Chemtest Ja 02
Chemtest Ja 02
Chemtest Ja 02
CHEMISTRY
Tuesday, January 22, 2002 — 9:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., only
The last page of the booklet is the answer sheet. Fold the last page along the perforations and, slowly
and carefully, tear off the answer sheet. Then fill in the heading of your answer sheet.
All of your answers are to be recorded on the separate answer sheet. For each question, decide which
of the choices given is the best answer. Then on the answer sheet, in the row of numbers for that question,
circle with pencil the number of the choice that you have selected. The sample below is an example of the
first step in recording your answers.
SAMPLE: 1 2 3 4
If you wish to change an answer, erase your first penciled circle and then circle with pencil the num-
ber of the answer you want. After you have completed the examination and you have decided that all of the
circled answers represent your best judgment, signal a proctor and turn in all examination material except
your answer sheet. Then and only then, place an X in ink in each penciled circle. Be sure to mark only one
answer with an X in ink for each question. No credit will be given for any question with two or more X’s
marked. The sample below indicates how your final choice should be marked with an X in ink.
SAMPLE: 1 2 3 4
The “Reference Tables for Chemistry,” which you may need to answer some questions in this examina-
tion, are supplied separately. Be certain you have a copy of these reference tables before you begin the
examination.
When you have completed the examination, you must sign the statement printed at the end of the
answer sheet, indicating that you had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the exami-
nation and that you have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the
examination. Your answer sheet cannot be accepted if you fail to sign this declaration.
Directions (1–56): For each statement or question, select the word or expression that, of those given, best
completes the statement or answers the question. Record your answer on the separate answer sheet in accor-
dance with the directions on the front page of this booklet.
1 Which sample of water has the lowest vapor 7 Which type of radiation has neither mass nor
pressure? charge?
(1) 100 mL at 50°C (3) 300 mL at 40°C (1) gamma (3) alpha
(2) 200 mL at 30°C (4) 400 mL at 20°C (2) neutron (4) beta
2 Which type of matter is composed of two or 8 Which list of particles is in order of increasing
more different elements that are chemically mass?
combined in a definite ratio? (1) proton → electron → alpha particle
(1) a solution (2) proton → alpha particle → electron
(2) a compound (3) electron → proton → alpha particle
(3) a homogeneous mixture (4) alpha particle → electron → proton
(4) a heterogeneous mixture
9 Compared to a sodium atom in the ground state,
3 A sealed flask containing 1.0 mole of H2(g) and a sodium atom in the excited state must have
a sealed flask containing 2.0 moles of He(g) are (1) a greater number of electrons
at the same temperature. The two gases must (2) a smaller number of electrons
have equal (3) an electron with greater energy
(1) masses (4) an electron with less energy
(2) volumes
(3) average kinetic energies
10 Which particles are isotopes of each other?
(4) numbers of molecules
(1) 11X and 31X (3) 21X and 42X
4 Two basic properties of the gas phase are
(2) 21X and 32X (4) 31X and 32X
(1) a definite shape and a definite volume
(2) a definite shape but no definite volume
(3) no definite shape but a definite volume 11 Which electron-dot symbol correctly represents
(4) no definite shape and no definite volume an atom of its given element?
(1) H C H
56 As the temperature of a gas increases at constant
H pressure, the volume of the gas
H O (1) decreases
(2) increases
(2) H C C OH (3) remains the same
H
H H
(3) C C
H H
H O H
(4) H C C C H
H H
57 Which substance has vibrating particles in regu- 60 A real gas differs from an ideal gas because the
lar, fixed positions? molecules of real gas have
(1) Ca(s) (3) Cl2(g) (1) some volume and no attraction for each
(2) Hg() (4) CaCl2(aq) other
(2) some volume and some attraction for each
other
58 Based on Reference Table H, which sample has (3) no volume and no attraction for each other
the highest vapor pressure? (4) no volume and some attraction for each
(1) water at 20°C (3) ethanol at 50°C other
(2) water at 80°C (4) ethanol at 65°C
61 Which temperature change would cause the vol-
59 If 4.00 moles of oxygen gas, 3.00 moles of hydro- ume of a sample of an ideal gas to double when
gen gas, and 1.00 mole of nitrogen gas are com- the pressure of the sample remains the same?
bined in a closed container at standard pressure, (1) from 200°C to 400°C
what is the partial pressure exerted by the hydro- (2) from 400°C to 200°C
gen gas? (3) from 200 K to 400 K
(1) 1.00 atm (3) 3.00 atm (4) from 400 K to 200 K
(2) 0.125 atm (4) 0.375 atm
62 The diagram below represents radioactive emanations passing through an electric field.
+ + +
Positive plate
Lead 1
block
2
3
Radioactive source Negative plate
– – –
63 What is the total number of neutrons in an atom 65 The characteristic bright-line spectrum of an
of 73Li? element occurs when electrons
(1) move from lower to higher energy levels
(1) 7 (3) 3
(2) move from higher to lower energy levels
(2) 10 (4) 4
(3) are lost by a neutral atom
(4) are gained by a neutral atom
64 In Rutherford’s gold foil experiments, some
alpha particles were deflected from their origi-
66 What is the total number of valence electrons in
nal paths but most passed through the foil with
a fluorine atom in the ground state?
no deflection. Which statement about gold
atoms is supported by these experimental obser- (1) 5 (3) 7
vations? (2) 2 (4) 9
(1) Gold atoms consist mostly of empty space.
(2) Gold atoms are similar to alpha particles.
(3) Alpha particles and gold nuclei have oppo-
site charges.
(4) Alpha particles are more dense than gold
atoms.
67 Which electron-dot structure represents a non- 72 The graph below represents the relationship
polar molecule? between atomic radii, in picometers, and increas-
ing atomic number for elements in Group 15.
(1) H Cl (3) H N H
77 Which sample of matter is classified as a solu- 80 What is the total number of moles of atoms con-
tion? tained in 1 mole of NH3?
(1) H2O(s) (3) CO2(g) (1) 1 mole (3) 3 moles
(2) H2O() (4) CO2(aq) (2) 2 moles (4) 4 moles
78 A 3.00-liter sample of gas is at 288 K and 81 Which preparation produces a 2.0 M solution of
1.00 atm. If the pressure of the gas is increased to C6H12O6? [molecular mass = 180.0]
2.00 atm and its volume is decreased to 1.50 liters, (1) 90.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 500.0 mL of
the Kelvin temperature of the sample will be solution
(1) 144 K (3) 432 K (2) 90.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 1000. mL of
(2) 288 K (4) 576 K solution
(3) 180.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 500.0 mL of
solution
79 The gram-formula mass of (NH4)2CO3 is (4) 180.0 g of C6H12O6 dissolved in 1000. mL of
(1) 46.0 g (3) 78.0 g solution
(2) 64.0 g (4) 96.0 g
82 Which sample has the greatest entropy? 85 Given the reaction at equilibrium:
(1) NH3(g) (3) NH3(s)
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + heat
(2) NH3() (4) NH3(aq)
Which change will shift the equilibrium to the
right?
83 The activation energy required for a chemical
reaction can be decreased by (1) increasing the temperature
(2) increasing the pressure
(1) increasing the surface area of the reactant (3) decreasing the amount of SO2(g)
(2) increasing the temperature of the reactant
(4) decreasing the amount of O2(g)
(3) adding a catalyst to the reaction
(4) adding more reactant
86 What occurs when the temperature is increased
in a system at equilibrium at constant pressure?
84 Given the potential energy diagram of a chemi-
cal reaction: (1) The rate of the forward reaction increases, and
the rate of the reverse reaction decreases.
(2) The rate of the forward reaction decreases,
and the rate of the reverse reaction increases.
Potential Energy
C D
Reaction Coordinate
87 A solution with a pH of 11 is first tested with 92 Which procedure requires the use of an external
phenolphthalein and then with litmus. What is electric current to force a redox reaction to
the color of each indicator in this solution? occur?
(1) Phenolphthalein is colorless and litmus is (1) polymerization (3) electrolysis
blue. (2) distillation (4) saponification
(2) Phenolphthalein is colorless and litmus is red.
(3) Phenolphthalein is pink and litmus is blue.
93 Given the balanced equation:
(4) Phenolphthalein is pink and litmus is red.
3Fe3+(aq) + Al(s) → 3Fe2+(aq) + Al3+(aq)
88 An example of a nonelectrolyte is What is the total number of moles of electrons
(1) C6H12O6(aq) (3) NaCl(aq) lost by 2 moles of Al(s)?
(2) K2SO4(aq) (4) HCl(aq) (1) 1 mole (3) 3 moles
(2) 6 moles (4) 9 moles
89 What produces hydrogen ions as the only posi-
tive ions in aqueous solution? 94 Given the reaction:
(1) KOH (3) NH3 Cu(s) + 4HNO3(aq) →
(2) HBr (4) NaCl Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 2H2O()
As the reaction occurs, what happens to copper?
90 Which type of reaction will produce water and a (1) It undergoes reduction and its oxidation
salt? number decreases.
(1) saponification (3) esterification (2) It undergoes reduction and its oxidation
(2) fermentation (4) neutralization number increases.
(3) It undergoes oxidation and its oxidation
number decreases.
91 Which statement describes the characteristics of
(4) It undergoes oxidation and its oxidation
an Arrhenius base?
number increases.
(1) It changes blue litmus to red and has a pH
less than 7.
(2) It changes blue litmus to red and has a pH 95 In any redox reaction, a reactant can undergo a
greater than 7. decrease in oxidation number by
(3) It changes red litmus to blue and has a pH (1) losing electrons, only
less than 7. (2) gaining electrons, only
(4) It changes red litmus to blue and has a pH (3) losing protons, only
greater than 7. (4) gaining protons, only
97 Which organic reaction produces rubber and 100 Given the equation:
plastics? CH4 + Br2 → CH3Br + HBr
(1) polymerization (3) saponification Which type of reaction does this equation repre-
(2) esterification (4) fermentation sent?
(1) addition (3) polymerization
98 Which compounds are isomers? (2) hydrogenation (4) substitution
(1) CH3OH and CH3CH2OH
(2) CH4 and CCl4 101 Which formula represents an ether?
(3) CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3
(4) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2COOH O
(1) CH3 C O CH3
99 Which functional group, when attached to a
chain of carbon atoms, will produce an organic O
molecule with the characteristic properties of an
(2) CH3 C OH
aldehyde?
O O
(1) (3) (3) CH3 O CH3
C OH C
O
(4)
(4) CH3 OH
(2) C H OH
104 Which metal can replace Cr in Cr2O3? 106 Ammonia is produced commercially by the
(1) nickel (3) copper Haber reaction:
(2) lead (4) aluminum N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + heat
The formation of ammonia is favored by
105 Fractional distillation is a technique used to sepa- (1) an increase in pressure
rate complex mixtures of hydrocarbons based on (2) a decrease in pressure
differences in their (3) removal of N2(g)
(1) heats of fusion (3) melting points (4) removal of H2(g)
(2) heats of vaporization (4) boiling points
107 Given the equation: 110 Which process converts an atom from one ele-
ment to another, when the nucleus of an atom is
14
7N + 42He → X + 178O bombarded with high-energy particles?
(1) artificial transmutation
When the equation is balanced correctly, which (2) natural transmutation
particle is represented by X? (3) addition polymerization
0
(1) –1e (3) 21H (4) condensation polymerization
112 A sample of water is being heated from 20°C to 30°C, and the temperature is recorded every 2 minutes.
Which table would be most appropriate for recording the data?
113 The diagram below represents a Celsius ther- 114 Expressed to the correct number of significant
mometer recording a certain temperature. figures, the sum of two masses is 445.2 grams.
100 Which two masses produce this answer?
(1) 210.10 g + 235.100 g
90
(2) 210.100 g + 235.10 g
80
(3) 210.1 g + 235.1 g
(4) 210.10 g + 235.10 g
70
Answer the questions in only seven of the twelve groups in this part. Be sure to mark the answers to
the groups of questions you choose in accordance with the instructions on the front cover of the test
booklet. Leave blank the five groups of questions you do not choose to answer.
Tear Here
57 1 2 3 4 62 1 2 3 4 67 1 2 3 4 72 1 2 3 4
58 1 2 3 4 63 1 2 3 4 68 1 2 3 4 73 1 2 3 4
59 1 2 3 4 64 1 2 3 4 69 1 2 3 4 74 1 2 3 4
60 1 2 3 4 65 1 2 3 4 70 1 2 3 4 75 1 2 3 4
61 1 2 3 4 66 1 2 3 4 71 1 2 3 4 76 1 2 3 4
78 1 2 3 4 83 1 2 3 4 88 1 2 3 4 93 1 2 3 4
79 1 2 3 4 84 1 2 3 4 89 1 2 3 4 94 1 2 3 4
80 1 2 3 4 85 1 2 3 4 90 1 2 3 4 95 1 2 3 4
81 1 2 3 4 86 1 2 3 4 91 1 2 3 4 96 1 2 3 4
I do hereby affirm, at the close of this examination, that I had no unlawful knowledge of the questions or answers prior to the examination
and that I have neither given nor received assistance in answering any of the questions during the examination.
Signature
CHEMISTRY Credits
Tuesday, January 22, 2002 — 9:15 a.m. to 12:15 p.m., only Part I . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...........
(Use table below)
Tear Here
ANSWER SHEET Part II . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ...........
■ Male
Student ................................................................ Sex: ■ Female Total .............. ...........
School ..................................................................................................
Part I Credits
Directions to Teacher:
Record all of your answers on this answer sheet in accordance In the table below, draw a circle around the
with the instructions on the front cover of the test booklet. number of right answers and the adjacent number
of credits. Then write the number of credits (not
Part I (65 credits) the number right) in the space provided above.
1 1 2 3 4 21 1 2 3 4 41 1 2 3 4 No. No.
Right Credits Right Credits
2 1 2 3 4 22 1 2 3 4 42 1 2 3 4 56 65 28 41
55 64 27 40
54 63 26 39
3 1 2 3 4 23 1 2 3 4 43 1 2 3 4 53 62 25 39
52 62 24 38
4 1 2 3 4 24 1 2 3 4 44 1 2 3 4 51 61 23 37
50 60 22 36
5 1 2 3 4 25 1 2 3 4 45 1 2 3 4 49 59 21 35
48 58 20 34
47 57 19 33
6 1 2 3 4 26 1 2 3 4 46 1 2 3 4 46 56 18 33
45 56 17 32
7 1 2 3 4 27 1 2 3 4 47 1 2 3 4 44 55 16 31
43 54 15 30
42 53 14 29
8 1 2 3 4 28 1 2 3 4 48 1 2 3 4 41 52 13 27
40 51 12 25
9 1 2 3 4 29 1 2 3 4 49 1 2 3 4 39 51 11 23
38 50 10 21
37 49 9 19
10 1 2 3 4 30 1 2 3 4 50 1 2 3 4 36 48 8 17
35 47 7 14
11 1 2 3 4 31 1 2 3 4 51 1 2 3 4 34 46 6 12
33 45 5 10
32 45 4 8
12 1 2 3 4 32 1 2 3 4 52 1 2 3 4 31 44 3 6
30 43 2 4
13 1 2 3 4 33 1 2 3 4 53 1 2 3 29 42 1 2
0 0
14 1 2 3 4 34 1 2 3 4 54 1 2 3
15 1 2 3 4 35 1 2 3 4 55 1 2 3
16 1 2 3 4 36 1 2 3 4 56 1 2 3
Tear Here
17 1 2 3 4 37 1 2 3 4
18 1 2 3 4 38 1 2 3 4
20 1 2 3 4 40 1 2 3 4
Your answers for Part II should be placed in the proper spaces on the back of this sheet.