MODULE QUIZ

1. How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?
· BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than
desktops.
· BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus
reducing the need for organizational security policies.
· BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are
purchased by an organization.
· BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network
resources.

2. An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the

safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure
remote access to a company network?
· ACL
· IPS
· VPN
· BYOD

3. What is the Internet?

· It is a network based on Ethernet technology.
· It provides network access for mobile devices.
· It provides connections through interconnected global networks.
· It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN
connections.

4. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

· They originate the data that flows through the network.
· They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
· They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
· They are the interface between humans and the communication
network.
· They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

5. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

· an Internet cafe in a city
· a farm in a rural area without wired broadband access
· any home with multiple wireless devices
· an apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet

5. Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can help data travel approximately
500 meters?
 · multimode
· single-mode

6. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users

and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered
to existing users?
· reliability
· scalability
· quality of service
· accessibility

7. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the
ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally
damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the
campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories
only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic
of the network is shown here?
· quality of service (QoS)
· scalability
· security
· fault tolerance
· integrity

8. What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)

· easily overloaded with increased traffic
· grows in size without impacting existing users
· is not as reliable as a small network
· suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion
· offers limited number of applications

9. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should
take through internetworks?
· a router
· a firewall
· a web server
· a DSL modem

10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be
run to the building? (Choose two.)
· DSL
· cellular
· satellite
· dialup
 · dedicated leased line

11. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?
· an intranet
· the Internet
· an extranet
· a local area network

12. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was
installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited
by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
· DoS attack
· identity theft
· spyware
· zero-day attack

13. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate
offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
· Internet
· intranet
· extranet
· extendednet

14. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network
resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend
does this describe?
· cloud computing
· online collaboration
· bring your own device
· video conferencing

15. What is an ISP?

· It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards
for networking.
· It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local
network communicate.
· It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to
connect to the Internet.
· It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several
different networking devices in one.

1. Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

· automatic assignment of an IP address to each host
· remote switch management
 · translation of IP addresses to domain names
· end-to-end connectivity test

2. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of
the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
· providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted
· displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode
· allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated
command with the TAB key
· determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the
entered command
· selecting the best command to accomplish a task

3. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup

configuration file?
· RAM
· ROM
· NVRAM
· flash

4. To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of

255.255.0.0 is used?
· 10.1.0.0
· 10.0.0.0
· 10.1.100.32
· 10.1.100.0

5. When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming
conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)
· the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length
· the hostname should be written in all lower case characters
· the hostname should contain no spaces
· the hostname should end with a special character
· the hostname should begin with a letter

6. What is the function of the shell in an OS?

· It interacts with the device hardware.
· It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
· It provides dedicated firewall services.
· It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.

7. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in

NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console
password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
 · global configuration mode
· setup mode
· Oprivileged EXEC mode
· user EXEC mode

8. An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS

device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?
· Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.
· Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running
configuration.
· Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the
configuration.
· Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device
take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key
has been pressed.

9. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the
device is restarted?
· ROM
· flash
· NVRAM
· RAM

10. Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-
config?
· to remove all configurations from the switch
· to save an active configuration to NVRAM
· to copy an existing configuration into RAM
· to make a changed configuration the new startup configuration

11. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS
device?
· It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
· It is stored in NVRAM.
· It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
· It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
· All router commands are available.
· Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable
command.
· The device prompt for this mode ends with the “>” symbol.
· Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
· Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
13. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable
secret command?
· virtual terminal
· privileged EXEC
· AUX port
· console line

14. What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

· VLAN1
· VLAN99
· VLAN100
· VLAN999:03TruvidfullScreen

1. What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable
message?
· access control
· decoding
· encapsulation
· flow control

2. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

· It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
· It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
· It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
· It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.

3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer
from the source to the destination?
· access control
· decoding
· encapsulation
· flow control

4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the
perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used
to prepare the request for transmission?
· HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
· HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
· Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
· Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

5. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)
· It assists in protocol design.
· It speeds up packet delivery.
 · It prevents designers from creating their own model.
· It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
· It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher
layer.

6. What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

· specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of
communication
· specifying the device operating systems that will support the
communication
· providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to
occur
· dictating the content of the message sent during communication

7. Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

· destination MAC address
· destination IP address
· destination port number
· source MAC address
· source IP address

8. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a
networking model?
· frame
· packet
· protocol data unit
· segment

9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

· POP
· BOOTP
· ICMP
· IP
· PPP

10. Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data
for individual communications between end devices?
· application
· presentation
· session
· transport
· network
11. Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations
simultaneously?
· broadcast
· multicast
· unicast
· anycast

12. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose

three.)
· IANA
· TCP/IP
· IEEE
· IETF
· OSI
· MAC

13. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area
network?
· broadcast
· multicast
· unicast
· allcast

14. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

· to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
· to interpret information
· to break large messages into smaller frames
· negotiate correct timing for successful communication

15. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same
message simultaneously?
· duplex
· unicast
· multicast
· broadcast

16. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network
communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)
· connector specifications
· message encoding
· media selection
· message size
· delivery options
· end-device installation
17. What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?
· remote delivery
· local and remote delivery
· local delivery
· remote delivery using routers

18. What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the
network?
· application
· transport
· internet
· network access

fullScreen
1. Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?
· IANA
· IEEE
· IOS
· TIA

2. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes

both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless
connection be recommended?
· The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.
· The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of
performance requirements.
· The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.
· The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

3. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using

a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are
distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
· presentation layer
· network layer
· physical layer
· data link layer

4. What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router
console port?
· crossover
· rollover
 · straight-through
· coaxial

5. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

· console
· rollover
· crossover
· straight-through

6. What is the definition of bandwidth?

· the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given
period of time
· the speed at which bits travel on the network
· the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given
amount of time
· the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time

7. Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

· It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.
· It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at
evenly spaced time durations.
· It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent
the binary numbers of the frame.
· It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a
predictable pattern to help distinguish data bits from control bits.

8. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

· cancellation
· cladding
· immunity to electrical hazards
· woven copper braid or metallic foil

9. A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied
by the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park.
After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN
signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What are two possible
causes of the signal distortion? (Choose two.)
· the microwave oven
· the large number of trees that surround the office
· the cellular phones that are used by the employees
· the elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed
· the number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN

10. What is indicated by the term throughput?

 · the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
· the capacity of a particular medium to carry data
· the measure of the usable data transferred across the media
· the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given
period of time
· the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

11. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
· It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
· It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
· It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
· It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

12. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

· controlling access to media
· transmitting bits across the local media
· performing error detection on received frames
· exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media

13. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
· The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without
degrading.
· They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the
connection.
· They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
· They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

14. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

· the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
· the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in
adjacent wires
· the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
· the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access
point

15. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
· requiring proper grounding connections
· twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
· wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
· designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
· avoiding sharp bends during installation

16. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data
link layer?
 · They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
· Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and
destination addresses.
· They vary depending on protocols.
· They include information on user applications.

17. Which two factors influence the method that is used for media access control?
(Choose two.)
· how data is generated by end devices applications
· how the connection between nodes appears to the data link layer
· how signals are encoded by the NICs on end devices
· how nodes share the media
· how the IP protocol forwards the packet to the destination

18. What is a characteristic of a WAN hub-and-spoke topology?

· It requires that some of the branch sites be interconnected through
point-to-point links.
· It requires that every site be interconnected to each other through
point-to-point links.
· All sites require a hub device that connects to a router.
· The branch sites are connected to a central site through point-to-point
links.3TruvidfullScreen

1. What is the decimal equivalent of 0xC9?

· 185
· 200
· 201
· 199

2. Which is a valid hexadecimal number?

· f
· g
· h
· j

3. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

· 10111010
· 11010101
· 11001010
· 11011010

4. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

· 32
· 64
 · 128
· 256

5. Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
· IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
· IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
· IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length.
· IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length.
· IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length.
· IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.

6. Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people and is expressed
as 201.192.1.14?
· binary
· dotted decimal
· hexadecimal
· ASCII

7. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address

11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
· 192.0.0.199
· 198.51.100.201
· 203.0.113.211
· 209.165.201.223

8. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?

· 149
· 157
· 168
· 192

9. What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F?

· 63
· 77
· 87
· 93

10. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address which is
represented as the binary string 00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001?
· 10.100.21.1
· 10.10.20.1
· 100.10.11.1
· 100.21.10.1
11. What is the binary representation for the decimal number 173?
· 10100111
· 10100101
· 10101101
· 10110101

12. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which
address does this represent in dotted decimal format?
· 234.17.10.9
· 234.16.12.10
· 236.17.12.6
· 236.17.12.10

13. How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?

· 32
· 48
· 64
· 128
· 256

14. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?

· 11101000
· 11000110
· 10011000
· 11110010

1. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model?
(Choose two.)
· It encrypts data packets.
· It determines the path to forward packets.
· It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
· It provides media access control and performs error detection.
· It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address
table.

2. What does a router do after de-encapsulating a received frame?

· determines the best path
· de-encapsulates the frame
· re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
· forwards the new frame onto the network medium

3. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?
· attached Ethernet cable
· IP address
 · MAC address
· RJ-45 port
· TCP/IP protocol stack

4. Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

· the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
· the use of CSMA/CA
· the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
· the development of half-duplex switch operation
· the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds

5. What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all Ethernet cables
to a central device?
· bus
· ring
· star
· mesh

6. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that
provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every
node is attached to every other node on the network?
· bus
· hierarchical
· mesh
· ring
· star

7. Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?

· Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one
direction.
· Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a
time.
· Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to
many different destinations simultaneously.
· Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at
the same time.

8. Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?

· to define the media access processes that are performed by the
hardware
· to provide data link layer addressing
· to identify which network layer protocol is being used
· to accept segments and package them into data units that are
called packets
9. Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use?
· CSMA/CD
· determinism
· turn taking
· token passing

10. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.)
· internet
· physical
· LLC
· transport
· MAC
· network access

11. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

· CSMA/CD
· priority ordering
· CSMA/CA
· token passing

12. What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet
device?
· IP address
· MAC address
· sequence number
· TCP port number
· UDP port number

13. Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that
apply to the data link layer? (Choose two.)
· International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
· Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
· International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
· Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
· Internet Society (ISOC)

14. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation
method used for specific types of media?
· application
· transport
· data link
· physical

15. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

 · The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
· Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers
frames.
· Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each
network.
· Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between
devices.

1. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a

destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
· It will discard the frame.
· It will forward the frame to the next host.
· It will remove the frame from the media.
· It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP
address.

2. What is auto-MDIX?
· a type of Cisco switch
· an Ethernet connector type
· a type of port on a Cisco switch
· a feature that detects Ethernet cable type

3. Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer? (Choose
two.)
· It is responsible for Media Access Control.
· It performs the function of NIC driver software.
· It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.
· It handles communication between upper and lower layers.
· It adds control information to network protocol layer data.

4. What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?

· an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet
· an address that reaches one specific host
· an address that reaches every host in the network
· an address that reaches a specific group of hosts

5. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

· The frame is dropped.
· The frame is returned to the originating network device.
· The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.
· The frame is sent to the default gateway.

6. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose
two.)
 · 56 bytes
· 64 bytes
· 128 bytes
· 1024 bytes
· 1518 bytes

7. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address

table?
· the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets
· the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames
· the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets
· the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames

8. Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

· It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards.
· It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.
· It typically uses an average of 16 Mb/s for data transfer rates.
· It uses the CSMA/CD access control method.
· It uses a ring topology.

9. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

· They must be globally unique.
· They are only routable within the private network.
· They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.
· They have a 32-bit binary value.

10. What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC
address?
· 01-5E-00
· FF-00-5E
· FF-FF-FF
· 01-00-5E

11. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination
MAC address that is contained in the frame?
· repeater
· hub
· switch
· router

12. Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific
destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?
· hub
· router
 · switch
· modem

13. Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?

· It performs data encapsulation.
· It communicates with upper protocol layers.
· It is responsible for media access control.
· It adds a header and trailer to a packet to form an OSI Layer 2
PDU.

14. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

· MAC addresses are implemented by software.
· A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
· The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.
· The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

1. Which command can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table?
· netstat -s
· show ip route
· netstat -r
· tracert

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

· source and destination MAC
· source and destination application protocol
· source and destination port number
· source and destination IP address

3. How does the network layer use the MTU value?

· The network layer depends on the higher level layers to determine
the MTU.
· The network layer depends on the data link layer to set the MTU,
and adjusts the speed of transmission to accommodate it.
· The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer.
· To increase speed of delivery, the network layer ignores the MTU.

4. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

· IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to
IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.
· The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves
packet handling.
· Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports
privacy capabilities.
 · The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address
space.

5. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is
missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?
· Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request
retransmission.
· Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data
received and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols
on the sending host.
· Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if
connection-oriented transport services are not available.
· The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are
sent are received.

6. What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?
· to make reading a 32-bit address easier
· to relieve IPv4 address depletion
· to provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry
· to allow NAT support for private addressing

7. Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPv4?

· All IPv4 addresses are assignable to hosts.
· IPv4 has a 32-bit address space.
· An IPv4 header has fewer fields than an IPv6 header has.
· IPv4 natively supports IPsec.

8. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its
transmission?
· Flag
· Time-to-Live
· Packet Length
· Destination Address

9. When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for
the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?
· destination MAC address
· source IP address
· destination IP address
· source MAC address

10. Which field in an IPv6 packet is used by the router to determine if a packet has
expired and should be dropped?
· TTL
 · Hop Limit
· Address Unreachable
· No Route to Destination

11. Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its
destination?
· source IP address
· destination IP address
· source data-link address
· destination data-link address

12. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will
the packet be sent?
· The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then,
depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the
destination host.
· The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
· The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from
the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.
· The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

13. A router receives a packet from the Gigabit 0/0 interface and determines that
the packet needs to be forwarded out the Gigabit 0/1 interface. What will the router
do next?
· route the packet out the Gigabit 0/1 interface
· create a new Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be sent to the destination
· look into the ARP cache to determine the destination IP address
· look into the routing table to determine if the destination network is
in the routing table

14. Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?
· 126.0.0.1
· 127.0.0.0
· 126.0.0.0
· 127.0.0.1

1. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

· 0.0.0.0
· 255.255.255.255
· FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
· 127.0.0.1
· 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

2. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

 · destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address
· destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
· destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
· destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address

3. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received
frame is not in the MAC table?
· It initiates an ARP request.
· It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
· It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
· It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the
frame was received.

4. Which two ICMPv6 messages are used during the Ethernet MAC address
resolution process? (Choose two.)
· router solicitation
· router advertisement
· neighbor solicitation
· neighbor advertisement
· echo request

5. Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running
configuration file?
· RAM
· Flash
· NVRAM
· ROM

6. What type of information is contained in an ARP table?

· switch ports associated with destination MAC addresses
· domain name to IP address mappings
· routes to reach destination networks
· IP address to MAC address mappings

7. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network

192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices
an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?
· This is a static map entry.
· This is a dynamic map entry.
· This entry refers to the PC itself.
· This entry maps to the default gateway.

8. A cybersecurity analyst believes an attacker is spoofing the MAC address of the

default gateway to perform a man-in-the-middle attack. Which command should
the analyst use to view the MAC address a host is using to reach the default
gateway?
· ipconfig /all
· route print
· netstat -r
· arp -a

9. What is a function of ARP?

· resolving MAC addresses to IPv4 addresses
· resolving port addresses to MAC addresses
· resolving MAC addresses to port addresses
· resolving IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

10. What is the purpose of ARP in an IPv4 network?

· to forward data onward based on the destination IP address
· to obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known
· to forward data onward based on the destination MAC address.
· to build the MAC address table in a switch from the information that
is gathered.

11. Which action is taken by a Layer 2 switch when it receives a Layer 2 broadcast
frame?
· It drops the frame.
· It sends the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the
frame.
· It sends the frame to all ports that are registered to forward
broadcasts.
· It sends the frame to all ports.

12. When an IP packet is sent to a host on a remote network, what information is

provided by ARP?
· the IP address of the destination host
· the IP address of the default gateway
· the MAC address of the router interface closest to the sending host
· the MAC address of the switch port that connects to the sending
host

13. How does the ARP process use an IP address?

· to determine the MAC address of the remote destination host
· to determine the MAC address of a device on the same network
· to determine the amount of time a packet takes when traveling from
source to destination
· to determine the network number based on the number of bits in
the IP address
14. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
· Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
· Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address
· Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address
· Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

15. What is one function of the ARP protocol?

· obtaining an IPv4 address automatically
· mapping a domain name to its IP address
· resolving an IPv4 address to a MAC address
· maintaining a table of domain names with their resolved IP
addresses

1. What is the purpose of the banner motd command?

· It configures a message that will identify printed documents to LAN
users.
· It is a way that routers communicate the status of their links with
oneanother.
· It provides an easy way of communicating with any user attached to
a router’s LANs.
· It provides a way to make announcements to those who log in to a
router.

2. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access.

As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command
login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?
· user executive mode
· global configuration mode
· any line configuration mode
· privileged EXEC mode

3. What is stored in the NVRAM of a Cisco router?

· the Cisco IOS
· the running configuration
· the bootup instructions
· the startup configuration

4. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

· It is configured in privileged EXEC mode.
· It encrypts only line mode passwords.
· As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all
currently set passwords formerly displayed in plain text are encrypted.
 · To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption
command in plain text, issue the no service password-encryption
command.

5. An administrator is configuring a new router to permit out-of-band management

access. Which set of commands will allow the required login using a password of
cisco?
· Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password manage
Router(config-line)# exit
Router(config)# enable password cisco
· Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# login
· Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# login
· Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# exit
Router(config)# service password-encryption

6. Which command can be used on a Cisco router to display all interfaces, the IPv4
address assigned, and the current status?
· show ip interface brief
· ping
· show ip route
· show interface fa0/1

7. Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used
for configuration, management, and troubleshooting?
· user EXEC mode
· privileged EXEC mode
· global configuration mode
· interface configuration mode

8. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

· to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a
device
· to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router
on startup
· to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is
currently using
 · to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router
cannot load the full featured IOS

9. Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

· the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the
host computer
· the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host
computer
· the physical address of the router interface on the same network as
the host computer
· the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to
the router

10. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
· The IOS image is corrupt.
· Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
· The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
· The POST process has detected hardware failure.

11. Which command is used to encrypt all passwords in a router configuration file?
· Router_A (config)# enable secret <password>
· Router_A (config)# service password-encryption
· Router_A (config)# enable password <password>
· Router_A (config)# encrypt passwor

12. Company policy requires using the most secure method to safeguard access to
the privileged exec and configuration mode on the routers. The privileged exec
password is trustknow1. Which of the following router commands achieves the goal
of providing the highest level of security?
· secret password trustknow1
· enable password trustknow1
· service password-encryption
· enable secret trustknow1

13. What will be the response from the router after the command, “router(config)#
hostname portsmouth” is entered?
· portsmouth#
· portsmouth(config)#
· invalid input detected
· router(config-host)#
· hostname = portsmouth portsmouth#
· ? command not recognized router(config)#

1. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

 · network address
· multicast address
· host address
· broadcast address

2. If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for
hosts on this network?
· 256
· 254
· 62
· 32
· 16
· 14

3. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

· to uniquely identify a host on a network
· to identify whether the address is public or private
· to determine the subnet to which the host belongs
· to mask the IP address to outsiders

4. A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet

has a mask of 255.255.255.224. How many usable host addresses will this subnet
provide?
· 2
· 6
· 14
· 30
· 62

5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

· 255.255.255.248
· 255.255.224.0
· 255.255.240.0
· 255.255.255.0
· 255.255.255.192

6. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

· Each subnet is the same size.
· The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
· Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
· Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional
subnets.
7. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP
address and subnet mask?
· to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
· to identify the host address of the destination host
· to identify faulty frames
· to identify the network address of the destination network

8. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

· 256
· 254
· 62
· 30
· 16
· 32

9. Which subnet mask would be used if exactly 4 host bits are available?
· 255.255.255.224
· 255.255.255.128
· 255.255.255.240
· 255.255.255.248

10. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
· subnet portion
· network portion
· logical portion
· host portion
· physical portion
· broadcast portion

11. If a network device has a mask of /26, how many IP addresses are available for
hosts on this network?
· 64
· 30
· 62
· 32
· 16
· 14

12. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
· /25
· /26
· /27
· /28
13. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is
configured with a /26 mask?
· 254
· 190
· 192
· 62
· 64

14. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?
· 255.255.255.0
· 255.255.255.128
· 255.255.255.224
· 255.255.255.240

15. A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets

with /26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?
· 1
· 2
· 4
· 8
· 16
· 64n

1. What is the subnet address for the IPv6 address 2001:D12:AA04:B5::1/64?

· 2001::/64
· 2001:D12::/64
· 2001:D12:AA04::/64
· 2001:D12:AA04:B5::/64

2. Which type of IPv6 address is not routable and used only for communication on a
single subnet?
· global unicast address
· link-local address
· loopback address
· unique local address
· unspecified address

3. Which address type is not supported in IPv6?

· private
· multicast
· unicast
· broadcast
4. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in
IPv6 routing?
· to have only a link-local IPv6 address
· to have both an IPv4 and an IPv6 address
· to have a self-generated loopback address
· to have both a link-local and a global unicast IPv6 address
· to have only an automatically generated multicast IPv6 address

5. What is the interface ID of the IPv6 address

2001:DB8::1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94/64?
· FE94
· FE57:FE94
· 47FF:FE57:FE94
· A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94
· 1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94

6. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
· an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a
particular host
· a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of
the address that has been provided by an ISP
· a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local
enterprise site
· a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the
network address provided by a local administrator
· an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network

7. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address
2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?
· 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
· 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
· 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
· 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

8. What is the prefix associated with the IPv6 address

2001:CA48:D15:EA:CC44::1/64?
· 2001::/64
· 2001:CA48::/64
· 2001:CA48:D15:EA::/64
· 2001:CA48:D15:EA:CC44::/64

9. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is

enabled on that interface?
· global unicast
 · link-local
· loopback
· unique local

10. Which IPv6 network prefix is only intended for local links and can not be
routed?
· 2001::/3
· FC00::/7
· FE80::/10
· FEC0::/10

11. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your

service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your
organization to create subnetworks if interface ID bits are not borrowed?
· 8
· 16
· 80
· 128

12. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

· The host is cabled properly.
· The default gateway address is correctly configured.
· All hosts on the local link are available.
· The link-local address is correctly configured.
· IP is properly installed on the host.

13. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address

2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
· 2001:0:abcd::1
· 2001:0:0:abcd::1
· 2001::abcd::1
· 2001:0000:abcd::1
· 2001::abcd:0:1

14. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

· It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.
· It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
· It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
· It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.

15. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

· link-local
· unique local
· site local
 · global unicast

1. What is a function of the tracert command that differs from the ping command
when they are used on a workstation?
· The tracert command reaches the destination faster.
· The tracert command shows the information of routers in the path.
· The tracert command sends one ICMP message to each hop in the
path.
· The tracert command is used to test the connectivity between two
devices.

2. Which ICMP message is used by the traceroute utility during the process of
finding the path between two end hosts?
· redirect
· ping
· time exceeded
· destination unreachable

3. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
· the number of routers between the source and destination device
· the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
· the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the
response to return to the source
· the destination device is reachable through the network
· the average time it takes each router in the path between source
and destination to respond

4. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

· It sends four Echo Request messages.
· It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.
· It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.
· It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination
host.

5. Which utility uses the Internet Control Messaging Protocol (ICMP)?

· RIP
· DNS
· ping
· NTP

6. A network administrator can successfully ping the server at www.cisco.com, but

cannot ping the company web server located at an ISP in another city. Which tool or
command would help identify the specific router where the packet was lost or
delayed?
 · ipconfig
· netstat
· telnet
· traceroute

7. Which protocol is used by IPv4 and IPv6 to provide error messaging?

· ICMP
· NDP
· ARP
· DHCP

8. What message is sent by a host to check the uniqueness of an IPv6 address before
using that address?
· neighbor solicitation
· ARP request
· echo request
· router solicitation

9. A technician is troubleshooting a network where it is suspected that a defective

node in the network path is causing packets to be dropped. The technician only has
the IP address of the end point device and does not have any details of the
intermediate devices. What command can the technician use to identify the faulty
node?
· tracert
· ping
· ipconfig /flushdns
· ipconfig /displaydns

10. A user who is unable to connect to the file server contacts the help desk. The
helpdesk technician asks the user to ping the IP address of the default gateway that
is configured on the workstation. What is the purpose for this ping command?
· to obtain a dynamic IP address from the server
· to request that gateway forward the connection request to the file
server
· to test that the host has the capability to reach hosts on other
networks
· to resolve the domain name of the file server to its IP address

11. A user calls to report that a PC cannot access the internet. The network
technician asks the user to issue the command ping 127.0.0.1 in a command prompt
window. The user reports that the result is four positive replies. What conclusion
can be drawn based on this connectivity test?
· The PC can access the network. The problem exists beyond the
local network.
 · The IP address obtained from the DHCP server is correct.
· The PC can access the Internet. However, the web browser may
not work.
· The TCP/IP implementation is functional.

12. Which command can be used to test connectivity between two devices using echo
request and echo reply messages?
· netstat
· traceroute
· ICMP
· ping

13. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?
· TTL field
· CRC field
· Hop Limit field
· Time Exceeded field

14. Which protocol provides feedback from the destination host to the source host
about errors in packet delivery?
· ARP
· BOOTP
· DNS
· ICMP

i1.Network congestion has resulted in the source learning of the loss of TCP
segments that were sent to the destination. What is one way that the TCP protocol
addresses this?
· The source decreases the amount of data that it transmits before it
receives an acknowledgement from the destination.
· The source decreases the window size to decrease the rate of
transmission from the destination.
· The destination decreases the window size.
· The destination sends fewer acknowledgement messages in order
to conserve bandwidth.

2. Which two operations are provided by TCP but not by UDP? (Choose two.)
· identifying the applications
· acknowledging received data
· tracking individual conversations
· retransmitting any unacknowledged data
· reconstructing data in the order received

3. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion avoidance?

 · three-way handshake
· socket pair
· two-way handshake
· sliding window

4. What is a responsibility of transport layer protocols?

· providing network access
· tracking individual conversations
· determining the best path to forward a packet
· translating private IP addresses to public IP addresses

5. How does a networked server manage requests from multiple clients for different
services?
· The server sends all requests through a default gateway.
· Each request is assigned source and destination port numbers.
· The server uses IP addresses to identify different services.
· Each request is tracked through the physical address of the client.

6. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast
transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)
· FTP
· DNS
· HTTP
· POP3
· VoIP

7. What is the purpose of using a source port number in a TCP communication?

· to notify the remote device that the conversation is over
· to assemble the segments that arrived out of order
· to keep track of multiple conversations between devices
· to inquire for a nonreceived segment

8. Which number or set of numbers represents a socket?

· 01-23-45-67-89-AB
· 21
· 192.168.1.1:80
· 10.1.1.15

9. Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to
establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)
· ACK
· FIN
· PSH
· RST
 · SYN
· URG

10. What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?
· The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery
method.
· The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host.
· The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.
· The entire FTP message is re-sent.

11. What type of applications are best suited for using UDP?
· applications that are sensitive to delay
· applications that need reliable delivery
· applications that require retransmission of lost segments
· applications that are sensitive to packet loss

12. Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a

server via the use of UDP at the transport layer?
· The client sets the window size for the session.
· The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake.
· The client randomly selects a source port number.
· The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.

13. Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?

· UDP ACK flag
· TCP 3-way handshake
· UDP sequence number
· TCP port number

14. What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?
· 0 to 255
· 0 to 1023
· 256 – 1023
· 1024 – 49151

15. What is a socket?

· the combination of the source and destination IP address and
source and destination Ethernet address
· the combination of a source IP address and port number or a
destination IP address and port number
· the combination of the source and destination sequence and
acknowledgment numbers
· the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers
and port numbers
1. On a home network, which device is most likely to provide dynamic IP addressing
to clients on the home network?
· a dedicated file server
· a home router
· an ISP DHCP server
· a DNS server

2. What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the top-level

DNS domain?
· .com
· www
· http
· index

3. What are two characteristics of the application layer of the TCP/IP model?
(Choose two.)
· responsibility for logical addressing
· responsibility for physical addressing
· the creation and maintenance of dialogue between source and
destination applications
· closest to the end user
· the establishing of window size

4. What message type is used by an HTTP client to request data from a web server?
· GET
· POST
· PUT
· ACK

5. Which statement is true about FTP?

· The client can choose if FTP is going to establish one or two
connections with the server.
· The client can download data from or upload data to the server.
· FTP is a peer-to-peer application.
· FTP does not provide reliability during data transmission.

6. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to

process the request?
· FTP
· HTTP
· DHCP
· ICMP
· SNMP
7. Which TCP/IP model layer is closest to the end user?
· application
· internet
· network access
· transport

8. Which three protocols or standards are used at the application layer of the
TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
· ТСР
· HTTP
· MPEG
· GIF
· IP
· UDP

9. Which protocol uses encryption?

· DHCP
· DNS
· FTP
· HTTPS

10. Why is DHCP preferred for use on large networks?

· Large networks send more requests for domain to IP address
resolution than do smaller networks.
· DHCP uses a reliable transport layer protocol.
· It prevents sharing of files that are copyrighted.
· It is a more efficient way to manage IP addresses than static address
assignment.
· Hosts on large networks require more IP addressing configuration
settings than hosts on small networks.

11. Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)
· providing IP addresses to local hosts
· allowing data transfer between two network devices
· mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
· forwarding name resolution requests between servers
· retrieving email messages

12. Which protocol can be used to transfer messages from an email server to an
email client?
· SMTP
· POP3
· SNMP
· HTTP
13. When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized
storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized
business?
· IMAP
· РОР
· SMTP
· HTTPS

14. Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print
services to Microsoft applications?
· HTTP
· SMTP
· DHCP
· SMB

15. An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file
server of a book publisher. What role is the personal computer assuming in this
network model?
· client
· master
· server
· slave
· transient

1. What three configuration steps must be performed to implement SSH access to a

router? (Choose three.)
· a password on the console line
· an IP domain name
· a user account
· an enable mode password
· a unique hostname
· an encrypted password

2. What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

· discovery and mapping of systems
· unauthorized manipulation of data
· disabling network systems or services
· denying access to resources by legitimate users

3. For security reasons a network administrator needs to ensure that local

computers cannot ping each other. Which settings can accomplish this task?
· smartcard settings
· firewall settings
· MAC address settings
 · file system settings

4. A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What

characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?
· out-of-band access to a switch through the use of a virtual terminal
with password authentication
· remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup
connection
· on-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected
PC and a console cable
· remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session
· direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation
program

5. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet for remotely managing a router?
· encryption
· TCP usage
· authorization
· connections via multiple VTY lines

6. What is one of the most effective security tools available for protecting users from
external threats?
· firewalls
· router that run AAA services
· patch servers
· password encryption techniques

7. Which type of network threat is intended to prevent authorized users from

accessing resources?
· DoS attacks
· access attacks
· reconnaissance attacks
· trust exploitation

8. Which three services are provided by the AAA framework? (Choose three.)
· accounting
· automation
· authorization
· authentication
· autobalancing
· autoconfiguration

9. Which malicious code attack is self-contained and tries to exploit a specific

vulnerability in a system being attacked?
 · virus
· worm
· Trojan horse
· social engineering

10. Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air
conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?
· configuration
· environmental
· electrical
· maintenance

11. What does the term vulnerability mean?

· a weakness that makes a target susceptible to an attack
· a computer that contains sensitive information
· a method of attack to exploit a target
· a known target or victim machine
· a potential threat that a hacker creates

12. Which component is designed to protect against unauthorized communications

to and from a computer?
· security center
· port scanner
· antimalware
· antivirus
· firewall

13. Which command will block login attempts on RouterA for a period of 30 seconds
if there are 2 failed login attempts within 10 seconds?
· RouterA(config)# login block-for 10 attempts 2 within 30
· RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 2 within 10
· RouterA(config)# login block-for 2 attempts 30 within 10
· RouterA(config)# login block-for 30 attempts 10 within 2

14. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

· to require users to prove who they are
· to determine which resources a user can access
· to keep track of the actions of a user
· to provide challenge and response questions

15. What type of attack may involve the use of tools such as nslookup and fping?
· access attack
· reconnaissance attack
· denial of service attack
 · worm attack

1. Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)
· email
· web
· FТР
· voice
· video

2. A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two

Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician
use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?
· show interfaces
· show running-config
· show ip interface brief
· show mac-address-table

3. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?

· The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address
of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity.
· To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface
configuration mode must be used.
· CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.
· Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be
implemented in switches.

4. What factor should be considered in the design of a small network when devices
are being chosen?
· cost of devices
· redundancy
· traffic analysis
· ISP

5. A user is unable to reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web

browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the
issue?
· default gateway
· DHCP
· DNS
· TCP/IP protocol stack

6. Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?

· memory buffers
· vty lines
 · Syslog server
· console line

7. Which element of scaling a network involves identifying the physical and logical
topologies?
· traffic analysis
· network documentation
· device inventory
· cost analysis

8. What mechanism can be implemented in a small network to help minimize

network latency for real-time streaming applications?
· QoS
· PoE
· AAA
· ICMP

9. Which process failed if a computer cannot access the internet and received an IP
address of 169.254.142.5?
· IP
· DNS
· DHCP
· HTTP

10. A small company has only one router as the exit point to its ISP. Which solution
could be adopted to maintain connectivity if the router itself, or its connection to the
ISP, fails?
· Activate another router interface that is connected to the ISP, so the
traffic can flow through it.
· Have a second router that is connected to another ISP.
· Purchase a second least-cost link from another ISP to connect to
this router.
· Add more interfaces to the router that is connected to the internal
network.

11. When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

· when the traffic is at peak in the network
· when there is a sudden drop in traffic
· at the lowest point of traffic in the network
· at regular intervals over a period of time

12. Which network design consideration would be more important to a large

corporation than to a small business?
· Internet router
 · firewall
· low port density switch
· redundancy

13. A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for
a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the
technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?
· devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces
· devices that have support for network monitoring
· redundant devices
· devices with support for modularity

14. What type of traffic would most likely have the highest priority through the
network?
· FTP
· instant messaging
· voice
· SNMP

15. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a

remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command, when issued on a Windows
PC, will display the path to the remote host?
· trace 10.1.1.5
· traceroute 10.1.1.5
· tracert 10.1.1.5
· ping 10.1.1.5

1. Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that
participate directly in network communication?
· servers
· intermediary devices
· hosts
· media

2. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the
data?
· wireless
· Fiber-optic cable
· copper cable

3. Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

· hosts
· routers
· servers
 · switches
reen
1. Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?
· Port
· NIC
· Interface

2. Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to

individual networks?
· Port
· NIC
· Interface

3. Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to
which intermediary devices and what media is being used?
· Physical topology
· Logical topology

4. Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary
devices and cable installation?
· Physical topology
· Logical topology

1. Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small
geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a
home, or small business?
· Extranet
· Intranet
· LAN
· WAN

2. Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and

safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access
to the organization’s data?
· Extranet
· Intranet
· LAN
· WAN

3. Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large

geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications
service provider?
· Extranet
 · Intranet
· LAN
· WANen

1. When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic
characteristics of network architecture is achieved?
· fault tolerance
· Scalability
· QoS
· Security

2. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four

basic characteristics of network architecture?
· fault tolerance
· Scalability
· QoS
· Security

3. With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic,
giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?
· fault tolerance
· Scalability
· QoS
· Security

4. Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an

example of which characteristic of network architecture?
· fault tolerance
· Scalability
· QoS
· Security

l1.Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located
elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?
· BYOD
· Video communications
· Cloud computing

2. Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and

communicate across a business or campus network?
· BYOD
· Video communications
· Cloud computing
3. Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?
· BYOD
· Video communications
· Cloud computing

4. Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an
electrical outlet?
· Smart home technology
· Powerline
· Wireless broadband

5. Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smart phone?

· Smart home technology
· Powerline
· Wireless broadband

1. Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs?

· Firewall
· Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
· Zero-day or Zero-hour
· Virtual Private Network (VPN)
· Denial of Service (DoS)

2. Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?

· Firewall
· Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
· Zero-day or Zero-hour
· Virtual Private Network (VPN)
· Denial of Service (DoS)

3. Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?

· Firewall
· Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
· Zero-day or Zero-hour
· Virtual Private Network (VPN)
· Denial of Service (DoS)

4. Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a
vulnerability becomes known?
· Firewall
· Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
· Zero-day or Zero-hour
· Virtual Private Network (VPN)
· Denial of Service (DoS)
5. Which option describes malicious code running on user devices?
· Firewall
· Virus, worm, or Trojan horse
· Zero-day or Zero-hour
· Virtual Private Network (VPN)
· Denial of Service (DoS)

1. Which access method would be most appropriate if you were in the equipment
room with a new switch that needs to be configured?
· Console
· Telnet/SSH
· Aux

2. Which access method would be most appropriate if your manager gave you a
special cable and told you to use it to configure the switch?
· Console
· Telnet/SSH
· Aux

3. Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS
over a network connection?
· Console
· Telnet/SSH
· Aux

4. Which access method would be the most appropriate if you call your manager to
tell him you cannot access your router in another city over the internet and he
provides you with the information to access the router through a telephone
connection?
· Console
· Telnet/SSH
· Aux

1. Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?3TruvidfullScreen

· global configuration mode
· interface subconfiguration mode
· line console subconfiguration mode
· privileged EXEC mode
· user EXEC mode

2. Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?

· global configuration mode
· interface subconfiguration mode
· line console subconfiguration mode
 · privileged EXEC mode
· user EXEC mode

3. Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?

· global configuration mode
· interface subconfiguration mode
· line console subconfiguration mode
· privileged EXEC mode
· user EXEC mode

4. Which two commands would return you to the privileged EXEC prompt
regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (Choose two.)
· CTRL+Z
· disable
· enable
· end
· exit

1. What is the command to assign the name “Sw-Floor-2” to a switch?

00TruvidfullScreen
· hostname Sw-Floor-2
· host name Sw-Floor-2
· name Sw-Floor-2

2. How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

· enable class
· secret class
· enable secret class
· service password-encryption

3. Which command enables password authentication for user EXEC mode access on
a switch?
· enable secret
· login
· secret
· service password-encryption

4. Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch?

· enable secret
· login
· secret
· service password-encryption
5. Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to
a switch?
· banner $ Keep out $
· banner motd $ Keep out $
· display $ Keep out $
· login banner $ Keep out $

1. What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?

03TruvidfullScreen
· dotted-binary format
· dotted-decimal format
· dotted-hexadecimal format

2. How is an IPv4 address represented?

· four binary numbers between 0 and 1 separated by colons.
· four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by periods.
· thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
· thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by periods.

3. What type of interface has no physical port associated with it?

· console
· Ethernet
· serial
· switch virtual interface (SVI)

1. What is the process of converting information into the proper form for
transmission?
dfullScreen
· Formatting
· Encoding
· Encapsulation

2. Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying

the address of the sender and receiver?
· Formatting
· Encoding
· Encapsulation

3. Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three.)

· Flow control
· Sequence numbers
· Access method
· Retransmit time
 · Response timeout

4. Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end

devices, but not all devices on the network?
· Unicast
· Multicast
· Broadcast

1. BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

· network communication
· network security
· routing
· service discovery

2. Which two protocols are service discovery protocols? (Choose two.)

· DNS
· TCP
· SSH
· DHCP

3. What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?

· to uniquely label transmitted segments of data for proper reassembly
by the receiver
· to determine if data is corrupted during transmission
· to ensure data flows at an efficient rate between sender and
receiver
· to guarantee delivery of data

4. This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information.

· TCP
· IP
· HTTP
· Ethernet

1. UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

· application
· transport
· internet
· network access

2. Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer?

· EIGRP
· DNS
 · OSPF
· ICMP
· DHCP

3. Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?
· HTTP
· IP
· DNS
· Ethernet

4. Which of the following are protocols that provide feedback from the destination
host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery? (Choose two.)
· IPv4
· TCP
· ICMPv4
· IPv6
· UDP
· ICMPv6

5. A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the
Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the
receiving device?
· HTTP at the application layer
· HTML at the application layer
· IP at the internet layer
· UDP at the internet layer
· TCP at the transport layer

6. Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
(Choose three.)
· File Transfer
· Address Resolution
· Routing Protocols
· Messaging
· Ethernet
· Internet Protocol

1. True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

· True
· False

2. This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC)
documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones.
 · Internet Society (ISOC)
· Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
· Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
· Internet Research Task Force (IRTF)

3. This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain

name management.
· Internet Society (ISOC)
· Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
· Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
· Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

4. What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance

(EIA)?
· electric wiring and connectors
· radio equipment and cell towers
· video compression and broadband communications
· Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications

1. What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to
transmission?
een
· sequencing
· duplexing
· multiplexing
· segmentation

2. What is the PDU associated with the transport layer?

· segment
· packet
· bits
· frame

3. Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames?

· data link
· transport
· network
· application

4. What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it

moves down the protocol stack?
· de-encapsulation
· sequencing
 · segmentation
· encapsulation

1. True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must

be forwarded to a default gateway.

· True
· False

2. True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the

network that a device belongs to.
· True
· False

3. What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address?

· subnet mask
· MAC address
· right-most part of the IP address
· left-most part of the MAC address

4. Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link
layer addresses? (Choose three.)
· Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses
are physical.
· Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits
and data link layer addresses are decimal.
· Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are
expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
· Data link layer addresses are physical and network layer addresses
are logical.
· Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.
· Data link layer addresses are 32 bits in length.

5. What is the order of the two addresses in the data link frame?
· source MAC, destination MAC
· destination MAC, source IP
· destination IP, source IP
· destination MAC, source MAC
· source IP, destination IP

6. True or False? Data Link addresses are physical so they never change in the data
link frame from source to destination.
· True
· False
1. True or false? The physical layer is only concerned with wired network
connections.

· true
· false

2. True or false? When a frame is encoded by the physical layer, all bits are sent
over the media at the same time.
· true
· false

3. The physical layer of the receiving device passes bits up to which higher level
layer?
· application
· presentation
· network
· data link

4. What PDU is received by the physical layer for encoding and transmission?
· frame
· segment
· packet

1. Which media uses patterns of microwaves to represent bits?

· copper
· wireless
· fiber-optic

2. Which media uses patterns of light to represent bits?

· copper
· wireless
· fiber-optic

3. Which media uses electrical pulses to represent bits?

· copper
· wireless
· fiber-optic

4. Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?
· bandwidth
· throughput
· goodput

5. Which of these is a measure of the transfer of bits across the media?

 · bandwidth
· throughput
· goodput

36. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

· to store the routing table
· to retain contents when power is removed
· to store the startup configuration file
· to contain the running configuration file
· to store the ARP table

1. Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless devices? It can also be

bundled with fiber-optic cabling for two-way data transmission.

· UTP
· STP
· coaxial

2. Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using shielding techniques and
special connectors?
· UTP
· STP
· coaxial

3. Which of the following is the most common network media?

· UTP
· STP
· coaxial

4. Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F type connectors?
· UTP
· STP
· coaxial

1. Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless devices? It can also be

bundled with fiber-optic cabling for two-way data transmission.

· UTP
· STP
· coaxial

2. Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using shielding techniques and
special connectors?
 · UTP
· STP
· coaxial

3. Which of the following is the most common network media?

· UTP
· STP
· coaxial

4. Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F type connectors?
· UTP
· STP
· coaxial

1. True or false. Wireless is not well suited for enterprise networks.

· true
· false

2. True or false. Wireless LANs operate in full-duplex allowing all devices to send or
receive data at the same time so the number of users does not impact performance.
· true
· false

3. Which of the following wireless standards is best suited for industrial and IoT
environments?
· Zigbee
· WiMAX
· Wi-Fi
· Bluetooth

4. Which of the following wireless standards is used for Personal Area Networks
(PANs) and allows devices to communicate over distances of 1 to 100 meters?
· Zigbee
· WiMAX
· Wi-Fi
· Bluetooth

1. Which is the binary equivalent to the 192.168.11.10 IP address?

· 11000000.11000000.00001011.00001010
· 11000000.10101000.00001011.00001010
· 11000000.10101000.00001010.00001011
· 11000000.10101000.00001011.00010010
2. Which of the following is the binary equivalent to the 172.16.31.30 IP address?
· 11000000.00010000.00011111.00011110
· 10101000.00010000.00011111.00011110
· 10101100.00010000.00011110.00011110
· 10101100.00010000.00011111.00011110

1. Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 202?

· B10
· BA
· C10
· CA

2. Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 254?

· EA
· ED
· FA
· FE

3. Which is the decimal equivalent of A9?

· 168
· 169
· 170
· 171

4. Which of the following is the decimal equivalent of 7D?

· 124
· 125
· 126
· 127

1. What is another name for the OSI data link layer?

· Layer 1
· Layer 2
· Layer 3
· Layer 6

2. The IEEE 802 LAN/MAN data link layer consists of which two sublayers?
(Choose two.)
· Network Control Protocol
· Logical Link Control
· Media Access Control
· Link Control Protocol
3. What is the responsibility of the MAC sublayer?
· Adds Layer 3 addresses to the frame
· Communicates with the network layer (Layer 3)
· Provides the method to get the frame on and off the media
· Transmits the bits on the media

4. What Layer 2 function does a router perform? (Choose three.)

· Accepts a frame from a medium
· De-encapsulates the frame
· Refers to its Layer 3 routing table for a matching destination
network
· Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame

5. The media access control method used depends on which two criteria?
· Layer 3 IP protocol
· Media sharing
· Topology
· Transport layer protocol
· Type of data

6. Which organization defines standards for the network access layer (i.e., the OSI
physical and data link layers)?
· Cisco
· IANA
· IEEE
· IETF

1. Which topology displays networking device layer IP addresses?

· aerial topology
· IP address topology
· logical topology
· physical topology

2. What kind of network would use point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh
topologies?
· PAN
· LAN
· WLAN
· WAN

3. Which LAN topology is a hybrid topology?

· bus
· extended star
 · ring
· star

4. Which duplex communication method is used in WLANs?

· full-duplex
· half-duplex
· simplex

5. Which media access control method is used in legacy Ethernet LANs?

· carrier sense multiple access/collision annoyance
· carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance
· carrier sense multiple access/collision destruction
· carrier sense multiple access/collision detection

1. What does the data link layer add to a Layer 3 packet to create a frame? (Choose
two.)

· flags
· sequence number
· header
· trailer

2. What is the function of the last field in a data link layer frame?
· To determine whether the frame experienced transmission errors
· To identify special flow control services such as quality of service
(QoS)
· To identify the beginning and end limits of the frame
· To identify the Layer 3 protocol in the data field

3. Which lists the Layer 2 and Layer 3 address fields in the correct order?
· destination NIC address, source NIC address, source IP address,
destination IP address
· source NIC address, destination NIC address, source IP address,
destination IP address
· destination NIC address, source NIC address, destination IP
address, source IP address
· source NIC address, destination NIC address, destination IP
address, source IP address

4. Which of the following are data link layer protocols? (Choose three)
· 802.11
· Ethernet
· IP
· PPP
 · UDP

1. Which part of an Ethernet Frame uses a pad to increase the frame field to at least
64 bytes?

· EtherType
· Preamble
· Start of Frame Delimiter
· Data field

2. Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the frame?

· Preamble
· Start of Frame Delimiter
· Frame Check Sequence

3. Which part of an Ethernet Frame describes the higher-layer protocol that is

encapsulated?
· EtherType
· Preamble
· Start of Frame Delimiter
· Frame Check Sequence

4. Which part of an Ethernet Frame notifies the receiver to get ready for a new
frame?
· Start of Frame Delimiter
· Frame Check Sequence
· Preamble
· Data field

5. Which data link sublayer controls the network interface through software
drivers?
· MAC
· LLC

6. Which data link sublayer works with the upper layers to add application
information for delivery of data to higher level protocols?
· MAC
· LLC

7. What is a function of the MAC sublayer? (Choose three.)

· controls access to the media
· checks for errors in received bits
· uses CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA to support Ethernet technology
 · communicates between software at the upper layers and the device
hardware at the lower layers
· allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface
and media

1. What are two methods for switching data between ports on a switch? (Choose
two.)

· cut-off switching
· cut-through switching
· store-and-forward switching
· store-and-supply switching
· store-and-restore switching

2. Which switching method can be implemented using fast-forward switching or

fragment-free switching?
· cut-off switching
· cut-through switching
· store-and-forward switching
· store-and-restore switching

3. Which two types of memory buffering techniques are used by switches? (Choose
two.)
· long-term memory buffering
· port-based memory buffering
· shared memory buffering
· short-term memory buffering

4. What feature automatically negotiates the best speed and duplex setting between
interconnecting devices?
· auto-MDIX
· autobots
· autonegotiation
· autotune

1. Which OSI layer sends segments to be encapsulated in an IPv4 or IPv6 packet?

· data link layer

· network layer
· transport layer
· session layer

2. Which layer is responsible for taking an IP packet and preparing it for

transmission over the communications medium?
 · physical layer
· network layer
· data link layer
· transport layer

3. What is the term for splitting up an IP packet when forwarding it from one
medium to another medium with a smaller MTU?
· encapsulation
· fragmentation
· segmentation
· serialization

4. Which delivery method does not guarantee that the packet will be delivered fully
without errors?
· connectionless
· best effort
· media independent

1. What are the two most commonly referenced fields in an IPv4 packet header that
indicate where the packet is coming from and where it is going? (Choose two.)
en
· destination IP address
· protocol
· Time to Live
· source IP address
· Differentiated Services (DS)

2. Which statement is correct about IPv4 packet header fields?

· The source and destination IPv4 addresses remain the same while
travelling from source to destination.
· The Time to Live field is used to determine the priority of each
packet.
· The Total Length and Header Checksum fields are used to reorder
a fragmented packet.
· The Version field identifies the next level protocol.

3. Which field is used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?

· Header Checksum
· Time to Live
· Protocol
· Differentiated Services (DS)

4. Which field includes common values such as ICMP (1), TCP (6), and UDP (17)?
 · Header Checksum
· Time to Live
· Protocol
· Differentiated Services (DS)

1. Which three options are major issues associated with IPv4? (Choose three.)

· IP address depletion
· increased network complexity and Internet routing table expansion
· always on connections
· lack of end-to-end connectivity
· global and political boundaries
· too many IPv4 addresses available

2. Which two options are improvements provided by IPv6 as compared to IPv4?

(Choose two.)
· header supports additional fields for complex packets
· increased the IP address space
· standardizes the use of NAT
· supports class-based networks
· uses a simpler header to provide improved packet handling

3. Which is true of the IPv6 header?

· it consists of 20 octets.
· it consists of 40 octets.
· it contains 8 header fields.
· it contains 12 header fields.

4. Which is true of the IPv6 packet header?

· The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live field.
· The Source and Destination IPv6 addresses change while travelling
from source to destination.
· The Time to Live field replaces the DiffServ field.
· The Version field identifies the next header.

1. Which statement about host forwarding decisions is true?

· A host cannot ping itself.

· A remote destination host is on the same local network as the
sending host.
· Local hosts can reach each other without the need of a router.
· Routing is enabled on switches to discover the best path to a
destination.
2. Which default gateway statement is true?
· A default gateway is required to send packets to other hosts on the
local network.
· The default gateway address is the IP address of a switch on a
remote network.
· The default gateway address is the IP address of the router on the
local network.
· Traffic can only be forwarded outside the local network if there is no
default gateway.

3. Which two commands could be entered on a Windows host to view its IPv4 and
IPv6 routing table? (Choose two.)
· netroute -l
· netstat -r
· print route
· route print
· print net

1. What is the command used on a Cisco IOS router to view the routing table?

· netstart -r
· route print
· show ip route
· show routing table

2. What does a code of “O” indicate next to a route in the routing table?
· a directly connected route
· a route with an administrative distance of 0
· a gateway of last resort
· a route learned dynamically from OSPF

3. This type of route is also known as a gateway of last resort.

· static route
· remote route
· default route
· directly connected route

4. Which is a characteristic of static routes?

· They are manually configured.
· They are advertised to directly connected neighbors.
· They are appropriate when there are many redundant links.
· They automatically adjust to a change in network topology.
5. True or False? A router can be configured with a combination of both static
routes and a dynamic routing protocol.
· True
· False

1. What destination MAC address would be included in a frame sent from a source
device to a destination device on the same local network?

· A broadcast MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.

· The MAC address of the destination device.
· The MAC address of the local router interface.

2. What destination MAC address would be included in a frame sent from a source
device to a destination device on a remote local network?
· A broadcast MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
· The MAC address of the destination device.
· The MAC address of the local router interface.

3. What two protocols are used to determine the MAC address of a known
destination device IP address (IPv4 and IPv6)?
· DHCP
· ARP
· DNS
· ND

10. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various
network media? (Choose two.)
· the types of data that need to be prioritized
· the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
· the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
· the number of intermediate devices installed in the network
· the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

1. What two functions are provided by ARP? (Choose two.)

· Maintains a table of IPv4 address to domain names

· Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings
· Maintains a table of IPv6 to MAC address mappings
· Resolves IPv4 addresses to domain names
· Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
· Resolves IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses

2. Where is the ARP table stored on a device?

 · ROM
· flash
· NVRAM
· RAM

3. Which statement is true about ARP?

· An ARP cache cannot be manually deleted.
· ARP entries are cached permanently.
· ARP entries are cached temporarily.

4. Which command could be used on a Cisco router to view its ARP table?
· arp -a
· arp -d
· show arp table
· show ip arp

5. What is an attack using ARP?

· ARP broadcasts
· ARP hopping attacks
· ARP poisoning
· ARP starvation

1. Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in SLAAC?

· Neighbor Advertisement
· Neighbor Solicitation
· Router Advertisement
· Router Solicitation

2. Which two ICMPv6 messages are used in to determine the MAC address of a
known IPv6 address?
· Neighbor Advertisement
· Neighbor Solicitation
· Router Advertisement
· Router Solicitation

3. To what type of address are ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation messages sent?

· unicast
· multicast
· broadcast

1. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100 255.255.255.0. What is
the network address of Host-A?
 · 10.0.0.0
· 10.5.0.0
· 10.5.4.0
· 10.5.4.100

2. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. What is
the network address of Host-A?
· 172.0.0.0
· 172.16.0.0
· 172.16.4.0
· 172.16.4.100

3. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100 255.255.255.0. Which of
the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all
that apply)
· 10.5.4.1
· 10.5.0.1
· 10.5.4.99
· 10.0.0.98
· 10.5.100.4

4. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. Which of
the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose all
that apply)
· 172.16.4.99
· 172.16.0.1
· 172.17.4.99
· 172.17.4.1
· 172.18.4.1

5. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 192.168.1.50 255.255.255.0. Which
of the following IPv4 addresses would be on the same network as Host-A? (Choose
all that apply)
· 192.168.0.1
· 192.168.0.100
· 192.168.1.1
· 192.168.1.100
· 192.168.2.1

1. Which two statements are correct about private IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.)

· Private IPv4 addresses are assigned to devices within an

organization’s intranet (internal network).
 · Internet routers will typically forward any packet with a destination
address that is a private IPv4 address.
· 172.99.1.1 is a private IPv4 address.
· Any organization (home, school, office, company) can use the
10.0.0.0/8 address.

2. Which two statements are correct about public IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.)
· Public IPv4 addresses are allowed to be assigned to devices within
an organization’s intranet (internal network).
· To access a device over the internet, the destination IPv4 address must
be a public address.
· 192.168.1.10 is a public IPv4 address.
· Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a reason why there are private IPv4
addresses and why organizations are transitioning to IPv6.

3. Which organization or group of organizations receives IP addresses from IANA

and is responsible for allocating these addresses to ISPs and some organizations?
· IETF
· IEEE
· RIRs
· Tier 1 ISPs

1. Which devices will not forward an IPv4 broadcast packet by default?

· Ethernet switch
· router
· Windows PC
· None of the above. All devices forward IPv4 broadcast packets by
default.

2. Which two situations are the result of excessive broadcast traffic? (Choose two)
· slow network operations
· slow device operations
· when devices on all adjacent networks are affected
· when the router has to forward an excessive number of packets

1. What is the most important motivating factor for moving to IPv6?

· better performance with IPv6

· IPv6 addresses that are easier to work with
· better security with IPv6
· depletion of IPv4 addresses
2. True or False: 4 out of 5 RIRs no longer have enough IPv4 addresses to allocate to
customers on a regular basis.
· True
· False

3. Which of the following techniques use native IPv6 connectivity?

· dual stack
· tunneling
· translation
· all of the above

1. What is the recommended prefix length for most IPv6 subnets?

· /32
· /48
· /64
· /128

2. Which part of a GUA is assigned by the ISP?

· Global Routing Prefix
· Global Routing Prefix and Subnet ID
· Prefix
· RIR Prefix

3. Which type of IPv6 unicast address is not routable between networks?

· unique local address
· GUA
· embedded IPv4 address
· LLA

4. True or False: The Subnet ID field in an GUA must borrow bits from the
interface ID.
· True
· False

5. What type of IPv6 address begins with fe80?

· GUA
· LLA
· multicast address
· None. An IPv6 address must begin with 2001

1. True or False. RA messages are sent to all IPv6 routers by hosts requesting
addressing information.
 · True
· False

2. Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely
on the contents of the RA message for their addressing information?
· Method 1: SLAAC
· Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6
· Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

3. Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely
on a DHCPv6 server for their addressing information?
· Method 1: SLAAC
· Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6
· Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

4. Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices get their
IPv6 configuration in a RA message and request DNS information from a DHCPv6
server?
· Method 1: SLAAC
· Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6
· Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

5. What are the two methods a device can use to generate its own IPv6 interface ID?
· SLAAC
· stateless DHCPv6
· stateful DHCPv6
· EUI-64
· randomly generated

1. True or False? IPv6 was designed with subnetting in mind.

· True
· False

2. Which field in an IPv6 GUA is used for subnetting?

· Prefix
· Network
· Global Routing Prefix
· Subnet ID
· Interface ID

3. Given a /48 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, what is the subnet portion of
the following address: 2001:db8:cafe:1111:2222:3333:4444:5555
· café
 · 1111
· 2222
· 3333
· 4444

4. Given a /32 Global Routing Prefix and a /64 prefix, how many bits would be
allocated for the Subnet ID?
· 8
· 16
· 32
· 48
· 64

26. Which two types of IPv6 messages are used in place of ARP for address
resolution?
· anycast
· broadcast
· echo reply
· echo request
· neighbor solicitation
· neighbor advertisement

A network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the ping

command on a router. Which symbol will be displayed to indicate that a time
expired during the wait for an ICMP echo reply message?
· U
· .
· !
· $

13. What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?

· to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC address
· to overwhelm network hosts with ARP requests
· to flood the network with ARP reply broadcasts
· to fill switch MAC address tables with bogus addresses

1. Which two types of ICMP messages are common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6?
(Choose two.)

· Destination or Service Unreachable

· Hostname resolution
· IP configuration
· Source Unreachable
 · Time exceeded

2. Which type of ICMPv6 message would a host send to acquire an IPv6

configuration when booting up?
· Neighbor Advertisement (NA) message
· Neighbor Solicitation (NS) message
· Router Advertisement (RA) message
· Router Solicitation (RS) message

1. Which layer is responsible for establishing a temporary communication session

between the source and destination host applications?

· application layer
· data link layer
· network layer
· physical layer
· transport layer

2. Which three are transport layer responsibilities? (Choose three.)

· conversation multiplexing
· identifying frames
· identifying routing information
· segmenting data and reassembling segments
· tracking individual conversations

3. Which transport layer protocol statement is true?

· TCP has fewer fields than UDP.
· TCP is faster than UDP.
· UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol.
· UDP provides reliability.

4. Which transport layer protocol would be used for VoIP applications?

· Session Information Protocol (SIP)
· Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
· User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
· VoIP Transfer Protocol

1. Which transport layer protocol ensures reliable same-order delivery?

· ICMP
· IP
· TCP
· UDP
2. Which TCP header statement is true?
· It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header.
· It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header.
· It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header.
· It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header.

3. Which two applications would use the TCP transport layer protocol? (Choose
two.)
· FTP
· HTTP
· ICMP
· TFTP
· VoIP

1. Which of the following is a stateless best-effort delivery transport layer protocol?

· ICMP
· IP
· TCP
· UDP

2. Which UDP header statement is true?

· It consists of 4 fields in an 8-byte header.
· It consists of 8 fields in a 10-byte header.
· It consists of 10 fields in a 20-byte header.
· It consists of 20 fields in a 40-byte header.

3. Which two applications would use the UDP transport layer protocol? (Choose
two.)
· FTP
· HTTP
· ICMP
· TFTP
· VoIP

4. Which two fields are the same in a TCP and UDP header? (Choose two.)
· Control bits
· Destination port number
· Sequence number
· Source port number
· Well-known port number

1. Assume a host with IP address 10.1.1.10 wants to request web services from a
server at 10.1.1.254. Which of the following would display the correct socket pair?
 · 1099:10.1.1.10, 80:10.1.1.254
· 10.1.1.10:80, 10.1.1.254:1099
· 10.1.1.10:1099, 10.1.1.254:80
· 80:10.1.1.10, 1099:10.1.1.254

2. Which port group includes port numbers for FTP, HTTP, and TFTP
applications?
· dynamic ports
· private ports
· registered ports
· well-known ports

3. Which Windows command would display the protocols in use, the local address
and port numbers, the foreign address and port numbers, and the connection state?
· ipconfig /all
· ping
· netstat
· traceroute

1. Which of the following would be valid source and destination ports for a host
connecting to an email server?

· Source: 25, Destination: 49152

· Source: 80, Destination: 49152
· Source: 49152, Destination: 25
· Source: 49152, Destination: 80

2. Which control bit flags are used during the three-way handshake?
· ACK and FIN
· FIN and RESET
· RESET and SYN
· SYN and ACK

3. How many exchanges are needed to end both sessions between two hosts?
· one exchange
· two exchanges
· three exchanges
· four exchanges
· five exchanges

1. What field is used by the destination host to reassemble segments into the original
order?
 · Control Bits
· Destination Port
· Sequence Number
· Source Port
· Window Size

2. What field is used to provide flow control?

· Control Bits
· Destination Port
· Sequence Number
· Source Port
· Window Size

3. What happens when a sending host senses there is congestion?

· The receiving host increases the number of bytes it sends before
receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host.
· The receiving host reduces the number of bytes it sends before
receiving an acknowledgment from the sending host.
· The sending host increases the number of bytes it sends before
receiving an acknowledgment from the destination host.
· The sending host reduces the number of bytes it sends before
receiving an acknowledgment from the destination host.

1. Why is UDP desirable for protocols that make a simple request and reply
transactions?
P
· Flow Control
· Low overhead
· Reliability
· Same-order delivery

2. Which UDP datagram reassembly statement is true?

· UDP does not reassemble the data.
· UDP reassembles the data in the order that it was received.
· UDP reassembles the data using control bits.
· UDP reassembles the data using sequence numbers.

3. Which of the following would be valid source and destination ports for a host
connecting to a DNS server?
· Source: 53, Destination: 49152
· Source: 1812, Destination: 49152
· Source: 49152, Destination: 53
· Source: 49152, Destination: 1812
1. This layer of the OSI model is concerned with the protocols that exchange data
between programs running on hosts.

· application
· transport
· network
· physical

2. MKV, GIF, and JPG standards are associated with which OSI layer?
· application
· presentation
· session
· transport

3. These three OSI layers define the same functions as the TCP/IP model application
layer.
· application
· presentation
· session
· transport
· network
· data link

4. Which two are protocols that belong in the OSI application layer?
· PNG
· DNS
· SMTP
· QuickTime

5. This is a function of the OSI session layer.

· compress and decompress data
· provide an interface between applications
· format data for the application layer
· exchange of information to initiate dialog between peers

1. True or false? The peer-to-peer networking model requires the implementation of

a dedicated server for data access.

· True
· False

2. True or false? In a peer-to-peer network environment every peer can function as

both a client and a server.
· True
 · False

3. Which peer-to-peer application allows users to share pieces of many files with
each other at the same time?
· Hybrid
· Gnutella
· BitTorrent

4. Which of the following is a feature of the Gnutella protocol?

· Users can share whole files with other users.
· Users can share pieces of files with other users.
· Users can access an index server to get the location of resources
shared by other users.

1. This message type is used when uploading data files to a web server.

· GET
· POST
· PUT

2. This protocol is used by a web browser to establish a connection to a web server.

· HTTP
· SSL
· IMAP
· SMTP

3. This protocol is used by a client to send email to a mail server.

· POP
· SMTP
· IMAP
· HTTP

4. Which is a feature of IMAP?

· It uploads email messages to a server.
· It listens passively on port 110 for client requests.
· It downloads a copy of email messages leaving the original on the
server.

5. True or false? HTTP is a secure protocol.

· True
· False

1. Which of the following DNS record types is used to resolve IPv6 addresses?

· A
 · NS
· AAAA
· MX

2. True or false? A DNS server that receives a request for a name resolution that is
not within its DNS zone will send a failure message to the requesting client.
· True
· False

3. Which of the following is displayed by the nslookup utility?

· the configured default DNS server
· the IP address of the end device
· all cached DNS entries

4. Which of the following DNS resource record types resolves authoritative name
servers?
· NS
· A
· MX
· AAAA

1. How many connections are required by FTP between client and server?

· 1
· 2
· 3
· 4

2. True or false? FTP data transfers take place from client to server (push) and
from server to client (pull).
· True
· False

3. Which of these ports are used by FTP? (Choose two.)

· 20
· 21
· 25
· 110

4. True or false? Resource sharing over SMB is only supported on Microsoft

operating systems.
· True
· False
1. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor sends you a virus that can
reformat your hard drive?
· data loss or manipulation
· disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

2. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor makes illegal online
purchases using stolen credit information?
· data loss or manipulation
· disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

3. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor prevents legal users from
accessing data services?
· data loss or manipulation
· disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

4. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor steals scientific research
data?
· data loss or manipulation
· disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

5. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor overloads a network to deny
other users network access?
· data loss or manipulation
· disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

6. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor alters data records?
· data loss or manipulation
· disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

7. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor is stealing the user database
of a company?
· data loss or manipulation
 · disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

8. What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another

person to obtain credit information about that person?
· data loss or manipulation
· disruption of service
· identify theft
· information theft

1. Angela, an IT staff member at ACME Inc., notices that communication with the
company’s web server is very slow. After investigating, she determines that the
cause of the slow response is a computer on the internet sending a very large
number of malformed web requests to ACME’S web server. What type of attack is
described in this scenario?

· access attack
· denial of service (DoS) attack
· malware attack
· reconnaissance attack

2. George needed to share a video with a co-worker. Because of the large size of the
video file, he decided to run a simple FTP server on his workstation to serve the
video file to his co-worker. To make things easier, George created an account with
the simple password of “file” and provided it to his co-worker on Friday. Without
the proper security measures or a strong password, the IT staff was not surprised to
learn on Monday that George’s workstation had been compromised and was trying
to upload work related documents to the internet. What type of attack is described
in this scenario?
· access attack
· denial of service (DoS) attack
· malware attack
· reconnaissance attack

3. Jeremiah was browsing the internet from his personal computer when a random
website offered a free program to clean his system. After the executable was
downloaded and running, the operating system crashed. Crucial operating system
related files had been corrupted and Jeremiah’s computer required a full disk
format and operating system re-installation. What type of attack is described in this
scenario?
· access attack
· denial of service (DoS) attack
· malware attack
 · reconnaissance attack

4. Arianna found a flash drive lying on the pavement of a mall parking lot. She
asked around but could not find the owner. She decided to keep it and plugged it
into her laptop, only to find a photo folder. Feeling curious, Arianna opened a few
photos before formatting the flash drive for her own use. Afterwards, Arianna
noticed that her laptop camera was active. What type of attack is described in this
scenario?
· access attack
· denial of service (DoS) attack
· malware attack
· reconnaissance attack

5. A computer is used as a print server for ACME Inc. The IT staff failed to apply
security updates to this computer for over 60 days. Now the print server is operating
slowly, and sending a high number of malicious packets to its NIC. What type of
attack is described in this scenario?
· access attack
· denial of service (DoS) attack
· malware attack
· reconnaissance attack

6. Sharon, an IT intern at ACME Inc., noticed some strange packets while revising
the security logs generated by the firewall. A handful of IP addresses on the internet
were sending malformed packets to several different IP addresses, at several
different random port numbers inside ACME Inc. What type of attack is described
in this scenario?
· access attack
· denial of service (DoS) attack
· malware attack
· reconnaissance attack

1. Which device controls traffic between two or more networks to help prevent
unauthorized access?

· AAA Server
· firewall
· ESA/WSA
· IPS

2. Which device is used by other network devices to authenticate and authorize

management access?
· AAA Server
· firewall
 · ESA/WSA
· IPS

3. Which backup policy consideration is concerned with using strong passwords to

protect the backups and for restoring data?
· frequency
· storage
· security
· validation

4. This zone is used to house servers that should be accessible to outside users.
· inside
· outside
· internet
· DMZ

5. Which is appropriate for providing endpoint security?

· a AAA server
· antivirus software
· a server-based firewall
· an ESA/WSA

1. Which statement correctly relates to a small network?

Playvolume00:00/01:03TruvidfullScreen
· Small networks are complex.
· Small networks require an IT department to maintain.
· The majority of businesses are small.

2. Which factor must be considered when selecting network devices?

· color
· console connections
· cost
· elasticity

3. What is necessary to plan and use when implementing a network?

· device names
· IP addressing scheme
· MAC addressing scheme
· printer location

4. What is required to maintain a high degree of reliability and eliminate single

points of failure?
· accessibility
· expandability
 · integrity
· redundancy

5. What is required to classify traffic according to priority?

· IP addressing scheme
· quality of service (QoS)
· routing
· switching

1. What are two forms of software programs or processes that provide access to the
network? (Choose two.)
· antivirus software
· application layer services
· gaming software
· network applications
· productivity software
· virtual machine software

2. Which two network protocols are used to establish a remote access network
connection to a device? (Choose two.)
· File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
· Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
· Remote Connect (RC)
· Secure Shell (SSH)
· Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
· Telnet

1. Which elements are required to scale to a larger network? (Choose two.)

· budget
· device configurations
· increased bandwidth
· network documentation
· windows hosts

2. Which software installed on key hosts can reveal the types of network traffic
flowing through the network?
· Linux
· MacOS
· SSH
· Windows
· Wireshark

3. What Windows 10 tool is useful to determine which applications are using

network services on a host?
 · Control panel
· Data Usage
· File Manager
· Windows Defender Firewall
· Windows Explorer

1. A technician is troubleshooting a network problem and has just established a

theory of probable causes. What would be the next step in the troubleshooting
process?Screen
· Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
· Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.
· Identify the problem.
· Test the theory to determine cause.
· Verify solution and implement preventive measures.

2. A technician is troubleshooting a network problem. After troubleshooting, the

technician concludes that a switch should be replaced. What should the technician
do next?
· Email all users to let them know they are replacing a switch.
· Escalate the trouble ticket to the manager to approve the change.
· Purchase a new switch and replace the defective one.
· Resolve the problem.

3. A technician is using the debug ip icmp privileged EXEC command to capture

live router output. Which commands would stop this debug command on a Cisco
router? (Choose two.)
· debug ip icmp off
· no debug debug ip icmp
· no debug ip icmp
· undebug all
· undebug debug ip icmp

4. A technician has established a remote connection to router R1 to observe debug

output. The technician enters the debug ip icmp command then pings a remote
destination. However, no output is displayed. Which command would the technician
have to enter to display log messages on a remote connection?
· monitor debug output
· monitor terminal
· terminal monitor
· terminal monitor debug

1. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number
of 22. What service is the client requesting?
· SSH
 · TFTP
· DHCP
· DNS

2. Refer to the exhibit. What does the value of the window size specify?

· the amount of data that can be sent at one time

· the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is
required
· the total number of bits received during this TCP session
· a random number that is used in establishing a connection with the
3-way handshake

3. To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong?

· well-known
· private or dynamic
· public
· registered

4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but

receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

· The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

· The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
· The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before
issuing the command.
· The administrator must connect via the console port to access
global configuration mode.

5. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a

PC?
· if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on
the wire
· if there is connectivity with the destination device
· the path that traffic will take to reach the destination
· what type of device is at the destination

6. What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)?

· An SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address
and a subnet mask in order to provide remote access to the switch.
· Although it is a virtual interface, it needs to have physical hardware
on the device associated with it.
 · SVIs do not require the no shutdown command to become enabled.
· SVIs come preconfigured on Cisco switches.

7. Match the descriptions to the terms. (Not all options are used.)

8. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is
different than the value that is in the FCS field?
· The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
· The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards
the frame.
· The switch drops the frame.
· The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through
which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

9. Two network engineers are discussing the methods used to forward frames
through a switch. What is an important concept related to the cut-through method
of switching?
· The fragment-free switching offers the lowest level of latency.
· Fast-forward switching can be viewed as a compromise between
store-and-forward switching and fragment-free switching.
· Fragment-free switching is the typical cut-through method of
switching.
· Packets can be relayed with errors when fast-forward switching is
used.

10. Which two issues can cause both runts and giants in Ethernet networks?
(Choose two.)
· using the incorrect cable type
· half-duplex operations
· a malfunctioning NIC
· electrical interference on serial interfaces
· CRC errors

11. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data
Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
· implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
· enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
· integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and
1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
· implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame
· places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which
network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
Other case
· responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
· applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
· integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and
1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
· enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
· handles communication between upper layer networking software and
Ethernet NIC hardware

Other case
· adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
· responsible for internal structure of Ethernet frame
· implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
· enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
· applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame

Other case
· implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
· adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
· places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which
network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
· applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
· integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and
1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper

12. Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working
properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)
· nslookup cisco.com
· ping cisco.com
· ipconfig /flushdns
· net cisco.com
· nbtstat cisco.com

13. A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical business
service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line service to an
ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the Internet
connection?
· Add a second NIC to the web server.
· Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.
· Add another web server to prepare failover support.
· Add multiple connections between the switches and the edge
router.
14. Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to
remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled.
What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?
· copy running-config startup-config
· show interfaces
· show ip nat translations
· show running-config

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the
Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP
address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?
Floor(config)# interface gi0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office
WAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# end

· 192.168.235.234
· 203.0.113.3
· 192.168.235.1
· 10.234.235.254
· 192.168.234.114

16. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered.
(Not all options are used.)

17. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
· The IOS image is corrupt.
· Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
 · The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
· The POST process has detected hardware failure.

18. What service is provided by POP3?

· Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local
mail application of the client.
· An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
· Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
· Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network
devices and servers.

19. Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the
drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished
and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other
student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is
being used?
· peer-to-peer
· client-based
· master-slave
· point-to-point

20. Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a

specific host name?
· tracert
· ipconfig /displaydns
· nslookup
· net

21. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at

the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?
· bits
· frame
· packet
· segment

22. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers
of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
· data link
· network
· physical
· session
 · transport

23. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the
application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
· presentation
· physical
· network
· data link
· transport
· application
· session

24. Network information:

* local router LAN interface: 172.19.29.254 / fe80:65ab:dcc1::10
* local router WAN interface: 198.133.219.33 / 2001:db8:FACE:39::10
* remote server: 192.135.250.103
What task might a user be trying to accomplish by using the ping
2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command?
· verifying that there is connectivity within the local network
· creating a network performance benchmark to a server on the
company intranet
· determining the path to reach the remote server
· verifying that there is connectivity to the internet

25. Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols? (Choose
two.)
· neighbor solicitation
· router advertisement
· router solicitation
· protocol unreachable
· route redirection

26. A network technician types the command ping 127.0.0.1 at the command prompt
on a computer. What is the technician trying to accomplish?
· pinging a host computer that has the IP address 127.0.0.1 on the
network
· tracing the path to a host computer on the network and the network
has the IP address 127.0.0.1
· checking the IP address on the network card
· testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine

27. Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

· the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
 · the use of CSMA/CA
· the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
· the development of half-duplex switch operation
· the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds

28. What does a router do when it receives a Layer 2 frame over the
network medium?
· re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
· forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment
of the physical network
· determines the best path
· de-encapsulates the frame

29. Which two acronyms represent the data link sublayers that Ethernet relies upon
to operate? (Choose two.)
· SFD
· LLC
· CSMA
· MAC
· FCS

30. A network team is comparing topologies for connecting on a shared media.

Which physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN?
· bus
· extended star
· ring
· partial mesh

31. Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6

host bits were available?
· 255.255.192.0
· 255.255.224.0
· 255.255.255.192
· 255.255.255.248
· 255.255.255.252

32. Three devices are on three different subnets. Match the network address and the
broadcast address with each subnet where these devices are located. (Not all options
are used.)
Device 1: IP address 192.168.10.77/28 on subnet 1
Device 2: IP address192.168.10.17/30 on subnet 2
Device 3: IP address 192.168.10.35/29 on subnet 3
33. What type of address is 198.133.219.162?
· link-local
· public
· loopback
· multicast

34. What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?

· subnetwork address
· unicast address
· multicast address
· broadcast address

35. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?

· Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the
IPv6 addresses of internal networks.
· The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved
because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate
routers.
· The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are
solved because the number of routes increases with the number of
nodes that are connected to the Internet.
· Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the
number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.

36. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination
network?
· directly-connected routes
· local routes
· remote routes
· C and L source routes

37. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a
unicast, multicast, or broadcast address?
· destination IPv4 address
· protocol
· TTL
· header checksum

38. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact
on communications?
· There is no impact on communications.
 · The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
· The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but
is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
· The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks,
but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.

39. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address

fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?
· fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
· fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290
· fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29
· fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290

40. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation.
Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?

· ::1/128
· fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
· fe80::/64
· 2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128

41. What type of IPv6 address is represented by ::1/128?

· EUI-64 generated link-local
· global unicast
· unspecified
· loopback

42. Which statement describes network security?

· It supports growth over time in accordance with approved network
design procedures.
· It synchronizes traffic flows using timestamps.
· It ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.
· It prioritizes data flows in order to give priority to delay-sensitive
traffic.

43. Which two devices would be described as intermediary devices? (Choose two.)
· wireless LAN controller
· server
· assembly line robots
· IPS
· gaming console
· retail scanner
44. What characteristic describes spyware?
· software that is installed on a user device and collects information
about the user
· the use of stolen credentials to access private data
· an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
· a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a
network

45. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the
contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to
PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

· The switch will discard the frame.

· The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
· The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
· The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
· The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.

46. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

· 0.0.0.0
· 255.255.255.255
· the physical address of the destination host
· FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
· AAAA.AAAA.AAAA

47. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet
to PC3. In this scenario, what will happen next?

· SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
· RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.
· RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.
· RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.
· RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.

48. A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30
command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?
· a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router
· a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network
· an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network
equipment room
· a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link
49. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and
stateful firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?
· A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the
state of a connection, whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer
information to track the state of a connection.
· Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the
application layer.
· A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport
layer, whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.
· A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a
packet-filtering firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer.

50. What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)
· Empty the browser cache.
· Use antivirus software.
· Delete unused software.
· Keep software up to date.
· Defragment the hard disk.

51. The employees and residents of Ciscoville cannot access the Internet
or any remote web-based services. IT workers quickly determine that the
city firewall is being flooded with so much traffic that a breakdown of
connectivity to the Internet is occurring. Which type of attack is being
launched at Ciscoville?
· access
· Trojan horse
· reconnaissance
· DoS

52. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling?

(Choose two.)
· Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
· Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending
devices.
· Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
· Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cables and laser
technology for multimode cables.
· Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.

53. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits
across a medium over a given period of time?
· latency
 · goodput
· throughput
· bandwidth

54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum possible throughput between the PC
and the server?

· 10 Mb/s
· 1000 Mb/s
· 128 kb/s
· 100 Mb/s