +43°C, proceed up to 3,500 feet, then over to
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +35°C the left to read torque of 3,050 foot-pounds. (PLT169)
Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 2,820 foot-pound.
B— 2,880 foot-pound. ADX
C— 2,780 foot-pound. 9898. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi-
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff?
The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice
vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used Pressure altitude.............................................. 5,500 ft
when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the right-hand Temperature (OAT)............................................. +29°C
graph at +35°C, proceed up to 7,500 feet, then over to Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
the left to read torque of 2,820 foot-pounds. (PLT169) A— 2,950 foot-pound.
— FAA-H-8083-25 B— 3,100 foot-pound.
C— 3,200 foot-pound.

ADX The graph on the left of FAA Figure 12 is used if the ice
9896. (Refer to Figure 12.) Given the following condi- vanes are extended and the graph on the right is used
tions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? when the ice vanes are retracted. Enter the right-hand
Pressure altitude.............................................. 7,500 ft graph at +29°C, proceed up to 5,500 feet, then over to
Temperature (OAT)............................................... +9°C the left to read torque of 3,200 foot-pounds. (PLT169)
Ice vanes.......................................................Extended — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 3,200 foot-pound.
B— 3,160 foot-pound.
C— 3,300 foot-pound.

Answers
9894 [A] 9895 [A] 9896 [B] 9897 [B] 9898 [C]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-

9899. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following conditions, tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? reference line (wind component), then parallel the
Pressure altitude.......................................... Sea Level line until intersecting with the 10-knot tailwind.
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +12°C 4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
Weight........................................................... 16,000 lb of the graph continue to the edge of the graph to
Wind component..........................................16 kts HW find the ground roll required: 2,900 feet.
Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
5. The V1 speed is found using the table in the upper
A— 1,750 feet. right corner of FAA Figure 13. Interpolate between
B— 2,800 feet. 16,000 and 14,000 to find 106 knots for 15,500
C— 2,550 feet. pounds.

1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

+12°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude. ADX
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 9901. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following conditions,
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft Pressure altitude.............................................. 2,000 ft
weight of 16,000 pounds. Temperature (OAT)..............................................+15°C
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por- Weight........................................................... 16,600 lb
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next Wind component..................................................Calm
reference line (wind component), then parallel the Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
line until intersecting with the 16-knot headwind. A— 3,400 feet.
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion B— 3,700 feet.
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer- C— 4,200 feet.
ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle. 1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at
+15°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
5. The distance required is 2,550 feet.
senting 2,000 feet pressure altitude.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tudes” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
ADX line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
9900. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following condi- weight of 16,600 pounds.
tions, what is the takeoff ground roll and V1 speed? 3. Continue past the second reference line to the third
Pressure altitude.............................................. 4,000 ft reference line (since the wind is calm).
Temperature (OAT)................................................. 0°C 4. From the third reference line (0-foot obstacle height),
Weight........................................................... 15,500 lb parallel the line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
Wind component..........................................10 kts TW
5. The distance required is 3,700 feet.
Ice vanes.......................................................Extended
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 2,900 feet, 106 knots.
B— 4,250 feet, 102 knots.
C— 2,700 feet, 107 knots.

1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at

+5°C OAT (adding 5°C to the actual OAT since the
ice vanes are extended) and proceed upward to the
line representing 4,000 feet pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 15,500 pounds.

Answers
9899 [C] 9900 [A] 9901 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 57

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at

9902. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following condi- +35°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
tions, what is the takeoff ground roll and V1 speed? senting 6,000 feet pressure altitude.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 3,000 ft 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -10°C tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
Weight........................................................... 15,000 lb line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
Wind component............................................8 kts TW weight of 14,500 pounds.
Ice vanes.......................................................Extended
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
A— 2,200 feet, 105 knots. tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
B— 2,000 feet, 113 knots. reference line (wind component), then parallel the
C— 1,900 feet, 103 knots. line until intersecting with the 10-knot headwind.

1. Enter FAA Figure 13 at the bottom left-hand side at 4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
-5°C OAT (adding 5°C to the actual OAT since the of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer-
ice vanes are extended) and proceed upward to the ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
line representing 3,000 feet pressure altitude. line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.

2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 5. The distance required is 4,150 feet.
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 15,000 pounds.
ADX
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por- 8469. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length?
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 8-knot tailwind. Pressure altitude.............................................. 5,000 ft
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +20°C
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion Weight........................................................... 15,000 lb
of the graph continue to the edge of the graph to Wind component..........................................10 kts HW
find the ground roll required: 2,200 feet. Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
5. The V1 speed is found using the table in the upper A— 6,300 feet.
right corner of FAA Figure 13. Interpolate between B— 4,700 feet.
16,000 and 14,000 to find 105 knots for 15,000 C— 4,300 feet.
pounds.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at
+20°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
senting 5,000 feet pressure altitude.
ADX
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
9903. (Refer to Figure 13.) Given the following conditions,
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
what is the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle?
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
Pressure altitude.............................................. 6,000 ft weight of 15,000 pounds.
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +35°C
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
Weight........................................................... 14,500 lb
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
Wind component..........................................10 kts HW
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
line until intersecting with the 10-knot headwind.
A— 4,150 feet.
4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart
B— 4,550 feet.
to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,300 feet.
C— 2,600 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9902 [A] 9903 [A] 8469 [C]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at

8470. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi- +10°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? senting 6,000 feet pressure altitude.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 2,000 ft 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -15°C tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
Weight........................................................... 16,000 lb line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
Wind component............................................5 kts TW weight of 16,600 pounds.
Ice vanes.......................................................Extended
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
A— 3,750 feet. tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
B— 4,600 feet. reference line (wind component), then parallel the
C— 4,250 feet. line until intersecting with the 15-knot headwind.

1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side 4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart
at -12°C OAT (adding 3°C to the actual OAT for to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,950 feet.
extended ice vanes) and proceed upward to the line (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
representing 2,000 feet pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- ADX
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference 8472. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi-
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length?
weight of 16,000 pounds.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 8,000 ft
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por- Temperature (OAT)................................................ -5°C
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next Weight........................................................... 14,000 lb
reference line (wind component), then parallel the Wind component............................................4 kts TW
line until intersecting with the 5-knot tailwind. Ice vanes.......................................................Extended
4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart A— 4,500 feet.
to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,250 feet. B— 4,800 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25 C— 5,300 feet.

1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at

ADX -2°C OAT (adding 3°C to the actual OAT for extended
8471. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi- ice vanes) and proceed upward to the line represent-
tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? ing 8,000 feet pressure altitude.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 6,000 ft 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +10°C tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
Weight........................................................... 16,600 lb line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
Wind component..........................................15 kts HW weight of 14,000 pounds.
Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
A— 4,950 feet. tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
B— 4,800 feet. reference line (wind component), then parallel the
C— 5,300 feet. line until intersecting with the 4-knot tailwind.
4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart
to read the accelerate/stop distance of 4,800 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8470 [C] 8471 [A] 8472 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 59

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX ADX
8473. (Refer to Figure 14.) Given the following condi- 8474. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two-
tions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration
Pressure altitude.......................................... Sea Level for Operating Conditions BE-21?
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +30°C A— 1,350 ft/min.
Weight........................................................... 13,500 lb B— 2,450 ft/min.
Wind component..........................................14 kts HW C— 2,300 ft/min.
Ice vanes.......................................................Retracted
1. Enter FAA Figure 16 at the bottom left-hand side at
A— 2,500 feet.
+10°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
B— 2,850 feet.
senting 2,000 feet pressure altitude.
C— 3,050 feet.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
1. Enter FAA Figure 14 at the bottom left-hand side at tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
+30°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre- line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude. weight of 16,600 pounds.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft the chart to read 2,300 fpm.
weight of 13,500 pounds. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
reference line (wind component), then parallel the ADX
line until intersecting with the 14-knot headwind. 8475. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the
single-engine climb gradient after takeoff in climb con-
4. Proceed from the wind line to the edge of the chart
figuration for Operating Conditions BE-22?
to read the accelerate/stop distance of 3,050 feet.
A— 6.8 percent gradient.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— 7.5 percent gradient.
C— 5.6 percent gradient.
ATM, ATS, ADX
1. Enter FAA Figure 17 at the bottom left-hand side at
9936. (Refer to Figure 478.) With a reported temperature
0°C OAT and proceed upward to the line represent-
of 5°C, and a weight of 57,000 pounds, an altitude of
ing 1,000 feet pressure altitude.
5,355 feet, and V1/VR ratio of 1.0, the accelerate-stop
distance is 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
A— 4,100 feet.
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
B— 4,900 feet.
weight of 14,000 pounds.
C— 5,700 feet.
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
On Figure 478, start at the bottom of the chart and find of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of
the intersecting point of 5°C and an altitude of 5,355 feet. the chart to read 870 fpm.
Move straight up until you hit the first reference line and 4. Adjust the rate of climb for the extended ice vanes, as
then follow the arching line until you intersect a weight indicated at the top of the graph. The single-engine
of 57,000 pounds. Move straight up to the second refer- rate of climb with ice vanes extended is 755 fpm
ence line. Note that the reference line also intersects a (870 – 115).
V1 /VR of 1.0, so from here you can move straight up to
determine an accelerate-stop distance of approximately 5. Find 755 fpm at the right edge of the chart and
5,700 feet. (PLT011, AA.I.B.K2b) — FAA-H-8083-25 proceed right to the reference line and determine a
climb gradient of 5.6%.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8473 [C] 9936 [C] 8474 [C] 8475 [C]

4 – 60 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 1. Enter FAA Figure 17 at the bottom left-hand side at

8476. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two- -10°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration senting 5,000 feet pressure altitude.
for Operating Conditions BE-23?
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
A— 1,500 ft/min. tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
B— 2,600 ft/min. line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
C— 2,490 ft/min. weight of 14,000 pounds.

1. Enter FAA Figure 16 at the bottom left-hand side at 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
+20°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre- of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of
senting 3,000 feet pressure altitude. the chart to read 780 fpm.

2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 4. Adjust the rate of climb for the extended ice vanes, as
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference indicated at the top of the graph. The single-engine
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft rate-of-climb with ice vanes extended is 665 fpm
weight of 15,000 pounds. (780 – 115).

3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of
the chart to read 2,600 fpm. ADX
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 9904. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time,
fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude
for Operating Conditions BE-21?
ADX
8477. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two-
A— 10.0 minutes; 290 pounds; 35 NM.
engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration B— 10.0 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM.
for Operating Conditions BE-24? C— 11.5 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM.

A— 2,100 ft/min. 1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at

B— 2,400 ft/min. -20°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
C— 1,500 ft/min. senting 16,000-foot cruise altitude.

1. Enter FAA Figure 16 at the bottom left-hand side at 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
+25°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre- tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which
senting 4,000 feet pressure altitude. represents an aircraft weight of 16,600 pounds.

2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft chart to read the time to climb of 11.5 minutes.
weight of 16,000 pounds. 4. Continue down to the fuel to climb line to read 190
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion pounds fuel burned.
of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the edge of 5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
the chart to read 2,100 fpm. 32 NM.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25 6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of +10°C
OAT and 2,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the
time to climb 1.5 minutes, fuel burn 25 pounds, and
ADX distance 2 NM.
8478. (Refer to Figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the
7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the
single-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb con-
cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 2,000 feet to
figuration for Operating Conditions BE-25?
16,000 feet, it will take 10 minutes (11.5 – 1.5), 165
A— 385 ft/min. pounds of fuel (190 – 25), and 30 NM (32 – 2).
B— 780 ft/min.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 665 ft/min.

Answers
8476 [B] 8477 [A] 8478 [C] 9904 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 61

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion

9905. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude chart to read the time to climb of 15 minutes.
for Operating Conditions BE-22?
4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 235
A— 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 40 NM. pounds fuel burned.
B— 11.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 37 NM.
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
C— 10.5 minutes; 175 pounds; 32 NM.
44 NM.
1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at 6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of +20°C
-15°C OAT (accounting for the extended ice vanes) OAT and 3,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the
and proceed upward to the line representing 18,000- time to climb 1 minutes, fuel burn 25 pounds, and
foot cruise altitude. distance 4 NM.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 3,000 feet
represents an aircraft weight of 14,000 pounds. to 20,000 feet, it will take 14 minutes (15 – 1), 210
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion pounds of fuel (235 – 25), and 40 NM (44 – 4).
of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
chart to read the time to climb of 12 minutes.
4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 200 ADX
pounds fuel burned. 8482. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time,
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude
37.5 NM. for Operating Conditions BE-24?
6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of +10°C A— 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 45 NM.
OAT and 1,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the B— 9.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 38 NM.
time to climb 1 minute, fuel burn 15 pounds, and C— 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM.
distance 0.5 NM.
1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at
7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the
0°C OAT and proceed upward to the line represent-
cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 1,000 feet
ing 14,000-foot cruise altitude.
to 18,000 feet, it will take 11 minutes (12 – 1), 185
pounds of fuel (200 – 15), and 37 NM (37.5 – 0.5). 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
represents an aircraft weight of 16,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
ADX of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the
9906. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, chart to read the time to climb of 13 minutes.
fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude
4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 210
for Operating Conditions BE-23?
pounds fuel burned.
A— 13.0 minutes; 180 pounds; 35 NM.
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
B— 14.0 minutes; 210 pounds; 40 NM.
38 NM.
C— 15.0 minutes; 240 pounds; 46 NM.
6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of +25°C
1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at OAT and 4,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the
ISA and proceed upward to the line representing time to climb 3 minutes, fuel burn 60 pounds, and
20,000-foot cruise altitude. distance 8 NM.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 4,000 feet
represents an aircraft weight of 15,000 pounds. to 14,000 feet, it will take 10 minutes (13 – 3), 150
pounds of fuel (210 – 60), and 30 NM (38 – 8).
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9905 [B] 9906 [B] 8482 [C]

4 – 62 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX ADX
8483. (Refer to Figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, 8485. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is
fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude true regarding performance with one engine inoperative
for Operating Conditions BE-25? for Operating Conditions BE-27?
A— 11.5 minutes; 170 pounds; 31 NM. A— Climb rate at the MEA is more than 50 ft/min.
B— 8.0 minutes; 270 pounds; 28 NM. B— Service ceiling is below the MEA.
C— 12.5 minutes; 195 pounds; 38 NM. C— Bleed air OFF improves service ceiling by 3,000
feet.
1. Enter FAA Figure 18 at the bottom left-hand side at
-30°C OAT (accounting for the extended ice vanes) 1. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom left-hand side (for
and proceed upward to the line representing 22,000- bleed air on) at +30°C OAT and proceed upward to
foot cruise altitude. the line representing 16,600 pounds.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 2. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the line which of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart to
represents an aircraft weight of 14,000 pounds. determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of 5,000
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion feet with one engine inoperative.
of the graph, draw a line down to the bottom of the 3. Therefore, the 5,000-foot service ceiling is below
chart to read the time to climb of 14.5 minutes. the MEA of 5,500 feet.
4. Continue down to the fuel-to-climb line to read 235 (PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25
pounds fuel burned.
5. Continue down to the distance-to-climb line to read
ADX
44 NM.
8486. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) At what altitude
6. Repeat steps 1 through 5 using an OAT of 0°C OAT is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for
and 5,000 feet pressure altitude, and find the time to Operating Conditions BE-28?
climb 2 minutes, fuel burn 40 pounds, and distance
A— 1,500 feet above the MEA.
6 NM.
B— 10,400 feet.
7. Subtract the results of the airport altitudes from the C— 11,800 feet.
cruise altitude results. Therefore, from 5,000 feet to
22,000 feet, it will take 12.5 minutes (14.5 – 2), 195 1. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom right-hand side
pounds of fuel (235 – 40), and 38 NM (44 – 6). (for bleed air off) at +5°C OAT and proceed upward
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 to the line representing 16,000 pounds.
2. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart
ADX to determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of
8484. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) At what altitude 11,800 feet with one engine inoperative.
is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for
3. 11,800 feet is 2,800 feet above the 9,000-foot MEA.
Operating Conditions BE-26?
(PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 13,000 feet.
B— 14,200 feet.
C— 13,600 feet.

1. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom left-hand side

(for bleed air on) at -8°C OAT and proceed upward
to the line representing 15,500 pounds.
2. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart
to determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of
13,000 feet with one engine inoperative.
(PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8483 [C] 8484 [A] 8485 [B] 8486 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 63

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX Temperature = ISA +10°C

8487. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is TAS = 228 knots
true regarding performance with one engine inoperative GS = 216.0 knots
for Operating Conditions BE-29? Time = 1 hour 17 minutes 47 seconds
A— Service ceiling is more than 100 feet above the (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
MEA.
B— Bleed air must be OFF to obtain a rate of climb of
50 ft/min at the MEA. ADX
C— Climb is not possible at the MEA. 8490. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is
the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi-
1. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom left-hand side (for tions BE-32?
bleed air on) at +18°C OAT and proceed upward to A— 1 hour 13 minutes.
the line representing 16,300 pounds. B— 1 hour 15 minutes.
2. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion C— 1 hour 20 minutes.
of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart to
determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of 7,700 Temperature = -19°C
feet with one engine inoperative. TAS = 252 knots
GS = 261.8 knots
3. Therefore, the 7,700-foot service ceiling is above the
Time = 1 hour 13 minutes 20 seconds
MEA of 7,000 feet by more than 100 feet.
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
(PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25

ADX
ADX
8491. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is
8488. (Refer to Figures 19 and 20.) At what altitude
the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi-
is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for
tions BE-33?
Operating Conditions BE-30?
A— 1 hour 50 minutes.
A— 9,600 feet.
B— 1 hour 36 minutes.
B— 13,200 feet.
C— 1 hour 46 minutes.
C— 2,100 feet above the MEA.
Temperature = ISA -10°C
1. Enter FAA Figure 20 at the bottom right-hand side
TAS = 256.5 knots
(for bleed air off) at +22°C OAT and proceed upward
GS = 225.2 knots
to the line representing 14,500 pounds.
Time = 1 hour 46 minutes 33 seconds
2. From the point of intersection in the “weight” portion
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25
of the graph, draw a line to the edge of the chart
to determine a pressure altitude service ceiling of
11,600 feet with one engine inoperative. ADX
3. Therefore, the 11,600-foot service ceiling is above 8492. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is
the MEA of 9,500 feet. the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi-
(PLT065) — FAA-H-8083-25 tions BE-34?
A— 1 hour 7 minutes.
B— 1 hour 2 minutes.
ADX C— 1 hour 12 minutes.
8489. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What
is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Temperature = ISA
Conditions BE-31? TAS = 228 knots
A— 1 hour 11 minutes. GS = 208 knots
B— 1 hour 17 minutes. Time = 1 hour 06 minutes 15 seconds
C— 1 hour 19 minutes. (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8487 [A] 8488 [C] 8489 [B] 8490 [A] 8491 [C] 8492 [A]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX ADX
8493. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is 8496. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is
the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Condi- the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating
tions BE-35? Conditions BE-33?
A— 1 hour 6 minutes. A— 1,165 pounds.
B— 1 hour 8 minutes. B— 1,373 pounds.
C— 1 hour 10 minutes. C— 976 pounds.

Temperature = ISA +10°C Temperature = ISA -10°C

TAS = 253 knots Time = 1 hour 46 minutes (see Question 8491)
GS = 252.4 knots Fuel flow = 777
Time = 1 hour 11 minutes 19 seconds Fuel burn = 1,372.7 pounds
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

ADX ADX
8494. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is 8497. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is
the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating
Conditions BE-31? Conditions BE-34?
A— 812 pounds. A— 668 pounds.
B— 749 pounds. B— 718 pounds.
C— 870 pounds. C— 737 pounds.

Temperature = ISA +10°C Temperature = ISA

Time = 1 hour 17 minutes (see Question 8489) Time = 1 hour 06 minutes (see Question 8492)
Fuel flow = 633 Fuel flow = 653
Fuel burn = 812.3 pounds Fuel burn = 718.3 pounds
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

ADX ADX
8495. (Refer to Figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is 8498. (Refer to Figures 21, 23, 24, and 25.) What is the
the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating
Conditions BE-32? Conditions BE-35?
A— 1,028 pounds. A— 900 pounds.
B— 896 pounds. B— 1,030 pounds.
C— 977 pounds. C— 954 pounds.

Temperature = ISA Temperature = ISA +10°C

Time = 1 hour 13 minutes (see Question 8490) Time = 1 hour 10 minutes (see Question 8493)
Fuel flow = 803 Fuel flow = 818
Fuel burn = 977.0 pounds Fuel burn = 954.3 pounds
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8493 [C] 8494 [A] 8495 [C] 8496 [B] 8497 [B] 8498 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 65

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX Enter FAA Figure 26 from initial pressure altitude on the

8499. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the time and left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line,
distance to descend from 18,000 feet to 2,500 feet? then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales
A— 10.3 minutes, 39 NM. as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
B— 9.8 minutes, 33 NM. Time NM
C— 10.0 minutes, 36 NM.
Descent to SL 11.1 41
Enter FAA Figure 26 from initial pressure altitude on the Field alt. – 2.4 –8
left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line, Descent 8.7 33
then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales (PLT045) — FAA-H-8083-25
as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
Time NM
ADX
Descent to SL 12.0 45 8502. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the distance and
Field alt. – 1.5 –5 fuel consumption to descend from 13,500 feet to 1,500
Descent 10.5 40 feet?
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 A— 30 NAM, 87 pounds.
B— 29 NAM, 80 pounds.
C— 38 NAM, 100 pounds.
ADX
8500. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the distance and Enter FAA Figure 26 from initial pressure altitude on the
fuel consumption to descend from 22,000 feet to 4,500 left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line,
feet? then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales
A— 44 NAM, 117 pounds. as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
B— 48 NAM, 112 pounds. NM Fuel
C— 56 NAM, 125 pounds.
Descent to SL 32.5 90
Enter FAA Figure 26 from initial pressure altitude on the Field alt. – 3.5 – 10
left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line, Descent 29 80
then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales (PLT045) — FAA-H-8083-25
as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
NM Fuel
ADX
Descent to SL 58 142 8503. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the time and dis-
Field alt. – 10 – 30 tance to descend from 23,000 feet to 600 feet with an
Descent 48 112 average 15-knot headwind?
(PLT012) — FAA-H-8083-25 A— 14.2 minutes, 50 NAM.
B— 14.6 minutes, 56 NAM.
C— 14.9 minutes, 59 NAM.
ADX
8501. (Refer to Figure 26.) What are the time and dis- Enter FAA Figure 26 from initial pressure altitude on the
tance to descend from 16,500 feet to 3,500 feet? left side of the graph. Proceed to heavy reference line,
A— 9.3 minutes, 37 NAM. then drop to minutes, pounds and/or distance scales
B— 9.1 minutes, 35 NAM. as needed. Repeat this process with the final altitude.
C— 8.7 minutes, 33 NAM. Time NM
Descent to SL 15.4 62
Field alt. – .5 –2
Descent 14.9 60
Note: The answers are in NM so no wind correction is
necessary.
(PLT045) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8499 [A] 8500 [B] 8501 [C] 8502 [B] 8503 [C]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 5. The approach speed is found using the table at the

8504. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing top of figure. Interpolate between 16,100 and 14,000
distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Condi- to find the approach speed for 16,000 pounds at 113
tions B-36? knots.
A— 1,900 feet. (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— 1,625 feet.
C— 950 feet.
ADX
1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at 9908. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the remain-
+30°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre- ing runway length when stopped after landing over a
senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude. 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-37?
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- A— 2,500 feet.
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference B— 2,000 feet.
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft C— 2,600 feet.
weight of 16,000 pounds.
1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
+16°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
senting 1,000 feet pressure altitude.
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 20-knot headwind. 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer-
weight of 14,500 pounds.
ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle. 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
5. The distance required is 1,900 feet.
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25 line until intersecting with the 10-knot tailwind.
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
ADX of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer-
9907. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What are the ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
approach speed and ground roll when landing under line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
Operating Conditions B-36? 5. The distance required is 2,500 feet.
A— 113 knots and 950 feet. 6. The remaining runway length when stopped is the
B— 113 knots and 1,950 feet. runway distance minus the distance required, which
C— 112 knots and 900 feet. is 2,000 feet (4,500 – 2,500).

1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

+30°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
senting sea level (SL) pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 16,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 20-knot headwind.
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the edge of the
chart to find a ground roll of 950 feet.

Answers
8504 [A] 9907 [A] 9908 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 67

Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion

9909. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What are the of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer-
approach speed and ground roll when landing under ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
Operating Conditions B-37? line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
A— 108 knots and 1,400 feet. 5. The distance required is 1,700 feet.
B— 109 knots and 900 feet.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 107 knots and 1,350 feet.

1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at ADX

+16°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre- 9911. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the total
senting 1,000 feet pressure altitude. runway used when touchdown is at the 1,000 foot marker
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- for Operating Conditions B-38?
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference A— 2,000 feet.
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft B— 1,700 feet.
weight of 14,500 pounds. C— 1,800 feet.
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next 1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at
reference line (wind component), then parallel the 0°C OAT and proceed upward to the line represent-
line until intersecting with the 10-knot tailwind. ing 2,000 feet pressure altitude.
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the edge of the tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
chart to find a ground roll of 1,400 feet. line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 13,500 pounds.
5. The approach speed is found using the table at the
top of figure. Interpolate between 16,100 and 14,000 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
to find the approach speed for 14,500 pounds at 108 tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
knots. reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 15-knot headwind.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the edge of the
ADX chart to find the ground roll distance is 800 feet.
9910. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing
5. The total runway used is the distance from the
distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Condi-
threshold of the runway to the touchdown point, plus
tions B-38?
the ground roll distance, which is 1,800 feet (1,000
A— 1,850 feet. + 800).
B— 1,700 feet.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 1,800 feet.

1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at

0°C OAT and proceed upward to the line represent-
ing 2,000 feet pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 13,500 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 15-knot headwind.

Answers
9909 [A] 9910 [B] 9911 [C]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

ADX 4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion

9912. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the remain- of the graph draw a horizontal line to the edge of the
ing runway length when stopped after landing over a chart to find a ground roll of 1,400 feet.
50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-39?
5. The approach speed is found using the table at the
A— 2,300 feet. top of figure. Interpolate between 16,100 and 14,000
B— 2,400 feet. to find the approach speed for 15,000 pounds at 110
C— 2,500 feet. knots.

1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at (PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25

+20°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
senting 4,000 feet pressure altitude. ADX
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti- 9914. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Condi-
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft tions B-40?
weight of 15,000 pounds. A— 1,500 feet.
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por- B— 1,750 feet.
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next C— 1,650 feet.
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 5-knot tailwind. 1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the ISA line and proceed to
the line representing 5,000 feet pressure altitude.
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer- 2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle, which is line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
2,500 feet. weight of 12,500 pounds.
5. The remaining runway length when stopped is the 3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
runway length minus the landing distance, which is tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
2,500 feet (5,000 – 2,500). reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 25-knot headwind.
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
4. From the point of intersection on the “wind” portion
of the graph draw a horizontal line to the next refer-
ADX ence line (0-foot obstacle height), then parallel the
9913. (Refer to Figures 27 and 28.) What are the line required to clear a 50-foot obstacle, which is
approach speed and ground roll when landing under 1,650 feet.
Operating Conditions B-39?
(PLT008) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 111 knots and 1,550 feet.
B— 110 knots and 1,400 feet.
C— 109 knots and 1,300 feet.

1. Enter FAA Figure 28 at the bottom left-hand side at

+20°C OAT and proceed upward to the line repre-
senting 4,000 feet pressure altitude.
2. From the point of intersection on the “pressure alti-
tude” lines, draw a horizontal line to the reference
line, then parallel the line which represents an aircraft
weight of 15,000 pounds.
3. From the point of intersection in the “weight” por-
tion of the graph, draw a horizontal line to the next
reference line (wind component), then parallel the
line until intersecting with the 5-knot tailwind.

Answers
9912 [C] 9913 [B] 9914 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 69

Chapter 4 Performance

Helicopter Performance
RTC RTC
8533. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi- 8535. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi-
tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas
temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check? temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check?
Engine torque.............................................. 57 percent Engine torque.............................................. 54 percent
Pressure altitude.............................................. 2,500 ft Pressure altitude................................................. 500 ft
Temperature (OAT)............................................... +5°C Temperature (OAT)............................................. +25°C
A— 810°C. A— 840°C.
B— 815°C. B— 830°C.
C— 828°C. C— 820°C.

Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner of Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner FAA
FAA Figure 36. Begin at 57% torque, draw a line with a Figure 36. Begin at 54% torque, draw a line with a
straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure
altitude. From the point where your line intersects with altitude. From the point where your line intersects with
2,500 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines. 500 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines.
From the intersection of that line and +5°C OAT, draw a From the intersection of that line and +25°C OAT, draw a
perpendicular line to maximum allowable MGT. Read the perpendicular line to maximum allowable MGT. Read the
correct answer of 828°C. (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083-21 correct answer of 840°C. (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083-21

RTC RTC
8534. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi- 8536. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi-
tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas
temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check? temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check?
Engine torque.............................................. 49 percent Engine torque.............................................. 43 percent
Pressure altitude.............................................. 5,500 ft Pressure altitude.............................................. 9,000 ft
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +25°C Temperature (OAT).............................................. -15°C
A— 870°C. A— 782°C.
B— 855°C. B— 768°C.
C— 880°C. C— 750°C.

Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner FAA Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner FAA
Figure 36. Begin at 49% torque, draw a line with a Figure 36. Begin at 43% torque, draw a line with a
straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure
altitude. From the point where your line intersects with altitude. From the point where your line intersects with
5,500 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines. 9,000 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines.
From the intersection of that line and +25°C OAT, draw a From the intersection of that line and -15°C OAT, draw a
perpendicular line to maximum allowable MGT. Read the perpendicular line to maximum allowable MGT. Read the
correct answer of 870°C. (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083‑21 correct answer of 768°C. (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8533 [C] 8534 [A] 8535 [A] 8536 [B]

4 – 70 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8537. (Refer to Figure 36.) Given the following condi- 8539. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross
tions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas weight for hovering in ground effect at 6,000 feet pres-
temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check? sure altitude and +15°C?
Engine torque.............................................. 52 percent A— 17,200 pounds.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 1,500 ft B— 16,600 pounds.
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +35°C C— 14,200 pounds.
A— 880°C.
To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
B— 865°C.
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +15°C OAT. With
C— 872°C.
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 6,000
Follow the example in the inset, upper left corner FAA feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
Figure 36. Begin at 52% torque, draw a line with a line from that point to the right to intersect +15°C OAT.
straight-edge parallel to the bold line through pressure Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross
altitude. From the point where your line intersects with weight. Read the correct answer of 16,600 pounds.
1,500 feet, draw a second line through the OAT lines. (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21
From the intersection of that line and +35°C OAT, draw a
perpendicular line to maximum allowable MGT. Read the
RTC
correct answer of 865°C. (PLT009) — FAA-H-8083‑21
8540. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering in ground effect at 7,000 feet pres-
RTC sure altitude and +35°C?
8538. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross A— 13,500 pounds.
weight for hovering in ground effect at 3,000 feet pres- B— 14,700 pounds.
sure altitude and +25°C? C— 12,100 pounds.
A— 17,300 pounds.
To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
B— 14,700 pounds.
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +35°C OAT. With
C— 16,600 pounds.
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 7,000
To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +25°C OAT. With line from that point to the right to intersect +35°C OAT.
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 3,000 Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular weight. Read the correct answer of 13,500 pounds.
line from that point to the right to intersect +25°C OAT. (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21
Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross
weight. Read the correct answer of 17,300 pounds.
RTC
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21
8541. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering in ground effect at 4,500 feet pres-
sure altitude and +20°C?
A— 14,500 pounds.
B— 16,500 pounds.
C— 17,000 pounds.

To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the

lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +20°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 4,500
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from that point to the right to intersect +20°C OAT.
Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross
weight. Read the correct answer of 17,000 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8537 [B] 8538 [A] 8539 [B] 8540 [A] 8541 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 71

Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8542. (Refer to Figure 37.) What is the maximum gross 8545. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering in ground effect at 2,500 feet pres- weight for hovering out of ground effect at 7,000 feet
sure altitude and +35°C? pressure altitude and +35°C?
A— 16,200 pounds. A— 14,000 pounds.
B— 16,600 pounds. B— 11,600 pounds.
C— 14,600 pounds. C— 12,500 pounds.

To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
lower left corner of FAA Figure 37 at +35°C OAT. With lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +35°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 2,500 a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 7,000
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from that point to the right to intersect +35°C OAT. line from that point to the right to intersect +35°C OAT.
Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross
weight. Read the correct answer of 16,200 pounds. weight. Read the correct answer of 11,600 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21

RTC RTC
8543. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross 8546. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering out of ground effect at 3,000 feet weight for hovering out of ground effect at 4,500 feet
pressure altitude and +30°C? pressure altitude and +20°C?
A— 17,500 pounds. A— 14,500 pounds.
B— 14,300 pounds. B— 14,000 pounds.
C— 13,400 pounds. C— 17,000 pounds.

To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +30°C OAT. With lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +20°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 3,000 a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 4,500
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from that point to the right to intersect +30°C OAT. line from that point to the right to intersect +20°C OAT.
Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross
weight. Read the correct answer of 14,300 pounds. weight. Read the correct answer of 14,500 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21

RTC RTC
8544. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross 8547. (Refer to Figure 38.) What is the maximum gross
weight for hovering out of ground effect at 6,000 feet weight for hovering out of ground effect at 2,500 feet
pressure altitude and +15°C? pressure altitude and +30°C?
A— 16,800 pounds. A— 17,400 pounds.
B— 13,500 pounds. B— 15,000 pounds.
C— 14,400 pounds. C— 14,500 pounds.

To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the To determine the maximum gross weight, begin in the
lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +15°C OAT. With lower left corner of FAA Figure 38 at +30°C OAT. With
a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 6,000 a straight-edge, draw a line vertically to intersect 2,500
feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular feet pressure altitude. Draw a second perpendicular
line from that point to the right to intersect +15°C OAT. line from that point to the right to intersect +30°C OAT.
Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross Draw a third line from this intersection vertically to gross
weight. Read the correct answer of 14,400 pounds. weight. Read the correct answer of 14,500 pounds.
(PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT048) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8542 [A] 8543 [B] 8544 [C] 8545 [B] 8546 [A] 8547 [C]

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 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC To determine the takeoff distance, begin at +0°C OAT in

8548. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a vertical
over a 50-foot obstacle? line upward to intersect 6,500 feet pressure altitude.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 3,500 ft From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 13,500
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +20°C pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical
Gross weight................................................. 15,000 lb line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance
of 1,050 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
A— 1,070 feet.
B— 1,020 feet.
C— 1,100 feet. RTC
8551. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance
To determine the takeoff distance, begin at +20°C OAT over a 50-foot obstacle?
in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a vertical
line upward to intersect 3,500 feet pressure altitude. Pressure altitude.............................................. 9,000 ft
From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 15,000 Temperature (OAT)............................................. +20°C
pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical Gross weight................................................. 15,000 lb
line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance A— 1,300 feet.
of 1,070 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21 B— 1,350 feet.
C— 1,250 feet.

RTC To determine the takeoff distance, begin at +20°C OAT

8549. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a vertical
over a 50-foot obstacle? line upward to intersect 9,000 feet pressure altitude.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 5,000 ft From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 15,000
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -10°C pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical
Gross weight..................................................11,000 lb line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance
of 1,350 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
A— 1,000 feet.
B— 920 feet.
C— 870 feet. RTC
8552. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance
To determine the takeoff distance, begin at -10°C OAT over a 50-foot obstacle?
in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a verti-
cal line upward to intersect 5,000 feet pressure altitude. Pressure altitude............................................. -1,000 ft
From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 11,000 Temperature (OAT)............................................. +25°C
pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical Gross weight................................................. 14,000 lb
line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance A— 1,000 feet.
of 870 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21 B— 900 feet.
C— 950 feet.

RTC To determine the takeoff distance, begin at +25°C OAT

8550. (Refer to Figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance in the lower left corner of FAA Figure 39. Draw a vertical
over a 50-foot obstacle? line upward to intersect -1,000 feet pressure altitude.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 6,500 ft From that point, draw a perpendicular line to 14,000
Temperature (OAT)................................................. 0°C pounds gross weight. From this point, draw a vertical
Gross weight................................................. 13,500 lb line downward to takeoff distance. Read the distance
of 900 feet. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
A— 1,500 feet.
B— 1,050 feet.
C— 1,100 feet.

Answers
8548 [A] 8549 [C] 8550 [B] 8551 [B] 8552 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 73

Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8553. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor- 8555. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor-
mance with both engines operating? mance with both engines operating?
Pressure altitude.............................................. 9,500 ft Pressure altitude.............................................. 6,500 ft
Temperature (OAT)................................................ -5°C Temperature (OAT)............................................. +25°C
Heater......................................................................ON Heater.................................................................... OFF
A— 925 ft/min. A— 285 ft/min.
B— 600 ft/min. B— 600 ft/min.
C— 335 ft/min. C— 400 ft/min.

1. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with 9,500 pres- 1. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with 6,500 pres-
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved
line representing -5°C temperature (interpolate line representing +25°C temperature (interpolate
between temperatures as necessary). between temperatures as necessary).
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line 2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb
of 915 fpm. of 600 fpm.
3. With the heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
is 315 fpm less, therefore our rate of climb is 600
fpm.
RTC
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
8556. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor-
mance with both engines operating?
RTC Pressure altitude.............................................11,500 ft
8554. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor- Temperature (OAT).............................................. -15°C
mance with both engines operating? Heater......................................................................ON
Pressure altitude.............................................. 7,500 ft A— 645 ft/min.
Temperature (OAT)............................................... +5°C B— 375 ft/min.
Heater......................................................................ON C— 330 ft/min.
A— 905 ft/min.
1. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with 11,500
B— 765 ft/min.
pressure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the
C— 1,080 ft/min.
curved line representing -15°C temperature (inter-
1. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with 7,500 pres- polate between temperatures as necessary).
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved 2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line
line representing +5°C temperature (interpolate to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb
between temperatures as necessary). of 645 fpm.
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line 3. With the heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb is 315 fpm less; therefore, the rate of climb is 330
of 1,080 fpm. fpm.
3. With the heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
is 315 fpm less; therefore, our rate of climb is 765
fpm.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8553 [B] 8554 [B] 8555 [B] 8556 [C]

4 – 74 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8557. (Refer to Figure 40.) What is the climb perfor- 8559. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is
mance with both engines operating? the single-engine climb or descent performance?
Pressure altitude.............................................. 3,500 ft Pressure altitude.............................................. 3,000 ft
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -10°C Temperature (OAT)............................................. +35°C
Heater......................................................................ON A— 150 ft/min descent.
A— 985 ft/min. B— 350 ft/min climb.
B— 1,300 ft/min. C— 100 ft/min descent.
C— 1,360 ft/min.
1. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 3,000 pres-
1. Enter FAA Figure 40 at the left side with 3,500 pres- sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved line representing +35°C temperature (interpolate
line representing -10°C temperature (interpolate between temperatures as necessary).
between temperatures as necessary). 2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent
to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb of 100 fpm.
of 1,300 fpm. (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
3. With the heater on above 1,800 feet, the rate of climb
is 315 fpm less; therefore, our rate of climb is 985
fpm. RTC
8560. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
the single-engine climb or descent performance?
Pressure altitude.............................................. 4,700 ft
RTC Temperature (OAT)............................................. +20°C
8558. (Refer to Figure 41.) What is the single-engine A— 420 ft/min climb.
climb or descent performance? B— 60 ft/min climb.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 7,500 ft C— 60 ft/min descent.
Temperature (OAT)................................................. 0°C
1. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 4,700 pres-
A— 80 ft/min descent.
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved
B— 10 ft/min climb.
line representing +20°C temperature (interpolate
C— 50 ft/min climb.
between temperatures as necessary).
1. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 7,500 2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line
pressure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the to the bottom of the graph and read the rate of climb
curved line representing 0°C temperature (interpo- of 60 fpm.
late between temperatures as necessary). (PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to
the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent
of 80 fpm.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8557 [A] 8558 [A] 8559 [C] 8560 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 75

Chapter 4 Performance

RTC 1. Use the right-middle table for an aircraft weighing

8561. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is 16,500 pounds.
the single-engine climb or descent performance?
2. Start at an OAT of -15°C and interpolate between
Pressure altitude.............................................. 9,500 ft 6,000 (126) and 4,000 (131) feet to find VNE for 5,000.
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -10°C
3. VNE for 5,000 feet at -15°C is 128.5 knots.
A— 600 ft/min descent.
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21
B— 840 ft/min descent.
C— 280 ft/min descent.
RTC
1. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 9,500 pres- 8564. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved (VNE)?
line representing -10°C temperature (interpolate
between temperatures as necessary). Gross weight..................................................17,500 lb
Pressure altitude.............................................. 4,000 ft
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to Temperature (OAT)............................................. +10°C
the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent
of 280 fpm. A— 114 KIAS.
B— 120 KIAS.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21 C— 130 KIAS.

1. Use the right-bottom table for an aircraft weighing

RTC
17,500 pounds.
8562. (Refer to Figure 41.) Given the following, what is
the single-engine climb or descent performance? 2. Interpolate between 0°C and 20°C for 4,000 feet to
find VNE for +10°C.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 1,500 ft
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +45°C 3. VNE for 5,000 feet at +10°C is 120 knots.
A— 100 ft/min descent. (PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21
B— 360 ft/min climb.
C— 200 ft/min descent.
RTC
1. Enter FAA Figure 41 at the left side with 1,500 pres- 8565. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit
sure altitude and draw a horizontal line to the curved (VNE)?
line representing +45°C temperature (interpolate Gross weight................................................. 15,000 lb
between temperatures as necessary). Pressure altitude.............................................. 6,000 ft
2. From that point of intersection, draw a vertical line to Temperature (OAT)................................................. 0°C
the bottom of the graph and read the rate of descent A— 135 KIAS.
of 100 fpm. B— 127 KIAS.
(PLT004) — FAA-H-8083-21 C— 143 KIAS.

1. Use the table for 14,500 pounds and 16,500 to inter-

RTC polate for an aircraft weighing 15,000 pounds.
8563. (Refer to Figure 42.) Given the following, what 2. Start at an OAT of 0°C and find 6,000 for both 14,500
is the airspeed limit (VNE)? pounds (138) and 16,500 pounds (122) feet to find
Gross weight................................................. 16,500 lb VNE for 15,000 pounds.
Pressure altitude.............................................. 5,000 ft 3. VNE for 15,000 feet at 0°C is 135 knots.
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -15°C
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21
A— 128 KIAS.
B— 133 KIAS.
C— 126 KIAS.

Answers
8561 [C] 8562 [A] 8563 [A] 8564 [B] 8565 [A]

4 – 76 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

RTC 1. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom

8566. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit and draw a vertical line from +30°C OAT to the 3,500
(VNE)? feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary).
Gross weight................................................. 14,000 lb 2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line
Pressure altitude.............................................. 8,000 ft to the diagonal representing 12,000 pounds, and
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -15°C then a vertical line from there down to the landing
A— 121 KIAS. distance of 1,000 feet.
B— 123 KIAS. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21
C— 113 KIAS.

1. Use the table for 13,500 pounds and 14,500 to inter- RTC
polate for an aircraft weighing 14,000 pounds. 8569. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine
2. Start at an OAT of -15°C and find 8,000 for both landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
13,500 pounds (121) and 14,500 pounds (121) feet Gross weight................................................. 16,500 lb
to find VNE for 14,000 pounds. Pressure altitude.............................................. 5,500 ft
3. VNE for 14,000 feet at -15°C is 121 knots. Temperature (OAT).............................................. -10°C
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21 A— 1,700 feet.
B— 1,550 feet.
C— 1,600 feet.
RTC
8567. (Refer to Figure 42.) What is the airspeed limit 1. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom
(VNE)? and draw a vertical line from -10°C OAT to the 5,500
feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary).
Gross weight................................................. 12,500 lb
Pressure altitude............................................ 14,000 ft 2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line
Temperature (OAT).............................................. -20°C to the diagonal representing 16,500 pounds, and
then a vertical line from there down to the landing
A— 99 KIAS. distance of 1,550 feet.
B— 108 KIAS.
C— 103 KIAS. (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21

1. Use the table for an aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds.

RTC
2. Interpolate between -15°C and -25°C for 14,000 feet 8570. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine
to find VNE for -20°C. landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
3. VNE for 14,000 feet at -20°C is 103 knots. Gross weight................................................. 15,000 lb
(PLT002) — FAA-H-8083-21 Pressure altitude.............................................. 8,000 ft
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +20°C
A— 1,900 feet.
RTC
B— 1,800 feet.
8568. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine
C— 2,000 feet.
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Gross weight................................................. 12,000 lb 1. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom
Pressure altitude.............................................. 3,500 ft and draw a vertical line from +20°C OAT to the 8,000
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +30°C feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary).
A— 850 feet. 2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line
B— 900 feet. to the diagonal representing 15,000 pounds, and
C— 1,000 feet. then a vertical line from there down to the landing
distance of 1,900 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21

Answers
8566 [A] 8567 [C] 8568 [C] 8569 [B] 8570 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 77

Chapter 4 Performance

RTC RTC
8571. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine 8572. (Refer to Figure 43.) What is the single-engine
landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle? landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Gross weight................................................. 14,000 lb Gross weight..................................................17,000 lb
Pressure altitude.............................................. 1,000 ft Pressure altitude.............................................. 4,000 ft
Temperature (OAT)............................................. +10°C Temperature (OAT)............................................. +40°C
A— 650 feet. A— 1,850 feet.
B— 920 feet. B— 2,200 feet.
C— 800 feet. C— 2,000 feet.

1. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom 1. Enter FAA Figure 43 on the left side at the bottom
and draw a vertical line from +10°C OAT to the 1,000 and draw a vertical line from +40°C OAT to the 4,000
feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary). feet pressure altitude (interpolate as necessary).
2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line 2. From that point of intersection, draw a horizontal line
to the diagonal representing 14,000 pounds, and to the diagonal representing 17,000 pounds, and
then a vertical line from there down to the landing then a vertical line from there down to the landing
distance of 920 feet. distance of 2,000 feet.
(PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21 (PLT011) — FAA-H-8083-21

Flight Planning Graphs and Tables

Aircraft manufacturers publish flight planning graphs or tables that enable flight crews to quickly estimate
the time and fuel required to fly certain trips. These tables or graphs allow adjustments for aircraft weight,
wind, altitude, cruise speed, and other variables.
FAA Figure 399 represents a performance chart that is often used for performance questions on
the Cessna 208: the “time, fuel and distance to climb” chart. This chart is fairly easy to use in that you
simply find your weight, and the altitude you are climbing to. Just make sure to subtract your departure
elevation altitude. For example, if you were departing from a field elevation of 4,000 feet and climbing
to a cruise altitude of 16,000 feet, you would first calculate everything at the 16,000-foot level and then
subtract the 4,000-foot field elevation.
In this example, at 8,750 pounds and standard temperature, you would expect to spend 23 minutes in
the climb; however, subtract the 4,000-foot time of 5 minutes, which yields a time-to-climb of 18 minutes.

ATM, ADX 1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,000 and move
8643. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time up to the reference line.
for Operating Conditions X-1?
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
A— 4 hours 5 minutes. representing a 50-knot tailwind.
B— 4 hours 15 minutes.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
C— 4 hours.
of 27,000 feet and move left to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
representing ISA +10°C and continue to the edge
of the chart.
5. Determine a trip time of 4 hours.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8571 [B] 8572 [C] 8643 [C]

4 – 78 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX 3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude

8644. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time of 29,000 feet and move left to the reference line.
for Operating Conditions X-2?
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
A— 5 hours 5 minutes. representing ISA -10°C and continue to the edge of
B— 6 hours 15 minutes. the chart.
C— 5 hours 55 minutes.
5. Determine a trip time of 5 hours 45 minutes.
1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,400 and move (PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
up to the reference line.
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line ATM, ADX
representing a 50-knot headwind. 8647. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude for Operating Conditions X-5?
of 35,000 feet and move left to edge of the chart. A— 2 hours 55 minutes.
4. Determine a trip time of 6 hours 15 minutes. B— 3 hours 10 minutes.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 C— 2 hours 59 minutes.

1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,200 and move

ATM, ADX up to the reference line.
8645. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time 2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
for Operating Conditions X-3? representing a 30-knot headwind.
A— 4 hours 15 minutes. 3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
B— 3 hours 40 minutes. of 37,000 feet and move left to the reference line.
C— 4 hours.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,800 and move representing ISA +10°C and continue to the edge
up to the reference line. of the chart.
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line 5. Determine a trip time of 2 hours 55 minutes.
representing a 20-knot headwind. (PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
of 20,000 feet and move left to the reference line. ATM, ADX
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line 8648. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel
representing ISA +20°C and continue to the edge for Operating Conditions X-1?
of the chart. A— 25,000 pounds.
5. Determine a trip time of 4 hours. B— 26,000 pounds.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 C— 24,000 pounds.

1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,000 and move

ATM, ADX up to the reference line.
8646. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time 2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
for Operating Conditions X-4? representing a 50-knot tailwind.
A— 6 hours 50 minutes. 3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
B— 5 hours 45 minutes. of 27,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
C— 5 hours 30 minutes.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,800 and representing 70,000 pounds and continue to the
move up to the reference line. edge of the chart.
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line 5. Determine a trip fuel of 26,000 pounds.
representing a 50-knot tailwind. (PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8644 [B] 8645 [C] 8646 [B] 8647 [A] 8648 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 79

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ADX 1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,800 and

8649. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel move up to the reference line.
for Operating Conditions X-2?
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
A— 33,000 pounds. representing a 50-knot tailwind.
B— 28,000 pounds.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
C— 35,000 pounds.
of 29,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 2,400 and move 4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
up to the reference line. representing 65,000 pounds and continue to the
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line edge of the chart.
representing a 50-knot headwind. 5. Determine a trip fuel of 33,000 pounds.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude (PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
of 35,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line ATM, ADX
representing 75,000 pounds and continue to the 8652. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel
edge of the chart. for Operating Conditions X-5?
5. Determine a trip fuel of 35,000 pounds. A— 15,000 pounds.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— 20,000 pounds.
C— 19,000 pounds.

ATM, ADX 1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,200 and move
8650. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel up to the reference line.
for Operating Conditions X-3?
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
A— 36,000 pounds. representing a 30-knot headwind.
B— 34,500 pounds.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude
C— 33,000 pounds.
of 37,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
1. Enter the bottom of FAA Figure 62 at 1,800 and move 4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line
up to the reference line. representing 90,000 pounds and continue to the
2. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line edge of the chart.
representing a 20-knot headwind. 5. Determine a trip fuel of 19,000 pounds.
3. Move up to the line representing a pressure altitude (PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
of 20,000 feet and move right to the reference line.
4. From the reference line, follow the diagonal line ATM, ATS, ADX
representing 75,000 pounds and continue to the 8658. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip
edge of the chart. time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-1?
5. Determine a trip fuel of 34,500 pounds. A— 58.1 minutes.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— 51.9 minutes.
C— 54.7 minutes.

ATM, ADX Change in time = Time × Wind Component ÷ TAS

8651. (Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel 55 × (-25) ÷ 438 = -3.1 minutes
for Operating Conditions X-4?
Therefore, the trip time corrected for wind is 51.9
A— 33,000 pounds. minutes (55 − 3.1).
B— 31,500 pounds.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 34,000 pounds.

Answers
8649 [C] 8650 [B] 8651 [A] 8652 [C] 8658 [B]

4 – 80 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX Table time = 62 minutes

8659. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time Change in time = 62 min × 60 ÷ 433 = 8.6 minutes
corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-2? Trip time = 62 min + 8.6 min = 70.6 minute =
A— 1 hour 35 minutes. 1 hour 11 minutes
B— 1 hour 52 minutes. (PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 1 hour 46 minutes.

Table time = 96 minutes ATM, ATS, ADX

Change in time = 96 minutes × 45 ÷ 433 = +10 minutes 8663. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti-
Trip time = 96 min + 10 min = 106 minutes = 1 hour 46 mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1?
minutes A— 5,230 pounds.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— 5,970 pounds.
C— 5,550 pounds.

ATM, ATS, ADX Table fuel = 5,550 lbs

8660. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time Change in fuel = 5,500 × (-25) ÷ 438 = -316.8 lbs
corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-3? Trip fuel = 5,500 lbs – 316.8 lbs = 5,233.2 lbs
A— 2 hours 9 minutes. (PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
B— 1 hour 59 minutes.
C— 1 hour 52 minutes.
ATM, ATS, ADX
Table time = 129 minutes 8664. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti-
Change in time = 129 min × (-35) ÷ 433 = -10.4 minutes mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?
Trip time = 129 min – 10.4 min = 118.6 minutes = A— 10,270 pounds.
1 hour 59 minutes B— 9,660 pounds.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 C— 10,165 pounds.

Table fuel = 9,300 lbs

ATM, ATS, ADX Change in fuel = 9,300 × 45 ÷ 433 = 967 lbs
8661. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time Trip fuel = 9,300 lbs + 967 lbs = 10,267 lbs
corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-4?
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 48.3 minutes.
B— 50.7 minutes.
C— 51.3 minutes. ATM, ATS, ADX
8665. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti-
Table time = 48 minutes mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-3?
Change in time = 48 min × 25 ÷ 443 = 2.7 minutes A— 12,300 pounds.
Trip time = 48 min + 2.7 min = 50.7 minutes B— 11,300 pounds.
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 C— 13,990 pounds.

Table fuel = 12,300 lbs

ATM, ATS, ADX Change in fuel = 12,300 × (-35) ÷ 433 = -994 lbs
8662. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time Trip fuel = 12,300 lbs – 994 lbs = 11,306 lbs
corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5?
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— 1 hour 11 minutes.
B— 56 minutes.
C— 62 minutes.

Answers
8659 [C] 8660 [B] 8661 [B] 8662 [A] 8663 [A] 8664 [A]
8665 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 81

Chapter 4 Performance

ATM, ATS, ADX ATM, ADX

8666. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti- 8604. (Refer to Figure 469.) With an OAT of -20°C at
mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-4? 20,000 feet and an IAS of 150, the Maximum Continu-
A— 4,950 pounds. ous Power Torque Setting is
B— 5,380 pounds. A— 64%.
C— 5,230 pounds. B— 66%.
C— 68%.
Table fuel = 4,950 lbs
Change in fuel = 4,950 × 25 ÷ 443 = 279 lbs On Figure 469, start at the bottom of the chart and
Trip fuel = 4,950 lbs + 279 lbs = 5,229 lbs locate -20°C. Move straight up until intersecting the
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25 20,000 feet line. Move directly to the right and stop at
the REF LINE. Because 150 knots intersects with the
REF LINE, you continue to the right and note the maxi-
ATM, ATS, ADX mum continuous power torque setting is 66%. (PLT009,
8667. (Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the esti- AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
mated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-5?
A— 6,250 pounds.
B— 5,380 pounds.
C— 7,120 pounds.

Table fuel = 6,250 lbs

Change in fuel = 6,250 × 60 ÷ 433 = 866 lbs
Trip fuel = 6,250 lbs + 866 lbs = 7,116 lbs
(PLT012, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM, ATS, ADX

8603. (Refer to Figures 297 and 481.) With a reported
temperature of 0°C, at 500 feet AGL after takeoff, and
airspeed of 145 knots IAS, the radius of turn is
A— 7,850 feet.
B— 8,150 feet.
C— 8,450 feet.

1. On Figure 297, note the field elevation of 5,355 feet.

2. On Figure 481, start on the lower left side of the chart
at 0°C and move straight up until you intersect the
altitude of 5,855 feet (field elevation of 5,355 + 500
feet AGL). Move directly to the right until intersecting
the REF LINE. Move up and to the right in parallel
with the diagonal lines until intersecting the airspeed
of 145 knots. Move directly to the right and note the
radius of turn of 8,150 feet.
(PLT011, AA.I.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8666 [C] 8667 [C] 8603 [B] 8604 [B]

4 – 82 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 4 Performance

Typical Flight Logs

Flight logs are used to accurately plan the time and fuel required for a flight. In the following paragraphs
we describe all the steps required to complete a flight log.
1. Determine the magnetic courses for each leg and determine the leg distances.
2. Apply variations to the winds aloft.
3. Determine the temperature in relation to ISA.
4. Determine Mach number and convert to TAS.
5. Compute ground speed.
6. Calculate and record the time for each leg.
7. Compute fuel flow.
8. Compute total fuel.
9. Determine the reserve fuel.
10. Compute fuel burn to alternate.
11. Add the en route, reserve, and alternate fuel to find the total fuel required for the flight.

Computation of Temperature at Cruise Altitude

Temperature is often expressed as a deviation from ISA which is the standard day temperature (i.e., ISA
-2°). This temperature can be computed by the following procedure:
1. Compute ISA by multiplying the altitude in thousands of feet times -2° and then adding 15°. For
example: ISA at 27,000 feet = 27 × (-2°) +15 = -39°
2. Apply the deviation from ISA: ISA -2° at 27,000 feet = (-39°) + (-2°) = -41°

Computation of True Airspeed Using Mach Number

True Airspeed (TAS) can be computed from Mach number and Outside Air Temperature (OAT).
Using the CX-3 Flight Computer, select “Airspeed” from the FLT menu, then enter the OAT and the
Mach number at the appropriate prompts to get TAS.
Using an E6-B computer, follow these steps:
1. In the small window labeled “Airspeed Correction” or “True Airspeed,” align the arrow labeled “Mach
Number” with the OAT on the scale adjacent the window.
2. Find the Mach number on the inner of the two main scales and then read the TAS opposite it on the
outer scale.

Note: Some “CR”-type mechanical computers have a window in which a Mach Index is aligned with
a Mach number inside the window. Don’t use this scale. It is designed to use Indicated Temperature and
will give an inaccurate TAS when OAT is used.
See the instruction manual of your individual computer for more detailed instructions.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 4 – 83

Chapter 4 Performance

Specific Range
Specific range is the term used to describe the rate of fuel burn per nautical air mile flown. It is calculated
by using TAS and fuel flow only. Wind has no effect on specific range. To calculate specific range in
nautical air miles per 1,000 pounds, use the formula:
NM/1,000 = TAS × 1,000 ÷ PPH.
TAS should be calculated from the Mach number as in the paragraph above. PPH can be taken
directly from the flight log.

ATM, ATS, ADX

8702. A jet airplane is flying at .72 Mach with an OAT
of -40°C. What is the true airspeed?
A— 430 knots.
B— 452 knots.
C— 464 knots.

Using your CX-3 Flight Computer select Airspeed from

the FLT menu. Enter a MACH of .72 and OAT of -40°C to
get a TAS of 428.41 KTS. The closest available answer
is 430 knots. (PLT012, AA.I.D.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15

Answers
8702 [A]

4 – 84 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 5
Weight and Balance
Center of Gravity Computation 5–3
Stabilizer Trim Setting 5–7
Changing Loading Conditions 5–8
C208 Weight and Balance 5 – 12
Commuter Aircraft Weight and Balance 5 – 13
Helicopter Weight and Balance 5 – 24
Helicopter Weight and Balance: CG Shifts 5 – 25
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Load Limits 5 – 27
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Lateral CG 5 – 29
Floor Loading Limits 5 – 30

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5–1

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

5–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Center of Gravity Computation

Note applicable to Chapters 4 and 5: The ATP Single-engine exam (ATS) focuses on the Cessna
208 and the ATP Multi-engine exam (ATM) focuses on the Bombardier CRJ200 and Q400.
The start of the solution to any weight and balance problem is the calculation of the total weight of
the aircraft (gross weight) and the total moment. All weight and balance problems on the ATP test use a
moment index rather than the actual moment. The moment index is the actual moment divided by 1,000.
Basic Operating Weight (BOW) is defined as the empty weight of the aircraft plus the weight of
the required crew, their baggage and other standard items such as meals and potable water. The BOW
and the Basic Operating Index (Moment/1,000) are the same for all questions.
The Moment Index (MOM/1,000) is calculated by using the formula:
Weight × Arm/1,000 = MOM/1,000

The Center of Gravity (CG) in inches aft of the Datum line can be determined by using the formula:
CG = Total Moment / Total Weight
Since some FAA questions use a Moment Index instead of Moment, for these it is necessary to
modify this formula by multiplying the (Total Moment/Total Weight) by the reduction factor (1,000). The
formula then becomes:
CG = (Total Moment Index / Total Weight) × 1,000

ATM, ADX 1. On Figure 405, note the maximum gross weight of

8697. (Refer to Figures 405 through 416.) (Note: 8,785 lbs.
Applicants may request a printed copy of the chart(s)
2. On Figure 410, note the 200-pound pilot yields a 27.1
or graph(s) for use while computing the answer. All
moment.
printed pages must be returned to test proctor.) With
the load weights shown in Figure 414, you fill the fuel 3. Using Figure 411, using maximum fuel at a weight
tanks to the maximum fuel to remain under maximum of 2,224 lbs, the moment is 451.7.
gross weight and compute the center of gravity. Your 4. On Figure 414, using the pilot weight of 200 lbs and
computations indicate 27.1 moment, and the fuel of 2,224 and moment of
A— at a CG of 200.1, your loading is satisfactory for 451.7, the calculated ramp weight is 7,429 lbs. Add-
flight operations. ing all the moments together yields 1408.2.
B— at a CG of 180.19, you need to redistribute your 5. The CG is calculated by taking the total moment
loads. (1,408.2 × 1,000) and dividing by aircraft weight.
C— at a CG of 190.27, you only need to change the 14,082,000 ÷ 7,429 lbs = 189.6.
cargo pod loading.
6. On Figure 415, note the aircraft is out of CG, but
can be brought into CG by changing the cargo pad
loading.
(PLT003, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8697 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5–3

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ALL ALL
8697-1. Given the following, what would be the maxi- 8697-4. What adverse flight characteristics could result
mum payload? from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG)
Basic operating weight (BOW): 100,500 lbs. beyond the published aft limitations?
Maximum zero fuel weight: 138,000 lbs. A— The flight control forces may become very heavy.
Maximum landing weight: 142,000 lbs. B— It could be difficult to flare for landing.
Maximum takeoff weight: 184,200 lbs. C— It could be impossible to recover from a stall.
Fuel load: 40,000 lbs.
Fuel tank capacity: 54,000 lbs. As the CG moves aft, a less stable condition occurs,
which decreases the ability of the aircraft to right itself
A— 43,700 lbs.
after maneuvering or turbulence, including recovery from
B— 37,500 lbs.
a stall or spin. (PLT003, AA.I.B.K5) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— 29,700 lbs.

The payload is the maximum combination of passen-

ATM, ATS, ADX
gers, baggage, and cargo that the airplane is capable
8698. (Refer to Figures 405 through 416.) What is the
of carrying. A zero fuel weight, if published, is the
CG in inches from datum under the following loading
limiting weight: 138,000 − 100,500 = 37,500. (PLT003,
conditions?
AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-3
Weight (lbs.)
Basic empty weight............................................. 5,005
ALL Pilot.................................................................... 185
8697-2. What is the purpose of a zero fuel weight Cargo
limitation? Zone 1............................................................... 200
Zone 2............................................................... 240
A— To limit load forces on the wing spars with heavy Zone 3............................................................... 500
fuselage loads. Zone 4............................................................... 400
B— To limit load forces on the fuselage with a heavy Zone 5............................................................... 200
wing fuel load. Zone 6................................................................. 50
C— To prevent overstressing the landing gear during Cargo Pod
a hard landing. Zone A................................................................... 0
Zone B................................................................... 0
The zero fuel weight of an aircraft includes all useful Zone C................................................................... 0
load except fuel. The purpose of a zero fuel weight is to Zone D................................................................... 0
limit load forces on the wing spars with heavy fuselage
loads. (PLT003, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-3 Fuel.............................................................275 gallons
A— Station 202.6.
B— Station 198.5.
ALL C— Station 205.6.
8697-3. What adverse flight characteristics could result
from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG) 1. Use Figure 410 to calculate the weight and moment
beyond the published forward limitations? for the pilot. The arm is 135.5 inches, so multiply
A— The flight control forces may become very light. 185 × 135.5 to get a moment of 25,067.5. Record
B— It could be difficult or impossible to flare for these numbers under “Your Airplane” in the Figure
landing. 414 worksheet.
C— It could be difficult or impossible to recover from 2. Use Figure 412 to calculate the cargo weights at
a stall. each zone by multiplying the weight by the arm, to
get the following results:
In extreme cases, a CG location that is beyond the
forward limit may result in nose heaviness, making
it difficult or impossible to flare for landing. (PLT003,
AA.I.B.K5) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8697-1 [B] 8697-2 [A] 8697-3 [B] 8697-4 [C] 8698 [A]

5–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS, ADX

Weight × Arm = Moment
8699. (Refer to Figures 405 through 416.) What is the
Zone 1 200 172.1 34,420 CG in inches from datum under the following loading
Zone 2 240 217.8 52,272 conditions?
Weight (lbs.)
Zone 3 500 264.4 132,200
Basic empty weight............................................. 5,005
Zone 4 400 294.5 117,800 Pilot.................................................................... 190
Zone 5 200 319.5 63,900 Front seat passenger......................................... 200
Zone 6 50 344 17,200 Cargo
Zone 1............................................................... 180
Record these in the Figure 414 worksheet. Zone 2............................................................... 505
Zone 3............................................................... 198
3. Using Figure 411, calculate the weight and moment
Zone 4............................................................... 600
of 275 gallons of fuel and find 1,843 pounds, and a
Zone 5................................................................... 0
moment of 374,500. Record in Figure 414 worksheet.
Zone 6................................................................. 60
4. Add all the items from the Figure 414 worksheet, Cargo Pod
including the basic empty weight and moment: Zone A............................................................... 100
Zone B................................................................. 80
Weight Moment
Zone C............................................................... 200
Basic empty weight 5,005 929,400 Zone D............................................................... 180
Pilot 185 25,067.5 Fuel.............................................................180 gallons
Zone 1 200 34,420 A— 196.4 inches aft of datum.
Zone 2 240 52,272 B— 200.4 inches aft of datum.
Zone 3 500 132,200 C— 204.1 inches aft of datum.
Zone 4 400 117,800 1. Use Figure 410 to calculate the weight and moment
Zone 5 200 63,900 for the pilot and passenger. The arm is 135.5 inches,
so multiply 390 × 135.5 to get a moment of 52,845.
Zone 6 50 17,200
Record these numbers under “Your Airplane” in the
Zone A 0 Figure 414 worksheet.
Zone B 0 2. Use Figure 412 to calculate the cargo weights at
Zone C 0 each zone by multiplying the weight by the arm, to
Zone D 0 get the following results:
Fuel 1,843 374,500 Weight × Arm = Moment
Total 8,623 lbs 1,746,760 in-lbs Zone 1 180 172.1 30,978
Zone 2 505 217.8 109,989
5. Divide the total moment by the total weight to get a
Zone 3 198 264.4 52,351.2
CG of 202.6 inches.
Zone 4 600 294.5 176,700
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
Zone 5 0 319.5 0
Zone 6 60 344 20,640
Zone A 100 132.4 13,240
Zone B 80 182.1 14,568
Zone C 200 233.4 46,680
Zone D 180 287.6 51,768
Record these in the Figure 414 worksheet.

Answers
8699 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5–5

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

3. Using Figure 411, calculate the weight and moment ATM, ATS, ADX
of 180 gallons of fuel and find 1,206 pounds, and a 8699-1. (Refer to Figure 419.) With the following condi-
moment of 245,200. Record in Figure 414 worksheet. tions, would the airplane be in the approved weight and
CG envelope for landing?
4. Add all the items from the Figure 414 worksheet,
including the basic empty weight and moment: CG location: 25% MAC
Aircraft Weight: 74,000 lbs.
Weight Moment
A— No, the airplane is over the maximum approved
Basic empty weight 5,005 929,400 landing weight.
Pilot 190 25,745 B— Yes, the airplane is within the approved weight
Front Passenger 200 27,100 and CG envelope.
C— No, the airplane is below the maximum landing
Zone 1 180 30,978 weight, but the CG is aft of limits.
Zone 2 505 109,989
The airplane is over the maximum approved landing
Zone 3 198 52,351.2
weight of 73,500 lbs. (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-
Zone 4 600 176,700 8083-25
Zone 5 0 0
Zone 6 60 20,640 ATM, ATS, ADX
Zone A 100 13,240 8699-2. (Refer to Figure 419.) You are preparing for a
Zone B 80 14,568 flight, with the following planned loading at takeoff. Would
the aircraft be within the approved weight limitations?
Zone C 200 46,680
Basic operating weight (including crew): 49,500 lbs.
Zone D 180 51,768 Passengers, baggage, and cargo: 20,850 lbs.
Fuel 1206 245,200 Fuel weight: 9,500 lbs.
Total 8,704 lbs 1,744,359 in-lbs A— Yes, the weight would be within limits.
B— No, max zero fuel weight would be exceeded.
5. Divide the total weight to arrive at a CG of 200.4 C— No, the max takeoff weight would be exceeded.
inches.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 The total weight for this flight is 49,500 + 20,850 + 9,500
= 79,850 lbs. This is below the maximum takeoff weight
but above the zero fuel weight limit of 70,000 at 70,350
lbs. (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8699-1 [A] 8699-2 [B]

5–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Stabilizer Trim Setting

The correct horizontal stabilizer trim setting is very critical for proper takeoff performance of jet aircraft.
The main determinants are the CG location and possibly the flap setting. Some aircraft, such as the
DC-9, have their stabilizer trim indicators calibrated in percent of MAC, so it is necessary to calculate
the CG to know the trim setting. Other aircraft (such as the B-737) have their trim indicators marked off
in units of nose up trim. In such cases it is necessary to refer to the trim table to determine the proper
setting for a given CG. See FAA Figure 55.
The Stab Trim Setting Table at the bottom left side of FAA Figure 55 is used to determine the takeoff
trim setting for a B-737. CG location in percent of MAC is used to determine the setting. For example, if
the CG is at 8.0% of MAC, the stab trim setting is 7-3/4 units ANU (Airplane Nose Up).

ATM ATM
8623. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB 8626. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB
TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-1? TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-4?
A— 8 ANU. A— 4-1/4 ANU.
B— 7-5/8 ANU. B— 4-1/2 ANU.
C— 7-3/4 ANU. C— 5 ANU.

CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 635.7" – 625.0" = 10.7" CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 657.2" – 625.0" = 32.2"
CG (% of MAC) = 10.7"/134.0" = 8.0% CG (% of MAC) = 32.2"/134.0" = 24.0%
Stab Trim = 7-3/4 ANU Stab Trim = 4-1/2 ANU
(PLT010, AA.III.A.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT010, AA.III.A.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM ATM
8624. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB 8627. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB
TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-2? TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-5?
A— 5-3/4 ANU. A— 6-3/4 ANU.
B— 7 ANU. B— 8 ANU.
C— 6-3/4 ANU. C— 7-1/2 ANU.

CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 643.8" – 625.0" = 18.8" CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 638.4" – 625.0" = 13.4"
CG (% of MAC) = 18.8"/134.0" = 14.0% CG (% of MAC) = 13.4"/134.0" = 10.0%
Stab Trim = 6-3/4 ANU Stab Trim = 7-1/2 ANU
(PLT010, AA.III.A.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25 (PLT010, AA.III.A.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25

ATM,
8625. (Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB
TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-3?
A— 3 ANU.
B— 4-1/2 ANU.
C— 5 ANU.

CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 665.2" – 625.0" = 40.2"

CG (% of MAC) = 40.2"/134.0" = 30.0%
Stab Trim = 3 ANU
(PLT010, AA.III.A.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8623 [C] 8624 [C] 8625 [A] 8626 [B] 8627 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5–7

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Changing Loading Conditions

Whenever weight is either added to or subtracted from a loaded airplane, both the gross weight and
the center of gravity location will change. The solution to such a calculation is really a simplified loading
problem. Instead of calculating a weight and moment for every section of the aircraft, it is only necessary
to compute the original weight and moment—then, the effect of the change in weight. Often in these
problems, the original CG is expressed in percent of MAC and it is necessary to convert this to an arm
for the entire aircraft.
For example, if an aircraft’s total weight was 8,600 pounds, and you shifted 100 pounds from station
(or, arm) 100 to arm 150, a simple weight shift formula can be applied:
Weight to be Shifted (100 pounds) = Change in CG
Total Weight (8,600 pounds) Distance CG Shifted (50 inches)
This is solved easily by cross-multiplying: 50 × 100 ÷ 8,600 = .06 inches. Therefore, the CG shifts
.06 inches aft.

ATM, ATS, ADX 1. Use Figure 410 to calculate the weight and moment
8700. (Refer to Figures 405 through 416.) What is the for the pilot and passenger. The arm is 135.5 inches,
old and new CG if 300 pounds of cargo is moved from so multiply 390 × 135.5 to get a moment of 52,845.
Zone 2 to Zone 3 given the following conditions? Record these numbers under “Your Airplane” in the
Weight (lbs.) Figure 414 worksheet.
Basic empty weight............................................. 5,005
2. Use Figure 412 to calculate the cargo weights at
Pilot.................................................................... 190
each zone by multiplying the weight by the arm, to
Front seat passenger......................................... 200
get the following results:
Cargo
Zone 1............................................................... 180 Weight × Arm = Moment
Zone 2............................................................... 505
Zone 1 180 172.1 30,978
Zone 3............................................................... 198
Zone 4............................................................... 600 Zone 2 505 217.8 109,989
Zone 5................................................................... 0 Zone 3 198 264.4 52,351.2
Zone 6................................................................. 60 Zone 4 600 294.5 176,700
Cargo Pod
Zone A............................................................... 100 Zone 5 0 319.5 0
Zone B................................................................. 80 Zone 6 60 344 20,640
Zone C............................................................... 200 Zone A 100 132.4 13,240
Zone D............................................................... 180
Zone B 80 182.1 14,568
Fuel.............................................................180 gallons
Zone C 200 233.4 46,680
A— 200.2 and 198.6.
B— 196.4 and 199.2. Zone D 180 287.6 51,768
C— 200.4 and 202. Record these in the Figure 414 worksheet.
First, calculate the old CG by using the following pro- 3. Using Figure 411, calculate the weight and moment
cedure: of 180 gallons of fuel and find 1,206 pounds, and a
moment of 245,200. Record in Figure 414 worksheet.

Answers
8700 [C]

5–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

4. Add all the items from the Figure 414 worksheet, 1. Calculate original CG in inches aft of datum:
including the basic empty weight and moment: CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = (22.5% / 100%)
Weight Moment × 141.5" = 31.84"
CG (inches aft of Datum) = 549.13" + 31.84"
Basic empty weight 5,005 929,400 = 580.97"
Pilot 190 25,745 2. Use the original weight and the CG to calculate the
Front Passenger 200 27,100 original Moment/1,000. Next use the weight change
Zone 1 180 30,978 and station to determine the Moment/1,000 change:
Zone 2 505 109,989 Weight Moment/1,000
Zone 3 198 52,351.2 Original Weight 90,000 52,287.08
Weight Change – 2,500 – 880.25
Zone 4 600 176,700
New Weight 87,500 51,406.83
Zone 5 0 0
3. Determine the new CG:
Zone 6 60 20,640
CG = (51,406.83/87,500) × 1,000 = 587.51"
Zone A 100 13,240
4. Convert CG to percent of MAC:
Zone B 80 14,568
CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 587.51" – 549.13" =
Zone C 200 46,680
38.38"
Zone D 180 51,768 CG (% of MAC) = (38.38/141.5) = 27.1%
Fuel 1206 245,200 (PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
Total 8,704 lbs 1,744,359 in-lbs
ATM, ATS
5. Divide the total moment by the total weight to arrive
8579. (Refer to Figure 44.) Where is the new CG if the
at a CG of 200.4 inches. This is the old CG.
weight is added to the aft compartment under Loading
6. You are moving 300 pounds from Zone 2 (arm 217.8) Conditions WS 2?
to Zone 3 (arm 264.4). This is a distance of (264.4
A— +17.06 index arm.
– 217.8) 46.6 inches. The formula for weight shift is
B— +14.82 index arm.
given as:
C— +12.13 index arm.
Weight to be shifted Change in CG
=
Total weight Distance CG is shifted 1. Calculate original CG in inches aft of datum:
300 = Change in CG CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = (28.4% / 100%)
8,704 46.6 × 141.5" = 40.19"
CG (inches aft of Datum) = 549.13" + 40.19"
Using cross-multiplication, 46.6 × 300 ÷ 8,704 equals = 589.32"
1.6 inches. Since Zone 3 is aft of Zone 2, the CG
also shifts aft and the new CG is 200.4 + 1.6 = 202 2. Use the original weight and the CG to calculate the
inches. (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 original Moment/1,000. Next use the weight change
and station to determine the Moment/1,000 change:
Weight Moment/1,000
ATM, ATS
8578. (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the Original Weight 85,000 50,091.87
weight is removed from the forward compartment under Weight Change + 1,800 + 1,304.82
Loading Conditions WS 1? New Weight 86,800 51,396.69
A— 27.1 percent MAC. 3. Determine the new CG:
B— 26.8 percent MAC. CG = (51,396.69/86,800) × 1,000 = 592.13"
C— 30.0 percent MAC.
4. Convert to Index Arm (0 Index Arm = 580.0"):
CG (Index Arm) = 592.13" – 580" = +12.13"
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8578 [A] 8579 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5–9

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS 2. Use the original weight and the CG to calculate the
8580. (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the original Moment/1,000. Next use the weight change
weight is added to the forward compartment under and station to determine the Moment/1,000 change:
Loading Conditions WS 3?
Weight Moment/1,000
A— 11.4 percent MAC.
Original Weight 81,700 48,366.40
B— 14.3 percent MAC.
Weight Change – 2,100 – 1,522.29
C— 14.5 percent MAC.
New Weight 79,600 46,844.11
1. Calculate original CG in inches aft of datum: 3. Determine the new CG:
CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = (19.8% / 100%) CG = (46,844.11/79,600) × 1,000 = 588.49"
× 141.5" = 28.02"
4. Convert to Index Arm:
CG (inches aft of Datum) = 549.13" + 28.02"
= 577.15" CG (Index Arm) = 588.49" – 580" = +8.50"
2. Use the original weight and the CG to calculate the (PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
original Moment/1,000. Next use the weight change
and station to determine the Moment/1,000 change:
ATM, ATS
Weight Moment/1,000 8582. (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the
Original Weight 84,500 48,768.92 weight is removed from the forward compartment under
Weight Change + 3,000 + 1,056.30 Loading Conditions WS 5?
New Weight 87,500 49,825.22 A— 31.9 percent MAC.
3. Determine the new CG: B— 19.1 percent MAC.
C— 35.2 percent MAC.
CG = (49,825.22/87,500) × 1,000 = 569.43
4. Convert CG to percent of MAC: 1. Calculate original CG in inches aft of datum:
CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 569.43" – 549.13" = CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = (25.5% / 100%)
20.3" × 141.5" = 36.08"
CG (% of MAC) = (20.3"/141.5") × 100% CG (inches aft of Datum) = 549.13" + 36.08"
= 14.3% = 585.21"
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 2. Use the original weight and the CG to calculate the
original Moment/1,000. Next use the weight change
and station to determine the Moment/1,000 change:
ATM, ATS
Weight Moment/1,000
8581. (Refer to Figure 44.) Where is the new CG if
the weight is removed from the aft compartment under Original Weight 88,300 51,674.04
Loading Conditions WS 4? Weight Change – 3,300 – 1,161.93
A— +15.53 index arm. New Weight 85,000 50,512.11
B— +8.50 index arm. 3. Determine the new CG:
C— -93.51 index arm. CG = (50,512.11 ÷ 85,000) × 1,000 = 594.26"
1. Calculate original CG in inches aft of datum: 4. Convert CG to percent of MAC:
CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = (30.3% / 100%) CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = 594.26" – 549.13" =
× 141.5" = 42.87" 45.13"
CG (inches aft of Datum) = 549.13" + 42.87" CG(% of MAC) = (45.13"/141.5") × 100% = 31.9%
= 592.00" (PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8580 [B] 8581 [B] 8582 [A]

5 – 10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ADX ATM, ATS

8573. (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the 8576. (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the
weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment weight is shifted from the aft to the forward compartment
under Loading Conditions WS 1? under Loading Conditions WS 4?
A— 15.2 percent MAC. A— 37.0 percent MAC.
B— 29.8 percent MAC. B— 23.5 percent MAC.
C— 30.0 percent MAC. C— 24.1 percent MAC.

Change in CG = (2,500 lbs × 372.8)/90,000 lbs = +10.4" Change in CG = (2,100 lbs × (-372.8")/81,700 lbs = -9.58"
Change in CG (% of MAC) = (10.4"/141.5") × 100% = Change in CG (% of MAC) = (-9.58"/141.5") × 100% =
7.35% -6.8%
New CG = 22.5% + 7.35% = 29.85% New CG = 30.3% – 6.8% = 23.5%.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

ATM, ATS ATM, ATS

8574. (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the 8577. (Refer to Figure 44.) Where is the new CG if the
weight is shifted from the aft to the forward compartment listed weight is shifted from the forward to the aft com-
under Loading Conditions WS 2? partment under Loading Conditions WS 5?
A— 26.1 percent MAC. A— +19.15 index arm.
B— 20.5 percent MAC. B— +13.93 index arm.
C— 22.8 percent MAC. C— -97.92 index arm.

Change in CG = (1,800 lbs × (-372.8))/85,000 lbs = -7.89" CG (inches aft of LEMAC) = (25.5%/100%) × 141.5
Change in CG (% of MAC) = (-7.89"/141.5") × 100% = = 36.08"
-5.6% CG (inches aft of Datum) = 549.13" + 36.08" = 585.21"
New CG = 28.4% – 5.6% = 22.8% CG (Index Arm) = 585.21" – 580" = +5.21"
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 Change in CG = (3,300 lbs × 372.8")/88,300 lbs = 13.93"
New CG (Index Arm) = +5.21" + 13.93" = 19.14"
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
ATM, ATS
8575. (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the
weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment
under Loading Conditions WS 3?
A— 29.2 percent MAC.
B— 33.0 percent MAC.
C— 28.6 percent MAC.

Change in CG = (3,000 lbs × 372.8")/84,500 lbs = 13.24"

Change in CG (% of MAC) = (13.24"/141.5") × 100% =
9.4%
New CG = 19.8% + 9.4% = 29.2%
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8573 [B] 8574 [C] 8575 [A] 8576 [B] 8577 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 11

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

C208 Weight and Balance

Note: By definition, “basic empty weight” does not include crew weight, so you must include crew in the
calculation. By definition, “basic operating weight” includes crew weight so you do not include crew in
the calculation.
The other key to C208 weight and balance is to use the actual arms listed (FAA Figure 405) for each
position. You can use the charts and pre-calculated moments as depicted in FAA Figure 412, but the
actual calculation is more accurate and probably quicker. The only exception to this is fuel, as the arm
changes based upon fuel weight, therefore the chart in FAA Figure 411 should be used.

ATS, ADX ATS, ADX

8049. The weight and CG of an aircraft used in 135 8067. What are the empty weight and balance currency
operations must have been calculated from those val- requirements for aircraft used in 135 operations?
ues established by actual weighing of the aircraft within A— The empty weight and CG of multiengine and
what period of time? single-engine aircraft must have been calculated
A— Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar from an actual weighing within the previous 36
months. calendar months.
B— Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding B— The empty weight and CG must have been
36 calendar months. calculated from an actual weighing within the
C— Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; previous 24 calendar months unless the original
single-engine, last 24 calendar months. Airworthiness Certificate was issued within the
previous 36 calendar months.
No person may operate a multi-engine aircraft unless C— The empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft
the current empty weight and center of gravity are cal- must have been calculated from an actual
culated from values established by actual weighing of weighing within the previous 36 calendar months.
the aircraft within the preceding 36 calendar months.
(PLT454, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.185 No person may operate a multi-engine aircraft unless
the current empty weight and center of gravity are cal-
culated from values established by actual weighing of
the aircraft within the preceding 36 calendar months.
(PLT454, AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.185

Answers
8049 [A] 8067 [C]

5 – 12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Commuter Aircraft Weight and Balance

Note: By definition, “Basic Empty Weight” does not include crew weight, so you must include crew in the
calculation. By definition, “Basic Operating Weight” includes crew weight so you do not include crew in
the calculation.

ADX ADX
8434. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What 8435. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What
is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Condi- is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Condi-
tions AC-1? tions AC-2?
A— Station 290.3. A— Station 295.2.
B— Station 285.8. B— Station 292.9.
C— Station 291.8. C— Station 293.0.

Weight Moment/100 Weight Moment/100

Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823 Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823
Crew 360 464 Crew 340 439
Row 1 350 700 Row 1 300 600
Row 2 260 598 Row 2 250 575
Row 3 200 520 Row 3 190 494
Row 4 340 986 Row 4 170 493
Row 5 120 384 Row 5 190 608
Row 6 400 1,400 Row 6 340 1,190
Row 7 120 456 Row 7 190 722
Row 8 250 1,025 Row 8 — —
Row 9 — — Row 9 — —
Baggage Baggage
Nose 60 39 Nose — —
FWD Cabin 250 409 FWD Cabin 100 164
Aft (FWD Sec) 500 2,418 Aft (FWD Sec) 200 967
Aft (Aft Sec) — — Aft (Aft Sec) 600 3,198
Fuel (Jet B @ 6.6) + 2,442 + 7,299 Fuel (Jet A @ 6.8) + 2,652 + 7,924
Total 14,878 42,521 Total 14,748 43,197
CG = (42,521 ÷ 14,878) × 100 = 285.8" CG = (43,197 ÷ 14,748) × 100 = 292.9"
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8434 [B] 8435 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 13

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ADX ADX
8436. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What 8437. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What
is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Condi- is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Condi-
tions AC-3? tions AC-4?
A— Station 288.2. A— Station 297.4.
B— Station 285.8. B— Station 299.6.
C— Station 290.4. C— Station 297.7.

Weight Moment/100 Weight Moment/100

Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823 Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823
Crew 350 452 Crew 340 439
Row 1 120 240 Row 1 — —
Row 2 340 782 Row 2 370 851
Row 3 350 910 Row 3 400 1,040
Row 4 300 870 Row 4 290 841
Row 5 170 544 Row 5 200 640
Row 6 — — Row 6 170 595
Row 7 — — Row 7 210 798
Row 8 — — Row 8 190 779
Row 9 — — Row 9 420 1,848
Baggage Baggage
Nose 80 52 Nose — —
FWD Cabin 120 197 FWD Cabin — —
Aft (FWD Sec) 250 1,209 Aft (FWD Sec) 800 3,868
Aft (Aft Sec) 500 2,665 Aft (Aft Sec) — —
Fuel (Jet B @ 6.7) + 2,680 + 8,007 Fuel (Jet A @ 6.8) + 1,972 + 5,912
Total 14,486 41,751 Total 14,588 43,434
CG = (41,751 ÷ 14,486) × 100 = 288.2" CG = (43,434 ÷ 14,588) × 100 = 297.7"
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8436 [A] 8437 [C]

5 – 14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ADX ATS
8438. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What 8439. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is
is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Condi- the CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are moved to
tions AC-5? seats in row 9 under Loading Conditions AC-1?
A— Station 288.9. A— 1.5 inches aft.
B— Station 290.5. B— 5.6 inches aft.
C— Station 289.1. C— 6.2 inches aft.

Weight Moment/100 Weight Moment/100

Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823 Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823
Crew 360 464 Crew 360 464
Row 1 — — Row 1 350 700
Row 2 — — Row 2 260 598
Row 3 170 442 Row 3 200 520
Row 4 200 580 Row 4 340 986
Row 5 290 928 Row 5 120 384
Row 6 400 1,400 Row 6 400 1,400
Row 7 370 1,406 Row 7 120 456
Row 8 340 1,394 Row 8 250 1,025
Row 9 430 1,892 Row 9 — —
Baggage Baggage
Nose 100 66 Nose 60 39
FWD Cabin 200 327 FWD Cabin 250 409
Aft (FWD Sec) — — Aft (FWD Sec) 500 2,418
Aft (Aft Sec) — — Aft (Aft Sec) — —
Fuel (Jet B @ 6.5) + 2,210 + 6,610 Fuel (Jet B @ 6.6) + 2,442 + 7,299
Total 14,296 41,332 Total 14,878 42,521
CG = (41,332 ÷ 14,296) × 100 = 289.1" Change in CG = 350 lbs × 240" ÷ 14,878 lbs = 5.6 aft
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8438 [C] 8439 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 15

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATS ATS
8440. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is 8441. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is
the CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are moved to the CG shift if four passengers weighing 170 pounds
row 8, and the passengers in row 2 are moved to row each are added; two to seats in row 6 and two to seats
9 under Loading Conditions AC-2? in row 7 under Loading Conditions AC-3?
A— 9.2 inches aft. A— 3.5 inches aft.
B— 5.7 inches aft. B— 2.2 inches forward.
C— 7.8 inches aft. C— 1.8 inches aft.

Weight Moment/100 Use the following steps:

Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823 1. Compute the CG position prior to changes:
Crew 340 439
Row 1 300 600 Weight Moment/100
Row 2 250 575 Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823
Row 3 190 494 Crew 350 452
Row 4 170 493 Row 1 120 240
Row 5 190 608 Row 2 340 782
Row 6 340 1,190 Row 3 350 910
Row 7 190 722 Row 4 300 870
Row 8 — — Row 5 170 544
Row 9 — — Row 6 — —
Baggage Row 7 — —
Nose — — Row 8 — —
FWD Cabin 100 164 Row 9 — —
Aft (FWD Sec) 200 967 Baggage
Aft (Aft Sec) 600 3,198 Nose 80 52
Fuel (Jet A @ 6.6) + 2,652 + 7,924 FWD Cabin 120 197
Total 14,748 43,197 Aft (FWD Sec) 250 1,209
Aft (Aft Sec) 500 2,665
Change in CG = 550 lbs × 210" ÷ 14,748 lbs = 7.8" aft Fuel (Jet B @ 6.7) + 2,680 + 8,007
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 Total 14,486 41,751
CG = (41,751 ÷ 14,486) × 100 = 288.2"
2. Calculate the weight additions:
Weight Moment/100
Original Wt. 14,486 41,751
2 pax in row 6 + 340 + 1,190
2 pax in row 7 + 340 + 1,292
New Total 15,166 44,233
3. CG = (44,233 ÷ 15,166) × 100 = 291.7"
4. The CG moved from station 288.2 to station 291.7,
a movement of 3.5 inches aft.
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8440 [C] 8441 [A]

5 – 16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATS ATS
8442. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What 8443. (Refer to Figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is
is the CG shift if all passengers in rows 2 and 4 are the CG shift if the passengers in row 8 are moved to
deplaned under Loading Conditions AC-4? row 2, and the passengers in row 7 are moved to row
A— 2.5 inches aft. 1 under Loading Conditions AC-5?
B— 2.5 inches forward. A— 1.0 inches forward.
C— 2.0 inches aft. B— 8.9 inches forward.
C— 6.5 inches forward.
Use the following steps:
Weight Moment/100
1. Compute the CG position prior to changes:
Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823
Weight Moment/100 Crew 360 464
Basic Empty Wt. 9,226 25,823 Row 1 — —
Crew 340 439 Row 2 — —
Row 1 — — Row 3 170 442
Row 2 370 851 Row 4 200 580
Row 3 400 1,040 Row 5 290 928
Row 4 290 841 Row 6 400 1,400
Row 5 200 640 Row 7 370 1,406
Row 6 170 595 Row 8 340 1,394
Row 7 210 798 Row 9 430 1,892
Row 8 190 779 Baggage
Row 9 420 1,848 Nose 100 66
Baggage FWD Cabin 200 327
Nose — — Aft (FWD Sec) — —
FWD Cabin — — Aft (Aft Sec) — —
Aft (FWD Sec) 800 3,868 Fuel (Jet B @ 6.5) + 2,210 + 6,610
Aft (Aft Sec) — — Total 14,296 41,332
Fuel (Jet A @ 6.8) +1,972 + 5,912
Total 14,588 43,434 Change in CG = 710 lbs × 180" ÷ 14,296 lbs =
8.9" forward
CG = (43,434 ÷ 14,588) × 100 = 297.7" (PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
2. Calculate the weight reductions:
Weight Moment/100
Original Wt. 14,588 43,434
2 pax in row 2 – 370 – 851
2 pax in row 4 – 290 – 841
New Total 13,928 41,742
3. Calculate the new CG:
CG = (41,742 ÷ 13,928) × 100 = 299.7"
4. The CG moved from station 297.7 to station 299.7,
a movement of 2.0 inches aft.
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8442 [C] 8443 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 17

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ADX ADX
8444. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the 8446. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the
CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions
AC-6? AC-8?
A— Station 300.5. A— Station 297.4.
B— Station 296.5. B— Station 298.1.
C— Station 300.8. C— Station 302.0.
Weight Moment/100 Weight Moment/100
Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934 Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934
Sec A 500 1,125 Sec A 600 1,350
Sec B 500 1,275 Sec B 200 510
Sec C 550 1,567.5 Sec C 400 1,140
Sec D 550 1,732.5 Sec D 400 1,260
Sec E 600 2,070 Sec E 200 690
Sec F 600 2,250 Sec F 200 750
Sec G 450 1,822.5 Sec G 200 810
Sec H — — Sec H 200 870
Sec J 350 1,627.5 Sec J 300 1,395
Sec K — — Sec K 250 1,248.75
Sec L — — Sec L 100 533
Fuel (Jet B @ 6.5) +2,210 + 6,610 Fuel + 2,652 + 7,924
Total 15,315 46,014 Total 14,707 44,414.75
CG = (46,014 ÷ 15,315) × 100 = 300.5" CG = (44,414.75 ÷ 14,707) × 100 = 302.0"
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

ADX ADX
8445. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is 8447. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the
the CG in inches from datum under Loading Condi- CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions
tions AC-7? AC-9?
A— Station 296.0. A— Station 296.7.
B— Station 297.8. B— Station 297.1.
C— Station 299.9. C— Station 301.2.
Weight Moment/100 Weight Moment/100
Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934 Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934
Sec A — — Sec A 600 1,350
Sec B 400 1,020 Sec B 600 1,530
Sec C 450 1,282.5 Sec C 600 1,710
Sec D 600 1,890 Sec D 600 1,890
Sec E 600 2,070 Sec E 550 1,897.5
Sec F 600 2,250 Sec F 350 1,312.5
Sec G 500 2,025 Sec G 250 1,012.5
Sec H — — Sec H 250 1,087.5
Sec J — — Sec J 150 697.5
Sec K — — Sec K 200 999
Sec L — — Sec L 100 533
Fuel + 2,442 + 7,299 Fuel (Jet A @ 6.8) + 1,972 + 5,912
Total 14,597 43,770.5 Total 15,227 45,865.5
CG = (43,770.5 ÷ 14,597) × 100 = 299.9" CG = (45,865.5 ÷ 15,227) × 100 = 301.2"
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
Answers
8444 [A] 8445 [C] 8446 [C] 8447 [C]

5 – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ADX ATS
8448. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the 8450. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the
CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions CG shift if the cargo in section F is moved to section A,
AC-10? and 200 pounds of the cargo in section G is added to
A— Station 298.4. the cargo in section B, under Loading Conditions AC-7?
B— Station 298.1. A— 7.5 inches forward.
C— Station 293.9. B— 8.0 inches forward.
C— 8.2 inches forward.
Weight Moment/100
Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934 Weight Moment/100
Sec A 350 787.5 Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934
Sec B 450 1,147.5 Sec A — —
Sec C 450 1,282.5 Sec B 400 1,020
Sec D 550 1,732.5 Sec C 450 1,282.5
Sec E 550 1,897.5 Sec D 600 1,890
Sec F 600 2,250 Sec E 600 2,070
Sec G 600 2,430 Sec F 600 2,250
Sec H — — Sec G 500 2,025
Sec J — — Sec H — —
Sec K — — Sec J — —
Sec L — — Sec K — —
Fuel (Jet B @ 6.7) + 2,680 + 8,007 Sec L — —
Total 15,235 45,468.5 Fuel + 2,442 + 7,299
CG = (45,468.5 ÷ 15,235) × 100 = 298.4" Total 14,597 43,770.5
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 CG change moving weight from F to A is:
600 × 150 ÷ 14,597 = 6.2 inches forward
CG change moving weight from G to B is:
ATS
200 × 150 ÷ 14,597 = 2.1 inches forward
8449. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the Total change:
CG shift if 300 pounds of cargo in section A is moved 6.2 inches + 2.1 inches = 8.3 inches forward
to section H under Loading Conditions AC-6?
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
A— 4.1 inches aft.
B— 3.5 inches aft.
C— 4.0 inches aft.
Weight Moment/100
Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934
Sec A 500 1,125
Sec B 500 1,275
Sec C 550 1,567.5
Sec D 550 1,732.5
Sec E 600 2,070
Sec F 600 2,250
Sec G 450 1,822.5
Sec H — —
Sec J 350 1,627.5
Sec K — —
Sec L — —
Fuel (Jet B @ 6.5) + 2,210 + 6,610
Total 15,315 46,014
Change in CG = 300 lbs × 210" ÷ 15,315 lbs = 4.1" aft
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
Answers
8448 [A] 8449 [A] 8450 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 19

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATS ATS
8451. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the 8452. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the
CG if all cargo in sections A, B, J, K, and L are off-loaded CG if cargo is loaded to bring sections F, G, and H to
under Loading Conditions AC-8? maximum capacity under Loading Conditions AC-9?
A— Station 292.7. A— Station 307.5.
B— Station 297.0. B— Station 305.4.
C— Station 294.6. C— Station 303.5.

Calculate the weight and CG accounting for the off- Use the following steps:
loaded items:
1. Calculate the weight and CG prior to weight changes:
Weight Moment/100
Weight Moment/100
Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934
Sec A — — Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934
Sec B —­ —­ Sec A 600 1,350
Sec C 400 1,140 Sec B 600 1,530
Sec D 400 1,260 Sec C 600 1,710
Sec E 200 690 Sec D 600 1,890
Sec F 200 750 Sec E 550 1,897.5
Sec G 200 810 Sec F 350 1,312.5
Sec H 200 870 Sec G 250 1,012.5
Sec J — — Sec H 250 1,087.5
Sec K — — Sec J 150 697.5
Sec L — — Sec K 200 999
Fuel + 2,652 + 7,924 Sec L 100 533
Total 13,257 39,378 Fuel (Jet A @ 6.8) + 1,972 + 5,912
Total 15,227 45,865.5
CG = (39,378 ÷ 13,257) × 100 = 297.0"
CG = (45,865.5 ÷ 15,227) × 100 = 301.2"
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
2. 250 pounds can be added to Section F, 350 pounds
to Section G and 350 pounds to Section H. Apply
these weight additions to the previously calculated
weight and Moment/100, then calculate the new CG:
Weight Moment/100
Original Wt. 15,227 45,865.5
Sec F 250 937.5
Sec G 350 1,417.5
Sec H + 350 +1,522.5
New Wt. 16,177 49,743
CG = (49,743 ÷ 16,177) × 100 = 307.5"
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8451 [B] 8452 [A]

5 – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATS ADX
8453. (Refer to Figures 4, 7, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the 8454. (Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit is
CG shift if the cargo in section G is moved to section J exceeded under Operating Conditions AC-11?
under Loading Conditions AC-10? A— ZFW limit is exceeded.
A— 2.7 inches aft. B— Aft CG limit is exceeded at takeoff weight.
B— 2.4 inches aft. C— Aft CG limit is exceeded at landing weight.
C— 3.2 inches aft.
Use the following steps:
Weight Moment/100
1. Calculate the Zero Fuel Weight (ZWF) using Operat-
Basic Operating Wt. 9,005 25,934 ing Conditions BE-11:
Sec A 350 787.5
Sec B 450 1,147.5 Weight Moment/100
Sec C 450 1,282.5 Basic Empty Wt. 9,225 25,820
Sec D 550 1,732.5 Crew 340 439
Sec E 550 1,897.5 Pax & Bags + 4,200 + 15,025
Sec F 600 2,250 Zero Fuel Wt. 13,765 41,284
Sec G 600 2,430
Sec H — — 2. Determine the Takeoff Weight:
Sec J — — Weight Moment/100
Sec K — —
Zero Fuel Wt. 13,765 41,284
Sec L — —
T/O Fuel (340 gal) + 2,312 + 6,915
Fuel (Jet B @ 6.7) + 2,680 + 8,007
Takeoff Wt. 16,077 48,199
Total 15,235 45,468.5
3. Calculate the Takeoff CG:
Change in CG = 600 lbs × 60" ÷ 15,235 lbs = 2.4" aft
CG = (48,199 ÷ 16,077) × 100 = 299.8
(PLT021, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
4. Determine the Landing Weight:
Weight Moment/100
Zero Fuel Wt. 13,765 41,284
Land Fuel (100 gal) + 680 + 2,068
Land Wt. 14,445 43,352
5. Calculate the Landing Weight CG. Refer to CG =
(43,352 ÷ 14,445) × 100 = 300.1
This exceeds the aft CG limit (300.0) at landing.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8453 [B] 8454 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 21

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ADX ADX
8455. (Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit(s) 8456. (Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit, if
is(are) exceeded under Operating Conditions AC-12? any, is exceeded under Operating Conditions AC-13?
A— ZFW limit is exceeded. A— Takeoff forward CG limit is exceeded.
B— Landing aft CG limit is exceeded. B— No limit is exceeded.
C— ZFW and maximum takeoff weight limits are C— Landing aft CG limit is exceeded.
exceeded.
Use the following steps:
Use the following steps: 1. Calculate the Zero Fuel Weight using Operating
1. Calculate the Zero Fuel Weight using Operating Conditions BE-13:
Conditions BE-12: Weight Moment/100
Weight Moment/100 Basic Empty Wt. 9,000 24,710
Basic Empty Wt. 9,100 24,990 Crew 360 464
Crew 380 490 Pax & Bags + 4,630 + 16,743
Pax & Bags + 4,530 + 16,480 Zero Fuel Wt. 13,990 41,917
Zero Fuel Wt. 14,010 41,960 2. Determine the Takeoff Weight:
2. Determine the Takeoff Weight: Weight Moment/100
Weight Moment/100 Zero Fuel Wt. 13,990 41,917
Zero Fuel Wt. 14,010 41,960 T/O Fuel (330 gal) + 2,244 + 6,713
T/O Fuel (300 gal) + 2,040 + 6,112 Takeoff Wt. 16,234 48,630
Takeoff Wt. 16,050 48,072 3. Calculate the Takeoff CG:
3. Calculate the Takeoff CG: CG = (48,630 ÷ 16,234) × 100 = 299.6
CG = (48,172 ÷ 16,050) × 100 = 299.5 4. Determine the Landing Weight:
4. Determine the Landing Weight: Weight Moment/100
Weight Moment/100 Zero Fuel Wt. 13,990 41,917
Zero Fuel Wt. 14,010 41,960 Land Fuel (140 gal) + 952 + 2,893
Land Fuel (160 gal) + 1,088 + 3,303 Land Wt. 14,942 44,810
Land Wt. 15,098 45,263 5. Calculate the Landing Weight CG. Refer to CG =
5. Calculate the Landing Weight CG. Refer to CG = (44,810 ÷ 14,942) × 100 = 299.9
(45,263 ÷ 15,098) × 100 = 299.8 No limits are exceeded.
This exceeds the maximum Zero Fuel Weight. (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8455 [A] 8456 [B]

5 – 22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ADX ADX
8457. (Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit(s) 8458. (Refer to Figures 5, 7, 9, and 11.) What limit(s)
is(are) exceeded under Operating Conditions AC-14? is(are) exceeded under Operating Conditions AC-15?
A— Maximum ZFW limit is exceeded. A— Maximum takeoff weight limit is exceeded.
B— Takeoff forward CG limit is exceeded. B— Maximum ZFW and takeoff forward CG limits are
C— Maximum landing weight and landing forward CG exceeded.
limits are exceeded. C— Maximum takeoff weight and takeoff forward CG
limits are exceeded.
Use the following steps:
1. Calculate the Zero Fuel Weight using Operating Use the following steps:
Conditions BE-14: 1. Calculate the Zero Fuel Weight using Operating
Weight Moment/100 Conditions BE-15:
Basic Empty Wt. 8,910 24,570 Weight Moment/100
Crew 400 516 Basic Empty Wt. 9,150 25,240
Pax & Bags + 4,690 + 13,724 Crew 370 477
Zero Fuel Wt. 14,000 38,810 Pax & Bags + 4,500 + 13,561
Zero Fuel Wt. 14,020 39,278
2. Determine the Takeoff Weight:
Weight Moment/100 2. Determine the Takeoff Weight:
Zero Fuel Wt. 14,000 38,810 Weight Moment/100
T/O Fuel (290 gal) + 1,972 + 5,912 Zero Fuel Wt. 14,020 39,278
Takeoff Wt. 15,972 44,722 T/O Fuel (380 gal) + 2,584 + 7,722
Takeoff Wt. 16,604 47,000
3. Calculate the Takeoff CG:
CG = (44,722 ÷ 15,972) × 100 = 280.0 3. Calculate the Takeoff CG:
The forward takeoff CG limit is exceeded. CG = (47,000 ÷ 16.604) × 100 = 283.1
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 This exceeds the maximum takeoff gross weight of
16,600.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8457 [B] 8458 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 23

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Helicopter Weight and Balance

RTC RTC
8419. What is the result of loading a helicopter so that 8514. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is the
the CG is aft of the rearward limit? longitudinal CG located under Operating Conditions BL-2?
A— Insufficient aft cyclic control to decelerate A— Station 237.6.
properly during an approach. B— Station 238.5.
B— Inability of the pilot to recognize this dangerous C— Station 262.3.
condition when hovering in a strong headwind.
C— Insufficient forward cyclic control to fly in the Condition BL-2 Weight Moment
upper allowable airspeed range. Empty 9387.5 2,327,105
Crew 400.0 46,800
If the center of gravity is too far aft of the mast, the heli- Pax Row 1 620.0 97,278
copter hangs with the nose tilted up. If flight is attempted 2 700.0 130,340
in this condition, the pilot may find it impossible to fly in 3 680.0 146,472
the upper allowable airspeed range due to insufficient 4 400.0 97,840
forward cyclic displacement to maintain a nose low Baggage Center 550.0 163,350
attitude. (PLT240) — FAA-H-8083-21 L&R 250.0 73,800
Fuel + 1,625.0 + 389,400
RTC Total 14,612.5 3,472,385
8513. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is
the longitudinal CG located under Operating Condi- Total Moment ÷ Total Weight = Longitudinal CG
tions BL-1? 3,472,385 = 237.6
A— Station 214.3. 14,612.5
B— Station 235.6. (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
C— Station 237.8.

Condition BL-1 Weight Moment RTC

Empty 9,387.5 2,327,105 8515. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is
Crew 340.0 39,780 the longitudinal CG located under Operating Condi-
Pax Row 1 700.0 109,830 tions BL-3?
2 830.0 154,546 A— Station 223.4.
3 800.0 172,320 B— Station 239.0.
4 — — C— Station 240.3.
Baggage Center 500.0 148,500
L&R 200.0 59,040 Condition BL-3 Weight Moment
Fuel + 2,040.0 + 475,400 Empty 9,387.5 2,327,105
Total 14,797.5 3,486,521 Crew 360.0 42,120
Pax Row 1 — —
Total Moment ÷ Total Weight = Longitudinal CG 2 750.0 139,650
3,486,521 = 235.6 3 810.0 174,474
14,797.5 4 650.0 158,990
Baggage Center 300.0 89,100
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 L&R — —
Fuel + 2,448.0 + 583,900
Total 14,705.5 3,515,339

Total Moment ÷ Total Weight = Longitudinal CG

3,515,339 = 239.05
14,705.5
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8419 [C] 8513 [B] 8514 [A] 8515 [B]

5 – 24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

RTC RTC
8516. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is 8517. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is
the longitudinal CG located under Operating Condi- the longitudinal CG located under Operating Condi-
tions BL-4? tions BL-5?
A— Station 238.1. A— Station 232.0.
B— Station 220.4. B— Station 235.4.
C— Station 236.5. C— Station 234.9.

Condition BL-4 Weight Moment Condition BL-5 Weight Moment

Empty 9,387.5 2,327,105 Empty 9,387.5 2,327,105
Crew 380.0 44,460 Crew 370.0 43,290
Pax Row 1 180.0 28,242 Pax Row 1 680.0 106,692
2 800.0 148,960 2 950.0 176,890
3 720.0 155,088 3 850.0 183,090
4 200.0 48,920 4 500.0 122,300
Baggage Center 200.0 59,400 Baggage Center 450.0 133,650
L&R 100.0 29,520 L&R — —
Fuel + 2,600.0 + 627,400 Fuel + 1,768.0 + 420,000
Total 14,567.5 3,469,095 Total 14,955.5 3,513,017

Total Moment ÷ Total Weight = Longitudinal CG Total Moment ÷ Total Weight = Longitudinal CG
3,469,095 = 238.14 3,513,017 = 234.9
14,567.5 14,955.5
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Helicopter Weight and Balance: CG Shifts

These questions require a re-computation of CG based on a shift of weight only, i.e., CG will change but
total weight does not change. AC 91-23A, Chapter 5 gives us a formula for working this type of problem.

Weight Shifted = Change of CG

Total Weight Distance of Shift

These problems may also be worked with a flight computer as shown in AC 91-23A, Chapter 5 in the
following manner:
1. Set Weight Shifted (mile scale) over Total Weight (minute scale).
2. Find the Change in CG on the mile scale over the distance shifted on the minute scale.

Question 8518 is solved using both methods.

Answers
8516 [A] 8517 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 25

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

RTC RTC
8518. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) What is the 8520. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) What is the
CG shift if all passengers in row 1 are moved to row 4 CG shift if all passengers in row 4 are moved to row 1
under Operating Conditions BL-1? under Operating Conditions BL-3?
A— 5.0 inches aft. A— 3.7 inches forward.
B— 4.1 inches aft. B— 0.4 inch forward.
C— 0.19 inch aft. C— 3.9 inches forward.

Using FAA Figure 29: Weight Shifted (650) = CG Shift

Weight shifted = 700 lbs, Total weight = 14,797.5 Total Weight (14,705.5) Distance of Shift (87.7)
The distance shifted is the difference between Row 4
= -3.88 FWD
(Station 244.6) and Row 1 (Station 156.9):
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
244.6 – 156.9 = 87.7
To find the CG shift:
RTC
700 = CG Shift 8521. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) What is the
14,797.5 87.7
CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are moved to row 4
The shift from Row 1 to Row 4 is 4.15 aft. under Operating Conditions BL-4?
or: A— 1.1 inches aft.
B— 1.6 inches aft.
On the E6-B, set 700 (miles scale) over 14,797.5 (round C— 0.2 inch aft.
it out: 14,800) on the minutes scale. Find 87.7 on the
minutes scale and read 4.15 above it. Weight Shifted (180) = CG Shift
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 Total Weight (14,567.5) Distance of Shift (87.7)
= 1.08 aft
RTC (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
8519. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) What is the
CG shift if one passenger weighing 150 pounds in row
RTC
2 is moved to row 4 under Operating Conditions BL-2?
8522. (Refer to Figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) What is
A— 0.1 inch aft. the CG shift if one passenger, weighing 100 pounds,
B— 0.6 inch aft. seated in row 1 is moved to row 3 under Operating
C— 1.1 inches aft. Conditions BL-5?

Weight Shifted (150) = CG Shift A— 1.0 inch aft.

B— 0.4 inch aft.
Total Weight (14,612.5) Distance of Shift (58.4) C— 1.3 inches aft.
= .60 aft
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 Weight Shifted (100) = CG Shift
Total Weight (14,955.5) Distance of Shift (58.5)
= .39 aft
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8518 [B] 8519 [B] 8520 [C] 8521 [A] 8522 [B]

5 – 26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Helicopter Weight and Balance: Load Limits

In these questions, it will be necessary to compute both a takeoff and a landing weight and balance.
Since the stations (CG) for fuel vary with weight, the most simple method of solving these problems is
to compute the zero fuel weight for the given conditions, then perform a separate weight and balance
for takeoff and landing. Some moments are given; others are not and therefore must be computed. Also,
the fuel is stated in gallons, not pounds, which can be converted using the Jet A Table (FAA Figure 33).

RTC Condition BL-7 Weight Moment

8523. (Refer to Figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limits
Empty/basic 9,450 2,323,600
are exceeded under Loading Conditions BL-6?
Crew 380 44,460
A— Aft CG limits are exceeded at takeoff and landing. Passengers 2,880 541,860
B— Takeoff aft CG and landing forward CG limits are Baggage (center) + 600 + 178,200
exceeded. Zero Fuel 13,310 3,088,120
C— Maximum takeoff weight and takeoff aft CG limits
are exceeded. Takeoff Weight Moment
Condition BL-6 Weight Moment Zero fuel wt. 13,310 3,088,120
Fuel 290 gal. + 1,972 + 457,900
Empty/basic 10,225 2,556,250
Total 15,282 3,546,020
Crew 340 39,780
Passengers 3,280 672,250 Takeoff CG = 3,546,020 ÷ 15,282 = 232.04
Baggage Center + 700 + 207,900
Original fuel load (Fig 30) is 290 gal. Trip fuel burn is
Zero Fuel wt. 14,545 3,476,180 indicated at 190 gal. Fuel upon landing is 100 gal. 100
gal × 6.8 lbs/gal = 680 lbs. Figure 33 shows the CG for
Takeoff Weight Moment
680 lbs is 228.2. 680 × 228.2 = 155,176.
Zero fuel wt. 14,545 3,476,180
Fuel 435 gal. + 2,958 + 719,900 Landing Weight Moment
Total 17,503 4,196,080 Zero fuel wt. 13,310 3,088,120
Fuel 100 gal. + 680 + 155,176
Landing Weight Moment
Total 13,990 3,243,296
Zero fuel wt. 14,545 3,476,180
Fuel 80 gal. + 544 + 125,600 CG = 3,243,296 ÷ 13,990 = 231.82
Total 15,089 3,601,780 Checking the longitudinal CG envelope (FAA Figure
CG = 4,196,080 ÷ 17,503 = 239.73 35), we find that at landing only, the forward CG limit is
CG = 3,601,780 ÷ 15,089 = 238.7 exceeded. (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
Checking the longitudinal CG envelope (FAA Figure
35), we find that at takeoff, the aircraft is both over RTC
maximum gross weight and out of aft CG. (PLT021) — 8525. (Refer to Figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit,
FAA-H-8083-1 if any, is exceeded under Loading Conditions BL-8?
A— No limit is exceeded.
RTC
B— Forward CG limit is exceeded at landing only.
8524. (Refer to Figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit, C— Forward CG limit is exceeded at takeoff and landing.
if any, is exceeded under Loading Conditions BL-7?
Condition BL-8 Weight Moment
A— No limit is exceeded.
Empty/basic 9,000 2,202,050
B— Forward CG limit is exceeded at landing only.
Crew 410 47,970
C— Forward CG limit is exceeded at takeoff and
Passengers 3,150 642,580
landing.
Bags center + 300 + 89,100
Zero Fuel 12,860 2,981,700

Answers
8523 [C] 8524 [B] 8525 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 27

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Takeoff Weight Moment RTC

8527. (Refer to Figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit,
Zero fuel wt. 12,860 2,981,700
if any, is exceeded under Loading Conditions BL-10?
Fuel 220 gal. + 1,496 + 369,400
Total 14,356 3,351,100 A— No limit is exceeded.
B— Aft CG limit is exceeded at takeoff.
Takeoff CG = 3,351,100 ÷ 14,356 = 233.43 C— Forward CG limit is exceeded at landing.
Original fuel load (Fig 30) is 220 gal. Trip fuel burn is Condition BL-10 Weight Moment
indicated at 190 gal. Fuel upon landing is 30 gal. 30
gal × 6.8 lbs/gal = 204 lbs. Figure 33 shows the CG for Empty/basic 9,375 2,329,680
204 lbs is 244.4. 204 × 244.4 = 49,857.6. Crew 400 46,800
Passengers 2,400 456,070
Landing Weight Moment Baggage (center) + 650 + 193,050
Zero fuel wt. 12,860 2,981,700 Zero Fuel 12,825 3,025,600
Fuel 30 gal. + 204 + 49,857.6
Note: For this problem, it is easier to compute the land-
Total 13,064 3,031,557
ing data by subtracting the weight and moment of the
Landing CG = 3,031,557 ÷ 13,064 = 232.05 fuel used from the takeoff data.
Takeoff Weight Moment
Checking the longitudinal CG envelope (FAA Figure
35), we find that no limits are exceeded. (PLT021) — Zero fuel wt. 12,825 3,025,600
FAA-H-8083-1 Fuel 380 gal. + 2,584 + 620,200
Total 15,409 3,645,800

RTC Landing Weight Moment

8526. (Refer to Figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit,
Takeoff 15,409 3,645,800
if any, is exceeded under Loading Conditions BL-9?
Fuel 330 gal. – 2,244 – 529,600
A— No limit is exceeded. Total 13,165 3,116,200
B— Aft CG limit is exceeded at takeoff only.
C— Aft CG limit is exceeded at takeoff and landing. CG = 3,645,800 ÷ 15,409 = 236.6
CG = 3,116,200 ÷ 13,165 = 236.7
Condition BL-9 Weight Moment Checking the longitudinal CG envelope (FAA Figure
Empty/basic 9,510 2,349,990 35), we find that no limits are exceeded. (PLT021) —
Crew 360 42,120 FAA-H-8083-1
Passengers 2,040 473,220
Bags center + 550 + 163,350
Zero Fuel 12,460 3,028,680

Takeoff Weight Moment

Zero fuel wt. 12,460 3,028,680
Fuel 435 gal. + 2,958 + 719,900
Total 15,418 3,748,580

Landing Weight Moment

Zero fuel wt. 12,460 3,028,680
Fuel 110 gal. + 748 + 170,900
Total 13,208 3,199,580

CG = 3,748,580 ÷ 15,418 = 243.13

CG = 3,199,580 ÷ 13,208 = 242.24
Checking the longitudinal CG envelope (FAA Figure
35), we find that aft CG is exceeded at takeoff only.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8526 [B] 8527 [A]

5 – 28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

Helicopter Weight and Balance: Lateral CG

These questions are answered by using the formula given in AC 91-23A.
1. For shifted weight:
Weight Shifted (WS) = CG Shift (CS)
Total Weight (TW) Distance Shifted (DS)
2. For added/removed weight (WA or WR):
(WA or WR) = CG Shift (CS)
New Total Weight (NTW) Distance shifted (DS)

Refer to answers to Questions 8523 through 8527 for total weights.

RTC 1. Total weight for BL-7 = 15,282 (from Question 8524)

8528. (Refer to Figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given
2. Weight added = 800
Loading Conditions BL-6, what is the effect on lateral
CG if the outside passengers from each row on the left 3. New total weight = 15,282 + 800 = 16,082
side are deplaned? Deplaned passenger weights are 4. Distance shifted = the average arm of the four out-
170 pounds each. board seats (34 + 35.4 + 35.4 + 39.4) ÷ 4 = 36.05.
A— CG shifts 1.5 inches right, out of limits. WA = CS
B— CG shifts 1.4 inches right, within limits. NTW DS
C— CG shifts 1.6 inches left, out of limits.
CG shifts right 1.79 inches, out of limits.
1. Total weight for BL-6 = 17,503 (from Question 8523) (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
2. Weight removed = 170 × 4 = 680
3. New total weight = 17,503 – 680 = 16,823 RTC
4. Distance shifted = the average arm of the four out- 8530. (Refer to Figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given
board seats (34 + 35.4 + 35.4 + 39.4) ÷ 4 = 36.05. Loading Conditions BL-8, what is the effect on lateral
CG if a passenger weighing 200 pounds is added to
WR = CS
the outer left seat of row 1, and a passenger weighing
NTW DS 220 pounds is added to the outer left seat of row 4?
(Very close to 1.5 inches.) A— CG shifts 1.5 inches left, out of limits.
Since the deplaned passengers were all on the left, CG B— CG shifts 1.2 inches left, within limits.
shift is to the right. Referring to FAA Figure 34, at our C— CG shifts 1.0 inch left, within limits.
new weight of 16,823, the lateral CG is out of limits to
the right. (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1 1. Total weight for BL-8 = 14,356 (from Question 8525)
2. Weight added = 420
RTC 3. New total weight = 14,356 + 420 = 14,776
8529. (Refer to Figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given 4. Distance shifted = the average arm of Row 1 and
Loading Conditions BL-7, what is the effect on lateral CG Row 4 (34 + 39.4) ÷ 2 = 36.7
if additional passengers, each weighing 200 pounds,
WA = CS
are seated, one in each outside right seat of rows 1, 2,
3, and 4? NTW DS
A— CG shifts 1.5 inches left, out of limits. CG shifts left 1.04 inches, within limits.
B— CG shifts 0.2 inch right, within limits. (PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
C— CG shifts 1.8 inches right, out of limits.

Answers
8528 [A] 8529 [C] 8530 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 29

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

RTC RTC
8531. (Refer to Figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given 8532. (Refer to Figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given
Loading Conditions BL-9, what is the effect on lateral CG Loading Conditions BL-10, what is the effect on lateral CG
if passengers, each weighing 160 pounds, are added if a passenger, weighing 240 pounds, is shifted from the
to the outer left seats of rows 1 and 2; and passengers, outer right seat of row 4 to the outer left seat of row 1?
each weighing 180 pounds, are added to the outer right A— CG shifts 1.1 inches left, within limits.
seats of rows 3 and 4? B— CG shifts 1.5 inches left, out of limits.
A— CG shifts 0.14 inch left. C— CG shifts 1.7 inches left, out of limits.
B— CG shifts 0.15 inch right.
C— CG does not shift. 1. Total weight for BL-10 = 15,409 (from Question 8527)
It is obvious without doing the math, considering the 2. Weight Shifted = 240
weights and arms involved, that answer B is the only 3. Distance shifted = the distance between Row 1 and
possible answer. However: Row 4 (34 + 39.4) = 73.4
1. Total weight for BL-9 = 15,418 (from Question 8526) WS = CS
NTW DS
2. Weight added = 680
CG shifts left 1.14 inches, within limits.
3. New total weight = 15,418 + 680 = 16,098
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1
4. Distance shifted = the difference between the aver-
age left and right arms. If we consider the left side
as negative, then distance shifted = [-(34 + 35.4) ÷
2] + (35.4 + 39.4) ÷ 2 = -34.7 + 37.4 = + 2.7 inches.
WA = CS
NTW DS
CG shifts .11 inches right.
(PLT021) — FAA-H-8083-1

Floor Loading Limits

In addition to ensuring that an aircraft is loaded within its weight and balance limits, it is important to
make sure that the floor of a cargo compartment is not overloaded. The load limit of a floor is stated in
pounds per square foot. The questions on the test require you to determine the maximum load that can
be placed on a pallet of certain dimensions.
For example: what is the maximum weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions
of 37 × 39 inches, when the floor load limit is 115 pounds per square foot, the pallet weight is 37 pounds,
and the weight of the tiedown devices is 21 pounds?
The first step is to determine the area of the floor (in square feet) covered by the pallet. This is done
by multiplying the given dimensions (which calculates the area in square inches) and dividing by 144
(which converts the area to square feet):
37 inches × 39 inches ÷ 144 square inches = 10.02 square feet.
The next step is to determine the total weight that the floor under the pallet can support, by multiply-
ing the area times the floor load limit given in the question:
10.02 square feet × 115 pounds per square foot = 1,152.39 pounds.

Answers
8531 [B] 8532 [A]

5 – 30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

The final step is to determine the maximum weight which can be placed on the pallet by subtracting
the weight of the pallet and the tiedown devices from the total load limit:
1,152.39 pounds – 58 pounds = 1,094.39 pounds.
The weight on the pallet must be equal to or less than this number (1,094.39, in this example). If it is
more than this number, the combination of cargo, pallet, and tiedown weight would exceed the floor load
limit. A review of the test questions reveals that the closest answer choice is always equal to or slightly
less than the floor limit. All the calculations in this section were performed with a calculator carrying all
digits to the right of the decimal point forward for the next step of the problem. The explanations show
only two places to the right of the decimal.
A variation of the pallet loading problem is to determine the minimum floor load limit (in pounds per
square foot) required to carry a particular loaded pallet. For example: what is the minimum floor load
limit to carry a pallet of cargo with a pallet dimension of 78.9 inches × 98.7 inches, and a combination
weight of pallet, cargo, and tiedown devices of 9,896.5 pounds?
The first step is to determine the floor area, multiplying the dimensions and dividing by 144 (78.9 ×
98.7 ÷ 144 = 54.08 square feet). The second step is to determine the minimum required floor limit by
dividing the total weight of the pallet, cargo, and tiedowns by the pallet area (9,896.5 ÷ 54.08 = 183.00
pounds). The correct answer must be at or above this weight (183.00 pounds, in this example).

ATM, ATS, RTC 1. Determine the area.

8769. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
36.5 × 48.5 ÷ 144 = 12.29 square feet.
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5
× 48.5 inches? 2. Determine the floor load limit.
Floor load limit...............................................76 lb/sq ft 12.29 × 112 = 1,376.86 pounds.
Pallet weight......................................................... 44 lb 3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
Tiedown devices................................................... 27 lb
1,376.86 – 74 = 1,302.86 pounds.
A— 857.4 pounds.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e — FAA-H-8083-1
B— 830.4 pounds.
C— 786.5 pounds.
ATM, ATS, RTC
1. Determine the area. 8771. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
33.5 × 48.5 ÷ 144 = 11.28 square feet. be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 42.6
2. Determine the floor load limit. × 48.7 inches?
11.28 × 76 = 857.51 pounds. Floor load limit.............................................121 lb/sq ft
Pallet weigh.......................................................... 47 lb
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices. Tiedown devices................................................... 33 lb
857.51 – 71 = 786.51 pounds. A— 1,710.2 pounds.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 B— 1,663.2 pounds.
C— 1,696.2 pounds.
ATM, ATS, RTC
1. Determine the area.
8770. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36.5 42.6 × 48.7 ÷ 144 = 14.41 square feet.
× 48.5 inches? 2. Determine the floor load limit.
Floor load limit............................................. 112 lb/sq ft 14.41 × 121 = 1,743.25 pounds.
Pallet weight......................................................... 45 lb
Tiedown devices................................................... 29 lb 3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.

A— 1,331.8 pounds. 1,743.25 – 80 = 1,663.25 pounds.

B— 1,302.8 pounds. (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
C— 1,347.8 pounds.
Answers
8769 [C] 8770 [B] 8771 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 31

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8772. What is the maximum allowable weight that may 8776. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5
× 68.7 inches? × 48.5 inches?
Floor load limit.............................................. 85 lb/sq ft Floor load limit.............................................. 66 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight......................................................... 44 lb Pallet weight......................................................... 34 lb
Tiedown devices................................................... 29 lb Tiedown devices................................................... 29 lb
A— 924.5 pounds. A— 744.6 pounds.
B— 968.6 pounds. B— 681.6 pounds.
C— 953.6 pounds. C— 663.0 pounds.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area.

24.6 × 68.7 ÷ 144 = 11.74 square feet. 33.5 × 48.5 ÷ 144 = 11.28 square feet.
2. Determine the floor load limit. 2. Determine the floor load limit.
11.74 × 85 = 997.58 pounds. 11.28 × 66 = 744.68 pounds.
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices. 3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
997.58 – 73 = 924.58 pounds. 744.68 – 63 = 681.68 pounds.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8773. What is the maximum allowable weight that may 8777. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 34.6 be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36.5
× 46.4 inches? × 48.5 inches?
Floor load limit.............................................. 88 lb/sq ft Floor load limit.............................................107 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight..........................................................41 lb Pallet weight......................................................... 37 lb
Tiedown devices................................................... 26 lb Tiedown devices................................................... 33 lb
A— 914.1 pounds. A— 1,295.3 pounds.
B— 940.1 pounds. B— 1,212.3 pounds.
C— 981.1 pounds. C— 1,245.3 pounds.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area.

34.6 × 46.4 ÷ 144 = 11.15 square feet. 36.5 × 48.5 ÷ 144 = 12.29 square feet.
2. Determine the floor load limit. 2. Determine the floor load limit.
11.15 × 88 = 981.10 pounds. 12.29 × 107 = 1,315.39 pounds.
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices. 3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
981.10 – 67 = 914.10 pounds. 1,315.39 – 70 = 1,245.39 pounds.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8772 [A] 8773 [A] 8776 [B] 8777 [C]

5 – 32 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, ADX

8778. What is the maximum allowable weight that may 9920. What is the maximum pallet weight for a floor
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 42.6 with a limit of 140 pounds per square foot and the fol-
× 48.7 inches? lowing information?
Floor load limit............................................. 117 lb/sq ft Pallet dimensions................ 32.4 inches × 34.9 inches
Pallet weight......................................................... 43 lb Pallet weight................................................ 45 pounds
Tiedown devices................................................... 31 lb Tiedown devices.......................................... 20 pounds
A— 1,611.6 pounds. A— 1,099 pounds.
B— 1,654.6 pounds. B— 1,129 pounds.
C— 1,601.6 pounds. C— 1,034 pounds.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area. 32.4 × 34.9 ÷ 144 = 7.85 square
42.6 × 48.7 ÷ 144 = 14.41 square feet. feet.
2. Determine the floor load limit. 2. Determine the floor load limit. 7.85 × 140 = 1,099.35
pounds.
14.41 × 117 = 1,685.63 pounds.
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices. 1,099.35 − 65 = 1,034.35 pounds.
1,685.63 – 74 = 1,611.63 pounds. (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

ATM, ATS, ADX

ATM, ATS, RTC 9938. What is the maximum load that can be placed
8779. What is the maximum allowable weight that may on a pallet without exceeding the floor weight limit of
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 260 pounds per square inch?
× 68.7 inches? Pallet dimensions...............95.2 inches × 140.1 inches
Floor load limit...............................................79 lb/sq ft Pallet weight.............................................. 350 pounds
Pallet weight......................................................... 43 lb Tiedown devices........................................ 120 pounds
Tiedown devices................................................... 27 lb A— 23,606 pounds.
A— 884.1 pounds. B— 24,076 pounds.
B— 857.1 pounds. C— 24,546 pounds.
C— 841.1 pounds.
1. Determine the area. 95.2 × 140.1 ÷ 144 = 92.62
1. Determine the area. square feet.
24.6 × 68.7 ÷ 144 = 11.74 square feet. 2. Determine the floor load limit. 92.62 × 260 = 24,081.20
2. Determine the floor load limit. pounds.

11.74 × 79 = 927.16 pounds. 3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
24,081.20 − 470 = 23,611.20 pounds.
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
927.16 – 70 = 857.16 pounds.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8778 [A] 8779 [B] 9920 [C] 9938 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 33

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8781. What is the maximum allowable weight that may 8788. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 143 be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 96.1
× 125.2 inches? × 133.3 inches?
Floor load limit............................................ 209 lb/sq ft Floor load limit.............................................249 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight........................................................197 lb Pallet weight....................................................... 347 lb
Tiedown devices................................................... 66 lb Tiedown devices................................................. 134 lb
A— 25,984.9 pounds. A— 21,669.8 pounds.
B— 25,787.9 pounds. B— 21,803.8 pounds.
C— 25,721.9 pounds. C— 22,120.8 pounds.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area.

143 × 125.2 ÷ 144 = 124.33 square feet. 96.1 × 133.3 ÷ 144 = 88.96 square feet.
2. Determine the floor load limit. 2. Determine the floor load limit.
124.33 × 209 = 25,985.09 pounds. 88.96 × 249 = 22,150.85 pounds.
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices. 3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
25,985.09 – 263 = 25,722.09 pounds. 22,150.85 – 481 = 21,669.85 pounds.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8787. What is the maximum allowable weight that may 8789. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 138.5 be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 87.7
× 97.6 inches? × 116.8 inches?
Floor load limit............................................ 235 lb/sq ft Floor load limit.............................................175 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight........................................................219 lb Pallet weight........................................................137 lb
Tiedown devices................................................... 71 lb Tiedown devices................................................... 49 lb
A— 21,840.9 pounds. A— 12,262.4 pounds.
B— 21,769.9 pounds. B— 12,448.4 pounds.
C— 22,059.9 pounds. C— 12,311.4 pounds.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area.

138.5 × 97.6 ÷ 144 = 93.87 square feet. 87.7 × 116.8 ÷ 144 = 71.13 square feet.
2. Determine the floor load limit. 2. Determine the floor load limit.
93.87 × 235 = 22,059.97 pounds. 71.13 × 175 = 12,448.52 pounds.
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices. 3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices.
22,059.97 – 290 = 21,769.97 pounds. 12,448.52 – 186 = 12,262.52 pounds.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8781 [C] 8787 [B] 8788 [A] 8789 [A]

5 – 34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8790. What is the maximum allowable weight that may 8844. What is the minimum floor load limit that an air-
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 98.7 craft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo?
× 78.9 inches? Pallet dimensions.................................39 × 37 inches.
Floor load limit.............................................183 lb/sq ft Pallet weight.......................................................37 lbs.
Pallet weight........................................................161 lb Tiedown devices..................................................21 lbs
Tiedown devices................................................... 54 lb Cargo weight..............................................1,094.3 lbs.
A— 9,896.5 pounds. A— 115 lbs/sq ft.
B— 9,735.5 pounds. B— 112 lbs/sq ft.
C— 9,681.5 pounds. C— 109 lbs/sq ft.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area.

98.7 × 78.9 ÷ 144 = 54.08 square feet. 39 × 37 ÷ 144 = 10.02 sq ft.
2. Determine the floor load limit. 2. Determine the total weight.
54.08 × 183 = 9,896.53 pounds. 1,094.3 + 21 + 37 = 1,152.3
3. Subtract the weight of the pallet and tiedown devices. 3. Determine the minimum floor load limit.
9,896.53 – 215 = 9,681.53 pounds. 1,152.3 ÷ 10.02 = 114.99 lbs/sq ft.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8791. What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft 8845. What is the minimum floor load limit that an air-
have to carry the following pallet of cargo? craft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo?
Pallet dimensions................... 78.9 wide × 98.7 inches Pallet dimensions.............................. 37.5 × 35 inches.
Pallet weight........................................................161 lb Pallet weight...................................................... 34 lbs.
Tiedown devices................................................... 54 lb Tiedown devices.................................................23 lbs.
Cargo weight.................................................9,681.5 lb Cargo weight..............................................1,255.4 lbs.
A— 182 lb/sq ft. A— 152 lbs/sq ft.
B— 180 lb/sq ft. B— 148 lbs/sq ft.
C— 183 lb/sq ft. C— 144 lbs/sq ft.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area.

78.9 × 98.7 ÷ 144 = 54.08 square feet. 37.5 × 35 ÷ 144 = 9.12 sq ft.
2. Determine the total weight. 2. Determine the total weight.
9,681.5 + 54 + 161 = 9,896.5 1,255.4 + 23 + 34 = 1,312.4
3. Determine the minimum floor load limit. 3. Determine the minimum floor load limit.
9,896.5 ÷ 54.08 = 183.00 lbs/sq ft. 1,312.4 ÷ 9.12 = 143.99 lbs/sq ft.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8790 [C] 8791 [C] 8844 [A] 8845 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 35

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8846. What is the minimum floor load limit that an air- 8848. What is the minimum floor load limit that an air-
craft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? craft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo?
Pallet dimensions.......................... 48.5 × 33.5 inches. Pallet dimensions...........................78.9 × 98.7 inches.
Pallet weight...................................................... 44 lbs. Pallet weight.....................................................161 lbs.
Tiedown devices.................................................27 lbs. Tiedown devices................................................ 54 lbs.
Cargo weight.................................................786.5 lbs. Cargo weight.............................................. 9,681.5 lbs.
A— 79 lbs/sq ft. A— 180 lbs/sq ft.
B— 76 lbs/sq ft. B— 186 lbs/sq ft.
C— 73 lbs/sq ft. C— 183 lbs/sq ft.

1. Determine the area. 1. Determine the area.

48.5 × 33.5 ÷ 144 = 11.28 sq ft. 78.9 × 98.7 ÷ 144 = 54.08 sq ft.
2. Determine the total weight. 2. Determine the total weight.
786.5 + 27 + 44 = 857.5 9,681.5 + 54 + 161 = 9,896.5
3. Determine the minimum floor load limit. 3. Determine the minimum floor load limit.
857.5 ÷ 11.28 = 76.00 lbs/sq ft. 9,896.5 ÷ 54.08 = 183.00 lbs/sq ft.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS

8847. What is the minimum floor load limit that an air- 8431. What is the maximum allowable weight that may
craft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36
Pallet dimensions..........................116.8 × 87.7 inches. × 48 inches?
Pallet weight.....................................................137 lbs. Floor load limit...........................................169 lbs/sq ft
Tiedown devices.................................................49 lbs. Pallet weight........................................................47 lbs
Cargo weight............................................12,262.4 lbs. Tiedown devices................................................. 33 lbs
A— 172 lbs/sq ft. A— 1,948.0 pounds.
B— 176 lbs/sq ft. B— 1,995.0 pounds.
C— 179 lbs/sq ft. C— 1,981.0 pounds.

1. Determine the area. Pallet area = (36 × 48) ÷ 144 = 12 sq ft

116.8 × 87.7 ÷ 144 = 71.13 sq ft. Floor load limit = 12 sq ft × 169 lbs/sq ft = 2,028 lbs
Allowable weight = 2,028 lbs – 80 lbs = 1,948 lbs
2. Determine the total weight.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1
12,262.4 + 49 + 137 = 12,448.4
3. Determine the minimum floor load limit.
12,448.4 ÷ 71.13 = 175.00 lbs/sq ft.
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8846 [B] 8847 [B] 8848 [C] 8431 [A]

5 – 36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

ATM, ATS ATM, ATS

8432. What is the maximum allowable weight that may 8433. What is the maximum allowable weight that
be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 76 may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions
× 74 inches? of 81 × 83 inches?
Floor load limit........................................... 176 lbs/sq ft Floor load limit...........................................180 lbs/sq ft
Pallet weight....................................................... 77 lbs Pallet weight........................................................82 lbs
Tiedown devices..................................................29 lbs Tiedown devices..................................................31 lbs
A— 6,767.8 pounds. A— 8,403.7 pounds.
B— 6,873.7 pounds. B— 8,321.8 pounds.
C— 6,796.8 pounds. C— 8,290.8 pounds.

Floor load limit – 176 lbs/sq ft Floor load limit – 180 lbs/sq ft
Pallet weight – 77 lbs Pallet weight – 82 lbs
Tiedown devices – 29 lbs Tiedown devices – 31 lbs
Pallet area = (76 × 74) ÷ 144 = 39.1 sq ft Pallet area = (81 × 83) ÷ 144 = 46.7 sq ft
Floor load limit = 39.1 sq ft × 176 lbs/sq ft = 6,873.8 lbs Floor load limit = 46.7 sq ft × 180 lbs/sq ft = 8,403.8 lbs
Allowable weight = 6,873.8 lbs – 106 lbs = 6,767.8 lbs Allowable weight = 8,403.8 lbs – 113 lbs = 8,290.8 lbs
(PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1 (PLT121, AA.I.B.K3e) — FAA-H-8083-1

Answers
8432 [A] 8433 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 5 – 37

Chapter 5 Weight and Balance

5 – 38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 6
Flight Operations
Airspace 6–3
NOTAMs (NOtices To AirMen) 6 – 13
Flight Plans 6 – 14
Alternate Airport Planning 6 – 17
ATC Clearances 6 – 21
Takeoff Procedures 6 – 26
Instrument Approaches 6 – 28
Landing 6 – 36
Communications 6 – 39
Speed Adjustments 6 – 42
Holding 6 – 44
Charts 6 – 50

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6–1

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

6–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Airspace
A turbine-powered airplane or a large airplane must enter Class D airspace at an altitude of at least
1,500 feet AGL and maintain that altitude in the traffic pattern until a lower altitude is necessary for a
safe landing. When taking off, the pilot of a turbine-powered airplane or a large airplane must climb as
rapidly as practicable to an altitude of 1,500 feet AGL.
No person may operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless a proper authorization from ATC
has been received prior to entry. An IFR clearance is not necessarily required. Unless otherwise autho-
rized by ATC, every person flying a large turbine-engine-powered airplane to or from the primary airport
in Class B airspace must operate at or above the floor of Class B airspace.
All Class C airspace has the same dimensions with minor site variations. They are composed of
two circles both centered on the primary airport. The surface area has a radius of 5 nautical miles and
extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport. The shelf area has a radius of 10 nautical
miles and extends vertically from 1,200 feet AGL up to 4,000 feet above the primary airport. In addition
to the Class C airspace proper, there is an outer area with a radius of 20 nautical miles and vertical
coverage from the lower limits of the radio/radar coverage up to the top of the approach control facility’s
delegated airspace.

Figure 6-1. Class C airspace

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6–3

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

FL600
18,000 MSL

Figure 6-2. Airspace

The only equipment requirements for an aircraft to operate within Class C airspace are a two-way
radio and a transponder. No specific pilot certification is required.
The following services are provided within Class C airspace:
• Sequencing of all arriving aircraft to the primary airport.
• Standard IFR separation between IFR aircraft.
• Between IFR and VFR aircraft — traffic advisories and conflict resolution so that radar targets do
not touch, or 500 feet vertical separation.
• Between VFR aircraft, traffic advisories and as appropriate, safety alerts.

The same services are provided in the outer area when two-way radio and radar contact is estab-
lished. There is no requirement for VFR participation in the outer area.
No one may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated speed greater than 250 knots.
No one may operate an aircraft within Class D airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.
There is no special speed limit for operations within Class B airspace other than the 250-knot limit when
below 10,000 feet MSL. When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the indicated
airspeed cannot exceed 200 knots. If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater
than the maximum speed prescribed by 14 CFR §91.117, the aircraft may be operated at that minimum
speed.
Warning Areas are so designated because they are located in international (and therefore uncon-
trolled) airspace and have invisible hazards to flight. The purpose of a Military Operating Area (MOA)
is to separate IFR traffic from military training activities. Normally, ATC will not clear an IFR flight into an
MOA if it is in use by the military. In an MOA, the individual pilots are responsible for collision avoidance.
VR Military Training Routes which extend above 1,500 feet AGL, and IR Training Routes are depicted
on IFR Enroute Low Altitude Charts.

6–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

When a flight is to penetrate an Air Defense

Identification Zone (ADIZ), it must be on either an
IFR or a DVFR flight plan. The flight must penetrate
the ADIZ within ±5 minutes of the flight plan esti-
mate and within 10 miles when over land or within
20 miles when over water. These were formerly
referred to as domestic and coastal ADIZs in the
AIM.
A VFR-On-Top clearance is an IFR authori-
zation to fly the cleared route at the VFR altitude
of the pilot’s choice. To request VFR-On-Top, the
flight must be able to maintain the minimum VFR
visibility and cloud clearances appropriate for the
airspace and altitude. This may be done above,
below or between the clouds, if any. While the pilot
is expected to comply with all IFR rules, ATC will
provide traffic advisories only. VFR-On-Top will not
be authorized in Class A airspace. VFR weather
minimums must be observed when operating under
a VFR-On-Top clearance.
An air carrier flight may conduct day Over-the-
Top operations below the minimum IFR altitude if
the following are observed:
• The flight must be at least 1,000 feet above the
top of a broken or overcast layer.
• The top of the clouds are generally uniform and
level.
• The flight visibility is at least five miles.
Figure 6-3. Minimum in-flight visibility and distance from
• The base of any higher ceiling is at least 1,000 clouds
feet above the minimum IFR altitude.

OROCA is an off-route altitude which provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in
nonmountainous terrain areas, and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the U.S.
Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVAs) are established for use by ATC when radar is exercised; MVA
charts are prepared by air traffic facilities at locations where there are many different minimum IFR alti-
tudes. Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA) are published for emergency use on IAP charts; they
are expressed in MSL and normally have a 25 NM radius; however, this radius may be expanded to 30
NM if necessary to encompass the airport landing surfaces.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6–5

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8881. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri- 8885. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri-
ate for the top of Class G airspace? ate for the top of Class C airspace?
A— 700 feet AGL. A— 3,000 feet AGL.
B— 1,200 feet AGL. B— 4,000 feet AGL.
C— 1,500 feet AGL. C— 3,500 feet MSL.

The floor of controlled airspace or the ceiling of Class The top or ceiling of Class C airspace is generally at
G airspace is 1,200 feet AGL. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — 4,000 feet AGL. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4
AIM ¶3-2-1 Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because neither 3,000 feet AGL
Answer (A) is incorrect because 700 feet AGL is the base of Class E nor 3,500 feet MSL are altitudes which define a certain airspace.
airspace when used in conjunction with an instrument approach that
has been prescribed, as in circle 6. Answer (C) is incorrect because
1,500 feet AGL is not an altitude which defines a certain airspace. ALL
8886. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri-
ate for the top of Class A airspace??
ALL
8882. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is normally A— FL600.
appropriate for the top of Class D airspace? B— FL450.
C— FL500.
A— 1,000 feet AGL.
B— 2,500 feet AGL. The top or upper limits of Class A airspace is at FL600.
C— 3,000 feet AGL. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-1
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because neither FL450 nor FL500
The top or ceiling of Class D airspace is normally at are altitudes which define a certain airspace.
2,500 feet AGL. There will be variations to suit special
conditions. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3‑2‑5
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,000 feet AGL is the normal traffic ALL
pattern altitude for piston aircraft, not the ceiling of Class D airspace. 8888. (Refer to Figure 127.) What is the base of the
Answer (C) is incorrect because 3,000 feet AGL is not an altitude
which defines a certain airspace. Class A airspace?
A— 12,000 feet AGL.
B— 14,500 feet MSL.
ALL C— FL180.
8883. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri-
ate for the top of Class G airspace? The base of Class A airspace is 18,000 feet MSL.
A— 700 or 2,500 feet AGL. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-1
B— 500 or 2,000 feet AGL. Answer (A) is incorrect because 12,000 feet AGL is not an altitude
C— 700 or 1,200 feet AGL. which defines a certain airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect because
14,500 MSL is the base of Class E airspace when it is not set lower.

The ceiling of Class G airspace could be 700 or 1,200

feet AGL. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-1 ALL
9409. In what altitude structure is a transponder required
when operating in controlled airspace?
ALL
8884. (Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropri- A— Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace
ate for the top of Class E airspace? at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
B— Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at
A— 14,000 feet MSL.
and below 2,500 feet AGL.
B— 14,500 feet MSL.
C— Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at
C— 18,000 feet MSL.
and below 2,500 feet AGL.
The top or ceiling of Class E airspace is at 18,000 feet
MSL. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-1
Answer (A) is incorrect because 14,000 feet MSL is not an altitude
which defines a certain airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect because
14,500 MSL is the base of Class E airspace when it is not set lower.

Answers
8881 [B] 8882 [B] 8883 [C] 8884 [C] 8885 [B] 8886 [A]
8888 [C] 9409 [B]

6–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

A transponder is required at and above 10,000 feet Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person
MSL and below the floor of Class A airspace, exclud- operating a large turbine-engine-powered airplane to or
ing the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. (PLT429, from a primary airport in Class B airspace shall operate
AA.I.A.K9) — 14 CFR §91.215 at or above the designated floors while within the lateral
Answer (A) is incorrect because 12,500 feet MSL was the old alti- limits of the Class B airspace. (PLT161, AA.I.G.K2) —
tude above which a transponder was needed; it is now 10,000 feet AIM ¶3-2-3
MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect because 14,500 feet MSL is the base
Answer (A) is incorrect because the speed limit within a Class B
of Class E airspace when it is not set lower.
airspace is 250 knots for all aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because
VFR is permitted in Class B airspace; i.e., an IFR clearance is not
required as it is at FL180 and above.
ALL
9424. Pilots should state their position on the airport
when calling the tower for takeoff ALL
A— from a runway intersection. 8872. (Refer to Figure 126.) What is the normal radius
B— from a runway intersection, only at night. from the airport of the outer area, B?
C— from a runway intersection, only during A— 10 miles.
instrument conditions. B— 20 miles.
C— 25 miles.
Pilots should state their position on the airport when
calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection. The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace
(PLT434, AA.II.C.K7) — AIM ¶4-3-10 is 20 NM. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because this rule applies to all Answer (A) is incorrect because 10 NM is the radius of the outer
operations. circle of Class C airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 25 NM
does not pertain to any set radius of Class C airspace.

ALL
9780. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B ALL
airspace, the maximum speed authorized is 8873. (Refer to Figure 126.) What is the usual radius
from the airport of the inner circle, C?
A— 200 knots.
B— 230 knots. A— 5 miles.
C— 250 knots. B— 7 miles.
C— 10 miles.
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace
underlying Class B airspace at a speed of more than The usual radius from the airport of the inner circle is 5
200 knots. (PLT161, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.117 NM in Class C airspace. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM
¶3-2-4
Answer (B) is incorrect because 7 NM is not established as the
ALL radius for any portion of Class C airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect
8889. What restriction applies to a large, turbine- because 10 NM is the radius of the outer circle of Class C airspace.
powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport
in Class B airspace?
ALL
A— Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B 8874. (Refer to Figure 126.) What is the radius from the
airspace. airport of the outer circle, A?
B— Must operate above the floor when within lateral
A— 5 miles.
limits of Class B airspace.
B— 10 miles.
C— Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures
C— 15 miles.
regardless of weather conditions.
The radius of the outer circle is 10 NM in Class C air-
space. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4
Answer (A) is incorrect because 5 NM is the radius of the surface
area of Class C airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 15 NM
is not established as the radius for any area of Class C airspace.

Answers
9424 [A] 9780 [A] 8889 [B] 8872 [B] 8873 [A] 8874 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6–7

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8875. (Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 2) is 8878. What service is provided for aircraft operating
applicable to the base of the outer circle? within the outer area of Class C airspace?
A— 700 feet AGL. A— The same as within Class C airspace when
B— 1,000 feet AGL. communications and radar contact is established.
C— 1,200 feet AGL. B— Radar vectors to and from secondary airports
within the outer area.
The base of the outer circle is 1,200 feet AGL. (PLT040, C— Basic radar service only when communications
AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4 and radar contact is established.
Answer (A) is incorrect because 700 feet AGL is not applicable to
Class C airspace (it is the base of some Class E airspace). Answer The same services are provided for aircraft operating
(B) is incorrect because 1,000 feet AGL is not applicable to Class within the outer area, as within the Class C airspace,
C airspace (it is the normal traffic pattern altitude for propeller
airplanes). when two-way communication and radar contact are
established. (PLT161, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4
Answer (B) is incorrect because providing radar vectors to and from
ALL secondary airports within the outer circle is not a mandated service
of ATC. Answer (C) is incorrect because the same services are
8876. (Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 1) is
provided in the outer area as within Class C airspace, once two-way
applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer communications and radar contact are established.
circles?
A— 3,000 feet AGL.
ALL
B— 3,000 feet above airport.
C— 4,000 feet above airport. 8879. What services are provided for aircraft operating
within Class C airspace?
The vertical extent of the inner and outer circles is A— Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of
4,000 feet above the airport. (PLT040, AA.II.A.S6) — aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic
AIM ¶3-2-4 advisories.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because 3,000 feet AGL does not B— Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR
define an airspace. aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and
traffic advisories.
C— Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation
ALL
between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.
8877. What minimum aircraft equipment is required for
operation within Class C airspace? ATC services within an Class C airspace include:
A— Two-way communications. 1. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft to the primary
B— Two-way communications and transponder. Class C airport,
C— Transponder and DME.
2. Standard IFR separation between IFR aircraft,
An encoding transponder and two-way radio is required 3. Between IFR and VFR aircraft — traffic advisories
in order to operate within Class C airspace. (PLT040, and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not
AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4 touch, or 500 feet vertical separation, and
Answer (A) is incorrect because a Mode C transponder is also 4. Between VFR aircraft — traffic advisories and as
required. Answer (C) is incorrect because two-way communications
are also required and DME is not required. appropriate, safety alerts.
(PLT161, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4
Answer (B) is incorrect because the services in the Class C airspace
provide sequencing of all aircraft to the primary/Class C airspace
airport. Answer (C) is incorrect because the services in the Class C
airspace do not provide separation between VFR aircraft, only traffic
advisories and safety alerts.

Answers
8875 [C] 8876 [C] 8877 [B] 8878 [A] 8879 [A]

6–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8880. What pilot certification and aircraft equipment 8891. What is the purpose of MOAs?
are required for operating in Class C airspace? A— To protect military aircraft operations from civil
A— No specific certification but a two-way radio. aircraft.
B— At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way B— To separate military training activities from IFR
radio. traffic.
C— At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, C— To separate military training activities from both
and a TSO-C74b transponder. IFR and VFR traffic.

No specific pilot certification is required for operation Military Operations Areas (MOAs) consist of airspace
within Class C airspace. The aircraft must be equipped of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the
with a two-way radio for operations within Class C air- purpose of separating certain military training activities
space. (PLT161, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-2-4 from IFR traffic. (PLT161, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-4-5
Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because there is no specific pilot Answer (A) is incorrect because MOAs are to separate (not protect)
certificate required, although two-way radio and transponder are military training activities from IFR traffic. Answer (C) is incorrect
required. because MOAs are established for the purpose of separating IFR
traffic from military training activities.

ALL
9399. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a ATM, ATS, RTC
turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 8892. Who is responsible for collision avoidance in
feet MSL? an MOA?
A— 288 knots. A— Military controllers.
B— 250 knots. B— ATC controllers.
C— 230 knots. C— Each pilot.

Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme
person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL caution while flying within an MOA when military activity
at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 is being conducted. (PLT162, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-4-5
MPH). (PLT161, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.117
ALL
ALL 9049. Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training
8890. Why are certain areas that start 3 nautical miles Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
from the coastline of the U.S. and extend outward, clas- A— IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
sified as Warning Areas? B— IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.
A— To inform pilots of participating aircraft to C— IFR Planning Chart.
maintain extreme vigilance while conducting flight
within the area. The IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart depicts all Military
B— To warn all aircraft pilots that flying within the Training Routes (MTR) that accommodate operations
area may be extremely hazardous to aircraft and above 1,500 feet AGL. (PLT100, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM
occupants. ¶3-5-2
C— To warn pilots of nonparticipating aircraft of a Answer (B) is incorrect because IFR High Altitude Enroute Charts
do not depict MTRs. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFR Planning
potential danger within the area. Charts depict MTRs.

A Warning Area is airspace of defined dimensions,

extending from three nautical miles outward from the
coast of the United States, that contains activity that may
be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose
of such warning areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots
of the potential danger. A warning area may be located
over domestic or international waters or both. (PLT161,
AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶3-4-4

Answers
8880 [A] 9399 [B] 8890 [C] 8891 [B] 8892 [C] 9049 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6–9

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL 3. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable

9100. What is the maximum acceptable position toler- to the flight.
ance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over land?
(PLT370, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶5-5-13
A— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. Answer (A) is incorrect because not only will a pilot remain on the
B— Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. IFR flight plan and comply with VFR altitudes, visibility, and cloud
C— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. clearances, he/she must also comply with applicable IFR rules, e.g.,
position reporting, minimum IFR altitudes. Answer (C) is incorrect
because, while operating on a “VFR-On-Top” clearance, a pilot must
The aircraft position tolerances over land in a domestic maintain VFR altitudes.
ADIZ is within ±5 minutes from the estimated time over
a reporting point or point of penetration and within 10
NM from the centerline of an intended track over an ALL
estimated reporting point or penetration point. (PLT161, 9047. What cloud clearance must be complied with
AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶5-6-1 when authorized to maintain “VFR on Top”?
Answer (A) is incorrect because penetration of an ADIZ within 10 A— May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or
minutes is not an acceptable tolerance for either over water or land.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the maximum acceptable tolerance between layers.
for penetrating over water (a coastal ADIZ) is within 20 NM of the B— Must maintain VFR clearance above or below.
intended track and within 5 minutes of the estimated penetration C— May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but
time.
not between layers.

ATC authorization to “maintain VFR-On-Top” is not

ALL
intended to restrict pilots so that they must operate only
9741. What is the maximum acceptable position toler-
above an obscuring meteorological formation. Instead,
ance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over water?
it permits operations above, below, between or in areas
A— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. where there is no meteorological obstruction. (PLT370,
B— Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶5-5-13
C— Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

The aircraft position tolerances over water in a domestic ALL

ADIZ is plus or minus five minutes from the estimated 9048. In what airspace will ATC not authorize “VFR
time over a reporting point or point of penetration and on Top”?
within 20 NM from the centerline of the intended track A— Class C airspace.
over an estimated reporting point or point of penetration. B— Class B airspace.
(PLT161, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶5-6-1 C— Class A airspace.

ATC will not authorize VFR or VFR-On-Top operations in

ALL
Class A airspace. (PLT161, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶5-5-13
9046. Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR
flight plan comply with authorization to maintain “VFR
on Top”? ALL
A— Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual 9093. What separation or service by ATC is afforded
flight rules while in VFR conditions. pilots authorized “VFR on Top”?
B— Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and A— The same afforded all IFR flights.
comply with applicable instrument flight rules. B— 3 miles horizontally instead of 5.
C— Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, C— Traffic advisories only.
and comply with applicable instrument flight
rules. Pilots operating VFR-On-Top may receive traffic infor-
mation from ATC on other pertinent IFR or VFR aircraft.
When operating in VFR conditions with an ATC autho- (PLT172, AA.II.A.S6) — AIM ¶5-5-13
rization to “maintain VFR-On-Top” pilots on IFR flight Answer (A) is incorrect because separation will be provided for all IFR
plans must: flights except those operating with a VFR-On-Top clearance. In that
case, only traffic advisories may be provided. Answer (B) is incorrect
1. Fly an appropriate VFR altitude, because, when radar is employed for separation of aircraft at the same
2. Comply with VFR visibility and distance from cloud altitude, a minimum of 3 miles separation is provided between air-
planes operating within 40 miles of the radar antenna site, and 5 miles
criteria, and between aircraft operating beyond 40 miles from the antenna site.

Answers
9100 [C] 9741 [C] 9046 [B] 9047 [A] 9048 [C] 9093 [C]

6 – 10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9018. A minimum instrument altitude for enroute opera- 8900. What is the minimum flight visibility and distance
tions off of published airways which provides obstruction from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace,
clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within A— 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
the United States is called and 2,000 feet horizontal.
A— Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude B— 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet
(MOCA). below, and 1 mile horizontal.
B— Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude C— 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
(OROCA). and 1 mile horizontal.
C— Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).
A pilot on an IFR flight plan requesting and receiving
OROCA is an off-route altitude which provides obstruc- authorization to operate VFR-On-Top must comply with
tion clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in non­moun­tain­ instrument flight rules as well as VFR visibilities and
ous terrain areas, and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated distances from clouds. When operating at more than
mountainous areas within the U.S. (PLT162, AA.II.A.S6) 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL pilots
— AIM ¶4‑4-9 are required to maintain flight visibility of 5 statute miles
Answer (A) is incorrect because MOCAs provide the lowest and distances of 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below,
published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, and 1 mile horizontally from clouds. (PLT163, AA.I.G.K2)
off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clear- — 14 CFR §91.155
ance requirements for the entire route segment and which ensures
acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 SM (22 NM) Answer (A) is incorrect because it presents the VFR weather mini-
of a VOR. Answer (C) is incorrect because MSAs are published for mums for below 10,000 feet MSL. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
emergency use on IAP charts; they are expressed in feet above vertical separation from clouds is 1,000 feet both above and below.
mean sea level and normally have a 25 NM radius; however, this
radius may be expanded to 30 NM if necessary to encompass the
airport landing surfaces. ATM, ADX
8253. Which in-flight conditions are required by a
supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top
ALL
flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude?
8893. What is the required flight visibility and distance
from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at A— The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least
9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally
hours? and have at least 3 miles flight visibility.
B— The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet
A— 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below,
above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum
B— 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below,
of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
least 5 miles flight visibility.
C— 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below,
C— The height of any higher overcast or broken layer
and 2,000 feet horizontal.
must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.
A pilot receiving authorization for VFR-On-Top must
A person may conduct day Over-the-Top operations in
comply with VFR visibility, distance from cloud criteria,
an airplane at flight altitudes lower than the minimum
and minimum IFR altitudes. When operating at more
enroute IFR altitudes if —
than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL,
pilots are required to maintain flight visibility of 3 statute 1. The operation is conducted at least 1,000 feet above
miles and a distance from clouds of 1,000 feet above, the top of lower broken or overcast cloud cover;
500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. (PLT163, 2. The top of the lower cloud cover is generally uniform
AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.155 and level;
Answer (B) is incorrect because the visibility requirement is 3 miles
(not 5 miles) and the distances from clouds above and below are 3. Flight visibility is at least 5 miles; and
reversed. They should be 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below. 4. The base of any higher broken or overcast cloud
Answer (C) is incorrect because the distances from clouds above
and below are reversed. They should be 1,000 feet above and 500 cover is generally uniform and level, and is at least
feet below. 1,000 feet above the minimum enroute IFR altitude
for that route segment.
(continued)
Answers
9018 [B] 8893 [A] 8900 [B] 8253 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 11

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

(PLT468, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.657 ATM, ATS, ADX

Answer (A) is incorrect because the flight must remain at least 1,000 8887. The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft
feet above the cloud layer with a flight visibility of at least 5 miles. may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the
Answer (C) is incorrect because the height of any higher ceiling must primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical
be at least 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA.
miles from the airport is
A— 200 knots.
ATM, ATS B— 230 knots.
9395. At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine- C— 250 knots.
powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D
airspace? Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no
person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL
A— 1,500 feet AGL.
at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288
B— 2,000 feet AGL.
MPH). (PLT161, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.117
C— 2,500 feet AGL.

When operating to an airport with an operating control ATM, ATS, ADX

tower, each pilot of a turbine-powered airplane or a large 9397. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727
airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the appli- operate within Class B airspace without special ATC
cable distance from cloud criteria, enter Class D airspace authorization?
at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the surface
of the airport. (PLT161, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.129 A— 230 knots.
B— 250 knots.
C— 275 knots.
ATM, ATS
9401. A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no
as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude? person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL
at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288
A— 1,000 feet AGL.
MPH). There is no specific speed restriction which
B— 1,500 feet AGL.
applies to operation within Class B airspace. (PLT161,
C— 5,000 feet AGL.
AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.117
When taking off from an airport with an operating control Answer (A) is incorrect because 230 knots is not an airspeed limita-
tion in Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 275 knots
tower, each pilot of a turbine-powered airplane shall climb is not an established maximum speed for any type of operation.
to an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface as rapidly
as practicable. (PLT459, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.129
ATM, ATS, ADX
9398. At what maximum indicated airspeed may a
ATM, ATS, ADX reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated
9396. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a within Class D airspace?
reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be oper-
ated within Class B airspace? A— 156 knots.
B— 180 knots.
A— 180 knots. C— 200 knots.
B— 230 knots.
C— 250 knots. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no
person may operate an aircraft within Class D airspace at
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. (PLT161,
person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.117
at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288
Answer (A) is incorrect because 156 knots was the old maximum
MPH). There is no specific speed restriction which authorized airspeed for reciprocating aircraft in Class D airspace (it
applies to operation within Class B airspace. (PLT161, is now 200 knots). Answer (B) is incorrect because 180 knots was
AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.117 the old maximum authorized airspeed for turbine-powered aircraft
in Class D airspace (it is now 200 knots).
Answer (A) is incorrect because 180 knots is the old maximum air-
speed for turbine-powered aircraft while operating within Class D
airspace (it is now 200 knots). Answer (B) is incorrect because 230
knots is the maximum authorized holding speed for all civil turbojet
aircraft while operating from the minimum holding altitude to 14,000
feet. It is not an airspeed limitation in Class B airspace.

Answers
9395 [A] 9401 [B] 9396 [C] 8887 [C] 9397 [B] 9398 [C]

6 – 12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ATS, ADX No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace

9400. At what maximum indicated airspeed can a underlying Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed
reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace of more than 200 knots (230 MPH). (PLT161, AA.I.G.K2)
underlying Class B airspace? — 14 CFR §91.117
A— 180 knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because 180 knots was the old published
B— 200 knots. maximum airspeed for turbine-powered aircraft in Class D airspace
(it is now 200 knots). Answer (C) is incorrect because the limitation
C— 230 knots. is 200 knots or 230 MPH, not 230 knots.

NOTAMs (NOtices To AirMen)

Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) provide the most current information available. They provide time-critical
information on airports and changes that affect the national airspace system and are of concern to instru-
ment flight rule (IFR) operations. NOTAM information is classified into five categories: NOTAM (D) or
distant, Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs, pointer NOTAMs, Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs,
and military NOTAMs.
NOTAM (D)s are attached to hourly weather reports and are available at flight service stations (AFSS/
FSS). FDC NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory information,
such as temporary flight restrictions or an amendment to instrument approach procedures.
Pointer NOTAMs highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as an FDC or NOTAM (D). This type
of NOTAM will assist pilots in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an
airport or NAVAID identifier. Military NOTAMs pertain to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy NAVAIDs/
airports that are part of the NAS.
SAA NOTAMs are issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule
times and when required by the published schedule. Pilots and other users are still responsible to check
published schedule times for Special Activity Airspace as well as any NOTAMs for that airspace.
NOTAM (D)s and FDC NOTAMs are contained in the Notices to Airmen publication, which is issued
every 28 days. Prior to any flight, pilots should check for any NOTAMs that could affect their intended flight.

ALL ALL
9086. What are FDC NOTAMs? 9087. What type information is disseminated by NOTAM
A— Conditions of facilities en route that may cause (D)s?
delays. A— Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service
B— Time critical aeronautical information of a available, and other information essential to
temporary nature from distant centers. planning.
C— Regulatory amendments to published IAPs and B— Airport or primary runway closings, runway and
charts not yet available in normally published taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages.
charts. C— Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status
in navigational aids, and updates on equipment
FDC NOTAMs contain such things as amendments to such as VASI.
published IAPs and other current aeronautical charts
and other information which is considered regulatory in NOTAM (D) information is disseminated for all navi-
nature. (PLT323, AA.II.C.K1) — AIM ¶5-1-3 gational facilities that are part of the national airspace
Answer (A) is incorrect because NOTAM (D) contains information system, all IFR airports with approved instrument
on navigational facilities en route that may cause delays. Answer approaches, and those VFR airports annotated with the
(B) is incorrect because time critical aeronautical information of a NOTAM service symbol (§) in the Chart Supplements
temporary nature from distant centers will be included in a NOTAM
(D) (“distant”). U.S. (previously A/FD). NOTAM (D) information could
affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight. It includes

Answers
9400 [B] 9086 [C] 9087 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 13

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

such information as airport or primary runway closures, ATS, RTC

changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS’s, radar 9931. Which of the following would meet the require-
service availability, and other information essential ments for 14 CFR Part 135 flight locating when an FAA
to planned en route, terminal or landing operations. flight plan is not filed?
(PLT323, AA.II.C.K1) — AIM ¶5‑1‑3 A— Receiving VFR flight following services from air
traffic control.
B— Operating an aircraft equipped with an approved
ALL
satellite phone and ELT.
9089. How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on
C— Relaying flight plan information to a company
a scheduled basis?
flight locator before departure.
A— 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour.
B— Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Each certificate holder must have procedures estab-
C— Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast. lished for locating each flight for which an FAA flight
plan is not filed, providing the certificate holder with
NOTAM (D) information is appended to the hourly the location, date, and estimated time for reestablish-
weather reports via the Service A (ATC/FSS) telecom- ing communications, if the flight will operate in an area
munications system. (PLT323, AA.II.C.K1) — AIM ¶5-1-3 where communications cannot be maintained. Flight
Answer (A) is incorrect because SIGMETs and AIRMETs are locating information shall be retained at the certificate
broadcast by FSSs to pilots 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after holder’s principal place of business, or at other places
the hour during the valid period. Answer (B) is incorrect because
NOTAM (D)s are appended to the hourly weather broadcast, not a
designated by the certificate holder in the flight locating
separate broadcast between weather reports. procedures, until the completion of the flight. (PLT433,
AA.I.G.K5) — 14 CFR §135.79

Flight Plans
An IFR flight plan should be filed at least 30 minutes prior to the departure time, and pilots should request
their IFR clearance no more than 10 minutes prior to taxi.
If the flight is to be flown on established airways, the route should be defined using the airways or jet
routes with transitions. Intermediate VORs and fixes on an airway need not be listed. If filing for an off-
airway direct route, list all the radio fixes over which the flight will pass. Pilots of appropriately equipped
aircraft may file for random RNAV routes. The following rules must be observed:
• Radar monitoring by ATC must be available along the entire proposed route.
• Plan the random route portion to begin and end over appropriate departure and arrival transition fixes
or navigation aids appropriate for the altitude structure used for the flight. Use of DPs and STARs,
where available, is recommended.
• Define the random route by waypoints. Use degree-distance fixes based on navigational aids appropriate
for the altitude structure used. Above FL390 latitude/longitude fixes may be used to define the route.
• List at least one waypoint for each Air Route Traffic Control Center through which the flight will pass.
The waypoint must be within 200 NM of the preceding Center’s boundary.

A pilot may file a flight plan to an airport containing a special or privately-owned instrument approach
procedure only upon approval of the owner.
Air ambulance flights and air carrier flights responding to medical emergencies will receive expedited
handling by ATC when necessary. When appropriate, the word “Lifeguard” should be entered in the
remarks section of the flight plan. It should also be used in the flight’s radio call sign as in, “Lifeguard
Delta Thirty-Seven.”

Answers
9089 [C] 9931 [C]

6 – 14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL Any portions of the route which will not be flown on the
9031. What is the suggested time interval for filing and radials or courses of established airways or routes,
requesting an IFR flight plan? such as direct route flights, must be clearly defined by
A— File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and indicating the radio fixes over which the flight will pass.
request the clearance not more than 10 minutes (PLT225, AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶5-1-8
prior to taxi. Answer (A) is incorrect because true course is not an item that is
B— File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and reported on an IFR flight plan. The initial fix and the final fix are
listed as radio fixes that define the start and finish points of a flight.
request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to Answer (C) is incorrect because initial and final fixes are required
taxi. to define random RNAV (not direct flight) routes. All radio fixes that
C— File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request define the route of a direct flight automatically become compulsory
reporting points, not just those the pilot chooses.
the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

Pilots should file IFR flight plans at least 30 minutes

ALL
prior to the estimated time of departure to preclude
9026. How are random RNAV routes below FL390
possible delay in receiving a departure clearance from
defined on the IFR flight plan?
ATC. Pilots should call clearance delivery or ground
control for their IFR clearance not more than 10 minutes A— Define route waypoints using degree-distance
before the proposed taxi time. (PLT224, AA.I.E.K14) — fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for
AIM ¶5-1-8, 5-2-1 the route and altitude.
B— List the initial and final fix with at least one
waypoint each 200 NM.
ALL C— Begin and end over appropriate arrival and
9032. How should the route of flight be defined on an departure transition fixes or navigation aids for
IFR flight plan? the altitude being flown, define the random route
A— A simplified route via airways or jet routes with waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based
transitions. on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude
B— A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and being flown.
fixes used.
C— A route via airways or jet routes with only the Pilots of aircraft equipped with operational area navi-
compulsory reporting points. gation equipment may file for random RNAV routes
throughout the national airspace system, where radar
Pilots are requested to file via airways or jet routes monitoring by ATC is available, in accordance with the
established for use at the altitude or flight level planned. following:
If the flight is to be conducted via designated airways 1. File airport-to-airport flight plans prior to departure.
or jet routes, describe the route by indicating the type 2. File the appropriate RNAV capability suffix in the
and number designators of the airway(s) or jet route(s) flight plan.
requested. If more than one airway or jet route is to
be used, clearly indicate points of transition. (PLT224, 3. Plan the random route portion of the flight plan to begin
AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶5-1-8 and end over appropriate arrival and departure fixes.
Answer (B) is incorrect because, to simplify the route, all VORs and 4. Define the random route by waypoints. File route
fixes are not used to define a route on an IFR flight plan. Answer (C) description waypoints by using degree/distance fixes
is incorrect because compulsory reporting points might not define
the transitions between airways or jet routes.
based on navigation aids which are appropriate to
the altitude.
5. File a minimum of one route description waypoint for
ALL each ARTCC through whose area the random route
9033. How should an off-airway direct flight be defined will be flown. These waypoints must be located within
on an IFR flight plan? 200 NM of the preceding center’s boundary.
A— The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. (PLT224, AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶5-1-8
B— All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. Answer (A) is incorrect because RNAV routes defined on an IFR
C— The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes flight plan must also begin and end over an established radio fix.
to be compulsory reporting points, and the final Answer (B) is incorrect because RNAV waypoints have no estab-
fix. lished distance requirement. A minimum of one waypoint must be
filed for each ARTCC through which the route is planned, and this
must be located within 200 NM of the preceding center’s boundary.

Answers
9031 [A] 9032 [A] 9033 [B] 9026 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 15

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9027. What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV 9053. To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air
route on an IFR flight plan? ambulance flight, the word “LIFEGUARD” should be
A— The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of entered in which section of the flight plan?
each other. A— Aircraft type/special equipment block.
B— The entire route must be within radar environment. B— Pilot’s name and address block.
C— The waypoints may only be defined by degree- C— Remarks block.
distance fixes based on appropriate navigational
aids. When expeditious handling is necessary because of a
medical emergency, add the word “LIFEGUARD” in the
Random RNAV routes can only be approved in a radar remarks section of the flight plan. (PLT225, AA.I.G.K2)
environment. Aircraft operating at or above FL390 may — AIM ¶4‑2‑4
file waypoints based on latitude/longitude fixes, under Answer (A) is incorrect because only the airplane’s designator or
some circumstances. (PLT225, AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶5-1-8 manufacturer’s name and the transponder DME and/or RNAV equip-
ment code is entered in the aircraft type/special equipment block.
Answer (A) is incorrect because VOR/VORTAC facilities must be Answer (B) is incorrect because the complete name, address, and
within 200 NM of each other when operating above FL450 to define telephone number of the pilot-in-command are entered in the pilot’s
a direct route. Answer (C) is incorrect because random RNAV way- name and address block. Sufficient information is listed here to
points may be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropri- iden­tify home base, airport, or operator. This information would be
ate navigational aids, of latitude/longitude coordinate navigation, essential in the event of a search and rescue operation.
independent of VOR/TACAN references, operating at and above
FL390 in the conterminous U.S.

ALL
ALL 9809. Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person
9040. Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR A— shall correctly annotate the flight plan.
flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP? B— must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan.
A— Upon approval of ATC. C— should file for odd altitudes only.
B— Upon approval of the owner.
C— Upon signing a waiver of responsibility. Each person requesting a clearance to operate within
reduced vertical separate minimum (RVSM) airspace
Pilots planning flights to locations served by special shall correctly annotate the flight plan filed with air
IAPs should obtain advance approval from the owner traffic control with regard to RVSM approval. (PLT367,
of the procedure. Approval by the owner is necessary AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶4-6-4
because special procedures are for the exclusive use
of the single interest unless otherwise authorized by
the owner. Controllers assume a pilot has obtained
approval and is aware of any details of the procedure
if he/she files an IFR flight plan to that airport. (PLT083,
AA.VI.D.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because ATC is not required to question
pilots to determine whether they have the owner’s permission to use
the procedure. Answer (C) is incorrect because a pilot is responsible
for the safe operation of the airplane. To sign a waiver of responsibil-
ity is contrary to a pilot’s duty.

Answers
9027 [B] 9040 [B] 9053 [C] 9809 [A]

6 – 16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Alternate Airport Planning

An airport may not be available for alternate use if the airport NAVAID is unmonitored, is GPS-based, or
if it does not have weather-reporting capabilities.
For an airport to be used as an alternate, the forecast weather at that airport must meet certain quali-
fications at the estimated time of arrival. Standard alternate minimums for a precision approach are a
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility. For a nonprecision approach, the minimums are an 800-foot ceiling
and 2 SM visibility. Standard alternate minimums apply unless higher alternate minimums are listed for
an airport.
Alternate Airport for Destination—Domestic Air Carriers: Unless the weather at the destination meets
certain criteria, an alternate must be listed in the dispatch release (and flight plan) for each destination
airport. If the weather at the first listed alternate is marginal (as defined by the operations specifications)
at least one additional alternate must be listed.
Alternate Airport for Destination—Flag Carriers: An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch
release (and flight plan) for all flag air carrier flights longer than 6 hours. An alternate is not required for
a flag air carrier flight if it is scheduled for less than 6 hours and the weather forecast for the destination
meets certain criteria. For the period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival:
• The ceiling must be forecast to be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest minimums or 2,000 feet,
whichever is higher; and
• The visibility must be forecast to be 3 miles, or 2 miles greater than the lowest applicable visibility
minimum, whichever is greater.

Alternate Airport for Destination—Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators: Except for
certain operations, a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator must always list an alternate airport
regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions.
An airport cannot be listed as an alternate in the dispatch or flight release unless the appropriate
weather reports and forecasts indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the alternate weather
minimums specified in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport, when the flight
arrives. Alternate weather minimums are for planning purposes only and do not apply to actual opera-
tions. If an air carrier flight actually diverts to an alternate airport, the crew may use the actual weather
minimums shown on the IAP (Instrument Approach Procedure) Chart for that airport.
If the weather conditions at the departure airport are below landing minimums in the airline’s opera-
tions specifications, a departure alternate must be listed in the dispatch or the flight release. Weather at
alternate airports must meet the conditions for alternates in the operations specifications. The maximum
distance to the departure alternate for a two-engine airplane cannot be more than 1 hour from the depar-
ture airport in still air with one engine operating. The distance to the departure alternate for an airplane
with three or more engines cannot be more than 2 hours from the departure airport in still air with one
engine inoperative.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 17

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9394-1. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which 9770. When planning to use RNAV equipment with
minimums apply? GPS input for an instrument approach at a destination
airport, any required alternate airport must have an
A— The IFR alternate minimums section in front of
available instrument approach procedure that does not
the NOAA IAP book.
B— 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after A— require the use of GPS except when the RNAV
the ETA. system has a WAAS input.
C— The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for B— require the use of GPS except when the RNAV
the airport. system has an IRU input.
C— require the use of GPS except when dual,
When the approach procedure being used provides for independent GPS receivers are installed.
and requires the use of a DH or MDA, the authorized
decision height or authorized minimum descent altitude Aircraft using GPS navigation equipment under IFR for
is the DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure, domestic en route, terminal operations, and certain IAPs
the DH or MDA prescribed for the pilot-in-command, must be equipped with an approved and operational
or the DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped, alternate means of navigation appropriate to the flight.
whichever is highest. However, a required alternate airport may be selected if
Note: The alternate airport minimums are used only it uses an RNAV system with WAAS equipment. (PLT420,
during preflight planning to determine the suitability of an AA.I.G.K4) — FAA-H-8083-15
airport as an IFR alternate. They impose no additional
restrictions should a flight actually divert to the filed
ATM, ADX
alternate. (PLT421, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.175
8247. When the forecast weather conditions for a desti-
Answer (A) is incorrect because the alternate minimums listed in
the NOAA IAP (National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration nation and alternate airport are considered marginal for
Instrument Approach Procedure) book refer to the ceiling and visibil- a domestic air carrier’s operation, what specific action
ity requirements for that airport in order to file it as an alternate, not should the dispatcher or pilot-in-command take?
the ceiling and visibility required to execute an instrument approach.
Answer (B) is incorrect because 2000-3 minimums apply to the A— List an airport where the forecast weather is not
destination airport. If your destination airport has a forecast ceiling marginal as the alternate.
of at least 2,000 feet and a visibility of at least 3 miles, an alternate B— Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise
airport need not be filed in the flight plan.
power settings for the airplane in use.
C— List at least one additional alternate airport.
ALL
9394-2. An airport may not be qualified for alternate When weather conditions forecast for the destination
use if and first alternate airport are marginal, at least one
additional alternate must be designated. (PLT379,
A— the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting. AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.619
B— the airport is located next to a restricted or
prohibited area.
C— the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are ATM, ADX
unmonitored. 8256. Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air
carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour IFR flight?
Not all airports can be used as an alternate. An airport
A— No alternate airport is required if the forecast
may not be qualified for alternate use if the airport
weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at
NAVAID is unmonitored, is GPS-based, or if it does not
least 1,500 feet and 3 miles.
have weather reporting capability. (PLT379, AA.I.G.K4)
B— An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling
— FAA-H-8083-16
will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest
Answer (A) is incorrect because an airport can qualify for alternate
use if it has any weather reporting capability. Answer (B) is incorrect
circling MDA.
because an airport can qualify for alternate use even if it is located C— An alternate airport is required.
in a restricted or prohibited area.
All flag air carrier flights over 6 hours require an alternate
airport. (PLT379, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.621
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because whenever the scheduled
flight exceeds 6 hours, a flag air carrier must list an alternate regard-
less of the weather.

Answers
9394-1 [C] 9394-2 [C] 9770 [A] 8247 [C] 8256 [C]

6 – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ADX the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that

8262. An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a airport when the flight arrives. (PLT380, AA.I.G.K4) —
flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours 14 CFR §121.625
when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour
after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be
ATM, ADX
A— 2 miles or greater.
8255. As required by Part 121, an airport may be listed
B— at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest
as an alternate in the flight release only if the weather
applicable minimum.
forecast indicates that conditions will be at or above the
C— 3 miles.
A— alternate weather minima specified in the
An alternate airport need not be listed if the destination operation specifications at the time of arrival.
weather, from an hour before to an hour after the ETA, B— lowest available IAP minima at the time of arrival.
is forecast to have the required ceiling criteria and the C— lowest available IAP minima for 1 hour before to 1
visibility is forecast to be at least 3 miles, or 2 miles hour after the time of arrival.
more than the lowest visibility minimums, whichever is
greater, for the instrument approach procedures to be No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in
used at the destination airport. (PLT379, AA.I.G.K4) — the dispatch release or flight release unless the appro-
14 CFR §121.621 priate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination
thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at
or above the alternate weather minimums specified in
ATM, ADX the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that
8251. When is a supplemental air carrier, operating airport when the flight arrives. (PLT380, AA.I.G.K4) —
under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each 14 CFR §121.625
destination airport within the 48 contiguous United
States?
ATM, ADX
A— When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling
8248. An alternate airport for departure is required
will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than
2 miles at the estimated time of arrival. A— if weather conditions are below authorized
B— On all flights, an alternate is required regardless landing minimums at the departure airport.
of existing or forecast weather conditions at the B— when the weather forecast at the ETD is for
destination. landing minimums only at the departure airport.
C— When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 C— when destination weather is marginal VFR
hours en route. (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less
than 5 SM).
A supplemental air carrier must declare an alternate
airport for all IFR operations. (PLT379, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are
CFR §121.623 below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s
operations specifications for that airport, no person may
dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless
ATM, ADX the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate
8254. Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport airport located within the following distances from the
in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and airport of takeoff.
forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be
1. Aircraft having two engines: Not more than 1 hour
at or above authorized minimums at that airport
from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
A— for a period 1 hour before or after the ETA. in still air with one engine inoperative.
B— during the entire flight.
2. Aircraft having three or more engines: Not more than
C— when the flight arrives.
2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising
No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
the dispatch release or flight release unless the appro- (PLT379, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.617
priate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination
thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at
or above the alternate weather minimums specified in

Answers
8262 [B] 8251 [B] 8254 [C] 8255 [A] 8248 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 19

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ADX If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are

8249. What is the maximum distance that a departure below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s
alternate airport may be from the departure airport for operations specifications for that airport, no person may
a two-engine airplane? dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless
A— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate
engines operating. airport located within the following distances from the
B— 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one airport of takeoff.
engine operating. 1. Aircraft having two engines: Not more than 1 hour
C— 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
engine operating. in still air with one engine inoperative.

If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are 2. Aircraft having three or more engines: Not more than
below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising
operations specifications for that airport, no person may speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless (PLT396, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.617
the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate
airport located within the following distances from the
airport of takeoff. ATM, ADX
8252. When a departure alternate is required for a
1. Aircraft having two engines: Not more than 1 hour three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a
from the departure airport at normal cruising speed distance not greater than
in still air with one engine inoperative.
A— 2 hours from the departure airport at normal
2. Aircraft having three or more engines: Not more than cruising speed in still air with one engine not
2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising functioning.
speed in still air with one engine inoperative. B— 1 hour from the departure airport at normal
(PLT379, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.617 cruising speed in still air with one engine
Answer (A) is incorrect because the maximum distance is deter- inoperative.
mined with one engine operating. Answer (C) is incorrect because C— 2 hours from the departure airport at normal
2 hours is the limit for airplanes with three or more engines with one cruising speed in still air.
engine inoperative.

If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are

ATM, ADX
below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s
8250. If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched operations specifications for that airport, no person may
from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless
the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate
may be located from the departure airport? airport located within the following distances from the
airport of takeoff.
A— Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one
engine inoperative. 1. Aircraft having two engines: Not more than 1 hour
B— Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
still air with one engine inoperative. in still air with one engine inoperative.
C— Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in 2. Aircraft having three or more engines: Not more than
still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising
speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(PLT379, AA.I.G.K4) — 14 CFR §121.617
Answer (B) is incorrect because 1 hour is correct for a two-engine
air­plane. Answer (C) is incorrect because it does not contain the
words “with one engine inoperative.”

Answers
8249 [B] 8250 [B] 8252 [A]

6 – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATC Clearances
No one may operate an aircraft in Class A, B, C, D or E airspace under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
unless he/she has filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance. No flight plan or
clearance is required for IFR operations in Class G airspace.
IFR clearances always contain:
• A clearance limit (usually the destination);
• Route of flight;
• Altitude assignment; and
• Departure instructions (could be a DP).

The words “cleared as filed” replace only the route of flight portion of a normal clearance. The control-
ler will still state the destination airport, the enroute altitude (or initial altitude and expected final altitude)
and DP if appropriate. If a STAR is filed on the flight plan, it is considered part of the enroute portion of
the flight plan and is included in the term “cleared as filed.”
When an ATC clearance has been received, you may not deviate from it (except in an emergency)
unless an amended clearance is received. If you are uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance or
the clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation, you should immediately request a clarification.
When you receive a clearance you should always read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions,
and vectors. A Departure Procedure (DP) may contain these elements but they need not be included in
the readback unless the ATC controller specifically states them.
At airports with pretaxi clearance delivery, a pilot should call for the clearance 10 minutes prior to
the desired taxi time. After receiving clearance on the clearance delivery frequency, the pilot should call
ground control for taxi when ready.
Occasionally, an aircraft with an IFR release will be held on the ground for traffic management rea-
sons. The traffic may be too heavy or weather may be causing ATC delays. If this happens to an aircraft
waiting for takeoff, it will be given a hold for release instruction.
When ATC can anticipate long delays for IFR aircraft, they will establish gate hold procedures. The
idea is to hold aircraft at the gate rather than cause congestion and unnecessary fuel burn on the taxi-
ways while waiting for an IFR release. Ground control will instruct aircraft when to start engines. ATC
expects that turbine-powered aircraft will be ready for takeoff as soon as they reach the runway after
having been released from gate hold.
When departing uncontrolled airports, IFR flights will often receive a void time with their clearance.
The void time is a usually a 30-minute window of time during which the aircraft must takeoff for its IFR
clearance to be valid. If unable to comply with the void time, a pilot must receive another clearance with
an amended void time.
The flight plan of an airborne IFR aircraft may only be canceled when the aircraft is in VFR weather
conditions and outside of Class A airspace.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 21

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9374. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If exist- 9439. An ATC “instruction”
ing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, A— is the same as an ATC “clearance.”
an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance B— is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of
received prior to requiring a pilot to take a specific action.
A— takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR C— must be “read back” in full to the controller and
minimums. confirmed before becoming effective.
B— entering controlled airspace.
C— entering IFR weather conditions. Instructions are directives issued by air traffic control for
the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific actions;
No person may operate an aircraft in Class A, B, C, D e.g., “Turn left heading two five zero,” “Go around,” “Clear
or E airspace under IFR unless an IFR flight plan has the runway.” (PLT370, AA.I.G.K2) — Pilot/Controller
been filed and an appropriate ATC clearance has been Glossary
received. (PLT162, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.173 Answer (A) is incorrect because an ATC clearance is not the same
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because an IFR flight plan and as an ATC instruction. Answer (C) is incorrect because an ATC
an ATC clearance are not required to fly in IMC (instrument meteo- instruction does not have to be read back in full to the controller and
rological conditions) in Class G airspace. confirmed before becoming effective.

ALL ALL
9006. What minimum information does an abbreviated 9402. What action should a pilot take when a clear-
departure clearance “cleared as filed” include? ance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary
to a regulation?
A— Clearance limit and en route altitude.
B— Clearance limit, transponder code, and DP, if A— Read the clearance back in its entirety.
appropriate. B— Request a clarification from ATC.
C— Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder C— Do not accept the clearance.
code, and DP, if appropriate.
If a pilot is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance,
The following apply to “cleared as filed” clearances: he/she shall immediately request clarification from ATC.
(PLT444, AA.I.G.K2) — 14 CFR §91.123
1. The clearance as issued will include the destination
Answer (A) is incorrect because reading the clearance back in its
airport filed in the flight plan. “Cleared to (destination) entirety does not inform ATC of the possible conflict to a regulation.
as filed.” A pilot should actively seek clarification if there is any doubt. Answer
(C) is incorrect because not accepting a clearance is not the proper
2. The controller will state the DP name and number. procedure to use when, in a pilot’s opinion, it would conflict with a
3. STARs, when filed in a flight plan, are considered a regulation. First, a pilot should receive a clarification from ATC, then
ask for an amended clearance, if necessary.
part of the filed route of flight and will not normally
be stated in an initial clearance.
4. An enroute altitude will be stated in the clearance ALL
or the pilot will be advised to expect an assigned or 9402-1. While airborne and below the MEA, the pilot
filed altitude within a given time frame or at a certain accepts an IFR clearance. Sole responsibility for terrain
point after departure. This may be done verbally in and obstruction clearance remains with the pilot unless
the departure clearance or stated in the DP. A— the flight continues in clouds or above a ceiling
(PLT370, AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶5-2-5 and ATC transmits “RADAR CONTACT.”
Answer (A) is incorrect because a clearance limit may be a fix, B— an appropriate minimum IFR altitude providing
point, or location. An abbreviated clearance will be a clearance to obstruction clearance is attained.
the destination airport. In some cases, a clearance is issued to a C— the pilot advises ATC that he or she is unable to
fix (limit) from which another clearance limit will be issued. DPs are
stated in all IFR departure clearances when appropriate. Answer (B) maintain terrain/obstruction clearance.
is incorrect because a clearance will state the destination airport’s
name, not a clearance limit.

Answers
9374 [B] 9006 [C] 9439 [B] 9402 [B] 9402-1 [C]

6 – 22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

It is the pilot’s responsibility to maintain terrain/obstruc- When operating at airports with pretaxi clearance deliv-
tion clearance when flying below the minimum IFR alti- ery, participating pilots should call clearance delivery
tude, unless the pilot advises ATC that they are unable or ground control not more than 10 minutes before
to do so. (PLT444, AA.VI.B.K3) — FAA-H-8083-15 taxi. When the IFR clearance is received on clearance
Answer (A) is incorrect because simply hearing “radar contact” delivery frequency, pilots should call ground control
does not relieve the pilot of responsibility. Answer (B) is incorrect when ready to taxi. (PLT370, AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶5-2-1
because a controller cannot issue an IFR clearance until an aircraft
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the pilot will first be given
is above the minimum IFR altitude, unless it is able to climb in VFR
the IFR clearance, then the taxi instruction or clearance.
conditions.

ALL
ALL
9045. What is the pilot’s responsibility for clearance or 9009. What is the purpose of the term “hold for release”
instruction readback? when included in an IFR clearance?
A— Except for SIDs, acknowledge altitude A— A procedure for delaying departure for traffic
assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. volume, weather, or need to issue further
B— If the clearance or instruction is understood, an instructions.
acknowledgment is sufficient. B— When an IFR clearance is received by telephone,
C— Read back the entire clearance or instruction to the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior
confirm the message is understood. to being released.
C— Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot
Pilots of airborne aircraft should read back those parts receives an estimate of the time the flight will be
of ATC clearances and instructions containing altitude released.
assignments or vectors. Altitudes contained in charted
procedures such as DPs, instrument approaches, etc., ATC may issue “hold for release” instructions in a
should not be read back unless they are specifically clearance to delay an aircraft’s departure for traffic
stated by the controller. (PLT370, AA.I.G.K2) — AIM management reasons (i.e., weather, traffic volume, etc.).
¶4-4-7 (PLT370, AA.II.C.K2) — AIM ¶5-2-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because, when a pilot receives an IFR clear-
Answer (B) is incorrect because the best way to know that the clear-
ance via telephone, it is normally because he/she is departing from
ance or instruction is understood is to read back the “numbers” as a
an uncontrolled airport. In this case, ATC would issue a clearance
double-check between the pilot and ATC. This reduces the kinds of
void time, not a hold for release. Answer (C) is incorrect because
communication errors that occur when a number is either misheard
gate hold procedures are in effect whenever departure delays
or is incorrect. Answer (C) is incorrect because the pilot’s respon-
exceed (or are expected to exceed) 15 minutes. This procedure is
sibility is to read back the clearances and instructions containing
not a way for ATC to delay an airplane’s departure.
altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors, not the entire
clearance or instruction.

ALL
ALL 9056. What action should the pilot take when “gate
9008. What is the normal procedure for IFR departures hold” procedures are in effect?
at locations with pretaxi clearance programs? A— Contact ground control prior to starting engines
A— Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to for sequencing.
taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with B— Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting
clearance. clearance.
B— Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. C— Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and
Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR request clearance prior to leaving the parking area.
clearance while taxiing or on runup.
C— Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less When gate hold procedures are in effect, pilots should
prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from contact ground control or clearance delivery prior to
ground control. starting engines, because departure delays are expected
to exceed 15 minutes. (PLT434, AA.II.C.K2) — AIM
¶4-3-15
Answer (B) is incorrect because taxi into position means that the
pilot is on the active runway and ready for takeoff. This is not a
position where ATC would issue an IFR clearance. Answer (C) is
incorrect because pilots should contact ground control for sequenc-
ing before starting engines.

Answers
9045 [A] 9008 [C] 9009 [A] 9056 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 23

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL An IFR flight plan may be canceled anytime the flight is

9057. What special consideration is given for turbine- operating in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace.
powered aircraft when “gate hold” procedures are in (PLT224, AA.II.C.S5) — AIM ¶5-1-14
effect? Answer (A) is incorrect because anytime a clearance appears to
A— They are given preference for departure over deviate from a regulation, the pilot should request clarification from
ATC and an amended clearance. Answer (B) is incorrect because
other aircraft. all aircraft in Class A airspace (above FL180) or when operating in
B— They are expected to be ready for takeoff when IMC in Class B, C, D or E must be operating under an IFR flight plan.
they reach the runway or warmup block.
C— They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior
to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to ATM, ATS, RTC
taxi. 9737. (Refer to Runway Incursion Figure.) You have
requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway
Even with gate holds in effect, the tower controller will 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions:
consider that pilots of turbine-powered aircraft are ready “N123, Taxi to runway 16.” Where are you required to
for takeoff when they reach the runway or warm up stop in order to be in compliance with the controller’s
block unless advised otherwise. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K2) instructions?
— AIM ¶4-3-15 16
Answer (A) is incorrect because, when gate hold procedures are
in effect, sequencing of all airplanes is based on the initial call-up 5 6
to ground control or clearance delivery. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a pilot of any airplane should be ready to taxi prior to
requesting taxi, and takeoff clearance is received prior to takeoff.

A N

24
2
ALL
9007. Under what condition does a pilot receive a “void A1 1

time” specified in the clearance?

A2

11
A— On an uncontrolled airport. C
12 B
B— When “gate hold” procedures are in effect.
C
C— If the clearance is received prior to starting WEST RAMP
engines. 9 B1
A3

If operating from an airport not served by a control tower, 10

the pilot may receive a clearance containing a provision

A

that if the flight has not departed by a specific time, the 8 R2

B
clearance is void. (PLT370, AA.II.C.K2) — AIM ¶5-2-6
A4

7
6

R3

Answer (B) is incorrect because gate hold procedures are in effect R1

whenever departure delays exceed or are anticipated to exceed 15
minutes. Answer (C) is incorrect because clearances can be issued
R4

before starting the airplane’s engine(s).

4
3 34
ALL CONTROL TOWER

9005. Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR

flight plan prior to completing the flight?
A— Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a A— 5 (Five).
deviation from FARs. B— 6 (Six).
B— Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting C— 9 (Nine).
ARTCC.
C— Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A
airspace.

Answers
9057 [B] 9007 [A] 9005 [C] 9737 [A]

6 – 24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

When ATC clears an aircraft to “taxi to” an assigned ATM, ATS, RTC
takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions 9790. (Refer to Figure 241 and 242.) As you rolled out
does not authorize the aircraft to “cross” all runways long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB),
which the taxi route intersects except the assigned you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and
takeoff runway. A clearance must be obtained prior to now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pave-
crossing any runway. It does not include authorization ment. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is
to “taxi onto” or “cross” the assigned takeoff runway at urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi
any point. You should taxi and hold short of runway 16, to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you
which is position 5. (PLT141, AA.II.C.K2) — AIM 4-3-18 A— exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2.
Answer (B) is incorrect because “taxi to” does not authorize the B— exited onto Taxiway G.
aircraft to “taxi onto” the assigned takeoff runway. Answer (C) is C— exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.
incorrect because the airplane should taxi the most direct route
to the assigned runway unless instructed otherwise; position 9
would not be encountered for the airplane at the west ramp to taxi The very wide pavement and taxiway D signs on both
to runway 16. sides of the pavement indicate you are now on runway
25R in the HS1 and HS2 region. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K3)
— AIM ¶4-3-18
ATM, ATS, RTC
9788. As you call for taxi instructions, the key words
to understand are ATM, ATS, RTC
A— cleared to runway. 9790-1. (Refer to Figures 241 and 242.) You land on
B— hold short of or “cross.” Runway 12 at LGB and plan to exit the runway to the
C— taxi to and “expedite.” right on Taxiway J. What potential risk should you be
aware of on the airport diagram?
When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than A— Convergence of Taxiways D and J.
an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point B— Convergence of Taxiways C and J.
to taxi to, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold C— Convergence of Runways 16R-34L and 07R-25L
short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the
taxi route will cross a runway. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K2) — LGB has a hot spot when departing Runway 12 at Taxi-
AIM ¶4-3-18 way J with the convergence of Taxiway D. This is noted
Answer (A) is incorrect because ATC will not use the word “cleared” as HS 4 on the airport diagram. Refer to Figure 241 to
in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. Answer (C) is note the description of hot spot 4. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K6)
incorrect because “expedite” is not as critical as being told to hold
short or cross.
— AIM ¶4-3-18

ALL
ATM, ATS, RTC
9818. When should an aircraft depart if issued an
9789. You received these ATC taxi instructions: “Taxi
to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L”. EDCT?
Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS A— No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than
on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route 5 minutes after the EDCT.
A— requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima. B— No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier than
B— involves transiting HS 4. 5 minutes after the EDCT.
C— requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the C— No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later
assigned runway. than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify The EDCT is the runway release time assigned to an
the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold aircraft included in traffic management programs. Aircraft
short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the are expected to depart no earlier than 5 minutes before,
taxi route will cross a runway. (PLT149, AA.II.C.K8) — and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT. (PLT080,
AIM ¶4-3-18 AA.II.C.S3) — AIM ¶5-2-6

Answers
9788 [B] 9789 [A] 9790 [A] 9790-1 [B] 9818 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 25

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Takeoff Procedures
Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, an air carrier flight may not takeoff unless the weather meets
the prescribed takeoff minimums for that airport. If takeoff minimums are not published for the airport,
the following visibility is required for takeoff:
• For aircraft having two engines or less: 1 statute mile visibility.
• For aircraft having three or more engines: 1/2 statute mile visibility.

If an air carrier flight is going to takeoff from an airport that is not listed in its operations specifications,
the pilot must observe the takeoff weather minimums published for that airport. If no takeoff weather
minimums are published for that airport, then the pilot must be sure that the ceiling and visibility meet a
sliding scale requirement of 800-2 or 900-1-1/2 or 1,000-1.
V1 is the critical engine failure speed or decision speed. Engine failure below this speed shall result
in an aborted takeoff; above this speed the takeoff run should be continued.
VR is defined as the speed at which the rotation of the aircraft should be initiated to takeoff attitude.
Rotation speed (VR) cannot be less than V1. If it is greater than V1 and it is found that, at VR, rotation
cannot be achieved, a subsequent rejected take off may not be possible within the remaining runway
length and is likely to result in a Runway Excursion.

ATM, ATS, ADX When departing from an alternate airport within the
9370. When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a United States which is not listed in the operations
civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR specifications, an air carrier must use the 14 CFR Part
for a three-engine airplane? 97 takeoff minimums. When no takeoff minimums are
A— 1 SM. specified, the air carrier must use a ceiling and visibility
B— 1/2 SM. of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT398, AA.VI.B.K1)
C— 300 feet and 1/2 SM. — 14 CFR §121.637
Answer (B) is incorrect because a 900-foot ceiling requires 1.5
If takeoff minimums are not prescribed under 14 CFR miles visibility. Answer (C) is incorrect because a 1,000-foot ceiling
requires 1 mile visibility.
Part 97, the takeoff minimums under IFR for aircraft hav-
ing more than two engines are 1/2 statute mile visibility.
(PLT421, AA.VI.B.K1) — 14 CFR §91.175 ATM, ADX
Answer (A) is incorrect because 1 SM visibility is for aircraft, other 8261. The weather conditions that meet the minimum
than helicopters, having two engines or less. Answer (C) is incorrect
because minimum ceilings are not specified for takeoff minimums. requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an
alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations
Specifications are
ATM, ADX A— 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1.
8257. An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Car- B— 800-1/2, 900-1, or 1000-2.
rier’s Operations Specifications and does not have the C— 800-1, 900-2, or 1000-3.
prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the
minimum weather conditions required for takeoff? When departing from an alternate airport within the
A— 800-2. United States which is not listed in the operations
B— 900-1. specifications, an air carrier must use the 14 CFR Part
C— 1000-1/2. 97 takeoff minimums. When no takeoff minimums are
specified, the air carrier must use a ceiling and visibility
of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT380, AA.VI.B.K1)
— 14 CFR §121.637

Answers
9370 [B] 8257 [A] 8261 [A]

6 – 26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ADX ATM, ADX

8263. The minimum weather conditions that must 9826. An air carrier flight is preparing to depart from
exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an a domestic airport which is not listed in the carrier’s
airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier’s Operations operation specifications. There are no takeoff minimums
Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed prescribed for the airport, and the weather is currently
for that airport) is reporting a 900-foot overcast ceiling and 1-mile visibility
A— 800-2, 1,100-1, or 900-1-1/2. in mist. The flight may
B— 1,000-1, 900-1-1/4, or 800-2. A— not depart until the weather improves.
C— 1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2. B— depart if an alternate departure airport is filed.
C— depart without an alternate departure airport.
When departing from an alternate airport within the
United States which is not listed in the operations When departing from an alternate airport within the
specifications, an air carrier must use the 14 CFR Part United States which is not listed in the operations
97 takeoff minimums. When no takeoff minimums are specifications, an air carrier must use the 14 CFR Part
specified, the air carrier must use a ceiling and visibility 97 takeoff minimums. When no takeoff minimums are
of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT459, AA.VI.B.K1) — specified, the air carrier must use a ceiling and visibility
14 CFR §121.637 of 800-2, 900-1½, or 1,000-1. (PLT459, AA.VI.B.K1) —
14 CFR §121.637

ATM, ADX
8264. When an alternate airport outside the United ATM, ADX
States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not 9827-1. You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25
listed in a Flag Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications, certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution
the minimum weather conditions that will meet the light as you approach V1. You should
requirements for takeoff is A— continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the
A— 800-1-1/2. illumination as an inflight emergency.
B— 600-2. B— promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only
C— 900-1-1/2. having asymmetrical reverse thrust.
C— abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse
When departing from an alternate airport outside the thrust for deceleration.
United States which is not listed in the operations speci-
fications, an air carrier must use the takeoff minimums V1 is the critical engine failure speed or decision speed.
approved by the government of the country in which Engine failure below this speed shall result in an aborted
the airport is located. When no takeoff minimums are takeoff; above this speed the takeoff run should be
specified, the air carrier must use a ceiling and visibility continued. (PLT208, AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
of 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1,000-1. (PLT380, AA.VI.B.K1)
— 14 CFR §121.637
ATM, ADX
9827-2. You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25
certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution
light as you pass V1. You should
A— continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the
illumination as an inflight emergency.
B— promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only
having asymmetrical reverse thrust.
C— abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse
thrust for deceleration.

V1 is the critical engine failure speed or decision speed.

Engine failure below this speed shall result in an aborted
takeoff; above this speed the takeoff run should be
continued. (PLT208, AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
8263 [C] 8264 [C] 9826 [A] 9827-1 [B] 9827-2 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 27

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ADX VR is defined as the speed at which the rotation of the

9827-3. During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you aircraft should be initiated to takeoff attitude. VR or rota-
receive a master caution light after VR. What action tion speed cannot be less than V1. If it is greater than V1
should you take? and it is found that, at VR, rotation cannot be achieved, a
A— Reject the takeoff. subsequent rejected takeoff may not be possible within
B— Hold the nose down to takeoff speed. the remaining runway length and is likely to result in a
C— Continue the takeoff. runway excursion. In these circumstances (after VR ,
runway remaining), you should continue the takeoff.
(PLT208, AA.VII.B.K1) — FAA-H-8083-3

Instrument Approaches
This section is limited to rules and procedures common to most, or all approaches, or procedures that
may be used in connection with published instrument approaches.
Contact and visual approaches are both IFR authorizations to proceed to an airport visually. A visual
approach may be authorized by ATC to reduce pilot or controller workload and to expedite traffic by
shortening flight paths to the airport. The weather must be VFR and the pilot must report either the air-
port or the preceding aircraft in sight. Either the pilot or ATC may initiate a visual approach. A contact
approach may be initiated only by the pilot. The weather need not be VFR but the aircraft must be clear
of the clouds, have at least 1 mile visibility and be able to proceed to the landing airport visually.
When an airport has ILS or MLS approaches to parallel runways at least 4,300 feet apart, ATC
may conduct approaches to both runways simultaneously. The pilots will be informed if simultaneous
approaches are in progress. To ensure safe separation between aircraft, radar monitoring is provided on
the tower frequency. A pilot must report any malfunctioning aircraft receivers if he/she has been informed
that simultaneous approaches are in progress.
Occasionally, a pilot will be asked to fly an instrument approach to a runway and then fly a visual
“sidestep” maneuver to land on a parallel runway. This sidestep maneuver should be executed as soon
as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
If a pilot is being radar vectored when an approach clearance is received, he/she must maintain the
last assigned altitude until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or approach
procedure unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC. If a flight is being radar vectored to the final
approach course and intercepts a published portion of the course, the pilot may not descend to the
published altitudes until cleared for the approach. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while
on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach
course, the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless
cleared to do so.
Unless ATC issues a clearance otherwise, no pilot may make a procedure turn on an instrument
approach if any of the following apply:
• The flight is radar vectored to the final approach course or fix.
• The flight makes a timed approach from a holding fix.
• The approach procedure specifies “No PT.”

Answers
9827-3 [C]

6 – 28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, a maximum speed of not greater than 200
KIAS should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn
maneuver, to ensure containment with the obstruction clearance area.
Except for Category II and III approaches, if RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed
in an instrument approach procedure, but the RVR is not reported for the runway intended, the ground
visibilities may be substituted. These may be found in FAA Legend 7.
A pilot may not continue an approach past the final approach fix or on to the final approach segment
unless the latest weather report for the airport indicates that the visibility is equal to, or greater than, the
visibility required for the approach procedure. If a pilot has begun the final approach segment and then
receives a report of below minimum conditions, he/she may continue the approach to the DH or MDA.
To descend below the published DH or MDA on an instrument approach, one of the following must
be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
• Approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown
zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or red side
row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
• Threshold.
• Threshold markings.
• Threshold lights.
• Runway end identifier lights.
• Visual approach slope indicator.
• Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
• Touchdown zone lights.
• Runway or runway markings.
• Runway lights.

A pilot must initiate a missed approach from an ILS upon arrival at the DH on the glide slope if none
of the required visual references is distinctly visible. If visual contact is lost anytime after descending
below the DH but before touchdown, the pilot must start a missed approach.
If a pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach, he/she should
follow the missed approach procedure published for the approach used. The pilot should make an initial
climbing turn toward the landing runway to establish the aircraft on the missed approach course.
An Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) approach is one in which an ATC radar controller provides
directional guidance and distance to the runway information to the pilot. The only airborne equipment
required is an operating radio receiver. The controller will tell the pilot when the aircraft is at the missed
approach point and give missed approach instructions as required. If the pilot desires to execute a missed
approach prior to the missed approach point, he/she should inform the controller, who will then issue
missed approach instructions.
Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) is a high update-rate radar surveillance system, certified to
provide simultaneous independent approaches to closely-spaced parallel runways.
If there is penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), the published approach visibility
can be no lower than 3/4 SM.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 29

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL Answer (B) is incorrect because simultaneous approaches are

9091. What is the difference between a visual and a issued at any time according to ATC needs, and it is not the
responsibility of the pilot to request such an approach. Answer (C)
contact approach? is incorrect because radar monitoring is always provided during
A— A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a simultaneous approaches.
contact approach is a VFR authorization.
B— A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a
ALL
contact approach is initiated by the pilot.
8954. When cleared to execute a published side-step
C— Both are the same but classified according to the
party initiating the approach. maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to com-
mence this maneuver?
Visual approaches are initiated by ATC to reduce pilot/ A— At the published DH.
controller workload and expedite traffic. Pilots operat- B— At the MDA published or a circling approach.
ing on IFR flight plans may request a contact approach C— As soon as possible after the runway
if the appropriate weather conditions exist. (PLT170, environment is in sight.
AA.VI.E.K4) — AIM ¶5-4-22, 5-4-24
Answer (A) is incorrect because both a visual and contact approach Pilots are expected to execute the side-step maneuver
are initiated from an IFR flight plan. Answer (C) is incorrect because as soon as possible after the runway or runway environ-
a visual approach is one in which the pilot has a preceding aircraft or ment is in sight. (PLT083, AA.VI.D.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-19
the airport in sight and can maintain basic VFR weather minimums.
A contact approach is used by a pilot in lieu of conducting a standard Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the side-step maneuver
or special instrument approach to an airport. can only be performed and should be performed as soon as possible
after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

ALL
ATM, ATS, RTC
8953. When simultaneous approaches are in progress,
9438. When cleared to execute a published side-step
how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the
A— On tower frequency. parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to
B— On approach control frequency. commence this maneuver?
C— One pilot on tower frequency and the other on
approach control frequency. A— At the published minimum altitude for a circling
approach.
Whenever simultaneous approaches are in progress, B— As soon as possible after the runway or runway
radar advisories will be provided on the tower frequency. environment is in sight.
(PLT420, AA.VI.C.K3) — AIM ¶5-4-15 C— At the localizer MDA minimums and when the
runway is in sight.
Answer (B) is incorrect because pilots will be advised to monitor the
tower (not approach control) frequency to receive radar advisories
and instructions. Answer (C) is incorrect because both pilots would Pilots are expected to execute the side-step maneuver
receive radar advisories on the tower frequency. as soon as possible after the runway or runway environ-
ment is in sight. (PLT170, AA.VI.E.K4) — AIM ¶5-4-19
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the maneuver should be
ALL started as soon as the runway environment is in sight not at a DH
8955. When simultaneous ILS approaches are in prog- or MDA of an approach.
ress, which of the following should approach control be
advised of immediately?
ALL
A— Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft
9037. While being vectored to the final approach course
receivers.
of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to
B— If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.
published altitudes?
C— If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral
separation. A— Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an
approach chart.
When advised that simultaneous ILS approaches B— When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a
are in progress, pilots shall advise approach control published approach.
immediately of malfunctioning or inoperative receivers C— Only when approach control clears the flight for
or if simultaneous approach is not desired. (PLT170, the approach.
AA.VI.E.K1) — AIM ¶5‑4-15

Answers
9091 [B] 8953 [A] 8955 [A] 8954 [C] 9438 [B] 9037 [C]

6 – 30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

When operating on an unpublished route or while being Answer (A) is incorrect because descent to the procedure turn
radar vectored, the pilot, when approach clearance is altitude can be commenced only when you are established on
that route segment or instrument approach. Answer (C) is incor-
received, in addition to complying with the minimum rect because the pilot does not have to be established on the final
altitudes for IFR operations, shall maintain the last approach course to descend from the last assigned altitude, if
assigned altitude unless a different altitude is assigned established on a published route segment with a specified lower
minimum altitude than the last assigned altitude.
by ATC, or until the aircraft is established on a segment
of published route or IAP. This implies that even if a
radar vector should happen to put a flight on a published ALL
route, the pilot may not descend until cleared for the 9036. What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored
approach. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-7 across the final approach course during an IFR
Answer (A) is incorrect because you may only descend if cleared. approach?
Answer (B) is incorrect because the 10-mile ring has nothing to do
with descent clearance. A— Continue on the last heading issued until
otherwise instructed.
B— Contact approach control, and advise that the
ALL flight is crossing the final approach course.
9383. What action should be taken when a pilot is C— Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the
“cleared for approach” while being radar vectored on flight has proceeded on final.
an unpublished route?
A— Descend to minimum vector altitude. Aircraft will normally be informed when it is necessary
B— Remain at last assigned altitude until established to vector across the final approach course for spacing
on a published route segment. or other reasons. If approach course crossing is immi-
C— Descend to initial approach fix altitude. nent and the pilot has not been informed that he will be
vectored across the final approach course, he should
When operating on an unpublished route or while being query the controller. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-3
radar vectored, the pilot, when an approach clearance is Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot should maintain last head-
received, shall maintain the last altitude assigned until ing issued, but should also advise approach control that the flight is
crossing the final approach course. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the aircraft is established on a segment of a published a pilot should broadcast in the blind that the flight has turned onto
route or instrument approach procedure, unless a dif- final when operating VFR at an uncontrolled airport.
ferent altitude is assigned by ATC. (PLT421, AA.VI.D.K1)
— 14 CFR §91.175
Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot should maintain the last alti- ALL
tude assigned by ATC and should use the minimum vector altitude 9369. If being radar vectored to the final approach
only during lost communication procedures. Answer (C) is incorrect course of a published instrument approach that speci-
because a pilot should maintain the last altitude assigned by ATC.
fies “NO PT,” the pilot should
A— advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be
ALL executed.
9385. What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when B— not execute the procedure turn unless specifically
cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot cleared to do so by ATC.
A— may begin a descent to the procedure turn C— execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.
altitude.
In the case of a radar vector to a final approach course or
B— must maintain the last assigned altitude until
fix, a timed approach from a holding fix, or an ap­­proach
established on a published route or segment of
for which the approach procedure specifies “NoPT,” no
the approach with published altitudes.
pilot may make a procedure turn unless cleared to do
C— may descend from the assigned altitude only
so by ATC. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K2) — 14 CFR §91.175
when established on the final approach course.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a procedure turn is not authorized
or expected to be executed for this instrument approach; therefore,
When operating on an unpublished route or while being advising ATC of your intention to omit a procedure turn is not neces-
radar vectored, the pilot, when an approach clearance is sary. Answer (C) is incorrect because if the published instrument
received, shall maintain the last altitude assigned until approach specifies “NoPT,” you should follow the published proce-
the aircraft is established on a segment of a published dure rather than automatically reverting to a holding-pattern-type
procedure turn.
route or instrument approach procedure, unless a dif-
ferent altitude is assigned by ATC. (PLT421, AA.VI.E.K1)
— 14 CFR §91.175

Answers
9383 [B] 9385 [B] 9036 [B] 9369 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 31

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL RVR minimum may be converted to ground visibility

9021. When the approach procedure involves a proce- using FAA Legend 27. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K1) — 14 CFR
dure turn the maximum speed that should be observed §91.175
from first overheading the course reversal IAF through
the procedure turn is
ALL
A— 180 knots IAS.
9384. Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend
B— 200 knots TAS.
below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach
C— 200 knots IAS.
light system as the primary visual reference for the
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, intended runway?
a maximum speed of not greater than 200 knots (IAS) A— Under no condition can the approach light
should be observed from first overheading the course system serve as a necessary visual reference for
reversal IAF through the procedure turn maneuver, to descent below DH or MDA.
ensure containment within the obstruction clearance B— Descent to the intended runway is authorized as
area. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-9 long as any portion of the approach light system
can be seen.
C— The approach light system can be used as a
ALL visual reference, except that descent below 100
9391. What minimum ground visibility may be used feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars
instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when be visible and identifiable.
that RVR value is not reported?
A— 1/4 SM. A pilot may descend below the MDA or DH using the
B— 3/4 SM. approach light system as the sole visual reference. How-
C— 1/2 SM. ever, the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above
touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) using the approach
RVR minimum may be converted to ground visibility lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars
using FAA Legend 27. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K1) — 14 CFR or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and
§91.175 identifiable. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K1) — 14 CFR §91.175
Answer (A) is incorrect because approach lighting systems can be
used as a reference below the DH or MDA up to 100 feet above
ALL the TDZE, at which point the red terminating bars must be in sight.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the approach lighting system can
9392. The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for only be used to within 100 feet of the TDZE, at which point the red
the runway of intended operation is not reported. What side row bars must be in sight.
minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the
RVR value?
ALL
A— 3/8 SM.
8726. (Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required
B— 5/8 SM.
C— 3/4 SM. minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L
approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane
RVR minimum may be converted to ground visibility with no MEL items?
using FAA Legend 27. (PLT420, AA.VI.D.K1) — 14 CFR A— Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400.
§91.175 B— Ceiling 300 feet minimum.
C— Visibility 1800 RVR.
ALL The approach plates notes a minimum RVR of 1800
9393. The visibility criteria for a particular instrument in the top left portion of the approach plate. (PLT420,
approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground AA.VI.E.K1) — Instrument Approach Procedures
visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?
A— 5/8 SM.
B— 3/4 SM.
C— 7/8 SM.

Answers
9021 [C] 9391 [A] 9392 [B] 9393 [B] 9384 [C] 8726 [C]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9368. When must the pilot initiate a missed approach 9041. When may a pilot execute a missed approach
procedure from an ILS approach? during an ASR approach?
A— At the DA/DH when the runway is not clearly A— Anytime at the pilot’s discretion.
visible. B— Only at the MAP.
B— When the time has expired after reaching the DA/ C— Only when advised by the controller.
DH and the runway environment is not clearly
visible. Controllers will terminate guidance on an ASR approach
C— At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the and instruct the pilot to execute a missed approach
intended runway are not distinctly visible or unless at the MAP, the pilot has the runway or airport in
anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost. sight. Also, if at any time during an ASR approach the
controller considers that safe guidance for the remainder
A pilot must initiate a missed approach procedure from of the approach cannot be provided, he will terminate
an ILS approach at the DA/DH, if the required visual the approach and instruct the pilot to execute a missed
references for intended runway are not distinctly visible approach. A missed approach will also be effected upon
or anytime thereafter if visual reference is lost. (PLT420, pilot request. (PLT420, AA.VI.I.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-10
AA.VI.I.K1) — 14 CFR §91.175 Answer (B) is incorrect because the controller will instruct the pilot
Answer (A) is incorrect because the runway itself does not have to to execute a missed approach at the MAP or anytime during the
be visible at the DA/DH to continue with the approach; a pilot may approach that the controller considers that safe guidance cannot
use the required visual references. Answer (B) is incorrect because be provided. Answer (C) is incorrect because a missed approach
as soon as the DA/DH is reached on an ILS approach, regardless of will be effected upon pilot request.
the elapsed time, a missed approach procedure should be executed
if visual references are not obtained, or any time thereafter that
visual reference is lost. ALL
9090-1. If visual reference is lost while circling to land
from an instrument approach, what action(s) should
ALL
the pilot take?
9382. Assuming that all ILS components are operating
and the required visual references are not acquired, the A— Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway
missed approach should be initiated upon until established on the missed approach course.
B— Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA,
A— arrival at the DH on the glide slope. and if visual reference is not regained, perform
B— arrival at the visual descent point. missed approach.
C— expiration of the time listed on the approach chart C— Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and
for missed approach. request further instructions.
A pilot must initiate a missed approach procedure from If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an
an ILS approach at the DH, if the required visual refer- instrument approach, the missed approach specified for
ences for intended runway are not distinctly visible or that particular procedure must be followed. To become
any time thereafter if visual reference is lost. (PLT356, established on the prescribed missed approach course,
AA.VI.I.K1) — 14 CFR §91.175 the pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward
Answer (B) is incorrect because a visual descent point is a point in the landing runway and continue the turn until he is
which an aircraft operating visually can descend from a specified
altitude to the runway and land. If on an ILS approach and no visual established on the missed approach course. (PLT170,
flight is encountered, a missed approach should be executed at the AA.VI.D.R6) — AIM ¶5-4-21
DH. Answer (C) is incorrect because time listed on the approach Answer (B) is incorrect because while turning toward the runway,
chart is used only if the glide slope were to fail. If the aircraft reaches a climbing turn should be established. Answer (C) is incorrect
the DH prior to the time listed on the chart, the pilot should execute because a pilot should make a climbing turn toward the runway
a missed approach. to ensure obstacle clearance while becoming established on the
missed approach course.

Answers
9368 [C] 9382 [A] 9041 [A] 9090-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 33

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL The visibility published on an approach chart is depen-

9090-2. Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is dent on many variables, including the height above
A— an airborne RADAR system for monitoring touchdown for straight-in approaches, or height above
approaches to two runways. airport elevation for circling approaches. Other factors
B— a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to include the approach light system coverage, and type
closely spaced parallel runways. of approach procedure, such as precision, nonpreci-
C— a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring sion, circling or straight-in. Another factor determining
multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single the minimum visibility is the penetration of the 34:1
runway. and 20:1 surfaces. These surfaces are inclined planes
that begin 200 feet out from the runway and extend
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is a high update- outward to 10,000 feet. If there is a penetration of the
rate radar surveillance system, certified to provide 34:1 surface, the published visibility can be no lower
simultaneous independent approaches to closely than 3/4 SM. If there is penetration of the 20:1 surface,
spaced parallel runways. (PLT172, AA.VI.E.K2) — FAA- the published visibility can be no lower than 1 SM with
H-8083-16 a note prohibiting approaches to the affected runway
Answer (A) is incorrect because PRM is not an airborne radar at night (both straight-in and circling). Pilots should be
system; it is ground based. Answer (C) is incorrect because PRM aware of these penetrating obstacles when entering
monitors simultaneous approaches to two closely spaced parallel the visual and/or circling segments of an approach
runways.
and take adequate precautions to avoid them. (PLT170,
AA.VI.E.K3) — FAA-H-8083-16
ALL Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because a VASI or VDP are not
indicators to a possible penetration of the OIS.
9760. Precision runway monitoring requires
A— pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous
radios. ALL
B— pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers. 9738. To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV
C— detailed performance during the “decision minimums, the aircraft must be furnished with
region”: 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope. A— a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV
approach by the AFM supplement.
The aircraft flying the ILS/PRM or LDA/PRM approach
B— a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certified for IFR
must have the capability of enabling the pilots to listen
operations.
to two communications frequencies simultaneously.
C— an IFR approach-certified system with required
(PLT172, AA.VI.E.K2) — AIM ¶5-4-16
navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.

“LPV” is the acronym for localizer performance with

ALL
vertical guidance. LPV identifies the APV minimums
9090-3. How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway
with electronic lateral and vertical guidance. The lateral
equipped with MALSR, that there may be penetration
guidance is equivalent to localizer, and the protected
of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care
area is considerably smaller than the protected area
should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any
for the present LNAV and LNAV/VNAV lateral protec-
obstacles?
tion. Aircraft can fly this minima line with a statement in
A— The runway has a visual approach slope indicator the Aircraft Flight Manual that the installed equipment
(VASI). supports LPV approaches. This includes Class 3 and 4
B— The published visibility for the ILS is no lower TSO-C146 WAAS equipment, and future LAAS equip-
than 3/4 SM. ment. (PLT354, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM ¶5-4-5
C—The approach chart has a visual descent point
(VDP) published.

Answers
9090-2 [B] 9760 [A] 9090-3 [B] 9738 [A]

6 – 34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ATM, ADX

9744. Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV 8279. Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot
or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the proce- continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiv-
dure name from ing a weather report indicating that less than minimum
A— the aircraft navigation database, or manually published landing conditions exist at the airport?
loaded with each individual waypoint in the A— If the instrument approach is conducted in a
correct sequence. radar environment.
B— the aircraft navigation database, or manually B— When the weather report is received as the pilot
loaded with each individual waypoint and verified passes the FAF.
by the pilot(s). C— When the weather report is received after the
C— the aircraft navigation database. pilot has begun the final approach segment of the
instrument approach.
Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP
procedure (instrument approach, departure, or arrival If a pilot has begun the final approach segment of
procedure) unless it is retrievable by the procedure name an instrument approach procedure with the reported
from the aircraft navigation database and conforms to weather at or above landing minimums and later receives
the charted procedure. (PLT354, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM a report indicating below minimum conditions, he may
¶5-5-16 continue the approach to DH or MDA. The pilot may land
from that approach if he discovers that the visibility is
at least that required by the approach, he/she has the
ALL required visual references in sight and a normal descent
9744-1. GBAS approaches are and landing can be made. (PLT420, AA.VI.E.R7) — 14
A— flown using the same techniques as an ILS once CFR §121.651
selected and identified.
B— flown the same as an LDA with glide slope tuning
ALL
and identification.
C— automatically tuned and displayed after selection 9817. When executing a stabilized approach, you
of the three character procedure identifier. should use
A— no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a
GBAS is a ground-based augmentation to GPS that non-precision or precision approach from 1,000
focuses its service on the airport area (approximately feet above the airport or TDZE.
a 20-30 mile radius) for precision approach, departure B— no more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach
procedures, and terminal area operations. GBAS is or 1200 FPM for a non-precision approach.
the ICAO term for Local Area Augmentation System C— no more than 800 FPM for a non-precision
(LAAS). LAAS was developed as an “ILS look-alike” approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.
system from the pilot perspective. (PLT354, AA.VI.E.K2)
— AIM ¶1-1-19 For all straight-in-instrument approaches in IFR weather
conditions, the approach must be stabilized (descent rate
of less than 1,000 fpm) before descending below 1,000
ALL feet above the airport or TDZE. (PLT420, AA.VI.E.S12)
9773. Pilots are responsible for knowing — FAA-H-8083-16
A— if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc
at a designated airspeed.
B— if the RNP missed approach is normal or
reduced.
C— if the RNP registration is complete.

Some RNP approaches have a curved path, also called

a radius-to-a-fix (RF) leg. Since not all aircraft have
the capability to fly these arcs, pilots are responsible
for knowing whether or not they can conduct an RNP
approach with an arc. (PLT300, AA.VI.D.K2) — AIM
¶5-4-18

Answers
9744 [C] 9744-1 [A] 9773 [A] 8279 [C] 9817 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 35

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ATS ALL

9817-1. You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet 8736. (Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio
above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in represent?
a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when A— Displaced threshold.
the airplane is B— Final approach fix.
A— fully configured and on the correct speed with a C— Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).
descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM.
B— fully configured with the engines spooled up and The obstacle clearance surface (OCS). The OCS used
a descent rate of no more than 500 FPM. to evaluate the missed approach is a 20:1 inclined plane.
C— at least partially configured and on the correct This surface is twice as steep for the helicopter as the
speed with a descent rate of no more than 1,200 OCS used to evaluate the airplane missed approach
FPM. segment. (PLT170, AA.VI.E.K1) — FAA-H-8083-16

For all straight-in-instrument approaches in IFR weather

conditions, the approach must be stabilized (descent rate
of less than 1,000 FPM) before descending below 1,000
feet above the airport or TDZE (PLT170, AA.VI.E.K4) —
FAA-H-8083-16

Landing
Except for emergencies, the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower controlled airport is on “first-
come, first-served” basis. When landing at a tower controlled airport, an aircraft should exit the runway at
the first suitable taxiway and remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. The aircraft
should not turn onto any other taxiway unless a clearance to do so has been received.
If a flight is making an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport, radar service will be terminated when
the aircraft lands or when the controller tells the pilot to change to advisory frequency. After changing
to the advisory frequency, the pilot should broadcast his/her intentions and continually update position
reports. The advisory frequency will be an FSS frequency, or if there is no FSS on the field, a UNICOM
frequency.
ATC furnishes pilot braking action reports using the terms good, good to medium, medium, medium
to poor, poor, or nil. If you give a braking action report to ATC, you should use the same terminology.
See Figure 6-4.

ALL ALL
9092. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot 9044. What action is expected of an aircraft upon land-
expect landing priority? ing at a controlled airport?
A— When cleared for an IFR approach. A— Continue taxiing in the landing direction until
B— When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. advised by the tower to switch to ground control
C— In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis. frequency.
B— Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway
Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft, regardless and remain on tower frequency until instructed
of the type of flight plan, on a “first-come, first-served” otherwise.
basis. (PLT170, AA.VI.E.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-25 C— Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway
Answer (A) is incorrect because a clearance for an IFR approach and switch to ground control upon crossing the
does not mean landing priority will be given over other traffic. taxiway holding lines.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a large, heavy aircraft will be
sequenced for landing on a first-come, first-served basis, with no
special priority over other traffic.

Answers
9817-1 [A] 8736 [C] 9092 [C] 9044 [B]

6 – 36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Assessment Criteria Control/Braking Assessment Criteria

Deceleration or Directional Control Pilot Reported
Runway Condition Description RwyCC
Observation Braking Action
• Dry 6 — —
• Frost
• Wet (Includes damp and 1/8 inch depth or less of water)
Braking deceleration is normal for
1/8 inch (3 mm) depth or less of: 5 the wheel braking effort applied AND Good
• Slush directional control is normal.
• Dry Snow
• Wet Snow
-15°C and Colder outside air temperature: Braking deceleration OR directional
4 Good to Medium
• Compacted Snow control is between Good and Medium.
• Slippery When Wet (wet runway)
• Dry Snow or Wet Snow (any depth) over Compacted Snow
Braking deceleration is noticeably
Greater than 1/8 inch (3 mm) depth of:
reduced for the wheel braking effort
• Dry Snow 3 Medium
applied OR directional control is
• Wet Snow
noticeably reduced.
Warmer than -15°C outside air temperature:
• Compacted Snow
Greater than 1/8 inch (3 mm) depth of:
Braking deceleration OR directional
• Water 2 Medium to Poor
control is between Medium and Poor.
• Slush
Braking deceleration is significantly
reduced for the wheel braking effort
• Ice 1 Poor
applied OR directional control is
significantly reduced.
• Wet Ice Braking deceleration is minimal to
• Slush over Ice non-existent for the wheel braking
0 Nil
• Water over Compacted Snow effort applied OR directional control is
• Dry Snow or Wet Snow over Ice uncertain.

Figure 6-4. Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM)

After landing, unless otherwise instructed by the control ALL

tower, continue to taxi in the landing direction, proceed 9038. When is radar service terminated while vectored
to the nearest suitable taxiway and exit the runway for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?
without delay. Do not turn on another runway or make A— Only upon landing or advised to change to
a 180° turn to taxi back on an active runway or change advisory frequency.
to ground control frequency while on the active runway B— When aligned on the final approach course.
without authorization from the tower. A pilot who has just C— When cleared for the approach.
landed should not change from the tower frequency to
the ground control frequency until he is directed to do so Whether aircraft are vectored to the appropriate final
by the controller. (PLT434, AA.VI.C.K3) — AIM ¶4-3-20 approach course or provide their own navigation
Answer (A) is incorrect because upon landing, the pilot should exit on published routes to it, radar service is automati-
the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway to clear the runway for cally terminated when the landing is completed or
other traffic. Answer (C) is incorrect because while the crossing of
the taxiway hold lines indicates clearing of the active runway, a pilot
when instructed to change to advisory frequency at
should not switch to ground control until directed to do so by the uncontrolled airports, whichever occurs first. (PLT420,
controller. Switching without permission may be confusing to ATC. AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶5-4-3
Answer (B) is incorrect because when established on the final
approach course, radar separation will be maintained and the pilot
is expected to complete the approach utilizing the approach aid
designated in the clearance (ILS, VOR, etc.). Answer (C) is incor-
rect because when cleared for the approach, approach control will
continue to maintain radar separation and the pilot is expected to
complete the approach utilizing the approach aid designated in the
clearance (ILS, VOR, etc.).

Answers
9038 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 37

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9039. When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncon- 9055-1. A runway condition code (RwyCC) will not be
trolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the issued by ATC if all three segments of a runway are
pilot take after being advised to change to advisory reporting values of
frequency? A— 0.
A— Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as B— 5.
UNICOM. C— 6.
B— Broadcast position and intentions on the
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor When a value of 6 is reported for all three segments
the frequency. of a runway, ATC will not issue a RwyCC and the pilot
C— Wait until visual contact is made with the airport can expect the runway to be dry with no contaminants.
and then broadcast position and intentions to (PLT144, AA.I.B.K9) — AIM ¶4-3-9
land on UNICOM.

When making an IFR approach to an airport not served ALL

by a tower or FSS, after the ATC controller advises, 9055-2. What information does a FICON NOTAM pro-
“CHANGE TO ADVISORY FREQUENCY APPROVED” vide for a paved runway?
you should broadcast your intentions, including the A— Contaminant measurements.
type of approach being executed, your position, and B— Braking action.
when you are over the outer marker or final approach C— Contaminant measurements and braking action.
fix. Continue to monitor the appropriate frequency
(UNICOM, etc.) for reports from other pilots. (PLT170, FICON NOTAMS will provide contaminant measure-
AA.VI.E.K3) — AIM ¶5-4-4 ments for paved runways, but a FICON NOTAM for
Answer (A) is incorrect because after ATC advises the pilot to braking action will only be used for non-paved runway
change to advisory frequency, ATC will no longer be able to provide surfaces, taxiways, and aprons. (PLT144, AA.I.B.K9)
traffic advisories. Answer (C) is incorrect because a pilot should — AIM ¶4-3-8
always broadcast intentions and continually update position reports
on UNICOM, not wait until visual contact is made with airport.

ALL
ALL 9055-3. A Runway Condition Code (RwyCC) of 0 is
9055. What terms or values should be used when pro- used to delineate a braking action report of
viding a quality of braking action report to ATC? A— Good.
A— Good, Medium, Poor, and Nil. B— Nil.
B— Good, Good to Medium, Medium, Medium to C— Poor.
Poor, Poor, and Nil.
C— 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. Nil indicates a RwyCC of 0. (PLT144, AA.I.B.K9) — AIM
¶4-3-9
Pilots should use these terms when providing a braking Answer (A) is incorrect because the RwyCC for Good is 5. Answer
action report: good, good to medium, medium, medium (C) is incorrect because the RwyCC for Poor is 1.
to poor, poor, and nil. (PLT144, AA.I.B.K9) — AIM ¶4-3-9
Answer (A) is incorrect because it is missing some of the descriptive ATM, ATS, ADX
terms. Answer (C) is incorrect because numbers 0 through 6 are
used in runway condition reports. 9005-1. A landing weight increase of 10% will result in
a landing distance increase of approximately
A— 7%.
B— 10%.
C— 15%.

The minimum landing distance will vary directly as the

gross weight varies. For example, a 10% increase in
gross weight at landing would cause a 5% increase in
landing velocity and a 10% increase in landing distance.
(PLT247, AA.I.B.K3f) — ANA

Answers
9039 [B] 9055 [B] 9055-1 [C] 9055-2 [A] 9055-3 [B] 9005-1 [B]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ATS, ADX As an example of measuring the effectiveness of aircraft

9005-2. A landing weight increase of 10% will result in brakes, a 30,000-pound aircraft landing at 175 knots
A— 7% increase in kinetic energy. has a kinetic energy of 41,000,000 ft-lbs at the instant
B— 21% increase in kinetic energy. of touchdown. While a 10% increase in landing weight
C— 33% increase in kinetic energy. causes a 5% higher landing speed and a 10% greater
landing distance, it also produces a 21% increase in the
kinetic energy of the airplane to be dissipated during
the landing roll. (PLT247, AA.I.B.K3f) — ANA

Communications
The “Sterile Cockpit” Rule: Regulations say only those duties required for the safe operation of the air-
craft are allowed during critical phases of flight. Critical phases of flight are defined as climb and descent
when below 10,000 feet, taxi, takeoff, and landing. Excluded from the definition of critical phase of flight
are any operations at or above 10,000 feet and cruise flight below 10,000 feet. Activities which are pro-
hibited during critical phases of flight include filling out logs, ordering galley supplies, making passenger
announcements or pointing out sights of interest. Activities such as eating meals or engaging in nones-
sential conversations are also prohibited.
The following should be reported without ATC request:
• Vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.
• An altitude change when operating under a VFR-On-Top clearance.
• When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
• When an approach has been missed.
• A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%, whichever is greater.
• The time and altitude (or Flight Level) upon reaching a holding fix or clearance limit.
• When leaving an assigned holding fix or point.
• The malfunction of navigation, approach or communication equipment.
• Any information pertaining to the safety of flight.

In addition to the reports listed above, when not in radar contact a pilot must report:
• When over designated compulsory reporting points.
• When leaving the final approach fix inbound on an instrument approach.
• When it becomes apparent that an estimate of arrival time over a fix is in error by more than 3 minutes.

Occasionally an ATC controller will query a pilot about the aircraft’s altitude or course. For example, a
controller says “Verify 9000,” meaning he/she wants confirmation that the aircraft is at 9,000 feet altitude.
If the aircraft is not at that altitude, the pilot should reply, “Negative, maintaining 8,000 as assigned.” No
climb or descent should be started unless specifically assigned by the controller.
Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by repeat-
ing the alphabetical code used appended to the broadcast. For example, “Information Sierra received.”

Answers
9005-2 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 39

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8854. What report should the pilot make at a clear- 9015. Which reports are required when operating IFR
ance limit? in radar environment?
A— Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. A— Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to
B— Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a
speed. holding fix or point to which cleared.
C— Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding B— Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable
speed, and inbound leg length. to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching
a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a
Pilots should report to ATC the time and altitude/flight change in average true airspeed exceeding 5
level at which the aircraft reaches the clearance limit, percent or 10 knots.
and report when leaving the clearance limit. (PLT171, C— Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min,
AA.II.D.K2) — AIM ¶5-3-2 time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to
Answer (B) is incorrect because ATC does not need the expected which cleared, a change in average true airspeed
holding speed reported since it will be below the maximum holding exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any
airspeed. For all aircraft between MHA and 6,000 feet MSL, holding
speed is 200 KIAS; for all aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet
assigned holding fix or point.
MSL, holding speed is 230 KIAS; for all aircraft 14,001 feet MSL
and above, holding speed is 265 KIAS. For turbojet airplanes, the The following reports should be made to ATC or FSS
maximum holding airspeed is 230 knots IAS from minimum holding facilities without specific ATC request:
altitude to 14,000 feet. Answer (C) is incorrect because inbound leg
lengths are set by time or DME distance. At or below 14,000 feet 1. Vacating any previously assigned altitude.
MSL there is a 1-minute inbound leg. Above 14,000 feet MSL the
inbound leg is 1-1/2 minutes. 2. Making an altitude change when VFR-On-Top.
3. Unable to climb or descend at least 500 feet per
minute.
ALL
9014. Where are position reports required on an IFR 4. Making a missed approach.
flight on airways or routes? 5. Changing true airspeed from flight plan by 5% or 10
A— Over all designated compulsory reporting points. knots (whichever is greater).
B— Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. 6. Time and altitude of reaching a clearance holding
C— When requested to change altitude or advise of fix or point.
weather conditions. 7. Leaving any holding fix.
A position report is required by all flights regardless of (PLT171, AA.VI.C.K3) — AIM ¶5-3-3
altitude over each designated compulsory reporting Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because position reports are not
point along the route being flown. required in a radar environment.
Note: When the controller states “radar contact,”
this requirement is removed. However, the question
ALL
states nothing about being in “radar contact.” (PLT421,
9016. Which reports are always required when on an
AA.II.D.K2) — AIM ¶5-3-2
IFR approach not in radar contact?
Answer (B) is incorrect because the “on request” reporting point is
indicated on enroute charts by an open triangle. Reports passing an A— Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound
“on request” reporting point are only necessary when requested by and missed approach.
ARTCC. Answer (C) is incorrect because pilots in IFR are expected
to report weather conditions which have not been forecast, or haz-
B— Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker
ardous conditions which have been forecast. inbound or outbound, and missed approach.
C— Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker
inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound
and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

The following reports should be made when not in

radar contact:
1. When over designated compulsory reporting points
2. When leaving the final approach fix inbound

Answers
8854 [A] 9014 [A] 9015 [C] 9016 [A]

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 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

3. When it becomes apparent that an ETA is in error ALL

by more than 3 minutes. 9022-1. While holding short for an intersection takeoff
runway 36 at taxiway C, tower clears you to “line up and
(PLT171, AA.VI.C.K3) — AIM ¶5-3-3
wait runway 36.” You should
Answer (B) is incorrect because a pilot is required to report leaving
the outer marker inbound on final approach. Answer (C) is incorrect A— line up and wait for takeoff on taxiway C.
because a pilot is not required to report leaving the outer marker B— line up and wait on runway 36 at intersection C
outbound, the execution of a procedure turn, and/or visual contact
with the runway.
for departure.
C— hold short and advise tower that you are at
intersection C short of runway 36.
ALL
9013. What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC “Line up and wait” is an ATC phrase used to instruct
to “VERIFY 9,000” and the flight is actually maintaining pilots to taxi onto the departure runway, line up, and
8,000? wait for imminent departure. (PLT171, AA.II.C.K2) —
AIM Chapter 5
A— Immediately climb to 9,000.
B— Report climbing to 9,000.
C— Report maintaining 8,000. ATM, ADX
8297. Except when in cruise flight, below what altitude
At times controllers will ask pilots to verify that they are are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew-
at a particular altitude. Pilots should confirm that they members prohibited?
are at the altitude stated. If this is not the case, they
should inform the controller of the actual altitude being A— 10,000 feet.
maintained. Pilots should not take action to change their B— 14,500 feet.
actual altitude to the altitude stated in the controller’s C— FL180.
verification request unless the controller specifically
No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight
authorizes a change. (PLT171, AA.II.D.K2) — AIM ¶5-3-1
crewmember perform, any duties during a critical phase
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because pilots should not take
action to change their actual altitude to the altitude stated in the
of flight except those duties required for the safe opera-
controller’s verification request unless the controller specifically tion of the aircraft. For purposes of this section, critical
authorizes a change. phases of flight include all ground operations involving
taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations
conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
ALL (PLT430, AA.I.E.K8) — 14 CFR §121.542
9022. Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact
that they have received the ATIS broadcast by
A— stating “Have Numbers”.
B— stating “Have Weather”.
C— repeating the alphabetical code word appended
to the broadcast.

Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that

they have received the ATIS broadcast by repeating
the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.
For example, “Information Sierra received.” (PLT196,
AA.VI.C.K3) — AIM ¶4-1-13

Answers
9013 [C] 9022 [C] 9022-1 [B] 8297 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 41

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ADX ALL

8298. With regard to flight crewmember duties, which 8298-1. When is the pilot responsible to see and avoid
of the following operations are considered to be in the other traffic, terrain, or obstacles?
“critical phase of flight”? A— ATC maintains responsibility if the pilot is
A— Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations operating under IFR.
conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including B— When meteorological conditions permit,
cruise flight. regardless of flight rules.
B— Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, C— When they have accepted an instruction to
irrespective of altitudes MSL. “maintain visual separation.”
C— Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations
conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether
flight. an operation is conducted under IFR or VFR, vigilance
shall be maintained by each person operating an air-
No certificate holder shall require, nor may any flight craft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. (PLT029,
crewmember perform, any duties during a critical phase AA.VI.C.K3) — 14 CFR §91.113
of flight except those duties required for the safe opera-
tion of the aircraft. For purposes of this section, critical
phases of flight include all ground operations involving
taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations
conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
(PLT029, AA.I.E.K8) — 14 CFR §121.542
Answer (A) is incorrect because critical phase of flight includes all
operations (except cruise flight) below 10,000 feet. Answer (B) is
incorrect because 14,500 feet is the base of Class E airspace (if
not set lower).

Speed Adjustments
ATC controllers often issue speed adjustments to radar controlled aircraft to achieve or maintain the
desired separation. The following minimum speeds are usually observed:
• Turbine-powered aircraft below 10,000 feet: 210 knots.
• Turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport: 230 knots.

If an ATC controller assigns a speed which is too fast or too slow for the operating limitations of the
aircraft under the existing circumstances, the pilot should advise ATC of the speed that will be used. The
controller will then issue instructions based on that speed.
Because of the great differences in speed and operating characteristics of helicopters and airplanes,
they are usually assigned different routing. Occasionally, larger/faster helicopters are integrated with
fixed-wing aircraft. These situations could occur on IFR flights, routes that avoid noise-sensitive areas,
or when the helicopter is assigned runways or taxiways to avoid downwash in congested areas.

Answers
8298 [C] 8298-1 [B]

6 – 42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9094. When a speed adjustment is necessary to 9096. If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not
maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action
request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below must the pilot take?
10,000 feet? A— Maintain an airspeed within the operating
A— 200 knots. limitations as close to the requested speed as
B— 210 knots. possible.
C— 250 knots. B— Attempt to use the requested speed as long as
possible, then request a reasonable airspeed
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain from ATC.
separation, the minimum airspeed for a turbine-powered C— Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.
aircraft operated below 10,000 feet is 210 knots. (PLT161,
AA.I.E.K10) — AIM ¶4-4-12 The pilots retain the prerogative of rejecting the applica-
Answer (A) is incorrect because 200 knots is the maximum air- tion of speed adjustment by ATC if the minimum safe
speed of any airplane operating within Class C or D airspace, a airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the
VFR-designated corridor through Class B airspace, or in airspace speed adjustment. In such cases, the pilots are expected
underlying Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because 250
knots is the maximum airspeed of any airplane operating below to advise ATC of the speed that will be used. (PLT172,
10,000 feet MSL. AA.I.E.K10) — AIM ¶4-4-12
Answer (A) is incorrect because while a pilot should maintain at least
the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation, a pilot is
ALL expected to advise ATC of the airspeed being used when it differs
from ATC’s requested speed adjustment. Answer (B) is incorrect
9094-1. When ATC assigns a speed adjustment to
because a pilot who uses an airspeed that is not within the operating
an aircraft operating at FL270, it will be at a speed not limits of the airplane is not only in violation of regulations, but is also
less than risking the safety of all on board the airplane. A pilot must operate
the airplane in a safe manner and advise ATC of the airspeed that
A— 250 knots. will be used.
B— 210 knots.
C— 200 knots.
RTC
When ATC assigns speed adjustments to aircraft operat- 9042. Under what situations are faster/larger helicopters
ing between FL280 and 10,000 feet, it will be to a speed integrated with fixed-wing aircraft?
not less than 250 knots or the equivalent Mach number.
A— IFR flights, noise avoidance routes, and use of
(PLT161, AA.VI.C.K3) — AIM ¶4-4-12
runways or taxiways.
B— Use of taxiways, sequencing for takeoff and
ALL landing, and use of the same traffic patterns.
9095. When a speed adjustment is necessary to main- C— Use of taxiways, sequencing for takeoff and
tain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request landing, and use of the same loading ramps.
of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?
There will be situations where faster/larger helicopters
A— 188 knots. may be integrated with fixed-wing aircraft. These include
B— 210 knots. IFR flights, avoidance of noise-sensitive areas, or use
C— 230 knots. of runway/taxiways to minimize the hazardous effects
of rotor downwash in congested areas. (PLT434) — AIM
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain ¶4-3-17
separation, the minimum airspeed for a turbine-powered
aircraft on departure is 230 knots. (PLT161, AA.I.E.K10)
— AIM ¶4‑4-12
Answer (A) is incorrect because 188 knots is not an applicable
airspeed for any ATC operation. All airspeeds used by ATC/regula-
tions are expressed in 10-knot increments. Answer (B) is incorrect
because it is the minimum airspeed that ATC can request of a
turbine-powered airplane operating below 10,000 feet, excluding
departing airplanes.

Answers
9094 [B] 9094-1 [A] 9095 [C] 9096 [C] 9042 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 43

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Holding
Holding may be necessary when ATC is unable to clear a flight to its destination. VORs, nondirectional
beacons, airway intersections, and DME fixes may all be used as holding points. Flying a holding pattern
involves two turns and two straight-and-level legs as shown in Figure 6-5.
At and below 14,000 feet MSL (no wind), the aircraft flies the specified course inbound to the fix,
turns to the right 180°, flies a parallel course outbound for 1 minute, again turns 180° to the right, and
flies 1 minute inbound to the fix. Above 14,000 feet MSL, the inbound leg length is 1-1/2 minutes. If a
nonstandard pattern is to be flown, ATC will specify left turns.
When 3 minutes or less from the holding fix, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so as to
cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed. For all aircraft between MHA (minimum holding
altitude) and 6,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 200 KIAS. For all aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet
MSL, holding speed is 230 KIAS. For all aircraft 14,001 feet MSL and above, holding speed is 265 KIAS.
Exceptions to these speeds will be indicated by an icon.
The aircraft is in a holding pattern as of the initial time of arrival over the fix, and that time should be
reported to ATC. The initial outbound leg is flown for 1 minute at or below 14,000 feet MSL. Subsequently,
timing of the outbound leg should be adjusted as necessary to arrive at the proper inbound leg length.
Timing of the outbound leg begins over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position
cannot be determined, start timing when the turn to outbound is completed. The same entry and holding
procedures apply to DME holding, except distance in nautical miles are used to establish leg length.
The FAA has three recommended methods for entering a holding pattern, as shown in Figure 6-6.
An aircraft approaching from within sector (A) would fly a parallel entry by turning left to parallel the
outbound course, making another left turn to remain in protected airspace, and returning to the holding
fix. Aircraft approaching from sector (B) would fly a teardrop entry, by flying outbound on a track of 30°
or less to the holding course, and then making a right turn to intercept the holding course inbound to the
fix. Those approaching from within sector (C) would fly a direct entry by turning right to fly the pattern.
If the holding pattern is charted, the controller may omit all holding instructions, except the holding
direction and the statement “as published.” Pilots are expected to hold in the pattern depicted even if it
means crossing the clearance limit. If the holding pattern to be used is not depicted on charts, ATC will
issue general holding instructions. The holding clearance will include the following information: direction
of holding from the fix in terms of the eight cardinal compass points; holding fix; radial, course, bearing,
airway, or route on which the aircraft is to hold; leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used; direction
of turn if left turns are to be made; time to expect
further clearance and any pertinent additional
delay information.

Figure 6-5 Figure 6-6

6 – 44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL For all aircraft between MHA (minimum holding altitude)

8853. What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes and 6,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 200 KIAS. For
of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been all aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet MSL, hold-
received? ing speed is 230 KIAS. For all aircraft 14,000 feet MSL
A— Assume lost communications and continue as and above, holding speed is 265 KIAS. Exceptions to
planned. these speeds will be indicated by an icon. (PLT296,
B— Plan to hold at cruising speed until further AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5‑3-7
clearance is received.
C— Start a speed reduction to holding speed in
ALL
preparation for holding.
8857. Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet air-
When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance craft at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000
limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been and 14,000 feet is
received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduc- A— 265 knots.
tion so that he will cross the fix, initially, at or below B— 230 knots.
the maximum holding airspeed. (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) C— 200 knots.
— AIM ¶5-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because if two-way communications are lost, The following are exceptions to the maximum holding
the pilot is required to hold at the clearance limit in a standard pat- airspeeds: Holding patterns at Navy fields only 230
tern on the course that was used to approach the fix. If an expected KIAS maximum, unless otherwise depicted. (PLT296,
further clearance time was received, plan on leaving the fix at that
time. If none was given and the fix is an IAF, plan your arrival as
AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7
close as possible to the estimated time of arrival. Answer (B) is
incorrect because cruising speed may be greater than maximum
holding speed. ALL
9418. What is the maximum holding speed for a civil
turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL,
ALL unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or
8855. The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane icing and ATC is notified?
may hold at is
A— 265 knots.
A— 265 knots. B— 230 knots.
B— 230 knots. C— 250 knots.
C— 156 knots.
For all aircraft between MHA (minimum holding altitude)
For all aircraft between MHA and 6,000 feet MSL, hold- and 6,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 200 KIAS. For
ing speed is 200 KIAS. For all aircraft between 6,001 all aircraft between 6,001 and 14,000 feet MSL, hold-
and 14,000 feet MSL, holding speed is 230 KIAS. For ing speed is 230 KIAS. For all aircraft 14,000 feet MSL
all aircraft 14,000 feet MSL and above, holding speed is and above, holding speed is 265 KIAS. Exceptions to
265 KIAS. Exceptions to these speeds will be indicated these speeds will be indicated by an icon. (PLT296,
by an icon. Since this question does not specify what AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5‑3-7
altitude the airplane is holding at, both answers (A) and
(B) are correct. Choosing either of these will result in a
correct response. (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7 ALL
9419. Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet
at a military or joint civil/military use airports should
ALL expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?
8856. Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane
above 14,000 feet is A— 250 knots.
B— 260 knots.
A— 210 knots. C— 230 knots.
B— 230 knots.
C— 265 knots. Aircraft holding at military or joint civil/military use air-
ports should expect to operate at a maximum holding
pattern airspeed of 230 knots up to and including 14,000
feet. (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7

Answers
8853 [C] 8855 [A] or [B] 8856 [C] 8857 [B] 9418 [A] 9419 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 45

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL Answer (A) is incorrect because an initial outbound leg of 1 minute

8858. When using a flight director system, what rate of should be used only when below 14,000 feet. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a DME distance is issued only by the specified controller
turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns for aircraft equipped with DME capability. A DME distance is not
in a holding pattern? required unless specified by the controller.
A— 3° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
B— 3° per second or 30° bank, whichever is less.
ATM, ATS, RTC
C— 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less.
8861. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC
When making turns in the holding pattern, use whichever clearance:
of the following requires the least angle of bank: “…HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO
1. 3° per second; NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…”
2. 30° bank angle; or What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold-
ing pattern?
3. 25° bank provided a flight director system is used.
A— Parallel only.
(PLT047, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7 B— Direct only.
C— Teardrop only.
ALL
Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
8859. When holding at an NDB, at what point should
the holding fix and dragging it on the holding radial given
the timing begin for the second leg outbound? by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
A— Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified.
level after completing the turn to the outbound Holding east on the 090° radial with left turns means
heading, whichever occurs first. you will be south of R-090.
B— At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after The entry procedure is based on the aircraft’s head-
station passage. ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
C— When abeam the holding fix. a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
Outbound leg timing begins over or abeam the holding heading of 055°, we are in the middle-size piece of pie,
fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot so a parallel entry would be used. See the figure below.
be determined, start timing when the turn to outbound (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7
is complete. (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7 Answer (B) is incorrect because a direct entry would be appropriate
Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot should start the timing if you were coming in on R-340 to R-160. Answer (C) is incorrect
when the turn is complete, only when a position abeam the fix because a teardrop entry would be appropriate if you were coming
cannot be determined. Answer (B) is incorrect because abeam the in from R-270 to R-340.
fix is preferable and should be used rather than at the completion
of a standard rate turn, especially if turn completion occurs before
coming abeam the fix.

ALL
8860. When entering a holding pattern above 14,000
feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed
A— 1 minute.
B— 1-1/2 minutes.
C— 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

Inbound leg time should not exceed 1 minute when

holding at or below 14,000 feet, or 1-1/2 minutes when
holding above 14,000 feet. The outbound leg should
be flown for 1 minute or 1-1/2 minutes as appropriate
on the first leg and then adjusted on subsequent legs
to get the correct time on the inbound leg. (PLT296,
AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3‑7
Question 8861

Answers
8858 [A] 8859 [C] 8860 [B] 8861 [A]

6 – 46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8862. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC 8863. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC
clearance: clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH
ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold- What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold-
ing pattern? ing pattern?
A— Teardrop only. A— Parallel only.
B— Direct only. B— Direct only.
C— Parallel only. C— Teardrop only.

Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
the holding fix and dragging it on the holding radial given the holding fix and dragging it on the holding radial given
by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified. pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified.
Holding south on the 180° radial with right turns means Holding north on the 360° radial with left turns means
you will be east of R-180. you will be east of R-090.
The entry procedure is based on the aircraft’s head- The entry procedure is based on the aircraft’s head-
ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
heading of 055°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so heading of 055°, we are in the smallest piece of pie, so
a direct entry would be used. See the figure below. a teardrop entry would be used. See the figure below.
(PLT087, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7 (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because a teardrop entry would be appropri- Answer (A) is incorrect because a parallel entry would be appropri-
ate only from R-290 to R-360. Answer (C) is incorrect because a ate only from R-070 to R-180. Answer (B) is incorrect because a
parallel entry would only be appropriate from R-360 to R-110. direct entry would only be appropriate from R-250 to R-070.

Question 8862

Question 8863

Answers
8862 [B] 8863 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 47

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8864. (Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC 8865. (Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC
clearance: clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST
ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold- What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold-
ing pattern? ing pattern?
A— Parallel only. A— Parallel or teardrop.
B— Direct only. B— Parallel only.
C— Teardrop only. C— Direct only.

Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
the holding fix and dragging it on the holding radial given the holding fix and dragging it on the holding radial given
by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified. pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified.
Holding west on the 270° radial with right turns means Holding west on the 270° radial with right turns means
you will be south of R-090. you will be south of R-090.
The entry procedure is based on the aircraft’s head- The entry procedure is based on the aircraft’s head-
ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
heading of 055°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so heading of 155°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so
a direct entry would be used. See the figure below. a direct entry would be used. See the figure below.
(PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7 (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because a parallel entry would be appropri- Answer (A) is incorrect because the parallel or teardrop entries
ate only from R-090 to R-200. Answer (C) is incorrect because a are alternatives only when approaching on R-090. Answer (B) is
teardrop entry would only be appropriate from R-020 to R-090. incorrect because a parallel entry would only be appropriate when
approaching from R-090 to R-200.

Question 8864
Question 8865

Answers
8864 [B] 8865 [C]

6 – 48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ATM, ATS, RTC ATM, ATS, RTC

8866. (Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC 8867. (Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC
clearance: clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH
ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…” ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold- What is the recommended procedure to enter the hold-
ing pattern? ing pattern?
A— Teardrop only. A— Teardrop only.
B— Parallel only. B— Parallel only.
C— Direct. C— Direct only.

Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on Determine the holding pattern by placing your pencil on
the holding fix and dragging it on the holding radial given the holding fix and dragging it on the holding radial given
by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the by ATC, then returning back to the fix. Then draw the
pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified. pattern from the fix with turns in the direction specified.
Holding north on the 360° radial with left turns means Holding south on the 180° radial with right turns means
you will be east of R-360. you will be east of R-360.
The entry procedure is based on the aircraft’s head- The entry procedure is based on the aircraft’s head-
ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw ing. To determine which entry procedure to use, draw
a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting a line at a 70° angle from the holding fix, and cutting
the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a the outbound leg at about one-third its length. With a
heading of 155°, we are in the largest piece of pie, so heading of 155°, we are in the smallest piece of pie,
a direct entry would be used. See the figure below. so a teardrop entry would be used. See the following
(PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7 figure. (PLT296, AA.VI.J.K1) — AIM ¶5-3-7
Answer (A) is incorrect because a teardrop entry would be appro- Answer (B) is incorrect because a parallel entry would be appropri-
priate only from R-180 to R-250. Answer (B) is incorrect because, ate only from R-360 to R-110. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
if you were approaching on R-070 to R-180, you would make a direct entry would only be appropriate from R-110 to R-290.
parallel entry.

Question 8867
Question 8866

Answers
8866 [C] 8867 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 49

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Charts
The pilot-in-command must ensure that the appropriate aeronautical charts are on board the aircraft for
each flight.
There are a number of questions that require reference to a segment of the Chart Supplements U.S.
(previously A/FD). The legend for this publication is available in Appendix 1 of the Airman Knowledge
Testing Supplement (FAA Legends) for ATP.
Most of the questions concerning interpretation of Approach Charts, DPs and STARs can be answered
by referring to the appropriate legend. These legends are available during the test in CT-8080 you will
be issued at the testing center.
There are a few questions that require you to interpret the symbology on Enroute Charts. Unlike the
other charts, no legend is available in the test book.
Departure Procedures (DPs) are depicted in one of two basic forms. Pilot Navigation (Pilot NAV) DPs
are established where the pilot is primarily responsible for navigation on the DP route. Vector DPs are
established where ATC will provide radar navigational guidance to an assigned route or fix. A vector DP
will often include procedures to be followed in the event of a two-way communication radio failure.
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) are ATC-coded IFR arrival routes established for certain
airports. STARs purpose is to simplify clearance delivery procedures. ATC will assign a STAR to a civil
aircraft whenever they deem it appropriate.
The Jet Route system consists of jet routes established from 18,000 feet MSL to FL450 inclusive.
The GPS Approach Overlay Program permits pilots to use GPS avionics under IFR for flying existing
instrument approach procedures, except localizer (LOC), localizer directional aid (LDA), and simplified
directional facility (SDF) procedures. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered to be RNAV aircraft.
Therefore, the appropriate equipment suffix must be included in the ATC flight plan. The word “or” in
the approach title indicates that approach is in Phase III of the GPS Overlay Program. This allows the
approach to be flown without reference of any kind to the ground-based NAVAIDs associated with the
approach. When using GPS for the approach at the destination airport, the alternate must be an approach
other than a GPS.

ALL (C) is incorrect because a NOS DP does not list the textual descrip-
9012. In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view? tion in the plan view. The plan view depicts a DP as either a “pilot
nav” or “vector” to signify if navigation is provided by the pilot or by
A— “Vectors” provided for navigational guidance or radar vectors.
“Pilot NAV” with courses the pilot is responsible
to follow.
B— “Vectors” and “Pilot NAV” for pilots to use at their ALL
discretion. 9034. What is the primary purpose of a STAR?
C— Combined textual and graphic form which are A— Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic.
mandatory routes and instructions. B— Simplify clearance delivery procedures.
C— Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.
Pilot navigation (Pilot NAV) DPs (previously called SIDs)
are established where the pilot is primarily responsible A STAR is an ATC-coded IFR arrival route established
for navigation on the DP route. Vector DPs are estab- for application to arriving IFR aircraft destined for certain
lished where ATC will provide radar navigational guid- airports. Its purpose is to simplify clearance delivery
ance to a filed/assigned route or to a fix depicted on procedures. (PLT170, AA.VI.C.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-1
the DP. (PLT201, AA.VI.C.K1) — AIM ¶5-2-8 Answer (A) is incorrect because separation between IFR and VFR
Answer (B) is incorrect because DPs are departure procedures and traffic is provided by Stage III radar service, not a STAR. Answer (C)
must be followed as depicted (not at the pilot’s discretion). If a pilot is incorrect because controlled airspace, e.g., Class B, Class C, can
does not wish to use a DP, then he/she must notify ATC. Answer be used to decrease traffic congestion at some airports by allowing
ATC to regulate traffic flow and volume.

Answers
9012 [A] 9034 [B]

6 – 50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL are not stated for a nonprecision approach to Runway

9035. When does ATC issue a STAR? 28, we can assume that standard alternate minimums
A— Only when ATC deems it appropriate. apply. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument Approach
B— Only to high priority flights. Procedures
C— Only upon request of the pilot. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the lowest minimums for
a precision approach in any category aircraft is 800-2.
Pilots of IFR civil aircraft destined to locations for which
STARs have been published may be issued a clearance
ALL
containing a STAR whenever ATC deems it appropriate.
9571. (Refer to Figure 259.) Which approach lighting
(PLT170, AA.VI.C.K1) — AIM ¶5-4-1
is available for RWY 33R?
Answer (B) is incorrect because any type of IFR flight can be issued
a STAR. High priority flights will normally be handled in an expedi- A— MALSR and RAIL.
tious manner by ATC. Answer (C) is incorrect because a STAR is a B— MIRL.
clearance delivery procedure that is issued by ATC. A pilot has the
responsibility to accept or refuse that clearance. A pilot can list a C— TDZ and CL.
STAR in the flight plan, but ATC will issue one only if appropriate.
The A5 inside the circle with the dot indicates that run-
way 33R has MALSR approach lights with RAIL. See
ATM, ATS, RTC FAA Legend 38. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument
9554. (Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC Approach Procedures
RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would Answer (B) is incorrect because MIRL indicates Medium Intensity
you initiate the missed approach? Runway Lights. Answer (C) is incorrect because TDZ and CL light-
ing is not available for RWY 33R and it is in-runway, not approach
A— anytime after the FAF. lighting.
B— 4.5 NM after JOLTE.
C— IAH DME 1.0.
ALL
The FAF to MAP for the LOC approach is listed in the 9588. (Refer to Figure 273.) The touchdown zone
bottom left corner of the approach plate. FAF to MAP is elevation of the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky
4.5 NM. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument Approach Harbor International Airport is
Procedures A— 1,126 feet.
B— 1,135 feet.
ALL
C— 1,458 feet.
9555. (Refer to Figures 360 and 388.) N60JB desired
The notation “TDZE 1126” indicates the touchdown
to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active RWY at
zone elevation on runway 25L is 1,126 feet MSL. See
ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather fore-
FAA Legend 4. (PLT049, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument
cast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for N60JB
Approach Procedures
to list it as an alternate?
A— Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision
approach 800-2. ALL
B— Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision 9599. (Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from the
approach 600-2. FAF to the MAP for the VOR or GPS RWY 13L/13R
C— Nonprecision approach 800-2 1/4, precision approach is
approach 600-2. A— 6.2 NM.
B— 3.2 NM.
The A in the triangle in the top left-hand corner of the C— 2.6 NM.
approach chart indicates Rochester has nonstandard
alternate minimums. FAA Figure 388 lists all the The airport diagram indicates the FAF to the MAP is 2.6
approaches at Rochester which have nonstandard NM. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — FAA-H-8083-15
alternate minimums. Find the Rochester minimums in
the top left of FAA Figure 388. Assuming N60JB is in
approach category A, B, or C, the minimums for the
ILS 28 approach are 800-2. Since alternate minimums

Answers
9035 [A] 9554 [B] 9555 [A] 9571 [A] 9588 [A] 9599 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 51

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9600. (Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather 9603. (Refer to Figure 293.) What must be operational
goes below minimums and New York Approach Con- for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach
trol issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to to JFK?
ASALT Intersection. As N711JB is approaching ASALT, A— DME or radar.
Approach Control clears the aircraft to fly the VOR RWY B— LDIN and VOR.
13L/13R approach. What is the distance from ASALT C— VOR, LDIN, and DME or radar.
Intersection to RWY 13L?
A— 11.2 NM VOR is required, as indicated by the approach title.
B— 12.2 NM. The plan view indicates that DME or radar is required.
C— 8.6 NM. The notes section at the top of the chart shows that
the lead-in light system must be operational to execute
The profile view indicates that the distance from ASALT the procedure. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument
INT to CRI VOR is 6.0 NM, CRI VOR to MAP is 2.6 NM. Approach Procedures
On the plan view it is noted that from MAP to Rwy 13L
is 3.6NM. 6 + 2.6 + 3.6 = 12.2 (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) —
Instrument Approach Procedures ALL
9604. (Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from Canarsie
(CRI) to RWY 13R at JFK is
ALL
A— 5.2 NM.
9601. (Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather B— 6.2 NM.
goes below minimums and New York Approach Con- C— 8.6 NM.
trol issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors,
to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that The profile view indicates that the distance from CRI
Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT VOR to MAP is 2.6 NM and the distance from the MAP
Intersection? to Rwy 13R is 2.6 NM. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instru-
A— 3,000 feet. ment Approach Procedures
B— 2,500 feet.
C— 2,000 feet.
ALL
The profile view shows a mandatory altitude of 3,000 9614. (Refer to Figure 269.) The flight is filed Senic One
feet at ASALT unless advised by ATC, then 2,000 feet Departure, Daggett transition. Before reaching MOXIE
is the minimum. (PLT049, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument intersection, ATC clears you to turn left heading 030 and
Approach Procedures proceed direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you
realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet. What
should you do if you are in IMC?
ALL
A— Enter holding at LAHAB on the 185 degree radial
9602. (Refer to Figure 293.) For landing on RWY 13R until reaching 15,000 feet.
at JFK, how much RWY is available? B— Advise departure control you cannot make the
A— 12,468 feet. clearance and request radar vectors.
B— 14,511 feet. C— Turn toward the Long Beach Airport temporarily
C— 9,095. and continue the climb until you can cross
LAHAB at 15,000 feet.
The runway landing distance for 13R is listed in the
upper center left portion of the approach plate and is Advise departure control whenever you cannot make
12,468. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument Approach the clearance and request radar vectors to ensure
Procedures you maintain obstacle and traffic avoidance. (PLT052,
Answer (B) is incorrect because 14,511 is the overall length of run- AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument Approach Procedures
way 13R/31L. Answer (C) is incorrect because 9,905 is the runway
landing distance for 13L.

Answers
9600 [B] 9601 [C] 9602 [A] 9603 [C] 9604 [A] 9614 [B]

6 – 52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9615. (Refer to Figure 293.) What is the distance from 9644. (Refer to Figure 192.) On the airway J10 between
ASALT intersection to the MAP? OBH and LBF, the MAA is 41,000 feet. What is the MAA
A— 8.6 NM. on J197 between FSD and OBH?
B— 2.6 NM. A— 43,000 feet.
C— 6 NM. B— 45,000 feet.
C— 60,000 feet.
The profile view shows the distance between ASALT and
the final approach fix is 6 miles. The distance between The Maximum Authorized Altitude is the maximum
the FAF and MAP is 2.6 NM. Therefore, the distance usable altitude or flight level on an airway or jet route
between ASALT and the MAP is 8.6 NM. (PLT090, which has a published MEA. FL450 is the upper limit
AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument Approach Procedure of all jet routes. (PLT100, AA.VI.C.K1) — Pilot/Control-
ler Glossary
Answer (A) is incorrect because the upper limit of the jet route
ATM, ATS, RTC system includes FL450 unless marked otherwise. Answer (C) is
9617. (Refer to Figure 258.) As you approach DEPEW incorrect because this is the upper limit of Class A airspace, but the
on the RNAV (GPS) RWY 32 approach, your GPS jet route system stops above 45,000 feet.
changes from “armed” to “active,” and the CDI needle
begins to show increasing deviation to the left with no ALL
increase in cross track. In this situation, you 9645. (Refer to Figure 373.) Inbound to DEN from
A— should immediately execute the missed Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector
approach. and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you
B— know that the sensitivity of the CDI has miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably
increased. were assigned
C— would turn to the right to center the CDI needle. A— 119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of
124.3.
When within 2 NM of the final approach waypoint (FAWP)
B— 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of
of DEPEW on the RNAV (GPS) Runway 32 approach,
132.35.
with the approach mode “armed,” the approach mode
C— 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of
will switch to “active” which results in a change in CDI
124.3.
sensitivity. (PLT354, AA.VI.C.K1) — AIM ¶1-1-17
Approaching Denver from Dallas, you will use the Denver
Approach Center designed for “South” which is 120.35,
ALL
and 132.35 for Denver tower. (PLT049, AA.VI.C.K1) —
9619. (Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS
Instrument Approach Procedures
RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope
indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was
the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70? ALL
A— 475 feet per minute. 9645-1. (Refer to Figure 374.) Inbound to DEN from
B— 585 feet per minute. Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector
C— 690 feet per minute. and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you
miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably
The profile view indicates that the final approach angle were assigned
is 3.0°. The table in FAA Legend 72 shows that a 555 A— 119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of
fpm descent rate is required for 105 knots, and 635 fpm 124.3.
is required for 120 knots. 585 is the only answer choice B— 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of
to fall within these limits. (PLT049, AA.VI.C.K1) — FAA- 124.3.
H-8083-15, Chapter 7 C— 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of
132.35.

Approaching Denver from Dallas, you will use the Denver

Approach Center designed for “South” which is 120.35,
and 124.3 for Denver tower. (PLT049, AA.VI.C.K1) —
Instrument Approach Procedures
Answers
9615 [A] 9617 [B] 9619 [B] 9644 [B] 9645 [B] 9645-1 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 53

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
9655. (Refer to Figures 201 and 201A.) What type of 9666. (Refer to Figure 335.) At San Francisco Intl (SFO),
weather information would normally be expected to be the runway hold position signs are
available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden- A— all on the left-hand side of the taxiways.
Hinckley? B— all on the right-hand side of the taxiways.
A— Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, C— on either side of the taxiways.
temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface winds,
and any pertinent remarks. The note on the airport diagram states that several
B— Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, runway hold position signs are on the right rather than
altimeter, winds, precipitation, and the intensity of the left side of the taxiways. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) —
the precipitation. Instrument Approach Procedures
C— Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature,
dewpoint, altimeter, wind data, and density
altitude. ALL
9670. (Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS
(near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is
The Chart Supplements U.S. (previously A/FD) indi-
an example of a
cates the weather source for Ogden-Hinckley is ASOS.
Observations report cloud height, weather, obstructions A— LF/MF Airway.
to vision, temperature and dew point (in most cases), B— LF/MF Oceanic Route.
surface wind, altimeter, and pertinent remarks. See C— Military Training Route.
FAA Legends 19 and 20. (PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart
Supplements U.S. The brown color and airway designation (Blue 646)
indicate it is a LF/MF airway. A solid narrow line indi-
Answer (B) is incorrect because it does not report cloud bases or
tops, nor precipitation and intensity. Answer (C) is incorrect because cates that it is an Oceanic route. A domestic LF/MF
it does not report wind data and density altitude. airway would be represented by a broader, shaded
line. (PLT058, AA.VI.C.K1) — Enroute Low Altitude
Chart Legend
ALL
9658. (Refer to Figure 185A.) The maximum gross
weight that an L1011 can be operated on RWY 07R/25L ALL
at McCarran Intl is 9686. (Refer to Figure 343.) The airport diagram of
A— 496,000 pounds. Bradley Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be a
B— 833,000 pounds. triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located
C— 620,000 pounds. close to the approach end of RWY 19. What does this
symbol indicate?
The runway weight limit for a dual tandem gear airplane A— Runway Radar Reflectors.
on Runway 01L-19R is listed as 2D/2D2-833, which is B— Practice hover area for the Army National Guard
833,000 pounds. However, the remarks section states helicopters.
the maximum weight for an L1011 is 496,000 pounds. C— Two course lights, back to back, which flash
(PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart Supplements U.S. beams of light along the course of an airway.

The double triangle symbol in the airport diagram stands

ALL for runway radar reflectors. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) —
9659. (Refer to Figure 185A.) The threshold of RWY Instrument Approach Procedures
07L at McCarran Intl is displaced
A— 878 feet, due to a pole.
ALL
B— 2,138 feet, due to a hangar.
C— 1,659 feet, due to a pole. 9692. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on
the flight plan, to be
The Chart Supplement U.S. (previously A/FD) list- A— RNAV equipped.
ing for Runway 07L states the threshold is displaced B— in compliance with ICAO Annex 10.
2,138 feet for a hangar. (PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart C— FMS/EFIS equipped.
Supplements U.S.

Answers
9655 [A] 9658 [A] 9659 [B] 9666 [C] 9670 [B] 9686 [A]
9692 [A]

6 – 54 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered to be RNAV ALL

aircraft. Therefore, the appropriate equipment suffix must 8797. (Refer to Figure 348.) What distance is available
be included in the ATC flight plan. (PLT354, AA.VI.C.K1) for takeoff on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?
— Pilot/Controller Glossary A— 6,998 feet.
B— 8,408 feet.
C— 10,996 feet.
ALL
9694. The weather forecast requires an alternate for Runway 11R-29L is 8,408 feet long. The displaced
LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate threshold does not reduce takeoff distance. (PLT078,
airport must have an approved instrument approach AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart Supplements U.S.
procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and
Answer (A) is incorrect because 6,998 feet is the length of the
available at the estimated time of arrival, other than runway without the displaced threshold. Answer (C) is incorrect
A— GPS or VOR. because 10,996 feet is the length of RWY 11L-29R.
B— ILS or GPS.
C— GPS.
ALL
8798. (Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff
When using GPS for the approach at the destination
airport, the alternate must be an approach other than run can be expected on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?
a GPS. (PLT354, AA.VI.C.K1) — AIM ¶1-1-19 A— Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by
displaced threshold.
B— Takeoff run shortened by 0.7 percent runway
ALL slope to the SE.
8793. (Refer to Figures 348 and 361.) Determine the C— Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent
DEP CON frequency for the TUS7.GBN transition after upslope of the runway.
takeoff from Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl.
A— 125.1 MHz. There is a 0.7% upslope to the southeast on runway 11R-
B— 118.5 MHz. 29L. (PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart Supplements U.S.
C— 128.5 MHz. Answer (A) is incorrect because a displaced threshold will shorten
the usable runway but has no effect on an airplane’s required takeoff
distance. Answer (B) is incorrect because the takeoff run is length-
The Chart Supplements U.S. (previously A/FD) indicates ened due to the 0.7% upslope to the southeast.
that the Departure Control Frequency for runway 11,
departures on bearings 090° through 285° from the
airport, is 125.1 Mhz. (PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart ALL
Supplements U.S. 8782. (Refer to Figures 99, 101, and 101A.) Which fre-
Answer (B) is incorrect because 118.5 MHz is for departures from quency should be selected to check airport conditions
RWY 11 with a departure heading between 286° to 089°. Answer and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?
(C) is incorrect because 128.5 is the general approach/departure
control frequency. A— 123.775 MHz.
B— 122.95 MHz.
C— 135.95 MHz.
ALL
8796. (Refer to Figure 348.) How can the pilot receive The departure ATIS for DFW airport is listed as 135.95.
the latest NOTAMs for the TUS LAX flight? (PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart Supplements U.S.
A— Monitor ATIS on 123.8 MHz. Answer (A) is incorrect because 123.775 is the listed ATIS frequency
for arriving airplanes. Answer (B) is incorrect because 122.95 is the
B— Contact the RCO on 122.2 MHz. UNICOM frequency.
C— Request ADCUS on any FSS or Tower frequency.

NOTAMs can be received through the FSS located on

the airport. The standard RCO frequency is 122.2 MHz.
(PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart Supplements U.S.

Answers
9694 [C] 8793 [A] 8796 [B] 8797 [B] 8798 [C] 8782 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 55

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

ALL ALL
8784. (Refer to Figure 100, Area 8.) Where is the VOR 8826. (Refer to Figure 114, Area 9.) What is the minimum
changeover point on V571 between Navasota (TNV) altitude southwest bound on V8 at LUCER intersection?
and Humble (IAH)? A— 9,300 feet.
A— 24 miles from IAH. B— 9,000 feet.
B— 18 miles from IAH. C— 10,500 feet.
C— Halfway between TNV and IAH
The flag at LUCER intersection signifies a minimum
The changeover should be made at the changeover crossing altitude of 9,300 feet for aircraft flying south-
symbol if depicted, where there is a change in the west along V8-21-282-587. The MEA on V8 SW at
direction of the airway, or in the absence of these at this intersection changes from 9,000 to 10,500 feet;
the halfway point between the VORs. In this case, the aircraft must be at a minimum altitude of 9,300 feet
changeover point (COP) is indicated with a symbol, and when crossing. (PLT058, AA.VI.C.K1) — Enroute Low
the changeover should be made 24 miles from IAH and Altitude Chart Legend
18 miles from TNV. (PLT058, AA.VI.C.K1) — Enroute Answer (A) is incorrect because 9,000 feet is the MEA on V8 SW
Low Altitude Chart Legend prior to reaching LUCER. Answer (B) is incorrect because 10,500
feet is the MEA on V8 SW after passing LUCER.

ALL
8824. (Refer to Figure 114.) The changeover point on ALL
V8 southwest bound between HEC VORTAC and PDZ 8852. (Refer to Figure 279 and Legend 72.) What is
VORTAC is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning
purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120
A— halfway. KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots?
B— 27 DME miles from HEC VORTAC.
C— 31 DME miles from the HEC VORTAC. A— 637 ft/min.
B— 478 ft/min.
There is a changeover point marked on the enroute C— 558 ft/min.
chart at 31 NM from HEC VORTAC and 44 NM from PDZ
VORTAC. Next to number 9 in the lower right corner of The ILS RWY 32R approach into Chicago-O’Hare has
the figure note “PDZ TO HEC.” (PLT058, AA.VI.C.K1) a 3° glide slope as indicated within the profile section
— Enroute Low Altitude Chart of the approach chart. Using FAA Legend 72 along with
a ground speed of 105 (120 KIAS — 15 knot headwind
Answer (A) is incorrect because when the changeover point is not
located at the midway point, aeronautical charts will depict the component), the rate of descent is 557.5 FPM. (PLT083,
location and give mileage to the radio aids. Answer (B) is incor- AA.VI.C.K1) — IFR Approach Procedures
rect because 27 DME miles from HEC VORTAC is the LUCER Answer (A) is incorrect because a rate of descent of 637 FPM is
intersection, the flag represents a minimum crossing altitude not a appropriate for the indicated airspeed of 120 knots. Answer (B) is
changeover point. incorrect because a rate of descent of 478 FPM is appropriate for a
3.0° glide slope angle at 90 knots.

ALL
8825. (Refer to Figure 114.) The minimum crossing ALL
altitude at APLES INT southwest bound on V394 is 8852-1. (Refer to Legend 72 and Figure 361.) With a
A— 7,500 feet. speed of 140 knots, what is the minimum rate of climb
B— 9,100 feet. after taking off from Rwy 3 at TUS to reach 9,900 feet?
C— 11,500 feet. Interpolation required.
A— 963 FPM.
There is a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) of 9,100 B— 1,065 FPM.
feet at APLES INT when southwest bound on V394. C— 930 FPM.
(PLT058, AA.VI.C.K1) — Enroute Low Altitude Chart
Legend Using Figure 361, standard takeoff minimums for Run-
Answer (A) is incorrect because 7,500 feet is the minimum enroute way 3 is 400 ft/NM. Using Legend 72 and the 140 knots
altitude (MEA) from DAG VORTAC to APLES INT on V394, not the provided in the question, interpolate the rate of climb
MCA at APLES INT. Answer (C) is incorrect because 11,500 feet
is the minimum enroute altitude after APLES INT, not the MCA at by finding 400 ft/NM on the left-hand column and 140
APLES INT. knots on the top of the chart for the groundspeed. The

Answers
8784 [A] 8824 [C] 8825 [B] 8826 [C] 8852 [C] 8852-1 [A]

6 – 56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 6 Flight Operations

minimum rate of climb is 963 FPM. (PLT058, AA.I.B.K2c) ALL

— FAA-H-8083-3 8802. (Refer to Figure 257B.) The radio altimeter indi-
Answer (B) is incorrect because a minimum rate of climb of 1,065 cation for the DH at the inner marker on the ILS RWY
FPM is for 425ft/NM at 150 knots. Answer (C) is incorrect because 24R approach at LAX is
a minimum rate of climb of 930 FPM is for 370 ft/NM at 150 knots.
A— 120.
B— 115.
ALL C— 126.
9933. (Refer to Figure 279.) Where does the final
approach segment begin on the ILS RWY 32R at ORD? The RA height at the IM is also the DH for the 100-foot
minimums. At this point, the radio altimeter will indicate
A— Glide slope intercept, 2,700 feet MSL. 111 feet. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument Approach
B— INDDY OM, 2,663 feet MSL. Procedure
C— MUNDAY ORD, 4,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect because 120 feet is the touchdown zone
elevation (TDZE). Answer (C) is incorrect because 126 feet is the
The “lightning bolt” symbol depicts the beginning of the airport elevation.
final approach segment, in this case at 2,700 feet MSL.
(PLT049, AA.VI.C.K1) — IFR Approach Procedures
ALL
8803. (Refer to Figure 257A.) If the glide slope indica-
ALL tion is lost upon passing LIMMA INT on the ILS RWY
8799. (Refer to Figures 255A and 255B). Which 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?
approach control frequency is indicated for the TNP.
A— Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed
DOWNE4 Arrival with LAX as the destination?
approach as indicated.
A— 128.5 MHz B— Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100
B— 124.9 MHz feet to the DH.
C— 124.05 MHz C— Immediately start the missed approach left turn to
CATLY INT.
Figure 255A lists the approach frequency as 124.05
on the top left under SOCAL APP CON for the TNP. Obstacle clearance on a missed approach is predi-
DOWNE4 Arrival. (PLT080, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart Supple- cated on the assumption that the abort is initiated at
ments U.S. the MAP and not lower than the DH or MDA. When
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the Chart Supplements an early missed approach is executed, pilots should,
U.S. frequencies do not apply when using the TNP.DOWNE3 arrival. unless otherwise authorized by ATC, fly the instrument
approach procedure to the MAP at or above the DH or
MDA before executing any turning maneuver. (PLT083,
ALL
AA.VI.C.K1) — AIM ¶5-5-5
8800. (Refer to Figure 257A.) At what point does the
Answer (B) is incorrect because the LOC minimums for this
flight enter the final approach phase of the ILS RWY approach are 540 feet MDA and 24 RVR. Answer (C) is incorrect
25L at LAX? because protected obstacle clearance areas for missed approaches
are made on the assumption that the abort is made at the MAP. No
A— FUELR INT. consideration is made for an abnormally early turn, unless otherwise
B— HUNDA INT. directed by ATC.
C— Intercept of glide slope.

The lightning bolt symbol indicates that 1,900 feet is ALL

the glide slope interception altitude. An aircraft is con- 8804. (Refer to Figure 257A and Legend 38.) What
sidered to be on the final approach segment past this approach lights are available for the ILS RWY 25L
point when on an ILS approach. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) approach at LAX?
— Instrument Approach Procedure A— ALSF-2 with sequenced flashing lights.
Answer (A) is incorrect because FUELR INT is an initial approach B— MALSR with a displayed threshold.
fix (IAF) and does not mark the point at which the flight enters the
final approach phase. Answer (B) is incorrect because HUNDA
C— HIRL and TDZ/CL.
INT is a fix at which the pilot should intercept the glide slope, but
the intersection itself does not mark the point at which the airplane The airport diagram in Figure 257A has an “A” with a dot
enters the final approach phase. and in a circle next to Runway 25L. Legend 38 states
the dot and “A” indicates sequenced flashing lights are

Answers
9933 [A] 8799 [C] 8800 [C] 8802 [B] 8803 [A] 8804 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 6 – 57

Chapter 6 Flight Operations

installed with the approach lighting system (ALSF-2). A ATM, ATS

dot in a circle represents an approach lighting system. 8704. (Refer to Figures 262 and 263.) In a turbojet
(PLT078, AA.VI.C.K1) — Chart Supplements U.S. airplane, when assigned the RIICE THREE ARRIVAL,
Answer (B) is incorrect because RWY 25R has an out of service (see at what speed would ATC expect you to cross RIICE
Remarks) MALSR and a displaced threshold. Answer (C) is incor- intersection when landing EAST at IAH?
rect because high intensity runway lights (HIRL), touchdown zone
lights (TDZ), and centerline lights (CL) are runway lighting systems. A— 200 knots.
B— 220 knots.
C— 250 knots.
ALL
8806. (Refer to Figures 256 and 257A.) How should the The chart notes “Turbojets: Landing east at IAH cross
IFR flight plan be closed upon landing at LAX? RIICE at 250 KIAS, expect clearance to cross RIICE at
10000.” (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1) — Instrument Approach
A— Contact UNICOM on 122.95.
Procedures
B— Phone ASOS on 310-568-2486.
C— LAX tower will close it automatically.
ATM, ATS
If operating IFR to an airport with a functioning control 8704-1. (Refer to Figure 163A) Arriving at Ryan Field at
tower, the flight plan is automatically closed upon land- 1600Z under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) in
ing. (PLT224, AA.VI.C.K1) — AIM ¶5-1-14 a turbine-powered airplane, at what altitude should you
Answer (A) is incorrect because an IFR flight plan would not be enter the traffic pattern and remain at that altitude until
closed by contacting UNICOM. Answer (B) is incorrect because an
IFR flight plan would not be closed with ASOS by phone. further descent is required for a safe landing?
A— 1,000 feet AGL.
B— 2,500 feet AGL.
ATM, ADX C— 1,500 feet AGL.
8950. (Refer to Figure 145.) The minimums for the
nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4-mile visibility The chart supplement does not specify any changes
and 400 feet. When operating under Part 121, can from regular procedures. Large and turbine-powered
the pilot legally execute the approach with the given aircraft enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of not less
METAR data? than 1,500 feet AGL or 500 feet above the established
A— Yes, they meet the minimum visibility pattern altitude. (PLT083, AA.I.G.K2) — AIM ¶4-3-3
requirements.
B— No, they do not meet the minimum visibility
ATM, ADX
requirements.
8242. Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are
C— No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling
requirements. aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the
A— aircraft dispatcher.
The pilot cannot legally execute the approach because B— first officer.
the ceiling will be too low. Figure 145 indicates visibili- C— pilot-in-command.
ties will be 3/4 SM with an overcast ceiling of 300 feet.
(PLT059, AA.VI.C.K1) — FAA-H-8083-15 The pilot-in-command shall ensure that appropriate
aeronautical charts containing adequate information
concerning navigation aids and instrument approach
ALL procedures are aboard the aircraft for each flight.
8836. (Refer to Figure 273.) Straight-in minimums for a (PLT444, AA.VI.C.K1) — 14 CFR §121.549
Category B aircraft on the LOC RWL 25L approach are Answer (A) is incorrect because the dispatcher may be hundreds
A— 1326-½. of miles from the origination of the flight, e.g., in a central dispatch
office. Answer (B) is incorrect because although a first officer may
B— 1520-½. be assigned the task of carrying aeronautical charts, the pilot-in-
C— 1740-1. command is responsible for ensuring that adequate charts are
aboard the aircraft.
The straight-in approach minimums for the LOC 25L
approach are an MDA of 1,520 feet and visibility of 1/2
mile at the 0.2 DME from I-RJG. (PLT083, AA.VI.C.K1)
— Instrument Approach Procedure

Answers
8806 [C] 8950 [C] 8836 [B] 8704 [C] 8704-1 [C] 8242 [C]

6 – 58 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 7
Emergencies, Hazards,
and Flight Physiology
Flight Emergencies and Hazards 7–3
Flight Physiology 7 – 11

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7–1

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

7–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

Flight Emergencies and Hazards

The Pilot/Controller Glossary divides emergencies into two categories: distress and urgency. Distress
is a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assis-
tance. Distress conditions include fire, mechanical failure or structural damage. An urgency condition is
one of being concerned about safety and of requiring timely but not immediate assistance. At least an
urgency condition exists the moment a pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, weather
or any other condition that could adversely affect the safety of flight. A pilot should declare an emergency
when either an urgency or a distress condition exists.
When a distress or urgency condition exists, the pilot should set the radar beacon transponder to
code 7700. If an aircraft is being hijacked or illegally interfered with, the pilot can alert ATC to that fact
by setting the transponder to code 7500. If an aircraft has experienced a two-way communications radio
failure, the pilot should set the transponder to code 7600. The pilot should also conform to the radio
failure procedures of 14 CFR §91.185 (IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure). In order
to avoid false alarms, pilots should take care not to inadvertently switch through codes 7500, 7600 and
7700 when changing the transponder.
If a two-way radio failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the
failure, the pilot must continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. If IFR conditions
prevail, the pilot must follow the rules listed below for route, altitude and time to leave a clearance limit:

Route to be Flown
• The route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
• If being radar vectored, fly by the direct route from the point of the radio failure to the fix, route or
airway specified in the vector clearance.
• In the absence of an assigned route, fly by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a
further clearance.
• In the absence of an assigned route or expected further routing, fly by the route filed in the flight plan.

Altitude
Fly the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:
• The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
• The minimum IFR altitude for the route segment being flown (MEA).
• The altitude or flight level that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.

When to Leave a Clearance Limit

• When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and
approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance (EFC) time if one has been received;
or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival (ETA) as calcu-
lated from the filed or amended estimated time en route.
• If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect
further clearance (EFC) time if one has been received; or if none has been received, upon arrival over
the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or
descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival (ETA) as calculated from
the filed or amended time en route.

(continued)

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7–3

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

A near midair collision is defined as an occurrence in which the possibility of a collision existed as
the result of two aircraft coming within 500 feet or less of each other.
A minimum fuel advisory is used by a pilot to inform ATC that the fuel supply has reached a state
where the pilot cannot accept any undue delay upon arrival at the destination. The minimum fuel advisory
is not a declaration of an emergency, nor is it a request for priority. It does indicate that an emergency
situation may develop if any undue delay occurs during the rest of the flight.
Some airports have a number of wind indicators located around the perimeter of the field as well as
a center field windsock. When there is a significant difference in speed or direction between the center
field windsock and one or more of the boundary wind indicators, the tower can report that a wind shear
condition exists.
A safety alert will be issued to pilots being controlled by ATC in either of two circumstances. A con-
troller will issue a safety alert when, in the controller’s opinion, the aircraft’s altitude will put it in unsafe
proximity to the surface or an obstacle. A controller will also issue an alert if he/she becomes aware of
another aircraft, not controlled by him/her, that will put both aircraft in an unsafe proximity to each other.
The wake turbulence developed by large aircraft can present a significant flight hazard to other
aircraft that encounter them. The main component of wake turbulence is wing-tip vortices. These are
twin vortices of air trailing behind an aircraft in flight. The vortex is a by-product of lift. The pressure
under each wing is greater than the pressure above it and this induces a flow of air outward, upward
and around the wing tip. This leaves two counter-
rotating spirals of air trailing behind the aircraft.
See Figure 7-1.
The characteristics of a vortex can be altered
by changing the aircraft’s configuration. The most
intense vortices will be produced by an airplane
that is heavy, flying slowly, and with the landing
gear and flaps retracted.
The vortices generated by a large aircraft will
slowly sink below its flight path and dissipate by
the time they have descended about 1,000 feet.
They will also tend to drift away from each other
at a speed of about five knots. In a light crosswind, Figure 7-1
the upwind vortex will tend to stay over the same
position on the ground while the downwind vortex will move away at about twice its normal rate. It is
good wake turbulence avoidance technique to stay above and on the upwind side of the flight path of a
preceding large airplane.
If the vortices reach the ground before dissipating, they will move away from each other as noted
above. In a light crosswind, the upwind vortex can remain on the runway long after a large airplane has
taken off or landed. The most hazardous situation is a light quartering tailwind, which not only keeps a
vortex on the runway but also inhibits its dissipation.
If you plan to take off behind a large airplane, try to rotate prior to that airplane’s point of rotation and
climb out above and on the upwind side of the other airplane’s flight path. If you plan to takeoff from a
runway on which a large airplane has just landed, try to plan your lift-off point to be beyond the point
where that aircraft touched down. See Figure 7-2.

7–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL
9052. Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switch-
ing through when changing transponder codes?
A— 0000 through 1000.
B— 7200 and 7500 series.
C— 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilot

should avoid inadvertent selection of codes 7500, 7600
or 7700 thereby causing momentary false alarms at
automated ground facilities. (PLT497, AA.I.A.K9) — AIM
¶4-1-20
Answer (A) is incorrect because codes 0000 through 1000 are
acceptable codes that may be used during normal operations.
Figure 7-2 Answer (B) is incorrect because the 7200 series can be used dur-
ing normal operations, while 7500 should be avoided except in the
case of a hijack.
ALL
9097. What minimum condition is suggested for declar-
ing an emergency? ALL
A— Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that 9362. After experiencing two-way radio communications
could adversely affect flight safety. failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent
B— When fuel endurance or weather will require an for the instrument approach?
en route or landing priority. A— Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the
C— When distress conditions such as fire, instrument approach procedure but not before
mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs. the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B— Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the
An aircraft is in an emergency condition the moment the instrument approach procedure at the corrected
pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes.
weather or any other condition that could adversely C— At the primary initial approach fix for the
affect flight safety. (PLT394, AA.VII.A.K2) — AIM ¶6-1-2 instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown
Answer (B) is incorrect because, if fuel endurance or weather will on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is
require an en route or landing priority, this is beyond an urgency later.
situation and is now a distress condition. Answer (C) is incorrect
because this is the step after an urgency condition, one that has
the potential to become a distress condition. During a two-way radio communications failure, if the
clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins,
commence descent or descent and approach as close
ALL as possible to the expect further clearance (EFC) time,
9051. What is the hijack code? if one has been received. If no EFC time has been
A— 7200. received, commence descent and approach as close
B— 7500. as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated
C— 7777. from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en
route. (PLT391, AA.VI.C.K4) — 14 CFR §91.185
Only nondiscrete transponder code 7500 will be decoded Answer (B) is incorrect because an approach should begin at the
as the hijack code. (PLT497, AA.I.A.K9) — AIM ¶4-1-20 initial approach fix, not at a holding fix, as close as possible to the
ETA. Answer (C) is incorrect because an EFC time supersedes a
Answer (A) is incorrect because 7200 is a code that is used for flight plan ETA and should be used if one has been received (no
normal operating procedures. Answer (C) is incorrect because code matter if the EFC is sooner or later than the flight plan ETA).
7777 is reserved for military interceptor operations.

Answers
9097 [A] 9051 [B] 9052 [C] 9362 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7–5

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL 3. The altitude that ATC has advised may be expected

9363. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions in a further clearance.
and loses radio communications with ATC, what action
(PLT391, AA.VI.C.K4) — 14 CFR §91.185
should be taken?
Answer (B) is incorrect because 1,000 feet above the highest
A— Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR obstacle along the route is what a MOCA, (minimum obstruction
flight plan and continue the flight. clearance altitude) provides. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFR
altitudes or regulations should never be used while flying in IFR
B— Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. weather conditions.
C— Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the
vector clearance.
ALL
If a two-way radio communication failure occurs while 9365. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after
in IFR conditions the pilot should continue the flight by having experienced two-way radio communications
the following route: failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the
1. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance; instrument approach?
2. If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the A— At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3
point of the radio failure to the fix, route or airway minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by
specified in the vector clearance; ATC.
3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route B— At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
that ATC has advised may be expected in a further C— At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
clearance; or
During a two-way radio communications failure, if the
4. In the absence of an assigned route or a route that clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins,
ATC has advised may be expected in a further clear- commence descent or descent and approach as close
ance, by the route filed in the flight plan. as possible to the expect further clearance (EFC) time,
(PLT406, AA.VI.C.K4) — 14 CFR §91.185 if one has been received. If no EFC time has been
Answer (A) is incorrect because the route shown on the flight plan
received, commence descent and approach as close
should be the last route to be used and only if an assigned route, as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calcu-
vector, or expected route has not been received. Answer (B) is incor- lated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated
rect because a climb should only be initiated in order to establish time enroute. (PLT391, AA.VI.C.K4) — 14 CFR §91.185
the highest of either the assigned, MEA, or expected altitude. The
squawk of 7700 is no longer correct. Answer (A) is incorrect because the approach should begin at the
EFC time, regardless of whether it is close to the planned ETA or
not; ETA is only used if an EFC has not been received. Answer (B)
is incorrect because a pilot who is holding at an initial approach
ALL fix after having experienced a two-way radio communication fail-
9364. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has ure without an EFC time should begin descent for the instrument
two-way radio communications failure. What altitude approach so that the arrival will coincide as closely as possible with
the ETA.
should be used?
A— Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised
to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. ALL
B— An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the 9389. What altitude and route should be used if the
highest obstacle along the route. pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way
C— A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. radio communications failure?
A— Continue on the route specified in the clearance
A pilot should maintain the highest altitude or flight level
and fly the highest of the following: the last
of the following for each route segment:
assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the
1. The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC pilot to expect, or to the MEA.
clearance received; B— Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed
2. The minimum altitude or flight level for IFR operations to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of
(MEA); or clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along
the clearance route.
C— Fly the most direct route to the destination,
maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA,
whichever is higher.

Answers
9363 [C] 9364 [A] 9365 [C] 9389 [A]

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 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

If a two-way radio communication failure occurs while 3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route
in IFR conditions the pilot should continue the flight by that ATC has advised may be expected in a further
the following route: clearance; or
1. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance; 4. In the absence of an assigned route or a route that
2. If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the ATC has advised may be expected in a further clear-
point of the radio failure to the fix, route or airway ance, by the route filed in the flight plan.
specified in the vector clearance; (PLT391, AA.VI.C.K4) — 14 CFR §91.185
3. In the absence of an assigned route, by the route
that ATC has advised may be expected in a further
ALL
clearance; or
9098. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to
4. In the absence of an assigned route or a route that report a near midair collision as a result of proximity
ATC has advised may be expected in a further clear- of at least
ance, by the route filed in the flight plan.
A— 50 feet or less to another aircraft.
A pilot should maintain the highest altitude or flight level B— 500 feet or less to another aircraft.
of the following for each route segment: C— 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
1. The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC A near midair collision is defined as an incident associ-
clearance received; ated with the operation on an aircraft in which a pos-
2. The minimum altitude or flight level for IFR operations sibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less
(MEA); or than 500 feet to another aircraft, or a report is received
3. The altitude that ATC has advised may be expected from a pilot or flight crewmember stating that a collision
in a further clearance. hazard existed between two or more aircraft. (PLT366,
AA.I.E.K4) — AIM ¶7-7-3
(PLT391, AA.VI.C.K4) — 14 CFR §91.185
Answer (B) is incorrect because the highest of either the MEA,
expected altitude, or assigned altitude should be used. Answer (C) ALL
is incorrect because, if ATC advises you may expect an altitude after 9010. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise
reaching a clearance limit, and it is higher than the published MEA
or assigned altitude, the expected altitude should be used. The route ATC of minimum fuel status?
to be used should be the one assigned by ATC, as specified in a A— When the fuel supply becomes less than that
vector clearance, by the route ATC has advised may be expected,
or in the absence of all of these, the route as filed in the flight plan, required for IFR.
not the most direct route. B— If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or
landing priority.
C— If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
ALL
9390. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two- A pilot should advise ATC of his/her minimum fuel status
way radio communications failure. Which route should when the fuel supply has reached a state where, upon
be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue
route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance? delay. It indicates a possible future emergency, but
A— The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. does not declare one and does not get priority handling.
B— An off-airway route to the point of departure. (PLT318, AA.VI.J.K2) — AIM ¶5-5-15
C— The route filed in the flight plan. Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot must ensure the minimum
amount of fuel is on board the airplane for the planned IFR flight
and alternatives, if needed, during the flight planning phase. Answer
If a two-way radio communication failure occurs while (B) is incorrect because, if the remaining fuel suggests a need for
in IFR conditions the pilot should continue the flight by traffic or landing priority, the pilot should declare an emergency (not
the following route: minimum fuel status), and report fuel remaining in minutes.

1. By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance;

2. If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the
point of the radio failure to the fix, route or airway
specified in the vector clearance;

Answers
9390 [C] 9098 [B] 9010 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7–7

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL The Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) is

9011. What does the term “minimum fuel” imply to ATC? a computerized system which detects low level wind
A— Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. shear by continuously comparing the winds measured
B— Emergency handling is required to the nearest by sensors installed around the periphery of an airport
suitable airport. with the wind measured at the center field location.
C— Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is When a significant difference exists, the tower control-
possible should an undue delay occur. ler will provide aircraft with an advisory of the situation
which includes the center field wind plus the remote site
A pilot should advise ATC of his/her minimum fuel status location and wind. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) — AIM ¶4-3-7
when the fuel supply has reached a state where, upon Answer (A) is incorrect because “light and variable” is used to report
reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue the wind conditions when wind speed is less than 5 knots. Answer
(C) is incorrect because a frontal passage is normally indicated by a
delay. It indicates a possible future emergency, but change in wind direction, but it is usually not reported by the tower.
does not declare one and does not get priority handling.
(PLT318, AA.VI.J.K2) — AIM ¶5-5-15
Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot should declare an emer- ALL
gency and report fuel remaining in minutes if traffic priority is needed 9050. What conditions would cause an air traffic con-
to the destination airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because emer-
gency handling to the nearest suitable airport would be required in troller to issue you a safety alert?
a distress or urgent type of emergency. A— When your approach has become unstable, and
you are required to execute a go-around.
B— When the aircraft altitude places it in unsafe
ALL
proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
9420. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status
C— When they have implemented a temporary
when your fuel supply has reached a state where,
reduction in approach control separation
upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any
minimums.
undue delay.
A— This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. A safety alert will be issued to pilots of aircraft being
B— ATC will consider this action as if you had controlled by ATC if the controller is aware the aircraft is
declared an emergency. at an altitude which, in the controller’s judgment, places
C— If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions
need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, or other aircraft. (PLT172, AA.VI.J.K2) — AIM ¶4-1-16
declare an emergency due to low fuel and report Answer (A) is incorrect because a safety alert is issued to a pilot
fuel remaining in minutes. if ATC believes that his/her airplane is at an altitude which would
place it in unsafe proximity to another airplane. Answer (C) is
incorrect because, when weather conditions are extreme and wind
If the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need shear or large hail is in the vicinity, a Convective SIGMET would
for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, you should be broadcast.
declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel
remaining in minutes. (PLT318, AA.VI.J.K2) —AIM
¶5-5-15 ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because minimum fuel advisory does not 9119. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane cre-
imply a need for a traffic priority. Answer (B) is incorrect because ate the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip
minimum fuel advisory is not an emergency situation, but merely an vortices of the greatest strength?
advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should
any undue delay occur. A— Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
B— Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
C— Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
ALL
9054. What airport condition is reported by the tower The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generat-
when more than one wind condition at different positions ing aircraft is heavy, clean (gear and flaps up) and slow.
on the airport is reported? (PLT509, AA.VI.A.K1) — AIM ¶7-4-3
A— Light and variable.
B— Wind shear.
C— Frontal passage.

Answers
9011 [C] 9420 [C] 9054 [B] 9050 [B] 9119 [A]

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 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9120. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be 9123. Which statement is true concerning the wake
encountered behind large aircraft is created only when turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?
that aircraft is A— Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below
A— developing lift. and behind the flightpath of the generating
B— operating at high airspeeds. aircraft.
C— using high power settings. B— The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft
may be altered by extending the flaps or
Lift is generated by the creation of a pressure differential changing the speed.
over the wing surface. The lowest pressure occurs over C— Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven
the upper wing surface and the highest pressure under aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a
the wing. This pressure differential triggers the roll up necessary factor in the formation of vortices.
of the airflow aft of the wing resulting in swirling air
masses trailing downstream of the wing tips. (PLT509, The strength of the vortex is governed by the weight,
AA.VI.A.K1) — AIM ¶7-4-2 speed and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft.
Answer (B) is incorrect because hazardous vortex turbulence is The vortex characteristics of a given aircraft can be
created only when the aircraft is developing lift, which can be while changed by extension of flaps or other wing configur-
operating at low or high airspeeds. A slow, heavy, and clean airplane ing devices as well as by a change in speed. (PLT509,
will generate the most hazardous vortex turbulence. Answer (C)
is incorrect because most takeoff rolls are at high power settings, AA.VI.A.K1) — AIM ¶7-4-3
but the generation of vortices does not occur until lift is produced. Answer (A) is incorrect because the vortices generated by large
Landing approaches are also conducted at lower power settings; transport aircraft tend to sink below and behind, thus vortices can
vortex turbulence is produced whenever an airplane is producing lift. be expected by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path
of the generating aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because wake
turbulence vortices are generated by lift produced by any airplane.
It does not matter whether the airplane is powered by propeller or
ALL
jet engines.
9121. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A— sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
B— rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. ALL
C— accumulate and remain for a period of time at the 9124. What effect would a light crosswind have on the
point where the takeoff roll began. wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has
just taken off?
Flight tests have shown that the vortices from large A— The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the
aircraft sink at a rate of several hundred feet per min- runway longer than the downwind vortex.
ute. They tend to level off at a distance about 900 feet B— A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of
below the flight path of the generating aircraft. (PLT509, both vortices.
AA.VI.A.K1) — AIM ¶7‑4-4 C— The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the
Answer (B) is incorrect because vortices created by large aircraft runway longer than the upwind vortex.
tend to sink from (not rise into) the traffic pattern altitude. Answer
(C) is incorrect because wing-tip vortices are not generated until the
aircraft’s wings develop lift, so no wing-tip vortices are generated at A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of
the point where the takeoff roll begins. the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the
downwind vortex. Thus, a light wind of 3 to 7 knots could
result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown
ALL zone for a period of time and hasten the drift of the
9122. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate downwind vortex toward another runway. (PLT509,
around each wingtip? AA.VI.A.K1) — AIM ¶7-4-4
A— Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. Answer (B) is incorrect because a crosswind will hold the upwind
B— Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the vortex in the vicinity of the runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the downwind vortex moves away at a faster rate than the upwind
aircraft. vortex.
C— Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

The vortex circulation is outward, upward and around

the wing tips when viewed from either ahead or behind
the aircraft. (PLT509, AA.VI.A.K1) — AIM ¶7-4-4

Answers
9120 [A] 9121 [A] 9122 [C] 9123 [B] 9124 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7–9

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9125. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet 9127. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just
airplane during takeoff, the pilot should landed, you should plan to lift off
A— lift off at a point well past the jet airplane’s A— prior to the point where the jet touched down.
flightpath. B— beyond the point where the jet touched down.
B— climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane’s C— at the point where the jet touched down and on
flightpath. the upwind edge of the runway.
C— remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.
When departing behind a large aircraft which has just
When departing behind a large aircraft, note its rotation landed, note the aircraft’s touchdown point and rotate
point and rotate prior to that point. During the climb, stay past that point on the runway. (PLT509, AA.VI.A.R2)
above and upwind of the large aircraft’s climb path until — AIM ¶7-4-6
turning clear of its wake. (PLT509, AA.VI.A.R2) — AIM Answer (A) is incorrect because a lift-off prior to the point where the
¶7-4-4 jet touched down would force you to climb through the jet’s vortices.
Answer (C) is incorrect because lift-off should be planned beyond
Answer (A) is incorrect because, if you rotate beyond the jet’s rota- the point of touchdown to ensure that you avoid the vortices, and you
tion point, you will have to fly up into the jet’s vortices. Answer (C) should remain on the center of the runway during takeoff.
is incorrect because the jet’s vortices will sink. If you stay below the
jet’s flight path, you will fly in the area of the vortices.

ALL
ALL 9715. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make
9126. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots
wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly
period of time? A— below the established glidepath and slightly to
A— Direct tailwind. either side of the on-course centerline.
B— Light quartering tailwind. B— on the established glidepath and on the approach
C— Light quartering headwind. course centerline or runway centerline extended.
C— above the established glidepath and slightly
A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of downwind of the on-course centerline.
the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the
downwind vortex. Thus a light wind of 3 to 7 knots could Pilots of aircraft that produce strong wake vortices should
result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown make every attempt to fly on the established glidepath,
zone for a period of time and hasten the drift of the and as closely as possible to the approach course cen-
downwind vortex toward another runway. Similarly, a terline or to the extended centerline of the runway of
tailwind condition can move the vortices of the preced- intended landing. (PLT509, AA.VI.A.R2) — AIM ¶7-4-8
ing aircraft forward into the touchdown zone. The light,
quartering tailwind requires maximum caution. (PLT509,
ALL
AA.VI.A.R2) — AIM ¶7-4-4
9858. Which phase of flight has the greatest occurrence
Answer (A) is incorrect because, even though a direct tailwind can
move the vortices of a preceding aircraft forward into the touchdown of fatal accidents?
zone, it is not as hazardous because both vortices would move to A— Takeoff.
the sides (and not remain on the runway). Answer (C) is incorrect
because a light quartering headwind would move the vortices B— Landing.
toward the runway threshold, away from (not into) the touchdown C— Approach.
zone on a landing runway.
The pilot’s work requirements vary depending on the
mode of flight. The tasks increase significantly during
the landing phase, creating greater risk to the pilot and
warranting actions that require greater precision and
attention, but the greatest percentage of fatal accidents
occurs during the approach phase of flight. (PLT509,
AA.VI.F.R9) — FAA-H-8083-2

Answers
9125 [B] 9126 [B] 9127 [B] 9715 [B] 9858 [C]

7 – 10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

Flight Physiology
Even small amounts of alcohol have an adverse effect on reaction and judgment. This effect is magnified
as altitude increases. No one may serve as a crewmember on a civil aircraft:
• Within 8 hours of the consumption of any alcoholic beverage.
• While having a blood alcohol level of .04% or higher.

Runway width illusion—A runway that is narrower than usual can create the illusion that the aircraft
is higher than it really is. This can cause an unwary pilot to descend too low on approach. A wide runway
creates an illusion of being too low on glide slope.
Featureless terrain illusion—An absence of ground feature, as when landing over water, dark-
ened areas and terrain made featureless by snow can create the illusion that the aircraft is higher than
it really is.
Autokinesis—In the dark, a static light will appear to move about when stared at for a period of time.
An effective scan pattern is necessary to ensure that a pilot will see other aircraft in time to avoid
potential midair collisions. This means that 2/3 to 3/4 of a pilot’s time should be spent scanning outside
the aircraft. The best method would be to look outside for about 15 seconds and then inside for about
5 seconds. It is much easier to see an aircraft which is moving relative to the observer. Unfortunately,
aircraft which present a collision hazard are usually on the horizon with little or no apparent horizontal or
vertical movement. The image only grows larger as the threat aircraft gets closer. Special vigilance must
be exercised for this type of situation. A pilot’s most acute night vision is off-center in his/her peripheral
vision. When looking for other aircraft at night, scan slowly to allow sufficient time for this off-center
viewing.
All pilots who fly in instrument conditions or at night are subject to spatial disorientation. This occurs
when body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes, and there is no visual reference to the hori-
zon. The only reliable way to overcome this disorientation is to rely entirely on the indications of the flight
instruments. Some types of vertigo include:
The leans—An abrupt correction of a banked angle can create the illusion of banking in the opposite
direction.
Coriolis illusion—An abrupt head movement during a constant rate turn can create the illusion of
rotation in an entirely different axis. This illusion can be overwhelming and so rapid head movements in
turns should be avoided.
Inversion illusion—An abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion
of tumbling backwards.
Somatogravic illusion—A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a
nose up attitude.
Hypoxia is caused by insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. The most usual reason is the low partial
pressure of oxygen encountered at altitude. Carbon monoxide poisoning is similar to hypoxia in that it
causes too little oxygen to reach the brain. Carbon monoxide (usually from an exhaust leak) binds with
the hemoglobin in the blood, preventing its usual oxygen-carrying function. The symptoms of both are
similar and include dizziness, tingling of the hands, feet and legs, loss of higher thought processes, and
unconsciousness. The sufferer may not notice or react to any of the symptoms due to his degraded
mental faculties. Hyperventilation is caused by a reduction of carbon dioxide in the blood, usually due
to rapid breathing in a stressful situation. The symptoms of hyperventilation are similar to hypoxia, but
recovery is rapid once the rate of breathing is brought under control.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7 – 11

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9354. Under 14 CFR Part 91, what are the minimum 9111-1. Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by
number of hours that must pass after a person consumes A— prescribed and over-the-counter medications.
alcohol before they may act as a crewmember? B— prescription medications only.
A— 8. C— over-the-counter medications only.
B— 10.
C— 12. Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both
prescribed and over-the-counter medications, as well
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember as by the medical conditions for which they are taken.
of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption Many medications have primary effects that may impair
of any alcoholic beverage. (PLT463, AA.I.F.K2) — 14 judgment, memory, alertness, coordination, vision,
CFR §91.17 and the ability to make calculations. Others have side
effects that may impair the same critical functions. Any
medication that depresses the nervous system, such
ALL as a sedative, tranquilizer or antihistamine, can make
9354-1. A pilot should be aware the alcohol in one beer a pilot much more susceptible to hypoxia. Pilots are
can be detected for as long as prohibited from performing crewmember duties while
A— minimum of 60 minutes. using any medication that affects the faculties in any way
B— 2 hours. contrary to safety. (PLT354, AA.I.F.K2) — AIM ¶8-1-1
C— 3 hours.

As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or ALL

four ounces of wine can impair flying skills, with the 9111-2. While experiencing a hangover, a pilot
alcohol consumed in these drinks being detectable A— will have impaired motor and mental responses.
in the breath and blood for at least 3 hours. (PLT104, B— is no longer under the influence of alcohol.
AA.I.F.K2) — AIM ¶8-1-1 C— may experience discomfort, but no impairment.

While experiencing a hangover, a pilot is still under the

ALL influence of alcohol. Although a pilot may think he or
9111. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on she is functioning normally, motor and mental response
functions of the body? impairment is still present. Alcohol can remain in the
A— Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as body for over 16 hours, so pilots should be cautious
altitude increases. about flying too soon after drinking. (PLT205, AA.I.F.K2)
B— Small amounts of alcohol in the human system — AIM ¶8-1-1
increase judgment and decision-making abilities.
C— Alcohol has little effect if followed by an ounce of
ALL
black coffee for every ounce of alcohol.
9111-3. Consumption of alcohol
The adverse effect of alcohol is greatly multiplied when a A— can severely impair a person for more than 8
person is exposed to altitude. Two drinks on the ground hours.
are equivalent to three or four at altitude. (PLT205, B— is of no concern in aviation after 8 hours
AA.I.F.K2) — AIM ¶8-1-1 regardless of amount consumed.
Answer (B) is incorrect because even small amounts of alcohol C— in small amounts has no effect on judgment and
impair judgment and decision-making abilities. Answer (C) is incor- decision-making.
rect because there is no way to increase the body’s metabolism of
alcohol or to alleviate a hangover (including drinking black coffee).
The CFRs prohibit pilots from performing crewmember
duties within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic bever-
ages or while under the influence of alcohol. However,
due to the slow metabolism of alcohol, a pilot may
still be under the influence 8 hours after a moderate
amount of alcohol. Therefore, allow at least 12 to 24
hours between “bottle and throttle” depending on the
amount of alcoholic beverage consumed. (PLT205,
AA.I.F.K2) — AIM ¶8-1-1

Answers
9354 [A] 9354-1 [C] 9111 [A] 9111-1 [A] 9111-2 [A] 9111-3 [A]

7 – 12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move about

9107. When making an approach to a narrower-than- when stared at for many seconds. This illusion is known
usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should as Autokinesis. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5
be aware that the approach Answer (A) is incorrect because somatogravic illusion occurs with
A— altitude may be higher than it appears. a rapid acceleration during takeoff, creating the illusion of being in
a nose-up attitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because a ground light-
B— altitude may be lower than it appears. ing illusion refers to lights on a straight path such as a road being
C— may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. mistaken by a pilot for runway or approach lights.

An approach to a narrower-than-usual runway can cre-

ate the illusion that the aircraft is higher than it actually ALL
is. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5 9110. When making a landing over darkened or feature-
Answer (A) is incorrect because wider-than-usual runways may less terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be
result in higher than desired approaches. Answer (C) is incorrect aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may
because leveling off too high is not affected by the runway width, appear to be too
but rather by the pilot’s landing proficiency.
A— high.
B— low.
ALL C— shallow.
9107-1. You have just touched down hard in the rain
on a narrower-than-usual runway at night. You realize An absence of ground features, when landing over
you have just experienced water, darkened areas and terrain made featureless
by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a
A— runway length illusion.
higher altitude than it actually is. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k)
B— an atmospheric height illusion.
— AIM ¶8‑1‑5
C— ground lighting illusion.

An approach to a narrower-than-usual runway can cre-

ALL
ate the illusion that the aircraft is higher than it actually
9110-1. You have just touched down on the runway
is. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5
faster than planned in the haze at night. You realize
that you have just experienced
ALL A— an atmospheric distance illusion.
9107-2. The illusion associated with landing on a nar- B— a gravotopic height illusion.
rower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a C— the elevator illusion.
A— lower approach with the risk of striking objects
An absence of ground features, when landing over
along the approach path or landing short.
water, darkened areas and terrain made featureless
B— slower approach with the risk of reducing
by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a
airspeed below VS0 or landing hard.
higher altitude than it actually is. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k)
C— higher approach with the risk of leveling out high
— AIM ¶8-1-5
and landing hard or overshooting the runway.

An approach to a narrower-than-usual runway can cre-

ALL
ate the illusion that the aircraft is higher than it actually
9108. The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which
is. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5
may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as
A— inversion illusion.
ALL B— autokinesis.
9109. In the dark, a stationary light will appear to C— somatogravic illusion.
move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion
is known as A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illu-
sion of being in a nose-up attitude. This is known as a
A— somatogravic illusion.
Somatogravic Illusion. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5
B— ground lighting illusion.
C— autokinesis. Answer (A) is incorrect because the inversion illusion results from
an abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight which can
create an illusion of tumbling backwards. Answer (B) is incorrect
because autokinesis refers to a stationary light appearing to move
about when stared at for many seconds in the dark.

Answers
9107 [B] 9107-1 [B] 9107-2 [A] 9109 [C] 9110 [A] 9110-1 [A]
9108 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7 – 13

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and

9114. What is the most effective way to use the eyes stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision
during night flight? course. If a target shows no lateral or vertical motion,
A— Look only at far away, dim lights. but increases in size, take evasive action. (PLT099,
B— Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-8
C— Concentrate directly on each object for a few Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because an airplane which is
seconds. ahead of you and moving from left to right, or from right to left, should
pass in front of you.

One should scan slowly at night to permit off-center

viewing of dim objects. (PLT099, AA.I.F.K1k) — FAA- ALL
H-8083-3 9117. Scanning procedures for effective collision avoid-
Answer (A) is incorrect because pilots must look at their gauges and ance should constitute
instruments, which are about 2 feet in front of them. Answer (C) is
incorrect because peripheral (off-center) vision is more effective A— looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5
at night. seconds, then repeat.
B— 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside
scanning, then repeat.
ALL
C— looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar
9114-1. When is ear blockage most likely to occur?
contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.
A— Upon descent and is aggravated by upper
respiratory infection. Studies show that the time a pilot spends on visual tasks
B— During initial climb-out as expanding air in the inside the cabin should represent no more than 1/4 to
middle ear pushes the eustachian tube open. 1/3 of the scan time outside, or no more than 4 to 5
C— During cruise flight as the pressure between the seconds on the instrument panel for every 16 seconds
middle ear and aircraft cabin equalizes. outside. (PLT099, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because pilots should spend the majority of
As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases during ascent, scan time outside the airplane when in VFR conditions. Answer (C)
the expanding air in the middle ear pushes the eusta- is incorrect because pilots should spend the majority of scan time
outside the airplane, and outside scanning is necessary when in
chian tube open, and by escaping down into the nasal radar contact in VFR conditions.
passages, equalizes in pressure with the cabin pres-
sure. But during descent, a pilot must periodically open
the eustachian tube to equalize pressure. This can ALL
be accomplished by swallowing, yawning, or tensing 9118. When using the Earth’s horizon as a reference
muscles in the throat. Either an upper respiratory infec- point to determine the relative position of other aircraft,
tion or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough most concern would be for aircraft
congestion around the eustachian tube to make equal-
A— above the horizon and increasing in size.
ization difficult. Consequently, the difference in pressure
B— on the horizon with little relative movement.
between the middle ear and aircraft cabin can build up
C— on the horizon and increasing in size.
to a level that will hold the eustachian tube closed, mak-
ing equalization difficult if not impossible to open. The Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and
problem is commonly referred to as ear block. (PLT099, stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision
AA.I.F.K1c) — AIM ¶8-1-2 course. If a target shows no lateral or vertical motion,
but increases in size, take evasive action. (PLT099,
ALL
AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-8
9116. Which observed target aircraft would be of most Answer (A) is incorrect because an airplane above the horizon is
probably at a higher altitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because an
concern with respect to collision avoidance? airplane on the horizon without movement may be traveling in the
A— One which appears to be ahead and moving from same direction as you.
left to right at high speed.
B— One which appears to be ahead and moving from
right to left at slow speed.
C— One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or
vertical movement and is increasing in size.

Answers
9114 [B] 9114-1 [A] 9116 [C] 9117 [A] 9118 [C]

7 – 14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9112. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation 9115. While making prolonged constant rate turns under
when IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create
A— ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This
and inner ear. is known as
B— eyes are moved often in the process of cross- A— autokinesis.
checking the flight instruments. B— Coriolis illusion.
C— body sensations are used to interpret flight C— the leans.
attitudes.
An abrupt head movement while making a prolonged
When seated on an unstable moving platform at altitude constant rate turn, can produce a strong sensation of
with your vision cut off from the earth, horizon or other rotation or movement in an entirely different axis. The
fixed reference, you are susceptible to misinterpreting phenomenon is known as Coriolis Illusion. (PLT280,
certain body sensations caused by angular accelera- AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5
tions. (PLT334, AA.I.F.K1d) — AIM ¶8-1-5 Answer (A) is incorrect because Autokinesis refers to a stationary
Answer (A) is incorrect because ignoring or overcoming the sensa- light appearing to move about when stared at for many seconds in
tions of muscles and inner ear is a means of avoiding (not becoming the dark. Answer (C) is incorrect because the “leans” refer to an
subject to) spatial disorientation. Answer (B) is incorrect because abrupt correction of a banked attitude which can create the illusion
rapid eye movements have little or no impact on spatial disorienta- of bank in the opposite direction.
tion and vision reference to reliable flight instruments helps avoid
spatial disorientation.
ALL
9433. Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is
ALL
9113. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or
A— closer to the runway than it actually is.
overcome spatial disorientation? B— farther from the runway than it actually is.
C— the same distance from the runway as when
A— Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest there is no restriction to visibility.
possible extent.
B— Rely on the kinesthetic sense. Atmospheric haze can create an illusion of being at a
C— Rely entirely on the indications of the flight greater distance from the runway than you actually are.
instruments. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5

The best method to prevent or overcome spatial dis-

orientation is to rely entirely on the indications of the ALL
flight instruments. (PLT334, AA.I.F.K1d) — AIM ¶8-1-5 9434. Sudden penetration of fog can create the illu-
Answer (A) is incorrect because head and eye movement have little sion of
effect on spatial disorientation. Answer (B) is incorrect because
relying on the kinesthetic sense encourages (not prevents) spatial A— pitching up.
disorientation. B— pitching down.
C— leveling off.

Penetration of fog can create an illusion of pitching up.

(PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5

ALL
9434-1. Penetrating fog while flying an approach at
night, you might experience the illusion of
A— pitching up.
B— flying at a lower altitude.
C— constant turning.

Penetration of fog can create an illusion of pitching up.

(PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) — AIM ¶8-1-5

Answers
9112 [C] 9113 [C] 9115 [B] 9433 [B] 9434 [A] 9434-1 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7 – 15

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9435. What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen 9104. Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
create? A— Tingling sensations.
A— Does not cause illusions. B— Visual acuity.
B— Lower than actual. C— Decreased breathing rate.
C— Higher than actual.
Symptoms of hyperventilation include dizziness, tin-
Rain on the windscreen can create an illusion of being gling of the extremities, sensation of body heat, rapid
at a higher altitude than you are. (PLT280, AA.I.F.K1k) heart rate, blurring of vision, muscle spasm and, finally,
— AIM ¶8‑1‑5 unconsciousness. (PLT332, AA.I.F.K1b) — AIM ¶8-1-3
Answer (B) is incorrect because hyperventilation distorts one’s abili-
ties. Answer (C) is incorrect because decreasing the breathing rate
ALL overcomes hyperventilation and is not a symptom of it.
9101. What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A— Rapid, shallow breathing. ALL
B— Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. 9105. Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia
C— Dizziness. because as cabin altitude increases
Carbon monoxide poisoning produces the same symp- A— the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.
toms as hypoxia, which include dizziness. (PLT097, B— the percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased.
AA.I.F.K1f) — AIM ¶8-1-4 C— oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
Answer (A) is incorrect because rapid breathing can result in hyper-
ventilation, but it is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning. Low partial pressure of oxygen causes hypoxia. (PLT330,
Answer (B) is incorrect because tingling in the extremities (not pain AA.I.F.K1a) — AIM ¶8-1-2
and cramping) is one symptom of hyperventilation (not carbon Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the percentage of
monoxide poisoning). nitrogen, carbon dioxide and oxygen in the atmosphere remains
constant with changes in altitude, but there is less pressure as you
increase in altitude.
ALL
9102. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
ALL
A— A stressful situation causing anxiety.
9106. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
B— The excessive consumption of alcohol.
C— An extremely slow rate of breathing and A— Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
insufficient oxygen. B— Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
C— Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
You are most likely to hyperventilate when under stress
or at high altitudes. (PLT332, AA.I.F.K1b) — AIM ¶8-1-3 Hypoxia is a result of too little oxygen reaching the brain.
Answer (B) is incorrect because excessive consumption of alcohol (PLT330, AA.I.F.K1a) — AIM ¶8-1-2
results in intoxication, not hyperventilation. Answer (C) is incorrect Answer (B) is incorrect because excessive carbon dioxide in the
because a slow rate of breathing is the cure for hyperventilation, blood stream causes hyperventilation. Answer (C) is incorrect
and insufficient oxygen is the cause of hypoxia, not hyperventilation. because it is the result of insufficient oxygen to the brain.

ALL ALL
9103. Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what 9856. Human behavior
atmospheric condition?
A— rarely results in accidents unless deliberate
A— Significantly less oxygen molecules at high actions are performed.
altitude. B— is responsible for three out of four accidents.
B— Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen. C— is well understood, so behavioral induced
C— Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide. accidents are exceedingly rare occurrences.

Low partial pressure of oxygen causes hypoxia. (PLT330, Three out of four accidents result from improper human
AA.I.F.K1a) — AIM ¶8-1-2 performance. The human element is the most flexible,
adaptable, and valuable part of the aviation system,

Answers
9435 [C] 9101 [C] 9102 [A] 9103 [B] 9104 [A] 9105 [C]
9106 [A] 9856 [B]

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 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

but it is also the most vulnerable to influences that can ALL

adversely affect its performance. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) 9804-1. In order to achieve the highest level of safety,
— FAA-H-8083-2 A— each flight crewmember must carefully monitor
the aircraft’s flight path.
B— the crewmembers must continually monitor their
ALL
seat dependent tasks.
9778. An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule
C— the captain’s judgment must not be questioned.
A— can expect the flight crew to alert them to
problems or areas of concern. The FAA expects the flight crew to monitor the aircraft’s
B— will always err on the side of caution. flight path. (PLT354, AA.I.F.K3) — AC 120-71A
C— can fail to perceive operational pitfalls.

Although more experienced pilots are likely to make ALL

more automatic decisions, there are tendencies or 9805-8. In a multicrew environment, who is responsible
operational pitfalls that come with the development of for the tone, pace, and outcome of decisions made, and
pilot experience. These are classic behavioral traps into will be held accountable for all outcomes in air carrier
which pilots have been known to fall. More experienced flights?
pilots (as a rule) try to complete a flight as planned, A—First officer.
please passengers, and meet schedules. The desire to B—Air carrier.
meet these goals can have an adverse effect on safety C—Captain.
and contribute to an unrealistic assessment of piloting
skills. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25 The captain is responsible for the tone, pace, and
outcome of decisions, and will be held accountable for
all outcomes of the flight. (PLT104, AA.I.E.K11) — AC
ALL 120-51
9778-1. Automatic Decision-Making is
A— a reflexive type of decision-making.
B— an impulsive type of decision-making. ALL
C— an internalized type of decision-making. 9805. CRM training refers to
A— the two components of flight safety and resource
Automatic decision-making is a reflexive type of deci- management, combined with mentor feedback.
sion-making anchored in training and experience and B— the three components of initial indoctrination
is most often used in times of emergency when there is awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and
no time to practice analytical decision-making. (PLT104, continual reinforcement.
AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-2 C— the five components of initial indoctrination
awareness, communication principles, recurrent
practice and feedback, coordination drills, and
ALL
continual reinforcement.
9804. The crew monitoring function is essential,
A— particularly during high altitude cruise flight The critical components of effective crew resource
modes to prevent CAT issues. management (CRM) training include initial indoctrination
B— particularly during approach and landing to awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and con-
prevent CFIT. tinual reinforcement. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — AC120-51
C— during RNAV departures in class B airspace.

Effective monitoring and cross-checking can be the

last line of defense that prevents an accident because
detecting an error or unsafe situation may break the
chain of events leading to an accident. This monitoring
function is always essential, and particularly so dur-
ing approach and landing when controlled flight into
terrain (CFIT) accidents are most common. (PLT104,
AA.I.F.K3) — AC 120-71A

Answers
9778 [C] 9778-1 [A] 9804 [B] 9804-1 [A] 9805-8 [C] 9805 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7 – 17

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL crew performance. Hence, effective CRM training must

9805-1. CRM error management includes address culture issues, as appropriate in each training
A— effective use of all available resources: human population. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — AC 120-51
resources, hardware, and information.
B— error callout and error guidance training.
ALL
C— error prevention, error detection, and recovery
9805-4. Crew resource management (CRM) is
from the error.
A— a dilution of the captain’s authority.
It is now understood that pilot errors cannot be entirely B— the only method of accident avoidance and error
eliminated. It is important, therefore, that pilots develop prevention.
appropriate error management skills and procedures. C— one way to make good decisions.
It is certainly desirable to prevent as many errors as
possible, but since they cannot all be prevented, detec- CRM refers to the effective use of all available resources:
tion and recovery from errors should be addressed in human resources, hardware, and information. CRM
training. Evaluation of pilots should also consider error training is one way of addressing the challenge of opti-
management (error prevention, detection, and recovery). mizing the human/machine interface and accompany-
(PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — AC 120-51 ing interpersonal activities, including decisionmaking.
(PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — AC 120-51

ALL
9805-2. CRM is defined as ALL
9805-5. Risk management, as part of the aeronautical
A— application of team management in the flight
decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features
deck environment.
to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
B— the use of human factors principles in the aviation
environment. A— Application of stress management and risk
C— a human error avoidance approach to aviation element procedures.
management in the flight deck. B— Situational awareness, problem recognition, and
good judgment.
Crew resource management (CRM) is the applica- C— The mental process of analyzing all information
tion of team management concepts in the flight deck in a particular situation and making a timely
environment. It was initially known as cockpit resource decision on what action to take.
management, but as CRM programs evolved to include
cabin crews, maintenance personnel, and others, the Risk management is the part of the decision making
phrase “crew resource management” was adopted. process which relies on situational awareness, prob-
(PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-2 lem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks
associated with each flight. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) —
FAA-H-8083-2
ALL
9805-3. Cultural issues in CRM
ALL
A— are not appropriate subjects for effective CRM
9805-6. In order to assess risk in aeronautical decision
training in any population.
making, what two basic considerations are recom-
B— must be addressed for each training population.
mended?
C— can be discussed if the training syllabus allows
training time for those topics. A— Convenience and effort required.
B— Likelihood and severity.
While individuals and even teams of individuals may C— Time and cost efficiency.
perform well under many conditions, they are subject to
the influence of at least three cultures: the professional The degree of risk posed by a given hazard can be
cultures of the individuals themselves, the cultures of measured in terms of exposure (number of people or
their organizations, and the national cultures surrounding resources affected), severity (extent of possible loss),
the individuals and their organizations. If not recognized and probability (the likelihood that a hazard will cause
and addressed, factors related to culture may degrade a loss). (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9805-1 [C] 9805-2 [A] 9805-3 [B] 9805-4 [C] 9805-5 [B] 9805-6 [B]

7 – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL Management of external pressure is the single most

9805-7. To improve the effectiveness and safety of important key to risk management because it is the
the entire operations team as a working system, CRM one risk factor category that can cause a pilot to ignore
training should include all the other risk factors. External pressures put time-
A— usage of seat-dependent checklists. related pressure on the pilot and figure into a majority
B— employee groups beyond the flight crew. of accidents. (PLT271, AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25
C— failures the flight crew must work through as a
team.
ALL
CRM is the application of team management concepts in 9816. An experienced pilot mistakes the runway head-
the flight deck environment. CRM is one way of address- ing for the instructed heading for departure. What kind
ing the challenge of optimizing the human/machine of error is this?
interface and accompanying interpersonal activities. A— Experience error.
(PLT104, AA.I.E.K12) — FAA-H-8083-25 B— Detection error.
C— Insight detection.

ALL Problem detection is the first step in the decision-

9940. One purpose of crew resource management making process. It begins with recognizing that a
(CRM) is to give crews the tools to change occurred or that an expected change did not
A— recognize and mitigate hazards. occur. A problem is perceived first by the senses and
B— maintain currency with regulations. then it is determined through insight and experience.
C— reduce the need for outside resources. These same abilities, as well as an objective analysis
of all available information, are used to determine the
CRM training is one way of addressing the challenge of nature and severity of the problem. Therefore, incorrectly
optimizing the human/machine interface and accompa- detecting the problem to begin with is an error that is
nying interpersonal activities, including recognizing and critical during a decision-making process. (PLT104,
mitigating hazards. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — AC 120-51 AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25A

ALL ALL
9806. Error management evaluation 9816-1. An experienced, current, and proficient pilot fails
to notice the landing gear is not extended for landing.
A— should recognize not all errors can be prevented.
This is an example of
B— may include error evaluation that should have
been prevented. A— systems training.
C— must mark errors as disqualifying. B— problem detection.
C— procedures knowledge.
It is certainly desirable to prevent as many errors as
possible, but since they cannot all be prevented, detec- Problem detection is the first step in the decision-
tion and recovery from errors should be addressed in making process. It begins with recognizing that a
training. Error management (error prevention, detection, change occurred or that an expected change did not
and recovery) should be considered in the evaluation occur. A problem is perceived first by the senses and
of pilots, as well as the fact that since not all errors can then it is determined through insight and experience.
be prevented, it is important that errors be managed These same abilities, as well as an objective analysis
properly. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — AC120-51 of all available information, are used to determine the
nature and severity of the problem. Therefore, incor-
rectly detecting a problem to begin with is an error that
ALL is critical during a decision-making process. (PLT104,
9806-1. The most important key to risk management is AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25
A— understanding pilot predisposition.
B— management of external pressures.
C— the sense of security provided by experience.

Answers
9805-7 [C] 9940 [A] 9806 [A] 9806-1 [B] 9816 [B] 9816-1 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7 – 19

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9832. Accident-prone pilots tend to 9833. An air carrier crew fixated on completing the last
A— have disdain toward rules. flight of a four day trip often may exhibit
B— follow methodical information gathering A— get-there-itis.
techniques. B— staged decision-making.
C— excessively utilize outside resources. C— naturalistic decision-making.

One of the primary characteristics exhibited by accident- There are a number of classic behavioral traps into
prone pilots was their disdain toward rules. (PLT103, which pilots have been known to fall. These danger-
AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-2 ous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be
identified and eliminated, include: peer pressure, mind
set, get-there-itis, duck-under syndrome, scud running,
ALL continuing visual flight rules into instrument conditions,
9815. When a recently certificated pilot decides to not getting behind the aircraft, loss of positional or situation
wait any longer for the fog and low ceilings to burn off, awareness, operating without adequate fuel reserves,
this pilot may be exhibiting the hazardous descent below the minimum enroute altitude, flying
A— resigned attitude. outside the envelope, neglect of flight planning, pre-
B— macho attitude. flight inspections, checklists, etc. (PLT104, AA.I.F.R2)
C— impulsive attitude. — FAA-H-8083-2

ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes:

Antiauthority (don’t tell me!), Impulsivity (do something ALL
quickly!), Invulnerability (it won’t happen to me), Macho 9834. An air carrier aircraft flown into the ground while
(I can do it), Resignation (what’s the use?). This pilot is troubleshooting a landing gear fault is an example of
exhibiting an impulsive attitude by departing before con- A— neglect and reliance on memory.
ditions warrant. (PLT103, AA.I.F.R2) — FAA-H-8083-2 B— loss of situational awareness.
C— lack of aviation experience.
ALL Instances of human factor accidents include operational
9815-1. When an aircraft pilot takes off as ordered in the errors that relate to loss of situational awareness and
afternoon when embedded thunderstorms are indicated flying outside the envelope. These can be termed as
on radar and NOAA is broadcasting weather watches, operational pitfalls. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-
it might be described as an example of 8083-2
A— the resigned effect.
B— an anti-authority attitude.
ALL
C— an impulsive attitude.
9927. A pilot making a blood donation in order to help
ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes: a sick associate should be aware that for several weeks
Antiauthority (don’t tell me!), Impulsivity (do something A— sufficient oxygen may not reach the cells in the
quickly!), Invulnerability (it won’t happen to me), Macho body.
(I can do it), and Resignation (what’s the use?). This pilot B— fewer oxygen molecules will be available to the
is exhibiting a resigned attitude by leaving the departure respiratory membranes.
decision up to others. Pilots who think, “What’s the C— the ability of the body tissues to effectively use
use?” will leave the action to others and may even go oxygen is decreased.
along with unreasonable requests. (PLT103, AA.I.F.R2)
— FAA-H-8083-25 Hypemic hypoxia occurs when the blood is not able to
Answer (B) is incorrect because the question involves an example take up and transport a sufficient amount of oxygen to
of the pilot following the authority to a fault. Answer (C) is incorrect the cells in the body. Hypemic hypoxia can be caused by
because the question involves an example of a pilot following orders; the loss of blood due to blood donation. Blood volume
the impulsive attitude is demonstrated when the pilot does not select
the best alternative and they do the first thing that comes to mind. can require several weeks to return to normal following
a donation. Although the effects of the blood loss are
slight at ground level, there are risks when flying dur-
ing this time. (PLT330, AA.I.F.K1a) — FAA-H-8083-25

Answers
9832 [A] 9815 [C] 9815-1 [A] 9833 [A] 9834 [B] 9927 [A]

7 – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

ALL ALL
9928. Stress distraction can interfere with judgment 9929-1. The maximum tailwind component of the
to the extent that airplane is 10 knots. The actual tailwind calculated is
A— unwarranted risks are taken. 11 knots. Other aircraft are continuing to land, so you
B— physical response rates to stimuli are impaired. decide to ignore the limitation and land as well. Which
C— perceptions are clouded. hazardous attitude are you displaying?
A— Impulsivity.
Stress causes concentration and performance problems. B— Resignation.
(PLT098, AA.I.F.K1g) — FAA-H-8083-25 C— Anti-authority.

The anti-authority attitude is demonstrated by someone

ALL ignoring the rules. (PLT104, AA.I.F.R2) — FAA-H-8083-2
9928-1. What type of stressor can lead to poor deci- Answer (A) is incorrect because impulsivity is the attitude of people
sion making? who frequently feel the need to do something, anything, immedi-
ately. Answer (B) is incorrect because resignation attitude is dem-
A— Lack of sleep. onstrated by someone thinking “what’s the use.”
B— Lack of high workload.
C— Lack of motivation.
ALL
Fatigue is frequently associated with pilot error. Some of 9929-2. Which of the following is one of the five traits
the effects of fatigue include degradation of attention and discovered to be common in pilots who have had acci-
concentration, impaired coordination, and decreased dents in their past?
ability to communicate. These factors seriously influ-
ence the ability to make effective decisions. (PLT098, A— A low correlation between traffic safety violations
AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25 and flying safety mishaps.
B— A tendency to be impulsive rather than
disciplined, especially in decision making.
ALL C— A sense of respect for rules and procedures.
9929. Sleep inertia refers to a period of
The five traits discovered in pilots prone to having
A— heightened alertness and visual acuity following accidents are: (1) disdain toward rules; (2) very high
a rest period. correlation between accidents on their flying records and
B— alignment between a person`s internal biological safety violations on their driving records; (3) frequently
clock and local external time cues. fall into the “thrill and adventure seeking” personality
C— impaired performance following awakening from category; (4) impulsive rather than methodical and
a regular sleep cycle or nap. disciplined, both in their information gathering and in
the speed and selection of actions to be taken; (5) a
Sleep inertia (also termed sleep drunkenness) refers to
disregard for or tend to underutilize outside sources of
a period of impaired performance and reduced vigilance
information, including copilots, flight attendants, flight
following awakening from the regular sleep episode or
service personnel, flight instructors, and ATC. (PLT104,
nap. This impairment may be severe, last from minutes
AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25
to hours, and be accompanied by micro-sleep episodes.
(PLT104, AA.I.F.K1h) — AC 120-100

Answers
9928 [A] 9928-1 [A] 9929 [C] 9929-1 [C] 9929-2 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 7 – 21

Chapter 7 Emergencies, Hazards, and Flight Physiology

7 – 22 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

Chapter 8
Meteorology and Weather Services
The Atmosphere 8–3
Weather Systems 8–8
Stability and Instability of Air 8 – 11
Fog and Rain 8 – 15
Thunderstorms 8 – 18
Wind Shear 8 – 22
Frost and Ice 8 – 29
Icing 8 – 29
Hazards of Structural Icing 8 – 30
Frost Formation 8 – 31
Turbulence 8 – 38
Arctic and Tropical Weather Hazards 8 – 42
Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) 8 – 43
The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) 8 – 47
Enroute Forecasts 8 – 48
Surface Analysis and Constant Pressure Charts 8 – 51
Reports and Forecasts of Hazardous Weather 8 – 53
PIREPs 8 – 56

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8–1

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

8–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

The Atmosphere
The primary cause of all the Earth’s weather is the variation in solar radiation received at the surface.
When the surface is warmed by the sun, the air next to it is, in turn, heated and it expands. This creates
a low pressure area where the air rises and, at altitude, expands outward. Air from regions of relatively
high pressure descends and then moves away from the center of the high toward the lower pressure
areas. On both a global and local scale, this movement of air sets off an immensely complex process that
generates all the Earth’s weather. See Figure 8-1.
Another major influence in the pattern of the
weather is a phenomenon known as Coriolis
effect. This is an apparent force, caused by the
Earth’s rotation, acting on any movement of air.
If the Earth did not rotate, air would move directly
from areas of high pressure to areas of low pres-
sure. Coriolis force bends the track of the air over
the ground to right in the northern hemisphere and
to the left in the southern hemisphere. Viewed from
above (as on a weather map) this makes air rotate
clockwise around high pressure areas in the north-
ern hemisphere and counterclockwise around lows.
In the southern hemisphere, the rotation around
highs and lows is just the opposite. In the northern
hemisphere, the rotation of air around a low pres-
Figure 8-1. Circulation of air due to uneven
sure area is called a cyclone and that around a high surface heating
is called an anticyclone.
The strength of the Coriolis force is determined by wind speed and the latitude. Coriolis has the least
effect at the equator and the most at the poles. It is also reduced in effect when wind speed decreases.
Air moving near the Earth’s surface is slowed by friction. This reduces the Coriolis force. However, the
gradient pressure causing the air to move remains the same. The reduced Coriolis allows air to spiral
out away from the center of a high and in toward the center of a low, and at an angle to winds aloft which
are out of the friction level.
If the Earth did not rotate, air would move from the poles to the equator at the surface and from the
equator to the poles at altitude. Because the Earth does rotate, Coriolis force and the pressure gradients
tend to form three bands of prevailing winds in each hemisphere. Weather systems tend to move from
east to west in the subtropical regions on the “trade winds.” In the mid latitudes, the prevailing wester-
lies move weather systems from west to east. See
Figure 8-2.
All air carrier flights take place in the two lowest
levels of the atmosphere. These are the tropo-
sphere and the stratosphere. The troposphere
starts at the surface and extends vertically to
roughly 35,000 feet. The thickness of the tropo-
sphere varies with latitude, being thicker over the
equator than over the poles and with the season
of the year (thicker in the summer than in the win-
ter). The stratosphere extends from the top of the
Figure 8-2. Global wind systems

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8–3

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

troposphere to about 26 to 29 miles altitude. See Figure 8‑3. The main characteristic that distinguishes
the troposphere from the stratosphere is the temperature lapse rate. In the troposphere, the temperature
decreases with increasing altitude at an average rate of two degrees Celsius per one thousand feet of
altitude. In the stratosphere, there is little or no change in temperature with altitude. In fact, in some
regions the temperature increases with increasing altitude causing temperature inversions.
The thin boundary layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere is called the tropopause.
The height of the tropopause is of great interest to the pilots of jet aircraft for two reasons. First, there
is an abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate at the tropopause and that has a significant effect on
jet engine performance. Second, maximum winds (the jet stream) and narrow zones of wind shear are
found at the tropopause.
The jet stream is a few thousand feet thick and a few hundred miles wide. By arbitrary definition,
it has wind speeds of fifty knots or greater. The highest wind speeds can be found on the polar side of
the jet core. See Figure 8-4. There may be two or more jet streams in existence at one time. The jet
stream is always found at a vertical break in the tropopause where the tropical and polar tropopauses
meet. In addition to the high speed horizontal winds, the jet stream contains a circular rotation with rising
air on the tropical side and descending air on the polar side. Because of the rising air, cirrus clouds will
sometimes form on the equatorial side of the jet.

Figure 8-4. Cross-section of the jet stream

Figure 8-3. Levels of atmosphere

ALL Every physical process of weather is accompanied by

9152. What is the primary cause of all changes in the or is the result of a heat exchange. Differences in solar
Earth’s weather? energy create temperature variations. These tempera-
A— Variations of solar energy at the Earth’s surface. ture variations create forces that drive the atmosphere
B— Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface. in its endless motion. (PLT510, AA.I.C.K3c) — AC 00-6
C— Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry Answer (B) is incorrect because changes in air pressure are due to
areas. temperature variations. Answer (C) is incorrect because movement
of air masses is a result of varying temperatures and pressures.

Answers
9152 [A]

8–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9160. Where is the usual location of a thermal low? 9176. At which location does Coriolis force have the
A— Over the arctic region. least effect on wind direction?
B— Over the eye of a hurricane. A— At the poles.
C— Over the surface of a dry, sunny region. B— Middle latitudes (30° to 60°).
C— At the Equator.
A dry, sunny region can become quite warm from intense
surface heating, thus generating a surface low-pressure Coriolis force varies with latitude from zero at the Equa-
area. This is called a thermal low. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) tor to a maximum at the poles. (PLT510, AA.I.C.K3e)
— AC 00-6 — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because thermal lows develop over dry,
sunny regions, not in the arctic. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the eye of a hurricane marks the center of a well-developed tropical ALL
cyclone. 9177. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in
the Southern Hemisphere?
ALL A— Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
9159. What is a feature of air movement in a high pres- B— Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
sure area? C— Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern
Hemisphere.
A— Ascending from the surface high to lower
pressure at higher altitudes. Coriolis force deflects air flow to the right causing winds
B— Descending to the surface and then outward. above the friction level to flow parallel to the isobars. In
C— Moving outward from the high at high altitudes the northern hemisphere, winds flow clockwise around
and into the high at the surface. high-pressure areas and counterclockwise around low-
pressure areas. In the southern hemisphere, Coriolis
Air in a high pressure system (in the northern hemi-
force causes a counterclockwise flow around highs and
sphere) tends to descend to the surface and then spiral
a clockwise flow around lows. (PLT516, AA.I.C.K3e) —
out from the center of the high. (PLT173, AA.I.C.K3e)
AC 00-6
— AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because the wind flows from a high to a low
(not a low to a high) in both the northern and southern hemispheres.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the Coriolis force deflects air to the
ALL left in the southern hemisphere, which is the opposite effect from
9157. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the northern hemisphere.
the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the
friction
ALL
A— decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. 9178. Which weather condition is defined as an anti-
B— decreases pressure gradient force. cyclone?
C— creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric
pressure. A— Calm.
B— High pressure area.
Frictional force slows wind speed near the surface and C— Col.
Coriolis force is decreased. The stronger pressure gradi-
ent force turns the wind at an angle across the isobars The clockwise flow of air around a high-pressure area
toward lower pressure until the three forces (Coriolis, in the northern hemisphere is called an anticyclone.
pressure gradient, and friction) are in balance. (PLT173, (PLT173, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6 Answer (A) is incorrect because calm is defined as the absence
of wind or of apparent motion of the air. Answer (C) is incorrect
Answer (B) is incorrect because friction does not affect the pres- because Col is the neutral area between two highs or two lows. It is
sure gradient force. Answer (C) is incorrect because of surface also the intersection of a trough and a ridge.
obstructions.

Answers
9160 [C] 9159 [B] 9157 [A] 9176 [C] 9177 [A] 9178 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8–5

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL The troposphere is the layer of atmosphere from the sur-

9178-1. A cyclone is face to an average altitude of 7 miles. It is characterized
A— a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean. by an overall decrease of temperature with increasing
B— a tropical depression with sustained winds of 63 altitude. (PLT203, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because moisture can be found in the
C— a tropical depression with a barometric pressure stratosphere, as evidenced by some of the largest thunderstorms.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the average altitude of the top of
in the center of the feature that is 35 mb lower the troposphere is about 7 miles.
than pressure outside the weather feature.

The low pressure and its wind system is a cyclone. ALL

Strong tropical cyclones are known by different names 9240. What weather feature occurs at altitude levels
in different regions of the world. A tropical cyclone in near the tropopause?
the Atlantic and eastern Pacific is a “hurricane”; in the
A— Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones.
western Pacific, “typhoon”; near Australia, “willy-willy”;
B— Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause.
and in the Indian Ocean, simply “cyclone.” (PLT517,
C— Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the
AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
tropopause level.

ALL
Maximum winds generally occur at levels near the tro-
9156. Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere
popause. These strong winds create narrow zones of
experience a generally east to west movement of wind shear which often generate hazardous turbulence.
weather systems? (PLT203, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because temperature is fairly constant above
A— Arctic only. the tropopause. Answer (C) is incorrect because thin layers of cirrus
B— Arctic and subtropical. (ice crystal) clouds can develop at altitudes below the tropopause
C— Subtropical only. level and extend into the lower stratosphere.

Polar easterlies carry storms from east to west. The

ALL
northeasterly trade winds carry tropical storms from
east to west. The prevailing westerlies drive mid-latitude 9209. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
storms generally from west to east. (PLT510, AA.I.C.K3e) A— Absence of wind and turbulence.
— AC 00-6 B— Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
C— Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.

ALL An abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate charac-

9233. Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will terizes the tropopause. (PLT203, AA.I.C.K3a)—AC 00-6
generally move Answer (A) is incorrect because the jet stream (wind) and clear air
turbulence are found extensively in the tropopause. Answer (B) is
A— northeast to southwest in polar easterlies. incorrect because clouds can be present into the stratosphere, as in
B— southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow. very large thunderstorms and cirrus clouds made up of ice crystals.
C— directly north to south with the low-level polar
airflow.
ALL
Arctic thundershowers, usually circumnavigable, move 9168. Where is a common location for an inversion?
generally from northeast to southwest in the polar east-
A— At the tropopause.
erlies which is opposite from the general movement in
B— In the stratosphere.
mid-latitudes. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
C— At the base of cumulus clouds.

Inversions are common in the stratosphere. (PLT203,

ALL
AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
9151. What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
Answer (A) is incorrect because a common location for an inversion
A— It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. is in the stratosphere, not at the tropopause. Answer (C) is incorrect
B— There is an overall decrease of temperature with because the base of cumulus clouds is where the dew point lapse
an increase of altitude. rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge. It is not a common
location for an inversion.
C— The average altitude of the top of the troposphere
is about 6 miles.

Answers
9178-1 [A] 9156 [B] 9233 [A] 9151 [B] 9240 [A] 9209 [C]
9168 [B]

8–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9241. Where are jetstreams normally located? 9229-1. When high level moisture is available, cirrus
A— In areas of strong low pressure systems in the clouds form on the
stratosphere. A— polar side of the jet stream.
B— In a break in the tropopause where intensified B— equatorial side of the jet stream.
temperature gradients are located. C— acute angle side of the jet stream.
C— In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth,
where there is a break between the equatorial When high-level moisture is present, cirriform clouds
and polar tropopause. form on the equatorial side of the jet stream. (PLT226,
AA.I.C.K3f) — AC 00-6
The jet stream is usually associated with a break in the
tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are
located. (PLT302, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6 ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because a jet stream is located in a break 9238. Where do the maximum winds associated with
in the tropopause, not in the stratosphere. Answer (C) is incorrect the jetstream usually occur?
because there may be more than one jet stream at any time; up to
three at one time are not uncommon. A— In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the
polar side of the jet core.
B— Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of
ALL the jetstream is located.
9779. The tropopause is generally found when the free C— On the equatorial side of the jetstream where
air temperatures are moisture has formed cirriform clouds.
A— between -55°C and -65°C. Maximum winds in a jet stream occur near a break
B— between -40°C and -55°C. in the tropopause and on the polar side. (PLT302,
C— colder than -60°C. AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because in the jet stream, the maximum
In the absence of other information, the tropopause will winds are found in, not below, the core. Answer (C) is incorrect
generally have a temperature of between -55°C and because when moisture is available, cirriform clouds will form on the
-65°C. (PLT302, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-30 upward motion of air of the jet stream on the equatorial side. This
will occur in the slower winds of the jet stream.

ALL
9229. Which type clouds may be associated with the ALL
jetstream? 9238-1. The rate of decrease in wind speed from the
jet stream core is considerably greater on the
A— Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream
crosses the cold front. A— equatorial side.
B— Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. B— polar side.
C— Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and C— acute angle side.
under the jetstream.
The rate of decrease of wind speed is considerably
When high-level moisture is present, cirriform clouds greater on the polar side than on the equatorial side;
form on the equatorial side of the jet stream. (PLT302, hence, the magnitude of wind shear is greater on
AA.I.C.K3f) — AC 00-6 the polar side than on the equatorial side. (PLT226,
Answer (A) is incorrect because cirriform, not cumulonimbus, clouds AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-6
are associated with the jet stream. Answer (C) is incorrect because
cirriform clouds form on the equatorial side of the jet stream.
ALL
9810. Large areas of land
A— tend to increase temperature variations.
B— do not influence the troposhere.
C— minimize temperature variations.

Land and water surfaces underlying the atmosphere

greatly affect cloud and precipitation development.
(PLT512, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
Answers
9241 [B] 9779 [A] 9229 [B] 9229-1 [B] 9238 [A] 9238-1 [B]
9810 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8–7

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL air over the land will rise throughout the day, causing
8710. For a flight to an airport in the vicinity of the coast, low pressure at the surface. Over the water, high sur-
land surface cooling means you can expect to encounter face pressure will form because of the colder air. To
A— sea breezes. compensate, the air will sink over the ocean. The wind
B— land breezes. will blow from the higher pressure over the water to
C— a chinook wind. lower pressure over the land causing the sea breeze.
The opposite occurs at night, with land surface cooling
During the day, the sun heats up both the ocean sur- causing a land breeze. (PLT512, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
face and the land. However, water heats up much more Answer (A) is incorrect because a sea breeze is cause by land
slowly than land and so the air above the land will be surface warming. Answer (C) is incorrect because a chinook wind
is associated with mountainous terrain.
warmer compared to the air over the ocean. The warm

Weather Systems
When air masses of different temperature or moisture content collide, they force air aloft along the area
where they meet. An elongated line of low pressure is referred to as a trough.
A front is defined as the boundary between two different air masses. The formation of a front is
called frontogenesis. When a front dissipates, the area experiences frontolysis. All fronts lie in troughs.
This means that winds flow around a front more or less parallel to the front, and in a counterclockwise
direction. As an aircraft flies toward a front in the northern hemisphere, the pilot will notice a decreasing
pressure and a wind from the left of the aircraft. After passing through the front, the pilot will note a wind
shift to the right and increasing air pressure.
A front is usually the boundary between air masses of different temperatures. If cold air is displac-
ing warm air, it is called a cold front. When warm air displaces cold air, it is a warm front. The speed of
movement of the front is determined by the winds aloft. A cold front will move at about the speed of the
wind component perpendicular to the front just above the friction level. It is harder for warm air to displace
cold air and so warm fronts move at about half the speed of cold fronts under the same wind conditions.
A stationary front is one with little or no movement. Stationary fronts or slow moving cold fronts can
form frontal waves and low pressure areas. A small disturbance can cause a bend in the frontal line that
induces a counterclockwise flow of air around a deepening low pressure area. The wave forms into a
warm front followed by a cold front. The cold front can then overtake the warm front and force the warm
air between the two aloft. This is called an occluded front or an occlusion.
Most fronts mark the line between two air masses of different temperature. However, this is not
always the case. Sometimes, air masses with virtually the same temperatures will form a front. The only
difference between the two is the moisture content. The front formed in such conditions is called a dew
point front or a dry line.
The surface position of a front often marks the line where an arctic and a tropical air mass meet
at the surface. The jet stream is located in the area where these air masses meet at the altitude of the
tropopause. There is often a rough correlation between the surface position of a front and the location
of the jet stream. Generally speaking, the jet stream will lie to the north of the surface position of a front.
As a frontal wave forms, the jet will move toward the center of the deepening low pressure area. If an
occluded front forms, the jet stream will often cross the front near the point of the occlusion.

Answers
8710 [B]

8–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9165. What term describes an elongated area of low 9192. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft
pressure? passes through a front into the colder air?
A— Trough. A— Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases.
B— Ridge. B— Wind direction shifts to the left.
C— Hurricane or typhoon. C— Atmospheric pressure increases.

A trough is an elongated area of low pressure with the A front lies in a pressure trough, and pressure generally
lowest pressure along a line marking maximum anti- is higher in the cold air. Thus, when crossing a front
cyclonic curvature. (PLT173, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6 directly into colder air, the pressure will usually rise
Answer (B) is incorrect because a ridge is an elongated area of high abruptly. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
pressure. Answer (C) is incorrect because a hurricane or typhoon Answer (A) is incorrect because the temperature/dew point spread
is a tropical cyclone (low) with highest sustained winds of 65 knots usually differs across a front. But it might not decrease if you fly
or greater. in to a cold, dry air mass. Answer (B) is incorrect because in the
northern hemisphere the wind always shifts to the right due to the
Coriolis force.
ALL
9165-1. Low pressure areas are areas of
ALL
A— stagnant air. 9213. If the winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front,
B— descending air.
C— ascending air. A— the front can be expected to move with the upper
winds.
At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot B— the winds aloft can be expected to turn at the
go outward against the pressure gradient, nor can it go frontal boundary.
downward into the ground; it must go upward. There- C— the front moves slowly if at all.
fore, a low or trough is an area of rising air. (PLT173,
AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6 The upper winds will dictate to a great extent the move-
ment of the front, along with the amount of cloudiness
and rain accompanying the frontal system. If winds aloft
ALL parallel a front, the front moves slowly if at all. If winds
9191. What is a feature of a stationary front? aloft blow across a front it tends to move with the wind.
A— The warm front surface moves about half the (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
speed of the cold front surface.
B— Weather conditions are a combination of strong ALL
cold front and strong warm front weather. 9215. Which atmospheric factor causes rapid move-
C— Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal ment of surface fronts?
zone.
A— Upper winds blowing across the front.
The opposing forces exerted by adjacent air masses B— Upper low located directly over the surface low.
in a stationary front are such that the frontal surface C— The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm
between them shows little or no movement. In such front.
cases, the surface winds tend to blow parallel to the
frontal zone. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6 Cold fronts move at about the speed of the wind compo-
Answer (A) is incorrect because the movement of a warm front sur- nent perpendicular to the front just above the frictional
face in comparison to a cold front surface has nothing to do with a layer. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
stationary front. Answer (B) is incorrect because weather conditions Answer (B) is incorrect because an upper low located directly over
that are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front a surface low would be a factor in how extensive the weather would
weather are a feature of an occluded front. be, not in how fast it would move. Answer (C) is incorrect because
a cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front is a characteristic
of an advancing cold front.

Answers
9165 [A] 9165-1 [C] 9191 [C] 9192 [C] 9213 [C] 9215 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8–9

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9215-1. Dew point fronts result from 9227. Where is the normal location of the jetstream
A— air density differences due to the humidity levels. relative to surface lows and fronts?
B— air density due to temperature. A— The jetstream is located north of the surface
C— temperatures aloft. systems.
B— The jetstream is located south of the low and
During a considerable part of the year, dew point fronts warm front.
are common in Western Texas and New Mexico north- C— The jetstream is located over the low and crosses
ward over the Plains States. Moist air flowing north both the warm front and the cold front.
from the Gulf of Mexico abuts the drier and therefore
slightly denser air flowing from the southwest. Except Development of a surface low is usually south of the
for moisture differences, there is seldom any significant jet stream. As the low deepens, it moves nearer the jet
air mass contrast across this “front”: therefore, it is com- center. When a low occludes, the jet stream usually
monly called a “dry line.” Nighttime and early morning crosses the frontal system at the point of the occlusion.
fog and low level clouds often prevail on the moist side (PLT302, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
of the line while generally clear skies mark the dry side. Answer (B) is incorrect because the jet stream is located to the
(PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6 north of the low and warm front. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the jet stream crosses the occlusion of the warm and cold front at
the point of occlusion.
ALL
9216. In which meteorological conditions can frontal
ALL
waves and low pressure areas form?
9228. Which type frontal system is normally crossed
A— Warm fronts or occluded fronts. by the jetstream?
B— Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
A— Cold front and warm front.
C— Cold front occlusions.
B— Warm front.
Frontal waves and cyclones (areas of low pressure) C— Occluded front.
usually form on slow moving cold fronts or on stationary
Development of a surface low is usually south of the
fronts. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
jet stream. As the low deepens, it moves nearer the jet
Answer (A) is incorrect because occluded fronts are formed by center. When a low occludes, the jet stream usually
frontal waves and areas of low pressure which cause a cold front to
close together with a warm front. Frontal waves and low pressure crosses the frontal system at the point of the occlusion.
areas normally form on slow-moving cold fronts. Answer (C) is incor- (PLT302, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
rect because a cold front occlusion occurs when the air behind the
cold front is colder than the air in advance of the warm front, lifting
the warm front aloft.
ALL
9228-1. Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated
ALL with
9217. What weather difference is found on each side A— fast moving warm front.
of a “dry line”? B— fast moving cold front.
A— Extreme temperature difference. C— dry lines.
B— Dewpoint difference.
The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is a
C— Stratus versus cumulus clouds.
cold front. Warm fronts on the surface are seldom as
A dew point front or “dry line” is formed when two air well marked as cold fronts, and they usually move about
masses of similar density and temperature meet. Except half as fast when the general wind flow is the same in
for the moisture differences, there is little contrast across each case. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
the front. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because except for moisture (not extreme
temperature) difference, there is seldom any significant air mass
contrast across the “dry line.” Answer (C) is incorrect because the
side with moisture may have clouds, while generally clear skies
mark the dry side.

Answers
9215-1 [A] 9216 [B] 9217 [B] 9227 [A] 9228 [C] 9228-1 [B]

8 – 10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9228-2. If a sample of air is forced upward and it is 9776. A jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering
colder than the surrounding air, it river of maximum winds extending around the globe in
A—sinks until it reaches denser air. a wavelike pattern with speeds of
B—gets energy from surrounding air and remains in A— 50 knots or greater.
place. B— 71 knots or greater.
C—warms from the surrounding air and rises to C— 100 knots or greater.
expansion.
The concentrated winds, by arbitrary definition, must
If the upward moving air becomes colder than surround- be 50 knots or greater to be classified as a jet stream.
ing air, it sinks; but if it remains warmer it is accelerated (PLT302, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-6
upward as a convective current. Whether it sinks or rises
depends on the ambient or existing temperature lapse
rate. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6 ALL
9776-1. Jet streams are strongest during which season
in the Northern Hemisphere?
A— Spring.
B— Summer.
C— Winter.

Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold

air. Since these hot and cold air boundaries are most
pronounced in winter, jet streams are strongest during
Northern and Southern Hemisphere winters. (PLT302,
AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6

Stability and Instability of Air

When a parcel of air is forced to rise it expands because its pressure decreases. Air that is forced to
descend is compressed. When the pressure and volume change, so does the temperature. When air
expands, it cools and when it is compressed, it warms. This cooling or heating is referred to as being
adiabatic, meaning that no heat was removed from or added to the air.
When unsaturated air is forced to rise or descend it cools or heats at a rate of about 3°C per 1,000 feet
of altitude change. This called the dry adiabatic rate. The saturated adiabatic rate is normally much lower.
When moist air is forced upward, the temperature and the dew point converge on each other at a
rate of about 2.5°C per 1,000 feet. At the altitude where the dew point lapse rate and the dry adiabatic
rate meet, cloud bases will form. Once the condensation starts taking place the adiabatic rate slows
considerably because the process of condensation releases latent heat into the air and partially offsets
the expansional cooling.
Saturated air flowing downward will also warm at less than the dry adiabatic rate because vaporiza-
tion of water droplets uses heat. Once the air is no longer saturated it will heat at the normal dry rate.
An example of this is the “katabatic wind” which becomes warmer and dryer as it flows downslope.
The adiabatic rate should not be confused with the actual (ambient) lapse rate. The actual lapse rate
is the rate at which the air temperature varies with altitude when air is not being forced to rise or descend.
The actual lapse averages about 2°C per 1,000 feet, but that is highly variable. When a parcel of air is
forced to rise, the adiabatic rate may be different than the ambient rate.
When a parcel of air becomes colder (and more dense) than the air around it, it will tend to sink back
toward its original altitude. If the parcel becomes warmer than the surrounding air, it will tend to rise

Answers
9228-2 [A] 9776 [A] 9776-1 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 11

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

convectively even though the original lifting force may have disappeared. If this happens, the air is said
to be unstable. When a parcel of air resists convective movement through it, it is said to be stable.
The best indication of the stability or instability of an air mass is the ambient temperature lapse rate.
If the temperature drops rapidly as the altitude increases, the air is unstable. If the temperature remains
unchanged or decreases only slightly as altitude is increased, the air mass is stable. If the temperature
actually increases as altitude increases, a temperature inversion exists. This is the most stable of weather
conditions.

ALL A katabatic wind is any wind blowing down an incline

9170. Which term applies when the temperature of the when the incline is influential in causing the wind. Any
air changes by compression or expansion with no heat katabatic wind originates because cold, heavy air spills
added or removed? down sloping terrain displacing warmer, less dense air
A— Katabatic. ahead of it. Air is heated and dried as it flows downslope.
B— Advection. (PLT516, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
C— Adiabatic. Answer (A) is incorrect because a land breeze is a wind that flows
from the cooler land toward warmer water. Answer (B) is incorrect
because a valley wind is wind flowing up out of a valley because
When air expands, it cools; and when compressed, it colder, denser air settles downward and forces the warmer air near
warms. These changes are adiabatic, meaning that the ground up a mountain slope.
no heat is removed from or added to the air. (PLT024,
AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because katabatic is a wind blowing down ALL
an incline caused by cold, heavier air spilling down the incline 9171. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will
displacing warmer, less dense air. Answer (B) is incorrect because cool flowing upslope?
advection is the horizontal flow in a convective current, i.e., wind.
A— 3°C per 1,000 feet.
B— 2°C per 1,000 feet.
ALL C— 4°C per 1,000 feet.
9186. Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
Unsaturated air moving upward and downward cools and
A— Expansion of air as it rises.
warms at about 3.0°C (5.4°F) per 1,000 feet. (PLT024,
B— Movement of air over a colder surface.
AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
C— Release of latent heat during the vaporization
process. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because unsaturated air will cool
flowing upslope at 3°C per 1,000 feet.

When air expands, it cools; and when compressed, it

warms. These changes are adiabatic, meaning that ALL
no heat is removed from or added to the air. (PLT024, 9182. What is the result when water vapor changes
AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6 to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?
Answer (B) is incorrect because adiabatic cooling means that no
heat is removed from the air, as would be the case if the air was A— Latent heat is released to the atmosphere.
moved over a colder surface. Answer (C) is incorrect because B— Latent heat is transformed into pure energy.
adiabatic cooling is the process in which no heat is removed from C— Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air
or added to the air.
by the water droplet.

When water vapor condenses to liquid water or sub-

ALL
limates directly to ice, energy originally used in the
9158. Which type wind flows downslope becoming
evaporation reappears as heat and is released to the
warmer and dryer?
atmosphere. This energy is “latent heat.” (PLT512,
A— Land breeze. AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6
B— Valley wind. Answer (B) is incorrect because latent heat cannot create pure
C— Katabatic wind. energy. Latent heat is returned to the surrounding atmosphere.
Answer (C) is incorrect because this is the process of latent heat in
vaporization, which is changing liquid water to vapor.

Answers
9170 [C] 9186 [A] 9158 [C] 9171 [A] 9182 [A]

8 – 12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9185. What weather condition occurs at the altitude 9187. When saturated air moves downhill, its tempera-
where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic ture increases
lapse rate converge? A— at a faster rate than dry air because of the
A— Cloud bases form. release of latent heat.
B— Precipitation starts. B— at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization
C— Stable air changes to unstable air. uses heat.
C— at a slower rate than dry air because
Unsaturated air in a convective current cools at about condensation releases heat.
5.4°F (3°C) per 1,000 feet. The dew point decreases at
about 1°F (5/9°C) per 1,000 feet. When the temperature The saturated adiabatic rate of heating is slower than
and dew point converge, cloud bases will form. (PLT512, the dry rate because vaporization uses heat. (PLT024,
AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6 AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because precipitation starts when precipita- Answer (A) is incorrect because when saturated air moves downhill,
tion particles have grown to a size and weight that the atmosphere its temperature increases at a slower rate than dry air because of
can no longer suspend, and the particles fall as precipitation. the absorption of latent heat. Answer (C) is incorrect because as air
Answer (C) is incorrect because air stability depends on the ambient moves downhill, its temperature increases at a slower rate than dry
or existing temperature lapse rate, not the convergence of the dew air because vaporization uses heat, not because of the release of
point lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate. heat through condensation.

ALL ALL
9185-1. Adiabatic warming is also described as 9154. What feature is associated with a temperature
A—chronographic warming. inversion?
B—expansional heating. A— A stable layer of air.
C—compressional heating. B— An unstable layer of air.
C— Air mass thunderstorms.
The adiabatic process is the change of the temperature
of air without transferring heat. In an adiabatic process, A temperature inversion is defined as an increase in
compression results in warming, and expansion results temperature with increasing altitude, or a negative
in cooling. (PLT512, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6 temperature lapse rate. Stable air masses have a low
or negative lapse rate. (PLT301, AA.I.C.K3c) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because instability occurs when the tem-
ALL perature decreases (not increases as in a temperature inversion)
9185-2. Temperature and radiation variations over land with an increase in altitude, and the rising air continues to rise.
with a clear sky typically lead to Answer (C) is incorrect because air mass thunderstorms result from
instability. They do not occur when there is a temperature inversion.
A— minimum temperature occurring after sunrise.
B— incoming terrestrial radiation peaking at noon.
C— temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon ALL
than to sunset. 9923. The stability of an air mass can usually be
determined by
The warming and cooling of the Earth depends on A— the height of the tropopause.
an imbalance between solar and terrestrial radiation. B— measuring the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
Shortly after sunrise, incoming solar radiation received C— cloud types and the type of precipitation.
at the Earth’s surface (insolation) becomes greater than
outgoing terrestrial radiation and the Earth’s surface Characteristics of an unstable air mass include cumu-
warms. Peak insolation occurs around noon, but maxi- liform clouds, showery precipitation, rough air (turbu-
mum surface air temperature usually occurs during the lence), and good visibility. Characteristics of a stable
midafternoon. (PLT510, AA.I.C.K3c) — AC 00-6 air mass include stratiform clouds and fog, continuous
precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze
and smoke. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6

Answers
9185 [A] 9185-1 [C] 9185-2 [B] 9187 [B] 9154 [A] 9923 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 13

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9924. Clouds with extensive vertical development over 9188. Which condition is present when a local parcel
mountainous terrain are a sign of of air is stable?
A— a dry adiabatic lapse rate. A— The parcel of air resists convection.
B— a stable air mass. B— The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill.
C— an unstable air mass. C— As the parcel of air moves upward, its
temperature becomes warmer than the
When operating in the vicinity of towering cumulus surrounding air.
(i.e., moderate/strong development), pilots can expect
very strong turbulence and some clear icing above the A parcel of air which resists convection when forced
freezing level. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3f) — AC 00-6 upward is called stable. (PLT173, AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because stable air can be forced uphill to
form a mountain wave. Answer (C) is incorrect because rising air,
ALL warmer than the surrounding air, describes unstable air.
9925. Cumulus clouds often indicate
A— possible turbulence. ALL
B— a temperature inversion. 9195. How can the stability of the atmosphere be
C— a dry adiabatic lapse rate. determined?
Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate bumpy tur- A— Ambient temperature lapse rate.
bulence beneath and in the clouds but good visibility. B— Atmospheric pressure at various levels.
The cloud tops indicate the approximate upper limit of C— Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.
convection; flight above them is usually smooth. (PLT192,
AA.I.C.K3f) — AC 00-6 A mass of air in which the temperature decreases
rapidly with height favors instability. Air tends to be
stable if the temperature changes little or not at all with
ALL altitude. The rate of temperature decrease with altitude
9184. What is indicated about an air mass if the tem- is referred to as the temperature lapse rate. (PLT173,
perature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as AA.I.C.K3a) — AC 00-6
altitude is increased? Answer (B) is incorrect because the difference between ambient
temperature and adiabatic lapse rate, not atmospheric pressure at
A— The air is unstable. various levels, determines stability. Answer (C) is incorrect because
B— A temperature inversion exists. the surface temperature/dew point spread is used to indicate prob-
C— The air is stable. ability of fog, not atmospheric stability.

A mass of air in which the temperature decreases rapidly

with height favors instability. Air tends to be stable if
the temperature changes little or not at all with altitude.
(PLT512, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because unstable air would have a uniform
decrease (approaching 3°C/1,000 feet) in temperature with an
increase in altitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because in a tempera-
ture inversion, the temperature increases with increases in altitude.

Answers
9924 [C] 9925 [A] 9184 [C] 9188 [A] 9195 [A]

8 – 14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Fog and Rain

Fog is a surface-based cloud that always forms in stable air conditions. The three main types are radia-
tion fog, advection fog and upslope fog.
Radiation fog occurs when there is a surface-based temperature inversion. On a clear, relatively
calm night the surface rapidly cools by radiating heat into space. This in turn cools the air within a few
hundred feet of the surface and leaves warmer air aloft. If the temperature drops to the dew point, fog
will form. Since the minimum temperature during the day occurs just after sunrise, this type of fog often
forms then. This fog will dissipate when the air warms up enough to raise the temperature above the
dew point again. However, if the inversion persists, visibility can remain limited due to lingering fog and
haze. Wind or any significant movement of air will disperse both radiation fog and haze.
Advection fog and upslope fog both require wind to form. Advection fog forms when warm moist air
flows over a colder surface. The temperature of the air drops to the dew point and fog forms. This com-
monly occurs over bodies of water such as lakes or oceans. The fog can drift over land on the leeward
(downwind) side of the body of water lowering visibility at nearby airports. If the wind increases to over
about 15 knots, the fog will tend to lift into low stratus clouds.
Upslope fog forms when moist, stable air is gradually moved over higher ground by the wind. As
the air rises, it cools adiabatically and fog forms. This type of fog is common in mountainous areas.
All clouds are composed of tiny droplets of water (or ice crystals). As these drops of water collide
with each other, they form larger drops until they precipitate out as rain. As a general rule, clouds need
to be at least 4,000 feet thick to produce precipitation reported as light or greater intensity.

ALL ALL
9153. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? 9155. When does minimum temperature normally occur
A— Convection currents at the surface. during a 24-hour period?
B— Cold temperatures. A— After sunrise.
C— Poor visibility. B— About 1 hour before sunrise.
C— At midnight.
Inversions can occur in warm and cold temperatures in
stable air, and usually trap particles in the air causing At night, solar radiation ceases, but terrestrial radiation
poor visibility. (PLT301, AA.I.C.K3c) — AC 00-6 continues and cools the surface. Cooling continues after
Answer (A) is incorrect because convective currents at the surface sunrise until solar radiation again exceeds terrestrial
do not occur when there is a ground-based inversion. Answer (B) is radiation. Minimum temperature usually occurs after
incorrect because when the temperature is cold, it is difficult for the sunrise, sometimes as much as 1 hour after. (PLT512,
earth to radiate enough heat to become colder than the overlying air.
AA.I.C.K3c) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because the minimum temperature normally
occurs after sunrise. Answer (C) is incorrect because the minimum
temperature normally occurs after sunrise, not at midnight.

Answers
9153 [C] 9155 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 15

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9169. What condition produces the most frequent type 9207. Which conditions are necessary for the formation
of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion? of upslope fog?
A— The movement of colder air under warm air or the A— Moist, stable air being moved over gradually
movement of warm air over cold air. rising ground by a wind.
B— Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft B— A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent
resulting in heating by compression. relative humidity.
C— Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm C— Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to
night. 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the
slope.
An inversion often develops near the ground on clear,
cool nights when the wind is light. The ground radi- Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being
ates and cools much faster than the overlying air. Air cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain.
in contact with the ground becomes cold while the (PLT226, AA.I.C.K3j) — AC 00-6
temperature a few hundred feet above changes very Answer (B) is incorrect because these are conditions necessary for
little. Thus, temperature increases with height. (PLT301, the formation of radiation fog which usually occurs at night. Answer
AA.I.C.K3c) — AC 00-6 (C) is incorrect because upslope fog is formed by moist air being
moved gradually over rising ground, not by rain falling through stra-
Answer (A) is incorrect because the movement of colder air under tus clouds and not by a wind blowing the precipitation up the slope.
warm air is what happens when a cold front is advancing, and the
movement of warm air over cold air is the process of an advancing
warm front. Answer (B) is incorrect because widespread sinking of
air describes compressional or adiabatic heating. ALL
9207-1. Precipitation induced fog
A— results from relatively warm rain or drizzle falling
ALL
through cooler air.
9208. How are haze layers cleared or dispersed? B— results from relatively cooler rain or drizzle falling
A— By convective mixing in cool night air. through warmer air.
B— By wind or the movement of air. C— is usually of short duration.
C— By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool
Haze or smoke must be dispersed by movement of air. air, evaporation from the precipitation saturates the
(PLT510, AA.I.C.K3l) — AC 00-6 cool air and forms fog. (PLT226, AA.I.C.K3j) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because convective mixing would be caused
by heating during the day, not by the cool night air. Answer (C) is
incorrect because haze must be dispersed by movement of air, it ALL
cannot evaporate in a similar manner to the clearing of fog. 9207-2. You are approaching an airport to land in 20
minutes. The METAR reports temperature 10°C, dew
point 10°C, winds 310/04, scattered clouds and rain.
ALL
You expect
9206. You are planning a flight to the West Coast of the
United States, which is currently below the published A— radiation fog.
weather minimums for an ILS approach to that airport. B— deepening fog.
Winds are forecast to increase to above 20 knots from C— clearing conditions.
the west at your scheduled arrival time. What weather
conditions should you expect? Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little
or no wind, and small temperature-dew point spread.
A— Visual meteorological conditions. (PLT226, AA.I.C.K3j) — AC 00-6
B— Advection fog will deepen with winds above 20
knots.
C— A layer of low stratus or stratocumulus is
expected.

Advection fog is most common along coastal areas

and will develop into a layer of stratus of stratocumulus
clouds with wind speeds in excess of 15 knots. (PLT226,
AA.I.C.K3j) — AC 00-6

Answers
9169 [C] 9208 [B] 9206 [C] 9207 [A] 9207-1 [A] 9207-2 [A]

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 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9194. Which condition produces weather on the lee 8723. A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current
side of a large lake? weather is rainy but is expected to clear, with tempera-
A— Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce ture/dew point spread forecast to be 10°C/10°C and
fog. winds 330° at 5 knots. What weather conditions should
B— Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce you expect?
advection fog. A— Visual meteorological conditions until later in the
C— Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce day.
rain showers. B— These conditions could produce radiation fog.
C— Dense fog that deepens later in the day.
When warm air flows over a colder lake, the air may
become saturated by evaporation from the water while Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little
also becoming cooler in the low levels by contact with or no wind, and small temperature/dew point spread
the cool water. Fog often becomes extensive and (high relative humidity). Radiation fog is restricted to
dense to the lee (downwind) side of the lake. (PLT226, land because water surfaces cool little from nighttime
AA.I.C.K3j) — AC 00-6 radiation. (PLT226, AA.I.C.K3j) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because cold air flowing over a warmer lake
may produce rain showers, not advection fog, on the lee side of the
lake. Answer (C) is incorrect because warm air flowing over a cool
lake may produce fog, not rain showers, on the lee side of the lake.

ALL
9193. What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indi-
cated if precipitation is reported as light or greater
intensity?
A— 4,000 feet thick.
B— 2,000 feet thick.
C— A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be
higher than the freezing level.

When arriving at or departing from a terminal reporting

precipitation of light or greater intensity, expect clouds
to be more than 4,000 feet thick. (PLT192, AA.I.C.K3f)
— AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because to produce significant precipitation
(light or greater intensity), clouds are normally at least 4,000 feet
thick. Answer (C) is incorrect because a cloud thickness resulting in
cloud tops above the freezing level means ice droplets and super-
cooled water will develop.

Answers
9194 [A] 9193 [A] 8723 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 17

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Thunderstorms
Thunderstorms are always generated in very unstable conditions. Warm, moist air is forced upward
either by heating from below or by frontal lifting, and becomes unstable. When the rising air cools to its
dew point, a cumulus cloud forms. This “cumulus stage” is the first of three in a thunderstorm’s life. It is
characterized by a continuous updraft as the cloud builds. As the raindrops and ice pellets in the cloud
grow larger, their weight begins to overpower the lifting force of the updrafts. As the drops fall through
the cloud, they cool the air making it more dense than in the surrounding updrafts. This process causes
downdrafts to form within the cloud.
When the downdrafts become strong enough to allow the first precipitation to reach the surface,
the mature stage of the thunderstorm has begun. Eventually, the downdrafts cut off the updrafts and the
storm loses the source of warm air that is its driving force. When the storm is characterized predominantly
by downdrafts, it is in the dissipating stage.
Air mass thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating. On a clear, sunny day, local hot
spots form that are capable of making the air over them unstable enough to generate a thunderstorm.
Because the downdrafts in an air mass thunderstorm shut off the updrafts fairly quickly, this type of storm
is relatively short-lived.
Steady-state thunderstorms are usually associated with weather systems. Fronts, converging
winds and troughs aloft force upward motion. In a steady-state storm the precipitation falls outside the
updraft allowing the storm to continue without abating for several hours.
The most violent type of steady-state thunderstorms are those generated by cold fronts or by squall
lines. A squall line is a non-frontal instability line that often forms ahead of a fast moving cold front.
Thunderstorms generated under these conditions are the most likely to develop cumulonimbus mamma
clouds, funnel clouds and tornadoes. A severe thunderstorm is one which has surface winds of 50 knots
or more, and/or has hail 3/4-inch or more in diameter.
Pressure usually falls rapidly with the approach of a thunderstorm, then rises sharply with onset of
the first gust and arrival of the cold downdraft and heavy rain showers. As the storm passes on, the
pressure returns to normal.
Even though thunderstorms are cumulus clouds formed in unstable air they can sometimes penetrate
overlying bands of stratiform clouds. These are known as “embedded thunderstorms.” Because these
thunderstorms are obscured by other clouds and it is impossible for a pilot to visually detour around
them, they present a particular hazard to IFR flight.
When they can, most pilots prefer to visually
avoid thunderstorms by flying around them or, if
they can maintain a high enough altitude, by flying
over the storm. If you are going to fly over the top
of a thunderstorm, a good rule of thumb to follow
is that the cloud should be overflown by at least
1,000 feet for each 10 knots of wind speed. Radar
is a very useful tool in thunderstorm avoidance,
especially at night or in IFR weather. The radar
displays an area of precipitation size rain drops as
a bright spot on the screen. Since thunderstorms
often contain large water drops, they usually show
up on the radar screen. A dark area on the screen
is one in which no precipitation drops are detected.
Areas of clouds may or may not be displayed
depending on the size of the drops that make up
Figure 8-5. Radar display of a thunderstorm the clouds. See Figure 8-5.

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 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is

9196. Which weather phenomenon signals the begin- the indication that a downdraft has developed and a
ning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage. Cold
A— The appearance of an anvil top. rain in the downdraft retards compressional heating,
B— The start of rain at the surface. and the downdraft remains cooler than surrounding air.
C— Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum. Therefore, its downward speed is accelerated and may
exceed 2,500 feet per minute. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h)
Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is the — AC 00-6
indication that a downdraft has developed and a thun- Answer (B) is incorrect because after striking the ground the down-
derstorm cell has entered the mature stage. (PLT495, drafts will move away from the storm’s center. Answer (C) is incorrect
because downdrafts remain colder than the surrounding air and
AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6 accelerate downward into an updraft.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the appearance of an anvil top occurs
during the dissipating stage. Answer (C) is incorrect because the growth
rate of a thunderstorm is at its greatest during the cumulus stage.
ALL
9200. Where do squall lines most often develop?
ALL A— In an occluded front.
9197. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which B— Ahead of a cold front.
stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? C— Behind a stationary front.
A— Cumulus.
B— Dissipating. A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active
C— Mature. thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front
in moist, unstable air. (PLT475, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6
Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the Answer (A) is incorrect because squall lines most often develop
thunderstorm. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6 ahead of a cold front, not in an occluded front. Answer (C) is incor-
rect because squall lines most often develop ahead of a cold front,
Answer (A) is incorrect because the cumulus stage is the building not behind a stationary front.
stage characterized by updrafts. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the mature stage has both updrafts and downdrafts, which create
strong wind shears.
ALL
9204. What is a difference between an air mass thun-
ALL derstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?
9198. What feature is normally associated with the A— Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation
cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? which falls outside of the updraft.
A— Beginning of rain at the surface. B— Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and
B— Frequent lightning. precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts.
C— Continuous updraft. C— Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with
local surface heating.
The key feature of the cumulus stage is a continuous
updraft. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6 Air mass thunderstorms most often result from surface
Answer (A) is incorrect because the beginning of rain at a surface heating. When the storm reaches the mature stage, rain
marks the beginning of the mature stage. Answer (B) is incorrect falls through or immediately beside the updraft. Falling
because frequent lightning occurs after the downdrafts have devel- precipitation induces frictional drag, retards the updraft
oped and produce the static electricity which causes lightning.
and reverses it to a downdraft. Such a self-destructive
cell usually has a life cycle of 20 minutes to 1-1/2 hours.
ALL In a steady-state thunderstorm, the precipitation falls
9203. Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm outside the downdraft and so the cell can last several
hazardous? hours. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because steady-state, not air mass, thunder-
A— Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which storms produce precipitation which falls outside the updraft. Answer
tends to accelerate the downward velocity. (C) is incorrect because air mass, not steady-state, thunderstorms
B— Downdrafts converge toward a central location are associated with local surface heating.
under the storm after striking the surface.
C— Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding
air and reverse into an updraft before reaching
the surface.
Answers
9196 [B] 9197 [B] 9198 [C] 9203 [A] 9200 [B] 9204 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 19

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9205. Which type storms are most likely to produce 9706. A severe thunderstorm is one in which the sur-
funnel clouds or tornadoes? face wind is
A— Air mass thunderstorms. A— 58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch
B— Cold front or squall line thunderstorms. or more in diameter.
C— Storms associated with icing and supercooled B— 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch
water. or more in diameter.
C— 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch
Tornadoes occur with isolated thunderstorms at times, or more in diameter.
but much more frequently, they form with steady-state
thunderstorms associated with cold fronts or squall A severe thunderstorm is one which has surface winds
lines. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6 of 50 knots (58 MPH) or more, and/or has hail 3/4 inch
Answer (A) is incorrect because even though air mass thunder- or more in diameter. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-45
storms may produce funnel clouds or tornadoes, they are most likely
to occur with steady-state thunderstorms. Answer (C) is incorrect
because all thunderstorms that have updrafts and carry water above ALL
the freezing level can produce icing and supercooled water. But
thunderstorms associated with cold fronts and squall lines are most 9708. A squall is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots
likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes. in average wind speed to a sustained speed of
A— 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
B— 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
ALL
C— 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
9210. Which type cloud is associated with violent
turbulence and a tendency toward the production of A squall (SQ) means there has been a sudden increase
funnel clouds? in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a speed of 20 knots
A— Cumulonimbus mammatus. or more, and it lasted at least one minute. (PLT475,
B— Standing lenticular. AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6
C— Stratocumulus.

Frequently, cumulonimbus mammatus clouds occur in ALL

connection with violent thunderstorms and tornadoes. 9708-1. Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has
(PLT501, AA.I.C.K3f) — AC 00-6 been encountered
Answer (B) is incorrect because standing lenticular clouds mark A— 10 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
mountain waves that are the product of stable air flowing over an
obstruction. Answer (C) is incorrect because stratocumulus some-
B— 15 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
times form from the breaking up of stratus or the spreading out of C—20 miles from the severe thurnderstorm.
cumulus, and they are associated with some turbulence and pos-
sible icing at subfreezing levels. Hazardous turbulence is present in all thunderstorms;
and in a severe thunderstorm, it can damage an airframe.
Strongest turbulence within the cloud occurs with shear
ALL
between updrafts and downdrafts. Outside the cloud,
9214. Which weather condition is an example of a shear turbulence has been encountered several thou-
nonfrontal instability band? sand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe
A— Squall line. storm. (PLT475, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-6
B— Advective fog.
C— Frontogenesis.
ALL
An instability line is a narrow, nonfrontal line or band of 9202. Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thun-
convective activity. If the activity is fully developed thun- derstorm will be at the lowest value
derstorms, the line is a squall line. (PLT511, AA.I.C.K3h) A— during the downdraft and heavy rain showers.
— AC 00-6 B— when the thunderstorm is approaching.
Answer (B) is incorrect because advective fog occurs when warm C— immediately after the rain showers have stopped.
moist air moves over a cool surface. It forms in stable air. Answer
(C) is incorrect because frontogenesis is the generation of a frontal
zone.

Answers
9205 [B] 9210 [A] 9214 [A] 9706 [A] 9708 [C] 9708-1 [C]
9202 [B]

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 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Pressure usually falls rapidly with the approach of a ALL

thunderstorm, then rises sharply with the onset of the 9199. What is indicated by the term “embedded thun-
first gust and the arrival of the cold downdraft and heavy derstorms”?
rain showers, falling back to normal as the storm moves A— Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall
on. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6 line.
Answer (A) is incorrect because during the downdraft and heavy rain B— Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a
showers the pressure rises sharply. Answer (C) is incorrect because stable air mass.
immediately after the rain showers have stopped the pressure will
return to normal. C— Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of
clouds.

ALL A layer of stratiform clouds may sometimes form in a

9189. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer mildly stable layer while a few convective clouds pen-
can produce which threat to instrument flight? etrate the layer, thus merging stratiform with cumuliform.
Under the right conditions, the cumuliform clouds can
A— Freezing rain.
become thunderstorms which are completely obscured
B— Clear air turbulence.
by the surrounding stratus clouds. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h)
C— Embedded thunderstorms.
— AC 00-6
A layer of stratiform clouds may sometimes form in a Answer (A) is incorrect because a squall line consists of severe
thunderstorms which can always be seen. Answer (B) is incorrect
mildly stable layer while a few convective clouds pen- because thunderstorms do not occur in stable air masses.
etrate the layer thus merging stratiform with cumuliform.
Under the right conditions, the cumuliform clouds can
become thunderstorms which are completely obscured ALL
by the surrounding stratus clouds. (PLT192, AA.I.C.K3f) 9211. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on
— AC 00-6 a radar scope indicates
Answer (A) is incorrect because the formation of freezing rain is A— the absence of clouds in the area.
dependent on rain falling through colder air. Convective clouds
that penetrate a stratus layer may or may not produce precipitation. B— an area of no convective turbulence.
Answer (B) is incorrect because clear air turbulence is turbulence C— an area where precipitation drops are not detected.
encountered in air where no clouds are present.
Airborne weather radar detects only precipitation size
raindrops and hail. Absence of a radar return does
ALL indicate an area free of clouds or turbulence. (PLT495,
9189-1. Embedded thunderstorms, which can be haz- AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6
ardous during instrument flight, are most likely to occur Answer (A) is incorrect because weather radar detects only precipi-
A— behind a fast-moving cold front. tation drops, not clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect because convective
turbulence, which would not be detected by radar, could be found
B— in a warm front occlusion. under cumulus clouds. Radar does not detect turbulence.
C— in a cold front occlusion.

A warm front occlusion occurs when the air ahead of the ALL
warm front is colder than the air of the cold front. When 9212. When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm,
this occurs, the cold front rides up and over the warm the cloud should be overflown by at least
front. If the air forced aloft by the warm front occlusion
is unstable, the weather will be more severe than the A— 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.
weather found in a cold front occlusion. Embedded B— 2,500 feet.
thunderstorms, rain, and fog are likely to occur. (PLT192, C— 500 feet above any moderate to severe
AA.I.C.K3h) — FAA-H-8083-25 turbulence layer.

When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, clear

the top by 1,000 feet for each 10 knots of wind at the
cloud top. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because the cloud should be overflown by at
least 1,000 feet for each 10 knots wind speed, which would normally
be greater than 2,500 feet with a severe thunderstorm. Answer (C)
is incorrect because the exact location of a turbulence layer will not
usually be known.

Answers
9189 [C] 9189-1 [B] 9199 [C] 9211 [C] 9212 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 21

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL Steady state thunderstorms usually are associated with

9835. A steady state thunderstorm is associated with weather systems. Fronts, converging winds, and troughs
A— surface heating. aloft force upward motion spawning these storms which
B— weather systems. often form into squall lines. Afternoon heating intensifies
C— mature stage. them. (PLT495, AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-6

Wind Shear
Normally we think of changes in wind speed or direction as having an effect only on an aircraft’s ground
speed and track. However, when there is a very rapid shift in wind speed or direction there is a notice-
able change in the aircraft’s indicated airspeed as well.
In a situation where there is a sudden increase in headwind (or decrease in tailwind) the aircraft’s
momentum keeps it moving through space at the same ground speed as before. This means that the
aircraft will be moving through the air faster than before and there will be an increase in its indicated
airspeed. The aircraft will react to this increase by pitching up and by tending to climb (or descend more
slowly). When there is a sudden increase in a tailwind (or decrease in the headwind), just the opposite
occurs. There will be a loss of indicated airspeed accompanied by a tendency to pitch down and descend.
Wind shear is defined as any rapid change in wind direction or velocity. Often, there is little or no
turbulence associated with wind shear. Severe wind shear is defined as a rapid change in wind direction
or velocity causing airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500
feet per minute.
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the
atmosphere. Three common generators of wind shear conditions are thunderstorms, temperature inver-
sions and jet stream winds. Thunderstorms generate a very significant wind shear hazard for two reasons.
The shear from thunderstorms is usually encountered close to the ground where there is little time or
altitude to recover. The magnitude of the shear is often very severe, especially in situations involving
microbursts, which we will discuss shortly. Wind shear can be encountered on all sides and directly
under the thunderstorm cell. Often, in a low altitude temperature inversion the winds are very light but
just above the inversion layer the wind is much stronger. When an aircraft either climbs or descends
through the top of the inversion it can encounter significant wind shear because of the change in wind
speed. A jet stream is a narrow “river” of wind where the speed can change a great deal over a very
short distance. This is the very definition of wind shear.
Microbursts are a very localized, but very dangerous, wind shear condition. They can occur any-
where that convective weather conditions exist. This includes rain showers, virga and thunderstorms. It
is believed that about 5 percent of thunderstorms produce a microburst.
A microburst is a very narrow downdraft of very high speed wind. The downdraft is typically a few
hundred to 3,000 feet across with vertical speeds up to 6,000 feet per minute. When the downdraft
approaches the surface, the wind flows outward from the core in all directions. Not only are these outflow
winds very strong (up to 45 knots) but their effect is doubled when an aircraft flies through the shear.
For example, a 45 knot headwind approaching the microburst will be a 45 knot tailwind flying out the
other side—a change of 90 knots. This is usually a short-lived phenomena, seldom lasting more than
15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until it dissipates.
An aircraft approaching a microburst will first experience an increasing headwind as it encounters the
outflow. The increasing headwind shear causes the indicated airspeed to increase and gives the aircraft a
tendency to pitch up and climb. This increase in performance without an increase in power might induce

Answers
9835 [B]

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 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

an unwary pilot into reducing power to maintain airspeed and flight path. As the aircraft flies into the core
of the microburst the headwind shifts to a downdraft. The sudden loss of headwind will cause indicated
airspeed to drop and cause the aircraft to pitch down and descend. The strong downdraft increases the
tendency to descend and the aircraft can quickly get into the situation of having low airspeed and a very
high rate of descent. As the aircraft flies out the backside of the microburst, it encounters an increasing
tailwind shear that further reduces indicated airspeed and performance.
There are some wind shear conditions that exceed the performance capability of typical air carrier
aircraft. For this reason it is imperative that pilots avoid situations where severe wind shear is either
reported or is likely to exist. At this time only a couple of airports in the United States have experimental
Doppler radar units capable of detecting wind shear. Many airports have the less sophisticated Low-
Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS), which is used to alert pilots to the possibility of wind shear on
or near the airport. This system consists of wind sensors located around the perimeter of the airport as
well as a center field wind sensor. When there is a significant difference in speed or direction between
any of these sensors and the center field sensor, the tower will broadcast the difference. A typical tower
transmission would be:
“SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR
ZERO AT THREE FIVE.”
The greatest danger from a wind shear encounter at low altitude is that the aircraft will pick up such
a high rate of descent that the pilots will be unable to stop it before hitting the ground. The technique
to be used during a wind shear encounter essentially involves trading airspeed for altitude. The exact
procedures vary from one aircraft to another but if an aircraft encounters severe wind shear, the pilot
should maintain or increase the pitch attitude, increase power to the maximum available and accept
lower than normal airspeed indications. If this does not arrest the descent, the pilot should continue to
pitch up until the descent does stop or until “stick shaker” is encountered.

ALL ALL
9139. Which is a definition of “severe wind shear”? 9220. In comparison to an approach in a moderate
A— Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind
excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending
B— Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity on the glide slope?
which causes airspeed changes greater than A— Less power is required.
15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than B— Higher pitch attitude is required.
500 ft/min. C— Lower descent rate is required.
C— Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots
which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or When a headwind shears to calm or a tailwind, the
vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min. aircraft tends to lose airspeed, get low, and pitch nose
down. The aircraft will require more power and a higher
Severe wind shear is defined as any rapid change in wind pitch attitude to stay on glide slope. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b)
direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes — AC 00‑54
greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater Answer (A) is incorrect because as airspeed decreases, more
than 500 feet per minute. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC power is required. Answer (C) is incorrect because as the head-
00-54 wind decreases, ground speed will increase, requiring a higher
descent rate.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a severe wind shear can be caused
to both horizontal and vertical shears. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a severe wind shear causes airspeed changes greater than
15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 fpm.

Answers
9139 [B] 9220 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 23

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9133. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot 9135. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot
be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm
A— Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, wind?
and altitude decreases. A— Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed
B— Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches decrease.
down, and altitude increases. B— Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
C— Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches C— Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
down, and altitude decreases.
When a tailwind on final shears to calm (or headwind),
With a headwind shearing to a calm wind there is a descent rate decreases. The closest answer suggests
loss of lift as airspeed decreases, the aircraft pitches altitude decreases, which is still true when one con-
down, and the aircraft drops below glide slope (altitude siders the ground speed decreases in this situation.
decreases). Responding promptly by adding power and Indicated airspeed and pitch increase. An overshoot
pitching up, a pilot may overshoot the glide slope and can result from insufficient power reduction. (PLT518,
airspeed target but then recover. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-54
— AC 00-54 Answer (A) is incorrect because pitch and indicated airspeed also
Answer (A) is incorrect because the aircraft will pitch down due to increase. Answer (B) is incorrect because altitude, pitch, and indi-
the relatively small angle of attack used during the headwind and the cated airspeed decrease when a headwind (not tailwind) shears to
sudden decrease in the airflow over the wing when the wind shears a calm wind.
to calm. Answer (B) is incorrect because less power is required
to maintain an indicated airspeed in a headwind than in calm air
because of ram air; thus, a shear from a headwind to calm would ALL
be indicated by a decrease in airspeed and a decrease in altitude.
9135-1. Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot
be aware of when a constant headwind shears to a
ALL calm wind?
9134. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the A— Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed
indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink decrease.
rate to decrease? B— Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
A— Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C— Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
B— Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
An increasing tailwind (or decreasing headwind) shear
C— Sudden increase in a headwind component.
will decrease indicated airspeed and performance
An increase in headwind component (which could capability. Due to airspeed loss, the airplane may tend
also be caused by a tailwind shearing to calm) causes to pitch down to regain trim speed. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b)
airspeed and pitch to increase, sink rate to decrease. — AC 00-54
(PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-54
Answer (A) is incorrect because a sudden decrease in a headwind ALL
component would decrease aircraft performance and would be
indicated by a decrease in airspeed, pitch, and altitude. Answer (B) 9137. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of
is incorrect because an increase in tailwind velocity would decrease airspeed?
performance and be indicated by a decrease in airspeed, pitch,
and altitude. A— Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
B— Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
C— Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

Decreasing headwind by itself or with a shear to a tail-

wind will result in loss of indicated airspeed. (PLT518,
AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-54
Answer (A) is incorrect because in a decreasing tailwind condi-
tion, airspeed initially increases. Answer (C) is incorrect because
an increasing headwind and a decreasing tailwind both initially
increase airspeed.

Answers
9133 [C] 9134 [C] 9135 [C] 9135-1 [B] 9137 [B]

8 – 24 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL Shearing to a headwind will create an increased air-

9138. Which wind-shear condition results in an increase speed condition, causing a pitch up with a vertical speed
in airspeed? decrease. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-54
A— Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Answer (A) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will initially
B— Increasing tailwind and headwind. increase. Answer (C) is incorrect because pitch and indicated air-
speed will both initially increase.
C— Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

A headwind increasing against the pitot and airframe ALL

will result in an airspeed increase. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) 9166. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
— AC 00-54
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because when a headwind shears
A— It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices
to a tailwind, increasing tailwind component and decreasing head- generated by thunderstorms.
wind component, the reduction of the ram air pressure on the pitot B— It usually exists only in the vicinity of
tube causes an initial reduction of indicated airspeed. The reduced thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong
headwind component will also cause a pitch down moment and a
decrease in altitude. temperature inversion.
C— It may be associated with either a wind shift
or a windspeed gradient at any level in the
ALL atmosphere.
9141. Which airplane performance characteristics
should be recognized during takeoff when encountering Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift
a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
(PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-6
A— Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.
Answer (A) is incorrect because wind shear can be vertical (as well
B— Decreased takeoff distance. as lateral) in thunderstorm clouds between the updrafts and down-
C— Increased climb performance immediately after drafts, as well as in other areas such as frontal zones and low-level
takeoff. temperature inversions. Answer (B) is incorrect because wind shear
can be encountered in areas other than thunderstorms; e.g., within a
frontal zone, in and near the jet stream, low level inversions.
When a tailwind is encountered at liftoff, airspeed will
decrease. The pilot must overcome the instinct to lower
pitch attitude to recover airspeed or the aircraft may sink ALL
beyond recovery limits. Use all available performance 9201. Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by
by commanding a higher-than-normal pitch attitude and wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
accepting the lower airspeed. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) —
AC 00-54 A— In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and
Answer (B) is incorrect because as a tailwind shear increases,
on the southwest side of the cell.
takeoff distance is increased because more power or distance is B— Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly
required to attain lift-off speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because as under the anvil cloud.
a tailwind shear increases during climb-out, the climb performance C— On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm
will decrease.
cell.

Wind shear can be found on all sides of a thunderstorm

ALL
cell and in the downdraft directly under the cell. (PLT495,
9142. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired
AA.I.C.K3h) — AC 00-54
indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown.
Which characteristics should be observed when a tail- Answer (A) is incorrect because the wind shear associated with a
thunderstorm is on all sides and directly under the cell, not just in
wind shears to a constant headwind? the front and on the southwest side. Answer (B) is incorrect because
A— PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL the wind shear associated with a thunderstorm is on all sides and
directly under the cell. A roll cloud is not present on all thunder-
SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: storms, and when present it marks the eddies of the shear zone
Decreases, then increases to approach speed. between the downdraft and surrounding air.
B— PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL
SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED:
Increases, then decreases.
C— PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL
SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED:
Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

Answers
9138 [C] 9141 [A] 9142 [B] 9166 [C] 9201 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 25

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL Wind speeds intensify for about 5 minutes after a

9225. Which is a necessary condition for the occur- microburst initially contacts the ground. An encounter
rence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? during the initial stage of microburst development may
A— The temperature differential between the cold not be considered significant, but an airplane following
and warm layers must be at least 10°C. may experience an airspeed change two to three times
B— A calm or light wind near the surface and a greater. Microbursts typically dissipate within 10 to 20
relatively strong wind just above the inversion. minutes after ground contact. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) —
C— A wind direction difference of at least 30° AIM ¶7-1-25
between the wind near the surface and the wind
just above the inversion.
ALL
When taking off or landing in calm wind under clear 9131. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter
skies within a few hours before or after sunrise, a pilot may be as strong as
should be prepared for a temperature inversion near A— 8,000 ft/min.
the ground. A shear zone in the inversion is relatively B— 7,000 ft/min.
certain if the wind at 2,000 to 4,000 is 25 knots or more. C— 6,000 ft/min.
(PLT501, AA.I.C.K3c) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because magnitude of temperature differ- The downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per
ential in the inversion is not important; the wind shear is caused by minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as
the variation in wind speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because surface strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across
wind and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion, not a wind
direction difference of at least 30°, are needed to form a low-level
the microburst. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
temperature inversion wind shear. The wind shear is caused by wind
speed variation, not variation in wind direction.
ALL
9814. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter
ALL are strong and may include horizontal winds near the
9701. The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence surface as strong as
(moderate or greater) per 150 miles is A— 34 knots.
A— 18 knots or less. B— 20 knots.
B— greater than 18 knots. C— 45 knots.
C— not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.
Microburst downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet
Horizontal wind shear can be determined from the per minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as
spacing of isotachs. The horizontal wind shear critical strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across
for turbulence (moderate or greater) is greater than 18 the microburst. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
knots per 150 miles. 150 nautical miles is equal to 2-1/2
degrees latitude. (PLT263, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-45
ALL
9132. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40
ALL knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear
9130. What is the expected duration of an individual across the microburst of
microburst? A— 40 knots.
A— Two minutes with maximum winds lasting B— 80 knots.
approximately 1 minute. C— 90 knots.
B— One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to
4 hours. With a headwind of 40 knots, the pilot may expect a
C— Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the total shear of 80 knots across the microburst. (PLT317,
burst strikes the ground until dissipation. AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the total shear is the total
headwind to tailwind change of a traversing airplane, thus a 40-knot
headwind would shear 80 knots to a 40-knot tailwind.

Answers
9225 [B] 9701 [B] 9130 [C] 9131 [C] 9814 [C] 9132 [B]

8 – 26 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted

9140. Doppler wind measurements indicate that the in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor-
windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying mance in position 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
through the peak intensity of a microburst is approxi- in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
mately the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at
A— 15 knots. position 4. Position 5 represents the situation just before
B— 25 knots. ground contact. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
C— 45 knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because position 5 has significantly less
downdraft even though it has considerably more tailwind. Answer
(B) is incorrect because position 2 has not as significant a downdraft
The downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per as 3 and 4, but it contains a significant headwind even though it is
minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as decreasing.
strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across
the microburst. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
ALL
9146. (Refer to Figure 144.) When penetrating a
ALL microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase
9143. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter in performance without a change in pitch or power?
may be as strong as
A— 3.
A— 8,000 ft/min. B— 2.
B— 7,000 ft/min. C— 1.
C— 6,000 ft/min.
An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted
The downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor-
minute. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as mance in position 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear across in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
the microburst. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25 the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at
position 4. Position 5 represents the situation just before
ground contact. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
ALL
Answer (A) is incorrect because position 3 indicates where the
9144. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 most severe downdraft occurs, which results in a decrease in
knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear performance. Answer (B) is incorrect because position 2 does not
across the microburst of have as significant a headwind component as position 1, and thus
performance is less than at position 1.
A— 40 knots.
B— 80 knots.
C— 90 knots. ALL
9147. (Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst
With a headwind of 45 knots, the pilot may expect a encounter have upon the aircraft in position 3?
total shear of 90 knots across the microburst. (PLT317,
A— Decreasing headwind.
AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
B— Increasing tailwind.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the total shear is the total headwind
to tailwind change of a traversing airplane, thus a 45-knot headwind
C— Strong downdraft.
would shear 90 knots, not 40 knots, to a 45-knot tailwind. Answer (B)
is incorrect because the total shear is the total headwind to tailwind An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted
change of a traversing airplane, thus a 45-knot headwind would in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor-
shear 90 knots, not 80 knots, to a 45-knot tailwind.
mance in position 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
ALL
the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at
9145. (Refer to Figure 144.) If involved in a microburst
position 4. Position 5 represents the situation just before
encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe ground contact. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
downdraft occur? Answer (A) is incorrect because at position 2, not 3, the airplane
encounters decreasing headwind. Answer (B) is incorrect because
A— 4 and 5. at position 5 the airplane encounters an increasing tailwind and
B— 2 and 3. it may result in an extreme situation as pictured, i.e., just before
impact.
C— 3 and 4.

Answers
9140 [C] 9143 [C] 9144 [C] 9145 [C] 9146 [C] 9147 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 27

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9148. (Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst 9150. What is the expected duration of an individual
encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4? microburst?
A— Strong tailwind. A— Two minutes with maximum winds lasting
B— Strong updraft. approximately 1 minute.
C— Significant performance increase. B— One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to
4 hours.
An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted C— Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the
in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor- burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
mance in position 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter An individual microburst will seldom last longer than
the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground until
position 4. Position 5 represents the situation just before dissipation. The horizontal winds continue to increase
ground contact. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25 during the first 5 minutes with the maximum intensity
Answer (B) is incorrect because updrafts will occur in thunder- winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes. (PLT317,
storms, not in microbursts from thunderstorms. Answer (C) is AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25
incorrect because the significant increase in performance occurs at
Answer (A) is incorrect because microbursts last 15, not 2 minutes,
position 1 where the headwind component is the greatest.
and maximum winds last 2 to 4 minutes, not 1 minute. Answer (B)
is incorrect because the maximum winds last 2 to 4 minutes, not 2
to 4 hours, and the microburst is usually limited to about 15 minutes.
ALL
9149. (Refer to Figure 144.) How will the aircraft in posi-
tion 4 be affected by a microburst encounter? ALL
A— Performance increasing with a tailwind and 9167. What information from the control tower is indi-
updraft. cated by the following transmission?
B— Performance decreasing with a tailwind and “SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO
downdraft. FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO
C— Performance decreasing with a headwind and AT THREE FIVE.”
downdraft. A— A downburst is located at the center of the airport.
B— Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the
An airplane flying through the microburst as depicted
active runway.
in FAA Figure 144 would encounter increasing perfor-
C— There is a possibility of wind shear over or near
mance in position 1, followed by a decreasing headwind
the airport.
in position 2. At position 3 the aircraft would encounter
the strong downdraft followed by a strong tailwind at The Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) is
position 4. Position 5 represents the situation just before a computerized system which detects the presence
ground contact. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25 of a possible hazardous low-level wind shear by con-
Answer (A) is incorrect because performance will decrease with a tinuously comparing the winds measured by sensors
tailwind, and thunderstorms (not microbursts) will have updrafts.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the airplane at position 2 indicates installed around the periphery on an airport with the wind
where performance will decrease due to a headwind and downdraft. measured at the center field location. If the difference
between the center field wind sensor and peripheral
sensor becomes excessive, a thunderstorm or thun-
ALL derstorm gust front wind shear is probable. When this
9926. (Refer to Figure 144.) On final approach to the condition exists, the tower controller will provide arrival
airport, airplane in position #5 would experience and departure aircraft with an advisory of the situation
A— decreased ground speed. which includes the center field wind plus the remote
B— downdraft. location and wind. The broadcast quoted in the ques-
C— poor performance. tion is an example of this type of advisory. (PLT044,
AA.I.C.K2) — AIM ¶4‑3‑7
During a microburst encounter, the airplane first comes Answer (A) is incorrect because a downburst is a vertical movement
upon a headwind (which is performance increasing), fol- of air which is not measured by the LLWAS until it has horizontal
movement. Also the wind direction is toward the center of the airport,
lowed by a downdraft and tailwind (both are performance not away from it. Answer (B) is incorrect because wake turbulence
decreasing). Position 5 represents an extreme situation does not produce wind. It is generated by an aircraft that is produc-
just prior to impact. (PLT317, AA.I.C.K3h) — AIM ¶7-1-25 ing lift, which could be on either side of the active runway.

Answers
9148 [A] 9149 [B] 9926 [C] 9150 [C] 9167 [C]

8 – 28 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL Pitch attitude must be maintained or increased even

9136. What is the recommended technique to counter when lower-than-normal airspeed indications are
the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? required. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-54
A— Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Answer (A) is incorrect because lowering the pitch attitude to regain
B— Avoid overstressing the aircraft, “pitch to lost airspeed is a result of past training emphasis on airspeed
control, not recovering from a wind shear. Answer (B) is incorrect
airspeed,” and apply maximum power. because the recommended technique to recover from a wind shear
C— Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept is to maintain or increase pitch attitude and not “pitch to airspeed,”
the lower-than-normal airspeed indications. which may decrease pitch to regain lost airspeed.

Frost and Ice

No person may dispatch or release an aircraft, continue to operate en route, or land when in the opinion
of the pilot-in-command or aircraft dispatcher, icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely
affect the safety of the flight. No person may takeoff when frost, snow or ice is adhering to the wings,
control surfaces or propellers of the aircraft.
Deicing is a procedure in which frost, ice, or snow is removed from the aircraft in order to provide
clean surfaces. Anti-icing is a process that provides some protection against the formation of frost or ice
for a limited period of time.
The equipment most commonly used for deicing and anti-icing airplanes on the ground is the truck-
mounted mobile deicer/anti-icer. The two basic types of fluids used are Type 1 (unthickened) fluids and
Type 2 (thickened) fluids. Type 1 fluids have a minimum 80% glycol content and a relatively low viscos-
ity, except at very low temperatures. The viscosity of Type 1 fluids depends only on temperature. The
holdover time is relatively short for Type 1 fluids. Type 2 fluids have a significantly higher holdover time.
Type 2 fluids have a minimum glycol content of 50% with 45% to 50% water plus thickeners and inhibi-
tors. Water decreases the freeze point. The freeze point should be no greater than 20°F below ambient
or surface temperature, whichever is less.
There is a one-step process and a two-step process for deicing and anti-icing. The one-step process
uses heated fluid to remove snow, ice and frost. The primary advantage of this process is that it is quick
and uncomplicated. However, where large deposits of snow or ice must be flushed off, fluid usage will
be greater than with the two-step process. The two-step process consists of separate deicing and anti-
icing steps. A diluted fluid, usually heated, is used to deice and a more concentrated fluid (either 100%
or diluted, depending on the weather), usually cold, is used to anti-ice. Type 1 or 2 fluids can be used
for both steps, or Type 1 for step 1 and Type 2 for step 2.
Two precautions to observe when using this equipment are:
1. Do not spray deice/anti-ice fluid at or into pitot inlets, TAT probes, or static ports; and
2. Apply deice/anti-ice fluid on pressure relief doors, lower door sills, and bottom edges of doors prior
to closing for flight.

Icing
For ice to form, there must be moisture present in the air and the air must be cooled to a temperature of
0°C (32°F) or less. Aerodynamic cooling can lower the temperature of an airfoil to 0°C even though the
ambient temperature is a few degrees warmer.
Ice is identified as clear, rime, or mixed. Rime ice forms if the droplets are small and freeze immedi-
ately when contacting the aircraft surface. This type of ice usually forms on areas such as the leading

Answers
9136 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 29

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

edges of wings or struts. It has a somewhat rough looking appearance and is a milky white color. Clear
ice is usually formed from larger water droplets or freezing rain that can spread over a surface. This is
the most dangerous type of ice since it is clear, hard to see, and can change the shape of the airfoil.
Mixed ice is a mixture of clear ice and rime ice. It has the bad characteristics of both types and can
form rapidly.
There are two kinds of icing that are significant to aviation: structural icing and induction icing.
Structural icing refers to the accumulation of ice on the exterior of the aircraft; induction icing affects
the powerplant operation. Structural icing occurs on an aircraft whenever supercooled droplets of water
make contact with any part of the aircraft that is also at a temperature below freezing.
One inflight condition necessary for structural icing is visible moisture (clouds or raindrops). Freez-
ing rain always occurs in a temperature inversion. As the rain falls through air that is below freezing, its
temperature begins to fall below freezing yet it does not freeze solid—i.e., freezing rain. The process
requires the temperature of the rain to be above freezing before it becomes supercooled. Eventually,
the water drops will freeze into ice pellets. Any encounter with ice pellets in flight indicates that there is
freezing rain at a higher altitude.
Aircraft structural ice will most likely have the highest accumulation in freezing rain; therefore, an
operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact is that temperatures are above
freezing at some higher altitude.

Hazards of Structural Icing

The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is its aerodynamic effects. Ice can alter the shape of an
airfoil. This can cause control problems, change the angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls, and cause
the aircraft to stall at a significantly higher airspeed. Ice can reduce the amount of lift that an airfoil will
produce and increase the amount of drag by several times. It can partially block or limit control surfaces,
which will limit or make control movements ineffective. If the extra weight caused by ice accumulation is
too great, the aircraft might not be able to become airborne, and if in flight, might not be able to maintain
altitude.
For this reason, regulations prohibit takeoff when snow, ice, or frost is adhering to wings, propellers,
or control surfaces of an aircraft. Yet another hazard of structural icing is the possible uncommanded
and uncontrolled roll phenomenon referred to as “roll upset,” which is associated with severe inflight
icing. Therefore, pilots flying airplanes certificated for flight in known icing conditions should be aware
that severe icing is a condition that is outside of the airplane’s certificated icing envelope.
Structural icing can also cause tailplane (empennage) stall. The tail can collect ice faster than the
wing and because it is not visible to the pilot inflight, the situation could go undetected. A tailplane stall
occurs when, same as with the wing, the critical angle of attack is exceeded. Since the horizontal stabi-
lizer counters the natural nose-down tendency caused by the center of lift of the main wing, the airplane
will react by pitching down, sometimes uncontrollably, when the tailplane is stalled. Application of flaps
can aggravate or initiate the stall.
Because of this, the pilot should use caution when applying flaps during an approach if there is the
possibility of icing on the tailplane. Ice buildup will cause the airplane to require more power to maintain
cruise airspeed. Ice on the tailplane can cause diminished nose-up pitch control and heavy elevator
forces, and the aircraft may buffet if flaps are applied. Ice on the rudder or ailerons can cause control
oscillations or vibrations.
For an airplane to be approved for flight into icing conditions, the airplane must be equipped with
systems that will adequately protect various components. Not all airplanes with these components are

8 – 30 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

approved for flight into known icing; check your POH to know if your airplane has been certificated to
operate in known icing conditions.

Frost Formation
Frost is described as ice deposits formed by sublimation on a surface when the temperature of the col-
lecting surface is at or below the dew point of the adjacent air and the dew point is below freezing. Frost
causes early airflow separation on an airfoil resulting in a loss of lift. Therefore, all frost should be removed
from the lifting surfaces of an airplane before flight or it may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne.
Snow always forms in colder than freezing temperatures by the process of sublimation. This is when
water goes straight from its vapor state into ice without ever being a liquid. Wet snow occurs when it falls
to altitudes with above freezing temperatures and begins to melt.
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost formations having a thickness and surface roughness similar
to medium or course sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can reduce wing lift
by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%.

ALL ALL
9440. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation 9449. Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature
on an airplane? ranges of
A— Increased stall speed. A— -15 to -25ºC.
B— Increased pitchdown tendencies. B— 0 to -10ºC.
C— Increased angle of attack for stalls. C— colder than -25ºC.

Aircraft with ice, snow, or frost on the wings may experi- Temperatures close to the freezing point, large amounts
ence increased stall speed, decreased angle of attack of liquid water, high aircraft velocities, and large droplets
for stalls, and increased pitchup tendencies. (PLT493, are conducive to the formation of clear ice. (PLT493,
AA.I.B.K6) — AC 20-117 AA.I.C.K3i) — AC 91-51

ALL ALL
9440-1. Frozen dew is 9451. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having
A— white and opaque. a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse
B— hard and opaque. sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of
C— hard and transparent. a wing can
A— reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and
Frost forms in much the same way as dew. The dif- increase drag by 30 percent.
ference is that the dew point of surrounding air must B— increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40
be colder than freezing. Water vapor then sublimates percent.
directly as ice crystals or frost rather than condensing as C— reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and
dew. Sometimes dew forms and later freezes; however, increase drag by 40 percent.
frozen dew is easily distinguished from frost. Frozen dew
is hard and transparent while frost is white and opaque. Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost formations
(PLT493, AA.I.C.K3k) — AC 00-6 having a thickness and surface roughness similar to
medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge
and upper surface of a wing can reduce wing lift by
as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%. (PLT128,
AA.I.B.K6) — AC 120-58

Answers
9440 [A] 9440-1 [C] 9449 [B] 9451 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 31

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9695. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on 9442. The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing
aircraft performance and flight characteristics include fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to
decreased lift and A— raise the eutectic point.
A— increased thrust. B— decrease the freeze point.
B— a decreased stall speed. C— increase the minimum freezing point (onset of
C— an increased stall speed. crystallization).

Ice, frost, or snow on an aircraft can cause decreased Pure ethylene glycol will freeze at warmer temperatures
lift, increased stall speed, and loss of thrust. (PLT493, than aqueous solutions of ethylene glycol. (PLT108,
AA.I.B.K6) — AC 120-58 AA.I.B.K7) — AC 20-117
Answer (A) is incorrect because diluting ethylene glycol lowers the
eutectic point. Answer (C) is incorrect because diluting ethylene gly-
ALL col decreases the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).
9302. Even a small amount of frost, ice, or snow may
A— increase takeoff performance. ALL
B— hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will 9443. Which procedure increases holding time when
be impossible. deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?
C— decrease takeoff ground run.
A— Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.
Aircraft that have ice, snow, or frost on their surfaces B— Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid.
must be carefully cleaned prior to beginning a flight C— Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1
because of the possible airflow disruption and loss of fluid.
lift. (PLT128, AA.I.B.K6) — FAA-H-8083-25
Type 2 fluid is applied cold to increase its thickness and
increase holding time. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
ALL Answer (B) is incorrect because cold Type 2 would not be an effec-
9441. Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the tive deicer. Answer (C) is incorrect because step 2 should be Type 2.
two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?
A— It is more complicated. ALL
B— The holding time is increased. 9444. Which of the following will decrease the holding
C— More fluid is used with the one-step method time during anti-icing using a two-step process?
when large deposits of ice and snow must be
flushed off airplane surfaces. A— Apply heated Type 2 fluid.
B— Decrease the water content.
Use the two-stage process to remove ice deposits with C— Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.
hot water or a mix of FPD (Freezing Point Depressant)
and water. This reduces the amount of fluid required. Heating fluids increases their deicing effectiveness;
(PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58 however, in the anti-icing process, unheated fluids are
more effective. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
Answer (A) is incorrect because the one-step process is less com-
plicated. Answer (B) is incorrect because one of the advantages of Answer (B) is incorrect because decreasing the water content will
the one-step process is increased holding time. increase the holding time. Answer (C) is incorrect because increas-
ing the viscosity of Type 1 fluid will increase the holding time.

Answers
9695 [C] 9302 [B] 9441 [C] 9442 [B] 9443 [A] 9444 [A]

8 – 32 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9753. When icing is detected, particularly while operat- 9445. What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature
ing an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should be during the last step of a two-phase process?
A— fly to an area with liquid precipitation. A— Hot.
B— fly to a lower altitude. B— Warm.
C— leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude C— Cold.
where the temperature is above freezing.
The two-step procedure involves both deicing and
When icing is detected, a pilot should do one of two anti-icing. Deicing is accomplished with hot water or
things, particularly if the aircraft is not equipped with a hot mixture of FPD and water. The ambient weather
deicing equipment: leave the area of precipitation conditions and the type of accumulation to be removed
or go to an altitude where the temperature is above from the aircraft must be considered when determining
freezing. This “warmer” altitude may not always be a which type of deicing fluid to use. The second (anti-
lower altitude. Proper preflight action includes obtaining icing) step involves applying a mixture of SAE or ISO
information on the freezing level and the above-freezing Type 2 and water to the critical surfaces of the aircraft.
levels in precipitation areas. (PLT493, AA.VII.A.K6) — (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
FAA-H-8083-15 Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because heated fluids are used
Answer (A) is incorrect because pilots should leave the area of during the first step of a two-phase process.
any precipitation; even liquid precip can result in an icing scenario.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a “warmer” altitude may not always
be a lower altitude. ALL
9446. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1
deicing/anti-icing fluid?
ALL
9756. If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped A— 30 percent.
with deicing equipment, the pilot should B— 50 percent.
C— 80 percent.
A— first confirm ice with the ice light prior to
deploying the pneumatic boots. SAE and ISO Type 1 fluids in the concentrated form
B— operate the pneumatic deicing system several contain a minimum of 80% glycols and are considered
times to clear the ice. “unthickened” because of their relatively low viscosity.
C— operate the pneumatic deicing system once to (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
allow time for the ice removal.

Pneumatic boots are one method capable of removing ALL

ice from an aircraft surface. This system is commonly 9447. What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2
used on smaller aircraft and usually provides ice removal deicing/anti-icing fluid?
for the wing and tail section by inflating a rubber boot.
(PLT493, AA.VII.A.K6) — FAA-H-8083-15 A— 30 percent.
B— 50 percent.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the deicing system should be used
as soon as icing is suspected. Answer (C) is incorrect because the C— 80 percent.
pneumatic boots should be inflated/deflated several times to try to
remove the ice. SAE and ISO Type 2 fluids contain a minimum of 50%
glycols and are considered “thickened” because of
added thickening agents that enable the fluid to be
deposited in a thicker film and to remain on the aircraft
surfaces until the time for takeoff. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7)
— AC 120-58

Answers
9753 [C] 9756 [B] 9445 [C] 9446 [C] 9447 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 33

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL the fluid penetrates to the aircraft surface. When all the
9448. Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point ice has melted, the remaining liquid residue is a mixture
protection to of water and FPD. The resulting film could freeze (begin
A— -20°F ambient temperature. to crystallize) with only a slight temperature decrease.
B— +32°F outside temperature or below. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
C— a freezing point no greater than 20°F below the Answer (A) is incorrect because snow (ice) needs to be considered
ambient or airplane surface temperature. as adhering to the aircraft (see explanation). Answer (C) is incorrect
because snow may not necessarily blow off during takeoff.

In any case the freezing point of residual fluids (water,

FPD fluids or mixtures) should not be greater than 20°F ALL
below ambient or surface temperature, whichever is 9453. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly
less. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 20-117 soluble in water; however,
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because anti-icing fluid should
protect from icing to a freezing point no greater than 20°F below the A— ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in
ambient or aircraft surface temperature. contact with FPD.
B— ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in
contact with it.
ALL C— ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in
9450. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used contact with it.
for deicing
A— provide ice protection during flight. FPD fluids are highly soluble in water; however, ice is
B— are intended to provide ice protection on the slow to absorb FPD or to melt when in contact with it.
ground only. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
C— on the ground, cause no performance Answer (A) is incorrect because FPD fluids are slow to melt. Answer
degradation during takeoff. (B) is incorrect because FPD fluids are slow to absorb.

FPD fluids are used to aid the ground deicing process

ALL
and provide a protective film to delay formations of frost,
9454. Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue
snow, or other ice. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
on engine fan or compressor blades
Answer (A) is incorrect because FPD does not provide inflight
protection. Answer (C) is incorrect because some large aircraft A— can increase performance and cause stalls or
experience performance degradation and may require weight or surges.
other compensation.
B— could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but
would have no affect on engine thrust or power.
ALL C— can reduce engine performance and cause
9452. Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids surging and/or compressor stalls.
A— need not be considered as adhering to the Fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades can
aircraft. reduce engine performance or cause stall or surge.
B— must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
C— must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, Answer (A) is incorrect because fluid residue would cause a
but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off. decrease in performance. Answer (B) is incorrect because fluid
residue would have an affect on engine thrust or power.
FPD fluids are highly soluble in water; however, ice is
slow to absorb FPD or to melt when in contact with it.
If frost, ice, or snow is adhering to an aircraft surface,
the formation may be melted by repeated application
of proper quantities of FPD fluid. This process can be
significantly accelerated by thermal energy from heated
fluids. As the ice melts, the FPD mixes with the water
thereby diluting the FPD. As dilution occurs, the resulting
mixture may begin to run off. If all the ice is not melted,
additional applications of FPD become necessary until

Answers
9448 [C] 9450 [B] 9452 [B] 9453 [C] 9454 [C]

8 – 34 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9698. The practice developed and accepted by the 9221. What condition is necessary for the formation of
North American air carrier industry using traditional structural icing in flight?
North American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point A— Supercooled water drops.
of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by B— Water vapor.
at least C— Visible water.
A— 10°F.
B— 20°F. For structural icing to form, the aircraft must be flying
C— 20°C. through visible moisture and the temperature where the
moisture strikes the aircraft must 0°C or colder. Note
As it is applied, deicing fluid is often diluted by melted that the moisture does not need to be supercooled.
snow and ice. It is standard practice to ensure that (PLT274, AA.I.C.K3i) — AC 00-6
the remaining film of diluted fluid has a freeze point at Answer (A) is incorrect because supercooled water drops increase
least 20°F below the ambient temperature. (PLT108, the rate of icing, but are not a condition necessary for the formation
AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58 of structural icing. Answer (B) is incorrect because water must be
visible, not in a gaseous (vapor) state.

ALL
ALL
9700. What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant
9224. Which type of icing is associated with the small-
(FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?
est size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level
A— could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but stratus clouds?
would have no affect on engine thrust or power.
A— Clear ice.
B— It can increase performance and cause stalls or
B— Frost ice.
surges.
C— Rime ice.
C— It can reduce engine performance and cause
surging and/or compressor stalls. Rime ice forms when drops are small, such as those
in stratified clouds or light drizzle. (PLT274, AA.I.C.K3i)
Fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades can
— AC 00-6
reduce engine performance or cause stall or surge. In
Answer (A) is incorrect because clear ice forms when drops are
addition, this could increase the possibility of, or the large, not small, as found in rain or cumuliform clouds. Answer (B)
quantity of, glycol vapors entering the aircraft through is incorrect because frost is not a structural icing condition found in
the engine bleed air system. (PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC flight; it happens to airplanes parked on the ground as well.
120-58

ALL
ALL 9161. Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally
9183. What is a feature of supercooled water? evidence that
A— The water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon A— a climb can be made to a higher altitude without
impact. encountering more than light icing.
B— The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an B— a layer of warmer air exists above.
exposed object. C— ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to
C— The temperature of the water drop remains at 0°C rain in the warmer air below.
until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear
ice accumulates. Rain or drizzle is always formed in temperatures which
are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may
Rain or drizzle is always formed in temperatures which become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing
are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may rain. (PLT512, AA.I.C.K3d) — AC 00-6
become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing Answer (A) is incorrect because freezing rain only means that a layer
rain. (PLT512, AA.I.C.K3i) — AC 00-6 of warmer air exists above; it does not indicate the amount of icing
that may be encountered during a climb. Answer (C) is incorrect
Answer (A) is incorrect because sublimation is the process of chang- because freezing rain is formed by rain falling through colder air,
ing water vapor to ice crystals (not liquid water to ice). Answer (C) not from ice pellets melting through warmer air.
is incorrect because supercooled water temperature is below 0°C.

Answers
9698 [B] 9700 [C] 9183 [B] 9221 [C] 9224 [C] 9161 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 35

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9161-1. What course of action should the pilot take if 9774. The most likely condition in which to experience
encountering freezing rain? severe inflight icing with the ambient temperature below
A— Climb because the temperature is warmer at a 0°C is
higher altitude. A— rain.
B— Descend because the temperature is warmer at a B— visible moisture.
lower altitude. C— fog.
C— No change is necessary if all anti-ice/deice
equipment is working. For structural icing to occur two conditions must be
present: The aircraft must be flying through visible water
Freezing rain occurs when there is a deep layer aloft such as rain or cloud droplets and temperature at the
with above freezing temperatures and with a shallow point where the moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0°
layer of below freezing air at the surface. Pilots should or colder. (PLT274, AA.I.C.K3i) — AC 00-6
climb to warmer temperatures if encountering freezing
rain. (PLT512, AA.I.C.K3d) — AC 00-6
ALL
9775. Which of the following weather conditions are
ALL conducive to inflight icing?
9223. Which type precipitation is an indication that A— Visible rain with temperatures below 0ºC.
supercooled water is present? B— Visible rain with temperatures below 10ºC.
A— Wet snow. C— Visible moisture with temperatures below 5ºC.
B— Freezing rain.
C— Ice pellets. The following weather conditions may be conducive to
severe in-flight icing: visible rain at temperatures below
Rain or drizzle is always formed in temperatures which 0°C ambient air temperature; droplets that splash or
are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may splatter on impact at temperatures below 0°C ambient
become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing air temperature. (PLT274, AA.I.C.K3i) — AC 91-51
rain. (PLT344, AA.I.C.K3d) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because wet snow is an indication that
temperature is above freezing at the present level. Answer (C) is ALL
incorrect because ice pellets indicate that water has frozen, not that 9162. What temperature condition is indicated if pre-
is has become supercooled. cipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?
A— The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.
ALL B— The temperature is above freezing at higher
9180. What condition is indicated when ice pellets are altitudes.
encountered during flight? C— There is an inversion with colder air below.
A— Thunderstorms at higher levels. Snowflakes are formed by sublimation in below-freezing
B— Freezing rain at higher levels. temperatures. If the snow falls into an area of above-
C— Snow at higher levels. freezing temperatures it will start to melt, become wet
snow and eventually turn into rain. (PLT493, AA.I.C.K3d)
Rain or drizzle is always formed in temperatures which
— AC 00-6
are above freezing. Rain falling through colder air may
Answer (B) is incorrect because wet snow indicates above-freezing
become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing temperature at flight level, not at higher altitudes. The temperature
rain. As it continues to fall in the freezing temperature, was below freezing at the altitudes where the snow formed. Answer
it will form into ice pellets. (PLT493, AA.I.C.K3d) — AC (C) is incorrect because wet snow indicates falling snow that has
00-6 begun to melt due to above-freezing temperature at flight level. An
inversion may or may not be the cause of the warmer air.
Answer (A) is incorrect because ice pellets always indicate freezing
rain, not thunderstorms, at higher altitudes. Answer (C) is incorrect
because freezing rain, not snow, is indicated at higher altitude when
ice pellets are encountered.

Answers
9161-1 [A] 9223 [B] 9180 [B] 9774 [A] 9775 [A] 9162 [A]

8 – 36 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9179. Which conditions result in the formation of frost? 9736. During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up
A— The temperature of the collecting surface is at or rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the lead-
below freezing and small droplets of moisture are ing edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds
falling. at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination
B— Dew collects on the surface and then freezes airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more
because the surface temperature is lower than than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots
the air temperature. right down the runway, and the surface temperature is
C— Temperature of the collecting surface is below the 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to:
dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing. A— use a faster than normal approach and landing
speed.
Frost forms when both the temperature and the dew point B— approach and land at your normal speed since
of the collecting surface are below freezing. When this the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable
occurs, water vapor sublimates directly into frost. This effect.
condition most often occurs on clear nights with little or C— fly your approach slower than normal to lessen
no wind. (PLT493, AA.I.C.K3k) — AC 00-6 the “wind chill” effect and break up the ice.
Answer (A) is incorrect because moisture that falls on a collecting
surface that is at or below freezing will form ice. Answer (B) is incor- Ice will accumulate unevenly on the airplane. It will add
rect because frozen dew is hard and transparent, while frost is the weight and drag, and decrease thrust and lift. With ice
sublimation of vapor into ice, and is white and opaque.
accumulations, landing approaches should be made
with a minimum wing flap setting and with an added
ALL margin of airspeed. Sudden and large configuration
9748. When flying in the rain and an air temperature and airspeed changes should be avoided. (PLT274,
of 1°C, a pilot should AA.I.C.K3k) — FAA-H-8083-3
Answer (B) is incorrect because ice having a thickness similar to
A— not expect icing until the air temperature is 0°C or sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
less. reduce wing lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%.
B— Use autopilot in icing to lower the work load. Answer (C) is incorrect because ice will increase drag, requiring
additional lift (airspeed); “wind chill” effect cannot be relied upon to
C— be aware of the possibility of airframe icing. melt/remove the ice that has already accumulated; flying slower than
normal increases the possibility of a stall due to the decreased lift.
Pilots should be vigilant and aware of icing possibilities,
particularly when flying in conditions between -5 and
+2°C. (PLT274, AA.I.C.K3k) — AC 91-74 ATM, ADX
8258. The pilot-in-command of an airplane en route
determines that icing conditions can be expected that
ALL might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action
9181. When will frost most likely form on aircraft sur- is appropriate?
faces?
A— The pilot-in-command may continue to the
A— On clear nights with stable air and light winds. original destination airport, after climbing to a
B— On overcast nights with freezing drizzle higher altitude.
precipitation. B— The pilot-in-command shall not continue flight
C— On clear nights with convective action and a into the icing conditions.
small temperature/dewpoint spread. C— The flight may continue to the original destination
airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing
Frost forms when both the temperature and the dew point
equipment is operational and is used.
of the collecting surface are below freezing. When this
occurs, water vapor sublimates directly into frost. This No person may dispatch or release an aircraft, con-
condition most often occurs on clear nights with little or tinue to operate an aircraft en route, or land an aircraft
no wind. (PLT493, AA.I.C.K3k) — AC 00-6 when, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command or aircraft
Answer (B) is incorrect because freezing drizzle would produce dispatcher, icing conditions are expected or met that
ice on the aircraft surfaces, not frost. Answer (C) is incorrect
because stable air is required. Convective action requires unstable
might adversely affect the safety of flight. (PLT379,
conditions. AA.I.C.K3k) — 14 CFR §121.629

Answers
9179 [C] 9748 [C] 9181 [A] 9736 [A] 8258 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 37

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ATM, ADX A pre-takeoff inspection for ice, snow, or frost must

8265. What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is be completed no more than 5 minutes prior to takeoff
adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? anytime conditions require it. (PLT108, AA.I.C.K3k) —
A— Sweep off as much snow as possible and the 14 CFR §135.227
residue must be polished smooth.
B— Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
ATS
C— Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow
9697. Deicing procedures and equipment developed
will blow off.
for large transport airplanes
No person may take off in an aircraft when frost, snow, A— will not be appropriate for the smaller aircraft,
or ice is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, or used under 14 CFR Part 135.
propellers of the aircraft. (PLT493, AA.I.C.K3k) — 14 B— will be appropriate for all of the smaller aircraft,
CFR §121.629 used under 14 CFR Part 135.
Answer (A) is incorrect because all of the snow must be removed C— may not be appropriate for some of the smaller
prior to takeoff. Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no V-speed aircraft, used under 14 CFR Part 135.
adjustment authorized to compensate for snow on the wings; it must
be removed prior to takeoff.
Deicing procedures developed for large transport air-
craft may not be appropriate for smaller, slower aircraft.
ATS
(PLT108, AA.I.B.K7) — AC 120-58
9696. A pretakeoff contamination check for snow, ice
or frost is required by 14 CFR Part 135. This check is
required to
A— be made within 2 minutes of starting the takeoff roll.
B— be completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning
the taxi to the runway.
C— see that the aircraft is clean, therefore, a safe
takeoff can be made during the next 5 minutes.

Turbulence
Light chop causes slight, rapid and somewhat erratic bumpiness without appreciable changes in altitude
or attitude. Light turbulence causes momentary slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. Light
chop causes rapid bumps or jolts without appreciable changes in aircraft altitude or attitude. Moderate
turbulence is similar to light turbulence, but of greater intensity. Changes in altitude or attitude occur
but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. It usually causes variations in indicated airspeed.
Severe turbulence causes large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude. It usually causes large varia-
tions in indicated airspeed. The aircraft may be momentarily out of control. In extreme turbulence the
aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control. Extreme turbulence may cause
structural damage.
Turbulence that occurs less than 1/3 of the time
should be reported as occasional. Turbulence that
occurs 1/3 to 2/3 of the time is intermittent. Turbu-
lence that occurs more than 2/3 of the time is con-
tinuous. High altitude turbulence (normally above
15,000 feet MSL) not associated with cumuliform
cloudiness should be reported as CAT (Clear Air
Turbulence).
Figure 8-6. Mountain wave and associated clouds

Answers
9696 [C] 9697 [C]

8 – 38 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Strong winds across mountain crests can cause turbulence for 100 or more miles downwind of the
mountains and to altitudes as high as 5,000 feet above the tropopause. If there is enough moisture in
the air, a mountain wave can be marked by standing lenticular clouds. These clouds mark the crest of
each wave. Under the right conditions, several lenticulars can form one above another. A rotor current
forms below the crest of a mountain wave. This is sometimes marked by a rotor cloud which will be the
lowest of a group of stationary clouds. See Figure 8-6.
The jet stream is a common source of CAT. The strong winds and steep wind gradients will almost
always produce some turbulence. The most likely place to find turbulence is on the polar side of the
stream in an upper trough. The strongest turbulence will be found in a curving jet stream associated with
such a trough. If you encounter turbulence in the jet stream and you have a direct headwind or tailwind
you should change course or altitude. With the wind parallel to your heading, you are likely to remain in
the jet and the turbulence for a considerable distance. If you approach a jet stream from the polar side
the temperature will drop. When you approach it from the tropical side, the temperature rises. Recall that
there is a downdraft on the polar side and an updraft on the tropical side. Therefore, to avoid jet stream
turbulence descend if the temperature is falling and climb if the temperature is rising as you approach
the stream.
Fronts often have turbulence due to the wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough. Try to
cross the front at right angles to minimize the time you are exposed to this turbulence.

ALL ALL
9262. What type turbulence should be reported when it 9264. What type turbulence should be reported when
causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude
without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
than one-third of the time? A— Occasional light chop.
A— Occasional light chop. B— Moderate chop.
B— Moderate turbulence. C— Intermittent light turbulence.
C— Moderate chop.
This description meets the criteria for intermittent light
This description meets the criteria for occasional light turbulence. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-45
chop. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-45 Answer (A) is incorrect because light chop does not cause any
Answer (B) is incorrect because moderate turbulence causes a appreciable changes in altitude and/or attitude, and occasional
change in the aircraft’s attitude and/or altitude. Answer (C) is incor- is less than one-third of the time. Answer (B) is incorrect because
rect because moderate chop causes rapid, not rhythmic, bumps or moderate chop does not cause any appreciable changes in altitude
jolts, which are not “slight.” and/or attitude.

ALL
ALL
9235. Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet
9263. What type turbulence should be reported when
AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be
it causes changes in altitude and/or attitude more than
reported as
two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in
positive control at all times? A— convective turbulence.
B— high altitude turbulence.
A— Continuous severe chop.
C— clear air turbulence.
B— Continuous moderate turbulence.
C— Intermittent moderate turbulence. High-level turbulence (normally above 15,000 feet AGL)
not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including
This description meets the criteria for continuous mod- thunderstorms, should be reported as CAT (Clear Air
erate turbulence. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-45 Turbulence). (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because severe chop is not a turbulence
Answer (A) is incorrect because convective turbulence is normally
reporting term. Answer (C) is incorrect because intermittent means
associated with cumuliform clouds and is reported as turbulence.
that turbulence is occurring from one-third to two-thirds of the time.
Answer (B) is incorrect because turbulence above 15,000 feet AGL,
not associated with clouds, is termed clear air turbulence, not high
altitude turbulence.

Answers
9262 [A] 9263 [B] 9264 [C] 9235 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 39

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9190. Which type clouds are indicative of very strong 9777. Clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is
turbulence? A— most commonly found in temperatures between
A— Nimbostratus. -40 and -50 degrees C.
B— Standing lenticular. B— most commonly found in the vicinity of the
C— Cirrocumulus. tropopause.
C— similar to that associated with a tropical maritime
Standing lenticular clouds form at the crests of waves front.
created by barriers to the wind flow. Though the clouds
do not move, they are indicative of strong winds and Maximum winds generally occur at levels near the tro-
possible turbulence. (PLT192, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-6 popause. These strong winds create narrow zones of
Answer (A) is incorrect because nimbostratus is a gray or dark mas- wind shear which often generate hazardous turbulence.
sive cloud layer, diffused by continuous rain, snow, or ice pellets. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-6
The stratus feature indicates very little turbulence. Answer (C) is
Answer (A) is incorrect because temperatures are not a primary
incorrect because cirrocumulus are thin clouds appearing as small
factor for CAT. Answer (C) is incorrect because CAT is associated
white flakes or patches of cotton. Their presence indicates some
with the tropopause, not a tropical maritime front.
turbulence and possible icing.

ALL
ALL
9226. What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group 9777-1. The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for
associated with a mountain wave? clear air turbulence is generally considered to be
A— Rotor cloud. A— 100 kts.
B— Standing lenticular. B— 110 kts.
C— Low stratus. C— 120 kts.

Mountain waves can generate standing lenticular clouds The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for CAT is
and rotor clouds. Of these, the rotor cloud is likely to be generally considered to be 110 knots. Wind speed in jet
the lowest. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3f) — AC 00-6 streams can be much stronger than 110 knots and the
probability of encountering CAT increases proportionally
Answer (B) is incorrect because the standing lenticular clouds mark
the crest, or the top, of each standing wave. Answer (C) is incorrect with the wind speed and the wind shear it generates.
because low stratus clouds are not associated with a mountain It is not the wind speed itself that causes CAT; it is the
wave. wind shear or difference in wind speed from one level
or point to another that causes the wave motion or
overturning in the atmosphere that is turbulence to an
ALL
aircraft. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-30B
9232. Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a
mountain wave may extend as far as
A— 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. ALL
B— 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 9237. What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
C— 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain. A— In an upper trough on the polar side of a
jetstream.
Mountain wave CAT may extend from the mountain B— Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high
crests to as high as 5,000 feet above the tropopause, pressure flow.
and can range 100 miles or more downwind from the C— Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
mountains. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-6
Answer (A) is incorrect because mountain wave CAT can range 100, A likely location of CAT is in an upper trough on the cold
not 1,000, miles or more downstream of the mountain. Answer (C) is (polar) side of the jet stream. (PLT302, AA.I.C.K3g) —
incorrect because mountain wave CAT is downwind of the mountain.
AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because CAT is likely to occur on the polar
side of the jet stream in an upper trough. Answer (C) is incorrect
because CAT is likely on the polar, not equatorial, side of a jet
stream.

Answers
9190 [B] 9226 [A] 9232 [B] 9777 [B] 9777-1 [B] 9237 [A]

8 – 40 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9239. Which type jetstream can be expected to cause 9231. Which action is recommended regarding an alti-
the greater turbulence? tude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?
A— A straight jetstream associated with a high A— Descend if ambient temperature is falling.
pressure ridge. B— Descend if ambient temperature is rising.
B— A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm C— Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not
spacing. changing.
C— A curving jetstream associated with a deep low
pressure trough. If you want to traverse an area of CAT more quickly,
watch the temperature gauge for a minute or two. If
A frequent CAT location is along the jet stream where the temperature is rising—climb; if the temperature is
it curves north and northeast of a rapidly deepening falling—descend. Application of these rules will prevent
surface low. (PLT302, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-6 you from following the sloping tropopause and staying
Answer (A) is incorrect because greater turbulence is expected in in the turbulent area. If the temperature remains con-
a curved, not a straight jet stream. Answer (B) is incorrect because stant, the flight is probably close to the level of the core,
greater turbulence is more pronounced when isotherm spacing so either climb or descend as is convenient. (PLT263,
is narrow.
AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-30, Appendix 1
Answer (B) is incorrect because to get out of jet stream turbulence
with a rising ambient temperature you would climb, not descend.
ALL
Answer (C) is incorrect because you would need to make an alti-
9230. Which action is recommended if jetstream turbu- tude change due to jet stream turbulence, and there should be a
lence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind? temperature change due to a sloping tropopause.
A— Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly.
B— Change course to fly on the polar side of the ALL
jetstream. 9219. What action is recommended when encountering
C— Change altitude or course to avoid a possible turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp
elongated turbulent area. pressure trough?
If jet stream turbulence is encountered with direct tail- A— Establish a straight course across the storm area.
winds or headwinds, a change of flight level or course B— Climb or descend to a smoother level.
should be initiated since these turbulent areas are C— Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon
elongated with the wind, and are shallow and narrow. as possible.
(PLT263, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-30, Appendix 1
Answer (A) is incorrect because an increase in airspeed may over- If turbulence is encountered in an abrupt wind shift
stress the airplane in turbulent conditions. Normally, a reduction associated with a sharp pressure storm area, establish
in airspeed is required for turbulent air penetration. Answer (B) is a straight course across the storm area rather than
incorrect because CAT is normally on the polar side of the jet stream, parallel to it. A change in flight level is not likely to
so you would be flying into more turbulent weather.
alleviate the bumpiness. (PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC
00-30, Appendix 1
Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no indication to identify in
which direction the turbulence is stronger. A change in altitude will
normally remove the aircraft from the turbulent zone. Answer (C) is
incorrect because speed should be decreased to the recommended
airspeed for rough air. This will avoid overstressing the airplane.

Answers
9239 [C] 9230 [C] 9231 [A] 9219 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 41

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Arctic and Tropical Weather Hazards

“Whiteout” is a visibility restricting phenomenon that occurs in the Arctic when a layer of cloudiness of
uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface. Parallel rays of the sun are broken up and dif-
fused when passing through the cloud layer so that they strike the snow surface from many angles. The
diffused light then reflects back and forth between the clouds and the snow eliminating all shadows. The
result is a loss of depth perception that makes takeoff or landing on snow-covered surfaces very dangerous.
“Tropical Cyclone” is the term for any low that originates over tropical oceans. Tropical cyclones are
classified according to their intensity based on average one minute wind speeds. These classifications are:
Tropical Depression—highest sustained winds up to 34 knots.
Tropical Storm—highest sustained winds of 35 knots through 64 knots.
Hurricane or Typhoon—highest sustained winds of 65 knots or more.
The movement of hurricanes is erratic and very difficult to predict with any degree of precision. As a
general rule, hurricanes in the northern hemisphere tend to move to the northwest while they are in the
lower latitudes and under the influence of the trade winds. Once they move far enough north to come
under the influence of the prevailing westerlies of the mid-latitudes their track tends to curve back to
the northeast.

ALL 2. Tropical storm — highest sustained winds of 35

9234. Which arctic flying hazard is caused when a through 64 knots;
cloud layer of uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice
3. Hurricane or typhoon — highest sustained winds of
covered surface?
65 knots or more.
A— Ice fog.
(PLT511, AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
B— Whiteout.
Answer (A) is incorrect because tropical cyclones are classified
C— Blowing snow. based on the sustained winds, not the highest wind speed. Answer
(B) is incorrect because a clear area, or eye, usually forms in the
“Whiteout” is a visibility restricting phenomenon that tropical storm stage and continues through the hurricane stage.
occurs in the Arctic when a layer of cloudiness of uniform
thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface. The
result is a loss of depth perception. (PLT512, AA.I.C.K3l) ALL
— AC 00-6 9260. What is the general direction of movement of a
Answer (A) is incorrect because ice fog forms in moist air during hurricane located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico
extremely cold conditions. It is not formed by a cloud layer overlying region?
a snow-covered surface. Answer (C) is incorrect because blow-
ing snow is snow that is blown by light or greater winds, causing A— Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.
decreased visibility. It is not formed by a cloud layer overlying a B— Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly.
snow-covered surface. C— Counterclockwise over open water, then
dissipating outward over land.
ALL Hurricanes located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mex-
9259. Which weather condition is present when the ico move northwesterly in the lower latitudes curv-
tropical storm is upgraded to a hurricane? ing to northeasterly in the higher latitudes. (PLT068,
A— Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more. AA.I.C.K3e) — AC 00-6
B— A clear area or hurricane eye has formed. Answer (B) is incorrect because a hurricane will curve easterly
C— Sustained winds of 65 knots or more. because of prevailing winds, not because of land. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the windflow in the hurricane is counterclockwise,
not the general movement of the hurricane itself.
Tropical cyclone international classifications are:
1. Tropical depression — highest sustained winds up
to 34 knots;

Answers
9234 [B] 9259 [C] 9260 [A]

8 – 42 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)

Weather reports (METAR) and forecasts (TAF) follow the format shown in Figure 8-7.

Key to Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) Key to Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)

and Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) and Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)
TAF KPIT 091730Z 0918/1024 15005KT 5SM HZ FEW020 WS010/31022KT Forecast Explanation Report
FM091930 30015G25KT 3SM SHRA OVC015 WS010/ In U.S. TAF, non-convective low-level (≤ 2,000 feet) Wind Shear;
TEMPO 0920/0922 1/2SM +TSRA OVC008CB 31022KT 3-digit height (hundreds of feet); “ / ”; 3-digit wind direction and 2–3
FM100100 27008KT 5SM SHRA BKN020 OVC040 digit wind speed above the indicated height, and unit, KT
PROB30 1004/1007 1SM -RA BR In METAR, ReMarK indicator and remarks. For example: Sea-Level RMK SLP045
FM101015 18005KT 6SM -SHRA OVC020 Pressure in hectoPascals and tenths, as shown: 1004.5 hPa; Temp/ T01820159
BECMG 1013/1015 P6SM NSW SKC dew point in tenths °C, as shown: temp. 18.2°C, dew point 15.9°C
Note: Users are cautioned to confirm DATE and TIME of the TAF. FM091930 FroM: Changes are expected at: 2-digit date, 2-digit hour, and 2-digit
For example FM100000 is 0000Z on the 10th. Do not confuse with 1000Z! minute beginning time: indicates significant change. Each FM starts
on a new line, indented 5 spaces
METAR KPIT 091955Z COR 22015G25KT 3/4SM R28L/2600FT TSRA OVC010CB
TEMPO TEMPOrary: Changes expected for <1 hour and in total, < half of
18/16 A2992 RMK SLP045 T01820159
0920/0922 the period between the 2-digit date and 2-digit hour beginning, and
Forecast Explanation Report 2-digit date and 2-digit hour ending time
TAF Message type: TAF-routine or TAF AMD-amended forecast, METAR- METAR PROB30 PROBability and 2-digit percent (30 or 40): Probable condition in the
hourly; SPECI-special or TESTM-non-commissioned ASOS report 1004/1007 period between the 2-digit date and 2-digit hour beginning time,
and the 2-digit date and 2-digit hour ending time
KPIT ICAO location indicator KPIT
BECMG BECoMinG: Change expected in the period between the 2-digit date
091730Z Issuance time: ALL times in UTC “ Z ”, 2-digit date, 4-digit time 091955Z
1013/1015 and 2-digit hour beginning time, and the 2-digit date and 2-digit
0918/1024 Valid period: Either 24 hours or 30 hours. The first two digits of EACH hour ending time
four-digit number indicate the date of the valid period, the final two
digits indicate the time (valid from 18Z on the 9th to 24Z on the 10th).
In U.S. METAR: CORrected of; or AUTOmated ob for automated COR Table of Significant Present, Forecast and Recent Weather – Grouped in categories
report with no human intervention; omitted when observer logs on. and used in the order listed below; or as needed in TAF, No Significant Weather
15005KT Wind: 3-digit true-north direction, nearest 10 degrees (or VaRiaBle); 22015G25KT QUALIFIERS
next 2–3 digits for speed and unit, KT (KMH or MPS); as needed, Intensity or Proximity
Gust and maximum speed; 00000KT for calm; for METAR, if direction “–” = Light No sign = Moderate “+” = Heavy
varies 60 degrees or more, Variability appended, e.g., 180V260 “VC” = Vicinity, but not at aerodrome. In the U.S. METAR, 5 to 10 SM from the point of observation.
5SM Prevailing visibility: In U.S., Statute Miles and fractions; above 6 3/4SM In the U.S. TAF, 5 to 10 SM from the center of the runway complex. Elsewhere, within 8000m.
miles in TAF Plus6SM. (Or, 4-digit minimum visibility in meters and Descriptor
as required, lowest value with direction.) BC Patches BL Blowing DR Drifting FZ Freezing
Runway Visual Range: R; 2-digit runway designator Left, Center, or R28L/2600FT MI Shallow PR Partial SH Showers TS Thunderstorm
Right as needed; “ / ”; Minus or Plus in U.S., 4-digit value, FeeT in
WEATHER PHENOMENA
U.S. (usually meters elsewhere); 4-digit value Variability, 4-digit value Precipitation
(and tendency Down, Up or No change) DZ Drizzle GR Hail GS Small hail or snow pellets
HZ Significant present, forecast and recent weather: See table (to the TSRA IC Ice crystals PL Ice pellets RA Rain SG Snow grains
right) SN Snow UP Unknown precipitation in automated observations
FEW020 Cloud amount, height and type: SKy Clear 0/8, FEW >0/8-2/8, OVC010CB Obscuration
SCaTtered 3/8-4/8, BroKeN 5/8-7/8, OVerCast 8/8; 3-digit height in BR Mist (≥ 5/8SM) DU Widespread dust FG Fog (<5/8SM) FU Smoke
hundreds of feet; Towering CUmulus or CumulonimBus in METAR; in HZ Haze PY Spray SA Sand VA Volcanic ash
TAF, only CB. Vertical Visibility for obscured sky and height “VV004”. Other
More than 1 layer may be reported or forecast. In automated METAR DS Dust storm FC Funnel cloud +FC Tornado or waterspout
reports only, CLeaR for “clear below 12,000 feet.” PO Well-developed dust or sand whirls SQ Squall SS Sandstorm
Temperature: Degrees Celsius; first 2 digits, temperature “ / ” last 2 18/16 • Explanations in parentheses “( )” indicate different worldwide practices.
digits, dew point temperature; Minus for below zero, e.g., M06 • Ceiling is not specified; defined as the lowest broken or overcast layer, or the vertical visibility.
Altimeter setting: Indicator and 4 digits; in U.S., A-inches and A2992 • NWS TAFs exclude BECMG groups and temperature forecasts, NWS TAFs do not use PROB in the first 9 hours
of a TAF; NWS METARs exclude trend forecasts. U.S. Military TAFs include Turbulence and Icing groups.
hundredths; (Q-hectoPascals, e.g., Q1013)
Continued

Figure 8-7. TAF/METAR weather card

ALL ALL
9266. (Refer to Figure 145.) What was the local Central 9267. (Refer to Figure 145.) What type of report is listed
Standard Time of the Aviation Routine Weather Report for Lubbock (KLBB) at 1818Z?
at Austin (KAUS)? A— An Aviation selected special weather report.
A— 11:53 a.m. B— A special report concerning very low station
B— 5:53 p.m. pressure.
C— 10:53 p.m. C— A Special METAR weather observation,
concerning significant weather changes.
“131753Z” indicates that this METAR report is for the
thirteenth day of the month, at 1753 Coordinated Univer- The designation “SPECI” means that this is a special
sal Time (UTC). Central Standard Time is UTC minus 6 weather observation. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
hours (1753 – 6 = 1153). (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00‑45

Answers
9266 [A] 9267 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 43

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9268. (Refer to Figure 146.) What method was used to 9272. SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140
obtain the METAR at Tyler (KTYR) at 1753Z? 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980
A— Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), RMK RAB1857 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA.
having a precipitation discriminator. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which
B— Automatic Meteorological Observing Station condition?
(AMOS), with a precipitation discriminator. A— Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts
C— Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS), to 21.
without a precipitation discriminator. B— Precipitation started at 1857.
C— 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.
The word “AUTO” after the date-time group indicates
that this is an automated weather report. The “A02” in The remarks “RAB1857” indicates rain began at 57
the remarks section indicate that it was made by an minutes past the hour. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
unattended Automated Surface Observing System
Answer (A) is incorrect because “10012G21KT 060V140” indicates
(ASOS). The ASOS will automatically report precipitation the wind was from 100° at 12 knots with gusts to 21 knots; however,
amounts. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 the wind direction was variable between 60-140°, and wind direc-
tion in written reports and forecasts are referenced to true north.
Answer (C) is incorrect because “OVC050CB” indicates there was
an overcast cumulonimbus cloud at 5,000 feet. Towering cumulus
ALL
is abbreviated “TCU.”
9269. (Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported
at Childress (KCDS)?
A— Light rain showers. ALL
B— Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the 9273. (Refer to Figure 145.) What weather improve-
hour. ment was reported at Lubbock (KLBB) between 1750
C— The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated and 1818 UTC?
1,800 feet above sea level. A— The wind shift and frontal passage at 1812Z.
B— The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet.
“-SHRA” indicates an observation of light rain showers. C— The temperature and dew point spread improved.
(PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
Answer (B) is incorrect because the remark “RERAB42” means an At 1750Z, the vertical visibility was 1,000 feet (VV010).
observed recent weather event was that rain began at 42 minutes At 1818Z, the vertical visibility had improved to 3,000
past the previous hour. Answer (C) is incorrect because the abbre-
viation “OVC180” indicated the base of an overcast layer is at 18,000 feet (VV030). (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
feet above the station. Answer (A) is incorrect because even though the description of the
events is correct, it is not an improvement since the wind speed
increased and the visibility decreased. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the temperature and dew point actually converged. At
ALL
1750Z, the spread was 4°C (03/M01), but by 1818Z, there was a 0°
9270. (Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported spread (M01/M01).
at Dallas (KDAL)?
A— The tops of the overcast is 10,000 feet.
ALL
B— Temperature/dewpoint spread is 8°F.
8735. What hazard should you expect for a morning
C— Altimeter setting is 30.07.
departure from KPDX, based on this METAR?
“A3007” indicates an altimeter setting of 30.07" Hg. KPDX 271154Z 00000KT 9SM CLR -10/-10 A2979.
(PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 A— Wind shear.
Answer (A) is incorrect because “OVC100” indicates the base of B— Frost on the aircraft.
the overcast layer is 10,000 feet above the station. Answer (B) is
incorrect because the reported temperature/dew point are given in C— Sea breeze.
degrees Celsius, not Fahrenheit.
On calm clear nights with little-to-no wind, and a tempera-
ture at or below the dew point, you should expect dew or
frost. Because the temperature and dew point are both
-10 there is a high likelihood of the presence of frost on
the aircraft surfaces. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-6
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because the wind is calm.

Answers
9268 [A] 9269 [A] 9270 [C] 9272 [B] 9273 [B] 8735 [B]

8 – 44 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9274. METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 9277. METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020
OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. BKN040 30/27 A3001.
Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA
report at Midland (KMAF)? SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK
RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC.
A— Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes
before the hour. What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815
B— The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL. UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?
C— Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots. A— The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds
developed.
“RAE44” indicates the rain ended 44 minutes past the B— Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the
hour, which is the same thing as 16 minutes before the hour.
hour. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 C— Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a ceiling is the lowest broken or
overcast layer. “BKN025” indicates a broken layer (not a ceiling) at At 1815Z, the station was reporting heavy thunderstorms
2,500 feet. The base of the higher overcast layer is at 25,000 feet and rain (+TSRA). “RAB12” indicates that the rain began
above the station (not sea level). Answer (C) is incorrect because
the winds are 020° true at 20 knots. at 12 minutes past the hour. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC
00-45

ALL
9275. METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA ALL
SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. 9824. In this METAR excerpt, “SLP993 SNINCR 1/10”
SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 means
22/21 A3000. A— 0.1" of snow on the runway land zone during the
Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) last hour.
between 1757 and 1820 UTC? B— 1" of snow in the last 10 hours.
C— 1" and a total of 10" of snow is on the ground with
A— The rain became lighter. 1" in the last hour.
B— Atmospheric pressure increased.
C— A funnel cloud was observed. At designated stations, the “snow increasing rapidly”
remark is reported in the next METAR whenever the
“FC” in the 1820Z report indicates that a funnel cloud/ snow depth increases by 1 inch or more in the past
tornado/waterspout was observed. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) hour. The remark is coded in the following format: the
— AC 00‑45 remark indicator SNINCR, the depth increase in the past
Answer (A) is incorrect because the rain increased in intensity. At hour, and the total depth on the ground, separated from
1757Z, the abbreviation “-RA” indicated light rain; at 1820Z, “+RA”
indicates heavy rain. Answer (B) is incorrect because the atmo- each other by a “/”. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
spheric pressure is decreased. The altimeter went from 30.05" Hg
(A3005) at 1757Z, to 30.00" Hg (A3000) at 1820Z.

ALL
9276. (Refer to Figure 146.) What was the ceiling at
Walnut Ridge (KARG)?
A— 1,000 feet AGL.
B— 2,400 feet AGL.
C— 1,000 feet MSL.

“OVC010” indicates an overcast layer with bases at 1,000

feet AGL. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
Answer (B) is incorrect because 2,400 feet is the RVR for runway
28 at Walnut Ridge airport. Answer (C) is incorrect because the sky
condition is reported in feet above the ground.

Answers
9274 [A] 9275 [C] 9276 [A] 9277 [B] 9824 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 45

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9704. Data that may be added (manual weather aug- 9718. The VV001 in the following METAR indicates
mentation) to the Automated Weather Observing System METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM
(AWOS) report is limited to R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001
A— the precipitation accumulation report, an auto­ A2989 RMK AO2 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $
mated variable visibility, and wind direction A— an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100
remark. feet.
B— thunderstorms (intensity and direction), B— a 100 foot indefinite ceiling.
precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions C— the variability value is 100 feet.
to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3
miles or less). The height into an indefinite ceiling is preceded by
C— density Altitude, NOTAMs, and reported slant “VV” and followed by three digits indicating the vertical
range visibility. visibility in hundreds of feet. This layer indicates total
obscuration. The indefinite ceiling is 100 feet. (PLT059,
In addition to the information automatically included in an AA.I.C.K2) — AIM ¶7-1-11
AWOS report, information can be manually added. The
remarks are limited to thunderstorms (type and intensity),
and obstructions to vision when the visibility is 3 SM or ALL
less. Augmentation is identified in the observation as 9242. METAR KFSO 030900Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG
“observer weather.” (PLT515, AA.I.C.K2) — AIM ¶7-1-11 SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 6///// T01500139 56012
In the above METAR, the “SLP993 6////” indicates
ALL A— sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals which in
9716. The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is the last 6 hours has dropped .4 hectopascals.
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM B— sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and
R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 an indeterminable amount of precipitation has
A2989 RMK AO2 $ occurred over the last 3 hours.
C— sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and in
A— less than 1/4 statute mile. the last 6 hours that four-tenths of an inch of
B— measured 1/4 statute mile. precipitation has fallen.
C— a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.
The “SLP993 6////” in the Remarks section of the METAR
The prevailing visibility is less than 1/4 statute miles, indicates sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and
indicated by the “M1/4SM.” (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AIM an indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred
¶7-1-11 over the last 3 hours. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45

ALL
9717. The symbol ($) at the end of the following METAR
indicates that
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM
R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05
A2989 RMK AO2 $
A— the latest information is transmitted over a
discrete VHF frequency at KFSM.
B— the latest information is broadcast on the voice
portion of a local navaid at KFSM.
C— maintenance is needed on the system.

The dollar symbol ($) indicates the system may need

maintenance. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AIM ¶7-1-11

Answers
9704 [B] 9716 [A] 9717 [C] 9718 [B] 9242 [B]

8 – 46 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)

TAFs use the same code used in the METAR weather reports. (See Figure 8-7 in the previous section.)

ALL “VC” applies to weather conditions expected to occur

9244. Which primary source contains information in the vicinity of the airport (between a 5 to 10 statute
regarding the expected weather at the destination air- mile radius of the airport), but not at the airport itself.
port, at the ETA? “TS” denotes thunderstorms. Therefore, “VCTS” in a
A— Low-Level Prog Chart. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast indicates thunderstorms
B— Weather Depiction Charts. are expected between a 5 to 10 mile radius of the air-
C— Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. port, but not at the airport itself. (PLT288, AA.I.C.K2)
— AC 00-45
A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is a concise
statement of the expected meteorological conditions at
an airport during a specified period (usually 24 hours). ALL
(PLT288, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 9246. Which are the only cloud types forecast in the
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?
Answer (A) is incorrect because a Low-Level Prog Chart is a fore-
cast of significant weather for the United States, not a forecast for A— Altocumulus
a specific destination. Answer (B) is incorrect because Weather B— Cumulonimbus
Depiction Charts are national weather maps of observed weather
at a specific time; they do not provide specific information about a C— Stratocumulus
particular destination.
If cumulonimbus clouds are expected at the airport, the
contraction “CB” is appended to the cloud layer which
ALL represents the base of the cumulonimbus cloud(s).
9245. Weather conditions expected to occur in the Cumulonimbus clouds are the only cloud type forecast
vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted in TAFs. (PLT288, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
by the letters “VC.” When VC appears in a Terminal
Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of
ALL
A— a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.
9278. A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an Inter-
B— a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway
national Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates
complex.
the probability of
C— 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
A— thunderstorms or other precipitation.
Proximity applies to weather conditions expected to B— precipitation or low visibility.
occur in the vicinity of the airport (between a 5 to 10 C— thunderstorms or high wind.
mile radius of the airport), but not at the airport itself.
It is denoted by the letters “VC.” (PLT288, AA.I.C.K2) A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in a TAF indicates
— AC 00-45 the probability of occurrence of thunderstorms or other
precipitation events. (PLT072, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45

ALL
9248. What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in ALL
a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast? 9709. A calm wind that is forecast, in the International
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is encoded as
A— Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.
B— Thunderstorms may occur over the station and A— VRB00KT.
within 50 miles of the station. B— 00000KT.
C— Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 C— 00003KT.
miles of the runway complex.
A forecast of “00000KT” (calm) on a TAF means winds
are expected at 3 knots or less. (PLT072, AA.I.C.K2)
— AC 00-45

Answers
9244 [C] 9245 [A] 9248 [A] 9246 [B] 9278 [A] 9709 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 47

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9710. In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast 9711. You are planning to arrive at the KHOU airport at
(TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by “VRB” where 0900Z, what conditions can be expected as indicated
the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind by this TAF:
appears in the TAF as KHOU 151720Z 1518/1618 22009KT P6SM SCT030
A— 00003KT. SCT250
B— VRB00KT. FM160000 18005KT P6SM BKN050 BKN120 FM160600
C— 00000KT. 21007KT P6SM VCSH SCT025 BKN200
FM160900 34010KT P6SM VCTS BKN035CB BKN250
Calm wind forecasts in a TAF are entered as “00000KT.” TEMPO 1611/1613 TSRA BKN012 OVC025CB
(PLT072, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 FM161600 35007KT P6SM BKN020
A— Winds from the south blowing to the north at 10
knots.
B— Thunderstorm activity 5 to 10 miles from the
airport’s runway complex.
C— Rain showers, scattered clouds at 2,500 feet, and
overcast at 20,000 feet.

At 0900Z (FM160900), the TAF indicates the wind will

be from 340° at 10 knots, with visibilities greater than 6
miles, thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport, skies
broken at 3,500 feet. (PLT283, AA.I.C.K2)

Enroute Forecasts
Winds and temperatures aloft are forecast for various stations around the country. Wind directions are
always relative to true north and the speed is in knots. Temperatures, in degrees Celsius, are forecast
for all altitudes except for 3,000 feet. At altitudes where the wind or temperature is not forecast, a blank
space is used to signify the omission. At 30,000 feet and above the minus sign is deleted from the tem-
perature to save space.
When winds are light and variable the notation 9900 is used. When wind speeds exceed 99 knots,
fifty is added to the wind direction and only the last two digits of the wind speed is printed. For example,
an FB (previously FD) forecast of “731960” at FL390 is 230° true (73 – 50 = 23) at 119 knots with a tem-
perature of ‑60°C. When winds exceed 199 knots they are indicated as a forecast speed of 199 knots.
For example, winds from 280° at 205 knots are coded as 7899.
The temperature in the tropopause (36,000 feet and above) is approximately -56°C. ISA at sea level
is 15°C and decreases at a rate of 2°/1,000 feet up to 36,000 feet MSL.
Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for international flights may be obtained by consulting wind
and temperature aloft charts prepared by a Regional Area Forecast Center (RAFC).

ALL Heights of the specified pressure for each station are

9281. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain analyzed through the use of solid lines called contours.
contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs. The This contour analysis gives the charts a height pattern.
contours depict The contours depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges,
A— ridges, lows, troughs and highs aloft. and all heights are given as pressure altitude. (PLT283,
B— highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface. AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
C— highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.

Answers
9710 [C] 9711 [B] 9281 [A]

8 – 48 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9283. Vertical wind shear can be determined by com- 9289. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and
paring winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000
charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for prob- feet?
ability of turbulence is A— Temperature decrease slightly.
A— 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. B— Windspeed decrease.
B— 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet. C— Wind direction shift from southwest to east.
C— greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.
SAT — Winds 196° at 8 knots, temperature -2°C.
Vertical wind shear can be identified by comparing ELP — Winds 026° at 14 knots, temperature -1°C.
winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. TUS — Winds 080° at 11 knots, temperature 0°C.
The vertical shear critical for probable turbulence is 6 (PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
knots per 1,000 feet. (PLT518, AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because temperatures increase slightly.
Answer (B) is incorrect because wind speed increases between SAT
and ELP, but decreases from ILP to TUS.
ALL
9287. (Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are ALL
expected for a flight over OKC at FL370? 9290. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and
A— 265° true; 27 knots; ISA +1°C. temperature trend for an STL MEM MSY flight at FL330?
B— 260° true; 27 knots; ISA +6°C. A— Windspeed decrease.
C— 260° magnetic; 27 knots; ISA +10°C. B— Wind shift from west to north.
C— Temperature increase 5°C.
The Winds Aloft forecast (FB) for OKC at 34,000 feet
shows a wind of 250° at 27 knots and a temperature of Interpolation of the FB forecasts for 30,000 and 34,000
-43°C. At 39,000 feet the winds are 270° at 27 knots with feet yield a forecast at 33,000 feet of:
a temperature of -54°C. Interpolation of these forecasts STL — Wind 260° at 56 knots, temperature -42°C.
yields a forecast for 37,000 feet of winds from 260° at 27 MEM — Wind 260° at 20 knots, temperature -41°C.
knots with a temperature of -50°C. The ISA temperature MSY — Wind light and variable (9900), temperature
at 37,000 feet is -56°C. All wind directions on a FD are -41°C.
relative to true north. (PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because the direction is rounded to the
(PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
nearest 10° and temperature is ISA +6°C. Answer (C) is incorrect Answer (B) is incorrect because the wind direction remains westerly
because winds are in degrees true, not magnetic. and becomes light and variable (not shifting to the north). Answer
(C) is incorrect because temperature increases 1°C.

ALL
9288. (Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind ALL
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are 9291. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and
expected for a flight over TUS at FL270? temperature trend for a DEN ICT OKC flight at 11,000 feet?
A— 347° magnetic; 5 knots; ISA -10°C. A— Temperature decrease.
B— 350° true; 5 knots; ISA +5°C. B— Windspeed increase slightly.
C— 010° true; 5 knots; ISA +13°C. C— Wind shift from calm to a westerly direction.

The FB forecast of TUS at 24,000 feet is 050° at 5 knots Interpolation of the FB forecasts for 9,000 and 12,000
with a temperature of -17°C. At 30,000 feet, the winds feet yield a forecast at 11,000 feet of:
are 330° at 5 knots with a temperature of -33°C. Inter- DEN — Wind light and variable (9900), temperature
polation of these forecasts yields a forecast for 27,000 +6°C.
feet of winds from 010° at 5 knots with a temperature ICT — Wind 060° at 2 knots, temperature +5°C.
of -25°C. ISA temperature at 27,000 feet is -39°C. All OKC — Wind 110° at 2 knots, temperature +6°C.
wind directions on an FB are referenced to true north. (PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
(PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because the temperature increases at OKC
Answer (A) is incorrect because wind direction is degrees true (not to a temperature higher than DEN. Answer (C) is incorrect because
magnetic). Answer (B) is incorrect because wind direction is 010° the wind shifts from calm to an easterly direction.
true, not 350° true.

Answers
9283 [B] 9287 [B] 9288 [C] 9289 [C] 9290 [A] 9291 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 49

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9292. (Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and 9295. What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast
temperature trend for a DSM LIT SHV flight at 12,000 by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORE-
feet? CAST (FD) for FL390 — “750649”?
A— Windspeed decrease. A— 350° at 64 knots.
B— Temperature decrease. B— 250° at 106 knots.
C— Wind direction shift from northwest to southeast. C— 150° at 6 knots.

The FB forecasts for 12,000 feet are: For FB forecasts of wind speeds from 100 knots through
DSM — Wind 300° at 22 knots, temperature 0°C. 199 knots, subtract 50 from the wind direction code and
LIT — Wind 280° at 8 knots, temperature +6°C. add 100 to the speed code. The forecast of 750649
SHV — Wind 210° at 6 knots, temperature +6°C. decodes as a wind of 250° (75 – 50 = 25) at 106 knots
(100 + 06 = 106) with a temperature of –49°C (tem-
(PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 peratures above FL240 are always negative). (PLT076,
Answer (B) is incorrect because the temperature increases en AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
route. Answer (C) is incorrect because the wind direction shifts from
northwest to southwest. Answer (A) is incorrect because direction is the first two, not three,
digits, and 50 must be subtracted from the first two digits. Speed is
the second group of digits, not the fourth and fifth digits. Answer (C)
is incorrect because 50 must be subtracted from the first two digits
ALL and 100 added to the second two digits, because the wind speed is
9293. (Refer to Figure 149.) What is the forecast tem- forecast to be greater than 100 knots.
perature at ATL for the 3,000-foot level?
A— +6°C. ALL
B— +6°F. 9296. What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast
C— Not reported. by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORE-
CAST (FD) for FL390 — “731960”?
Temperatures are not forecast on the FB at the 3,000
feet level when within 2,500 of the surface. (PLT076, A— 230° at 119 knots.
AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 B— 131° at 96 knots.
Answer (A) is incorrect because no temperature is reported at the
C— 073° at 196 knots.
3,000-foot level or for a level within 2,500 feet of station elevation.
Answer (B) is incorrect because no temperature is reported at the FB forecasts of wind speeds from 100 knots through
3,000-foot level, and temperatures are depicted in degrees Celsius, 199 knots have 50 added to the wind direction code
not Fahrenheit. The 06 indicates wind velocity of 6 knots.
and 100 subtracted from the speed. The forecast of
731960 decodes as a wind of 230° at 119 knot with a
ALL
temperature of -60°C. (PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
9294. (Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind Answer (B) is incorrect because coded directions with wind speed
over 100 knots range from 51 through 86. The direction is 230° (not
direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are 131°) at 119 knots (not 96 knots). Answer (C) is incorrect because
expected for a flight over MKC at FL260? 50 must be subtracted from the first two digits and 100 added to the
second two digits. The last two digits are the temperature.
A— 260° true; 43 knots; ISA +10°C.
B— 260° true; 45 knots; ISA -10°C.
C— 260° magnetic; 42 knots; ISA +9°C. ALL
9251. Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for an
The FB forecast for MKC at 24,000 feet is winds of international flight may be obtained by consulting
260° at 38 knots with a temperature of -21°C. At 30,000
feet, the winds are forecast to be 260° at 50 knots with A— Area Forecasts published by the departure
a temperature of -36°C. Interpolation for 26,000 feet location host country.
yields a forecast of 260° at 42 knots with a temperature B— The current International Weather Depiction
of -26°C. ISA temperature for 26,000 feet is -36°C. All Chart appropriate to the route.
wind directions on an FB are referenced to true north. C— Wind and Temperature Aloft Charts prepared
(PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 by the U.S. National Centers of Environmental
Answer (B) is incorrect because forecast temperature is warmer
Prediction (NCEP).
than ISA. Answer (C) is incorrect because wind direction is degrees
true, not magnetic.

Answers
9292 [A] 9293 [C] 9294 [A] 9295 [B] 9296 [A] 9251 [C]

8 – 50 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Computer-generated forecast charts of winds and FB forecasts of wind speeds from 100 knots through
temperatures aloft are available for international flights 199 knots have 50 added to the wind direction code and
at specified levels. The U.S. National Centers for 100 subtracted from the speed code. Winds over 200
Environmental Prediction (NCEP), near Washington knots are coded as 199 knots. A wind of 280° at 205
D.C., prepares and supplies to users charts of forecast knots with a temperature of −51°C is coded as “789951.”
winds, temperatures, and significant weather. (PLT284, (PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
AA.I.C.K1) — AC 00‑45 Answer (A) is incorrect because it indicates a wind at 280° at 100
Answer (A) is incorrect because Area Forecasts are forecasts of knots. The minus sign is to be omitted above 24,000 feet MSL.
general weather conditions over an area of several states and do Answer (C) is incorrect because if the wind is 0 knots, the direction
not contain forecasts of the winds and temperatures aloft. Answer and wind group is coded “9900.”
(B) is incorrect because the International Weather Depiction Chart
indicates current weather and does not forecast winds and tem-
peratures aloft. ALL
9939. (Refer to Figure 149A, Area 10.) What is the
forecasted wind direction, speed, and temperature over
ALL
ELY at 30,000 feet?
9255. A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft
to be 280° at 205 knots; temperature −51°C at FL390. A— 330°, 35 knots, 33 °C.
How would this data be encoded in the FB? B— 040°, 35 knots, −33 °C.
C— 220°, 35 knots, −33 °C.
A— 780051.
B— 789951. The FB forecast for ELY at 30,000 feet is winds of 220
C— 280051. degrees at 35 knots with a temperature of −33°C. All
wind directions on an FB are referenced to true north.
(PLT076, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45

Surface Analysis and Constant Pressure Charts

The Surface Analysis Chart shows pressure patterns, fronts and information on individual reporting sta-
tions. The pressure patterns are shown by lines called isobars. The isobars on a surface weather map
represent lines of equal pressure reduced to sea level.
Constant pressure charts are similar in many ways to the surface analysis chart in that they show
the pressure patterns and some weather conditions for reporting stations. These charts show condi-
tions at one of five pressure levels from 850 millibars to 200 millibars. These pressure levels correspond
roughly with altitudes from 5,000 feet MSL to 39,000 feet MSL. The chart is for a pressure level rather
than an altitude. The altitude (in meters) of the pressure level is shown by height contours. In addition
to the height contour lines, constant pressure charts can contain lines of equal temperature (isotherms)
and lines of equal wind speed (isotachs). Since these are both dotted lines, be careful not to get them
confused when looking at a chart. Six items of information are shown on the charts for reporting stations.
These are the wind, temperature, temperature/dew point spread, height of the pressure level and the
change of the height level over the previous 12 hours.
These charts can be used to locate the jet stream and its associated turbulence and wind shear. When
there is a large change in wind speed over a short distance, as indicated by closely spaced isotachs, the
probability of turbulence is greatly increased. Since the jet stream is associated with discontinuities in
the temperature lapse rate at breaks in the tropopause, closely spaced isotherms indicate the possibility
of turbulence or wind shear.
Charts can be used together to get a three dimensional view of the weather. For example, lows
usually slope to the west with increasing height. If a low stops moving, it will extend almost vertically.
This type of low is typical of a slow moving storm that may cause extensive and persistent cloudiness,
precipitation, and generally adverse flying weather.

Answers
9255 [B] 9939 [C]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 51

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9175. Isobars on a surface weather chart represent 9236. A strong wind shear can be expected
lines of equal pressure A— on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream
A— at the surface. core.
B— reduced to sea level. B— where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a
C— at a given atmospheric pressure altitude. distance equal to 2.5° longitude.
C— if the 5°C isotherms are spaced 100 NM or closer
Sea level pressures are plotted on a surface weather together.
chart and lines are drawn connecting lines of equal pres-
sure. These lines of equal pressure are called isobars. Jet streams stronger than 110 knots are apt to have
(PLT287, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 significant turbulence in them in the sloping tropopause
Answer (A) is incorrect because the isobars are depicted at the above the core, in the jet stream front below the core
sea level pressure pattern at 4 MB intervals, not just at the surface. and on the low-pressure side of the core. (PLT518,
Answer (C) is incorrect because the isobars are reduced to sea level AA.I.C.K3b) — AC 00-30, Appendix 1
pressure, not any given atmospheric pressure altitude.

ALL
9218. Under what conditions would clear air turbulence
(CAT) most likely be encountered?
A— When constant pressure charts show 20-knot
isotachs less than 150 NM apart.
B— When constant pressure charts show 60-knot
isotachs less than 20 NM apart.
C— When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less
than 20 knots.

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is likely in areas where the

vertical wind shear exceeds 6 knots per 1,000 feet
or horizontal shear exceeds 40 knots per 150 miles.
(PLT501, AA.I.C.K3g) — AC 00-6
Answer (B) is incorrect because when constant pressure charts
show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM, CAT is most likely to be
encountered, and “60-knot isotachs” do not exist. Answer (C) is
incorrect because CAT can be expected upwind of the base of a
deep upper trough, not because a sharp trough is moving.

Answers
9175 [B] 9218 [A] 9236 [A]

8 – 52 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

Reports and Forecasts of Hazardous Weather

A Convective Outlook (AC) describes the prospects for general thunderstorm activity during the follow-
ing 24 hours. Areas in which there is a high, moderate or slight risk of severe thunderstorms are included
as well as areas where thunderstorms may approach severe limits.
The Severe Weather Outlook Chart is a preliminary 24-hour outlook for thunderstorms presented
in two panels. A line with an arrowhead delineates an area of probable general thunderstorm activity. An
area labeled APCHG indicates probable general thunderstorm activity may approach severe intensity.
“Approaching” means winds of 35 to 50 knots or hail 1/2 to 3/4 of an inch in diameter.
AIRMETs and SIGMETs are issued to alert pilots to potentially hazardous weather. They are broadcast
by the FSS upon issue and at H+15 and H+45 while they are in effect. ARTCC facilities will announce
that a SIGMET is in effect and the pilot can then contact the nearest FSS for the details.

AIRMET forecast:
• Moderate icing
• Moderate turbulence
• Sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface
• Widespread areas of ceilings less than 1,000 feet or visibilities of less than 3 miles
• Extensive mountain obscurement

SIGMET forecast:
• Severe and extreme turbulence
• Severe icing
• Widespread dust storms, sandstorms or volcanic ash lowering visibility to below three miles

Convective SIGMETs cover the following:

• Tornadoes
• Lines of thunderstorms
• Embedded thunderstorms
• Thunderstorm areas greater than or equal to intensity level 4
• Hail greater than 3/4 of an inch in diameter

Convective SIGMETs are each valid for one hour and are removed at H+40. They are reissued as
necessary. On an hourly basis, an outlook is made up for each of the WST regions. This outlook covers
the prospects for 2 to 6 hours.
Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) is provided by automated flight service stations (AFSS).
It is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information, available by telephone by
calling 1-800-WX-BRIEF. Each AFSS provides at least four route and/or area briefings. In addition,
airspace procedures and special announcements (if applicable) concerning aviation interests may also
be available. Depending on user demand, other items may be provided, such as METAR observations,
terminal aerodrome forecasts, wind/temperatures aloft forecasts, etc. TIBS is not intended to substitute
for specialist-provided preflight briefings. It is, however, recommended for use as a preliminary briefing,
and often will be valuable in helping you to make a “go or no go” decision.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 53

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9305. What information is provided by a Convective 9249. If squalls are reported at the destination airport,
Outlook (AC)? what wind conditions exist?
A— It describes areas of probable severe icing and A— Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15
severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 knots, to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots,
hours. lasting for at least 1 minute.
B— It provides prospects of both general and severe B— A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16
thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours. knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1
C— It indicates areas of probable convective minute or longer.
turbulence and the extent of instability in the C— Rapid variation in wind direction of at least
upper atmosphere (above 500 mb). 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots
between peaks and lulls.
A Convective Outlook (AC) describes the prospects
for general and severe thunderstorm activity during A squall (SQ) is a sudden increase in wind speed of at
the following 24 hours. Use the outlook primarily for least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more,
planning (or canceling) flights later in the day. (PLT066, and lasting at least 1 minute. (PLT475, AA.I.C.K3b) —
AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00‑45 AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because severe icing and severe or extreme
turbulence are the subjects of SIGMETs. Answer (C) is incorrect
because it describes a 500-mb Constant Pressure Analysis Chart. ALL
9284. (Refer to Figure 148.) Which system in the Con-
vective SIGMET listing has the potential of producing
ALL the most severe storm?
9758. When does the National Weather Service release
an Aviation Notification Watch Message (SAW)? A— The storms in Texas and Oklahoma.
B— The storms in Colorado, Kansas, and Oklahoma.
A— At 0000 (UTC). C— The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of
B— At 0000 and 1200 (UTC). Memphis (MEM).
C— Unscheduled and issued as required.
Convective SIGMET 44C forecasts level 5 thunder-
A SAW provides threat alerts on an unscheduled and as- storms 50 miles northeast of MEM. (PLT067, AA.I.C.K2)
needed basis to forecast organized severe thunderstorms — AC 00‑45
that may produce tornadoes, large hail, and/or convec-
tive damaging winds. (PLT316, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
ALL
9285. When you hear a SIGMET on an ATC frequency
ALL forecasting severe icing conditions on the route to your
9257. If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can informa- destination, you plan for
tion contained in the SIGMET be obtained?
A— the installed transport category aircraft ice
A— ATC will announce the hazard and advise when protection system protecting against all types and
information will be provided in the FSS broadcast. levels of icing as designed.
B— By contacting a weather watch station. B— very little airframe icing because of an OAT of
C— By contacting the nearest flight service. −10°C or colder, the moisture is already frozen
and cannot adhere to aircraft surfaces.
SIGMETs, CWAs, and AIRMETs are broadcast by C— the possibility of freezing rain and freezing drizzle
FSS’s upon receipt and at 30-minute intervals at H+15 that can accumulate on and beyond the limits of
and H+45 for the first hour after issuance. Thereafter, any deicing/anti-icing equipment.
a summarized alert notice will be broadcast at H+15
and H+45 during the valid period of the advisories. If a Severe icing means the rate of accumulation is such that
pilot has not previously received the SIGMET, etc., he/ deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control
she should call the nearest FSS. (PLT290, AA.I.C.K2) the hazard. Immediate diversion is necessary. (PLT274,
— AC 00-45 AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because ATC does not advise when to listen
to an FSS broadcast, rather they tell you to contact FSS. Answer
(B) is incorrect because the pilot may monitor an FSS broadcast
or contact any FSS. “Weather watch station” is a nonexistent term.

Answers
9305 [B] 9758 [C] 9257 [C] 9249 [B] 9284 [C] 9285 [C]

8 – 54 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9286. Which type weather conditions are covered in 9747-1. All ATC facilities using radar weather processors
the Convective SIGMET? with the ability to determine precipitation intensities will
A— Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, describe the intensity as
and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes. A— light, moderate, heavy, intense, extreme, or
B— Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the severe.
tropopause and thunderstorms with 1/2-inch hail B— light, moderate, heavy, extreme, severe.
or funnel clouds. C— light, moderate, heavy, extreme.
C— Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or
more. All ATC facilities using radar weather processors with the
ability to determine precipitation intensity describes the
Convective SIGMET forecast: intensity to pilots as: “LIGHT” (< 30 dBZ), “MODERATE”
1. Severe thunderstorms which have either surface (30 to 40 dBZ), “HEAVY” (>40 to 50 dBZ), or “EXTREME”
winds greater than 50 knots, hail equal to or greater (>50 dBZ). (PLT515, AA.I.C.K2) — FAA-H-8083-15
than 3/4 inches in diameter, or tornadoes;
2. Embedded thunderstorms; ALL
3. Lines of thunderstorms; or 9747-2. Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2)
are issued
4. Thunderstorms equal to or greater than VIP level
4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3,000 A— every morning at 0400.
square miles. B— two times a day.
C— hourly.
(PLT290, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
Answer (B) is incorrect because cumulonimbus clouds with tops The Graphical Turbulence Guidance (GTG-2) graphics
above the tropopause is not a weather condition covered in a Con-
vective SIGMET. Answer (C) is incorrect because thunderstorms
are computer-generated four-dimensional forecasts of
must be at least VIP level 4. information related to the likelihood of encountering
Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) associated with upper-level
fronts and jet streams. The GTG-2 product consists of
ALL a 00, 01, 02, and 03 hour forecast, which are updated
9747. Volcanic Ash Advisory charts are updated every every hour, and a 06, 09, and 12 hour forecast, which
A— 4 hours. are updated every three hours starting at 00Z. GTG-2
B— 6 hours. graphics are “snapshot” graphics, intended to depict
C— 12 hours. forecasted clear air turbulence conditions at the valid
time (for example, at 1200Z), not for a valid time range
Volcanic Ash Advisories (VAAs) are issued as neces- (for example, from 1200Z to 1300Z). (PLT515, AA.I.C.K2)
sary, but at least every 6 hours until such time as the — AC 00-45
volcanic ash cloud is no longer identifiable from satellite
data, no further reports of volcanic ash are received
ALL
from the area, and no further eruptions of the volcano
9747-3. Airborne weather radar is installed to help the
are reported. (PLT514, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
crew
A— penetrate weather between storm cells.
B— avoid severe weather.
C— avoid storm turbulence and hail.

Airborne weather radar is used primarily for the detec-

tion of hazardous windshear conditions, precipitation,
and winds aloft on and near major airports situated in
climates with great exposure to thunderstorms. (PLT105,
AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45

Answers
9286 [A] 9747 [B] 9747-1 [C] 9747-2 [C] 9747-3 [B]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 55

Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

PIREPs
A pilot weather report (PIREP) is often the most timely source of information about such weather condi-
tions as icing and multiple cloud layers. While area forecasts and freezing level charts can give the pilot
a good idea of the potential for icing, only a PIREP can let the pilot know what is happening currently. A
typical PIREP appended to an SA is:
FTW UA /OV DFW 18005/TM1803/FL095/TP PA 30/SK 036 OVC 060/070 OVC 075/OVC ABV
The translation is:
FTW / UA — PIREP from reporting station FTW.
OV DFW 18005 — location is the DFW 180° radial at 5 miles.
TM 1803 — time of the report is 1803.
FL095 — altitude is 9,500 feet.
TP PA 30 — Type of aircraft is a PA 30.
SK 036 OVC 060/070 OVC 075/OVC ABV — Sky condition. The base of an overcast layer is at 3,600
feet with top at 6,000 feet. A second overcast layer has its base at 7,000 feet and its top is 7,500
feet. There is another overcast layer above the aircraft’s altitude of 9,500 feet.

ALL ALL
9247. What sources reflect the most accurate informa- 9250. Which type of weather can only be directly
tion on current and forecast icing conditions? observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP?
A— Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADATs, and A— Turbulence and structural icing.
the Area Forecast. B— Jetstream-type winds and icing.
B— PIREPs, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level C— Level of the tropopause and turbulence.
Chart.
C— AIRMET Zulus. Aircraft in flight are the only means of directly observing
cloud tops, icing and turbulence. (PLT061, AA.I.C.K2)
AIRMET Zulu describes moderate icing and provides — AC 00-45
freezing level heights. (PLT294, AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45 Answer (B) is incorrect because a pilot would not be able to deter-
Answer (A) is incorrect because Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Charts mine from observation if jet stream type winds or other CAT were
do not forecast icing conditions but do forecast freezing levels. encountered. Answer (C) is incorrect because the level of the tro-
Answer (B) is incorrect because although the Freezing Level Panel popause is determined by radiosondes released by ground weather
of the Composite Moisture Stability Chart gives you the lowest observing stations. It is not a type of weather that can be directly
observed freezing level, it does not indicate the presence of clouds observed by a pilot during flight.
or precipitation, which must be present for icing to occur.

Answers
9247 [C] 9250 [A]

8 – 56 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Chapter 8 Meteorology and Weather Services

ALL ALL
9271. (Refer to Figure 145.) The peak wind at KAMA 9922. What is indicated by the following report?
was reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots, TYR UUA/OV TYR180015/TM 1757/FL310/TP B737/
A— which occurred at 1743Z. TB MOD-SEV CAT 350-390
B— with gusts to 43 knots. A— An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe
C— with .43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the clear air turbulence.
last report. B— A routine pilot report for overcast conditions from
flight levels 350-390.
“PK WND 32039/43” indicates that the peak wind was
C— A special METAR issued on the 18th day of the
reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots, which occurred
month at 1757Z.
at 43 minutes past the hour. (PLT059, AA.I.C.K2) — AC
00‑45 UUA at the start indicates this is an urgent pilot report.
MOD-SEV CAT 350-390 indicates moderate to severe
clear air turbulence between FL350 and FL390. (PLT061,
ALL
AA.I.C.K2) — AC 00-45
9713. KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/
SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-
TOPUNKN/WX FV00SM RA/TA 07.
This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates
A— the aircraft is in light rain.
B— that the top of the ceiling is 4,300 feet.
C— the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.

“BKN060-TOP085” indicates the ceiling (defined as

the lowest broken or overcast layer aloft) is broken at
6,000 feet with tops at 8,500 feet. (PLT061, AA.I.C.K2)
— AC 00-45
Answer (A) is incorrect because “WX FV00SM RA” indicates the
flight visibility is 0 statute miles due to moderate rain. Answer (B)
is incorrect because the scattered layer has tops at 4,300 feet, but
this does not constitute a ceiling.

Answers
9271 [A] 9713 [C] 9922 [A]

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA 8 – 57

8 – 58 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep
Cross-Reference A
Question Number and Page Number

This cross-reference lists all of the questions in this book in sequential order. Use this list in combination
with Cross-Reference B to find specific questions to aid your studies. For more information about the
questions included in ASA Test Preps, please see pages vi–vii and xiv.

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number
8001...........................1 – 76 8044...........................1 – 21 8087...........................1 – 85 8130...........................4 – 53
8002...........................1 – 89 8045...........................1 – 79 8088...........................1 – 74 8131...........................1 – 49
8003...........................1 – 36 8046...........................1 – 80 8089...........................1 – 74 8132...........................1 – 49
8004...........................1 – 78 8047...........................1 – 80 8090...........................1 – 85 8133...........................4 – 34
8005...........................1 – 76 8048...........................1 – 80 8091...........................1 – 85 8134...........................4 – 12
8006...........................1 – 78 8049...........................5 – 12 8092...........................1 – 85 8135...........................2 – 17
8007...........................1 – 52 8050...........................1 – 75 8093...........................1 – 78 8136...........................1 – 50
8008...........................1 – 52 8051...........................1 – 75 8094...........................1 – 17 8137...........................1 – 49
8009...........................1 – 52 8052...........................1 – 80 8095...........................1 – 22 8138...........................1 – 52
8010...........................1 – 76 8053...........................1 – 73 8096...........................1 – 22 8139...........................1 – 51
8011...........................1 – 76 8054...........................1 – 73 8097...........................1 – 22 8140...........................2 – 16
8012...........................1 – 78 8055...........................1 – 68 8098...........................1 – 23 8141...........................2 – 16
8013...........................1 – 77 8056...........................1 – 68 8099...........................1 – 23 8142...........................2 – 16
8014...........................1 – 79 8057...........................1 – 83 8100...........................1 – 17 8143...........................2 – 16
8015...........................1 – 79 8058...........................1 – 81 8101...........................1 – 23 8144...........................1 – 60
8016...........................1 – 79 8059...........................1 – 81 8102...........................1 – 23 8145...........................2 – 21
8017...........................1 – 79 8060...........................1 – 81 8103...........................1 – 18 8146...........................2 – 22
8018...........................1 – 20 8061...........................1 – 81 8104...........................1 – 24 8147...........................2 – 22
8019...........................1 – 78 8062...........................1 – 81 8105...........................1 – 24 8148...........................2 – 15
8020...........................1 – 67 8063...........................1 – 83 8106...........................1 – 24 8149...........................2 – 22
8021...........................1 – 69 8064...........................1 – 83 8107...........................1 – 18 8150...........................2 – 15
8022...........................1 – 67 8065...........................1 – 83 8108...........................1 – 18 8151...........................2 – 15
8023...........................1 – 69 8066...........................1 – 83 8109...........................1 – 18 8152...........................2 – 22
8024...........................1 – 69 8067...........................5 – 12 8110...........................1 – 19 8153...........................1 – 50
8025...........................1 – 69 8068...........................1 – 84 8111...........................1 – 19 8154...........................2 – 16
8026...........................1 – 20 8069...........................1 – 73 8112...........................1 – 78 8155...........................1 – 62
8027...........................1 – 20 8070...........................1 – 82 8113...........................1 – 24 8156...........................1 – 62
8028...........................1 – 20 8071...........................1 – 82 8114...........................1 – 85 8157...........................1 – 60
8029...........................1 – 21 8072...........................1 – 68 8115...........................1 – 74 8158...........................1 – 61
8030...........................1 – 69 8073...........................1 – 68 8116...........................1 – 75 8159...........................1 – 60
8031...........................1 – 70 8074...........................1 – 68 8117...........................4 – 49 8160...........................1 – 59
8032...........................1 – 52 8075...........................1 – 74 8118...........................4 – 49 8161...........................1 – 60
8033...........................1 – 77 8076...........................1 – 22 8119...........................4 – 50 8162...........................1 – 60
8034...........................1 – 21 8077...........................1 – 82 8120...........................4 – 50 8163...........................1 – 66
8035...........................1 – 21 8078...........................1 – 82 8121...........................4 – 50 8164...........................1 – 63
8036...........................1 – 21 8079...........................1 – 82 8122...........................4 – 50 8165...........................1 – 74
8037...........................1 – 79 8080...........................1 – 68 8123...........................4 – 51 8166...........................1 – 63
8038...........................1 – 77 8081...........................1 – 70 8124...........................4 – 51 8167...........................1 – 64
8039...........................1 – 53 8082...........................1 – 17 8125...........................4 – 51 8168...........................1 – 64
8040...........................1 – 53 8083...........................1 – 17 8126...........................4 – 51 8169...........................1 – 64
8041...........................1 – 54 8084...........................1 – 84 8127...........................4 – 52 8170...........................1 – 64
8042...........................1 – 54 8085...........................1 – 84 8128...........................4 – 52 8171...........................1 – 64
8043...........................1 – 54 8086...........................1 – 84 8129...........................4 – 52 8172...........................1 – 65

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA A–1

Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number

8173...........................1 – 61 8224...........................1 – 30 8274...........................1 – 46 8344...........................4 – 37

8174...........................1 – 62 8225...........................1 – 50 8275...........................1 – 47 8345...........................3 – 12
8175...........................1 – 51 8226...........................1 – 40 8276...........................1 – 45 8345-1........................3 – 12
8176...........................1 – 59 8227...........................1 – 28 8277...........................1 – 46 8345-2........................3 – 12
8177...........................1 – 59 8228...........................1 – 28 8278.............................2 – 4 8346.............................3 – 5
8178...........................1 – 61 8229...........................1 – 30 8279...........................6 – 35 8347...........................3 – 11
8179...........................1 – 61 8230...........................1 – 16 8280...........................1 – 39 8348.............................3 – 5
8180...........................1 – 63 8231...........................1 – 30 8281...........................1 – 43 8349...........................3 – 10
8181...........................1 – 50 8231-1........................1 – 30 8282...........................1 – 43 8350...........................3 – 10
8182...........................1 – 63 8232...........................1 – 40 8283...........................1 – 39 8351...........................3 – 12
8183...........................1 – 61 8233...........................1 – 51 8284...........................1 – 39 8352...........................3 – 12
8184...........................1 – 62 8234...........................1 – 51 8285...........................1 – 16 8353...........................3 – 11
8185...........................1 – 63 8235...........................1 – 61 8286...........................1 – 41 8354...........................3 – 11
8186...........................1 – 62 8236...........................1 – 66 8287...........................1 – 41 8355...........................3 – 27
8187...........................1 – 62 8237...........................1 – 66 8288...........................1 – 41 8356...........................3 – 22
8188.............................1 – 9 8238...........................1 – 30 8289...........................1 – 16 8357.............................3 – 8
8189.............................1 – 8 8239...........................1 – 67 8290...........................1 – 38 8358.............................3 – 8
8190.............................1 – 8 8240...........................1 – 66 8291...........................1 – 41 8359.............................3 – 9
8191.............................1 – 7 8241...........................1 – 66 8292...........................1 – 38 8360.............................3 – 8
8192.............................1 – 9 8242...........................6 – 58 8293...........................1 – 39 8361.............................3 – 9
8193.............................1 – 9 8243...........................1 – 38 8294...........................1 – 39 8362.............................3 – 9
8194...........................1 – 34 8243-1........................1 – 38 8295...........................1 – 42 8363.............................3 – 9
8195...........................2 – 21 8244...........................1 – 50 8296...........................1 – 41 8364.............................3 – 9
8195-1........................2 – 21 8245...........................1 – 65 8297...........................6 – 41 8365...........................3 – 13
8196...........................2 – 29 8246...........................1 – 66 8298...........................6 – 42 8366...........................3 – 13
8197...........................2 – 29 8247...........................6 – 18 8298-1........................6 – 42 8367...........................3 – 14
8198...........................1 – 65 8248...........................6 – 19 8317...........................1 – 72 8367-1........................3 – 14
8199...........................2 – 30 8249...........................6 – 20 8318...........................1 – 72 8368.............................3 – 7
8200...........................1 – 65 8250...........................6 – 20 8319...........................1 – 72 8369...........................4 – 42
8201.............................1 – 9 8251...........................6 – 19 8320...........................1 – 72 8370...........................4 – 42
8202...........................1 – 10 8252...........................6 – 20 8321...........................1 – 72 8371...........................4 – 42
8203...........................2 – 51 8253...........................6 – 11 8322...........................1 – 72 8372...........................3 – 13
8204...........................1 – 65 8254...........................6 – 19 8323...........................1 – 72 8373...........................3 – 13
8205...........................1 – 14 8255...........................6 – 19 8324...........................3 – 20 8374...........................4 – 32
8206...........................2 – 10 8256...........................6 – 18 8325...........................3 – 20 8375.............................3 – 7
8207...........................1 – 14 8257...........................6 – 26 8326...........................3 – 20 8376...........................3 – 14
8208...........................1 – 15 8258...........................8 – 37 8327...........................3 – 20 8377.............................3 – 4
8209...........................1 – 15 8259...........................1 – 40 8328...........................3 – 24 8378.............................3 – 5
8210...........................1 – 15 8260...........................1 – 40 8329...........................3 – 24 8379.............................3 – 7
8211...........................1 – 29 8261...........................6 – 26 8330...........................3 – 23 8379-1..........................3 – 7
8212.............................1 – 8 8262...........................6 – 19 8331...........................3 – 25 8380...........................3 – 14
8213.............................1 – 8 8263...........................6 – 27 8332...........................3 – 21 8380-1........................3 – 14
8214...........................1 – 15 8264...........................6 – 27 8333...........................3 – 21 8381...........................4 – 30
8215...........................1 – 14 8265...........................8 – 38 8334...........................3 – 25 8382.............................3 – 7
8216...........................1 – 14 8266...........................1 – 40 8336...........................3 – 21 8383...........................4 – 29
8217...........................1 – 14 8267...........................1 – 40 8337...........................3 – 24 8384...........................3 – 25
8218...........................1 – 65 8268...........................1 – 44 8338...........................3 – 23 8385...........................3 – 25
8219...........................1 – 29 8269...........................1 – 45 8339...........................3 – 24 8386...........................3 – 26
8220...........................1 – 28 8270...........................1 – 46 8340...........................3 – 24 8387...........................3 – 16
8221...........................1 – 29 8271...........................1 – 45 8341...........................3 – 22 8388...........................3 – 16
8222...........................1 – 29 8272...........................1 – 45 8342...........................3 – 20 8389...........................3 – 16
8223...........................1 – 29 8273...........................1 – 46 8343...........................3 – 20 8389-1........................3 – 16

A–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number
8390...........................3 – 16 8432...........................5 – 37 8484...........................4 – 63 8536...........................4 – 70
8391...........................3 – 17 8433...........................5 – 37 8485...........................4 – 63 8537...........................4 – 71
8391-1........................3 – 17 8434...........................5 – 13 8486...........................4 – 63 8538...........................4 – 71
8391-2........................3 – 17 8435...........................5 – 13 8487...........................4 – 64 8539...........................4 – 71
8391-3........................3 – 17 8436...........................5 – 14 8488...........................4 – 64 8540...........................4 – 71
8392...........................3 – 17 8437...........................5 – 14 8489...........................4 – 64 8541...........................4 – 71
8393...........................3 – 17 8438...........................5 – 15 8490...........................4 – 64 8542...........................4 – 72
8394.............................4 – 5 8439...........................5 – 15 8491...........................4 – 64 8543...........................4 – 72
8394-1..........................4 – 5 8440...........................5 – 16 8492...........................4 – 64 8544...........................4 – 72
8394-2........................3 – 18 8441...........................5 – 16 8493...........................4 – 65 8545...........................4 – 72
8394-3........................3 – 18 8442...........................5 – 17 8494...........................4 – 65 8546...........................4 – 72
8395...........................3 – 17 8443...........................5 – 17 8495...........................4 – 65 8547...........................4 – 72
8396...........................3 – 11 8444...........................5 – 18 8496...........................4 – 65 8548...........................4 – 73
8397.............................3 – 6 8445...........................5 – 18 8497...........................4 – 65 8549...........................4 – 73
8397-1..........................3 – 6 8446...........................5 – 18 8498...........................4 – 65 8550...........................4 – 73
8398...........................4 – 30 8447...........................5 – 18 8499...........................4 – 66 8551...........................4 – 73
8399.............................3 – 7 8448...........................5 – 19 8500...........................4 – 66 8552...........................4 – 73
8400...........................4 – 24 8449...........................5 – 19 8501...........................4 – 66 8553...........................4 – 74
8400-1........................4 – 24 8450...........................5 – 19 8502...........................4 – 66 8554...........................4 – 74
8401...........................4 – 29 8451...........................5 – 20 8503...........................4 – 66 8555...........................4 – 74
8402...........................3 – 27 8452...........................5 – 20 8504...........................4 – 67 8556...........................4 – 74
8403...........................3 – 27 8453...........................5 – 21 8505...........................4 – 54 8557...........................4 – 75
8404...........................3 – 27 8454...........................5 – 21 8506...........................4 – 54 8558...........................4 – 75
8405...........................3 – 27 8455...........................5 – 22 8507...........................4 – 54 8559...........................4 – 75
8406...........................3 – 27 8456...........................5 – 22 8508...........................4 – 54 8560...........................4 – 75
8406-1........................3 – 28 8457...........................5 – 23 8509...........................4 – 54 8561...........................4 – 76
8406-2........................3 – 28 8458...........................5 – 23 8510...........................4 – 55 8562...........................4 – 76
8407.............................4 – 9 8459...........................4 – 46 8511...........................4 – 55 8563...........................4 – 76
8408...........................3 – 28 8460...........................4 – 46 8512...........................4 – 55 8564...........................4 – 76
8409...........................3 – 28 8461...........................4 – 47 8513...........................5 – 24 8565...........................4 – 76
8410...........................3 – 28 8462...........................4 – 47 8514...........................5 – 24 8566...........................4 – 77
8411...........................3 – 28 8463...........................4 – 47 8515...........................5 – 24 8567...........................4 – 77
8412...........................3 – 29 8464...........................4 – 47 8516...........................5 – 25 8568...........................4 – 77
8413...........................3 – 29 8465...........................4 – 47 8517...........................5 – 25 8569...........................4 – 77
8414.............................4 – 9 8466...........................4 – 48 8518...........................5 – 26 8570...........................4 – 77
8415.............................4 – 9 8467...........................4 – 48 8519...........................5 – 26 8571...........................4 – 78
8416.............................4 – 9 8468...........................4 – 48 8520...........................5 – 26 8572...........................4 – 78
8417...........................3 – 29 8469...........................4 – 58 8521...........................5 – 26 8573...........................5 – 11
8418...........................3 – 29 8470...........................4 – 59 8522...........................5 – 26 8574...........................5 – 11
8419...........................5 – 24 8471...........................4 – 59 8523...........................5 – 27 8575...........................5 – 11
8420...........................3 – 29 8472...........................4 – 59 8524...........................5 – 27 8576...........................5 – 11
8421...........................3 – 29 8473...........................4 – 60 8525...........................5 – 27 8577...........................5 – 11
8422...........................3 – 30 8474...........................4 – 60 8526...........................5 – 28 8578.............................5 – 9
8423...........................3 – 30 8475...........................4 – 60 8527...........................5 – 28 8579.............................5 – 9
8424...........................3 – 30 8476...........................4 – 61 8528...........................5 – 29 8580...........................5 – 10
8425...........................3 – 30 8477...........................4 – 61 8529...........................5 – 29 8581...........................5 – 10
8426...........................4 – 10 8478...........................4 – 61 8530...........................5 – 29 8582...........................5 – 10
8427...........................4 – 10 8479...........................4 – 48 8531...........................5 – 30 8584...........................4 – 18
8428...........................4 – 10 8480...........................4 – 48 8532...........................5 – 30 8585...........................4 – 18
8429...........................1 – 37 8481...........................4 – 49 8533...........................4 – 70 8586...........................4 – 18
8430...........................1 – 37 8482...........................4 – 62 8534...........................4 – 70 8587...........................4 – 18
8431...........................5 – 36 8483...........................4 – 63 8535...........................4 – 70 8593...........................4 – 24

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA A–3

Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number

8594...........................4 – 24 8659...........................4 – 81 8718...........................4 – 17 8802...........................6 – 57

8596...........................4 – 27 8660...........................4 – 81 8719...........................4 – 17 8803...........................6 – 57
8597...........................4 – 28 8661...........................4 – 81 8720...........................4 – 17 8804...........................6 – 57
8598...........................4 – 28 8662...........................4 – 81 8721...........................4 – 18 8806...........................6 – 58
8599...........................4 – 28 8663...........................4 – 81 8727...........................4 – 40 8807...........................1 – 86
8600...........................4 – 28 8664...........................4 – 81 8727-1........................4 – 39 8808...........................1 – 86
8601...........................4 – 28 8665...........................4 – 81 8728...........................4 – 40 8809...........................1 – 86
8602...........................4 – 28 8666...........................4 – 82 8729...........................4 – 40 8813...........................1 – 86
8603...........................4 – 82 8667...........................4 – 82 8730...........................4 – 40 8814...........................1 – 86
8604...........................4 – 82 8668...........................4 – 38 8731...........................4 – 40 8815...........................1 – 87
8613...........................4 – 21 8669...........................4 – 38 8732...........................4 – 40 8819...........................1 – 87
8614...........................4 – 22 8670...........................4 – 38 8733...........................4 – 41 8820...........................1 – 87
8615...........................4 – 22 8671...........................4 – 38 8734...........................4 – 41 8821...........................1 – 87
8616...........................4 – 22 8672...........................4 – 38 8735...........................8 – 44 8824...........................6 – 56
8617...........................4 – 22 8673...........................4 – 38 8736...........................6 – 36 8825...........................6 – 56
8618...........................4 – 19 8674...........................4 – 39 8742...........................4 – 35 8826...........................6 – 56
8619...........................4 – 19 8675...........................4 – 39 8743...........................4 – 35 8827...........................1 – 87
8620...........................4 – 19 8676...........................4 – 39 8744...........................4 – 35 8828...........................1 – 87
8621...........................4 – 19 8677...........................4 – 39 8745...........................4 – 35 8829...........................1 – 88
8622...........................4 – 19 8678...........................4 – 45 8746...........................4 – 36 8830...........................1 – 88
8623.............................5 – 7 8679...........................4 – 45 8750...........................4 – 36 8831...........................1 – 75
8624.............................5 – 7 8680...........................4 – 45 8753...........................4 – 36 8832...........................1 – 75
8625.............................5 – 7 8681...........................4 – 45 8756...........................4 – 36 8833...........................1 – 76
8626.............................5 – 7 8682...........................4 – 45 8767...........................1 – 37 8834...........................1 – 88
8627.............................5 – 7 8683...........................4 – 46 8768...........................1 – 37 8836...........................6 – 58
8628...........................4 – 24 8684...........................4 – 46 8769...........................5 – 31 8837...........................2 – 42
8629...........................4 – 25 8685...........................4 – 46 8770...........................5 – 31 8838...........................1 – 88
8630...........................4 – 25 8686...........................4 – 46 8771...........................5 – 31 8839...........................2 – 42
8631...........................4 – 25 8697.............................5 – 3 8772...........................5 – 32 8840...........................1 – 88
8632...........................4 – 25 8697-1..........................5 – 4 8773...........................5 – 32 8841...........................1 – 89
8633...........................4 – 25 8697-2..........................5 – 4 8774...........................4 – 12 8842...........................1 – 76
8634...........................4 – 25 8697-3..........................5 – 4 8775...........................4 – 13 8843...........................1 – 89
8635...........................4 – 26 8697-4..........................5 – 4 8776...........................5 – 32 8844...........................5 – 35
8636...........................4 – 26 8698.............................5 – 4 8777...........................5 – 32 8845...........................5 – 35
8637...........................4 – 26 8699.............................5 – 5 8778...........................5 – 33 8846...........................5 – 36
8638...........................4 – 26 8699-1..........................5 – 6 8779...........................5 – 33 8847...........................5 – 36
8639...........................4 – 26 8699-2..........................5 – 6 8780...........................4 – 13 8848...........................5 – 36
8640...........................4 – 26 8700.............................5 – 8 8781...........................5 – 34 8852...........................6 – 56
8641...........................4 – 26 8701...........................2 – 54 8782...........................6 – 55 8852-1........................6 – 56
8642-1........................4 – 27 8702...........................4 – 84 8784...........................6 – 56 8853...........................6 – 45
8642-4........................4 – 20 8704...........................6 – 58 8787...........................5 – 34 8854...........................6 – 40
8643...........................4 – 78 8704-1........................6 – 58 8788...........................5 – 34 8855...........................6 – 45
8644...........................4 – 79 8705...........................2 – 56 8789...........................5 – 34 8856...........................6 – 45
8645...........................4 – 79 8706-1........................1 – 27 8790...........................5 – 35 8857...........................6 – 45
8646...........................4 – 79 8710.............................8 – 8 8791...........................5 – 35 8858...........................6 – 46
8647...........................4 – 79 8711...........................2 – 12 8792...........................1 – 75 8859...........................6 – 46
8648...........................4 – 79 8712...........................4 – 21 8793...........................6 – 55 8860...........................6 – 46
8649...........................4 – 80 8713...........................4 – 21 8796...........................6 – 55 8861...........................6 – 46
8650...........................4 – 80 8714...........................4 – 21 8797...........................6 – 55 8862...........................6 – 47
8651...........................4 – 80 8715...........................4 – 21 8798...........................6 – 55 8863...........................6 – 47
8652...........................4 – 80 8716...........................4 – 21 8799...........................6 – 57 8864...........................6 – 48
8658...........................4 – 80 8717...........................4 – 17 8800...........................6 – 57 8865...........................6 – 48

A–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number

8866...........................6 – 49 8931...........................2 – 49 9005-2........................6 – 39 9057...........................6 – 24

8867...........................6 – 49 8932...........................2 – 49 9006...........................6 – 22 9058.............................4 – 5
8872.............................6 – 7 8933...........................4 – 33 9007...........................6 – 24 9059.............................4 – 7
8873.............................6 – 7 8934...........................4 – 33 9008...........................6 – 23 9060.............................4 – 6
8874.............................6 – 7 8935...........................4 – 33 9009...........................6 – 23 9061.............................4 – 8
8875.............................6 – 8 8936...........................4 – 33 9010.............................7 – 7 9061-1..........................4 – 8
8876.............................6 – 8 8937...........................4 – 34 9011.............................7 – 8 9062.............................4 – 8
8877.............................6 – 8 8937-1........................4 – 34 9012...........................6 – 50 9063.............................4 – 8
8878.............................6 – 8 8938...........................4 – 33 9013...........................6 – 41 9064.............................4 – 6
8879.............................6 – 8 8939...........................4 – 34 9014...........................6 – 40 9065.............................4 – 6
8880.............................6 – 9 8950...........................6 – 58 9015...........................6 – 40 9066.............................4 – 6
8881.............................6 – 6 8953...........................6 – 30 9016...........................6 – 40 9067.............................4 – 7
8882.............................6 – 6 8954...........................6 – 30 9018...........................6 – 11 9067-1..........................4 – 7
8883.............................6 – 6 8955...........................6 – 30 9019...........................2 – 19 9068.............................4 – 5
8884.............................6 – 6 8956...........................2 – 33 9020...........................2 – 19 9068-1..........................4 – 5
8885.............................6 – 6 8957...........................2 – 34 9020-1........................2 – 19 9069.............................4 – 8
8886.............................6 – 6 8958...........................2 – 32 9021...........................6 – 32 9070.............................4 – 7
8887...........................6 – 12 8959...........................2 – 33 9022...........................6 – 41 9071.............................4 – 7
8888.............................6 – 6 8960...........................2 – 33 9022-1........................6 – 41 9072.............................4 – 5
8889.............................6 – 7 8961...........................2 – 32 9023...........................2 – 21 9073.............................4 – 5
8890.............................6 – 9 8962...........................2 – 33 9024...........................2 – 21 9074...........................4 – 32
8891.............................6 – 9 8963...........................2 – 35 9026...........................6 – 15 9074-1........................4 – 32
8892.............................6 – 9 8965...........................2 – 36 9027...........................6 – 16 9075...........................4 – 13
8893...........................6 – 11 8966...........................2 – 32 9031...........................6 – 15 9076...........................4 – 13
8900...........................6 – 11 8967...........................2 – 36 9032...........................6 – 15 9077...........................4 – 30
8901...........................2 – 46 8968...........................2 – 34 9033...........................6 – 15 9078...........................4 – 30
8901-1........................2 – 46 8969...........................2 – 34 9034...........................6 – 50 9079...........................4 – 32
8902...........................2 – 46 8970...........................2 – 34 9035...........................6 – 51 9080.............................2 – 8
8903...........................2 – 47 8974.............................4 – 7 9036...........................6 – 31 9081.............................2 – 9
8904...........................2 – 47 8975...........................1 – 92 9037...........................6 – 30 9082.............................2 – 9
8905...........................2 – 45 8984...........................2 – 25 9038...........................6 – 37 9083...........................4 – 13
8906...........................2 – 45 8985...........................2 – 25 9039...........................6 – 38 9084...........................4 – 32
8907...........................2 – 47 8986...........................2 – 25 9040...........................6 – 16 9084-1........................4 – 32
8907-1........................2 – 47 8987...........................2 – 26 9041...........................6 – 33 9085...........................4 – 13
8908...........................2 – 56 8988...........................2 – 26 9042...........................6 – 43 9086...........................6 – 13
8909...........................2 – 56 8989...........................2 – 26 9043...........................1 – 89 9087...........................6 – 13
8910...........................2 – 56 8990...........................2 – 26 9044...........................6 – 36 9089...........................6 – 14
8911...........................2 – 55 8991...........................2 – 26 9045...........................6 – 23 9090-1........................6 – 33
8912...........................2 – 55 8992...........................2 – 27 9046...........................6 – 10 9090-2........................6 – 34
8913...........................2 – 55 8993...........................2 – 27 9047...........................6 – 10 9090-3........................6 – 34
8914...........................2 – 49 8994...........................2 – 27 9048...........................6 – 10 9091...........................6 – 30
8915...........................2 – 50 8995...........................2 – 27 9049.............................6 – 9 9092...........................6 – 36
8921...........................2 – 55 8996...........................2 – 28 9050.............................7 – 8 9093...........................6 – 10
8922...........................2 – 48 8998...........................2 – 28 9051.............................7 – 5 9094...........................6 – 43
8923...........................2 – 48 8999...........................2 – 24 9052.............................7 – 5 9094-1........................6 – 43
8924...........................2 – 48 9000...........................2 – 24 9053...........................6 – 16 9095...........................6 – 43
8925...........................2 – 48 9001...........................2 – 24 9054.............................7 – 8 9096...........................6 – 43
8926...........................2 – 48 9002...........................2 – 24 9055...........................6 – 38 9097.............................7 – 5
8927...........................2 – 48 9003...........................2 – 25 9055-1........................6 – 38 9098.............................7 – 7
8928...........................2 – 49 9004...........................2 – 25 9055-2........................6 – 38 9099.............................2 – 7
8929...........................2 – 49 9005...........................6 – 24 9055-3........................6 – 38 9100...........................6 – 10
8930...........................2 – 49 9005-1........................6 – 38 9056...........................6 – 23 9101...........................7 – 16

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA A–5

Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number

9102...........................7 – 16 9146...........................8 – 27 9191.............................8 – 9 9237...........................8 – 40

9103...........................7 – 16 9147...........................8 – 27 9192.............................8 – 9 9238.............................8 – 7
9104...........................7 – 16 9148...........................8 – 28 9193...........................8 – 17 9238-1..........................8 – 7
9105...........................7 – 16 9149...........................8 – 28 9194...........................8 – 17 9239...........................8 – 41
9106...........................7 – 16 9150...........................8 – 28 9195...........................8 – 14 9240.............................8 – 6
9107...........................7 – 13 9151.............................8 – 6 9196...........................8 – 19 9241.............................8 – 7
9107-1........................7 – 13 9152.............................8 – 4 9197...........................8 – 19 9242...........................8 – 46
9107-2........................7 – 13 9153...........................8 – 15 9198...........................8 – 19 9244...........................8 – 47
9108...........................7 – 13 9154...........................8 – 13 9199...........................8 – 21 9245...........................8 – 47
9109...........................7 – 13 9155...........................8 – 15 9200...........................8 – 19 9246...........................8 – 47
9110...........................7 – 13 9156.............................8 – 6 9201...........................8 – 25 9247...........................8 – 56
9110-1........................7 – 13 9157.............................8 – 5 9202...........................8 – 20 9248...........................8 – 47
9111...........................7 – 12 9158...........................8 – 12 9203...........................8 – 19 9249...........................8 – 54
9111-1........................7 – 12 9159.............................8 – 5 9204...........................8 – 19 9250...........................8 – 56
9111-2........................7 – 12 9160.............................8 – 5 9205...........................8 – 20 9251...........................8 – 50
9111-3........................7 – 12 9161...........................8 – 35 9206...........................8 – 16 9255...........................8 – 51
9112...........................7 – 15 9161-1........................8 – 36 9207...........................8 – 16 9257...........................8 – 54
9113...........................7 – 15 9162...........................8 – 36 9207-1........................8 – 16 9258...........................2 – 17
9114...........................7 – 14 9163.............................2 – 8 9207-2........................8 – 16 9259...........................8 – 42
9114-1........................7 – 14 9164.............................2 – 7 9208...........................8 – 16 9260...........................8 – 42
9115...........................7 – 15 9165.............................8 – 9 9209.............................8 – 6 9262...........................8 – 39
9116...........................7 – 14 9165-1..........................8 – 9 9210...........................8 – 20 9263...........................8 – 39
9117...........................7 – 14 9166...........................8 – 25 9211...........................8 – 21 9264...........................8 – 39
9118...........................7 – 14 9167...........................8 – 28 9212...........................8 – 21 9266...........................8 – 43
9119.............................7 – 8 9168.............................8 – 6 9213.............................8 – 9 9267...........................8 – 43
9120.............................7 – 9 9169...........................8 – 16 9214...........................8 – 20 9268...........................8 – 44
9121.............................7 – 9 9170...........................8 – 12 9215.............................8 – 9 9269...........................8 – 44
9122.............................7 – 9 9171...........................8 – 12 9215-1........................8 – 10 9270...........................8 – 44
9123.............................7 – 9 9172.............................2 – 8 9216...........................8 – 10 9271...........................8 – 57
9124.............................7 – 9 9173.............................2 – 7 9217...........................8 – 10 9272...........................8 – 44
9125...........................7 – 10 9173-1..........................2 – 7 9218...........................8 – 52 9273...........................8 – 44
9126...........................7 – 10 9174.............................2 – 7 9219...........................8 – 41 9274...........................8 – 45
9127...........................7 – 10 9175...........................8 – 52 9220...........................8 – 23 9275...........................8 – 45
9128...........................4 – 41 9176.............................8 – 5 9221...........................8 – 35 9276...........................8 – 45
9129...........................4 – 37 9177.............................8 – 5 9222.............................2 – 9 9277...........................8 – 45
9130...........................8 – 26 9178.............................8 – 5 9223...........................8 – 36 9278...........................8 – 47
9131...........................8 – 26 9178-1..........................8 – 6 9224...........................8 – 35 9281...........................8 – 48
9132...........................8 – 26 9179...........................8 – 37 9225...........................8 – 26 9283...........................8 – 49
9133...........................8 – 24 9180...........................8 – 36 9226...........................8 – 40 9284...........................8 – 54
9134...........................8 – 24 9181...........................8 – 37 9227...........................8 – 10 9285...........................8 – 54
9135...........................8 – 24 9182...........................8 – 12 9228...........................8 – 10 9286...........................8 – 55
9135-1........................8 – 24 9183...........................8 – 35 9228-1........................8 – 10 9287...........................8 – 49
9136...........................8 – 29 9184...........................8 – 14 9228-2........................8 – 11 9288...........................8 – 49
9137...........................8 – 24 9185...........................8 – 13 9229.............................8 – 7 9289...........................8 – 49
9138...........................8 – 25 9185-1........................8 – 13 9229-1..........................8 – 7 9290...........................8 – 49
9139...........................8 – 23 9185-2........................8 – 13 9230...........................8 – 41 9291...........................8 – 49
9140...........................8 – 27 9186...........................8 – 12 9231...........................8 – 41 9292...........................8 – 50
9141...........................8 – 25 9187...........................8 – 13 9232...........................8 – 40 9293...........................8 – 50
9142...........................8 – 25 9188...........................8 – 14 9233.............................8 – 6 9294...........................8 – 50
9143...........................8 – 27 9189...........................8 – 21 9234...........................8 – 42 9295...........................8 – 50
9144...........................8 – 27 9189-1........................8 – 21 9235...........................8 – 39 9296...........................8 – 50
9145...........................8 – 27 9190...........................8 – 40 9236...........................8 – 52 9302...........................8 – 32

A–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number

9305...........................8 – 54 9362.............................7 – 5 9409.............................6 – 6 9452...........................8 – 34

9310...........................2 – 42 9363.............................7 – 6 9410...........................2 – 14 9453...........................8 – 34
9317...........................4 – 12 9364.............................7 – 6 9411...........................2 – 35 9454...........................8 – 34
9318...........................3 – 30 9365.............................7 – 6 9412...........................2 – 35 9554...........................6 – 51
9319...........................4 – 12 9366...........................1 – 90 9413...........................2 – 35 9555...........................6 – 51
9320...........................4 – 37 9367...........................1 – 91 9414...........................1 – 91 9571...........................6 – 51
9321...........................4 – 37 9368...........................6 – 33 9415...........................1 – 91 9588...........................6 – 51
9322...........................4 – 31 9369...........................6 – 31 9416...........................2 – 53 9599...........................6 – 51
9323...........................4 – 31 9370...........................6 – 26 9416-1........................2 – 51 9600...........................6 – 52
9324...........................4 – 12 9371...........................1 – 91 9416-2........................2 – 51 9601...........................6 – 52
9325.............................1 – 6 9372...........................1 – 91 9417...........................2 – 52 9602...........................6 – 52
9326...........................1 – 36 9373...........................1 – 91 9418...........................6 – 45 9603...........................6 – 52
9327...........................4 – 12 9374...........................6 – 22 9419...........................6 – 45 9604...........................6 – 52
9328.............................1 – 5 9375...........................2 – 19 9420.............................7 – 8 9614...........................6 – 52
9329.............................1 – 5 9376...........................2 – 20 9421...........................2 – 45 9615...........................6 – 53
9329-1..........................1 – 5 9377...........................2 – 20 9421-1........................2 – 45 9617...........................6 – 53
9329-2..........................1 – 5 9378...........................2 – 55 9421-2........................2 – 45 9618...........................1 – 19
9330.............................1 – 5 9379...........................1 – 58 9421-3........................2 – 45 9619...........................6 – 53
9331.............................1 – 6 9380.............................2 – 3 9422...........................2 – 45 9636...........................1 – 58
9332.............................1 – 6 9381.............................2 – 3 9423...........................2 – 51 9638...........................1 – 70
9333.............................1 – 7 9382...........................6 – 33 9423-1........................2 – 51 9644...........................6 – 53
9334...........................1 – 12 9383...........................6 – 31 9424.............................6 – 7 9645...........................6 – 53
9335.............................1 – 6 9384...........................6 – 32 9425...........................2 – 14 9645-1........................6 – 53
9336...........................1 – 89 9385...........................6 – 31 9426...........................2 – 14 9655...........................6 – 54
9337...........................1 – 90 9386.............................2 – 4 9427...........................2 – 15 9658...........................6 – 54
9338...........................1 – 90 9387.............................2 – 4 9427-1........................2 – 15 9659...........................6 – 54
9339...........................1 – 11 9388...........................1 – 58 9428...........................2 – 14 9666...........................6 – 54
9340.............................1 – 7 9388-1........................1 – 58 9429...........................2 – 38 9668...........................1 – 58
9341...........................1 – 90 9388-2........................1 – 59 9430...........................2 – 38 9670...........................6 – 54
9342...........................1 – 12 9388-3........................1 – 59 9431...........................2 – 38 9686...........................6 – 54
9342-1........................1 – 12 9389.............................7 – 6 9432...........................2 – 38 9692...........................6 – 54
9342-2........................1 – 12 9390.............................7 – 7 9433...........................7 – 15 9694...........................6 – 55
9343.............................1 – 7 9391...........................6 – 32 9434...........................7 – 15 9695...........................8 – 32
9344...........................1 – 12 9392...........................6 – 32 9434-1........................7 – 15 9696...........................8 – 38
9345...........................1 – 13 9393...........................6 – 32 9435...........................7 – 16 9697...........................8 – 38
9346...........................1 – 13 9394-1........................6 – 18 9436...........................2 – 51 9698...........................8 – 35
9347...........................1 – 13 9394-2........................6 – 18 9437...........................2 – 53 9700...........................8 – 35
9348...........................1 – 13 9395...........................6 – 12 9438...........................6 – 30 9701...........................8 – 26
9349.............................1 – 6 9396...........................6 – 12 9439...........................6 – 22 9704...........................8 – 46
9350.............................1 – 4 9397...........................6 – 12 9440...........................8 – 31 9706...........................8 – 20
9350-1..........................1 – 4 9398...........................6 – 12 9440-1........................8 – 31 9708...........................8 – 20
9351.............................1 – 6 9399.............................6 – 9 9441...........................8 – 32 9708-1........................8 – 20
9354...........................7 – 12 9400...........................6 – 13 9442...........................8 – 32 9709...........................8 – 47
9354-1........................7 – 12 9401...........................6 – 12 9443...........................8 – 32 9710...........................8 – 48
9355...........................4 – 43 9402...........................6 – 22 9444...........................8 – 32 9713...........................8 – 57
9355-1........................4 – 43 9402-1........................6 – 22 9445...........................8 – 33 9714...........................1 – 29
9356...........................2 – 14 9403...........................2 – 34 9446...........................8 – 33 9715...........................7 – 10
9357...........................2 – 14 9404...........................2 – 20 9447...........................8 – 33 9716...........................8 – 46
9358...........................4 – 43 9405...........................2 – 20 9448...........................8 – 34 9717...........................8 – 46
9359...........................4 – 44 9406...........................2 – 20 9449...........................8 – 31 9718...........................8 – 46
9360...........................4 – 44 9407.............................2 – 3 9450...........................8 – 34 9720...........................1 – 53
9361...........................4 – 44 9408...........................2 – 21 9451...........................8 – 31 9721...........................2 – 42

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA A–7

Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page Question Page Question Page Question Page

Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number

9722...........................2 – 38 9769...........................2 – 11 9805...........................7 – 17 9846...........................1 – 33

9723...........................2 – 39 9769-1........................2 – 11 9805-1........................7 – 18 9847...........................1 – 33
9724...........................2 – 39 9769-2........................2 – 11 9805-2........................7 – 18 9847-1........................1 – 33
9725...........................2 – 40 9769-3........................2 – 10 9805-3........................7 – 18 9847-2........................1 – 33
9726...........................2 – 42 9770...........................6 – 18 9805-4........................7 – 18 9848...........................1 – 34
9727...........................2 – 40 9771...........................3 – 26 9805-5........................7 – 18 9849...........................1 – 34
9728...........................2 – 40 9773...........................6 – 35 9805-6........................7 – 18 9850...........................1 – 34
9729...........................2 – 41 9774...........................8 – 36 9805-7........................7 – 19 9851...........................1 – 34
9729-1........................2 – 41 9775...........................8 – 36 9805-8........................7 – 17 9852...........................1 – 34
9730...........................2 – 41 9776...........................8 – 11 9806...........................7 – 19 9853...........................2 – 11
9731...........................2 – 50 9776-1........................8 – 11 9806-1........................7 – 19 9853-1........................2 – 11
9732...........................2 – 50 9777...........................8 – 40 9807...........................1 – 77 9854...........................2 – 11
9733...........................2 – 50 9777-1........................8 – 40 9808.............................3 – 5 9855...........................2 – 12
9734...........................2 – 50 9778...........................7 – 17 9809...........................6 – 16 9856...........................7 – 16
9735...........................2 – 45 9778-1........................7 – 17 9810.............................8 – 7 9857...........................2 – 12
9735-1........................2 – 46 9779.............................8 – 7 9811...........................2 – 29 9858...........................7 – 10
9735-2........................2 – 46 9780.............................6 – 7 9812...........................2 – 39 9874...........................4 – 22
9735-3........................2 – 46 9781.............................4 – 9 9812-1........................2 – 39 9875...........................4 – 27
9736...........................8 – 37 9782...........................1 – 38 9813.............................2 – 8 9876...........................4 – 27
9737...........................6 – 24 9783...........................2 – 17 9813-1..........................3 – 9 9877...........................4 – 27
9738...........................6 – 34 9783-1........................2 – 17 9814...........................8 – 26 9894...........................4 – 56
9739...........................2 – 40 9784...........................2 – 17 9815...........................7 – 20 9895...........................4 – 56
9740...........................3 – 11 9785...........................2 – 52 9815-1........................7 – 20 9896...........................4 – 56
9741...........................6 – 10 9785-1........................2 – 52 9816...........................7 – 19 9897...........................4 – 56
9742...........................2 – 39 9786...........................2 – 52 9816-1........................7 – 19 9898...........................4 – 56
9743...........................2 – 40 9786-1........................2 – 53 9817...........................6 – 35 9899...........................4 – 57
9744...........................6 – 35 9786-2........................2 – 53 9817-1........................6 – 36 9900...........................4 – 57
9744-1........................6 – 35 9787...........................2 – 53 9818...........................6 – 25 9901...........................4 – 57
9745...........................1 – 37 9788...........................6 – 25 9819...........................1 – 70 9902...........................4 – 58
9746...........................1 – 42 9789...........................6 – 25 9823...........................3 – 11 9903...........................4 – 58
9746-1........................1 – 42 9790...........................6 – 25 9824...........................8 – 45 9904...........................4 – 61
9746-2........................1 – 43 9790-1........................6 – 25 9826...........................6 – 27 9905...........................4 – 62
9747...........................8 – 55 9791...........................4 – 35 9827-1........................6 – 27 9906...........................4 – 62
9747-1........................8 – 55 9792...........................4 – 35 9827-2........................6 – 27 9907...........................4 – 67
9747-2........................8 – 55 9793...........................3 – 21 9827-3........................6 – 28 9908...........................4 – 67
9748...........................8 – 37 9793-1........................3 – 21 9830...........................2 – 11 9909...........................4 – 68
9749...........................2 – 34 9793-2........................3 – 21 9831...........................3 – 30 9910...........................4 – 68
9751...........................2 – 23 9794...........................2 – 36 9832...........................7 – 20 9911...........................4 – 68
9753...........................8 – 33 9795...........................2 – 36 9833...........................7 – 20 9912...........................4 – 69
9756...........................8 – 33 9796...........................2 – 36 9834...........................7 – 20 9913...........................4 – 69
9758...........................8 – 54 9796-1........................2 – 37 9835...........................8 – 22 9914...........................4 – 69
9759...........................3 – 22 9797...........................4 – 14 9836...........................1 – 73 9917...........................2 – 41
9760...........................6 – 34 9797-1........................4 – 14 9836-1........................1 – 73 9918...........................4 – 48
9761...........................1 – 43 9797-2........................4 – 14 9837...........................1 – 31 9919...........................4 – 49
9762...........................1 – 43 9798...........................2 – 53 9838...........................1 – 31 9920...........................5 – 33
9763...........................1 – 49 9799...........................2 – 54 9839...........................1 – 31 9921...........................3 – 14
9763-1........................1 – 49 9800.............................4 – 9 9840...........................1 – 31 9922...........................8 – 57
9764...........................2 – 52 9801...........................4 – 15 9841...........................1 – 32 9923...........................8 – 13
9765...........................3 – 26 9802...........................4 – 15 9842...........................1 – 32 9924...........................8 – 14
9766...........................3 – 26 9803...........................3 – 18 9843...........................1 – 32 9925...........................8 – 14
9767.............................3 – 6 9804...........................7 – 17 9844...........................1 – 33 9926...........................8 – 28
9768.............................4 – 6 9804-1........................7 – 17 9845...........................1 – 33 9927...........................7 – 20

A–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference A Question Number and Page Number

Question Page
Number Number

9928...........................7 – 21
9928-1........................7 – 21
9929...........................7 – 21
9929-1........................7 – 21
9929-2........................7 – 21
9931...........................6 – 14
9932...........................2 – 28
9933...........................6 – 57
9934.............................2 – 9
9935...........................4 – 24
9936...........................4 – 60
9937...........................4 – 41
9938...........................5 – 33
9939...........................8 – 51
9940...........................7 – 19
9941...........................2 – 12
9942.............................3 – 6
9942-1..........................3 – 6
9943...........................4 – 39
9944...........................2 – 43
9945...........................2 – 43
9946...........................2 – 43
9946-1........................2 – 43

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA A–9

Cross-Reference B
Airman Knowledge Test Report Codes and Question Numbers

When you take the applicable FAA Knowledge Exam required for an airman certificate or rating, you will
receive an Airman Knowledge Test Report (AKTR). This test report will list the Learning Statement Codes
(LSC) or Airman Certification Codes (ACS) for questions you have answered incorrectly. Match the codes
given on your AKTR to the ones listed in this cross-reference. Use Cross-Reference A in this book to
find the page number for the question numbers listed below.
Your AKTR will list the codes accordingly:
• If an ACS exists for the certificate or rating you’re seeking, the report will list an ACS code. Reference
the ACS specific to the certificate or rating to determine the subject you missed on the test: faa.gov/
training_testing/testing/acs/
• If an ACS does not yet exist for the certificate or rating you’re seeking, the report will list an LSC.
Reference the Learning Statement Reference Guide to determine the subject you missed on the
test: faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf
Your instructor is required to provide instruction on each of the areas of deficiency listed on your
AKTR and give you an endorsement for this instruction. The AKTR must be presented to the examiner
conducting your practical test. During the oral portion of the practical test, the examiner is required to
evaluate the noted areas of deficiency.
If you received a code on your AKTR that is not listed in this cross-reference, email ASA at
[email protected]. We will provide the definition so you can review that subject area.

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B–1

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers
PLT002 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Airspeeds
8563, 8564, 8565, 8566, 8567
PLT003 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Center of Gravity
8697, 8697-1, 8697-2, 8697-3, 8697-4
PLT004 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Climb; Engine Out Performance
8382, 8474, 8475, 8476, 8477, 8478, 8480, 8481, 8482, 8553, 8554, 8555, 8556,
8557, 8558, 8559, 8560, 8561, 8562, 8593, 8594, 8596, 8597, 8598, 8599, 8600,
8601, 8602, 8628, 8629, 8630, 8631, 8632, 8635, 8636, 8637, 8682, 8683, 8684,
8685, 8686, 9875, 9876, 9877, 9919, 9935
PLT005 AC 00-6 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Density Altitude
FAA-H-8083-25 9813, 9813-1
PLT006 FAA- H-8083-3 Calculate aircraft performance — glide
8381
PLT007 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Holding; Landing; Takeoff
8615, 8616, 8617, 8638, 8639, 8640, 8641, 8642-1, 8668, 8669, 8670, 8671, 8672,
8763, 9874
PLT008 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Landing
8117, 8118, 8119, 8120, 8121, 8122, 8123, 8124, 8125, 8126, 8129, 8504, 8505,
8506, 8507, 8508, 8509, 8510, 8511, 8512, 8742, 8743, 8744, 8745, 8750, 8753,
8756, 9907, 9908, 9909, 9910, 9911, 9912, 9913, 9914
PLT009 FAA-H-8083-21 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Power Check; Turbine Engine
8533, 8534, 8535, 8536, 8537, 8604
PLT010 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Takeoff
8623, 8624, 8625, 8626, 8627
PLT011 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Takeoff
8115, 8116, 8466, 8467, 8468, 8469, 8470, 8471, 8472, 8743, 8479, 8548, 8549,
8550, 8551, 8552, 8568, 8569, 8570, 8571, 8572, 8603, 8613, 8614, 8618, 8619,
8620, 8642-4, 8712, 8713, 8714, 8715, 8716, 8717, 8718, 9076, 9797, 9797-1,
9797-2, 9899, 9900, 9901, 9902, 9903, 9918, 9937
PLT012 FAA-H-8083-15 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 ETE; Fuel; Mach; Preflight Planning
FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Alternate; Cruise
Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 VOR
8483, 8489, 8490, 8491, 8492, 8493, 8494, 8495, 8496, 8497, 8498, 8499, 8500,
8621, 8622, 8633, 8634, 8643, 8644, 8645, 8646, 8647, 8648, 8649, 8650, 8651,
8652, 8658, 8659, 8660, 8661, 8662, 8663, 8664, 8665, 8666, 8667, 8673, 8674,
8675, 8676, 8677, 8702, 8720, 8721, 9557, 9904, 9905, 9906
PLT013 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Takeoff
8727, 8727-1
PLT015 ANA Aerodynamics 〉 Performance 〉 Normal Flight
FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Specific Range: NAM/1000# Fuel
Aircraft Performance 〉 Limitations 〉 Best Range
8397, 8397-1, 9077, 9078
PLT016 FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Performance 〉 Computations 〉 Fuel Dump
8678, 8679, 8680, 8681
PLT018 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Angle of Bank
8354, 8728

B–2 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT021 FAA-H-8083-1 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Climb; Landing

FAA-H-8083-25 Weight and Balance 〉 Aircraft Loading 〉 Weight/Moment Indexes
Weight and Balance 〉 Center of Gravity 〉 Computations; Shifting Weight
8434, 8435, 8436, 8437, 8438, 8439, 8440, 8441, 8442, 8443, 8444, 8445, 8446,
8447, 8448, 8449, 8450, 8451, 8452, 8453, 8454, 8455, 8456, 8457, 8458, 8513,
8514, 8515, 8516, 8517, 8518, 8519, 8520, 8521, 8522, 8523, 8524, 8525, 8526,
8527, 8528, 8529, 8530, 8531, 8532, 8573, 8574, 8575, 8576, 8577, 8578, 8579,
8580, 8581, 8582
PLT023 AC 00-6 Navigation 〉 Instrument 〉 Altimeter
9164, 9172, 9173, 9173-1
PLT024 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Stability
9170, 9171, 9186, 9187
PLT029 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Crewmember Duties
FAA-H-8083-16 8106, 8298, 8298-1
PLT032 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Airspeed 〉 Mach
8387
PLT034 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Takeoff Minimums
8134
PLT040 14 CFR 71 Navigation 〉 Airspace 〉 Class B
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airspace
8872, 8873, 8874, 8875, 8876, 8877, 8881, 8882, 8883, 8884, 8885, 8886, 8888
PLT044 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Arrival 〉 After Landing
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Departure 〉 Speed Adjustments; Takeoff
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 Speed Adjustments
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Ground 〉 Ground Hold Delays
9167, 9388, 9388-1, 9388-2, 9388-3
PLT045 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Descent
8501, 8502, 8503, 9749
PLT047 AIM Navigation 〉 Avionics 〉 Airborne Equipment
8858, 9941
PLT048 FAA-H-8083-21 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Hovering
8538, 8539, 8540, 8541, 8542, 8543, 8544, 8545, 8546, 8547
PLT049 14 CFR 61 Navigation 〉 Avionics 〉 Airborne Equipment
14 CFR 91 Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Approach Chart
AC 00-45 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 ILS; Instrument Approach; Non-precision approach
AIM 9588, 9601, 9619, 9645, 9645-1, 9933
U.S. Terminal
Procedures
PLT052 14 CFR 21 Instrument Procedures 〉 Instrument Departures 〉 SID
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121/135 〉 Performance Requirements
U.S. Terminal 8400-1, 9614
Procedures
PLT055 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 Airways and Route Systems
IFR Enroute High Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 IFR En Route Charts
Altitude Chart 9596
PLT058 FAA-H-8083-15 Instrument Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 Chart Interpretation
FAA-H-8083-16 Publications 〉 Aeronautical Charts 〉 IFR En Route
IFR Enroute Low 8784, 8824, 8825, 8826, 8852-1, 9670
Altitude Chart

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B–3

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT059 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Aviation Routine Weather Reports
(METAR); Aviation Selected Special Report (SPECI); Aviation Weather Reports
8735, 8950, 9242, 9266, 9267, 9268, 9269, 9270, 9271, 9272, 9273, 9274, 9275,
9276, 9277, 9716, 9717, 9718, 9824, 9939
PLT061 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 PIREPS
9250, 9713
PLT065 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Engine Out Performance
8484, 8485, 8486, 8487, 8488
PLT066 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Charts/Maps 〉 Severe Weather Outlook Charts
9305
PLT067 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories;
SIGMETS
9284
PLT068 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Significant Weather Prognostic Charts
9260
PLT072 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
9278, 9709, 9710
PLT076 AC 00-45 National Weather Service (NWS) 〉 Functions 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts
Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Winds/Temperatures Aloft Forecasts
9255, 9287, 9288, 9289, 9290, 9291, 9292, 9293, 9294, 9295, 9296
PLT078 Chart Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Pilot Procedures
Supplements Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Ground 〉 Taxi
U.S. National Weather Service 〉 Functions 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports; Weather
U.S. Terminal Outlets
Procedures Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Airport; Communications; Runway
8782, 8793, 8796, 8797, 8798, 8804, 9587, 9655, 9658, 9659, 9782
PLT080 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Arrival 〉 Approach Control
U.S. Terminal Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 ATC Communications; Clearances
Procedures Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Arrivals
Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 STAR
8799, 9818
PLT082 U.S. Terminal Regulations 〉 14 CFR Parts 121/135 〉 Flight Planning
Procedures 8842, 9618
PLT083 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Arrival 〉 Instrument Approach Procedures; Missed
FAA-H-8083-15 Approach
U.S. Terminal Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Approach Chart
Procedures Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 DME; ILS
8704, 8704-1, 8800, 8803, 8805, 8836, 8852, 8954, 9040, 9554, 9555, 9571, 9589,
9590, 9599, 9600, 9602, 9603, 9604, 9666, 9686
PLT085 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Takeoff
8642-2
PLT087 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 DME; Holding
8862
PLT089 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Takeoff
8719
PLT090 Instrument Recall VOR interpretation — charts / indications / CDI / NAV
Approach 9615
Procedures

B–4 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT094 ANA Aerodynamics 〉 Stalls/Spins 〉 Angle of Attack

8391-1, 8391-2, 8391-3, 8394-2, 8394-3
PLT097 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Physiological
9101
PLT098 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall aeromedical factors — fitness for flight
9928, 9928-1
PLT099 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Flight Illusions; Physiological
9114, 9114-1, 9116, 9117, 9118
PLT100 AIM Recall aeronautical charts — IFR En Route Low Altitude
IFR Enroute Low 9049, 9644
Altitude Chart
PLT103 FAA-H-8083-25 Aeronautical Decision Making 〉 Judgment 〉 Hazardous; Training
9832, 9815, 9815-1
PLT104 FAA-H-8083-25 Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM), CRM 〉 Judgment 〉 Automatic Decisions
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM), CRM 〉 Risk Management 〉 Phase of Flight
Human Factors 〉 Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM), CRM 〉 Problem Detection
8711, 9354-1, 9778, 9778-1, 9804, 9805, 9805-1, 9805-2, 9805-3, 9805-4, 9805-5,
9805-6, 9805-7, 9805-8, 9806, 9816, 9816-1, 9830, 9833, 9834, 9853, 9853-1, 9854,
9855, 9856, 9857, 9929, 9929-1, 9929-2, 9940
PLT105 AC 00-45 Recall airborne radar / thunderstorm detection equipment — use / limitations
9747-3
PLT108 AC 120-58 Aerodynamics 〉 Powerplant 〉 Turbine
AC 135-17 Meteorology 〉 Hazardous 〉 Icing
9441, 9442, 9443, 9444, 9445, 9446, 9447, 9448, 9450, 9452, 9453, 9454, 9696,
9697, 9698, 9700
PLT112 AIM Recall aircraft controls — proper use / techniques
9043
PLT121 FAA-H-8083-1 Weight and Balance 〉 Aircraft Loading 〉 Limitations
8431, 8432, 8433, 8698, 8699, 8699-1, 8699-2, 8700, 8729, 8730, 8746, 8769, 8770,
8771, 8772, 8773, 8776, 8777, 8778, 8779, 8781, 8787, 8788, 8789, 8790, 8791,
8844, 8845, 8846, 8847, 8848, 9920, 9938
PLT123 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Takeoff
8584, 8585, 8586, 8587
PLT124 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Atmospheric Effects 〉 Instrumentation Error
8374, 8404, 8405, 8417, 8418, 9767, 9942, 9942-1
PLT127 FAA-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Powerplant 〉 Turbine; Turboprop
Aircraft Performance 〉 Atmospheric Effects 〉 Density Altitue
9059, 9061, 9061-1, 9062, 9063
PLT128 AC 91-74 Aerodynamics 〉 Flight Characteristics 〉 Flight Hazards
AC 120-58 Meteorology 〉 Hazards 〉 Icing
AC 135-17 9080, 9302, 9451
PLT129 FAA-H-8083-25 Aircraft Performance 〉 Charts 〉 Runway
9083
PLT130 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall aircraft performance — fuel
9071
PLT131 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Ground Effect
8375, 8379, 8379-1

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B–5

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT132 FAA-H-8083-25 Navigation 〉 Instrumentation 〉 Airspeed Indicator

8364, 9321
PLT134 ANA Recall aircraft performance — takeoff
9075, 9801, 9802
PLT139 14 CFR 121 Aerodynamics 〉 Stall/Spins 〉 Stall Warning Devices
ANA Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Navigation Equipment
8069, 8070, 8071, 8154
PLT140 AIM Recall airport operations — LAHSO
9731, 9732, 9733, 9734
PLT141 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Ground 〉 Landing Roll Out
Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Airport; Heliport; Runway
Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Runway Markings; Runway Signs; Taxiway Markings; Taxiway
Signs
8722, 8903, 8904, 8905, 8906, 8907, 8907-1, 8922, 8923, 8924, 8925, 8926, 8927,
8928, 8929, 8930, 8931, 8932, 9416, 9416-1, 9416-2, 9417, 9421, 9421-1, 9421-2,
9422, 9423, 9423-1, 9436, 9437, 9735, 9735-1, 9735-2, 9735-3, 9737, 9764, 9785,
9785-1, 9786, 9786-1, 9786-2, 9798, 9799
PLT143 Chart Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Airport
Supplements 9636, 9668
U.S.
PLT144 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Ground 〉 Braking Action
FAA-H-8083-3 Aircraft Performance 〉 Atmospheric Effects 〉 Braking Action
Aircraft Performance 〉 Limitations 〉 Braking Action
8133, 8933, 8934, 8935, 8936, 8937, 8937-1, 8938, 8939, 9055, 9055-1, 9055-2,
9055-3
PLT145 AIM Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Runway
8914, 8915
PLT147 AIM Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Airport; Runway
U.S. Terminal 8705, 8908, 8909, 8910, 8911, 8912, 8913, 8921, 9378
Procedures
PLT148 AIM Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Runway
Chart Navigation 〉 Pilotage 〉 Approach Lights
Supplements 8901, 8901-1, 8902
U.S.
PLT149 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Gate Hold Procedures; Pilot
Procedures
8203, 8701, 9057, 9258, 9421-3, 9783, 9784, 9787, 9788, 9789, 9790, 9790-1
PLT161 14 CFR 91 Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Airspace Requirements
AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 ADIZ
Navigation 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Airspace; Equipment/Instrument/Certificate
Requirement; Flight Rules
8878, 8879, 8880, 8887, 8889, 8890, 8891, 9048, 9094, 9094-1, 9095, 9100, 9395,
9396, 9397, 9398, 9399, 9400, 9741, 9780
PLT162 14 CFR 91 Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Traffic Alert/Collision Avoidance
AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 MOA
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Services 〉 Outer Class C
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Flight Rules
8892, 9018, 9374, 9381

B–6 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT163 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Enroute

14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Rules
8114, 8893, 8900
PLT166 AC 00-6 Navigation 〉 Instrumentation 〉 Altimeter
9099, 9163, 9174
PLT168 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall angle of attack — characteristics / forces / principles
8378
PLT169 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall antitorque system — components / functions
8459, 8460, 8461, 8462, 8463, 8464, 8465, 9894, 9895, 9896, 9897, 9898
PLT170 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Performance 〉 Brakes
FAA-H-8083-16 Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Approach
8402, 8403, 8736, 8955, 8969, 9034, 9035, 9039, 9074, 9074-1, 9084, 9084-1,
9090-1, 9090-3, 9091, 9092, 9438, 9791, 9792, 9793, 9817-1, 9943
PLT171 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 Reporting
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Pilot Procedures; Radio
Procedures
8854, 9013, 9015, 9016, 9022-1
PLT172 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Approach 〉 Priority
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Arrival 〉 Approach Control; Uncontrolled Field
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 ATC Altitude Alerts
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Services 〉 Class C; IFR Flight Plans; Weather Radar
9050, 9090-2, 9093, 9096, 9760
PLT173 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Pressure; Stability; Temperature
9157, 9159, 9165, 9165-1, 9178, 9188, 9195
PLT192 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Clouds 〉 Turbulence
9189, 9189-1, 9190, 9193, 9925
PLT195 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Traffic Alert/Collision Avoidance
System
9425, 9426, 9427, 9427-1, 9428
PLT196 AIM Recall communications — ATIS broadcasts
9022
PLT197 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Rotary Wing
8420
PLT201 FAA-H-8083-16 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 Departure Obstruction Clearance
9012
PLT202 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 DME
9023, 9024
PLT203 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Temperature; Troposphere
9151, 9168, 9209, 9240
PLT205 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Alcohol
9111, 9111-2, 9111-3
PLT208 14 CFR 91 Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Communications
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists
8360, 8369, 8406, 8406-1, 9827-1, 9827-2, 9827-3
PLT213 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Stability/Control 〉 Static
8366, 8372

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B–7

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT214 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Flight Controls 〉 Normal Flight

FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Aircraft; Lift
8368, 8388, 8389, 8389-1, 8390, 8391, 8392, 8393, 8395
PLT219 FAA-H-8083-3 Flight Operations 〉 Maneuvers 〉 Basics
FAA-H-8083-21 9831
PLT223 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Airspeed 〉 VY
Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Drag
8051, 8241, 8357, 8359, 8370
PLT224 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Preflight 〉 Flight Plan
8806, 9005, 9026, 9031, 9032
PLT225 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Preflight 〉 Flight Plan
9027, 9033, 9053
PLT226 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Clouds 〉 Fog
8723, 9194, 9206, 9207, 9207-1, 9207-2, 9229-1, 9238-1
PLT234 FAA-H-8083-15 Recall forces acting on aircraft — 3 axis intersect
9740
PLT236 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall forces acting on aircraft — airfoil / center of pressure / mean camber line
8365, 8367, 8367-1, 8373, 8376
PLT237 ANA Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Lift
8345-1, 8345-2, 8421
PLT240 FAA-H-8083-25 Weight and Balance 〉 Center of Gravity 〉 Effect of Load Distribution
8380, 8380-1, 8419, 9921
PLT242 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Airspeed 〉 General
FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Wing; Lift
8377, 8383
PLT244 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall forces acting on aircraft — stability / controllability
9079
PLT245 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Lift
8344
PLT247 ANA Aerodynamics 〉 Normal Flight 〉 Landing
9005-1, 9005-2, 9793-1
PLT248 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Aircraft; Load Factor
FAA-H-8083-25 8345, 8352, 8353, 8422, 8423
PLT262 FAA-H-8083-21 Recall helicopter hazards—dynamic rollover / Low G / LT
8406-2
PLT263 AC 00-6 Weather 〉 Meteorology 〉 Icing; Moisture
AC 00-45 Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Clear Air Turbulence 〉 Jet Stream; Windshear
9230, 9231, 9701
PLT266 ANA Aerodynamics 〉 Performance 〉 Normal Flight
FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Lift
8341, 8356, 8384, 9759, 9766, 9771, 9803
PLT268 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Aircraft
8409
PLT271 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall human factors (ADM) — judgment
9806-1

B–8 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT274 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Hazardous 〉 Icing

AC 91-74 Meteorology 〉 Icing 〉 Freezing Rain
9221, 9224, 9285, 9736, 9748, 9774, 9775
PLT276 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 VOR
8968, 8984, 8985, 8986, 8987, 8988, 8989
PLT277 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 ILS
8959, 8960, 8962, 8970
PLT280 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Flight Illusions; Spatial Disorientation
9107, 9107-1, 9107-2, 9108, 9109, 9110, 9110-1, 9115, 9433, 9434, 9434-1, 9435
PLT282 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Dispatch/Redispatch
8004, 8005, 8011, 8019, 8068, 8093
PLT283 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Reports 〉 Constant Pressure Analysis Charts
9281, 9711
PLT284 AC 00-06 Recall information on a Forecast Winds and Temperatures Aloft (FD)
9251
PLT287 AC 00-45 Meteorology 〉 Air Masses and Fronts 〉 Pressure
9175
PLT288 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 Aviation Weather Forecasts; TAF
9244, 9245, 9246, 9248, 9709, 9710
PLT290 AC 00-45 National Weather Service (NWS) 〉 Functions 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts;
Aeronautical Weather Reports
Weather 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts 〉 SIGMETS
9257, 9286
PLT294 AC 00-45 National Weather Service (NWS) 〉 Functions 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts; En
AIM Route Flight Advisory Service
9247
PLT296 AIM Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 ADF/NDB; Holding; Instrument Approach
FAA-H-8083-15 8853, 8855, 8856, 8857, 8859, 8860, 8861, 8863, 8864, 8865, 8866, 8867, 9418,
9419
PLT300 AIM Recall instrument / navigation system
checks / inspections — limits / tuning / identifying / logging
9019, 9020, 9020-1, 9773
PLT301 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Temperature
9153, 9154, 9169
PLT302 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 High Altitude 〉 Jet Stream
Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Clear Air Turbulence 〉 High Altitude
9227, 9228, 9229, 9237, 9238, 9239, 9241, 9776, 9776-1, 9779
PLT303 ANA Recall L / D ratio
FAA-H-8083-3 8346, 8398, 8399, 8400, 8401
FAA-H-8083-25
PLT305 ANA Recall leading edge devices -types / effect / purpose / operation
8385, 8386
PLT309 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Angle of Bank
8396

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B–9

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT310 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Lift

8347, 8355
PLT314 FAA-H-8083-3 Recall longitudinal axis — aerodynamics / center of gravity / direction of motion
8362
PLT316 AC 00-45 Weather 〉 Hazardous 〉 Thunderstorms
9758
PLT317 AC 00-54 Weather/Turbulence 〉 Microbursts 〉 Performance; Windshear
AIM 9130, 9131, 9132, 9140, 9143, 9144, 9145, 9146, 9147, 9148, 9149, 9150, 9814,
9926
PLT318 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Arrival 〉 Low Fuel
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 Pilot Procedures
9010, 9011, 9420
PLT322 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Navigation Equipment
8145, 8147
PLT323 14 CFR 121 Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Preflight 〉 NOTAMS
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists
8283, 9086, 9087, 9089
PLT325 49 CFR 830 Recall operations manual — transportation of prisoner
8132, 8136
PLT328 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall performance planning, aircraft loading
8733, 8734
PLT330 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Physiological
FAA-H-8083-25 9103, 9105, 9106, 9927
PLT332 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Fitness for Flight; Physiological
9102, 9104
PLT334 AIM Human Factors 〉 Aeromedical Factors 〉 Flight Illusions
9112, 9113
PLT337 AC 91-43 Navigation 〉 Instrumentation 〉 Airspeed Indicator
9081, 9082, 9222, 9934
PLT343 14 CFR 1 Aerodynamics 〉 Powerplant 〉 Reciprocating
FAA-H-8083-25 9064, 9065, 9066, 9067, 9067-1, 9072, 9073
PLT344 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Hazardous 〉 Icing
9223
PLT346 AC 65-15 Aerodynamics 〉 Flight Characteristics 〉 Normal Flight
Aerodynamics 〉 Flight Controls 〉 Primary; Secondary
8324, 8325, 8326, 8337, 8342, 8343
PLT347 ANA Recall principles of flight — critical engine
FAA-H-8083-3 8361, 9085
PLT348 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Wing
8349, 8350, 8351, 9823

B – 10 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT354 AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Preflight 〉 Flight Plan

Instrument Navigation 〉 Avionics 〉 Airborne Equipment; GPS
Approach Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Approach Chart; Preflight Planning/Calculations
Procedure Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 GPS; Non-precision Approach
Charts 8703, 8837, 8839, 9111-1, 9310, 9429, 9430, 9431, 9432, 9617, 9692, 9694, 9722,
U.S. Terminal 9723, 9725, 9726, 9727, 9728, 9729, 9729-1, 9730, 9738, 9739, 9743, 9744, 9744-1,
Procedures 9794, 9795, 9796, 9796-1, 9804-1, 9812, 9812-1, 9917, 9944, 9945, 9946, 9946-1
PLT355 FAA-H-8083-15 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 HSI; ILS
8990, 8991, 8992, 8993, 8994, 8995, 8996, 8998, 8999, 9000, 9001, 9002, 9003,
9004, 9932
PLT356 AIM Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 ILS
8956, 8957, 8958, 8963, 8966, 8967, 8975, 9380, 9382, 9403, 9412
PLT358 AIM Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 ILS
8961
PLT365 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall reciprocating engine — components / operating principles / characteristics
9068, 9068-1, 9069
PLT366 49 CFR 830 Regulations 〉 NTSB Part 830 〉 Definitions; Reports/Reporting
8233, 8236, 8246, 8317, 8318, 8322, 8323, 8725, 9098
PLT367 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Limitations
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Aircraft Equipment
14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 〉 Aircraft Equipment
8061, 8062, 9355, 9355-1, 9358, 9359, 9360, 9361, 9809
PLT370 14 CFR 91 Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Communications 〉 ATC Communications; Clearances
AIM Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 Departure 〉 Clearances
Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 Speed Adjustments
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Flight Rules
9006, 9007, 9008, 9009, 9045, 9046, 9047, 9439
PLT373 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Crewmember Duties
9745, 9807
PLT374 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations — aircraft owner / operator responsibilities
14 CFR 135 8006, 8199, 8200
PLT375 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B 〉 Records Keeping
8012
PLT379 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Release
8063, 8064, 8086, 8247, 8248, 8249, 8251, 8252, 8256, 8258, 8262, 9394-2
PLT380 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Alternate/Weather/Fuel/Requirements
8087, 8254, 8255, 8261, 8264
PLT382 14 CFR 121 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 VOR
U.S. Terminal Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Landing Minimums
Procedures 9721
PLT383 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Icing Conditions
9379
PLT384 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Seat Belts/Cabin Announcements
8027, 8029, 8225
PLT385 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Cargo
8032, 8038, 8039, 8040, 8041, 8042, 8138, 8139, 8175, 8832

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B – 11

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT388 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Rating; Limitations

14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 FDR
8047, 8141, 8142, 8143, 8833, 9356, 9357, 9410
PLT389 14 CFR 119 Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 GPS
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 119 〉 Definitions
8003, 8192, 8193, 8196, 8197, 8201, 8202, 8430, 8767, 8768, 9724
PLT390 14 CFR 121 Air Traffic Control Procedures 〉 En Route 〉 Reporting
AIM Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Communications
8135
PLT391 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Instrument Flight Rules
9362, 9364, 9365, 9389, 9390, 9616
PLT392 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 〉 Operator/Control/Manual(s)
8010
PLT394 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations — declaration of an emergency
AIM 8239, 9097
PLT395 14 CFR 1 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 1 〉 General Definitions
14 CFR 119 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 119 〉 Definitions
8319, 8320, 8429, 9324, 9325, 9327, 9837
PLT396 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Takeoff Minimums
8250
PLT398 14 CFR 121 Navigation 〉 Flight Operations 〉 Preflight Planning/Calculations
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Dispatch/Redispatch
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart E 〉 ETOPS
8257, 8259, 8260, 8266, 8267, 8280, 8284, 9746-2
PLT400 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Dispatch/Redispatch
8007, 8226, 8286, 8292, 8296
PLT402 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Emergency Equipment/Survival
8171
PLT403 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Emergency Authority/Actions/Reports
8240, 8245
PLT404 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Emergency Equipment/Survival
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Emergency Equipment
8058, 8059, 8060, 8144, 8157, 8159, 8163, 8164, 8165, 8167, 8168, 8170, 8172,
8177, 8834
PLT405 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Requirement
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists; Dispatch/
Redispatch
8045, 8046, 8053, 8054, 8140, 8146, 8235, 8808, 9407, 9414, 9415
PLT406 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Requirement; Flight
Rules
8237, 9363, 9386, 9387
PLT407 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Limitations
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Landing Minimums; Line-Oriented Simulator Training
Course; Training/Currency
8034, 8103, 8108, 8109, 8110, 8111, 8205, 8207, 8215, 8216, 8217, 8218, 8820,
8821, 8827, 8829, 9346, 9347, 9618, 9720, 9847-1

B – 12 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT408 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Emergency Equipment/Survival

8176
PLT409 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Limitations
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Time/Duty/Rest/Requirements
8002, 8104, 8189, 8211, 8219, 8220, 8221, 8222, 8223, 8224, 8227, 8228, 8229,
8231, 8231-1, 8238, 8706, 8706-1, 8707, 8708, 8709, 8724, 8814, 8815, 9342, 9714,
9838, 9839, 9840, 9841, 9842, 9843, 9844, 9845, 9846, 9847, 9847-2, 9848, 9849,
9850, 9851, 9852
PLT412 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Release
8293, 8294, 8295
PLT413 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Alternate/Weather/Fuel/Requirements
8088, 8089, 8268, 8269, 8270, 8271, 8272, 8273, 8274, 8275, 8276, 8277
PLT416 49 CFR 830 Regulations 〉 NTSB Part 830 〉 Reports/Reporting
8321
PLT417 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Emergency Equipment
8166, 8169
PLT420 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Instrument Flight Rules
8092, 8279, 8726, 8953, 9021, 9036, 9037, 9038, 9041, 9348, 9368, 9369, 9384,
9391, 9392, 9393, 9411, 9413, 9742, 9770, 9817
PLT421 14 CFR 91 Recall regulations — instrument flight rules
AIM 9014, 9370, 9383, 9385, 9394-1
PLT424 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 〉 Aircraft Equipment; Flight Operations
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B 〉 Flight/Crewmember Duties
8013, 8014, 8015, 8016, 8017, 8037, 8102
PLT425 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B 〉 Records Keeping
9746, 9746-1, 9761, 9762
PLT427 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Limitations
9333, 9335, 9340, 9343, 9349, 9811
PLT428 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 〉 MEL/CDL; Operator/Control/Manual(s)/Operation
Specs
8052, 8731, 8732, 8807
PLT429 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Navigation Equipment
8149, 8152, 8195, 8195-1, 9408, 9409
PLT430 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Instrument Flight Rules
8297, 9366, 9367, 9373
PLT432 14 CFR 1 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 1 〉 General Definitions
9326
PLT433 14 CFR 135 Recall regulations — operational flight plan requirements
9931
PLT434 AIM Airport Operations 〉 Taxiing 〉 Airport Taxi Modes; Taxiing After Landing
Airport Operations 〉 Tower Controlled 〉 ATC Procedures
9042, 9044, 9056, 9424
PLT436 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists; Enroute
8198, 8278

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B – 13

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT437 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 〉 Aircraft Equipment; Performance Requirements
8050, 8078, 8079, 8838, 8840, 8841
PLT438 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Supplemental; Oxygen for Sustenance: Turbine
Engine
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Emergency Equipment
8020, 8021, 8022, 8023, 8024, 8025, 8028, 8030, 8031, 8055, 8056, 8072, 8073,
8074, 8080, 8081, 8156, 8173, 8174, 8180, 8181, 8182, 8183, 8184, 8185, 8186,
8187, 9638, 9819
PLT440 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart M 〉 Flight Engineer Requirements
8008, 8009, 8026, 8033, 8043, 8113, 8155, 8188, 8190, 8212, 8213
PLT442 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Instrument Currency
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Recent Experience; Training Currency
14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 〉 Crew Requirements
8095, 8096, 8097, 8098, 8099, 8100, 8101, 8105, 8208, 8209, 8210, 8809, 8830,
9329, 9329-2, 9334, 9336, 9337, 9338, 9339, 9341, 9344, 9345
PLT443 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Type Rating
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Time/Duty/Rest/Requirements
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart M 〉 Flight Engineer Requirements
8035, 8036, 8044, 8082, 8083, 8107, 8112, 8191, 8289, 9328, 9329-1, 9350
PLT444 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Crew Equipment/Publications/Checklists; Emergency
Authority/Actions/ Reports; Operational Control/ Flight Release
8018, 8234, 8242, 8243, 8243-1, 8244, 8281, 8282, 8285, 8819, 9402, 9402-1
PLT447 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Limitations
9351
PLT449 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Training/Currency
8214
PLT450 14 CFR 63 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 63 〉 Experience Requirements
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Flight Time/Duty/Rest Requirements
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart P 〉 Dispatcher Duty Limitations
8194, 8230, 9342-1, 9342-2, 9350-1
PLT452 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations — re-dispatch
8232
PLT453 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Records Keeping
8287, 8288
PLT454 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 〉 Aircraft Equipment
8001, 8049, 8067
PLT455 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Dispatch/Redispatch
8290, 8291
PLT456 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Landing Minimums
8094, 8127, 8128, 8130, 8831
PLT459 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Instrument Flight Rules
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Takeoff Minimums
8057, 8065, 8066, 8085, 8090, 8091, 8158, 8263, 8358, 8363, 8843, 9371, 9372,
9401, 9826
PLT460 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Training/Currency
14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121/135 〉 Training
8204, 8828, 9330, 9331

B – 14 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT462 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Emergency Equipment
14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121/135 〉 Aircraft Equipment
8048, 8160, 8161, 8162, 8178, 8179, 8792
PLT463 14 CFR 61 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 61 〉 Limitations
14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Passenger/Flight Events/Disturbances
8813, 9332, 9354,
PLT464 14 CFR 135 Regulations 〉 14 CFR 135 〉 Aircraft Equipment
Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 135 Subpart B 〉 Flight/Crewmember Duties
8075, 8076, 8077
PLT465 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Seat Belts/Cabin Announcements
8153
PLT466 FAA-H-8083-3 Weight and Balance 〉 Center of Gravity 〉 Limitations
8371, 8775, 8780, 9317, 9318, 9319, 9320, 9322, 9323
PLT468 14 CFR 121 Recall regulations — Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)
8253
PLT469 14 CFR 121 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 Subpart K 〉 Navigation Equipment
8148, 8150, 8151
PLT470 ANA Aerodynamics 〉 Flight Characteristics 〉 Flight Limitations; Rotocraft Hazards
Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Aircraft; Forces Acting on Rotor
Wings; Hazards; Lift
8407, 8408, 8410, 8411, 8412, 8413, 8424, 8425, 8426, 8427, 8428, 9781
PLT472 FAA-H-8083-21 Aerodynamics 〉 Flight Characteristics 〉 Abnormal Flight
8414, 8415, 8416, 9800
PLT473 AC 65-15 Aerodynamics 〉 Flight Controls 〉 Secondary Flight Controls; Servos
8327, 8328, 8329, 8330, 8331, 8332, 8333, 8334, 8336, 8338, 8339, 8340, 9793-2
PLT474 FAA-H-8083-25 Recall soaring — normal procedures
9936
PLT475 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Hazards 〉 Definitions; Thunder Storms
9200, 9249, 9708, 9708-1
PLT477 ANA Aerodynamics 〉 Load Factor 〉 Stall Speed
FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Stall/Spins 〉 Angle of Attack; Stall Warning Devices
8348, 9808
PLT493 14 CFR 121 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Hazards
AC 00-6 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 121 〉 Icing Conditions
AC 20-117 Meteorology 〉 Icing 〉 Frost
AC 135-17 8084, 8265, 9162, 9179, 9180, 9181, 9440, 9440-1, 9449, 9695, 9753, 9756
PLT495 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Hazardous 〉 Arctic Flying; Thunderstorms
AC 00-24 Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Clear Air Turbulence 〉 Windshear
9196, 9197, 9198, 9199, 9201, 9202, 9203, 9204, 9205, 9211, 9212, 9233, 9706, 9835
PLT497 AIM Navigation 〉 Avionics 〉 Transponder Equipment
9051, 9052
PLT498 49 CFR 830 Recall Transportation Security Regulations
8131, 8137, 9763, 9763-1
PLT499 FAA-H-8083-25 Aerodynamics 〉 Performance 〉 Normal Flight
Aerodynamics 〉 Powerplant 〉 Turbine
8394, 8394-1, 8974, 9058, 9060, 9768

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B – 15

Cross-Reference B Learning Statement Codes and Question Numbers

Learning FAA Reference Subject Description (or Topic 〉 Content 〉 Specific classification)
Statement Code Question Numbers

PLT500 FAA-H-8083-3 Aerodynamics 〉 Powerplant 〉 Turboprop

9070
PLT501 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 High Altitude 〉 Jet Stream
AC 00-30 Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Clear Air Turbulence 〉 Encountering; Reports; Windshear
AIM 9128, 9129, 9210, 9218, 9219, 9225, 9226, 9232, 9235, 9262, 9263, 9264, 9777,
9777-1
PLT506 14 CFR 1 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 1 〉 General Definitions
8774
PLT508 14 CFR 91 Regulations 〉 14 CFR Part 91 〉 Equipment/Instrument/Certificate Requirement
9375, 9376, 9377, 9404, 9405, 9406
PLT509 AC 00-6 Aerodynamics 〉 Principles of Flight 〉 Forces Acting on Wing
AIM Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Wake Turbulence 〉 Turbulence Factors
9119, 9120, 9121, 9122, 9123, 9124, 9125, 9126, 9127, 9715, 9858
PLT510 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Air Masses and Fronts 〉 Winds
Meteorology 〉 Airflow 〉 Temp
Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Haze
9152, 9156, 9176, 9185-2, 9208
PLT511 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Air Masses and Fronts 〉 Dry Line; Fronts
Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Pressure
Meteorology 〉 Hazardous 〉 Thunderstorms
9160, 9191, 9192, 9213, 9214, 9215, 9215-1, 9216, 9217, 9228-1, 9228-2, 9259,
9923, 9924
PLT512 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Temperature
Meteorology 〉 Moisture 〉 Change of State
8710, 9155, 9161, 9161-1, 9182, 9183, 9184, 9185, 9185-1, 9234, 9810
PLT514 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Atmosphere 〉 Pressure
9747
PLT515 AIM National Weather Service (NWS) 〉 Functions 〉 Aeronautical Weather Forecasts;
Aeronautical Weather Reports
9704, 9747-1, 9747-2
PLT516 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Air Masses and Fronts 〉 Winds
9158, 9177
PLT517 AC 00-6 Meteorology 〉 Hazardous 〉 Tropic Storms
9178-1
PLT518 AC 00-6 Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Clear Air Turbulence 〉 Windshear
AC 00-54 Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Microbursts 〉 Loss of Airspeed Recovery; Windshear
AIM Windshear/Turbulence 〉 Windshear 〉 Characteristics; LLWAS
9054, 9133, 9134, 9135, 9135-1, 9136, 9137, 9138, 9139, 9141, 9142, 9166, 9220,
9236, 9283
PLT524 FAA-H-8083-6 Navigation 〉 Avionics 〉 Primary Flight Displays (PFD)
Navigation 〉 Radio 〉 Electronic Displays
8206, 9750, 9751, 9769, 9769-1, 9769-2, 9769-3
PLT526 AIM Recall near midair collision report
9836, 9836-1
PLT542 AIM Recall airport operations — radio failure
9783-1

B – 16 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Airman Certification Codes and Question Numbers

Airman Certification Codes and Question Numbers

AA.I.A.K1 9084-1
AA.I.A.K2 8394, 8394-1, 8974, 9058, 9060, 9062, 9064, 9065, 9066, 9067, 9068, 9068-1, 9070, 9072, 9073, 9768
AA.I.A.K4 9071
AA.I.A.K9 8145, 8146, 8147, 8149, 8152, 8195, 8195-1, 8206, 9019, 9020, 9023, 9024, 9051, 9052, 9375, 9376,
9377, 9404, 9405, 9406, 9408, 9409, 9751, 9783-1, 9944, 9945, 9946
AA.I.A.K11 8181
AA.I.A.K12 8324, 8325, 8326, 8327, 8328, 8329, 8330, 8331, 8332, 8333, 8334, 8336, 8337, 8338, 8339, 8340,
8341, 8342, 8343, 8356, 8384, 8385, 8386, 9765, 9766, 9771, 9793, 9793-1, 9793-2
AA.I.A.K13 9099, 9164, 9174
AA.I.A.K14 8160, 8161, 8162, 8176
AA.I.A.K17 8731
AA.I.A.R3 8711, 9830, 9853, 9854, 9855, 9857, 9941
AA.I.B.K1 8382, 8603, 8604, 8635, 8636, 8637, 8643, 8644, 8645, 8646, 8647, 8648, 8649, 8650, 8651, 8652,
8658, 8659, 8660, 8661, 8662, 8663, 8664, 8665, 8666, 8667, 8668, 8669, 8670, 8671, 8672, 8678,
8679, 8680, 8681, 8743, 8744, 8745, 8753, 8756
AA.I.B.K2a 8774, 8775, 9076, 9797, 9797-1, 9797-2
AA.I.B.K2b 8115, 8116, 8134, 8459, 8460, 8461, 8462, 8463, 8464, 8465, 8466, 8467, 8468, 8479, 8480, 8481,
8586, 8587, 8613, 8712, 8713, 8714, 8715, 8716, 8717, 8718, 8719, 8720, 8721, 8734, 8780, 9075,
9083, 9085, 9317, 9319, 9324, 9327, 9801, 9802, 9918, 9919, 9936, 9937
AA.I.B.K2c 8379-1, 8397-1, 8400, 8400-1, 8593, 8594, 8628, 8629, 8630, 8631, 8632, 8633, 8634, 8638, 8639,
8640, 8641, 8642-1, 8642-2, 8682, 8683, 8684, 8685, 8686, 8852-1, 9935
AA.I.B.K2d 8381, 8383, 8398, 8401, 9077, 9078, 9320, 9321, 9322, 9323
AA.I.B.K2e 9791, 9792
AA.I.B.K2f 8117, 8118, 8119, 8120, 8121, 8122, 8123, 8124, 8125, 8126, 8127, 8128, 8129, 8130, 8505, 8506,
8507, 8508, 8509, 8510, 8511, 8512, 8732, 8742, 8750
AA.I.B.K2g 8369, 8370
AA.I.B.K3a 9059, 9061, 9061-1, 9063, 9069, 9813-1, 9942-1
AA.I.B.K3e 8365, 8366, 8367, 8371, 8372, 8373, 8376, 8431, 8432, 8433, 8439, 8440, 8441, 8442, 8443, 8449,
8450, 8451, 8452, 8453, 8574, 8575, 8576, 8577, 8578, 8579, 8580, 8581, 8582, 8697, 8697-1, 8697-2,
8698, 8699, 8699-1, 8699-2, 8700, 8746, 8769, 8770, 8771, 8772, 8773, 8776, 8777, 8778, 8779, 8781,
8787, 8788, 8789, 8790, 8791, 8844, 8845, 8846, 8847, 8848, 9920, 9938
AA.I.B.K3f 8729, 8730, 9005-1, 9005-2
AA.I.B.K4 8344, 8346, 8348, 8368, 8375, 8377, 8378, 8379, 8389-1, 8391-3, 8397, 8399, 9129, 9808, 9942
AA.I.B.K5 8367-1, 8380, 8584, 8585, 8697-3, 8697-4, 9921
AA.I.B.K6 8733, 9302, 9440, 9451, 9695
AA.I.B.K7 9441, 9442, 9443, 9444, 9445, 9446, 9447, 9448, 9450, 9452, 9453, 9454, 9697, 9698, 9700
AA.I.B.K9 9055, 9055-1, 9055-2, 9055-3
AA.I.C.K1 9251
AA.I.C.K2 8735, 9167, 9175, 9242, 9244, 9245, 9246, 9247, 9248, 9250, 9255, 9257, 9266, 9267, 9268, 9269,
9270, 9271, 9272, 9273, 9274, 9275, 9276, 9277, 9278, 9281, 9284, 9285, 9286, 9287, 9288, 9289,
9290, 9291, 9292, 9293, 9294, 9295, 9296, 9305, 9704, 9709, 9710, 9711, 9713, 9716, 9717, 9718,
9747, 9747-1, 9747-2, 9747-3, 9758, 9824, 9922, 9939

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B – 17

Cross-Reference B Airman Certification Codes and Question Numbers

AA.I.C.K3a 9151, 9158, 9168, 9170, 9171, 9185, 9185-1, 9186, 9187, 9188, 9195, 9209, 9240, 9241, 9779, 9923
AA.I.C.K3b 9054, 9133, 9134, 9135, 9135-1, 9136, 9137, 9138, 9139, 9141, 9142, 9166, 9220, 9236, 9238, 9238-1,
9249, 9283, 9701, 9776
AA.I.C.K3c 9152, 9153, 9154, 9155, 9169, 9185-2, 9225
AA.I.C.K3d 9161, 9161-1, 9162, 9180, 9223
AA.I.C.K3e 8710, 9156, 9157, 9159, 9160, 9165, 9165-1, 9176, 9177, 9178, 9178-1, 9184, 9191, 9192, 9213, 9215,
9215-1, 9216, 9217, 9227, 9228, 9228-1, 9228-2, 9233, 9259, 9260, 9776-1, 9810
AA.I.C.K3f 9189, 9193, 9210, 9226, 9229, 9229-1, 9924, 9925
AA.I.C.K3g 9190, 9218, 9219, 9230, 9231, 9232, 9235, 9237, 9239, 9262, 9263, 9264, 9708-1, 9777, 9777-1
AA.I.C.K3h 9130, 9131, 9132, 9140, 9143, 9144, 9145, 9146, 9147, 9148, 9149, 9150, 9182, 9189-1, 9196, 9197,
9198, 9199, 9200, 9201, 9202, 9203, 9204, 9205, 9211, 9212, 9214, 9706, 9708, 9814, 9835, 9926
AA.I.C.K3i 9183, 9221, 9224, 9449, 9774, 9775
AA.I.C.K3j 8723, 9194, 9206, 9207, 9207-1, 9207-2
AA.I.C.K3k 8258, 8265, 9179, 9181, 9440-1, 9696, 9736, 9748
AA.I.C.K3l 9208, 9234
AA.I.C.K5 9329-2
AA.I.D.K1 8387, 8388, 8389, 8390, 8391, 8391-1, 8391-2, 8392, 8393, 8394-2, 8395, 9803
AA.I.D.K3 8702, 9080, 9163, 9172, 9173, 9173-1, 9813
AA.I.D.K9 8394-3
AA.I.D.R4 9128
AA.I.E.K1 9074, 9074-1
AA.I.E.K10 9094, 9095, 9096, 9421-2
AA.I.E.K11 9769-3
AA.I.E.K13 9388-1, 9388-2, 9388-3, 9836-1
AA.I.E.K14 8283, 9031
AA.I.E.K2 9769, 9769-1, 9769-2
AA.I.E.K3 8148, 8150, 8151, 8837, 8839, 9310
AA.I.E.K4 8154, 9098, 9425, 9426, 9427, 9427-1, 9428, 9436
AA.I.E.K8 8297, 8298, 9763
AA.I.E.K9 8243-1
AA.I.E.K11 9805-8
AA.I.E.K12 9805-7
AA.I.F.K1a 9103, 9105, 9106, 9927
AA.I.F.K1b 9102, 9104
AA.I.F.K1c 9114-1
AA.I.F.K1d 9112, 9113
AA.I.F.K1f 9101
AA.I.F.K1g 9928
AA.I.F.K1h 8706-1, 9929

B – 18 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Airman Certification Codes and Question Numbers

AA.I.F.K1k 9107, 9107-1, 9107-2, 9108, 9109, 9110, 9110-1, 9114, 9115, 9116, 9117, 9118, 9433, 9434, 9434-1,
9435
AA.I.F.K2 9111, 9111-1, 9111-2, 9111-3, 9354, 9354-1
AA.I.F.K3 9778, 9778-1, 9804, 9804-1, 9805, 9805-1, 9805-2, 9805-3, 9805-4, 9805-5, 9805-6, 9806, 9806-1,
9816, 9816-1, 9832, 9834, 9853-1, 9856, 9928-1, 9929-2, 9940
AA.I.F.R2 9815, 9815-1, 9833, 9929-1
AA.I.G.K1 9328, 9329, 9329-1, 9330, 9331, 9332, 9333, 9334, 9335, 9339, 9340, 9342, 9343, 9344, 9349, 9350,
9351
AA.I.G.K2 8140, 8141, 8142, 8143, 8704-1, 8887, 8889, 8893, 8900, 9006, 9008, 9026, 9027, 9032, 9033, 9045,
9053, 9355, 9355-1, 9356, 9357, 9358, 9359, 9360, 9361, 9374, 9379, 9388, 9394-1, 9395, 9396, 9397,
9398, 9399, 9400, 9401, 9402, 9410, 9439, 9780, 9809, 9946-1
AA.I.G.K3 8194, 8211, 8219, 8220, 8221, 8222, 8223, 8224, 8227, 8228, 8229, 8231, 8231-1, 8238, 8706, 8707,
8708, 8709, 8724, 9714, 9837, 9838, 9839, 9840, 9841, 9842, 9843, 9844, 9845, 9846, 9847, 9847-1,
9847-2, 9848, 9849, 9850, 9851, 9852
AA.I.G.K4 8135, 8138, 8139, 8144, 8153, 8155, 8156, 8157, 8158, 8159, 8163, 8164, 8166, 8167, 8168, 8169,
8170, 8171, 8172, 8173, 8174, 8175, 8177, 8178, 8179, 8180, 8182, 8183, 8184, 8185, 8186, 8187,
8188, 8189, 8190, 8191, 8198, 8199, 8200, 8204, 8205, 8207, 8208, 8209, 8210, 8212, 8213, 8214,
8215, 8216, 8217, 8218, 8225, 8233, 8234, 8235, 8236, 8237, 8240, 8241, 8244, 8245, 8246, 8247,
8248, 8249, 8250, 8251, 8252, 8253, 8254, 8255, 8256, 8262, 8268, 8269, 8270, 8271, 8272, 8273,
8274, 8275, 8276, 8277, 8278, 8284, 8289, 8725, 9325, 9326, 9342-1, 9342-2, 9350-1, 9394-2, 9746-1,
9746-2, 9761, 9762, 9763-1, 9770
AA.I.G.K5 8001, 8004, 8005, 8006, 8007, 8008, 8009, 8010, 8011, 8012, 8013, 8014, 8015, 8016, 8017, 8018,
8019, 8020, 8021, 8022, 8023, 8024, 8025, 8026, 8027, 8028, 8029, 8030, 8031, 8032, 8033, 8034,
8035, 8036, 8037, 8038, 8039, 8040, 8041, 8042, 8043, 8044, 8045, 8046, 8047, 8048, 8049, 8050,
8051, 8052, 8053, 8054, 8055, 8056, 8057, 8058, 8059, 8060, 8061, 8062, 8063, 8064, 8065, 8066,
8067, 8068, 8069, 8070, 8071, 8072, 8073, 8074, 8075, 8076, 8077, 8078, 8079, 8080, 8081, 8082,
8083, 8084, 8085, 8086, 8087, 8088, 8089, 8090, 8091, 8092, 8093, 8094, 8095, 8096, 8097, 8098,
8099, 8100, 8101, 8102, 8103, 8104, 8105, 8105, 8107, 8108, 8109, 8110, 8111, 8112, 8113, 8165,
8792, 8807, 8808, 8809, 8813, 8814, 8815, 8819, 8820, 8821, 8827, 8828, 8829, 8830, 8831, 8832,
8833, 8834, 8838, 8840, 8841, 8842, 8843, 9618, 9720, 9819, 9931
AA.I.G.K6 8317, 8318, 8319, 8320, 8321, 8322, 8323, 9836
AA.I.G.S1 8131, 8132, 8136, 8137, 9807
AA.II.A.K2b 9782
AA.II.A.K2c 9407
AA.II.A.K2e 8226, 8232, 8243, 8259, 8260, 8266, 8267, 8280, 8286, 8287, 8288, 8290, 8291, 8292, 8293, 8294,
8295, 8296, 9746
AA.II.A.K5 8281, 8282, 9636, 9668
AA.II.A.K6 9020-1
AA.II.A.K7 8003, 8192, 8193, 8196, 8197, 8197-1, 8201, 8202, 8429, 8430, 8767, 8768, 9724, 9745
AA.II.A.S6 8872, 8873, 8874, 8875, 8876, 8877, 8878, 8879, 8880, 8881, 8882, 8883, 8884, 8885, 8886, 8888,
8890, 8891, 8892, 9018, 9046, 9047, 9048, 9049, 9093, 9100, 9741
AA.II.C.K1 9086, 9087, 9089
AA.II.C.K2 8722, 9007, 9009, 9022-1, 9056, 9057, 9416, 9737, 9788
AA.II.C.K3 8203, 8901-1, 8905, 8906, 8907, 8922, 9417, 9421, 9421-1, 9422, 9423, 9423-1, 9437, 9735, 9735-1,
9735-2, 9735-3, 9790, 9798, 9799
AA.II.C.K6 8701, 9258, 9421-3, 9783, 9784, 9787, 9790-1

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B – 19

Cross-Reference B Airman Certification Codes and Question Numbers

AA.II.C.K7 9424
AA.II.C.K8 9789
AA.II.C.S3 9416-1, 9416-2, 9818
AA.II.C.S5 9005
AA.II.D.K2 8854, 9013, 9014
AA.III.A.K1 8727, 8727-1
AA.III.A.K3 8623, 8624, 8625, 8626, 8627
AA.III.A.K4 8901, 8902, 8903, 8904, 8914, 8915, 8923, 8924, 8925, 8926, 8927, 8928, 8929, 8930, 8931, 8932,
9764, 9785, 9785-1, 9786, 9786-1, 9786-2
AA.III.B.K4 8705, 8908, 8909, 8910, 8911, 8912, 8913, 8921, 9378
AA.III.B.R1 8133, 8933, 8934, 8935, 8936, 8937, 8937-1, 8938, 8939
AA.IV.A.K2d 8345, 8345-1, 8345-2, 8347, 8352, 8353, 8354, 8396
AA.IV.A.K2e 8349, 8350, 8351, 9740, 9823
AA.V.A.K1 9759
AA.V.B.K1 8374, 8728, 9767
AA.V.C.K5 9067-1
AA.VI.A.K1 9119, 9120, 9121, 9122, 9123, 9124
AA.VI.A.R2 9125, 9126, 9127, 9715
AA.VI.B.K1 8257, 8261, 8263, 8264, 9370, 9826
AA.VI.B.K3 9402-1
AA.VI.C.K1 8242, 8704, 8782, 8784, 8793, 8796, 8797, 8798, 8799, 8800, 8802, 8803, 8804, 8806, 8824, 8825,
8826, 8836, 8852, 8950, 9012, 9034, 9035, 9554, 9555, 9571, 9588, 9599, 9600, 9601, 9602, 9603,
9604, 9614, 9615, 9617, 9619, 9644, 9645, 9645-1, 9655, 9658, 9659, 9666, 9670, 9686, 9692, 9694,
9933
AA.VI.C.K3 8298-1, 8953, 9015, 9016, 9022, 9044, 9094-1
AA.VI.C.K4 9362, 9363, 9364, 9365, 9389, 9390
AA.VI.D.K1 8954, 9021, 9036, 9037, 9040, 9383, 9384, 9391, 9392, 9393
AA.VI.D.K2 9369, 9429, 9430, 9431, 9432, 9722, 9723, 9738, 9744, 9773, 9812, 9812-1
AA.VI.D.K3 8984, 8985, 8986, 8987, 8988, 8989, 8990, 8991, 8992, 8993, 8994, 8995, 8996, 8998, 8999, 9000,
9001, 9002, 9003, 9004, 9381, 9386, 9387, 9725, 9932
AA.VI.D.R6 9090-1
AA.VI.E.K1 8285, 8726, 8736, 8955, 8956, 8957, 8961, 9092, 9345, 9346, 9347, 9348, 9380, 9385, 9403, 9749
AA.VI.E.K2 8703, 8968, 9090-2, 9727, 9728, 9729, 9729-1, 9730, 9739, 9743, 9744-1, 9760, 9794, 9796, 9796-1,
9917
AA.VI.E.K3 8958, 8959, 8960, 8962, 8963, 8965, 8966, 8967, 8970, 9038, 9039, 9090-3, 9411, 9412, 9413, 9742
AA.VI.E.K4 8969, 9079, 9084, 9091, 9438, 9817-1
AA.VI.E.R7 8279
AA.VI.E.S12 9817
AA.VI.F.K2 8907-1
AA.VI.F.R3b 9731, 9732, 9733, 9734

B – 20 ASA Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep

 Cross-Reference B Airman Certification Codes and Question Numbers

AA.VI.F.R9 9858
AA.VI.I.K1 9041, 9368, 9382
AA.VI.J.K1 8853, 8855, 8856, 8857, 8858, 8859, 8860, 8861, 8862, 8863, 8864, 8865, 8866, 8867, 9418, 9419
AA.VI.J.K2 8673, 8674, 8675, 8676, 8677, 9010, 9011, 9050, 9420, 9943
AA.VII.A.K2 9097
AA.VII.A.K6 9081, 9082, 9222, 9753, 9756, 9934
AA.VII.B.K1 8357, 8358, 8360, 8362, 8363, 8364, 9827-1, 9827-2, 9827-3
AA.VII.B.K2 8361
AA.VII.C.K2 8359

Airline Transport Pilot Test Prep ASA B – 21

You’re practically there…
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Airplane Airman Certification Standards will prepare you for the final exam by providing a review of what you
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Seat upgrade? Roger that.
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Pack your bag.
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