ONE MARK AND

IMPORTANT QUESTION
AND ANSWER

Fwpf;Nfhs;:
midj;J khztu;fSk; mwptpay; ghlj;jpy; Nju;r;rp ngw Ntz;Lk;.
tpil vspikahfTk;> rupahfTk; ,Uf;f Ntz;Lk;.
khztu;fSf;F rpukj;ij Fiwf;Fk; Nehf;fj;jpy; ,Uf;f Ntz;Lk;.
muR nghJj;Nju;T tpilfs; (Key) mbg;gilapy; jahupf;fg;gl;Ls;sJ.

CONGRATS BY
B.LIBIN.,M.Sc.,M.Phil.,B.Ed.,
ST.JAMES.HR.SEC.SCHOOL,
PALAKURICHY - 621308
9443805408
1|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
 1. LAWS OF MOTION
I) Choose the correct answer:
1. Inertia of a body depends on
a) weight of the object b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
c) mass of the object d) Both a & b
2. Impulse is equals to
a) rate of change of momentum b) rate of force and time
c) change of momentum d) rate of change of mass
3. Newton’s III law is applicable
a) for a body is at rest b) for a body in motion
c) both a & b d) only for bodies with equal masses
4. Plotting a graph for momentum on the X-axis and time on Y-axis. Slope of momentum-time
graph gives
a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration c) Force d) Rate of force
5. In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
a) swimming b) tennis c) cycling d) hockey
6. The unit of ‘g’ is m s . It can be also expressed as
-2

a) cm s-1 b) N kg-1 c) N m2 kg-1 d) cm2 s-2

7. One kilogram force equals to
a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8 × 104 N c) 98 × 104 dyne d) 980 dyne
8. The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet of radius
half that of the Earth then its value will be ____ kg
a) 4 M b) 2M c) M/4 d) M
9. If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the weight of a body on
the Earth will
a) decrease by 50% b) increase by 50% c) decrease by 25% d) increase by 300%
10. To project the rockets which of the following principle(s) is /(are) required?
a) Newton’s third law of motion b) Newton’s law of gravitation
c) law of conservation of linear momentum d) both a and c
11. F be the force between the two bodies placed at a certain distance. If the distance between them
is doubled then the gravitational force F will be _________
a) 2F b) F/2 c) F/4 d) 4F
−2
12. The force required to produce an acceleration of 1 cm s on a body of mass 1 g is
a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 102 dyne d) 1 dyne

II) Answer briefly

1. Define inertia. Give its classification.
The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state (rest or motion), unless it is
influenced by an external unbalanced force.
Classification of Inertia
 Inertia of rest
 Inertia of motion
 Inertia of direction

2|Page DIXDAR 9443805408

2. Classify the types of force based on their application.
Types of Forces:
(i) Like parallel force
(ii) Unlike parallel force
3. Differentiate mass and weight.
Mass Weight
Fundamental quantity Derived quantity
Quantity of matter contained in the body Gravitational force exerted on it due to the
Earth's gravity
Its unit Kg Its unit Newton
It is a scalar quantity It is a vector quantity
It is measured using Physical balance. It is measured using spring balance.
4. State the principle of moments.
 Moment in clockwise direction = Moment in anticlockwise direction
F1 x d1 = F2 x d2
5. State Newton’s second law.
 The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear
momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the
force. 𝐅 = 𝒎𝒂
6. Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
 A spanner with a long handle give high torque with less force.
 So, the spanner has a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles.
7. While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
 Increase the time of contact
 Decrease the impulse
 Thus he pulls back his hand while catching the ball.
8. How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
 Space station and astronauts have equal acceleration, they are under free fall condition.
 Hence, both the astronauts and the space station are in the state of weightlessness.
III) Answer in detail :
1. What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
Three Types of Inertia
1. Inertia of rest
2. Inertia of motion
3. Inertia of direction
a) Inertia of rest: Ex : When you vigorously shake the branches
The resistance of a body to change its state of of a tree, some of the leaves and fruits are
rest detached and they fall down.
b) Inertia of motion: Ex : An athlete runs some distance before
The resistance of a body to change its state of jumping.
motion
c) Inertia of direction Ex : When you make a sharp turn while
The resistance of a body to change its direction driving a car, you tend to lean side ways.
of motion
3|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
2. State Newton’s laws of motion?
a) Newton's First law ( Law of inertia)
Everybody continues to be in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion along a straight
line unless it is acted upon by some external force.
b) Newton's second law (Law of Force)
The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum
of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force.
𝐅 = 𝒎𝒂
c) Newton's third law
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. They always act on two different bodies.
FB = - FA
3. Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion. (PTA – 5)
Newton's second law of motion
 The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of
the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force.
Derivation for the equation of force:
 Let 'm' be the mass of a moving body, moving along a straight line with an initial speed 'u'.
 After a time interval of 't' , velocity of the body changes to 'v' due to the impact of an
unbalanced external force 'F'
Initial momentum of the body Pi = mu ,
Final momentum of the body Pf = mv
Change in momentum ∆P = Pf − Pi ∆P = mv − mu
Change in momentum
F∝
time
mv−mu mv−mu
F∝ ,F=k
t t
K is proportionality constant , k = 1 in all systems of units.
mv−mu v−u
F= =m [ ];
t t
v−u
We know that, Acceleration a = : F = ma
t
𝐅𝐨𝐫𝐜𝐞 = 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 × 𝐚𝐜𝐜𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧

4. Describe rocket propulsion.

 Rocket propulsion is based on the Law of conservation of linear momentum and Newton’s
III law of motion.
 Rockets are filled with fuel in the propellant tank.
 When the rocket is fired, this fuel is burnt and a hot gas is ejected with a high speed from
the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge momentum.
 An equal and opposite reaction force is produced in the combustion chamber, which makes
the rocket project forward.
 In motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out.
 There is no net external force acting on it, and so the linear momentum of the system is
conserved.
 The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in gradual increase in velocity
of the rocket.
 At one stage, it reaches escape velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from the
gravitational pull of the Earth.

4|Page DIXDAR 9443805408

5. Give the applications of universal law of gravitation.
1) Heavenly bodies like stars and planets can be discovered and their dimensions and path can
also be measured using the gravitation law.
2) Mass of the Earth, radius of the Earth, acceleration due to gravity, etc. can be calculated
with a higher accuracy.
3) It maintains the motion of all the planets around the sun and moon around the earth.
4) It pulls all the object towards the earth so that we are not flying in atmosphere or space.
5) It helps to maintain the water flow in the rivers and seas.

2. OPTICS
I) Choose the correct answer:
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B,C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The
speed of light is maximum in
a) A b) B c) C d) D
2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens
a) f b) 2f c) infinity d) between f and 2f
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the
lens will produce
a) a convergent beam of light b) a divergent beam of light
c) a parallel beam of light d) a colored beam of light
4. Magnification of a convex lens is
a) Positive b) negative c) either positive or negative d) zero
5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at
a) focus b) infinity c) at 2f d) between f and 2f
6. Power of a lens is –4D, then its focal length is
a) 4m b) – 40m c) – 0.25 m d) – 2.5 m
7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed
a) behind the retina b) on the retina c) in front of the retina d) on the blind spot
8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by
a) convex lens b) concave lens c) convex mirror d) Bi focal lenses
9. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a
dictionary?
a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which
of the following statement gives the correct relation?
a) VB = VG = VR b) VB > VG >VR c) VB < VG < VR d) VB < VG > VR
11. The scattered light in Raman scattering contains _________ lines
a) Stoke’s b) Anti Stoke’s c) Rayleigh’s d) all the above
II) Answer briefly:
1. What is refractive index?
 The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is refractive index.
𝒄
 𝝁=𝒗

5|Page DIXDAR 9443805408

2. State Snell’s law.
 The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to
the ratio of refractive indices of the two media.
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒊 𝝁𝟐
=
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒓 𝝁𝟏
3. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed
between F and 2F.

4. Define dispersion of light

 When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such
as glass or water. It is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called dispersion
of light.
5. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering
 The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its
𝟏
wavelength. S ∝ 𝝀𝟒
6. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Convex lens Concave lens
1. Thicker in the middle than at edge 1. Thinner in the middle than at edge.
2. Converging lens 2. Diverging lens
3. It is used to treat Hypermeteropia 3. It is used to treat myopia
4. Produces mostly real images 4. Produces virtual images
7. What is power of accommodation of eye?
 The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called power of
accommodation of the eye.
8. What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
 The lengthening of eye ball.
 The image of distance objects are formed before retina.
9. Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
 Tthe blue colour of shorter wavelength is scattered to a great extent than the red colour of
longer wavelength.
 This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.
[

10. Why are traffic signals red in colour?

 Red light has longest wavelength.
 The Red light travels long distance. Therefore, red colour used in traffic signals.
11. Write the applications of Convex lenses?
 Used as camera lenses.
 Used as magnifying lenses.
 Used to correct the defect of vision called Hypermeteropia.
12. Write the application of concave lens? (Sep – 21)
 Used as eye lens of ‘Galilean Telescope’
 Used in wide angle spy hole in doors.
 Used to correct the defect of vision called myopia.
6|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
III. Give the answer in detail.
1. List any five properties of light.
 Light is a form of energy.
 Light always travels along a straight line.
 It can even travel through vacuum.
 The speed of light in air is C = 3 × 108 𝑚𝑠 −1
 Light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (𝜆) and a frequency (𝛾)
which are related by the following equation C = 𝜸 𝝀
 Among the visible light, violet light has the lowest wavelength, and red light has the highest
wavelength.
2. Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermeteropia
Myopia Hypermeteropia
Short sightedness Long sightedness.
Lengthening of eye ball Shortening of eye ball.
Nearby objects can be seen clearly Nearby objects cannot be seen clearly.
Distant objects cannot be seen clearly. Distant objects can be seen clearly
The image of distant objects are formed The image of nearby objects are formed
before retina. behind retina.
Corrected using concave lens. Corrected using convex lens.

3. THERMAL PHYSICS
I) Choose the correct answer:
1. The value of universal gas constant
a) 3.81 mol–1 K–1 b) 8.03 mol–1 K–1 c)1.38 mol–1 K–1 d) 8.31 mol–1 K–1
2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) none of the above
3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of
a) X or –X b) Y or –Y c) both (a) and (b) d) (a) or (b)
4. Temperature is the average ___________of the molecules of a substance
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E
c) difference in T.E and P.E d) difference in K.E and T.E
5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is
a) A←B, A←C, B ← 𝐂 b) A → B, A → C, B → C
c) A → B, A ← C, B → C d) A← B, A → C, B ← C
6. If a substance is heated or cooled, then the mass of that substance (PTA -1)
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) either increases or decreases
7. The co efficient of linear expansion depends on _______ (PTA -4)
a) original length b) increasing temperature c) nature of material d) a) and b)
8. Variation in dimensions of any object due to rise in temperature is called as ________ (PTA -5)
a) Thermal Expansion b) Thermal variation c) Thermal convection d) Evaporation
9. If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not interact with each other, then the gas is said to be ___
a) a real gas b) an ideal gas c) a noble gas d) a rare gas (PTA -6)

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10. The value of Avogadro number (Sep -20)
a) 6.023× 10−23 b) 6.023× 1024 c) 6.023× 𝟏𝟎 𝟐𝟑
d) 6.023× 10 −24

II. Answer briefly:

1. Define one calorie. (GMQ) (AUG -22) APR - 23)
 One calories is defined as the amount of heat energy required to rise the temperature of 1
gram of water through 1℃.
2. What is co-efficient of cubical expansion? (PTA – 6)
 The ratio of increase in volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit
volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion.
 The SI unit is K −1 .

3. State Boyle’s law. (GMQ) (MAY - 22) (JUN - 23)

 When the temperature of a gas is kept constants, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is
inversely proportional to its pressure.
𝟏
P∝ 𝑽 (i.e.) PV = constant.
4. State-the law of volume.
 When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to
the temperature of the gas.
𝑽 ∝ 𝑻 (or) 𝑽⁄𝑻 = constant

5. Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas. (JUN - 23)

Ideal gas Real gas
If the atoms or molecules of a gas do not If the molecule or atom of a gas interact with
interact with each other each other
Force of attraction is very weak Force of attraction is very high
Ideal gases obey Boyle’s law, Charles’s law Real gas does not obey Boyle’s law, Charles’s
and Avogadro’s law. law and Avogadro’s law.

6. What is co-efficient of real expansion? (SEP - 20)

 The ratio of the true rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to its
unit volume is called co-efficient of real expansion.
 The SI unit is K −1
7. What is co-efficient of apparent expansion? (APR - 24)
 The ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in temperature to
its unit volume is called co-efficient of apparent expansion.
 The SI unit is K −1 .
8. Define : co-efficient of linear expansion? (PTA -1)
 The ratio of the increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit
length is called co-efficient of linear expansion .
 The SI unit is K −1
9. State Avogadro‘s Law? (Sep -21)
 At constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to number
of atoms or molecules present in it.
𝐕
V∝ 𝐧 (or) = Constant
𝐧

8|Page DIXDAR 9443805408

III. Answer in detail :
1. Derive the ideal gas equation.
An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law, Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
According to Boyle’s law PV = Constant ……………(1)
V
According to Charles’s law = Constant …………….(2)
T
V
According to Avogadro’s law = Constant ……………..(3)
n
Combine these (1), (2) & (3) three equations
PV
= Constant
nT
∴ 𝐧 = 𝛍𝐍𝑨
𝑃𝑉
= Constant
𝜇N𝐴 𝑇
The Constant is taken to be 𝐾𝐵 (Boltzman constant)
𝑃𝑉 = 𝜇N𝐴 𝐾𝐵 𝑇
Here 𝜇N𝐴 𝐾𝐵 = 𝑅. (Universal Constant) R = 8.31 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 𝐾 −1
𝐏𝐕 = 𝐑𝐓

2. Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a
neat diagram.
 The liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be determined is
poured in container up to a level. Mark this level as L1 .
 Now, heat the container Initially the container receives the thermal
energy and it expands.
 Mark this reduced level of liquid as L2 .
 On further heating, the level of liquid rises to L3 .
 The difference between the levels L1 and 𝐿3 is called as apparent
expansion.
Apparent expansion = 𝐿3 = 𝐿1
 The difference between the levels L2 and L3 is called real expansion.
Real expansion = L3 − L2
 The real expansion is always more than that of apparent expansion.

4. ELECTRICITY
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following is correct?
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power b) Rate of change of charge is current
c) Rate of change of energy is current d) Rate of change of current is charge
2. SI unit of resistance is
a) mho b) joule c) ohm d) ohm meter
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
a) The switch produces electricity. b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit. d) The bulb is getting charged.
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
a) resistivity b) conductivity c) electrical energy d) electrical power
5. The effective resistance of three resistors of resistances 5Ω, 3Ω and 2Ω are connected in series is (PTA-2)
a) 1.03Ω b) 𝟏𝟎𝛀 c) 0.97Ω d) 2.5Ω
9|Page DIXDAR 9443805408
6. Nichrome is used as heating element in electric heater, because it has _______. (PTA – 3)
a) high resistivity b) high melting point c) not easily oxidised d) all the above
7. SI unit of specific resistance is ______ (PTA – 4)
a) mho b) ohm/metre c) ohm d) ohm metre
8. An electric heater of resistance 5 Ω is connected to an electric source. If a current of 6 A
flows through the heater, then find the amount of heat produced in 5 minutes.
a) 48000J b) 54000J c) 45000J d) 84000J
9. A charge of 12 coulomb flows through a bulb in 5 second. What is the current through the
bulb?
a) 60A b) 17A c) 2.4A d) 24A

II. Very short answer questions:

1. Define the unit of current.
 The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
𝟏 𝐜𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐨𝐦𝐛
1 ampere =
𝟏 𝐬𝐞𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐝

2. What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?

 The resistance decreases, as the conductor is made thicker.
3. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
 Tungsten has high melting point
 If it is used in fuse wire, it will not melt when large current passes through it.
 The appliances will get damaged.
4. Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.
Electric iron , Electric toaster, Electric oven, Electric heater.
III. Short answer questions:
1. Define electric potential and potential difference.
Electric potential:
It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge from infinity to
that point against the electric force.
Potential difference:
𝐖𝐨𝐫𝐤 𝐝𝐨𝐧𝐞 (𝐖)
Potential Difference (V) =
𝐂𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞 (𝐐)
2. What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
 The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
 The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the earth, whenever a
live wire accidentally touches the body of metallic electric appliance.
 Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric
shocks.
3. State Ohm’s law.
 Ohm’s law states that, at a constant temperature, the steady current flowing through a
conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference between two ends of the
conductor. I ∝ V
10 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
4. Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Resistivity Conductivity
The resistance of a conductor of unit length The reciprocal electrical resistivity of a
and unit of cross section. material
It’s unit is ohm metre. It’s unit is mho metre-1.
Less for conductors More for conductors than insulators
5. What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
 Parallel connection is used in domestic appliances
 To provide equal supply voltage to all.
 If the disconnection of one circuit does affect the other circuit.
IV. Long answer questions :
1. a) What is meant by electric current?
𝐐
 Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of charges in a conductor. I =
𝐭
b) Name and define its unit.
𝟏 𝐜𝐨𝐮𝐥𝐨𝐦𝐛
 The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). 1 ampere =
𝟏 𝐬𝐞𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐝
c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be connected
in a circuit?
Ammeter. It should be connected in a series in a circuit.
2. a) State Joule’s law of heating.
Joules’ law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is
❖ Directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor, the
resistance of the resistor, the time for which the current passing through the resistor.
b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(i) It has high resistivity. (ii) It has a high melting point.
(iii) It is not easily oxidized.
c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
 When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to joule’s
heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected
4. Explain about domestic electric circuits.(circuit diagram not required)
 Important components of the main box are (i) a fuse box and (ii) meter.
 Tow insulated wire 1) Red wire → Live wire 2) Black wirw → neutral wire.
 An electrical potential at 220 V.
 Both, the live wire and the neutral wire enter into box where the main switch
 It passes to main switch which has to two separate circuits.
1. 5A rating. 2. 5 A rating.
 It should be noted that all the circuits in a house are connected in parallel.
5. a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
 It has brighter picture quality.
 It is thinner in size.
 It used less power and consumes very less energy.
 Its life span is more, It is more reliable.
11 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
 b) List the merits of LED bulb.
 Low power , No loss of energy.
 It is not harmful to the environment.
 A wide range of colours is possible here.
 Mercury and other toxic material are not required.

I. Choose the correct answer:

1. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles
a) Vibrate along the direction of the wave motion b) Vibrate but not in any fixed direction
c) Vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion d) Do not vibrate
2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 m s-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without
causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is
a) 330 m s-1 b) 660 m s-1 c) 156 m s-1 d) 990 m s-1
3. The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is
a) 50 kHz b) 20 kHz c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
4. The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 m s-1. What will be its value when
temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
a) 330 m s-1 b) 165 m s-1 c) 330 × √𝟐 m s-1 d) 320 / √2 m s-1
5. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25×104 Hz at 344 m s-1, the wavelength will be
a) 27.52 m b) 275.2 m c) 0.02752 m d) 2.752 m
6. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were
incident. Which of the following changes?
a) speed b) frequency c) wavelength d) none of these
-1
7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms . The minimum distance between the
sources of sound and the obstacle to hear the echo, should be
a) 17 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 50 m
II. short answer questions:
1. What is a longitudinal wave?
 These are the waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of wave
motion is called longitudinal wave.
2. What is the audible range of frequency?
 20 Hz to 20 kHz
3. What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
 17.2 m
4. Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Mosquito, Dogs, Bats
5. Why does sound faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
 Presence of moisture in air decreases the density of air.
 Velocity increases with the decrease in density
 Hence, velocity of sound increases on a rainy day.

12 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
6. Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
 The amplitude of vibration of air molecules is greater than liquid molecules, so empty
vessel produces more sound than a filled one.
7. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
 The ceiling of concert halls are made curved so that sound, after reflection from the curved
ceiling, reaches all the paths of the hall.
 A curved ceiling actually acts like a large concave soundboard and reflection sound down
onto the audience sitting in the Hall.
8. Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
 When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
 When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular direction.
 When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
9. Difference between the Sound and Light waves.
SOUND LIGHT
Medium is required for the propagation Medium is not required for the propagation.
Longitudinal. Transverse.
A speed of about 340ms–1 at NTP. A speed of 3 × 108 ms–1.

III. Long answer questions :

1. What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Effect of density :
 The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of
the gas.
 Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
Effect of temperature :
 The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its
temperature.
 The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature.
Effect of relative humidity :
 Humidity increases, the speed of sound increases.
 That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.
2. a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
 These are sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 kHz.
b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
 Used in SONAR to measure the depth of sea and to locate under water object.
 Used for scanning and imaging the position of stones in the gall bladder and kidney.
 To make an image of a person’s internal body structure.
c) Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
1. Mosquito, 2. Dogs, 3. Bats

13 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
3. What is an echo? a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
b) What are the medical applications of echo? c) How can you calculate the speed of sound
using echo?
Echo :
 An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid
surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc.
a) Two conditions necessary for hearing an echo:
 The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo 0.1 s.
 The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

b) The medical applications of echo:

 Echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real-time visual images of
the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus.
a) Calculation speed of sound :
𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐝 𝟐𝐝
 Speed of Sound = =
𝐓𝐢𝐦𝐞 𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞𝐧 𝐭

I. Choose the correct answer:

1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as_____________
a) Induced radioactivity b) Spontaneous radioactivity
c) Artificial radioactivity d) a & c
2. Unit of radioactivity is _____________
a) Roentgen b) curie c) Becquerel d) all the above
3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by____________
a) Becquerel b) Irene Curie c) Roentgen d) Neils Bohr
4. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place
i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ decay iv) neutron decay
a) (i) is correct b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) & ( iv) are correct d) (ii) & (iv) are correct
5. ____________ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
a) Radio Iodine b) Radio Cobalt c) Radio Carbon d) Radio Nickel
6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
a) It affects eyes & bones b) it affects tissues
c) It produces genetic disorder d) it produces enormous amount of heat
7. _____________ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations
a) Lead oxide b) Iron c) Lead d) Aluminium
8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i. α particles are photons ii. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
iii. Ionization power is maximum for α ray iv. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
a) (i) & (ii) are correct b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
c) (iv) only correct d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of__________________
a) Nuclear fission b) α – decay c) Nuclear fusion d) β - decay
14 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
10. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 A
ZY , the value of A & Z.
a) 8, 6 b) 8, 4 c) 4, 8 d) cannot be determined with the given data
11. Kamini reactor is located at __________
a) Kalpakkam b) Koodankulam c) Mumbai d) Rajasthan
12. Which of the following is/are correct?
i. Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.ii. The chain reaction in
a nuclear reactor is controlled iii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled iv.
No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
a) (i) only correct b) (i) & (ii) are correct
c) (iv) only correct d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
II. Short answer questions:
1. Who discovered natural radioactivity?
 Henri Becquerel
2. Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
 Uranium, Radium
3. Write any two elements, which are used for inducing radioactivity?
 Boron, Aluminium
4. Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation, which is emitted during a natural radioactivity.
 Alpha, Beta, Gamma
5. If A is a radioactive element which emits an α - particle and produces 104Rf 259. Write the atomic
number and mass number of the element A.
 Mass number = 263, Atomic number = 106
6. What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
 200Mev (or) 3.2 × 10-11 J
7. Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disease?
 Gamma radiation
8. What is the amount of radiation that may cause death of a person when exposed to it?
 600 R
9. When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
 1942 at Chicago, U.S.A
10. Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
 Becquerel (Bq)
11. Which material protects us from radiation?
 Lead
12. Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Natural radioactivity Artificial radioactivity
Self- disintegration of a nucleus. Disintegration of nucleus through induced process.
Alpha, beta and gamma radiations Mostly elementary particles such as
are neutron,
Spontaneous
emitted. process. Induced
positron,process.
etc. are emitted.
This cannot be controlled. This can be controlled.

15 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
13. Define Critical mass.
 The minimum mass of a fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is known as
‘critical mass’.
14. Define one Roentgen.
 The quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 ×10-4coulomb in 1 kg of air
under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.
15. State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.
 Alpha particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is less by 4 units and the
atomic number is less by 2 units.
 Beta particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose mass number is the same and the atomic
number is more by 1 unit,
16. Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
 To control the number of neutrons
 To control chain reaction.

III. Long answer questions :

1. Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Controlled chain reaction:
 In the controlled chain reaction, the number of neutrons released is maintained to be one.
 This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber leaving only one
neutron to produce further fission.
Uncontrolled chain reaction:
 In the uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and
causes fission in a large amount of the fissile material.
 This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of a second.
2. Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.
α rays β rays γ rays
4 0
Helium nucleus (2He ) They are electrons (-1e ), They are photons.
Positively charged Negatively charged Neutral particles.
particles. particles.
Ionising power greater greater than Comparatively Very less ionization power
than β rays and γ rays. low
Low penetrating power Penetrating power is greater They have a very high
than that of α rays. penetrating power greater
than that of β rays.
Deflected by both electric Deflected by both electric of They are not deflected by
of magnetic field magnetic field both electric of magnetic
field
Their speed ranges from Their speed can go up to They travel with the speed of
1/10 to 1/20 times the 9/10 times the speed of light.
speed of light. light.

16 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
3. What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
 A nuclear reactor is a device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self-
sustained and controlled manner to produce electricity.
Fuel ❖ A fissile material is used as the fuel.
❖ The commonly used fuel material is uranium.
Moderator ❖ A moderator is used to slow down the high energy
neutrons to provide slow neutrons.
❖ Graphite and heavy water are the commonly used
moderators.
Control rod ❖ Control rods are used to control the number of
neutrons in order to have sustained chain reaction.
❖ Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control
rods.
Coolant ❖ A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the
reactor core, to produce steam.
❖ Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.
Protection wall ❖ A thick concrete lead wall is built around the
nuclear reactor in order to prevent the harmful
radiations from escaping into the environment.

4. Compare Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
The process of breaking up (splitting) of a The combination of two lighter nuclei to form
heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei a heavier nucleus.
Can be performed at room temperature. Extremely high temperature and pressure is
needed.
Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos are
emitted. emitted.
Fission leads to emission of gamma Only light and heat energy is emitted.
radiation.

5. Explain uses of Radioactivity in medicine

 Radio sodium (Na24) is used for the effective functioning of heart.
 Radio – Iodine (I131) is used to cure goiter.
 Radio - iron is (Fe59) is used to diagnose anemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
 Radio phosphorous (P32) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
 Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio - gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
 Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.

17 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
a) 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He b) 1 atom of He c) 2 g of He d) 1 mole atoms of He
2. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
a) Glucose b) Helium c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen
3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P
a) 22.4 litre b) 2.24 litre c) 0.24 litre d) 0.1 litre
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
a) 28 amu b) 14 amu c) 28 g d) 14 g
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
a) Mass of a C – 12 atom b) Mass of a hydrogen atom
c) 1/12th of the mass of a C – 12 atom d) Mass of O – 16 atom
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 electrons.
7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is
a) 11.2 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 22.4 litre d) 44.8 litre
40
8. In the nucleus of 20Ca , there are
a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
c) 20 protons and 40 electrons d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is
a) 16 g b) 18 g c) 32 g d) 17 g
10. 1 mole of any substance contains ____molecules.
a) 6.023 × 1023 b) 6.023 × 10-23 c) 3.0115 × 1023 d) 12.046 × 1023

II. Short answer questions:

1. Define: Relative atomic mass.
Average mass of the isotopes of the element
Relative atomic mass Ar = 1
⁄12th of the mass of one carbon 12 atom

2. Define: Atomicity.
The number of atoms present in the molecule is called atomicity.
3. Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
HCl, HF
4. What is Molar volume of a gas?
 One mole of any gas occupies 22.4 litre (or) 22400 ml at STP. This volume is called Molar
Volume.
5. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia. (N-14, H-1)
Molar mass of NH3 = 14 +3 = 17 g
14
Mass % of Nitrogen = × 100 = 82.35 %
17

18 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
6. What are Isotopes?
 Atoms of the same elements may have different atomic mass called Isotopes
 Example: 17Cl35, 17Cl37
7. What are Isobars?
 Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses are called Isobars.
 Example: 18Ar40, 20Ca40.
8. What are Isotones?
 Atoms of different elements having the same number of neutrons, but different atomic
number and different mass number are called Isotones.

Example: 6C13, 7N14
9. What is Avogadro’s Hypothesis?
 The Avogadro’s law states that “equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of
temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules”.

III. Long answer questions :

1. Calculate the number of moles in i) 27g of Al ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl
i) 27g of Al:
Mass of Al
Number of moles =
Atomic mass of Al
27
= = 1 mole.
27
ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl :
Molecular mass of NH4Cl = 53.5 g
Number of Molecules
Number of mole =
Avogador′ s number
1.51×1023 1
= =
6.023×1023 4
= 0.25 mole.

2. Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.

 An atom is no longer indivisible
 Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass (isotopes 17Cl35, 17Cl37)
 Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses (isobars 18Ar40, 20Ca40).
 Atom of one element can be transmitted into atoms of other elements. (artificial
transmutation).
 Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio. (Eg: Glucose. C16H12O6
C:H:O = 6:12:6 or 1:2:1).
 Atom is the smallest particle that takes part in a chemical reaction.
 The mass of an atom can be converted into energy. (E =mc2)

3. Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
(i) Relative Molecular Mass (Hydrogen scale)
The Relative Molecular Mass of a gas is the ratio between the mass of one molecular of the
gas of one atom of Hydrogen
(ii) Vapour Density:

19 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑎 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑔𝑎𝑠
Vapour density (V.D) =
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑒 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐻𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑛
According to Avogadro’s law
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑎 𝑔𝑎𝑠
Vapour Density (at STP) =
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑛
Hydrogen is diatomic molecule so,
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑔𝑎𝑠
Vapour Density =
2×𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 1 𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑛
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑎 𝑔𝑎𝑠
2 × Vapor density =
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 1 𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑛
2 × Vapour density = Relative molecular mass of a gas.
Relative molecular mass = 2 × Vapour density.

4. Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating in the following reaction

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
i) How many moles of Calcium carbonate are involved in this reaction?
One mole
ii) Calculate the gram molecular mass of calcium carbonate involved in this reaction?
Gram molecular mass of CaCo3 is 100g
CaCo3 (Ca = 40, C = 12, O =16)
= 1× Ca + 1×C + 3× O
= 1 × 40 + 1×12+3×16
= 40 + 12 + 48 = 100
Molecular mass of CaCo3 is = 100g.
iii. How many moles of CO2 are there in this equation?
One mole
3. Distinguish between atoms and molecules.
Atom Molecule
The smallest particle of an element. The smallest particle of an element or compound
Does not exist in free state (Except Noble Molecule exists in free state.
highly
gas) reactive. (Except Noble gas) Molecules are less reactive.
Atom does not have a chemical bond. Atoms in a molecule are held by chemical bonds.
4. Write the application of Avogadro’s law
 Explains Gay – Lussac’s Law.
 To determine Atomicity of gases
 To derive molecular formula of gases
 To derive the relationship between molecular mass and vapour density
 To determine gram molecular mass ( 22.4 litre at STP)

20 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
 8. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are______.
a) 6, 16 b) 7, 17 c) 8, 18 d) 7, 18
2. The basis of modern periodic law is______.
a) atomic number b) atomic mass c) isotopic mass d) number of neutrons
3. _____ group contains the member of halogen family.
a) 17th b) 15th c) 18th d) 16th
4. _____ is a relative periodic property
a) atomic radii b) ionic radii c) electron affinity d) electronegativity
5. Chemical formula of rust is ________.
a) FeO.xH2O b) FeO4.xH2O c) Fe2O3.xH2O d) FeO
6. In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is _____.
a) oxidizing agent b) reducing agent
c) hydrogenating agent d) sulphurising agent
7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called______.
a) Painting b) thinning c) galvanization d) electroplating
8. Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outer most shell.
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to_____.
a) stable arrangement of neutrons b) stable configuration of electrons
c) reduced size d) increased density
10. ______ is an important metal to form amalgam.
a) Ag b) Hg c) Mg d) Al
II. Short answer questions:
1. What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust.
 hydrated ferric oxide is known as rust.
4 Fe + 3 O2 + XH20 → 2 Fe2O3 x H2O
(Rust)
2. State two conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
(i) Presence of moist air
(ii) Presence of water
(iii) Presence of oxygen
3. Define Alloys?
 It is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or one or two more metals with non
metals
4. What is Amalgam ? Give Example?
 An alloy of mercury with metal
 Ex: Silver tin Amalgam
21 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
5. What are uses of Aluminium?
 Household utensils
 electrical cable industry
 making aeroplanes and other industrial mechine parts
6. What are the uses of Copper?
 It is extensively used in manufacturing electric cables and other electric appliances.
 It is used for making utensils, containers, calorimeters and coins,
 It is used in electroplating.
 It is alloyed with gold and silver for making coins and jewels
III. Long answer questions :
1. What are the methods include to preventing of corrosion.
(i) Alloying : The metals can be alloyed to prevent the process of corrosion. Eg: Stainless steel.
(ii) Surface Coating: It involves application of a protective coating over the metal.
It is of the following types.
Galvanization zinc on iron sheets
Electroplating coating the
Anodizing metaQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQ
Change the corrosion resistant. Ex: Aluminium
QQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQ
corrodible metal act as anode and the protected metal act
QQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQ
Cathodic Protection as cathode
QQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQ
2. a) State the reason for addition of caustic alkali to bauxite ore during purification of
QQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQQ
bauxite.b) Along with cryolite and alumina,
QQQl by another
electricsubstance
current. is added to the electrolyte
mixture. Name the substance and give one reason for the addition.
a) Bauxite ore does not dissolved in ordinary solution by adding caustic soda it can be
dissolved
b) Fluorspar – Lowers the fusion – temperature of electrolyte
3. What is alloy? What are the reasons for alloying?
 An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or of one or more metals with
certain non-metallic elements.
Reasons for alloying:
i. To modify appearance and colour
ii. To modify chemical activity.
iii. To lower the melting point.
iv. To increase hardness and tensile strength.
v. To increase resistance to electricity.
4. Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?
 Dilute or Concentrated nitric acid does not attack aluminium. But is renders aluminium passive
due to the formation of an oxide film on its surface.
5. a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule. ionic bond.
b) What property forms the basis of identification? To identify the nature of the bond.
c) How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
 the electronegativity increases. On moving down a group, the elements electronegativity of
the decreases
22 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
 9. SOLUTIONS
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. A solution is a __________ mixture.
a) homogeneous b) heterogeneous
c) homogeneous and heterogeneous d) non homogeneous
2. The number of components in a binary solution is __________
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
3. Which of the following is the universal solvent?
a) Acetone b) Benzene c) Water d) Alcohol
4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given
temperature is called _______
a) Saturated solution b) Un saturated solution
c) Super saturated solution d) Dilute solution
5. Identify the non aqueous solution.
a) sodium chloride in water b) glucose in water
c) copper sulphate in water d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
6. When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid___________.
a) No change b) increases c) decreases d) no reaction
7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how
much more salt is required for saturation _____________.
a) 12g b) 11g c) 16g d) 20g
8. A 25% alcohol solution means
a) 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water b) 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water d) 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
9. Deliquescence is due to __________
a) Strong affinity to water b) Less affinity to water
c) Strong hatred to water d) Inertness to water
10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
a) ferric chloride b) copper sulphate penta hydrate
c) silica gel d) none of the above
II. Short answer questions:
1. Define the term: Solution
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
2. What is mean by binary solution.
A solution consisting of two components are called binary solution.
3. Give an example each i) gas in liquid ii) solid in liquid iii) solid in solid iv) gas in gas
i) Gas in liquid - soda water
ii) Solid in liquid - salt in water (NaCl dissolved in water)
iii) Solid in solid - copper dissolved in gold
iv) Gas in gas - mixture of Helium and oxygen.

23 | P a g e DIXDAR 9443805408
4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
Aqueous solution: The solution in which water acts as a solvent. E.g : salt in water
Non - Aqueous solution: The solution in which any liquid other than water acts as a solvent
E.g : Sulphur dissolved in carbon - disulphide
5. Define Volume percentage
Volume of solute
Volume percentage = × 100
volume of solution

6. The aquatic animals live more in cold region Why?

 The solubility of gas is more at lower temperature where as it decreases with increasing
temperature.
7. Define Hydrated salt.
 The ionic substances, which contain water of crystallization, are known as hydrated salts.
8. Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic.
(Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride, and
Gypsum salt.)
Deliquescent substances Hygroscopic substances
Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate Calcium chloride
pentahydrate, Silica gel, Gypsum salt.

9. A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?

 solubility increases with increase in temperature while decreases with decrease in temperature.
The solubility of copper sulphate at 250C is 20.7 g in 100g of water.

III. Long answer questions :

1. Write notes on i) saturated solution ii) unsaturated solution
i) Saturated solution:
 A solute in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of the solven
at a given temperature is called saturated solution.
Example :
36 g of sodium chloride in 100g of water at 250C forms saturated solution.
ii) Un saturated solution:
 Unsaturated solution is one that contains less solute than that of the saturated solution
at a given temperature.
Example :
10 g or 20 g or 30 g of sodium chloride dissolved in 100g of water at 25℃

2. Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.

i) Nature of the solute and solvent
 Polar compounds are readily dissolves in polar solvents. Ex:- Common salt dissolves in
water.

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  Non polar compounds are soluble in non polar solvents. Ex:- Fat dissolved in ether.
 Non polar compound do not dissolve in polar solvents.
 Polar compounds do not dissolved in Non polar solvents.
ii) Effect of temperature
a) Solubility of solid in liquid:
❖ Generally, solubility of a solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in
temperature.
❖ In endothermic process solubility increases with increase in temperature.
❖ In exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
b) Solubility of gases in liquid:
❖ Aquatic animal live more in cold regions because more amount of dissolved oxygen
is present in the water of cold regions.
❖ The solubility of gas is more at lower temperature whereas it decreases with
increasing temperature.
iii) Effect of Pressure:
❖ Effect of pressure is observed only in the case of solubility of a gas in a liquid. When
the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas is also increased.

3. a) What happens when MgSO4.7H2O is heated? Write the appropriate equation

b) Define solubility
a) When magnesium sulphate heptahydrate crystals are gently heated, it loses seven water
molecules and becomes anhydrous magnesium sulphate.

b) Solubility is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in 100g of a
solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.
Ex: 36 g of sodium chloride need to be dissolved in 100g of water to form it saturated
solution.
4. In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Hygroscopic substances Deliquescence substances
They absorb moisture and do not They absorb moisture and dissolve.
dissolve.
Do not change its physical state on Change its physical state on exposure to
exposure to air. air.
May be amorphous solids or liquids. crystalize solids.

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 10. TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTION
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is a
a) Decomposition Reaction b) Combination Reaction
c) Single Displacement Reaction d) Double Displacement Reaction
2. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ___________
a) heat b) electricity c) light d) mechanical energy
3. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + Heat.
In which of the type(s), the above reaction can be classified?
(i) Combination Reaction (ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii)Decomposition Reaction (iv) Irreversible Reaction
a) i and ii b) i and iv c) i, ii and iii d) i, ii and iv
4. The chemical equation Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s)↓ + 2NaCl(aq) represents which of
the following types of reaction?
a) Neutralisation b) Combustion c) Precipitation d) Single displacement
5. Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature.
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
a) i, ii and iii b) i, ii and iv c) ii, iii and iv d) i, iii and iv
6. A single displacement reaction is represented by X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl2(aq) + H2(g). Which of
the following(s) could be X.
(i) Zn (ii) Ag (iii) Cu (iv) Mg.
Choose the best pair.
a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) iii and iv d) i and iv
7. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
a) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) b) 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2KBr(s)
c) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) d) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
8. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
a) A(s) + B(s) → C(s) + D(s) b) A(s) + B(aq) → C(aq ) + D(l)
c) A(aq) + B(aq) → C(s) + D(aq) d) A(aq) + B(s) → C(aq) + D(l)
–
9. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH ] concentration is
a) 1 × 10–3 M b) 3 M c) 1 × 10–11 M d) 11 M
10. Powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3 because of ___________.
a) large surface area b) high pressure c) high concentration d) high temperature

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II. Short answer questions:
1. When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver
nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give the chemical equation of this reaction.
KCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) ⟶ AgCl + KNO3(aq)
White Potassium
Precipitate nitrate
2. Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
 Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature. Because adding heat to the reactants,
it provides energy to break more bonds. So, speed of the reaction is increased.

3. Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic combination reaction.
 A combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a
compound. It is otherwise called synthesis reaction.
Ex : 1
Hydrogen gas combines with chlorine gas to form hydrogen chloride gas
H2(g) + H2(g) ⟶ 2HC𝑙(𝑔)

4. Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.

Reversible reaction Irreversible reaction
It can be reversed under suitable It cannot be reversed.
condition.
Both forward and backward reactions It is unidirectional
take place simultaneously.
It attain equilibrium. Equilibrium is not attained.
The reactants cannot be converted The reactants can be completely
completely into products. converted into products.
It is relatively slow. It is fast.

III. Long answer questions :

1. What are called thermolysis reactions?
 In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying heat.
 Commonly decomposition reactions are endothermic reaction.
Example:
 Calcium carbonate is heated, it breaks down into calcium oxide and carbon
dioxide. It is a type of compound to compound / compound decomposition
reaction.
heat
CaCo3(S) → CaO(S) + Co2(g)

2. Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.

 When two compounds react with each other if their ions are interchanged, then the reaction
is called double displacement reaction.
 This reaction is also called metathesis reaction.

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 Precipitate reaction :
 When the clear aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead II nitrate are mixed,
a double displacement reaction takes place between them.
 Pb(NO3)2s(aq) + 2KI(aq) ⟶ PbI2(S) + 2KNO3(aq)
Neutralization reaction :
 Sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid is a typical neutralization reaction. Here
sodium replaces hydrogen from hydrochloric acid forming sodium chloride and
water.
 NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) ⟶ NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

3. Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.

Nature of reactant:
 The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic acid.
Concentration of the reactants:
 Changing the amount of the reactants also increases the reaction rate.
 Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M Hydrochloric acid.
Temperature:
 Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature.
 Because adding heat to the reactants provides energy to break more bonds and thus
speed up the reaction.
Pressure:
 If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate.
 This is because, on increasing the pressure the reacting particles come closer and
collide frequently.
Catalyst:
 A catalyst is a substance, which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the
reaction.
Surface area of the reactants:
 When solid reactants are involve in a reaction, their powdered form reacts more
readily.

4. How does pH play an important role in everyday life?

 Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. If any increases (or) decreases in this value
leads to disease.
 During indigestion the stomach produces to much acid and it causes pain and irritation. pH of
the stomach fluid is approximately 2.0.
 pH of the saliva normally ranges between 6.5 to 7.5. When the pH of the mouth saliva falls
below 5.5, the enamel get weathered.
 In agriculture, Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice require acidic soil and
sugarcane requires neutral soil.
 The PH of rain water is approximately 7. If its PH less than 7. It is called acid rain.

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5. What is a chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
Chemical equilibrium: It is state of a reversible chemical reaction in which no change in the
amount of the reactants and products takes place. At equilibrium
 Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction.
CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Characteristics of equilibrium:
 In a chemical equilibrium the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal.
 The observable properties such as pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity
etc., of the system remain unchanged with time.
 In physical equilibrium, the volume of all the phases remain constant.

11. CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is C3H6. The class of the compound is
a) alkane b) alkene c) alkyne d) alcohol
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type compound it is?
a) Aldehyde b) Carboxylic acid c) Ketone d) Alcohol
3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is ____
a) - ol b) – oic acid c) - al d) - one
4. Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a homologous series?
a) C3H8 and C4H10 b) C2H2 and C2H4 c) CH4 and C3H6 d) C2H5OH and C4H8OH
5. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O is a
a) Reduction of ethanol b) Combustion of ethanol
c) Oxidation of ethanoic acid d) Oxidation of ethanol
6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about _______ of ethanol
a) 95.5 % b) 75.5 % c) 55.5 % d) 45.5 %
7. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
a) Carboxylic acids b) Ethers c) Esters d) Aldehydes
8. TFM in soaps represents ___________content in soap.
a) mineral b) vitamin c) Fatty acid d) carbohydrate
9. Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents?
a) It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids b) It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
– +
c) The ionic part in a detergent is –SO3 Na d) It is effective even in hard water.

II. Short answer questions:

1. Name the simplest ketone and give its structural formula.
 (CH3COCH3) - Acetone

2. How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation.
Ethanol is oxidized to ethanoic acid with alkaline Kmno4 or acidified K2Cr2O7

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4. How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial measures to prevent this pollution?
 Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by micro-
organisms present in water. So they cause water pollution.
 We use straight hydrocarbon chains, which can be easily degraded by bacteria. They do not
give any water pollution.

5. Differentiate soaps and detergents.

Soap Detergent
It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acid It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids.
The ionic part of a soap is –COO(-)NA(+) The ionic part in a detergent is –SO3(-)NA(+)
It is prepared from animal fats or It is prepared from hydrocarbon obtained
vegetable oils. from crude oil.
Its effectiveness is reduced when used in It is effective in hard water.
hard water.
Soaps are biodegradable. Most of the detergents are non-
biodegradable.

III. Long answer questions :

1. What is called homologous series? Give any three of its characteristics?
 A group or a class group of organic compounds having same general formula and similar
chemical properties in which the successive members differ by a CH2 group are called
homologous series.
Important characteristics of homologous series:
i) Each member of the series differs from methylene (-CH2) group or molecular mass of 14 amu.
ii) All members of homologous series contain the same elements and function group.
iii) They are represented by a general molecular formula. Eg : Alkane CnH2n+2.
iv) Chemical properties of the members of a homologous series are similar
v) All the members can be prepared by a common method.
2. How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
 Ethanol is manufactured from molasses. Molasses obtained the manufacture of sugar from
sugarcane.
(i) Dilution of molasses
 Molasses is first diluted with water to bring down the concentration of sugar to about 8 to
10 percent.
(ii) Addition of Nitrogen Source
 If the nitrogen content of the molasses is poor, it may be fortified by the addition of
ammonium sulphate (or) ammonium phosphate.
(iii) Addition of yeast
 The solution obtained in step (ii) is collected to in large fermentation tanks and yeast is
added to it.
 The mixture is kept at about 303 K for few days.
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 (iv) Distillation of Wash.
 The fermented liquid containing 15 to 18 percent alcohol, is now subjected to fractional
distillation.
 The main fraction drawn is an aqueous solution of ethanol which contains 95.5 % ethanol
and 4.5 % of water. This is called rectified spirit.
 This mixture is then refluxed over quick lime for about 5 to 6 hours and then allowed to
stand for 12 hours.
 On distillation of this mixture, pure alcohol (100%) is obtained. This is called absolute
alcohol.

3. Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.

 Polar end is attracted to water.
 Non-polar end is attracted to dirt on the cloth.
 The non polar end of the soap molecule traps the dirt
 The polar end make the entire molecule soluble in water.
 When a soap is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called micelles. vi)
The polar end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water.
 Thus the dirt is washed away with the soap.
4. What are the Uses of ethanol
 It is used in medical wipes, as an antiseptic.
 It is used as an anti-freeze in automobile radiators.
 It is used for effectively killing micro organisms like bacteria, fungi, etc., by including it in
many hand sanitizers.
 It is used as an antiseptic to sterilize wounds in hospitals.
 It is used as a solvent for drugs, oils, fats, perfumes, dyes, etc.

5. Write the important of organic compound in our daily life.

 Fuels like LPG, petrol, kerosene.
 Polymeric materials like tyre, plastic containers.
 Alcohols used as a solvent and an antiseptic agent.
 Formaldehyde used as a disinfectant.
 Ketones used as a solvent and stain remover.
 Ethers are used to anaesthetic agent and pain killer.
 All the cooking oils and lipids contain esters.

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 12. PLANT ANATOMY AND PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Casparian strips are present in the __________ of the root
a) Cortex b) Pith c) Pericycle d) endodermis
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of
a) root b) Stem c) leaves d) flower
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side-by-side on same radius is called
a) radial b) amphivasal c) conjoint d) None of these
4. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration
a) Carbohydrate b) Ethyl alcohol c) Acetyl CoA d) pyruvate
5. Kreb’s cycle takes place in
a) chloroplast b) mitochondrial matrix
c) stomata d) inner mitochondrial membrane
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis
a) when ATP is converted to ADP b) when Co2
c) when H2O is splitted d) All of these

II. Short answer questions:

1. Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
 Vascular bundles of dicot stem are conjoint collateral, endarch and open.
 They are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.
2. Write a short note on mesophyll.
 In a leaf, the tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called mesophyll.
 It is differentiated into palisade parenchyma and Spongy parenchyma.
3. Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.

4. Name the three basic tissue system in flowering plants.

 Dermal (or) Epidermal tissue system
 Ground tissue system
 Vascular tissue system
5. What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?
 Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organisms like green plants, algae and
chlorophyll containing bacteria utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own food.
 Photosynthesis occur in the chloroplast.

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6. Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
 During light independent reactions, Co2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light
generates ATP and NADPH2.
 So light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction.

7. Write the reaction for photosynthesis.

8. What is R.Q?
 It is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberates and the volume of oxygen consumed
during respiration
volume of Co2 liberated
𝑅𝑄 =
volume of o2 consumed
9. What are the factors affecting photosynthesis
 External factors → Light, Co2, temperature, water and mineral elements.
 Internal factors → Pigments, leaf age, accumulation of carbohydrates and hormones.

10. What is collateral vascular bundle?

 Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery.
11. Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
 Carbon dioxide taken from atmosphere

12. What is the common step is aerobic and anaerobic path way?
 Glycolysis
13. Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
 Anaerobic respiration. It takes place without oxygen.
 Glucose (or) carbohydrate are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
III. Long answer questions :
1. Differentiate the following.
a) Monocot root and Dicot root b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
a) Monocot root and Dicot root
Dicot Root Monocot Root
Tetrarch Xylem Polyarch Xylem
Cambium Present Cambium absent
Secondary Growth Present Secondary Growth absent
Pith absent Pith present
b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
Presence of oxygen. Absence of oxygen.
It occurs in most plants and animals It occurs in some bacteria
Glucose is converted into carbon dioxide. Glucose is converted into ethanol
carbon dioxide, water and energy Ethanol and energy

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2. Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain
energy from glucose.
Glycolysis:
 It is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose (6 carbon) into two molecules of pyruvic
acid (3 carbon).
 Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm of the cell.
Krebs cycle:
 This cycle occurs in mitochondria matrix.
 At the end of glycolysis, the oxidation of two molecules of pyruvic acid enter into into
CO2 and water
Electron Transport chain:
 NADH2 and FADH2 molecules formed during glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle are oxidised
to NAD+ and FAD+ to release the energy via electrons.
 The electrons as they more through the system, release energy which is trapped by ADP to
synthesize ATP.
 This process O2 the ultimate acceptor of electrons gets reduced to water.
3. How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction? What are
the end product and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
Light dependent Reaction Light independent Reaction
It needs Sunlight It does not need sunlight
It is called Light reaction or Hill reaction It is called dark reaction or Calvin cycle
The reactants are chlorophyll, sunlight and water The reactants are CO2, ATP and NADPH2.
The end products are ATP and NADPH2 and O2 End product is carbohydrate, ADP and NADP
It occurs in thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast. It occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.

13. STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION OF ANIMALS

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. In leech locomotion is performed by
a) Anterior sucker b) Posterior sucker c) setae d) None of the above
2. The segments of leech are known as
a) Metameres (somites) b) Proglottids c) Strobila d) All the above
3. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Excretory system b) Nervous system c) Reproductive system d) Respiratory system
4. The brain of leech lies above the
a) Mouth b) Buccal Cavity c) Pharynx d) Crop
5. The body of leech has
a) 23 segments b) 33 segments c) 38 segments d) 30 segments
6. Mammals are ______ animals
a) Cold blooded b) Warm blooded c) Poikilothermic d) All the above
7. The animals, which give birth to young ones, are
a) Oviparous b) Viviparous c) Ovoviviparous d) All the above

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II. Short answer questions:
1. Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
 The Indian Leech
2. How does leech respire?
 Respiration takes place through the skin in leech.
3. Write the dental formula of rabbit.
2 0 3 3
 Dental formula is I , C , PM , M
1 0 2 3
2033
 Dental formula =
1023
4. How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
 11 pairs of teeths,
5. How is diastema formed in rabbit?
 The gap between the incisors and premolar is called diastema.
6. What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
 Lungs
7. Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
 Muscular pharynx
8. What does CNS stand for?
 CNS ⟶ Central Nervous System.
9. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
 In rabbit, the teeth are of different types hence, the dentition is called heterodont.
10. How does leech suck blood from the host?
 The blood is sucked by muscular pharynx.
11. Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit?
 Tracheal walls are supported by rings of cartilage, which helps in the free passage of air.
12. List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
 Blood is sucked by pharynx.
 The three jaws inside the mouth, caused a painless ‘Y’ shaped wound in the skin of the host.
 The salivary glands produced hirudin which does not allow the blood to coagulate. Thus, a
continuous supply of the blood is maintained.
 Parapodia and setae are completely absent
III. Long answer questions :
1. How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
 In leech, circulation is brought about by haemocoelic system.
 There are no true blood vessels.
 The blood vessels are replaced by channels called haemocoelic channels.
 The coelomic fluid contain haemoglobin.
 Four longitudinal channels. 1. lies above the alimentary canal, 2. below the alimentary
canal, 3. Two channels lie on either side of the alimentary canal.
 All the four channels are connected together posteriorly in the 26th segment.

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2. How does locomotion take place in leech?
Looping or crawling movement:
 This type of movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation of muscles.
 The two suckers serve for attached during movement on a substratum.
Swimming movement:
 Leech swim very actively and perform undulating movements in water.

3. Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit with a labelled diagram.

 The male reproductive system of rabbit consists of a pair of testes,
which are ovoid in shape.
 Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs in the abdominal cavity.
 Each testis consists of numerous fine tabulates called
seminiferous tubules.
 This network of tubules leads into a coiled tubule called
epididymis, which leads into the sperm duct called vas deferens.
 The vas deferens joins in the urethra just the penis.
 The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis.

14. TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS AND CIRCULATION IN ANIMALS

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Active transport involves
a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration b) expenditure of energy
c) it is an uphill task d) all of the above
2. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through
a) cortex b) epidermis c) Phloem d) xylem

3. During transpiration there is loss of

a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen c) water d) none of the above
4. Root hairs are
a) cortical cell b) projection of epidermal cell c) unicellular d) both b and c
5. Which of the following process requires energy?
a) active transport b) diffusion c) osmosis d) all of them
6. The wall of human heart is made of
a) Endocardium b) Epicardium c) Myocardium d) All of the above
7. Which is the sequence of correct blood flow
a) ventricle - atrium - venin - arteries b) atrium - ventricle - veins - arteries
c) atrium - ventricle - arteries - vein d) ventricles - vein - atrium - arteries
8. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which blood group
the doctor should effectively use for transfusion in this condition?
a) O group b) AB group c) A or B group d) all blood group

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9. 'Heart of heart ' is called
a) SA node b) AV node c) Purkinje fibres d) Bundle of His
10. Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct.
a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen
c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC d) Blood - Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets

II. Short answer questions:

1. Name two layered protective covering of human heart.
 Pericardium
2. What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
 The RBC are biconcave and disc shaped.
3. Why is the colour of the blood red ?
 The presence of respiratory pigment haemoglobin.
4. Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?
 White blood cells
5. Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
 Semilunar valves
6. Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.
 Coronary arteries
7. What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
 The opening and closing of the stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the guards cells.
 When water enters into guard cells, they become turgid and the stoma open.
 When the guard cells lose water, it become flaccid and the stoma closes.
8. What is cohesion?
 The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion.

9. Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?

 When the blood circulates twice through the heart in one complete cycle it is called
double circulation.
 In double circulation the oxygenated blood do not mix with the deoxygenated blood.
10. What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
 The rhythmic closure and opening of the valves cause the sound of the heart.
 The first sound LUBB is longer duration and produced by the closure of the tricuspid and
bicuspid valves after the beginning of the ventricular system.
 The second sound DUPP is of a shorter duration and produced by the closure of semilunar
valves at the end of ventricular systole.
11. What is the importance of valves in the heart?
 They regulate the flow of blood
 Allow blood in a single direction
 They prevent back flow of blood.

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12. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
 Rh factor was discovered by Landsteiner and Wiener in 1940 in Rhesus Monkey.
 So it is named as Rh factor.
13. How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Artery Vein
Distributing vessel Collecting vessel
Pink in colour Red in colour
Deep location Superficial in location
Blood flow with high pressure Blood flow with low pressure
Wall of artery is strong thick and elastic Wall of vein is weak, thin and non-elastic
All arteries carry oxygenated blood All veins carry deoxygenated blood expect
except pulmonary arteries pulmonary veins
Internal valves are absent Internal valves are present

14. Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of heart?

 SA node acts as the pace maker of the heart because it is capable of initiating impulse which
can simulate the heart muscles to contract.
15. Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
Systemic circulation Pulmonary circulation
It starts from the left ventricle of the
It starts from the right ventricle of the heart
heart
Circulation of oxygenated blood to It reaches the lungs with deoxygenated
various organs of the body blood.
Pulmonary veins collect the oxygenated
Aorta carries oxygenated blood to all the
blood from the lungs and supplies it to the
organs of the body.
left atrium of the heart.

16. Describe the structure and working of the human heart.

The structure of the human heart
 The human heart is four chambered. There are two atrium and two ventricles.
Working of the human heart
 The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body
 The right and left articles pump blood into the right and left ventricles respectively.
 From the right ventricle arises the pulmonary trunk, which bifurcates to form right
and left pulmonary arteries.
 The right and left pulmonary arteries supply deoxygenated blood to the lungs of the
respective side.
 The left ventricle gives rise to aorta. The oxygenated blood is supplied by the aorta to
various organs of the body

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Give reasons for the following statements:
1. Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots.
 Minerals are present in the soil as charged particles (ions) that cannot move across cell
membrane.
 The concentration of minerals in the soil is usually lower than the concentration of minerals in
the root.
2. Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata.
 The opening and closing of the stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the guards cells.
 When water enters into guard cells, they become turgid and the stoma open.
 When the guard cells lose water, it become flaccid and the stoma closes.
3. The movement of substances in the phloem can be in any direction.
 The source is part of the plant that synthesis food i.e, the leaf and sink is the part that needs
(or) stores the food.
 Since the source sink relationship is variable, the direction of movement in the phloem can be
upwards (or) downwards (bidirectional)
4. Minerals in the plants are not lost when the leaf falls.
 This phenomenon can be seen in deciduous plants.
 Elements like phosphorous, sulphur, nitrogen and potassium are easily mobilised, while
elements like calcium are not remobilised.
5. The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
 From the right ventricle arises the pulmonary trunk, which bifurcates to, from right and left
pulmonary arteries.
6. Mature RBC in mammals do not have cell organelles.
 RBC lack nucleus and makes the cells biconcave and increase surface area for oxygen binding,
loss of mitochondria allows the RBC to transport all the oxygen to tissues and loss of
endoplasmic reticulum allows more flexibility for RBC to move through the narrow capillaries.

III. Long answer questions :

1. What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
 Transpiration is the evapouration of water in plants through stomata in the leaves.
Importance of transpiration:
 Creates transpirational pull for transport of water.
 Supplies water for photosynthesis.
 Transports minerals from soil to all parts of the plants.
 Coals the surface of the leaves by evaporation.
 Keeps the cells turgid, hence maintains their shape.

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2. Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and
mention its functions.
Classification of granulocytes:
1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Basophils

 Neutrophils : Their numbers are increased during infection and inflammation.

 Eosinophils : Their number increases during conditions of allergy and parasitic infections.
 Basophils : They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.
Classification of Agranulocytes:
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes

 Lymphocytes : They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections.

 Monocytes : They are phagocytic and can energy bacteria.

3. Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of heart beat.
Systole Diastole
One complete contraction One complete relaxation
(a) Atrial systole: (a) Atrial Diastole:
(b) Ventricular systole: (b) Ventricular Diastole:
In an healthy adult during normal resting In an healthy adult during normal resting
condition systolic pressure is expressed as condition diastolic blood pressure is
120mm Hg expressed as 80mm Hg.
Conduction of heart beat:
 The human heart is myogenic in nature.
 Sino – atrial mole, acts as the pace maker of the heart.
 The right and left atrial wall pushing the blood through the atrioventricular valves into the
ventricles.
 The wave of contraction from SA node reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node to the ventricular
bundle and the Purkinje fibres.
4. Enumerate the functions of blood.
 Transport of respiratory gases (Oxygen and CO2).
 Transport of digested food materials to the different body cells.
 Transport of hormones.
 Protection of the body and defense against diseases.
 Helps in regulation of pH and body temperature.
 It maintains proper water balance in the body.

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Higher Order Thinking Skils(HOT) :
1. When any dry plant material is kept in water, they swell up. Name and define the
phenomenon involved in this change.
 Imbibition is a type of diffusion in which a solid absorbs water and gets swelled up.
 Example: Absorption of water by seeds and dry grapes.

2. Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than the other chambers of the heart?
 The oxygenated blood is supplied by the aorta to various organs of the body.
 The left ventricle is longer and narrower than the right ventricle.
 The walls are about three times thicker than the right ventricle.

3. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound of the heart. Why?

 The heart sound is heard by placing the stethoscope on the chest.
 It is a useful diagnostic tool to identify and localize health problems

4. How does the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein differ in their function when compared
to a normal artery and vein?
 All arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary arteries.
 All veins carry deoxygenated blood except pulmonary veins.

5. Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.

 During transpiration 95 % of water is evaporated.
 It leads to continuous absorption of water and minerals by the root hairs.
 So, transpiration is a necessary.

6. Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the
time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
 Root hair → Root → Xylem → Stem → Leaf → Stomata → Water is evaporated

7. How do plants absorb water? Explain.

 There are millions of root hairs on the tip of the root, which absorb water and minerals by
diffusion.
 Root hairs are thin walled, slender extension of epidermal cell that increase the surface area of
absorption.
 Once the water enters the root hairs, the concentration of water molecules in the root hairs cells
become more than that of the cortex.
 Thus water from the root hair more to the cortical cells by osmosis and then reaches the xylem.
 From there the water is transported to the stem and leaves

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 15. NERVOUS SYSTEM
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Bipolar neurons are found in
(a) retina of eye (b) cerebral cortex (c) embryo (d) respiratory epithelium
2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence and thought is
(a) kidney (b) ear (c) brain (d) lungs
3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle (b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain (d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
4. Dendrites transmit impulse cell body and axon transmit impulse cell body.
(a) away from, away from (b) towards, away from
(c) towards, towards (d) away from, towards
5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
(a) arachnoid membrane (b) piamater (c) duramater (d) myelin sheath
6. There are pairs of cranial nerves and pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31 (b) 31, 12 (c) 12, 13 (d) 12, 21
7. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre.
(a) afferent neurons (b) association neuron (c) efferent neuron (d) unipolar neuron
8. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus (b) hypothalamus (c) corpus callosum (d) pons
9. Node of Ranvier is found in
(a) muscles (b) axons (c) dendrites (d) cyton
10. Vomiting centre is located in
(a) medulla oblongata (b) stomach (c) cerebrum (d) hypothalamus
11. Nerve cells do not possess
(a) neurilemma (b) sarcolemma (c) axon (d) dendrites
12. A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger.
Which of the following part of brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) Medulla oblongata (b) cerebrum (c) pons (d) hypothalamus
II. Short answer questions:
1. Define stimulus.
 It refers to the changes in the environmental condition.
2. Name the parts of the hind brain.
 Cerebellum,
 pons
 medulla oblongata.
3. What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
 Duramater
 Arachnoid
 Piamoter
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4. Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
 Playing harmonium by striking a particular key on seeing a music note is an example of
conditioned reflexes.
5. Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
 Hypothalamus
6. Define reflex arc.
 The pathway taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called reflex arc.

7. Voluntary and involuntary actions.

Voluntary action Involuntary action
Controlled by the brain Controlled by the spinal cord.
This action is under the control of the will. A reflex action is not under the control of the will.
For example- Breathing, eating For example-heartbeat, sneezing

8. Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.

Medullated (Myelinated) Non-medullated (Nonmyelinated)
Nerve Fibres Nerve Fibres
Myelin sheath is present. Myelin sheath is absent.
Nodes of Ranvier are present at intervals. Nodes of Ranvier are absent.
They carry impulses faster. They carry impulses slower.

III. Long answer questions :

1. With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
(i) Cyton: (cell body or perikaryon)
 It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called
neuroplasm.
 help in transmission of nerve impulses to and from the cell body.
(ii) Dendrites:
 These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes that
project from the surface of the cell body.
 They conduct nerve impulses towards the cyton.
(iii) Axon:
 The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection.
 The axons may be covered by a protective sheath called myelin
sheath
 which is further covered by a layer of Schwann cells called neurilemma.
 Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier.
 Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses.

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2. Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
Structure Functions
Cerebral Sensory perception, control of voluntary functions,
cortex language, thinking, memory, decision making, creativity
Thalamus Acts as relay station.
Fore brain
Hypothalamus Temperature control, thirst, hunger, urination, important
link between nervous system and endocrine glands.
Mid brain Corpora Maintenance of posture and balance, coordinate voluntary
quadrigemina muscle activity.
Cerebellum It coordinates voluntary movements and also
maintains body balance.
Pons It controls respiration and sleep cycle.

Hind brain Medulla It controls heartbeat, respiration and contractions of

blood vessels respectively
3. What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of
response with a neat-labelled diagram.
 When someone pricks your hand with a needle, the
stimulus is the pain. which is sensed by receptor called as
pain receptors in our hand.
 The sensory neuron transmits or conveys the message to
the spinal cord.
 Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is
passed on to the relay neuron, which in turn transmits it to
a motor neuron.
 Motor neurons carry command from spinal cord to our
arm.
 Muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand
immediately from the needle.
4. Classify neurons based on its structure.
Unipolar Neurons ❖ Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both
axon and dendron. Ex: early embryos

Bipolar Neurons ❖ The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as
an axon while another as a dendron. Ex:Found in retina of eye

Multipolar Neurons ❖ The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon Found in
cerebral cortex of brain

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5. Describe the structure of spinal cord.
 Spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural
canal of the vertebral column
 It extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the
first lumbar vertebra.
 The posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into a
thin fibrous thread like structure called filum terminale.
 Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid
filled cavity known as the central canal.
 The grey matter of spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped.
 The upper end of letter ‘H” forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns.
 A bundle of fibres passes into the posterior horn forming dorsal or afferent root.
 Fibres pass outward from the anterior horn forming ventral or efferent root.

16. PLANT AND ANIMAL HORMONES

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Gibberellins cause:
a) Shortening of genetically tall plants b) Elongation of dwarf plants
c) Promotion of rooting d) Yellowing of young leaves
2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
a) Cytokinin b) Auxin c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
a) 2, 4-D b) GA3 c) Gibberellin d) IAA
4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
a) Darwin b) N. Smit c) Paal d) F.W. Went
5. LH is secreted by
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland c) Anterior pituitary d) Hypothalamus.
6. Identify the exocrine gland
a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland
7. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
a) Pancreas b) Kidney c) Liver d) Lungs
8. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”?
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland

II. Short answer questions:

1. Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
 Gibberellin
2. Write the name of a synthetic auxin.
 2,4 D
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3. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes?
 Gibberellin
4. What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in female after child birth?
 Prolactin or lactogenic hormone
5. Name the hormones, which regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.
 Vasopressin : It reduces loss of water
 Parathormone : to maintain blood calcium levels.
 Aldosterone : to reabsorb sodium ions, increased excretion of potassium ions.
6. Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man?
 Adrenaline
 Noradrenaline
7. Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones?
 Pancreas
8. Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys.
 Adrenal gland
9. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
 Artificially synthesized auxins that have properties like auxins are called as synthetic
auxins.
 Example: 2, 4 D (2,4 Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid)
10. What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
 Sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering is called bolting.
 Rosette plants with gibberellin
11. Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
 ABA promotes – Abscission
 During water stress and drought conditions ABA causes stomatal closure.
12. What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
 Auxins prevent the formation of abscission layer.
13. What are chemical messengers?
 Hormone.
14. Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Endocrine glands Exocrine glands
Without ducts With ducts
Secrete hormones Produce juice containing enzymes
Secretions are in minute quantity. Secretions are in large quantity.
Ex. Pituitary, Thyroid Salivary glands, Gastric glands
15. What is the role of parathormone?
 The parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body.
 They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.

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16. What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the
tissues on which they exert their effect.
 Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
 Oxytocin: They exert their effect on uterus and mammary gland.
17. Why are thyroid hormones referred as personality hormone?
 Essential for normal physical, mental and personality development. It is also known as
personality hormone.
18. Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in
our diet is low?
 Thyroid hormone requires iodine for its formation. If it is low Goitre and Cretinism for
childrens. Myxoedema for adults.

III. Long answer questions :

1. (a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in plants.
The gaseous plant hormone is ethylene.
Its three different actions in plants.
 Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits.
 Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
 Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.
(b) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
 Abscisic acid is known as stress hormone in plants.
 It increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress.
2. Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth stimulating hormone is produced
at the tip of coleoptile.
 In his first experiment, Waemolt Went removed the tips of Avena coleoptiles.
 The cut tips did not grow indicating that the tips produced something essential for growth.
 In his second experiment, he placed the agar blocks on the decapitated coleoptile tips.
 The coleoptile tips did not show any response.
 In his next experiment, he placed the detached coleoptile tips on agar blocks.
 After an hour, he discarded the tips and placed this agar block on the decapitated coleoptile.
 It grew straight up indicating that some chemical had diffused from the cut coleoptile tips
into the agar block, which stimulated the growth.

3. Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.

 Application of gibberellins on plants stimulate extraordinary elongation of internode.
 Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by
flowering. This is called bolting.
 Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants.
 Gibberellins break dormancy of potato tubers.

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4. Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
Estrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Functions of estrogens:
 It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
 It initiates the process of oogenesis.
 It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
 It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters
5. What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the conditions
different from one another?
Deficiency of ADH causes Diabetes insipidus. It is characterized by
 It Reduces reabsorption of water
 It causes an increase in urine output.
Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus
Increase in urine output Increase in blood suger level

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 17. REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ___________ .
a) Onion b) Neem c) Ginger d) Bryophyllum
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ___________ .
a) Amoeba b) Yeast c) Plasmodium d) Bacteria
3. Syngamy results in the formation of _________ .
a) Zoospores b) Conidia c) Zygote d) Chlamydospores
4. The essential parts of a flower are ___________ .
a) Calyx and Corolla b) Calyx and Androecium
c) Corolla and Gynoecium d) Androecium and Gynoecium
5. Anemophilous flowers have __________ .
a) Sessile stigma b) Small smooth stigma c) Colored flower d) Large feathery
stigma
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ___________ .
a) Generative cell b) Vegetative cell c) Microspore mother cell d) Microspore
7. What is true of gametes?
a) They are diploid b) They give rise to gonads
c) They produce hormones d) They are formed from gonads
8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as
a) Epididymis b) Vasa efferentia c) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
9. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are
a) Primary germ cells b) Sertoli cells c) Leydig cells d)
Spermatogonia
10. Estrogen is secreted by
a) Anterior pituitary b) Primary follicle c) Graffian follicle d) Corpus luteum
11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
a) Copper – T b) Oral pills c) Diaphragm d) Tubectomy

II. Short answer questions:

1. If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
 10 pollen grains needed.
2. In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
 Stigma
3. Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
 Yeast, Hydra
4. Mention the function of endosperm.
 Provides food to the developing embryos.
5. Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the uterine muscles.
 Oxytocin
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6. What is the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm?
 Hyaluronidase
7. When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed?
 May 28th
8. What is the need for contraception?
 It is the best birth control measure.
9. Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following occurs.
 a. Fertilization : Fallobian tube or ampulla
 b. Implantation : Uterine wall
10. What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
 Each fragments of the organism to give rise an individual new organism.
11. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants?
 It has only mitotic division, no gametic fusion and daughter plants are genetically similar
to the parent plant.
12. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Binary Fission Multiple Fission
In binary fission, the parent organism In multiple fission, the parents organism
splits to form two new organisms. splits to form many new organisms at the
same time.
It takes place during favourable It takes place during un favourable
environmental conditions. environmental conditions.
Ex: Amoeba, Paramecium Ex: Plasmodium.

13. Define triple fusion.

 Among the two male gamete produced by generative cells one fuses with egg.
 The other sperm fuses with the secondary nucleus is called triple fusion.
5. Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.
 To attract insects these flowers are brightly coloured, have smell and nectar.
6. Name the secondary sex organs in male
 Vas deferens, epididymis, seminal vesicle, prostate gland and penis.
7. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
 The milk produced from the breast during the first 2 to 3 days after child birth is called colostrum.
 Milk production from alveoli of mammary glands is stimulated by prolactin secreted from
the anterior pituitary.
 The ejection of milk is stimulated by posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin.
8. How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
 Sanitary pads should be changed regularly.
 Use of warm water to clean genitals
 Wearing loose clothing rather than tight fitting clothes

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9. How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother's body?
 Placenta allows the exchange of food materials, diffusion of oxygen, excretion of
nitrogenous wastes and elimination of carbon dioxide.
10. Identify the parts A, B, C and D
A – Exine
B – Intine
C – Generative cell
D – Vegetative cell

11. Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant.
a. Discuss the first event and write the types.
The first event in the sexual reproduction of flowering plants is pollination.
Its types are ❖ Self-pollination ❖ Cross pollination
b. Mention the advantages and the disadvantages of that event.
self-pollination cross-pollination
Advantages: Advantages:
❖ Flowers do not depend on agents for ❖ It leads to the production of new
pollination. varieties.
❖ There is no wastage of pollen grains. ❖ More viable seeds are produced.
Disadvantages: Disadvantages of cross-pollination
❖ The seeds are less in numbers. ❖ Pollination may fail due to distance barrier.
❖ The endosperm is minute. Therefore, ❖ More wastage of pollen grains
the seeds produce weak plants. ❖ It may introduce some unwanted
❖ New varieties of plants cannot be characters
produced ❖ Flowers depend on the external agencies
for pollination
12. Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which
they are present.
 Because sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature.
Name of the pouch is Scrotum.
13. Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give reason.
 During the secretory phase of the uterus, the hormone progesterone is produced by the ovaries.
 Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum, which develops from the Graafian follicle.
 For this reason, this phase of the menstrual cycle is called the secretory phase.
14. Why are family planning methods not adopted by all the people of our country?
 Poverty,
 Illiteracy,
 Fatalist,
 Religious Opposition,
 Lack of Finance,
 Lack of Cheap and Effective Methods,
 Shortage of Trained Staff
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III. Long answer questions :
1. With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical angiospermic ovule.
 The main part of the ovule is the nucleus which is
enclosed by two integuments leaving an opening
called as micropyle.
 The ovule is attached to the ovary wall by a stalk known as
funiculus.
 Chalaza is the basal part.
 The embryo sac contains seven cells and the eighth
nuclei located within the nucelus.
 Three cells at the micropylar end form the egg apparatus and the three cells at the chalaza
end are the antipodal cells.
 The remaining two nuclei are called polar nuclei found in the centre.
 In the egg apparatus, one is the egg cell (female gamete) and the remaining two cells are the
synergids.
2. What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes in the ovary and uterus.
The menstrual cycle consists of 4 phases
❖ Menstrual or Destructive Phase
❖ Follicular or Proliferative Phase
❖ Ovulatory Phase
❖ Luteal or Secretory Phase
Events of Menstrual Cycle and the Role of Hormones
Phase Changes in Ovary Changes in Uterus
Menstrual Development of primary Breakdown of uterine endometrial
phase follicles. lining leads to bleeding
Follicular Primary follicles grow to Endometrium regenerates through
phase become a fully mature Graafian proliferation
follicle
Ovulatory The Graafian follicle ruptures, Increase in endometrial thickness
phase and releases the ovum(egg)
Luteal phase Emptied Graafian follicle Endometrium is prepared for
develops into corpus luteum implantation if fertilization of egg
takes place, if fertilization does not
occur corpus luteum degenerates,
uterine wall ruptures, bleeding
starts and unfertilized egg is
expelled
3. Write the importance of Pollination
 It results in fertilization which leads to the formation of fruits and seed.
 New varieties of plants are formed through new combination of genes in case of cross pollination.

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 18. GENETICS
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
a) Pair of genes b) Responsible for character
c) Production of gametes d) Recessive factors
2. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to
a) Segregation b) Crossing over
c) Independent assortment d) Recessiveness
3. The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division
a) Chromomere b) Centrosome c) Centromere d) Chromonema
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the________________ chromosome.
a) Telocentric b) Metacentric c) Sub-metacentric d) Acrocentric
5. The _____________ units form the backbone of the DNA.
a) 5 carbon sugar b) Phosphate c) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar phosphate
6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by___________________.
a) Helicase b) DNA polymerase c) RNA primer d) DNA ligase
7. The number of chromosomes found inhuman beings are __________________.
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes. b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome
c) 46 autosomes d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called ___________.
a) Tetraploidy b) Aneuploidy c) Euploidy d) polyploidy

II. Short answer questions:

1. What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are studied?
 Dihybrid cross
2. Name the conditions when both the alleles are identical?
 Homozygous condition.
3. A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced
terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant trait?
 The dominant trait.
4. What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance
of a particular character?
 Genes are the segments of DNA which are responsible for the in heritance of a particular character.
5. Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
 Phosphodiester bonds.
6. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
 Pea plant is naturally self-pollinating.
 It has a short life span
 It is easy to cross pollinate.
 The flowers are bisexual.

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7. What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
 Phenotype - External expression of a particular trait is known as phenotype.
 Genotype - The genetic expression of an organisms.
8. What are allosomes?
 Allosomes are chromosomes, which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual.
 They are also called sex chromosomes (or) hetero chromosome.
9. What are Okazaki fragments?
 The short segments of DNA are called Okazaki fragments.
 The fragments are joined together by the enzyme DNA ligase.
10. Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
 Euploid considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals, as they often result in
increase fruit and flower size.
11. A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F1 and F2
generations? Explain.
 F1 plants are Hybrid tall (Tt)
 In the F2 generation 3 different type were obtained.
 Genotype ratio = 1:2:1
12. Explain the structure of a chromosome.
 The chromosomes are thin, long and thread-like structures consisting of two identical
strands called sister chromatids.
 They are held together by the centromere.
 A chromosome consists of the following regions.
• Primary constriction
• Secondary constriction.
• Telomere
• Satellite
 The chromosomes are made up of DNA, RNA chromosomal proteins C histones and non -
histones and certain metallic ions. These proteins provide structural support to the
chromosome.
III. Long answer questions :
1. Explain with an example the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is it different from monohybrid cross?
 Dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two pairs contrasting traits at the same time.
 Mendel crossed pea plants having round yellow seed with pea plants having wrinkled green
seeds. In F1 round yellow seeds were produced.
 When the hybrids of F1 generation pea plants having round yellow seeds were cross- bred by
self-pollination then four types of seeds having different combinations of shape and color
were obtained in F2.
 They were, Round Yellow -9 Round green – 3 Wrinkled yellow - 3
 Wrinkled green – 1 The phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1

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 Monohybrid cross Dihybrid cross
Crosses involving inheritance of only one Cross involving inheritance of two pairs
pair of contrasting characters of contrasting characters
Example : Tall Plant × Dwarf plant Example: yellow × Wrinkled green
The phenotypic ratio is 3:1 Phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1

2. How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
 DNA is the hereditary material as it contain the genetic information.
 The most widely accepted model or DNA is the double helical structure of James Watsib
and Frabcis Crick.
Significance of DNA:
 DNA is responsible for the transmission hereditary information from one generation to
next generations.
 It contains information required for the formation of proteins.
 It controls the developmental process and life activities of an organism.

3. The sex of the newborn child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be
considered responsible for it. What would be the possible fusion of gametes to
determine the sex of the child?

 Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes out of which 22 pairs are autosomes and one
pair (23rd pair) is the sex chromosomes.
 The female gametes formed are similar in their chromosome type (22+xx). So, human
females (22+xy)are homogametic.
 The male gametes produced are of two types.
 The sperm bearing 22 + x chromosomes. The sperm bearing 22 + y chromosomes.
 So human males are called heterogametic

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 19. ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Biogenetic law states that ______________
a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by ______________.
a) Charles Darwin b) Ernst Haeckel c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck d) Gregor Mendel
3. Paleontologists deal with
a) Embryological evidences b) Fossil evidences
c) Vestigial organ evidences d) All the above
4. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by
a) Radio-carbon method b) Uranium lead method
c) Potassium-argon method d) Both (a) and (c)
5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by
a) Khorana b) J.W. Harshberger c) Ronald Ross d) Hugo de Vries

II. Short answer questions:

1. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar
and adapted for different functions. What is the name given to these organs?
 Homologous organs
2. Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
 Archaeopteryx
3. What is the study of fossils called?
 Palaeontology
4. The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired character?
 Lamarck’s use and disuse theory states, when an organ is not used for a long time, it gradually
degenerates.
 According to Lamarck, the acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process
of inheritance.
5. Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
 Archaeopteryx is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds.
 It had wings with feathers, like a bird.
 It had a long tail clawed digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.
6. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
 Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the traditional
knowledge of the local culture of people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:
 It proves traditional uses of plant.
 It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.
 The ethno medicinal data will serve as a useful source of information for the chemists
 Pharmacologists and practitioners of herbal medicine.

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7. How can you determine the age of the fossils?
 Radioactive carbon (C14) dating method was discovered by W.F. Libby (1956).
III. Long answer questions :
1. Natural selection is a driving force for evolution - How?
i. Overproduction
 Living beings have the ability to reproduce more individuals and form their own
progeny.
 This will increase reproductive potential leading to overproduction.
ii. Struggle for existence
 Intraspecific struggle: Competition among the individuals of same species.
 Interspecific struggle: Competition between the organisms of different species
living together.
 Environmental struggle: Natural conditions like extreme heat or cold, drought and
floods can affect the existence of organisms
iii. Variations
 According to Darwin favourable variations are useful to the organism and
unfavourable
 variations are harmful or useless to the organism.
iv. Survival of the fittest or Natural selection
 Organisms which are unable to face the challenges, are unfit to survive and
disappear. The
 process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called as natural
selection.
v. Origin of species
 According to Darwin, new species originates by the gradual accumulation of
favourable
 variations for a number of generations.
2. How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Homologous organs Analogous organs
It inherited from common ancestors They are of different origin
Similar developmental pattern Different developmental pattern
Example: A human hand, a front leg of a Ex: Bat wing, a bird wing and an insert
cat wing

3. How does fossilization occur in plants?

Petrifaction:
 Minerals like silica slowly penetrate in and replace the original organic tissue and forms a rock
like fossil. This method of fossilization can preserve hard and soft parts.
 Most bones and wood fossils are petrified.
Mold and Cast:
 A replica of a plant or animal is preserved in sedimentary rocks.
 When the organism gets buried in sediment it is dissolved by underground water leaving a
hollow depression called a mold.

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 Preservation:
 Original remains can be preserved in ice or amber (tree sap).
 They protect the organisms from decay.
 The entire plant or animal is preserved.
Compression:
 When an organism dies, the hard parts of their bodies settle at the bottom of the seabed and
are covered by sediment.
 The process of sedimentation goes on continuously and fossils are formed.
Infiltration or Replacement:
 The precipitation of minerals takes place, which later on infiltrate the cell wall.
 The process is brought about by several mineral elements such as silica, calcium carbonate and
magnesium carbonate.
 Hard parts are dissolved and replaced by these minerals.

4. Write the principles of Lamarckism

 Internal vital force.
 Environment and new needs.
 Use and disuse theory.
 Theory of Inheritance of acquired characters.

20. BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which method of crop improvement can be practiced by a farmer if he is in experienced?
a) clonal selection b) mass selection c) pureline selection d) hybridisation
2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of_________.
a) sugar cane b) rice c) cow pea d) maize
3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is
a variety of __________.
a) chilli b) maize c) sugar cane d) wheat
4. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is_______
a) IR 8 b) IR 24 c) Atomita 2 d) Ponni
5. Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
a) enzyme from organism b) live organism
c) Vitamins d) both (a) and (b)
6. We can cut the DNA with the help of
a) scissors b) restriction endonucleases c) knife d) RNAase
7. rDNA is a
a) vector DNA b) circular DNA
c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA d) satellite DNA
8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ---------------sequences of DNA
a) single stranded b) mutated c) polymorphic d) repetitive

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9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as
a) transgenic organisms b) genetically modified
c) mutated d) both a and b
10. In a hexaploid wheat( 2n = 6 x = 42 ) the haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of chromosomes
respectively are
a) n = 7 and x = 21 b) n = 21 and x = 21 c) n = 7 and x = 7 d) n = 21 and x = 7

II. Short answer questions:

1. Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein
 Triticale.
2. Semi - dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of
dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
 Dee-geo-woo-gene (DGWG).
3. Define genetic engineering?
 Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organism to another
organism to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA (rDNA).
4. Name the types of stem cells.
 Embryonic stem cell.
 Adult stem cell (or) Somatic stem cell.
5. What are transgenic organisms?
 Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene (or) a foreign gene are also
known as transgenic organisms.
6. State the importance of biofertiliser?
 High yield without pest
 Reduce soil pollution problem
 Conserve microbial population in soil
 They are cheaper and ecofriendly.
7. Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
 Plant diseases are caused by pathogens like viruses, bacteria and fungi. This affects crop yield.
 Hence, it is important to develop disease resistant varieties of crops that would increase the
yield and reduce the use of fungicides and bactericides.
8. Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
 Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety is produced through Biofortification.
 Disease resistant Himgiri variety of wheat is produced. It resists Leaf and stiffs rust
and hill burnt.
 Sonalika, kalyan sona are semi - dwarf varieties of wheat developed from high
yielding, semi-5.
9. Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
 Protina
 Shakti
 Rathna
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10. Distinguish between
a. somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy.
somatic gene therapy germ line gene therapy
It is the replacement of defective gene It is the replacement of defective gene
in Somatic cells. in germ cell (egg and sperm).
It is not carried out to next generation. The gene can be carried out to next
generation.

b. undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.

undifferentiated cells differentiated cells
These are unspecialized mass of cells The cell types that can carry out any
that have variable potency. specific function is called differentiated
cells.
It is otherwise called as unspecialized It is otherwise called as specialized
cells. cells.
Eg : Stem cells. Eg : Nerve cell, Heart cell, etc.

11. State the applications of DNA finger printing technique.

 DNA finger printing technique is widely used in forensic applications like crime
investigation such as identifying the culprit.
 It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
 It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

12. How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?

 Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self renewal.
 Its ability to give rise to specalised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.
 In treating neurodegenerative, disorders like Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s
disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or lost neurons.
13. Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Outbreeding Inbreeding
It is the breeding of unrelated animals. Inbreeding refers to the mating of closely
related animals
Cross between two different species. Cross between superior male and female
of same breed.
Ex: Mule Ex: The sheep hissardale
III. Long answer questions :
1. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals?
 Increased production of milk by cattle.
 Increased production of egg by poultry.
 High quality of meat is produced.
 Increased growth rate in domesticated animal.
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2. Describe mutation breeding with an example.
 Mutation Breeding is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of
DNA in an organism.
Achievements of Mutation breeding
 Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora 64 by using gamma rays.
 Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
 Groundnut with thick shells.

3. Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?

 Biofortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with
vitamins, proteins and minerals.
 The nutritional quality of crops depends on quality and quantity of nutrients.
 Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids (developed in India).
 Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety.
 Iron rich fortified rice variety.
 Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

4. With a neat-labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.

 Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes

 Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA
 Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
 Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone.
 Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
 Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

5. Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.

 Using genetic engineering techniques medicinally important valuable pharmaceutical
products are developed.
 Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
 Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
 Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
 Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and prevent heart attack.
 Development of vaccines against various diseases like Hepatitis B and rabies.

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 21. HEALTH AND DISEASES
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline. The component causing this
could be
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) Leptin
2. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on
a) May 31 b) June 6 c) April 22 d) October 2
3. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are
a) Different in structure b) Non-dividing
c) Mutated Cells d) Undergoing rapid division
4. Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma c) Leukemia d) Lymphoma
5. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
a) Loss of memory b) Cirrhosis of liver
c) State of hallucination d) Supression of brain function
6. Coronary heart disease is due to
a) Streptococci bacteria b) Inflammation of pericardium
c) Weakening of heart valves d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
7. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called
a) Leukemia b) Sarcoma c) Carcinoma d) Lipoma
8. Metastasis is associated with
a) Malignant tumour b) Benign tumour c) Both (a) and (b) d) Crown gall tumour
9. Polyphagia is a condition seen in
a) Obesity b) Diabetes mellitus c) Diabetes insipidus d) AIDs.
10. Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
a) Eyes b) Auditory region c) Liver d) Central nervous system.
II. Short answer questions:
1. Communicable : AIDS Non communicable : Heart Disease
2. Chemotherapy : Chemicals Radiation therapy : Radiations
3. Hypertension : Hypercholesterolomia Glycosuria : Hyperglycemia
4. What are psychotropic drugs?
There are certain drugs called psychotropic drugs, which acts on the brain and alter the
behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception.
5. Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
 Lung cancer
 Bronchitis
 Pulmonary tuberculosis
 Emphysema
 Hypoxia
 Increased blood pressure
 Ulcer
 Oral cancer
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6. What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
 Genetic factors
 Physical inactivity
 Overeating
 Endocrine factors
7. What is adult onset diabetes?
 Type – 2 Non – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus is also called as adult onset diabetes
and accounting for 80 to 90 % of the diabetic population.
 Insulin production by the pancreas is normal but its action is impaired.
8. What is metastasis?
 The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect metastasis. The frequent sites if
metastasis.
9. How does insulin deficiency occur?
 Loss of beta cell
10. What are the various routes by which transmission of human immune deficiency virus takes place?
 Sexual contact with infected person.
 Use of contaminated needles.
 By transfusion of contaminated / infected blood or blood products.
 From infected mother to her child through placenta.
11. How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Cancer cell Normal cell
The cells are multiply indefinitely. The cells are normally divide
Nucleus is larger and darker Nucleus is proportionate size
They invade surrounding tissues. They do not invade surrounding tissues
Nucleoli is very prominent Nucleoli is prominent.
12. Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus
Type -1 Type-2
Factors Diabetes Mellitus(IDDM) Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
Prevalene 10-20% 80-90%
Age of onset Juvenile onset (< 20 years) Maturity onset (>30 years)
Body weight Normal or Underweight Obese
Defect Insulin deficiency due to destruction Target cells do respond to
of β-cells insulin
Insulin administration is necessary Can be controlled by diet,
Treatment exercise and medicine

13. Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?

 Low calories, normal proteins, vitamins and minerals, restricted carbohydrate and fat, high
fiber diet can prevent overweight.
 Calorie restriction for weight reduction is safe and most effective.

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14. What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases?
 Diet Management – Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol
rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications.
 Physical activity – Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for body weight
maintenance.
 Addiction substance avoidance – Alcohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided.

III. Long answer questions :

1. Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
 Education and proper counselling will help the alcoholics to overcome their problems and
stress.
 Healthy activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.
 The affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and peers.
 Individual should seek help from psychologists
 Psychiatrists to get relieved from this condition and to lead a relaxed and peaceful life.
 Alcohol de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes are helpful to the individual
 so that they could get rid of the problem completely and can lead a normal and healthy life.

2. Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be

modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
Diet Management:
 Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol rich food, low
carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications.
 Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential.
Physical activity:
 Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for body weight maintenance.
Addictive substance avoidance:
 cohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided.

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 22. ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
i. Tar ii. Coal iii. Petroleum
a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
2. What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
a) reduce the amount of waste formed b) reuse the waste
c) recycle the waste d) all of the above
3. The gas released from vehicles exhaust are
i. Carbon monoxide ii. Sulphur dioxide iii. Oxides of nitrogen
a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
4. Soil erosion can be prevented by
a) deforestation b) afforestation c) over growing d) removal of vegetation
5. A renewable source of energy is
a) petroleum b) coal c) nuclear fuel d) trees
6. Soil erosion is more where there is
a) no rain fall b) low rainfall c) rain fall is high d) none of these
7. An inexhaustible resources is
a) wind power b) soil fertility c) wild life d) all of the above
8. Common energy source in village is
a) electricity b) coal c) bio gas d) wood and animal dung
9. Green house effect refers to
a) cooling of earth b) trapping of UV rays
c) cultivation of plants d) warming of earth
10. A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is
a) hydropower b) solar energy c) wind energy d) thermal energy
11. Global warming will cause
a) raise in level of oceans b) melting of glaciers
c) sinking of islands d) all of these
12. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy
a) wind energy is a renewable energy
b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor
c) production of wind energy is pollution free
d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels

II. Short answer questions:

1. What will happen if trees are cut down?
 Floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of bio
geochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

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2. What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
 Animal will not be able to find food, shelter or live
 Such animals tend to migrate into residential areas.
3. What are the agents of soil erosion?
 High velocity of wind
 Air currents
 Flowing water
 Land slide
 Human activities (deforestation, farming and mining)
 Overgrazing by cattle.
4. Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
 It is necessary to conserve or save coal and petroleum resources for the future use, which
can be done by reducing their consumption.
5. Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
 Solar energy is the energy obtained from the sun.
6. How are e-wastes generated?
 It includes the spoiled, outdated, non-repairable electrical and electronic devices.
7. What is the importance of rain water harvesting?
 Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water levels.
 To Meet the increase demand of water.
 Reduces flood and soil erosion
 Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes and hence can
be used for drinking purpose.
8. What are the advantages of using biogas?
 It burns without smoke and therefore causes less pollution.
 An excellent way to get rid of organic wastes like bio-waste and sewage material.
 Left over slurry is a good manure rich in nitrogen and phosphorus
 It is safe and convenient to use
 It can reduce the amount of green house gases emitted.
9. What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
 Sewage water results in agricultural contamination and environmental degradation.
10. What are the consequences of deforestation?
 India is losing about 1.5 million hectares of forest cover every year.
 Deforestation gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion.
 It results loss of wild life, extinction of species.
 It leads to imbalance of biogeochemical cycles.
 It results in alteration of climatic conditions and desertification.

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III. Long answer questions :
1. How does rain water harvesting structures recharge ground water?
(i) Roof top rainwater harvesting:
 The rain water that falls on the roof of the houses, apartments, commercial buildings etc.
is collected and stored in the surface tank and can be used for domestic purpose.
(ii) Recharge pit:
 In this method, the rain water is first collected from the roof tops or open spaces and is
directed into the percolation pits through pipes for filtration.
 After filtration the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells.
(iii) Digging of tanks or lakes (Eris):
 Eris are constructed in such away that if the water in one eri overflows, it automatically
gets diverted to the eri of the next village, as these eris are inter connected
(iv) Ooranis
 These are small ponds to collect rainwater.
 The water is used for various domestic purposes (drinking, washing and bathing). These
ponds cater the near by villages.
2. How will you prevent soil erosion?
 Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
 Cattle grazing should be controlled.
 Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
 Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
 Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
 Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in form of a shelter belt
3. What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
 Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e - wastes etc.
a) Segregation:
 It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-
bio degradable wastes.
b) Sanitary landfill:
 Solid wastes are dumped into low-lying areas.
 The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement.
 The waste materials get stabilized in about 2-12 months.
 The organic matter under goes decomposition.
c) Incineration:
 It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly
constructed furnace at high temperature.
d) Composting:
 Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earth worms and
converted into humus.
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4. Enumerate the importance of forest.
 Forests are an important in microorganisms, flowering plants, shrubs, climbers, dense trees and
provide a vast habitat for wild animals.
 It contribute to the economic development of our country.
 Forests are vital for human life.
 They provide wood, food, fodder, fiber and medicine.
 Forests are major factor of environmental concern.
 They also play a vital role in maintaining the ecological balance.
5. What are the consequences of soil erosion?
 Deforestation is the destruction of large area of forests.
 It leads to surface runoff and floods.
 It causes loss of food and land.
 It results in loss of nutrients.

23. VISUAL COMMUNICATION

I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which software is used to create animation?
a) Paint b) PDF c) MS Word d) Scratch
2. All files are stored in the ______________
a) Folder b) box c) Pai d) scanner
3. Which is used to build scripts?
a) Script area b) Block palette c) stage d) sprite
4. Which is used to edit programs?
a) Inkscape b) script editor c) stage d) sprite
5. Where you will create category of blocks?
a) Block palette b) Block menu c) Script area d) sprite
II. Short answer questions:
1. What is Scratch?
 ‘Scratch’ is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily. Scratch, on
the other hand, is a visual programming language.
2. Write a short note on editor and its types?
 Script area : Where you build scripts.
 Block menu : Where you choose the category of blocks (programming statements) to use.
 Block palette : Where you choose the blocks to use. When the Costumes tab is chosen, the
costume editor
3. What is Stage?
 Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window.
 The background will most often be white. You can change the background colour as you
like.
4. What is Sprite?
 The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as Sprite.
 Usually acat appears as a sprite when the Scratch window is opened.
 The software provides facilities to make alternations in sprite.
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