Question 1

In a Cisco router's IPv4 routing table, what does the code 'C' indicate?

● a. Directly connected route

● b. Default route
● c. Dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP
● d. Static route

Question 2

This network limits the number of affected devices during a failure. It is built to allow
quick recovery when such a failure occurs. The network depends on multiple paths
between the source and destination of a message. If one path fails, the messages are
instantly sent over a different link. The above statement is relevant to _____________.

● a. Quality of Services
● b. Virtual Local Area Network
● c. Fault Tolerance
● d. Virtual Private Network

Question 3

What is the maximum number of hosts that can be accommodated in a subnet with
subnet mask 255.255.255.240? (2^n−2)

● a. 8
● b. 14
● c. 32
● d. 16

Question 4

The notion of ___________ in a network relates to the frequency and time it takes to
recover from a breakdown with an appropriate backup and disaster recovery plan.

● a. Management
● b. Security
● c. Reliability
● d. Monitoring
Question 5

Which layer of the OSI model would a physical address be added during encapsulation?

● a. Transport Layer
● b. Physical Layer
● c. Data Link Layer

Question 6

When selecting devices for a small network, which factors should be considered?

● a. ISP
● b. Cost of devices
● c. Redundancy
● d. Traffic Analysis

Question 7

Identify the gadget that prevents bottlenecks and data collisions.

● a. Proxy Server
● b. Router
● c. Switch
● d. Gateway

Question 8

A network is set up with two PCs that have the IP addresses 218.04.35.8 and 176.43.08.16,
respectively. There is communication between the PC and __________.

● a. Switch
● b. Hub
● c. Router
● d. Bridge

Question 9
Which statement highlights a disadvantage of the CSMA/CD access method?

● a. Deterministic media access techniques reduce network performance.

● b. CSMA/CD LAN technologies offer slower speeds compared to other LAN
technologies.
● c. It's more complicated than non-deterministic protocols.
● d. Collisions can reduce network performance.

Question 10

One of the primary disadvantages in a ______ topology is that one break in the cable
media can stop all data transmissions on the network segment.

● a. Ring
● b. Tree
● c. Star
● d. Mesh

Question 11

Employees want secure remote access to the organization's network. What network
feature enables employees to have secure remote access to a company network?

● a. Intrusion Prevention System

● b. Intrusion Detection System
● c. Access Control List
● d. Virtual Private Network

Question 13

What effect does the service password-encryption command have on Cisco routers and
switches' password security?

● a. Encrypted passwords are required when connecting remotely to a router or switch

using Telnet.
● b. Encrypts passwords saved in router or switch configuration files.
● c. Users must enter an encrypted password to gain console access to routers or
switches.
● d. Encrypts passwords sent across the network.
Question 14

To send an email from the source to destination, the SMTP protocol is utilized. Which
Transport Layer protocols support SMTP?

● a. TCP
● b. DHCP
● c. UDP
● d. POP3

Question 15

Which network device transmits frames from one LAN to another?

● a. Modem
● b. Bridge
● c. Repeater
● d. Router

Question 16

What technique is used with Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable to help protect against
signal interference from crosstalk compared to Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)?

● a. Encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheet.

● b. Wrapping a metal foil around the wire pairs to isolate each pair.
● c. Terminating the cable with special grounded connectors.
● d. Twisting the wires together into more than 4 pairs.

Question 17

What is the unique hexadecimal address, also known as the Physical Address, that is
kept permanently in the Network Interface Card?

● a. MAC Address
● b. IP Address
● c. Port Address
● d. Application Address
Question 18

Which protocol is utilized by the user to communicate with the financial services
website?

● a. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

● b. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
● c. File Transfer Protocol
● d. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure

Question 19

What is the function of protocols in data communications?

● a. Identifying the operating systems that will enable communication.

● b. Specifying the channel or medium's bandwidth for each form of communication.
● c. Dictating the content of a message transmitted during communication.
● d. Providing the rules necessary for a given sort of communication to take place.

Question 20

What command can display the ARP table on a Cisco router?

● a. show arp ip route brief

● b. show arp ip route
● c. show arp interface brief
● d. show ip arp

Question 21

Errors happen in networks when frames are sent and received in ways that cannot be
recognized or corrected by users. The issue is unable to be ignored or identified by the
OSI model's __________ layer.

● a. Data Link Layer

● b. Network Layer
● c. Physical Layer
● d. Transport Layer
Question 22

In the lab, there are two Cisco routers interconnected consecutively via DTE/DCE cable.
Which router would you set with the clock rate command?

● a. The Ethernet port on the DTE router

● b. The serial port on the DTE router
● c. The serial port on the DCE router
● d. The Ethernet port on the DCE router

Question 23

What method is utilized to encapsulate one message within another for transport from
source to destination?

● a. Decoding
● b. Encapsulation
● c. Flow Control
● d. Access Control

Question 24

During an ordinary check, a technician noticed that software placed on a computer was
secretly collecting information about websites visited by computer users. What kind of
risk is affecting this computer?

● a. Identity theft
● b. Spyware
● c. DoS attack
● d. Zero-day attack

Question 25

Which of the following OSI layers is integrated with the TCP/IP application layer?

● a. Application Layer & Session Layer

● b. Session Layer & Transport Layer
● c. Only Transport Layer
 ● d. Session Layer & Presentation Layer

=====================================================================

Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking

1. What is the primary purpose of a network?

○ a. To connect devices for communication and resource sharing.
○ b. To manage databases.
○ c. To store data securely.
○ d. To provide multimedia services.
2. Which device operates at the OSI model's Layer 3?
○ a. Switch
○ b. Router
○ c. Hub
○ d. Repeater
3. What does a hub do in a network?
○ a. Directs data to the appropriate device.
○ b. Amplifies and regenerates signals.
○ c. Broadcasts data to all connected devices.
○ d. Encrypts data before transmission.
4. Which of the following is NOT a network topology?
○ a. Star
○ b. Ring
○ c. Square
○ d. Mesh
5. What protocol is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses?
○ a. DNS
○ b. ARP
○ c. DHCP
○ d. FTP
6. What is the function of a switch in a network?
○ a. Amplifies signals.
○ b. Routes data between different networks.
○ c. Creates virtual LANs.
○ d. Filters and forwards frames based on MAC addresses.
7. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for error detection and correction?
○ a. Physical Layer
○ b. Data Link Layer
○ c. Network Layer
○ d. Transport Layer
8. What is the primary function of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
○ a. Data encryption
○ b. Data formatting
 ○ c. Routing and forwarding
○ d. Session management
9. Which device is used to connect two different networks?
○ a. Hub
○ b. Switch
○ c. Router
○ d. Bridge
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of a star topology?
○ a. Data is transmitted in a ring.
○ b. All devices are connected to a central hub.
○ c. Devices are connected in a daisy chain.
○ d. Every device is connected to every other device.
11. What is a MAC address?
○ a. A unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications.
○ b. An IP address assigned to a computer.
○ c. A protocol for managing network traffic.
○ d. A type of network topology.
12. What does the acronym LAN stand for?
○ a. Local Area Network
○ b. Large Area Network
○ c. Long Area Network
○ d. Low Area Network
13. Which protocol is used for secure remote login?
○ a. HTTP
○ b. FTP
○ c. SSH
○ d. Telnet
14. Which type of network is used to connect devices within a single building or
campus?
○ a. WAN
○ b. LAN
○ c. MAN
○ d. PAN
15. What does a router use to determine the best path for data packets?
○ a. MAC address
○ b. IP address
○ c. Port number
○ d. Network topology
16. What is a benefit of using a mesh topology?
○ a. Easy to set up.
○ b. Provides redundancy and fault tolerance.
○ c. Requires less cabling.
○ d. Simple network management.
17. What layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and
terminating connections?
○ a. Physical Layer
○ b. Data Link Layer
○ c. Network Layer
○ d. Session Layer
18. What is the primary difference between a switch and a hub?
○ a. A switch amplifies signals, a hub does not.
○ b. A switch operates at the Network Layer, a hub operates at the Data Link Layer.
○ c. A switch sends data to specific devices, a hub broadcasts data to all
devices.
○ d. A switch connects different networks, a hub connects devices within a single
network.
19. Which protocol suite is used to communicate over the internet?
○ a. IPX/SPX
○ b. AppleTalk
○ c. TCP/IP
○ d. NetBIOS
20. What type of cable is most commonly used in wired LANs?
○ a. Coaxial cable
○ b. Fiber optic cable
○ c. Twisted pair cable
○ d. Serial cable
21. What is the main function of the Transport Layer in the OSI model?
○ a. Data encryption
○ b. Data routing
○ c. Reliable data transfer
○ d. Data link control
22. Which protocol is used to assign IP addresses dynamically?
○ a. DNS
○ b. ARP
○ c. DHCP
○ d. ICMP
23. What is the purpose of subnetting in a network?
○ a. To increase the number of available IP addresses.
○ b. To reduce the size of the broadcast domain.
○ c. To encrypt network traffic.
○ d. To connect different network segments.
24. Which device connects a local network to the internet?
○ a. Hub
○ b. Switch
○ c. Router
○ d. Repeater
25. What is the role of the Presentation Layer in the OSI model?
 ○ a. Routing data
○ b. Encrypting and formatting data
○ c. Managing sessions
○ d. Transmitting data over a physical medium
26. Which network device is used to extend the range of a wireless network?
○ a. Hub
○ b. Switch
○ c. Access Point
○ d. Router
27. What does the term "full-duplex" mean in networking?
○ a. Data can be transmitted in one direction at a time.
○ b. Data can be transmitted in both directions simultaneously.
○ c. Data transmission is error-free.
○ d. Data is transmitted at half the speed.
28. What protocol is used to translate domain names into IP addresses?
○ a. DHCP
○ b. FTP
○ c. DNS
○ d. HTTP
29. Which layer of the OSI model handles data compression?
○ a. Physical Layer
○ b. Data Link Layer
○ c. Presentation Layer
○ d. Network Layer
30. What is the main advantage of using fiber optic cables over copper cables?
○ a. Lower cost
○ b. Easier installation
○ c. Higher bandwidth and longer distance capabilities
○ d. Greater flexibility

Chapter 2: IPv4 Addressing and Subnetting

1. What is the maximum number of hosts in a Class C network? 2^n

○ a. 254
○ b. 256
○ c. 128
○ d. 1024
2. What is the default subnet mask for a Class A network?
○ a. 255.0.0.0
○ b. 255.255.0.0
○ c. 255.255.255.0
○ d. 255.255.255.255
3. What is the primary purpose of subnetting?
○ a. To increase the number of available IP addresses.
○ b. To reduce the broadcast domain size.
○ c. To encrypt data.
○ d. To speed up data transmission.
4. Which IPv4 address class is used for multicast addresses?
○ a. Class A
○ b. Class B
○ c. Class C
○ d. Class D
5. What is the subnet mask for a /26 network prefix?
○ a. 255.255.255.0
○ b. 255.255.255.128
○ c. 255.255.255.192
○ d. 255.255.255.224
6. What is the broadcast address for the IP range 192.168.1.0/24?
○ a. 192.168.1.255
○ b. 192.168.1.0
○ c. 192.168.1.1
○ d. 192.168.255.255
7. How many subnets are created when you subnet a Class C network with a /27
prefix?
○ a. 2
○ b. 4
○ c. 8
○ d. 16
8. What is the first usable IP address in the subnet 192.168.10.0/28?
○ a. 192.168.10.0
○ b. 192.168.10.1
○ c. 192.168.10.14
○ d. 192.168.10.15
9. What does CIDR stand for?
○ a. Classless Inter-Domain Routing
○ b. Classful Inter-Domain Routing
○ c. Coded Internet Data Routing
○ d. Compact Internet Data Routing
10. What is the subnet mask for a /30 network prefix?
○ a. 255.255.255.240
○ b. 255.255.255.252
○ c. 255.255.255.254
○ d. 255.255.255.248
11. What is the purpose of the IPv4 address 127.0.0.1?
○ a. Broadcast address
○ b. Default gateway
 ○ c. Loopback address
○ d. Multicast address
12. How many bits are there in an IPv4 address?
○ a. 32
○ b. 64
○ c. 128
○ d. 256
13. What is the range of Class B IP addresses?
○ a. 1.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
○ b. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
○ c. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255
○ d. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
14. What is the network address for the IP 192.168.1.10/24?
○ a. 192.168.1.10
○ b. 192.168.1.1
○ c. 192.168.1.0
○ d. 192.168.1.255
15. What is the maximum number of subnets in a Class B network with a /26 prefix?
○ a. 64
○ b. 128
○ c. 256
○ d. 1024
16. What is the default gateway in a network?
○ a. The first usable IP address in the subnet.
○ b. The last usable IP address in the subnet.
○ c. The IP address used to communicate outside the local network.
○ d. The IP address used for broadcasting messages.
17. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in an IP address?
○ a. To identify the host portion of an IP address.
○ b. To identify the network portion of an IP address.
○ c. To identify the gateway address.
○ d. To identify the broadcast address.
18. What is the binary equivalent of the IP address 192.168.1.1?
○ a. 11000000.10101000.00000001.00000001
○ b. 11000000.10000000.00000001.00000001
○ c. 11000001.10101000.00000001.00000001
○ d. 11000000.10101000.00000010.00000001
19. What is the range of Class A IP addresses?
○ a. 1.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
○ b. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
○ c. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255
○ d. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
20. How many host addresses are available in a /28 subnet?
○ a. 8
 ○ b. 16
○ c. 14
○ d. 30
21. What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation)?
○ a. To encrypt data.
○ b. To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses.
○ c. To assign IP addresses dynamically.
○ d. To resolve domain names to IP addresses.
22. What is the range of Class C IP addresses?
○ a. 1.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
○ b. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
○ c. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255
○ d. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
23. What is the subnet mask for a /22 network prefix?
○ a. 255.255.252.0
○ b. 255.255.248.0
○ c. 255.255.254.0
○ d. 255.255.240.0
24. How many bits are used for the host portion in a /20 network?
○ a. 8
○ b. 10
○ c. 12
○ d. 16
25. What is the first address in the 192.168.0.0/24 network?
○ a. 192.168.0.1
○ b. 192.168.0.0
○ c. 192.168.0.255
○ d. 192.168.1.0
26. What is the primary function of the ARP protocol?
○ a. To assign IP addresses.
○ b. To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses.
○ c. To translate domain names.
○ d. To transfer files.

What is the network address for the IP 10.1.1.10/24?

● a. 10.1.1.0
● b. 10.1.1.1
● c. 10.1.1.255
● d. 10.1.1.10

What is the broadcast address for the subnet 172.16.0.0/16?

● a. 172.16.0.0
● b. 172.16.255.255
 ● c. 172.16.0.255
● d. 172.16.1.0

What is the first usable IP address in the subnet 172.16.5.0/26?

● a. 172.16.5.0
● b. 172.16.5.1
● c. 172.16.5.62
● d. 172.16.5.63

How many subnets are created with a Class B network using a /28 prefix?

● a. 4096
● b. 8192
● c. 16384
● d. 32768

What is the range of private IP addresses in a Class C network?

● a. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
● b. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255
● c. 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.255
● d. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.0

What is the purpose of VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Mask)?

● a. To increase the number of available IP addresses.

● b. To allow different subnet masks within the same network.
● c. To simplify network management.
● d. To provide a fixed number of subnets.

What is the subnet mask for a /19 network prefix?

● a. 255.255.255.0
● b. 255.255.224.0
● c. 255.255.240.0
● d. 255.255.255.240

How many host addresses are available in a /25 subnet?

● a. 126
● b. 128
● c. 254
● d. 256

What is the range of Class D IP addresses?

 ● a. 1.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
● b. 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
● c. 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255
● d. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

Which IP address is used as the loopback address in IPv4?

● a. 0.0.0.0
● b. 127.0.0.1
● c. 255.255.255.255
● d. 192.168.1.1

What is the subnet mask for a /23 network prefix?

● a. 255.255.255.0
● b. 255.255.254.0
● c. 255.255.252.0
● d. 255.255.240.0

How many bits are there in a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

● a. 24
● b. 28
● c. 30
● d. 32

What is the purpose of the default gateway in a network?

● a. To route traffic to remote networks.

● b. To assign IP addresses to devices.
● c. To translate domain names to IP addresses.
● d. To provide local network access. .

What is the subnet mask for a /31 network prefix?

● a. 255.255.255.254
● b. 255.255.255.252
● c. 255.255.255.240
● d. 255.255.255.255

Chapter 3: Network Access - Physical Layer

1. Which type of cable is used to connect two devices directly without a switch or
hub?
○ a. Crossover cable
○ b. Straight-through cable
 ○ c. Fiber optic cable
○ d. Coaxial cable
2. What type of connector is used with twisted pair cabling?
○ a. BNC
○ b. RJ45
○ c. SC
○ d. ST
3. Which physical layer medium provides the highest bandwidth?
○ a. Twisted pair cable
○ b. Coaxial cable
○ c. Fiber optic cable
○ d. Wireless
4. What is the primary purpose of the Physical Layer in the OSI model?
○ a. To provide error correction
○ b. To format data for transmission
○ c. To establish, maintain, and terminate physical connections
○ d. To manage data flow
5. Which type of fiber optic cable is used for long-distance communication?
○ a. Single-mode fiber
○ b. Multi-mode fiber
○ c. Plastic optical fiber
○ d. Coaxial fiber
6. What is the main disadvantage of using wireless communication?
○ a. High cost
○ b. Limited mobility
○ c. Susceptibility to interference
○ d. High bandwidth
7. Which physical layer device amplifies and regenerates signals?
○ a. Hub
○ b. Switch
○ c. Router
○ d. Repeater
8. What is the maximum cable length for twisted pair Ethernet cables according to
the standard?
○ a. 50 meters
○ b. 100 meters
○ c. 200 meters
○ d. 500 meters
9. What does PoE stand for?
○ a. Power over Ethernet
○ b. Protocol over Ethernet
○ c. Packet over Ethernet
○ d. Port over Ethernet
10. Which type of connector is typically used with coaxial cable?
 ○ a. RJ45
○ b. BNC
○ c. SC
○ d. LC
11. What is the main advantage of using twisted pair cabling?
○ a. Low cost and ease of installation
○ b. High bandwidth
○ c. Long-distance communication
○ d. Resistance to interference
12. Which layer of the OSI model does the Physical Layer directly interact with?
○ a. Data Link Layer
○ b. Network Layer
○ c. Transport Layer
○ d. Session Layer
13. What is the purpose of the RJ45 connector?
○ a. To connect fiber optic cables
○ b. To connect twisted pair Ethernet cables
○ c. To connect coaxial cables
○ d. To connect wireless devices
14. Which type of cabling is most susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
○ a. Twisted pair cable
○ b. Coaxial cable
○ c. Fiber optic cable
○ d. Wireless
15. What is the maximum length for a single-mode fiber optic cable run?
○ a. 500 meters
○ b. 2 kilometers
○ c. 10 kilometers
○ d. 40 kilometers
16. Which type of physical layer medium is used for broadband communication?
○ a. Twisted pair cable
○ b. Coaxial cable
○ c. Fiber optic cable
○ d. Wireless
17. What is the primary benefit of using a patch panel in a network?
○ a. It provides network security.
○ b. It simplifies cable management and organization.
○ c. It increases data transmission speed.
○ d. It amplifies network signals.
18. Which physical layer technology uses radio waves to transmit data?
○ a. Twisted pair cable
○ b. Coaxial cable
○ c. Fiber optic cable
○ d. Wireless
19. What is the function of an Ethernet NIC (Network Interface Card)?
○ a. To route data packets
○ b. To connect a computer to a network
○ c. To amplify network signals
○ d. To provide network security
20. What is the typical use case for multi-mode fiber optic cables?
○ a. Long-distance communication
○ b. Short-distance communication within buildings or campuses
○ c. Outdoor installations
○ d. Undersea communication
21. Which type of cable is used for high-speed internet connections in homes and
offices?
○ a. Coaxial cable
○ b. Twisted pair cable
○ c. Fiber optic cable
○ d. Serial cable
22. What does the acronym STP stand for in networking?
○ a. Shielded Twisted Pair
○ b. Standard Twisted Pair
○ c. Single Twisted Pair
○ d. Secure Twisted Pair
23. What is the role of a network switch?
○ a. To route data between different networks
○ b. To amplify and regenerate network signals
○ c. To connect and filter traffic between multiple devices in a network
○ d. To provide wireless connectivity
24. Which type of connector is commonly used for fiber optic cables?
○ a. RJ11
○ b. RJ45
○ c. SC
○ d. BNC
25. What is the primary advantage of using single-mode fiber optic cables over
multi-mode?
○ a. Lower cost
○ b. Higher bandwidth and longer distance capabilities
○ c. Easier installation
○ d. Greater flexibility
26. Which type of cabling is commonly used in Ethernet networks for short to medium
distances?
○ a. Coaxial cable
○ b. Twisted pair cable
○ c. Fiber optic cable
○ d. Serial cable
27. What is the maximum data transfer rate for a standard CAT5e cable?
 ○ a. 100 Mbps
○ b. 1 Gbps
○ c. 10 Gbps
○ d. 100 Gbps
28. Which physical layer device can connect multiple devices in a network and filter
traffic based on MAC addresses?
○ a. Hub
○ b. Switch
○ c. Router
○ d. Repeater
29. What is the purpose of using a crossover cable?
○ a. To connect two similar devices directly, such as two computers
○ b. To connect a computer to a switch
○ c. To connect a computer to a router
○ d. To connect a switch to a router
30. Which type of connector is used for cable internet connections?
○ a. RJ11
○ b. BNC
○ c. SC
○ d. RJ45

Chapter 4: Data Link Layer

1. Which protocol operates at the Data Link Layer of the OSI model?
○ a. IP
○ b. TCP
○ c. Ethernet
○ d. HTTP
2. What is the primary function of the Data Link Layer?
○ a. Data encryption
○ b. Reliable data transfer
○ c. Data encapsulation and error detection
○ d. Data routing
3. Which device operates at the Data Link Layer?
○ a. Hub
○ b. Router
○ c. Switch
○ d. Repeater
4. What is the purpose of a MAC address?
○ a. To identify a device on a network at the Data Link Layer
○ b. To route data between networks
○ c. To encrypt data
○ d. To assign IP addresses dynamically
5. Which protocol is responsible for error checking in Ethernet frames?
 ○ a. IP
○ b. ARP
○ c. TCP
○ d. FCS
6. What type of address is used at the Data Link Layer?
○ a. IP address
○ b. MAC address
○ c. Port address
○ d. Subnet address
7. What is the purpose of the ARP protocol?
○ a. To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
○ b. To assign IP addresses dynamically
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To encrypt data
8. Which type of switch is used to create VLANs?
○ a. Layer 2 switch
○ b. Layer 3 switch
○ c. Managed switch
○ d. Unmanaged switch
9. What is the primary advantage of using VLANs in a network?
○ a. Increased bandwidth
○ b. Improved security and segmentation
○ c. Simplified network management
○ d. Reduced latency
10. Which type of frame is used to request a MAC address for a known IP address?
○ a. RARP
○ b. ARP request
○ c. ARP reply
○ d. ICMP
11. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
○ a. To prevent loops in a network
○ b. To assign IP addresses dynamically
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To encrypt data
12. Which type of switch provides routing capabilities?
○ a. Layer 2 switch
○ b. Layer 3 switch
○ c. Unmanaged switch
○ d. Managed switch
13. What is the function of the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) in an Ethernet frame?
○ a. To provide the source MAC address
○ b. To provide the destination MAC address
○ c. To check for errors in the frame
○ d. To encapsulate higher-layer data
14. What is the maximum transmission unit (MTU) size for Ethernet frames?
○ a. 1000 bytes
○ b. 1500 bytes
○ c. 2000 bytes
○ d. 2500 bytes
15. Which protocol provides VLAN tagging in Ethernet frames?
○ a. STP
○ b. ARP
○ c. 802.1Q
○ d. RARP
16. What is the purpose of the MAC address table in a switch?
○ a. To assign IP addresses dynamically
○ b. To map IP addresses to MAC addresses
○ c. To map MAC addresses to switch ports
○ d. To route data between networks
17. What is a broadcast address used for in an Ethernet network?
○ a. To send data to all devices in a network
○ b. To send data to a specific device
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To assign IP addresses dynamically
18. Which protocol is used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks?
○ a. ARP
○ b. STP
○ c. DHCP
○ d. ICMP
19. What is the primary difference between a managed and unmanaged switch?
○ a. Managed switches provide more advanced configuration options.
○ b. Unmanaged switches provide more advanced configuration options.
○ c. Managed switches are cheaper.
○ d. Unmanaged switches can create VLANs.
20. What is the purpose of the MAC address in a network?
○ a. To identify devices at the Data Link Layer
○ b. To route data between networks
○ c. To encrypt data
○ d. To assign IP addresses dynamically
21. Which type of network device operates at both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI
model?
○ a. Hub
○ b. Switch
○ c. Router
○ d. Multilayer switch
22. What is the function of a bridge in a network?
○ a. To route data between networks
○ b. To amplify and regenerate signals
 ○ c. To connect and filter traffic between different network segments
○ d. To provide wireless connectivity
23. What is the purpose of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
○ a. To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
○ b. To assign IP addresses dynamically
○ c. To encrypt data
○ d. To route data between networks
24. What is a unicast address used for in an Ethernet network?
○ a. To send data to all devices in a network
○ b. To send data to a specific device
○ c. To send data to a group of devices
○ d. To route data between networks
25. Which layer of the OSI model does the Data Link Layer interact with directly above
it?
○ a. Physical Layer
○ b. Network Layer
○ c. Transport Layer
○ d. Session Layer
26. What is the maximum data transfer rate for a standard Ethernet frame?
○ a. 10 Mbps
○ b. 100 Mbps
○ c. 1 Gbps
○ d. 10 Gbps

Chapter 4: Network Layer

1. What is the primary function of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
○ a. Data encryption
○ b. Routing and forwarding packets
○ c. Error detection and correction
○ d. Data flow control
2. Which protocol operates at the Network Layer?
○ a. TCP
○ b. IP
○ c. Ethernet
○ d. HTTP
3. What is the purpose of the IP address in the Network Layer?
○ a. To identify the physical location of devices
○ b. To provide a unique identifier for devices on a network
○ c. To encrypt data
○ d. To resolve domain names
4. Which device operates at the Network Layer?
 ○ a. Hub
○ b. Switch
○ c. Router
○ d. Repeater
5. What does the term "subnetting" refer to in the context of the Network Layer?
○ a. Encrypting data
○ b. Dividing a network into smaller, more manageable pieces
○ c. Increasing network bandwidth
○ d. Establishing secure connections
6. Which protocol is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses?
○ a. DHCP
○ b. DNS
○ c. ARP
○ d. ICMP
7. What is the main function of a router in a network?
○ a. To connect devices within the same network
○ b. To filter and forward data packets between different networks
○ c. To amplify signals
○ d. To manage network security
8. Which type of IP address is used to identify a specific host on a network?
○ a. Unicast address
○ b. Broadcast address
○ c. Multicast address
○ d. Anycast address
9. What is the purpose of the DHCP protocol?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To assign IP addresses dynamically
○ c. To resolve domain names
○ d. To route data packets
10. Which type of IP address is used to send data to all hosts on a network?
○ a. Unicast address
○ b. Broadcast address
○ c. Multicast address
○ d. Anycast address
11. What does the term "default gateway" refer to?
○ a. The address used to encrypt data
○ b. The device that connects a local network to other networks
○ c. The address used to resolve domain names
○ d. The device that filters and forwards data within a network
12. Which protocol is used to determine the path that data packets take to reach their
destination?
○ a. DHCP
○ b. DNS
○ c. ARP
 ○ d. ICMP
13. What is the purpose of the ARP protocol?
○ a. To assign IP addresses dynamically
○ b. To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
○ c. To route data packets
○ d. To encrypt data
14. Which type of IP address is used to send data to a group of hosts on a network?
○ a. Unicast address
○ b. Broadcast address
○ c. Multicast address
○ d. Anycast address
15. What is the purpose of subnet masks?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To divide IP addresses into network and host portions
○ c. To resolve domain names
○ d. To route data packets
16. Which protocol is used to find the MAC address associated with a known IP
address?
○ a. DHCP
○ b. DNS
○ c. ARP
○ d. ICMP
17. What is the primary difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
○ a. IPv4 uses 128-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 32-bit addresses
○ b. IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses
○ c. IPv4 is faster than IPv6
○ d. IPv4 is more secure than IPv6
18. Which device connects multiple networks and forwards packets between them?
○ a. Switch
○ b. Router
○ c. Hub
○ d. Repeater
19. What does the term "CIDR" stand for?
○ a. Classful Inter-Domain Routing
○ b. Classless Inter-Domain Routing
○ c. Circuit Inter-Domain Routing
○ d. Classful Internet Data Routing
20. What is the purpose of the ICMP protocol?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To assign IP addresses dynamically
○ c. To provide error messages and operational information
○ d. To resolve domain names
21. Which protocol is used to discover the network topology and routing paths?
○ a. DHCP
 ○ b. DNS
○ c. OSPF
○ d. ICMP
22. What is the primary function of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
○ a. Data encryption
○ b. Data routing
○ c. Data encapsulation
○ d. Data transmission
23. Which type of IP address is used to identify the network portion of an IP address?
○ a. Unicast address
○ b. Broadcast address
○ c. Network address
○ d. Anycast address
24. What is the primary function of a router?
○ a. To amplify signals
○ b. To connect devices within a network
○ c. To filter and forward data between different networks
○ d. To assign IP addresses dynamically
25. What is the purpose of the subnet mask 255.255.255.0?
○ a. To identify the default gateway
○ b. To identify the broadcast address
○ c. To divide an IP address into network and host portions
○ d. To encrypt data
26. Which protocol provides automatic IP address configuration to devices on a
network?
○ a. DNS
○ b. DHCP
○ c. ARP
○ d. ICMP
27. What does the acronym "NAT" stand for?
○ a. Network Address Translation
○ b. Network Access Translation
○ c. Network Address Tunneling
○ d. Network Access Tunneling
28. Which type of IP address is used to send data to all devices in a specific group?
○ a. Unicast address
○ b. Broadcast address
○ c. Multicast address
○ d. Anycast address
29. What is the purpose of the IPv6 address format?
○ a. To provide encryption
○ b. To increase the number of available IP addresses
○ c. To speed up data transmission
○ d. To improve network security
 30. Which protocol is responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses to devices
on a network?
○ a. DHCP
○ b. DNS
○ c. ARP
○ d. ICMP

Chapter 5: Transport Layer

1. What is the primary function of the Transport Layer in the OSI model?
○ a. Data encryption
○ b. End-to-end communication and error recovery
○ c. Data routing
○ d. Data transmission
2. Which protocol operates at the Transport Layer?
○ a. IP
○ b. TCP
○ c. Ethernet
○ d. HTTP
3. What is the purpose of the TCP protocol?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To provide reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
4. Which protocol provides connectionless communication at the Transport Layer?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. IP
○ d. HTTP
5. What is the primary difference between TCP and UDP?
○ a. TCP provides connection-oriented communication, while UDP provides
connectionless communication.
○ b. TCP is faster than UDP.
○ c. TCP is less reliable than UDP.
○ d. TCP operates at the Network Layer, while UDP operates at the Transport
Layer.
6. What does the term "port" refer to in the context of the Transport Layer?
○ a. A physical connection point
○ b. A logical endpoint for communication
○ c. A type of network cable
○ d. A method of data encryption
7. Which protocol is used for real-time applications such as video streaming?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
 ○ c. HTTP
○ d. FTP
8. What is the purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To establish a reliable connection between two devices
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
9. Which protocol provides flow control at the Transport Layer?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. IP
○ d. HTTP
10. What is the purpose of the sequence number in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To identify the order of segments
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
11. Which protocol is used for sending emails?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. SMTP
○ d. HTTP
12. What is the purpose of the acknowledgment number in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To confirm receipt of segments
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
13. Which protocol is used for file transfer over the internet?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. FTP
○ d. HTTP
14. What is the purpose of the checksum field in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To detect errors in the segment
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
15. Which protocol is used for secure communication over the internet?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. HTTPS
○ d. FTP
16. What is the purpose of the window size field in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
 ○ b. To control the flow of data
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
17. Which protocol is used for remote login to network devices?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. Telnet
○ d. HTTP
18. What is the purpose of the urgent pointer field in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To indicate urgent data
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
19. Which protocol is used for secure remote login to network devices?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. SSH
○ d. HTTP
20. What is the purpose of the SYN flag in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To initiate a connection
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
21. Which protocol is used for retrieving emails from a server?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. IMAP
○ d. HTTP
22. What is the purpose of the FIN flag in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To terminate a connection
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
23. Which protocol is used for sending and receiving network management
messages?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. SNMP
○ d. HTTP
24. What is the purpose of the RST flag in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To reset a connection
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
 25. Which protocol is used for domain name resolution?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. DNS
○ d. HTTP
26. What is the purpose of the PSH flag in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To push data to the receiving application
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
27. Which protocol is used for network time synchronization?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. NTP
○ d. HTTP
28. What is the purpose of the ACK flag in a TCP segment?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To acknowledge receipt of data
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names
29. Which protocol is used for accessing web pages?
○ a. TCP
○ b. UDP
○ c. HTTP
○ d. FTP
30. What is the purpose of the sliding window mechanism in TCP?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To control the flow of data and ensure reliable delivery
○ c. To route data between networks
○ d. To resolve domain names

Chapter: Application Layer

1. Which layer of the OSI model provides the interface between the applications used
to communicate and the underlying network?
○ a. Network Layer
○ b. Transport Layer
○ c. Application Layer
○ d. Data Link Layer
2. What is the primary function of the presentation layer in the OSI model?
○ a. Data compression
○ b. Data encryption
 ○ c. Data formatting
○ d. All of the above
3. Which protocol is used to translate domain names into IP addresses?
○ a. DHCP
○ b. HTTP
○ c. DNS
○ d. FTP
4. What does FTP stand for?
○ a. File Transfer Protocol
○ b. File Transmission Protocol
○ c. Fast Transfer Protocol
○ d. Fast Transmission Protocol
5. Which email protocol is used to retrieve emails from a mail server?
○ a. SMTP
○ b. FTP
○ c. IMAP
○ d. HTTP
6. Which protocol is used for sending emails?
○ a. POP3
○ b. SMTP
○ c. IMAP
○ d. FTP
7. What is the purpose of the HTTP protocol?
○ a. To transfer files between a client and a server
○ b. To send emails
○ c. To retrieve web pages from a web server
○ d. To dynamically assign IP addresses
8. Which protocol allows remote login to a network device?
○ a. FTP
○ b. SSH
○ c. HTTP
○ d. DNS
9. Which port number is used by HTTPS?
○ a. 80
○ b. 25
○ c. 443
○ d. 22
10. Which protocol is used for secure web browsing?
○ a. HTTP
○ b. HTTPS
○ c. FTP
○ d. DNS
11. What does DHCP stand for?
○ a. Dynamic Host Control Protocol
 ○ b. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
○ c. Dynamic Hypertext Control Protocol
○ d. Dynamic Hypertext Configuration Protocol
12. Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to devices on a
network?
○ a. DNS
○ b. DHCP
○ c. FTP
○ d. HTTP
13. Which layer of the OSI model handles data encryption and decryption?
○ a. Network Layer
○ b. Data Link Layer
○ c. Presentation Layer
○ d. Application Layer
14. Which protocol uses port 21?
○ a. HTTP
○ b. FTP
○ c. SMTP
○ d. DNS
15. What is the main function of the session layer?
○ a. Establishing, maintaining, and terminating sessions
○ b. Data compression
○ c. Data encryption
○ d. Routing data packets
16. Which protocol provides a way to share files between different operating systems
on a network?
○ a. DNS
○ b. SMB
○ c. HTTP
○ d. DHCP
17. What does IMAP stand for?
○ a. Internet Mail Access Protocol
○ b. Internet Message Access Protocol
○ c. Internal Mail Access Protocol
○ d. Internal Message Access Protocol
18. Which protocol is used to remotely manage and configure network devices
securely?
○ a. Telnet
○ b. FTP
○ c. SSH
○ d. HTTP
19. What is the purpose of the TFTP protocol?
○ a. To transfer files between a client and a server
○ b. To retrieve emails from a server
 ○ c. To translate domain names to IP addresses
○ d. To dynamically assign IP addresses
20. Which protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network?
○ a. FTP
○ b. SMTP
○ c. NTP
○ d. HTTP
21. Which layer of the OSI model provides services directly to end-user applications?
○ a. Network Layer
○ b. Transport Layer
○ c. Application Layer
○ d. Data Link Layer
22. Which protocol uses port 53?
○ a. HTTP
○ b. FTP
○ c. DNS
○ d. SMTP
23. What is the main function of the DNS protocol?
○ a. To dynamically assign IP addresses
○ b. To transfer files between a client and a server
○ c. To translate domain names into IP addresses
○ d. To retrieve web pages from a web server
24. Which protocol allows users to access their email from a remote server?
○ a. FTP
○ b. HTTP
○ c. SMTP
○ d. IMAP
25. Which port is used by the SMTP protocol?
○ a. 25
○ b. 80
○ c. 21
○ d. 53
26. Which protocol is used to ensure secure communications over a computer
network?
○ a. HTTP
○ b. FTP
○ c. SSH
○ d. DNS
27. What is the primary purpose of the Telnet protocol?
○ a. To transfer files
○ b. To remotely access network devices
○ c. To send emails
○ d. To encrypt data
28. Which protocol is used for secure file transfer over a network?
 ○ a. FTP
○ b. HTTP
○ c. SFTP
○ d. SMTP
29. Which protocol operates at the application layer and is used to transfer web
pages?
○ a. FTP
○ b. DNS
○ c. HTTP
○ d. SMTP
30. What is the purpose of the POP3 protocol?
○ a. To send emails
○ b. To retrieve emails from a server
○ c. To translate domain names into IP addresses
○ d. To transfer files

Chapter: Build a Small Network

1. What is a key factor to consider when selecting network devices for a small
network?
○ a. Cost
○ b. Speed and types of ports/interfaces
○ c. Expandability
○ d. All of the above
2. Which device is commonly used to connect multiple devices within a small
network?
○ a. Router
○ b. Switch
○ c. Modem
○ d. Firewall
3. What is the primary purpose of a router in a small network?
○ a. To connect devices within the same network
○ b. To connect different networks together
○ c. To provide wireless
○ d. To amplify signals
4. Which protocol is commonly used for remote access to network devices?
○ a. FTP
○ b. HTTP
○ c. Telnet
○ d. DNS
5. What does the term 'redundancy' refer to in network design?
○ a. Increasing network bandwidth
○ b. Eliminating single points of failure
○ c. Encrypting data
 ○ d. Establishing secure connections
6. Which command is used to verify connectivity between two network devices?
○ a. tracert
○ b. ipconfig
○ c. ping
○ d. netstat
7. What does the term 'QoS' stand for?
○ a. Quality of Service
○ b. Quantity of Service
○ c. Quality of Security
○ d. Quantity of Security
8. Which protocol dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network?
○ a. DNS
○ b. DHCP
○ c. FTP
○ d. HTTP
9. What is the purpose of a firewall in a network?
○ a. To connect different networks
○ b. To block unauthorized access
○ c. To provide wireless connectivity
○ d. To amplify signals
10. Which device is used to extend the range of a wireless network?
○ a. Router
○ b. Switch
○ c. Access Point
○ d. Firewall
11. What is the main function of the 'tracert' command?
○ a. To verify IP address configuration
○ b. To trace the path packets take to a destination
○ c. To display current TCP/IP network connections
○ d. To test network speed
12. Which tool is used to capture and analyze network traffic?
○ a. Wireshark
○ b. Telnet
○ c. FTP
○ d. DHCP
13. What is the primary purpose of an IP addressing scheme in a small network?
○ a. To encrypt data
○ b. To uniquely identify devices on the network
○ c. To increase network bandwidth
○ d. To establish secure connections
14. Which command is used to display the IP address configuration on a
Windows-based computer?
○ a. tracert
 ○ b. ping
○ c. ipconfig
○ d. netstat
15. What does the term 'WAN' stand for?
○ a. Wide Area Network
○ b. Wireless Access Network
○ c. Wired Access Network
○ d. Wide Access Network
16. Which device is used to provide internet access to multiple devices in a small
network?
○ a. Router
○ b. Switch
○ c. Access Point
○ d. Firewall
17. What is the purpose of network documentation?
○ a. To provide a physical and logical topology of the network
○ b. To encrypt data
○ c. To increase network bandwidth
○ d. To establish secure connections
18. Which command is used to display the routing table on a router?
○ a. tracert
○ b. ipconfig
○ c. show ip route
○ d. ping
19. What does the term 'latency' refer to in a network?
○ a. The amount of data that can be transmitted
○ b. The time it takes for a packet to travel from source to destination
○ c. The speed of data transmission
○ d. The strength of the network signal
20. Which protocol is used to ensure data is transmitted securely over a network?
○ a. HTTP
○ b. FTP
○ c. SSH
○ d. DNS
21. What is the main function of a network switch?
○ a. To route data packets between different networks
○ b. To connect multiple devices within the same network
○ c. To provide wireless connectivity
○ d. To encrypt data
22. Which protocol is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses?
○ a. DNS
○ b. DHCP
○ c. ARP
○ d. HTTP
 23. What is the purpose of a VLAN in a network?
○ a. To provide internet access
○ b. To segment a network into smaller, more manageable pieces
○ c. To increase network bandwidth
○ d. To encrypt data
24. Which protocol is used to monitor network devices?
○ a. DNS
○ b. DHCP
○ c. SNMP
○ d. HTTP
25. What does the term 'bandwidth' refer to in a network?
○ a. The amount of data that can be transmitted in a given time period
○ b. The time it takes for a packet to travel from source to destination
○ c. The strength of the network signal
○ d. The number of devices connected to the network
26. Which command is used to test the reachability of a host on an IP network?
○ a. tracert
○ b. ipconfig
○ c. ping
○ d. netstat
27. What is the primary function of the 'ipconfig' command?
○ a. To display current TCP/IP network connections
○ b. To verify IP address configuration
○ c. To trace the path packets take to a destination
○ d. To test network speed
28. Which protocol is used to transfer files between a client and a server securely?
○ a. FTP
○ b. SFTP
○ c. HTTP
○ d. DNS
29. What is the purpose of the 'netstat' command?
○ a. To display current TCP/IP network connections
○ b. To verify IP address configuration
○ c. To trace the path packets take to a destination
○ d. To test network speed
30. Which protocol is used to manage IP multicast traffic?
○ a. DNS
○ b. DHCP
○ c. IGMP
○ d. HTTP

Chapter: Network Security Fundamentals

1. What is the primary purpose of network security?

 ○ a. To increase network bandwidth
○ b. To protect data and resources from unauthorized access
○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed
2. What does the term 'malware' refer to?
○ a. Legitimate software
○ b. Malicious software designed to damage or disrupt systems
○ c. Hardware devices
○ d. Network protocols
3. Which type of attack aims to disrupt the availability of a network service?
○ a. Phishing
○ b. Denial-of-Service (DoS)
○ c. Man-in-the-Middle
○ d. Spoofing
4. What is the purpose of a firewall in a network?
○ a. To connect different networks
○ b. To block unauthorized access
○ c. To provide wireless connectivity
○ d. To amplify signals
5. What does the term 'phishing' refer to?
○ a. A technique used to steal sensitive information by pretending to be a
trustworthy entity
○ b. A method to increase network speed
○ c. A protocol for transferring files
○ d. A network design principle
6. Which protocol is used to encrypt data for secure transmission over a network?
○ a. HTTP
○ b. FTP
○ c. SSL/TLS
○ d. DNS
7. What is a common method to prevent unauthorized access to a network?
○ a. Increase bandwidth
○ b. Use strong passwords
○ c. Reduce network traffic
○ d. Disable network devices
8. What does the term 'encryption' refer to in network security?
○ a. The process of converting data into a code to prevent unauthorized
access
○ b. The process of increasing network speed
○ c. The process of transferring files
○ d. The process of routing data packets
9. What is the primary purpose of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
○ a. To increase network bandwidth
○ b. To detect and respond to potential security breaches
 ○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed
10. What does the term 'spoofing' refer to in network security?
○ a. A technique used to disguise a communication from an unknown source
as being from a known, trusted source
○ b. A method to increase network speed
○ c. A protocol for transferring files
○ d. A network design principle
11. Which type of malware replicates itself and spreads to other computers?
○ a. Trojan
○ b. Worm
○ c. Adware
○ d. Spyware
12. What is the primary function of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
○ a. To provide internet access
○ b. To create a secure connection over a public network
○ c. To increase network bandwidth
○ d. To enhance network speed
13. Which security measure helps ensure that data is only accessible to authorized
users?
○ a. Authentication
○ b. Bandwidth management
○ c. Network segmentation
○ d. Routing
14. What does the term 'firewall' refer to in network security?
○ a. A software or hardware device that blocks unauthorized access to a
network
○ b. A technique to increase network speed
○ c. A protocol for transferring files
○ d. A network design principle
15. What is the primary purpose of a demilitarized zone (DMZ) in network security?
○ a. To provide a buffer zone between a private network and the internet
○ b. To increase network bandwidth
○ c. To enhance network speed
○ d. To transfer files securely
16. What does the term 'social engineering' refer to in network security?
○ a. The use of deception to manipulate individuals into divulging
confidential information
○ b. The process of increasing network speed
○ c. The process of routing data packets
○ d. The process of transferring files
17. Which type of attack involves intercepting and altering communication between
two parties?
○ a. Phishing
 ○ b. Man-in-the-Middle
○ c. Denial-of-Service (DoS)
○ d. Spoofing
18. What is the primary function of antivirus software?
○ a. To increase network bandwidth
○ b. To detect and remove malicious software
○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed
19. Which type of security attack exploits vulnerabilities in software to gain
unauthorized access?
○ a. Phishing
○ b. Man-in-the-Middle
○ c. Exploit
○ d. Spoofing
20. What is the purpose of a network access control (NAC) system?
○ a. To increase network bandwidth
○ b. To control access to network resources based on policies
○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed
21. Which protocol is used to securely transfer files over a network?
○ a. FTP
○ b. SFTP
○ c. HTTP
○ d. DNS
22. What does the term 'zero-day exploit' refer to?
○ a. An attack that occurs on the first day of the month
○ b. A previously unknown vulnerability that is exploited before it can be
patched
○ c. A method to increase network speed
○ d. A protocol for transferring files
23. What is the primary purpose of encryption in network security?
○ a. To increase network bandwidth
○ b. To protect data by converting it into a code
○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed
24. Which type of attack involves overwhelming a system with a flood of traffic to
render it unusable?
○ a. Phishing
○ b. Denial-of-Service (DoS)
○ c. Man-in-the-Middle
○ d. Spoofing
25. What is the purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
○ a. To increase network bandwidth
○ b. To enhance security by requiring multiple forms of verification
 ○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed
26. What does the term 'ransomware' refer to in network security?
○ a. Malicious software that encrypts files and demands payment for their
release
○ b. A protocol for transferring files
○ c. A technique to increase network speed
○ d. A network design principle
27. Which type of attack involves tricking users into clicking on malicious links?
○ a. Phishing
○ b. Man-in-the-Middle
○ c. Denial-of-Service (DoS)
○ d. Spoofing
28. What is the primary purpose of a security information and event management
(SIEM) system?
○ a. To increase network bandwidth
○ b. To provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network
hardware and applications
○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed
29. What does the term 'ethical hacking' refer to?
○ a. Using hacking techniques to improve network security
○ b. Increasing network bandwidth
○ c. Routing data packets
○ d. Transferring files securely

30. What is the primary purpose of access control lists (ACLs) in network
security?

○ a. To increase network bandwidth

○ b. To define who or what is allowed to access resources
○ c. To provide internet access
○ d. To enhance network speed