M. Marks : 720 Test–4 (RE-NEET Test Series) Time : 3.00 Hrs.

For XII & XII Passed

Topics covered in various subjects:
Physics : Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations, Waves
Chemistry : Organic Chemistry-(Some Basic Principles and Techniques), Hydrocarbons
Biology : Bot. : Photosynthesis in Plants, Respiration in Plants
Zoo. : Excretory Products and Their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement, Neural
Control and Coordination
Important Instructions:
I. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for marking response.
II. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
III. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
IV. Right way of filling Roll No. in OMR is for example if Roll No. is 12120:

V. Use of white-fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.

VI. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
VII. Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
VIII. There are two sections in each subject i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)______________________Roll Number : in figures___________________

Candidate’s Signature :___________________________Invigilator’s Signature :________________________

Space for Rough Work (1/28)

SECTION - A (Physics) (D) y = 0.5 cos (t + x)
Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right
4. The equation y = 4 + 2 sin (6t - 3x) represents a
way of filling this answer in OMR is:
wave motion with

(A) amplitude 6 units (B) amplitude 4 units

1. Two thermometers X and Y have ice points
marked at 15° and 25° and steam points marked as (C) wave speed 2 units (D) wave speed 1/2 units
75° and 125° respectively. When thermometer X
5. Figure shows the temperature variation when
measures the temperature of a bath as 60° on it, heat is added continuously to a specimen of ice (10
what would thermometer Y read when it is used to
g) at 40 °C at constant rate.
measure the temperature of the same bath ?
(Specific heat of ice = 0.53 cal/g °C and Lice = 80
(A) 60° (B) 75°
cal/g, Lwater= 540 cal/g)
(C) 100° (D) 90°

2. The figure below shows four isotropic solids

having positive coefficient of thermal expansion. A
student predicts that on heating the solid following
things can happen. Mark true (T) or False (F) for
comments made by the student.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Value of Q1 (in cal) (P) 800
(B) Value of Q2 (in cal) (Q) 1000
(i) The angle a in figure (A) will not change. (C) Value of Q3 (in cal) (R) 5400
(D) Value of Q4 (in cal) (S) 212
(ii) The length of line in figure (B) will decrease. (T) 900
(A) AS; BP; CQ; DT
(iii) The radius of inner hole will decrease.
(B) AP; BS; CQ; DR
(iv) The distance AB will increase.
(C) AP; BS; CR; DQ
(A) T F F T (B) F T T F
(D) AS; BP; CQ; DR
(C) T T T T (D) F F T F
6. The figure shows an instantaneous profile of a
3. A plane progressive wave is represented by the
rope carrying a progressive wave moving from left
equation y = 0.25 cos (2t  2x). The equation of
to right, then
a wave is with double the amplitude and half
frequency but travelling in the opposite direction
will be.

(A) y = 0.5 cos (t  x)

(B) y = 0.5 cos (2t + 2x)

(C) y = 0.25 cos (t + 2x)

Space for Rough Work (2/28)

(A) the phase at A is greater than the phase at B 10. Intensities ratio of two waves are 9:1 then the
ratio of their maximum and minimum intensities
(B) the phase at B is greater than the phase at A will be:-
(C) A is moving upwards (A) 10 : 8 (B) 7 : 2
(D) B is moving upwards (C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
(A) a & c (B) a & d 11. What is the path difference for destructive
Interference?
(C) b & c (D) b & d
(A) n  (B) n(  1)
7. Newton's formula for the velocity of sound in
gases is : (n  1) (2n  1)
(C) (D)
2 2
2p p
(A) v  (B) v 
  12. A black body at 200 K is found to emit
maximum energy at a wavelength 14 mm. When
 3 p its temperature is raised to 1000 K, then
(C) v  (D) v 
p 2  wavelength at which maximum energy emitted is :

8. The figure shows the face and interface (A) 14 m (B) 15 m

temperature of a composite slab containing of four
(C) 2.8 m (D) 28 m
layers of two materials having identical thickness.
Under steady state condition, find the value of 13. The variation of PV graph with V of a fixed
temperature . mass of a ideal gas at constant temperature is
graphically represented as shown in figure :

(A) (B)
(A) 5°C (B) 10°C

(C) 15°C (D) 15°C

9. The original temperature of a black body is

727°C. Calculate temperature at which total
(C)
radiant energy from this black body becomes
double :

(A) 971 K (B) 1190 K

(C) 2001 K

(D) 1458 K (D)

Space for Rough Work (3/28)

14. The end correction of resonance tube is 1 cm. (C) both (1) & (2) (D) (1), (2), (3), (4)
If lowest resonant length is 15 cm then next
resonant length will be :- 19. The period of oscillation of a mass M
suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If
(A) 36 cm (B) 45 cm along with it another mass M is also suspended,
the period of oscillation will now be :-
(C) 46 cm (D) 47 cm
(A) 2T (B) T
15. If the fundamental frequency for a COP is n,
then the next three overtones will have ratio :- T
(C) (D) 2T
(A) 2 : 3 : 4 (B) 3 : 4 : 5 2

(C) 3 : 7 : 11 (D) 3 : 5 : 7 20. Two particles are oscillating along two close
parallel straight lines side by side, with the same
16. The root mean square velocity of the frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other,
molecules of an ideal gas is :- moving in opposite directions when their
displacement is half of the amplitude. The phase
(A) RT / Mw (B) 3RT / Mw difference is:-

π
(C) 3RTMw (D) RT / 3Mw (A)
6
17. The r.m.s. speed of a gas molecule is 300 m/s.
(B) 0
Calculate the r.m.s. speed if the molecular weight
is doubled while the temperature is halved- 2π
(C)
3
(A) 300 m/s (B) 150 m/s
(D) π
(C) 600 m/s (D) 75 m/s
21. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end
18. A spring has natural length 40 cm and spring
of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring
constant 500 N/m. A block of mass 1 kg is attached
has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly
at one end of the spring and others end of the
pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time
spring is attached to the wall in horizontal position.
period of 3s. When the mass m is increased by 1
The block release from the position, where the
kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The
spring has length 45 cm then choose the correct
value of m in kg is :-
statements :
16
(1) The block will perform SHM of amplitude 5 cm (A)
9
(2) The block will have maximum velocity 50 5 9
cm/sec. (B)
16
(3) The block will have maximum acceleration at 3
released position (C)
4
(4) The minimum P.E. of the spring will be zero 4
(D)
(A) only (1) (B) only (2) 3

Space for Rough Work (4/28)

22. The root mean square speed of the molecules now changed to 400 meter then the beats/second
of a gas is : heard by observer will be:

(A) Independent of its pressure but directly (A) 2 (B) 4

proportional to its Kelvin temperature
(C) 8 (D) 16
(B) Directly proportional to the square roots of
both its pressure and its Kelvin temperature 27. The work by an ideal monoatomic gas along
the cyclic path LMNOL is
(C) Independent of its pressure but directly
proportional to the square root of its Kelvin
temperature

(D) Directly proportional to both its pressure and

its Kelvin temperature

23. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule at

270C is 6.21 × 10-21 J. Its average kinetic energy at
2270C will be
(A) PV
-21 -21
(A) 52.2 × 10 J (B) 5.22 × 10 J
(B) 2PV
-21 -21
(C) 10.35 × 10 J (D) 11.35 × 10 J
(C) 3 PV
0
24. At 27 C temperature, the kinetic energy of an (D) 4 PV
ideal gas is E1. If the temperature is increased to
3270C, then kinetic energy would be 28. The equation of motion of a particle executing
1
 d2x 
(A) 2E1 (B) E1 SHM is  2   kx  0. The time period of the
2  dt 
particle will be:
1
(C) 2E1 (D) E1
2 (A) 2 / k

25. A source of sound of frequency 1000 Hz is (B) 2 / k

moving with a uniform velocity 20 m/s. The ratio of
apparent frequency heard by the observer before (C) 2k
and after the source crosses him would be :
(D) 2 k
[v= 340 m/s]
29. Which of the following equation does not
(A) 9 :8 (B) 8:9 represent a simple harmonic motion :
(C) 1:1 (D) 9:10 (A) y = asint
26. Two sound sources (of same frequency) are (B) y = bcost
placed at distance of 100 meter. An observer,
when moving between both sources, hears 4 beats (C) y = asint + bcost
per second. The distance between sound source is
(D) y = atant

Space for Rough Work (5/28)

30. A system is taken along the paths A and B as
shown. If the amounts of heat given in these
processes are QA and QB and change in internal
energy are UA and UB respectively then :-

(i)

(A) QA = QB; UA < UB

(B) QA QB; UA = UB (ii)

(C) QA < QB; Uv > UB

(D) QA > QB; UA = UB

31. The equation of a simple harmonic motion is x

= 0.34cos(3000t + 0.74). Where x and t are in mm
and sec. respectively. The frequency of the motion (iii)
is :

(A) 3000

(B) 3000/2

(C) 0.74/2
(iv)
(D) 3000/
(A) Positive in all cases (i) to (iv)
32. The acceleration of a particle executing S.H.M.
is (B) Positive in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case
(iv)
(A) Always directed towards the equillibrium
position (C) Negative in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case
(iv)
(B) Always towards the one end
(D) Zero in all the four cases
(C) Continuously changing in direction
34. A particle executes SHM of type x = asint. It
(D) Maximum at the mean position
a a
takes time t1 from x = 0 to x = and t2 from x =
33. In the diagrams (i) to (iv) of variation of volume 2 2
with changing pressure is shown. A gas is taken to x = a. The ratio of t1 : t2 will be :
along the path ABCDA. The change in internal
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
energy of the gas will be:-
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 1
Space for Rough Work (6/28)
35. The time taken by a particle in SHM for (C) v 0 3 / 2 (D) v 0 3 / 2
maximum displacement is :
40. At a particular position the velocity of a particle
(A) T/8 (B) T/6
in SHM with amplitude a is 3 /2 that at its mean
(C) T/2 (D) T/4 position. In this position, its displacement is :

SECTION - B (Physics) (A) a/2 (B) 3 a/2

Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right
way of filling this answer in OMR is: (C) a 2 (D) 2a

41. A gas speciman in one vessel is expended

isothermally to double its volume and a similar
36. For monoatomic gas the relation between specimen in the second vessel is expanded
pressure of a gas and temperature T is given by P adiabatically the same extent, then :
 TC. Then value of C will be : (For adiabatic
(A) In the second vessel, both pressure and work
process)
done are more
5 2
(A) (B) (B) In the second vessel, pressure in more, but the
3 5
work done is less.
3 5
(C) (D) (C) In the first vessel, both pressure & work done
5 2
are more.
37. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T1
(D) In the first vessel, pressure is more, but work
P
expends according to the law 2 = a (constant). done is less
V
The work done by the gas till temperature of gas 42. An ideal gas is taken round the cycle ABCA. In
becomes T2 is : the cycle the amount of work done involved is :–
1 1 (A) 12 P1V1
(A) RT2  T1  (B) RT2  T1 
2 3
(B) 6 P1V1
1 1
(C) RT2  T1  (D) R T2  T1 
4 5 (C) 3 P1V1

38. The phase difference in radians between (D) P1V1

displacement and velocity in S.H.M. is :
43. The volume of a gas expands by 0.25 m3 at a
(A) /4 (B)  /2 constant pressure of 103 N/m2 . The work done is
equal to
(C)  (D) 2
(A) 2.5 erg
39. If the maximum velocity of a particle in SHM is
v0. then its velocity at half the amplitude from (B) 250 J
position of rest will be :
(C) 250 W
(A) v0/2 (B) v0
(D) 250 N

Space for Rough Work (7/28)

  4
44. The volume of a poly-atomic gas    
 3
1
compressed adiabatically to th of the original
8
volume. If the original pressure of the gas is P0 the
new pressure will be : (A) UB  UA > 0 (B) UC  UA = 0
(A) 8 P0 (B) 16 P0
(C) UD  UA < 0 (D) UB = UC = U D
(C) 6 P0 (D) 2 P0
49. According to the second law of
45. The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is x = thermodynamics :
asint. Which of the following graph between (A) heat energy cannot be completely converted to
displacement and time is correct : work

(B) work cannot be completely converted to heat

energy

(C) for all cyclic processes we have dQ/T < 0

(D) the reason all heat engine efficiencies are less

than 100% is friction, which is unavoidable

50. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal of heat from

reservoir at 627°C and gives it to a sink at 27°C.
(A) A (B) B Then work done by the engine is

(C) C (D) D (A) 4.2 × 106 J (B) 8.4 × 106 J

46. The total energy of a particle executing SHM is (C) 16.8 × 106 J
directly proportional to the square of the following
quantity : (D) zero

(A) Acceleration (B) Amplitude SECTION - A (Chemistry)

Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right
(C) Time period (D) Mass way of filling this answer in OMR is:
47. The total energy of a vibrating particle in SHM
is E. If its amplitude and time period are doubled,
its total energy will be :
51. The intermediate in the Electrophilic addition–
(A) 16E (B) 8E reaction is :-

(C) 4E (D) E (A) Carbocation

48. A gas is expanded from volume V1 to volume V2 (B) Carbanion

in three processes, shown in the figure. If UA, UB,
UC and UD represent the internal energies of the (C) Free radical
gas in state A,B, C and D respectively, the which of
the following is not correct (D) Carbene
Space for Rough Work (8/28)
52. Which of the following is not the product of
dehydration of

(D)
? 56. The correct statements are :

(A) (B)

(A) The product A is major

(C) (D)
(B) Formation of A follows markovnikov rule
53. 3–Phenyl propene on reaction with HBr gives
(C) Carbocation formed in A is less stable than that
(as a major product)
formed in B
(A) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3 (B) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3
(D) Formation of B follows markovnikov rule
(C) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (D) C6H5CH(Br)CH = CH2
(A) c, d (B) a, b, c, d
54. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence
(C) a, b (D) a, d
of peroxide gives
57. Predict the correct intermediate and product in
(A) 3–bromo propane (B) Allyl bromide
the following reaction :
(C) n–propyl bromide (D) Isopropyl bromide

55. Which one of the following is most reactive

towards electrophilic reagent?

(A)
(A)

(B)

(B)
(C)

(C) (D)
Space for Rough Work (9/28)
58.

Major product
The major product is

(A)

(A)

(B)

(B)
(C)

(D) Both (A) and (B)

59. Which of the following can be used as the

halide component for Friedel-Crafts rection? (C)

(A) Chlorobenzene (B) Bromobenzene

(C) Chloroethene (D) Isopropyl chloride

60. What is the major product of the following (D)

reaction:
62. Which of the following can not be A?

(A) (B)
(A)

(C) (D)

61. In the following reaction (B) (C)

Space for Rough Work (10/28)

 concentration of each monobasic acid is 0.1 M.
Which of the following has been arranged in
increasing order of pH?

(D) (A) C < B < A (B) A < B < C

(C) B < C < A (D) B < A < C

63. Predict the product C obtained in the following
reaction of 1-butyne. 67. Which one of the following is a free-radical
substitution reaction?

(A)

(A) (B)

(B) (C)

(D) CH3CHO + HCN  CH3CH(OH)CN

68. Which of the following molecules is least

resonance stabilised?
(C)

(D) (A) (B)

–3
64. Conjugate acid of PO4 is

(A) H3PO4 (B) H3PO4–

(C) HPO4–2 (D) HPO3–

(C) (D)
65. Products of the following reaction :
69. What will be the H+ concentration in a solution
prepared by mixing 50.0 ml of 0.20 M NaCl, 25 ml
of 0.10 M NaOH and 25.0 ml of 0.30 M HCl?

(A) CH3COOH + CO2 (A) 0.5 M (B) 0.05 M

(B) CH3COOH + HOOC.CH2CH3 (C) 0.02 M (D) 0.10 M

(C) CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO 70. If an aqueous solution at 25°C, has twice as

many OH– as pure water, its pOH will be
(D) CH3COOH + CH3COCH3
(A) 6.7 (B) 7.3
66. The dissociation constant of monobasic acids
A, B and C are 10–4, 10–6 and 10–10 respectively. The (C) 7 (D) 6.98
Space for Rough Work (11/28)
71. The order of stability of the following (A) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
carbocations
(B) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)

(C) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)

(D) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)

76. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of the

following orbitals
(A) III > II > I (B) II > III > I
(A)  (B)  p
(C) I > II > III (D) III > I > II
(C) p p (D)   
72. Arrange the following compounds in the order
of decreasing acidity 77. The Kc for given reaction will be

A2 (g) + 2B(g) C(g) + 2D(s)

(A) K 
CD2
A2 B2
C
(B) K 
A2 B2
(A) II > IV > I > III (B) I > II > III > IV

(C) III > I > II > IV (D) IV > III > I > II (C) K 
A 2 B2
CD2
73. Solubility of AgCl in water, 0.01 M CaCl 2, 0.01
M NaCl and 0.05 M AgNO3 are S1, S2, S3 and S4 (D) K 
A2 B2
respectively, then, C
(A) S1 < S2 < S3 < S4 (B) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4 78. The correct stability order for the following
species is
(C) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4 (D) S1 > S3 > S4 > S2

74. pH of Ba(OH)2 solution is 12. Its solubility

product is

(A) 10–6 M3 (B) 4 × 10–6 M3

(C) 5 × 10–7 M3 (D) 5 × 10–6 M3

75. The correct acidity order of the following is (A) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)

(B) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)

(C) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)

(D) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

Space for Rough Work (12/28)

79. The correct order of basicities of the following N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
compounds is
1
(A) (B) R2T2
R2 T 2

R
(C) (D) RT
T

(A) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (B) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4

(C) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4 (D) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

80. In the given reaction :– 84. (isomeric

products) C5H11Cl

Fractional
 distillation
  M (isomeric products)

What are N and M?

(A) 6, 6 (B) 6, 4
[X] will be :
(C) 4, 4 (D) 3, 3

85. 4 g H2, 32 g O2, 14 g N2 and 11g CO2 are taken

in a bulb of 500 ml. Which one of these has
maximum active mass?
(A) (B)
(A) H2 (B) O2

(C) N2

(D) CO2
(C) (D)
SECTION - B (Chemistry)
81. Among the following, the strongest base is Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right
way of filling this answer in OMR is:
(A) C6H5NH2 (B) p-NO2C6H4NH2

(C) m-NO2—C6H4NH2 (D) C6H5CH2NH2

82. Among the following compounds, the strongest 86. Which one of the following has the smallest
acid is heat of hydrogenation per mole ?

(A) 1-butene
(A) HC CH (B) C6H6
(B) trans-2-butene
(C) C2H6 (D) CH3OH
(C) cis-2-butene
83. Kp is how many times equal to Kc for the given
reaction? (D) 1, 3-butadiene

Space for Rough Work (13/28)

87. How many chiral compounds are possible on 90. A monoprotic acid in a 0.1 M solution ionises to
mono chlorination of 2-methyl butane ? 0.001%. Its ionisation constant is

(A) 2 (B) 4 (A) 1.0 × 10–3 (B) 1.0 × 10–6

(C) 6 (D) 8 (C) 1.0 × 10–8 (D) 1.0 × 10–11

88. Consider the following reaction 91. Benzyl chloride (C6H5CH2Cl) can be prepared
from toluene by chlorination with

(A) SO2Cl2 (B) SOCl2

(C) Cl2 (D) NaOCl

Identify the structure of the major product X
92. (CH3)3CMgCl on reaction with D2O produces

(A) (CH3)3CD (B) (CH3)3OD

(C) (CD3)3CD (D) (CD3)3OD

(A)
93. 1 c.c of 0.1 N HCl is added to 1 litre solution of
sodium chloride. The pH of the resulting solution
will be
(B)
(A) 7 (B) 0

(C) 10 (D) 4

94. The number of optically active products

(C) obtained from the complete ozonolysis of the
given compound, is

(D)

89. Which of the following orders is correct for the

ease of electrophilic addition on these alkenes? (A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 4

95. The compound with highest boiling point is

(A) 2-methyl butane

(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (B) n-pentane

(C) III > I > II (C) 2, 2-dimethyl propane

(D) I > III > II (D) n-hexane

Space for Rough Work (14/28)
96. The following reactions are known to occur in 100. Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis?
the body
(A) NaCl (B) CH3COONa
+ –
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H + HCO3
(C) (NH4)2SO4 (D) H2CO3
If CO2 escapes from the system
SECTION - A (Botany)
(A) pH will decrease Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right
way of filling this answer in OMR is:
(B) Hydrogen ion concentration will diminish

(C) H2CO3 concentration will be promoted

(D) The forward reaction will be promoted 101. Correct equation that represents the
photolysis of water is
97. The reaction of propene with HOCl proceeds
via the addition of (A) 2H2O  4H+ + O2 + 4e–

(A) H+ in the first step (B) H2O  4H+ + O2 + 4e–

(B) Cl+ in the first step (C) 4H2O  4H+ + O2 + 4e–

(C) OH– in the first step (D) 2H2O  4H+ + 2O2 + 2e–

(D) Cl+ and OH– single step 102. Primary acceptor of TCA cycle is

98. Which of the following orders is correct for the (A) OAA
ease of electrophilic addition on these alkenes?
(B) Acetyl CoA

(C) Citric acid

(D) Pyruvic acid

103. Fumarase enzyme converts

(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I
(A) Succinic acid to malic acid
(C) II > I > III (D) III > I > II
(B) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
99. Which of the following orders is correct for the
(C) Fumaric acid to malic acid
ease of electrophilic addition on these substrates?
(D) Fumaric acid to citric acid

104. Mobile electrons carriers in ETS in

mitochondrial membrane are

(A) PQ, PC (B) CoQ, Cyt c

(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) PQ, Cyt c

(C) II > I > III (D) I > III > II (D) PC, CoQ

Space for Rough Work (15/28)

105. Slow oxidation of NADH occurs in 110. During which stage in the complete oxidation
of glucose are the greatest number of ATP
(A) Fermentation molecules formed from ADP?
(B) Aerobic respiration (A) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A
(C) Dicarboxylic acid cycle (B) Electron transport chain
(D) PPP (C) Glycolysis
106. Oxidative phosphorylation is (D) Krebs cycle
(A) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate 111. At the end of glycolysis, six carbon compound
group from a substrate to ADP ultimately changes into
(B) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP (A) Ethyl alcohol (B) Acetyl Co-A
(C) Addition of phosphate group to ATP (C) Pyruvic acid (D) ATP
(D) Formation of ATP by energy released from 112. In C4 plants, the process by which C4 acid is
electrons removed during substrate oxidation converted into C3 acid in the bundle sheath cell is
known as
107. The total requirement of ATP & NADPH for
each molecule of CO2 fixed & reduced in (A) carboxylation (B) regeneration
photosynthesis in the Calvin cycle is
(C) reduction
(A) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH (B) 2 ATP & 3 NADPH
(D) decarboxylation
(C) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH
113. In alcohol fermentation
(D) 4 ATP & 3 NADPH
(A) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while
108. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of
(B) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while
(A) bundle sheath (B) phloem pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor
(C) epidermis (D) mesophyll (C) There is no electron donor
109. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the (D) Oxygen is the electron acceptor
mitochondrial matrix except one which is located
in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes 114. Natural cytokinin is synthesized in all regions,
and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is: except
(A) Succinate dehydrogenase (A) Root apices
(B) Lactate dehydrogenase
(B) Developing shoot buds
(C) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(C) Old senescent leaves
(D) Malate dehydrogenase
(D) Young fruits

Space for Rough Work (16/28)

115. Match the following and choose the correct Reason : Light reaction results in formation of ATP
option from those given below. and NADPH2.

Column I Column II (A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
A. Molecular oxygen i. Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
- Ketoglutaric
acid (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
B. Electron acceptor ii. hydrogen Reason is not the correct explanation of the
acceptor Assertion.
C. Pyruvate iii. cytochrome C
dehydrogenase (C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. Decarboxylation iv. acetyl Co A
Options (D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

119. Assertion : Mitochondria helps in

(A) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-I (B) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
photosynthesis
(C) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (D) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii Reason : Mitochondria have enzymes for dark
reaction.
116. Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the
cell. Which of the following observations support (A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
this statement? Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(A) Mitochondria synthesise ATP (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(B) Mitochondria have a double membrane Assertion.

(C) The enzymes of the Krebs cycle are found in (C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
mitochondria. (D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(D) Mitochondria are found in almost all plants and 120. Both respiration and photosynthesis require
animal cells.
(A) Sunlight (B) Chlorophyll
117. Which of the following is not an influence of
phytohormone ethylene? (C) Glucose

(A) Fruit ripening (D) Cytochromes

(B) Formation of female flowers 121. Number of carbon atoms in acetyl CoA and
pyruvic acid are respectively
(C) Senescence
(A) 2 and 3
(D) Bolting
(B) 3 and 2
118. Assertion : 6 molecules of CO2 and 12
molecules of NADPH+ + H+ and 18 ATP are used to (C) 1 and 2
form one hexose molecule.
(D) 4 and 3

Space for Rough Work (17/28)

122. Which of the following are formed during 127. The essential role of air in the growth of green
light reaction in photosynthesis? plants was revealed by

(A) ATP and sugar (A) Priestley (B) Van Niel

(C) Blackmann (D) Emerson

(B) Hydrogen, O2 and sugar
128. Dark reaction of photosynthesis is
(C) ATP, NADPH2 and O2
characterised by
(D) ATP, hydrogen and CO2
(A) Enzymes that are temperature insensitive
123. Choose incorrect w.r.t. photosynthesis
(B) Its indirect dependency upon light
(A) It is a physico-chemical process
(C) Its location in chloroplast where no protein
(B) Oxygen is evolved as a by-product in all synthesis occur
photosynthetic organisms
(D) Its occurrence in thylakoid membrane
(C) Occurs in unicellular and multicellular
photoautotrophs 129. Photolysis of water releases protons and
oxygen. These protons get accumulated in
(D) Anabolic and reductive process

124. Moll’s half leaf experiment was done to show (A) Stroma of the chloroplast
_____ was required for photosynthesis.
(B) Plasma membrane of the cell
(A) H2O (B) Chlorophyll
(C) Lumen of the thylakoids
(C) Light (D) CO2
(D) Space between outer and inner membranes of
125. Which of the following exhibits the highest chloroplast
rate of respiration?
130. How many times the fixation of each carbon
(A) Growing shoot apex dioxide molecule occur during dark reaction of
photosynthesis in sugarcane?
(B) Germinating seed
(A) Once (B) Zero
(C) Root tip
(C) Twice (D) Thrice
(D) Leaf bud
131. Grana present in chloroplast refers to
126. The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration
in an aerobic organisms is: (A) Stroma lamellae

(A) Cytochrome (B) Oxygen (B) Stacks of quantasomes

(C) Hydrogen (C) Stacks of thylakoids

(D) Glucose (D) Double membranous envelope

Space for Rough Work (18/28)

132. The protons formed by splitting of water are 135. Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is
released in the catalysed by
(A) Lumen of the thylakoids (A) Phosphoglucomutase
(B) Outer side of the membrane
(B) Phosphoglucoisomerase
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Stroma of chloroplast
(D) Phosphorylase
133. Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from non-
cyclic photophosphorylation as latter involves SECTION - B (Botany)
Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right
(A) Splitting of H2O way of filling this answer in OMR is:

(B) Formation of NADPH + H+

(C) Formation of ATP

136. Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can
(D) Requirement of external electron source have many metabolic fates. Under aerobic
condition it forms
The correct one(s) is/are
(A) Lactic acid
(A) Only (A) and (B) (B) (A), (B) and (D)
(B) CO2 + H2O
(C) Only (B) and (C) (D) Only (C)
(C) Acetyl CoA + CO2
134. Read the following statements:
(D) Ethanol + CO2
(A) F0 part of ATPase is associated with breakdown
of proton gradient. 137. Which among the following is not a step in
Calvin cycle?
(B) A H-carrier contributes in creation of proton
gradient. (A) Carboxylation

(C) Movement of electrons in ETS is coupled to (B) Reduction

pumping of protons into the lumen.
(C) Photophosphorylation
(D) Formation of NADPH + H+ is related with the
creation of proton gradient. (D) Regeneration

How many of the above statements are correct? 138. The enzyme RuBP carboxylase

(A) Two (A) Activity occurs in C3 and C4 plants

(B) One (B) It present in inner thylakoid membrane

(C) Four (C) Is low temperature sensitive enzyme

(D) Three (D) Shows greater affinity for O2 than for CO2

Space for Rough Work (19/28)

139. Which one of the following is a C4 plant? (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(A) Papaya (B) Potato Assertion.
(C) Maize (D) Pea (C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
140. Which of the following statement is correct (D) If both Assertion and Reason are false
regarding the C4 plants?
145. ATP synthesis in chloroplast and mitochondria
(A) The carbon fixation is catalysed by PEP is due to proton gradient across the membrane.
carboxylase Select correct statement w.r.t. ATP formation in
chloroplast
(B) Mesophyll cells lack the RuBisCO enzyme
(A) Proton accumulates in lumen of thylakoid
(C) Photorespiration is absent
(B) Splitting of water occurs on inner side of
(D) More than one option is correct membrane
141. PEPcase and RuBisCO in C4 plants are present (C) Proton accumulates in stroma side of
respectively in chloroplast

(A) Cytoplasm and thylakoids (D) NADP reductase is located on stroma side of
membrane
(B) Stroma and cytoplasm
(A) Only (A) and (B) are correct
(C) Stroma and thylakoids
(B) Only (B) and (C) are correct
(D) Cytoplasm and stroma
(C) Only (C) and (D) are correct
142. A wasteful process which involves oxidation
of organic compounds in plants in presence of light (D) (A), (B) and (D) are correct
is called 146. The methodology, which has been most
(A) Photorespiration (B) PCR Cycle useful for investigating the Calvin cycle, is

(A) Radioactive isotope technique

(C) Hill’s reaction (D) Bioluminiscence
(B) Inverted funnel experiment
143. Which of the following would rarely be a
limiting factor for photosynthesis? (C) Half leaf experiment
(A) Chlorophyll (B) Light (D) Flash light experimental technique

(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Temperature 147. Sorghum and sugarcane plants show
saturation at about
144. Assertion : Mitochondria helps in
photosynthesis (A) 50% of full sunlight

Reason : Mitochondria have enzymes for dark (B) 10% of full sunlight
reaction
(C) 360 ppm of CO2
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(D) 500 ppm of CO2
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Space for Rough Work (20/28)
148. In photorespiration, release of CO2 occurs in (D) Both (B) & (C)

(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast 152. Choose the correct option corresponding to
labels a, b, c and d in the given diagram
(C) Peroxisomes (D) Glyoxisome

149. Which of the following is not a product of

light reaction of photosynthesis?

(A) ATP (B) NADH

(C) Oxygen (D) NADPH

150. Match the column-I with column-II and

choose the correct combination from the options
given below.

Column-I Column-II
A. Inner mitochondrial I. Krebs cycle
membrane
B. Pyruvic acid is II. ETC
converted into CO2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
and ethanol (A) H2 O H 2O HCO3 Uric acid
+
C. Cytoplasm III. Fermentation (B) HCO3 H 2O K Urea
D. Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis (C) NH3 NaCl H2 O Urea
(D) K+ NaCl H2 O H+
(A) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I 153. In crustaceans, the excretory functions are
performed by
(B) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(A) Antennal glands
(C) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(B) Green glands
(D) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(C) Both (A) & (B)
SECTION - A (Zoology)
Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right (D) Malpighian tubules
way of filling this answer in OMR is:
154. Which of the following organ systems jointly
coordinate and integrate all the activities of the
body organs?
151. The most toxic nitrogenous waste excreted by
many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and aquatic (A) Neural system and sensory system
insects is (B) Digestive system and respiratory system
(A) Ammonia (C) Neural system and endocrine system
(B) Urea (D) Circulatory system and respiratory system
(C) Uric acid
Space for Rough Work (21/28)
155. A :In the nervous system generation of action (B) Dependence on aerobic process of energy
potential depends upon influx of sodium ion into
axoplasm. (C) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum

R : Influx of sodium ion during nerve impulse (D) Thickness & length of actin & myosin filaments
generation is due to efflux of potassium ions.
160. Loop of Henle is found in
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (A) Green gland (B) Malpighian tubule

(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the (C) Neuron (D) Nephron
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion. 161. A : Sella tursica is located in the skull which
lodges the pituitary gland.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
R : It is a depression present in sphenoid bone.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
156. Identify the structures labelled as X, Y and Z in Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
the given figure
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.

(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Which of the above structure(s) masks the myosin (D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
binding site on actin filament during resting state?
162. Match the appropriate number of the bones
(A) X only (B) Y and Z associated with given structures and choose the
correct option
(C) X and Z (D) Y and Z
a. Limb bones (i) 12
157. Amoeba shows movement with help of b. Thoracic vertebrae (ii) 2
c. Hip girdle (iii) 30
(A) Pseudopodia (B) Flagella d. Lumbar vertebrae (iv) 5
(C) Cilia (D) Muscle (v) 3

158. Multipolar neurons are found in the (A) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (B) a(iii), b(i), c(v), d(iv)

(A) Retina of eye (B) Embryonic stage (C) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (D) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Cerebral cortex 163. Action potential is also termed as

159. The red and white muscle fibres can be (A) Nerve impulse (B) Reflex action
distinguished from each other on the basis of all
(C) Repolarisation
except
(D) Polarisation
(A) Amount of myoglobin

Space for Rough Work (22/28)

164. The receptors of neurotransmitters are 168. The part of human brain located between
present on/in the thalamus/ hypothalamus and pons is

(A) Pre-synaptic membrane (A) Forebrain (B) Midbrain

(B) Synaptic cleft (C) Hindbrain (D) Vestibular apparatus

(C) Post-synaptic membrane 169. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous

wastes is found in
(D) Ion channels
(A) reptiles and bird (B) birds and annelids
165. In the given diagram, identify A, B and C
(C) amphibians and reptiles

(D) insects and amphibians

170. Maximum water reabsorption in the presence

of aldosterone occurs in

(A) DCT (B) PCT

(C) Collecting duct

(D) Descending limb of loop of Henle

A B C 171. Ammonia is the main nitrogenous excretory

(A) Cerebellum Medulla Pons material in
(B) Cerebrum Medulla Pons
(C) Cerebrum Pons Olfactory (A) amphibians (B) turtles
lobe
(C) tadpoles
(D) Cerebrum Cerebrum Medulla
callosum (D) reptiles

166. The specialised cells that make the muscular 172. The macrophages in human body exhibit
tissue are
(A) ciliary movement
(A) Neuroblast (B) Osteoblast
(B) amoeboid movement
(C) Osteocytes (D) Myocytes
(C) no movement
167. The limbic system is formed by
(D) movement with the blood flow only
(A) The hypothalamus, epithalamus, amygdala and
hippocampus 173. Vasa recta is

(B) Hypothalamus, amygdala and hippocampus (A) L-shaped

(C) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus (B) U-shaped

(D) Midbrain and hindbrain (C) S-shaped

(D) V-shaped
Space for Rough Work (23/28)
174. A bundle of muscle fibre is called (A) Acetylcholine

(A) Fascia (B) Glenoid cavity (B) Acetylcholinesterases

(C) Myocyte (D) Fasciculus (C) Inositol-3 phosphate

175. Tendons connects (D) Diacylglycerol

(A) Muscle to bone 180. The structural and functional unit of myofibril
which contracts to cause movement is called
(B) Bone to vertebral column
(A) Sarcolemma (B) Sarcomere
(C) Bone to bone
(C) Fascia (D) Myosin
(D) Bone to cartilage
181. Which of the protein is not a part of thin
176. Hormone responsible for the absorption of myofilament?
water in DCT is
(A) Myosin (B) Actin
(A) Aldosterone (B) ACTH
(C) Troponin (D) Tropomyosin
(C) Oxytocin (D) Insulin
182. Striated muscle fibres are found in
177. Micturition is
(A) urinary bladder
(A) Removal of faecal matter
(B) lungs
(B) Removal of NH3
(C) gall bladder
(C) Removal of urea
(D) leg muscles
(D) Removal of urine
183. The parts of nephron situated in cortical
178. Suppose the terminal ends of axon are in region of kidney are
contact with dendrites of four adjacent neurons,
the nerve impulse of the axon will (A) Loop of Henle, PCT and collecting duct

(A) Travel in all the four neurons (B) Collecting duct, PCT and malpighian corpuscle

(B) Get distributed in all the four neurons resulting (C) PCT, DCT and Loop of Henle
in a weak impulse
(D) PCT, DCT and Malpighian corpuscle
(C) Travel only in one neuron which is in closest
contact and with the same intensity 184. Which of the following pairs is wrong?

(D) Travel in none of the neurons because the (A) Uricotelic – Birds
impulse travels from dendrites of one neuron into
(B) Ureotelic – Insects
the axon of another neuron
(C) Ammonotelic – Bony fishes
179. Axon endings release from its synaptic
vesicles, a neuro-transmitter substance known as (D) Ureotelic – Elephant

Space for Rough Work (24/28)

185. Which of the following structures or regions is (D) Corpus callosum-communication between the
incorrectly paired with its functions? left and the right cerebral cortices

(A) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and 190. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not
cardiovascular reflexes. cause the release of

(B) Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that (A) Renin

interconnect different regions of brain; controls
movement. (B) Atrial Natriuretic Factor

(C) Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left (C) Aldosterone (D) ADH
and right cerebral hemispheres.
191. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
(D) Hypothalamus : production of releasing activates
hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger
(A) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
and thirst.
(B) Juxtra glomerular cells to release renin
SECTION - B (Zoology)
Instruction : If your answer is 3, then the right (C) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
way of filling this answer in OMR is:
(D) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

192. Head of humerus articulates with _________

cavity
186. Number of floating ribs are
(A) Glenoid (B) Acetabulum
(A) 2 pairs (B) 12 pairs
(C) Foramen magnum (D) Obturator foramen
(C) 7 pairs (D) 3 pairs
193. The U-shaped bone present at the base of
187. The presence of glucose and ketone bodies in
buccal cavity is
urine are indicative of
(A) Skull (B) Hyoid
(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Diabetes insipidus
(C) Incus (D) Stapes
(C) Renal calculi (D) Glomerulonephritis
194. Which one of the following statements is
188. The nerves carrying impulses to CNS are
correct with respect to kidney function regulation?
known as
(A) During summer when body loses lot of water
(A) motor (B) efferent
by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed
(C) afferent (D) mixed
(B) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH
189. Which of the following regions of the brain is release is suppressed
incorrectly paired with its function?
(C) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH
(A) Cerebrum-calculation and contemplation release

(B) Medulla oblongata-homeostatic control (D) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates
formation of Angiotensin II
(C) Cerebellum-language comprehension
Space for Rough Work (25/28)
195. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and 198. In Myasthenia gravis ________ is affected.
secreted by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(A) Macula densa cells
(B) Sarcolemma
(B) Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(C) Neuromuscular junction
(C) Liver cells
(D) T-tubules
(D) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
199. Select the true statement
196. The longest bone of the thigh is
(A) A band is present in the middle of sarcomere
(A) Phalanges (B) Tarsal
(B) H zone is present in the middle of A - band
(C) Femur (D) Metatarsal
(C) M line is present in the middle of H - zone
197. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His
urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities (D) All of these
of:
200. The controlling centre of autonomic nervous
(A) Fats (B) Ketones system is

(C) Amino acids (A) hypothalamus (B) spinal cord

(D) Glucose (C) cerebellum (D) pons

Space for Rough Work (26/28)

Space for Rough Work (27/28)
Space for Rough Work (28/28)