Pipe Put

The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs_______.
A. Differ
B. Are the same*
C. Are unequal
D. None of the above
A process with no heat transfer is known as

A. Isobaric process
B. Adiabatic process*
C. Isothermal process
D. Isometric process
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of
A. Mercury
B. Oil
C.gas
D. Water*
The type of heat exchanger allows fluid to flow at right angles to each other
A. Series flow
B. Parallel flow
C. Cross flow*
D. Counter flow
The fact that total energy in any one energy system remains constant is called the principle of ______.
A. Conservation of energy*
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Conservation of mass
D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same
A. Isenthalpic
B. Enthalpy Conservation
C. Throttling*
D. Steady State
The sum of energies of all the molecules in the system, energies that appear in several complex forms.
A. Kinetic energy
B. Internal energy*
C. External energy
D. Flow work
The system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. Neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries.
A. Open system
B. Closed system
C. Adiabatic system
D. Isolated system*
A device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference

A. Manometer*
B. Bourdon gage
C. Barometer
D. Piezometer
A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure.
A. Superheated vapor*
B. Saturated vapor
C. Super saturated vapor
D. Subcooled vapor
The energy of stored capacityfor performing work possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum.
A. Internal energy
B. Work
C. Gravitational potential energy
D. Kinetic energy*
The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the change in internal energy is zero.
A. Isobaric process
B. isometric process
C. Isothermal process*
D. Polytropic process
The function of a pump or compressor is to

A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
B. Increase the total energy content of the flow*
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
This law states that “all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cannot be converted into mechanical work”
A. 1st law of thermodynamics
B. 2nd law of thermodynamics*
C. 3rd law of thermodynamics
D. All of the above
The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is called:

A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure*
C. Vacuum pressure
D. Saturation pressure
This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful horsepower developed of an engine and available on its crankshaft to the heat to th same time.
A. Brake engine efficiency
B. Indicated thermal efficiency
C. Combined thermal efficiency
D. Brake thermal efficiency*
Flow work is equal to pressure times _________.

A. Temperature
B. Entropy
C. Internal energy
D. Specific volume*
This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body.

A. Internal energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Potential energy*
D. Work
Another term for constant volume process

A. Isometric
B. Isochoric
C. Isovolumic
D. All of the above*
Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process in the turbine.
A. Brake work
B. Ideal work*
C. Actual fluid flow
D. Combined work
The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the

A. Pressure
B. Entropy
C. Volume
D. Temperature*
It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at

A. A given temperature
B. Latent heat vaporization
C. Enthaply of vaporization hfg
D. all of the above*
Is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or high temperatures.

A. Thermistor
B. Thermocouple*
C. Bimetallic strip
D. Mercury in glass
The science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy and enthalpy.
A. Themodynamics
B. Chemistry
C. Calorimetry*
The rate of doing work per unit time

A. Torque
B. Power*
C. Force
D. Moment
In an ideal Rankine Cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What is the effectof superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency?
A. The cycle thermal efficiency will increase*
B. The cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
C. The cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure.
A. Superheated vapor*
B. Saturated vapor
C. Unsaturated vapor
D. Water
It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into or out of the system.
A. Mechanical work
B. Nonflow work
C. Flow work*
D. Electrical work
A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure.
A. Subcooled liquid*
B. Saturated liquid
C. Unsaturated liquid
D. Water
In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the flue gases burn outside the tubes,
A. Water-tube boiler*
B. Fire-tube boiler
C. Steam generator
D. Electric boiler
It shows the water level in the boiler drum.

A. Water column
B. Try cocks
C. Gauge glass*
D. All of the above
It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water.

A. Safety valve
B. Fusible plug*
C. Relief valve
D. Try cocks
It has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud, scale, or sediment when the boiler is in the operation and prevents excessive concentration
of soluble impurities in the boiler.
A. Blow-down line*
B. Boiler feedwater pump
C. Steam valve
Is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to preheat the air needed for combustion
A. Economizer
B. Feedwater heater
C. Reheater
D. Air preheater*
Is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which utilizes the heat of the flue gases.
A. Economizer*
B. Open heater
C. Closed heater
D. Waterwalls
Is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the same time protect the furnace walls from high temperature.
A. Reheater
B. Waterwalls*
C. Superheater
D. Feedwater heater
Is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at 212 oF to steam at 212oF and equivalent to 33,500 btu/hr.
A. One horsepower
B. One kilowatt
C. One boiler horsepower*
D. none of the above
Prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess steam to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached, thus guarding against a possible
explosion through excessive pressure.
A. Relief valve
B. Safety valve*
C. Fusible plug
D. Pressure switches
In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through________

A. Inside the tubes*
B. Outside the tubes
C. Inside the shell
D. Outside the shell
As the number of stages is increased, the expansion process becomes

A. Isentropic
B. Isothermal*
C. Isometric
D. Polytropic
Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio typically between

A. 6 to 8
B. 12 to 24
C. 10 to 18
D. 10 to 25*
The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a bypass ratio of

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5*
D. 7
The single-stage expansion process of an ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by a multistage expansion process with reheating between the same pressure limits. As a result of modification,
thermal efficiency will:
A. Increase
B.decrease*
C. Remain constant
D. None of these
Which of the following is/are the application of Brayton cycle:

A. Propulsion system
B. Automotive turbine system
C. Aircraft turbine engines
D. All of these*
It is used as working fluid in high temperature applications of vapor cycles.

A. Helium
B. Deuterium
C. Mercury*
D. Water
The superheated vapor enters the turbine and expands isentropically and produces work by rotating the shaft. The ______ may drop during the process.
A. Density
B. Viscocity of fuel
C. Temperature and pressure*
D. None of these
Only _______ of the turbine work output is required to operate the pump.
A. 0.01%
B. 0.02%
C. 0.03%
D. 0.04%*
Superheating the steam to higher temperatures decreases the moisture content of the steam at the _______.
A. Turbine inlet
B. Compressor inlet
C. Compressor exit
D. Turbine exit*
Regeneration also provides a convenient mans of dearating the feedwater to prevent

A. Boiler explosion
B. Boiler scale production
C. Boiler corrosion*
D. Compressor damage
Can be apply in Steam turbine cycle(Rankine), gas turbine cycle (brayton) and combined cycle
A. Hydroelectric plant
B. Nuclear power plant
C. Cogeneration plant*
D. Tidal power plant
In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser pressure, the heat rejected will:
A. Increase
B. Decrease*
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature, the pump work input will:
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same*
D. None of these
How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration? The heat rejected will:
A. Increase
B. Decrease*
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
During a combustion process, the component which exist before the reaction are called:
A. Reaction
B. Combustion
C. Reactants*
D. Product
In an obvious reason for incomplete combustion

A. Insufficient carbon
B. Insufficient air
C. Insufficient nitrogen
D. Insufficient oxygen*
Higher heating value when water in th product of combustion is in

A. Solid form
B. Vapor form
C. Gas form
D. Liquid form*
Device which transfer heat from low temperature medium to a high temperature one is a
A. Adiabatic
B. Refrigerator
C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat pump*
A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by ______ for each oC the evaporating temperature is raised or the condensing temperature is lowered
A. 2 to 4 %*
B. 6 to 7 %
C. 1 to 5 %
D. 6 to 10 %
Are generally more expensive to purchase and install than other heating systems, but they save money in the long run.
A. Refrigrator
B. Adiabator
C. Heat pumps*
D. Humidifier
The most widely used absorption system is the ammonia-water system, where ammonia is serves as refrigerant and H 2O as the
A. Cooling
B. Heating
C. Heating and cooling
D. Transport medium*
Which of the following is used for Binary cycle power generation for high temperature application.
A. Mercury
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. All of these*
Critical temperature of mercury

A. 1160 oC
B. 1260oC
C. 1360oC
D. 1460oC*
Critical pressure of mercury

A. 100 Mpa
B. 108 Mpa*
C. 128 Mpa
D. 158 Mpa
Method used in converting heat directly to electricity by magnetism.

A. electromagnetic induction
B. Magnetodynamic
C. Magnetohydrodynamic*
D. Thermoelectric
Which of the following is NOT a material used for thermolectric elements.
A. Bismuth telluride
B. Lead telluride
C. Zinc telluride*
D. Germanium
A type of coal formed after anthracite.

A. Lignite
B. Bituminous
C. Peat
D. Graphite*
Which of the following is lowest grade of coal?

A. Peat
B. Lignite*
C. Sub-bituminous
D. Bituminous
Which of the following helps in the ignition of coal?

A. Moisture
B. Ash
C. Fixed carbon
D. Volatile matter*
Is the ratio fixed carbon and volatile matter.

A. Air-fuel ratio
B. Fuel ratio*
C. Combustion ratio
D. Carbon-volatile ratio
A suspension of a finely divide fluid in another.

A. Filtration
B. Floatation
C. Emulsion*
D. Separation
Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol.

A. Gasohol*
B. Gasonol
C. Gasothanol
D. Gasethanol
Process commercially in coal liquefaction.

A. Tropsch process
B. Fisher process
C. Fisher-tropsch process*
D. Mitch-tropsch process
Is an organic matter produced by plants in both land and water.

A. Bio-ethanol
B. Biomass*
C. Petroleum
D. Biogradable
In thermal powerplant, induced draft fans are located at the

A. Exit of furnace
B. Foot of the stack*
C. Above the stack
D. top of the stack
In thermal powerplant, forced draft fan are installed at the

A. foot of furnace
B. top of the stack
C. Exit of the preheater
D. Inlet of the preheater*
Known as drum less boiler

A. La Mont boilers
B. Fire tube boilers
C. Forced circulation boiler
D. Once-through boiler*
Reduces the steam temperature by spraying low temperature water from boiler drum.
A. Reheater
B. Preheater
C. Desuperheater*
D. Superheater
Carbon dioxide can be removed by :
A. Deaeration
B. Aeration*
C. Evaporation
D. Vaporization
Is often used to absorb silica from water.

A. Sorbent
B. Rectifier
C. Silica gel
D. Magnesium hydroxide*
Presence of excess hydrogen ions make the water

A. Acidic*
B. Alkanity
C. Base
D. Hydroxicity
PH of water varies with

A. Pressure
B. Temperature*
C. Density
D. Volume
PH value of _____ is usually maintained for boiler water to minimized corrosion.

A. 8.5
B. 9.5
C. 10.5*
D. 11.5
What type of turbine that has a degree of reaction of ½ ?

A. Impulse turbine
B. Reaction turbine
C. Rarsons turbine*
D. Deriaz turbine
Which instruments is used to measure humidity of the atmosphere continuously?
A. Barograph
B. Thermograph
C. Hydrograph*
D. Thermo-hydrograph
Entrance losses between tank and pipe or losses through elbows, fittings and valves are generally expresses as a functions of:
a. Kinetic energy*
b. Pipe diameter
c. Friction factor
d. Volume flow rate
The air that contains no water vapor is called:

a. Zero air
b. Saturated air
c. Dry air *
d. Humid air
In psychrometric chart, the constant-enthalpy lines coincide with constant-temperature lines at temperature
a. Above 50˚C
b. Below 40 ˚C
c. Below 50 ˚C *
d. Above 10 ˚C
The amount of moisture in air depends on its

a. pressure
b. volume
c. temperature*
d. humidity
The deep body temperature of healthy person is maintained constant at

a. 27 deg C
b. 37 deg C*
c. 47 deg C
d. 48 deg C
By increasing the condenser pressure in vapor compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Refrigerating effect
b. COP
c. Specific volume at suction
d. Compressor work *
By increasing the condenser pressure in vapor compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Moisture content after expansion *
b. Compressor power
c. Heat rejected from condenser
d. Mass flow rate
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Mass flow rate
b. Compressor power
c. Heat rejected in the condenser*
d. Specific volume at suction
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
b. Mass flow rate *
c. Heat rejected in the condenser
d. Compressor work
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will not be affected? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Compressor power *
b. Mass flow rate
d. COP
If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)
b. Vaporizing temperature
c. Heat rejected in the condenser*
d. COP
If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Specific volume at suction
b. Compressor power
d. COP *
By lowering the condenser pressure in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Pump work
b. Turbine work
c. Heat rejected*
d. Cycle efficiency
By increasing the Boiler pressure in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Heat rejected *
b. Pump work
c. Cycle efficiency
d. Moisture content
By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust *
b. Turbine work
c. Heat added
d. Heat rejected
By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust
b. Pump work
c. Condenser pressure
d. Cycle efficiency *
By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass analysis)
a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust
b. Pump work*
c. Condenser pressure
d. Cycle efficiency
By reheating the steam before entering the second stage in Rankine cycle, which of the following will decrease?
a. Turbine work
b. Moisture content after expansion *
c. Heat added
d. Heat rejected
When Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration, which of the following will increase?
a. Turbine work
b. Heat added
c. Heat rejected
d. Cycle efficiency*
Is the combination of base load and peaking load.

a. Rated load
b. Intermmediate load *
c. Combine load
d. Over-all load
Sum of the maximum demand over the simultaneous maximum demand.

a. Use factor
b. Capacity factor
c. Demand factor
d. Diversity factor *
Regenerative with feed heating cycle with infinite number of feedwater heaters thus efficiency is equal to:
a. Otto cycle
b. Stirling cycle
c. Erricson cycle
d. Carnot cycle *
A type of turbine used in desalination of sea water.

a. Back pressure turbine *
b. Passout turbine
c. Peaking turbine
d. Reaction turbine
States that when conductor and a magnetic field move relatively to each other, an electric voltage is induced in the conductor.
a. Maxwell’s law
b. Kirchoff’s law
c. Faraday’s law*
d. Newton’s law
Transfers heat directly to electrical energy by utilizing thermoionic emissions.

a. Thermoionic motor
b. Thermoionic generator *
c. Thermoionic convertor
d. Thermoionic cell
Is the largest group of coal containing 46-86% of fixed carbon and 20 to 40% volatile matter.
a. anthracite
b. Sub anthracite
c. Bituminous*
d. Sub-bituminous
When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a temperature of about 105C for a period of 1 hour, the loss in weight of the sample gives the:
a. Volatile matter and moisture
b. Ash
c. Fixed carbon
d. Moisture content *
When 1 gram of sample coal is placed in a crucible and heated 950oC and maintained at that temperature for 7 minutes, there is a loss in weight due to elimination of:
a. Volatile matter and moisture *
b. Ash
c. Fixed carbon
d. Moisture content
Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen carbon compounds which can be removed from coal by heating.
a. Moisture content
b. Product of combustion
c. Ash
D. Volatile matter *
By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered crucible until the coal is completely burned, the _______ will formed.
a. Volatile matter and moisture
b. Ash *
c. Fixed carbon
d. Moisture content
Caking coal are used to produce coke by heating in a coke oven in the absence of ___ with volatile matter driven off.
a. Air*
b. Oil
c. oxygen
c. nitrogen
Gindability of standard coal is:

a. 80
b. 90
c. 100*
d. 110
Major constituent of all natural gases is:

a. ethane
b. methane *
c. propane
d. cethane
Two types of fans are:

a. Centrifugal and axial*
b. Tangential and rotary
c. Reciprocating and axial
d. Centrifugal and rotary
Enthalpy of substance at specified state due to chemical composition.

a. Enthalpy of reaction
b. Enthalpy of combustion
c. Enthalphy of formation*
d. Enthalpy of product
A type of boiler used for super critical pressure operation:

a. La Mont boiler
b. Once-through circulation boiler*
c. Force Circulation boiler
d. Natural circulation boiler
Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated by:
a. Electric furnace
b. Electric current
c. Incoming flue gas
d. Outgoing flue gas *
Receives heat partly by convection and partly by radiation.

a. Radiant superheater
b. Desuperheater
c. Convective Superheater
d. Pendant superheater *
Regenerative superheater is a storage type of heat exchangers have an energy storage medium called:
a. matrix*
b. regenerator
c. boiler
d. recuperator
Stirling cycle uses a _______ as working fluids.

a. Incompressible gas
b. Incompressible fluids
c. Compressible refrigerant
d. Compressible fluids *
In stirling process, the heat is added during

a. Isobaric process
b. Isentropic process
c. Isothermal process*
d. Heat process
Brayton cycle is also known as:

a. Carnot cycle
b. Joule cycle *
c. Diesel cycle
d. Rankine cycle
Is applied to propulsion of vehicles because of certain practical characteristics.

a. Diesel cycle
b. Otto cycle
c. Carnot cycle
d. Brayton cycle *
Heat exchangers typically involve:

a. No work interactions*
b. No heat interactions
c. No energy interactions
d. None of these
A device that is used to convert the heat to work is called:

a. adiabatier
b. regenerator
c. Heat engines*
d. None of these
The objective of a heat pump is to maintain a heated space at:

a. Low temperature
b. High temperature*
c. Medium temperature
d. None of these
A process is called _____________ if no irreversibilities occur outside the system boundaries during the process.
a. Externally reversible*
b. Internally reversible
c. reversible
d. None of these
An energy interaction which is not accompanied by entropy transfer is

a. energy
b. heat
c. work*
d. None of these
The only devices where the changes in kinetic energy are significant are the
a. compressor
b. pumps
c. Nozzles and diffusers*
d. None of these
The distance between the TDC and BDC in which the piston can travel is the
a. Right extreme position
b. Displacement stroke
c. Stroke of the Engine*
d. Swept Stroke
In compression-engine, the combustion of air-fuel mixture is self-ignited as a result of compressing the mixture above its
a. Self developed temperature
b. Mixing temperature
c. Self feed temperature
d. Self ignition temperature *
Only _______ of the turbine work output is required to operate the pump
a. .01%
b. .02%
c. .03%
d. .04% *
Superheating the steam to higher temperatures decreases the moisture content of the steam at the ____________.
a. Turbine inlet
b. Compressor inlet
c. Compressor exit
d. Turbine exit *
Regeneration also provides a convenient means of dearating the feedwater to prevent

a. Boiler explosion
b. Boiler scale production
c. Boiler corrosion *
d. Compressor damage
Can be applied in Steam turbine cycle (rankine), Gas turbine cycle (Brayton) and Combined cycle.
a. Hydroelectric plant
b. Nuclear power plant
c. Cogeneration plant*
d. Tidal power plant
In a rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser pressure, the heat rejected will:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. Remains the same*
d. None of these
How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration? The heat rejected will:
a. Increase
b. decrease *
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
It is an obvious reason for incomplete combustion.

a. Insufficient carbon
b. Insufficient air
c. Insufficient nitrogen
d. Insufficient oxygen *
A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by ____ for each oC the evaporating temperature is raised or the condensing temperature is lowered
a. 2-4% *
b. 6-7%
c. 1-5%
d. 6-10%
Are generally more expensive to purchase and install than other heating systems, but they
a. refrigerator
b. Adiabator
c. Heat pumps
d. humidifier *
The most widely used absorption system is the ammonia-water system, where ammonia is served as refrigerant and water as the
a. cooling
b. heating
c. Heating and cooling
d. Transport medium *
CIT – UNIVERSITY MECHANICAL ENGINEERING ME COMPREHENSIVE EVALUATION COURSE 3 MIDTERM
EXAMINATION – SET A (SOLUTION)
CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN!
MIDTERM EXAMINATION
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark ONLY ONE ANSWER for each item by SHADING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER of your choice on the answer sheet provided. Indicate the SET
of your questionnaire by writing it on your answer sheet. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED!
1. For which type of process does the equation dQ = Tds
A. Irreversible C. Reversible*
B. Isobaric D. Thermodynamic process
2. A fuel heater receives 23,200 lbm of oil per hour at 80 F and discharges it at 160 F. The specific heat of the oil is 0.48 Btu/lbm-F. Find the rate of heat transfer.
A. 980,000 Btu/hr C. 910,000 Btu/hr
B. 819,000 Btu/hr D. 891,000 Btu/hr*
Solution: 𝑄𝑜𝑖𝑙=𝑚𝑜𝑖𝑙𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙Δ𝑡 𝑄𝑜𝑖𝑙=(23200)(0.48)(160−80)=891,000𝐵𝑡𝑢ℎ𝑟

3. An ideal Otto cycle operates with temperature of 370 C at the end of a compression process, a maximum temperature of 1510 C and a minimum temperature of 20 C. What is the temperature at the beginning of the heat rejection
process?
A. 395.5 C C. 539.5 C*
B. 359.5 C D. 593.5 C
Solution:
𝑟𝑒𝑘−1=𝑟𝑘𝑘−1
𝑇3𝑇4=𝑇2𝑇1
𝑡4=(1510+273.15)(20+273.15)370+273.15−273.15=539.5℃
4. What is the temperature difference of the cycle id the entropy difference is ΔS, and the work done is W?
A. W – ΔS C. ΔS/W
B. W/ΔS* D. ΔS – W
5. One pound of air (consider here a perfect gas) with an initial temperature of 200F is allowed to expand without flow between pressures of 90 and 15 psia. What is the specific work if it follows PV 1.5=c?
A. -81 Btu/lbm C. 45.2 Btu/lbm
B. 81 Btu/lbm D. 40.7 Btu/lbm*
Solution:
𝑤=𝑅𝑎(𝑇2−𝑇1)1−𝑛=(53.3)[(200+460)(1590)1.5−11.5−(200+460)]1−1.5=40.7𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
6. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
A. 0 K & 1 atm C. 32 F & and 0 atm
B. 0 F & 0 atm D. 0 C & 1 atm*
7. What is the available energy in Btu/lb for a Carnot cycle with a source temperature of 3460R, a sink temperature of 520R and an energy supply as heat of 100 Btu to one pound of a working substance?
A. 15 C. 26.5
B. 85* D. 11.5
Solution:
𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡100 𝐵𝑡𝑢=1−5203460
𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡=85 𝐵𝑡𝑢
8. Energy changes are represented by all except which one of the following?
A. mCdt C. –∫VdP
B. Tds – PdV D. dQ/T*
9. During the steady flow process, the pressure of the working substance drops from 200 to 20 psia, the speed increases from 200 to 1000 fps, the internal energy of the system decreases 25 Btu/lbm, and the specific volume
increases from 1 to 8 ft3/lbm. No heat is transferred. Determine the work done per lbm.
A. 13.24 Btu/lbm* C. 10.45 Btu/lbm
B. 12.34 Btu/lbm D. 15.25 Btu/lbm
Solution:
𝑞=[Δ𝑢+12(𝑣22−𝑣12)+(𝑃2𝑣2−𝑃1𝑣1)]+𝑊𝑠𝑓
0=[−25+12[10002−2002](32.2)(778)+[20(8)−200(1)](144)778]+𝑊𝑠𝑓
𝑊𝑠𝑓=13.24𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
10. In flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes ∫VdP represents which item below?
A. Heat transfer C. Enthalpy change
B. Shaft work* D. Closed system work
11. A Carnot cycle has a maximum temperature of 550 F and minimum temperature of 100 F. If the heat added is 4200 Btu/min, find the horsepower output of the engine.
A. 34.53 C. 40.56
B. 44.13* D. 65.40
Solution:
𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡(4200)(142.4)=1−100+460550+460
𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡=44.13 ℎ𝑝
12. A diesel cycle has a cut-off ratio of 1.9 and expansion ratio of 4. Find the clearance of the cycle.
A. 9.11% C. 11.11%
B. 5.55% D. 15.15%*
Solution:
𝑟𝑐=𝑟𝑘𝑟𝑒
1+𝑐𝑐=(1.9)(4)
𝑐=15.15%
13. The true pressure measured above a perfect vacuum.
A. Absolute pressure* C. Atmospheric pressure
B. Gage pressure D. Vacuum pressure
14. A spark ignition engine operates on an Otto cycle with a compression ratio of 9 and temperature limits of 30°C and1000°C. If the power input is 500 kW. Calculate the mass flow rate of air.
A. 1.99 kg/s C. 2.19 kg/s*
B. 2.99 kg/s D. 2.59 kg/s
Solution:
𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡=𝑄𝐴−𝑄𝑅=𝑚𝑐𝑣𝑎[(𝑇3−𝑇2)−(𝑇4−𝑇1)]
𝑚=5000.717[[(1000+273.15)−(30+273.15)(9)1.4−11.4]−[1000+273.1591.4−11.4−(30+273.15)]]
𝑚=2.12𝑘𝑔𝑠~2.19𝑘𝑔𝑠
15. The stroke of a gas engine which works on the constant volume cycle is 450 mm. The pressure at the beginning of the compression is 1.01 bar and at the end of the compression it is 11.1bar. Assuming compression follows the
law PV1.36=C, calculate the clearance between the piston and cylinder cover at the end of compression in mm of length.
A. 73.26 mm C. 93.26 mm*
B. 83.26 mm D. 103.26 mm
Solution:
𝑃1𝑉11.36=𝑃2𝑉21.36
(1.01 𝑏𝑎𝑟)[𝐴(𝑐+450 𝑚𝑚)]1.36=(11.1 𝑏𝑎𝑟)[𝐴(𝑐)]1.36
𝑐=93.26 𝑚𝑚
16. The heat exchanger used in an Ericsson cycle is
A. Regenerator C. intercooler
B. Combustion chamber D. recuperator*
17. An ideal Ericsson engine using helium (cp = 1.25 Btu/lbm-R, R = 0.4961 Btu/lbm-R) as the working fluid operates between temperature limits of 550 and 3000 R and pressure limits of 25 and 200 psia. Assuming a mass flow rate
of 14 lbm/s, determine the thermal efficiency of the cycle.
A. 61.87% C. 81.67%*
B. 76.18% D. 67.18%
Solution:
ŋ𝑡ℎ=1−5503000=81.67%
18. The pressure exerted in a vessel by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressures that each separate gas would exert if it alone occupied the whole volume of the vessel.
A. Boyle’s law C. Dalton’s law*
B. Charles’ law D. Avogadro’s law
2
19. During the steady flow process, the pressure of the working substance drops from 200 to 20 psia, the speed increases from 200 to 1000 fps, the internal energy of the system decreases 25 Btu/lbm, and the specific volume
increases from 1 to 8 ft3/lbm. No heat is transferred. Determine the work done in hp for 10 lbm per minute.
A. 1.23 hp C. 5.45 hp
B. 3.12 hp * D. 4.21 hp
Solution:
𝑄=[Δ𝑢+Δ𝑘𝑒+Δ𝑝𝑒+Δ𝑊𝑠]+𝑊𝑠𝑓
0=[−25(10)+12[10002−2002]32.2(778)(10)+[20(8)−200(1)](144)778(10)]+𝑊𝑠𝑓
𝑊𝑠𝑓=132.43𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑚𝑖𝑛=3.12 ℎ𝑝
20. A thermodynamic system that generally serves as a heat source or heat sink for another system?
A. Combustion chamber C. heat engine
B. Heat reservoir* D. Stirling engine
21. Two vessels A and B of different sizes are connected by a pipe with a valve. Vessel A contains 142 L of air at 2767.92 kPa, 93.33C. Vessel B of unknown volume contains air at 68.95 kPa, 4.44C. The valve is opened and when the
properties have been determined, it is found that the pressure is 1378.98 kPa, temperature of 43.33C. What is the volume of vessel B?
A. 120.45 L C. 105.46 L
B. 110.4 L * D. 115.5 L
Solution:
𝑚𝐴+𝑚𝐵=𝑚𝐶
(2767.92)(142)93.33+273.15+(68.95)𝑉𝐵4.44+273.15=1378.98(142+𝑉𝐵)43.33+273.15
𝑉𝐵=110.4 𝐿
22. A heat exchange process where in the product of pressure and volume remains constant is called:
A. Heat exchange process C. throttling process
B. Isentropic process D. hyperbolic process*
23. 10 ft3 of helium at 20 psia and 80F are compressed isentropically to 80 psia. The helium is then expanded polytropically with n =1.35 to the initial temperature. An isothermal process returns helium to the initial state. What is the
total heat added to helium? (take Cv = 0.75 Btu/lbm-R)
A. 37.63 Btu * C. 48.3 Btu
B. 34.5 Btu D. 32.45 Btu
Solution:
𝑄=𝑚𝐻𝑒𝐶𝑛(𝑇3−𝑇2)
𝑄=[20(144)(10)(15454)(80+460)][0.75[1.667−1.351−1.35]](80+460)[1−(8020)1.667−11.667]
𝑄=37.55 𝐵𝑡𝑢
24. Under ideal conditions: isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are:
A. Dynamic processes C. quasi-static processes*
B. Stable processes D. thermodynamic processes
25. A diesel cycle has a 16 to 1 compression ratio and peak cycle temperature of 2912 R. Conditions at the beginning of compression are 14.7 psia and 60F. Assuming constant specific heat, what is the cut-off ratio of the cycle?
A. 1.85* C. 2.20
B. 1.58 D. 2.02
Solution:
𝑟𝑐=𝑇3𝑇2=2912 𝑅(60+460)(16)1.4−1=1.85
26. A non-flow (closed) system contains 1 lb of an ideal gas (Cp = 0.24, Cv = 0.17). The gas temperature is increased by 10F while 5 Btu of work are done by the gas. What is the heat transfer in Btu?
A. -3.3 Btu C. +6.7 Btu*
B. -2.6 Btu D. +7.4 Btu
Solution:
𝑄=(1.0)(0.17)(10𝐹)+5=6.7 𝐵𝑡𝑢
27. Isentropic flow is
A. Perfect gas flow C. ideal fluid flow
B. Irreversible adiabatic flow D. reversible adiabatic flow*
28. Work of a polytopic (n=1.21) compression of air (Cp/Cv = 1.4) in a system with moving boundary from 15 psia and 1.0 ft3 to 150 psia and 0.15 ft3 is:
A. 35.5 ft-lbf C. 1080 ft-lbf
B. 324 ft-lbf D. 5150 ft-lbf*
Solution:
𝑤=[150(0.15)−15(1.0)](144)1−1.21=−1542.86 𝑓𝑡−𝑙𝑏𝑓
29. At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is
A. Dependent on temperature C. minimum
B. Zero* D. maximum
30. For a certain ideal gas, R = 25.8 ft-lbf/lbm-R and k = 1.09, occupied a volume of 15ft3 at 75 psia and 80F. If 30 Btu of heat is transferred to this gas at constant volume, what is the resulting temperature?
A. 547 R* C. 745 R
B. 457 R D. 345 R
Solution:
30=[(75)(144)(15)25.8(80+460)][25.81.09−1(1778)](𝑇2−(80+460))
𝑇2=547 𝑅
31. Which of the following cycles has two isothermal and two isometric processes?
A. Joule cycle C. Ericsson cycle
B. Diesel cycle D. Stirling cycle*
32. Isentropic compression of 1 ft3 of air at 20 psia to a pressure of 100 psia gives a final volume of:
A. 0.16 ft3 C. 0.32 ft3*
B. 0.20 ft3 D. 0.40 ft3
Solution:
(𝑉21)1.4−1=(20100)1.4−11.4
𝑉2=0.32 𝑓𝑡3
33. Solubility of a gas in a liquid at small concentration can be represented by which law?
A. Clausius-Clapeyron law C. Dalton’s law
B. Henry’s law* D. Roult’s law
34. Determine the theoretical horsepower required for the isothermal compression of 800 ft3/min of air from 14.7 psia to 120 psia.
A. 372 hp C. 173 hp
B. 109 hp* D. 273 hp
Solution:
𝑤=(14.7)(144)(800)ln(12014.7)33000=108 ℎ𝑝
35. In an ideal diesel cycle the change of entropy for the heat rejection process is 0.1662 Btu/lbm-R. The temperature and pressure at the beginning of the isentropic compression are 75 F and 15 psia, respectively. Pressure at the end
of the isentropic compression process is 555 psia. What is the maximum temperature attained by the cycle?
A. 2510 F C. 1041 F
B. 2670 F D. 2540 F*
Solution:
𝑇275+460=(55515)1.4−11.4
𝑇2=1501.106 𝑅
Δ𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑎𝑑𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛=Δ𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑟𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛=∫𝐶𝑝𝑎𝑑𝑇𝑇𝑇3𝑇2=𝐶𝑝𝑎ln𝑇3𝑇2
0.1662=(0.24)ln(𝑇31501.106)
𝑇3=2540 𝑅
36. Is a measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform useful work within the current environment?
A. Absolute entropy* C. Fugacity
B. Absolute enthalpy D. Molar value
37. A dual cycle has an initial temperature of 30 C. The compression ratio is 6 and the heat addition at constant volume process is 770.6 kJ/kg. If the cut-off ratio is 2.5, what is the maximum temperature of the cycle?
A. 3638.50 C* C. 3565.50 C
3
B. 3365.50 C D. 3965.50 C
Solution:
𝑞𝑣=𝑐=𝐶𝑣𝑎(𝑇3−𝑇2)
770.6=(0.717)(𝑇3−(30+273.15)(6)1.4−11.4)
𝑇3=1580.565 𝐾 𝑟𝑐=𝑇4𝑇3
𝑇4=2.5(1580.565 𝐾)=3951.412 𝐾=3678.3 𝐶
38. What is the maximum thermal efficiency possible for a power cycle operating between 600 C and 110 C?
A. 47% C. 63%
B. 56%* D. 74%
Solution:
ŋ=1−110+273.15600+273.15=56.11%
39. A six-cylinder, two-stroke marine diesel engine operates at a piston speed of 1200 rpm. The 5 in. x 5.6 in. engine has an 18:1 compression ratio. If the air intake is at 14.8 psia and 82° F, what is the clearance?
A. 5.3% C. 3.5%
B. 5.9%* D. 9.5%
Solution:
18=1+𝑐𝑐
𝑐=5.88%
40. The process in which heat energy is transferred to thermal energy storage device is known as:
A. Adiabatic C. intercooling
B. Regeneration* D. heat transfer
41. A drum 6 inches diameter and 40 inches long contained acetylene at 250 psia and 90F. After some of the acetylene was used, the pressure was 200 psia and the temperature was 85F. What portion of the acetylene was used?
Take R = 59.35 ft-lbf/lbm-R.
A. 14.56% C. 12.45%
B. 19.26%* D. 18.43%
Solution:
%𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑢𝑠𝑒𝑑=1−𝑚2𝑚1=1−𝑃2𝑉2𝑅𝑔𝑇2𝑃1𝑉1𝑅𝑔𝑇1=1−20085+46025090+460=19.266%
42. Which of the following is not the universal gas constant?
A. 1545 ft-lbf/lbmol-R C. 8.314 J/mol-K
B. 8314 kJ/mol-K* D. 8.314 kJ/kmol-K
43. For a certain ideal gas, R = 25.8 ft-lbf/lbm-R and k = 1.09. What is the value of the specific heat at constant volume?
A. 0.4016 Btu/lbm-R C. 0.3685 Btu/lbm-R*
B. 0.543 Btu/lbm-R D. 0.3024 Btu/lbm-R
Solution:
𝐶𝑣=25.81.09−1(1778)=0.3685𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚−𝑅
44. An ideal gas mixture consists of 2 kmol of nitrogen gas and 4 kmol of carbon dioxide gas. The mass fraction of carbon dioxide is:
A. 0.175 C. 0.258
B. 0.241* D. 0.507
Solution:
𝑥𝐶𝑂2=244244+428=0.241
45. Stagnation enthalpy represents the enthalpy of a fluid when it is brought to rest _____.
A. Isometrically C. isothermally
B. Adiabatically* D. isobarically
46. 10 ft3 of air at 30 psia and 400F is cooled to 140F at constant volume. What is the entropy change?
A. +0.0581 Btu/R C. 0
B. -0.0581 Btu/R* D. 0.120 Btu/R
Solution:
Δ𝑠=𝑚𝑐𝑣ln(𝑇2𝑇1)=[30(144)(10)53.3(400+460)](0.171)ln(140+460400+460)
Δ𝑠=−0.5802𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑅
47. A diesel cycle has a 16 to 1 compression ratio and peak cycle temperature of 2912 R. Conditions at the beginning of compression are 14.7 psia and 60F. Assuming constant specific heat, the nearest value of cycle thermal efficiency
is
A. 72.5% C. 64.9%
B. 62.2%* D. 58.5%
Solution:
𝑟𝑐=2912 𝑅(60+460)(16)1.4−1=1.847
Ŋ=1−1.8471.4−1161.4−1[1.4(1.847−1)]=62.14%
48. A liquid boils when the vapor pressure equals
A. Gage pressure D. ambient pressure*
B. Critical pressure D. 1 atm
49. A 1-hp stirring motor is applied to a tank containing 22.7 kg of water. The stirring action is applied for one hour and the tank losses 850 kJ/hr of heat. Calculate the rise in temperature of the tank after one hour considering that
the process occurs at constant volume?
A. +19.3 C * C. +12.45 C
B. +14.5 C D. +23.45 C
Solution:
𝑄=Δ𝑈+𝑊
−850𝑘𝐽ℎ𝑟=22.7(4.186)(Δ𝑡)+(−1 ℎ𝑝)(0.746)(3600)
Δ𝑡=19.32℃
A. Perfect gas flow C. ideal fluid flow*
B. Irreversible adiabatic flow D. reversible adiabatic flow
51. An engine working in a closed thermodynamic cycle produces 400 Btu of work per lbs of working substance passing through the machine. The pump in the cycle requires 6 Btu/lbm of working substance in the performance of its
duty. What is the net work of the cycle?
A. 406 Btu/lbm C. 394 Btu/lbm*
B. -406 Btu/lbm D. -394 Btu/lbm
Solution:
𝑤𝑛𝑒𝑡=400−6=394𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
52. A certain gas with Cp = 0.529 Btu/lbm-R and R = 96.2 ft-lbf/lbm-R expands from 5 ft3 and 80F to 15 ft3 while the pressure remains constant at 15.5 psia. Compute the change of enthalpy.
A. 234 Btu C. 122 Btu*
B. 130 Btu D. 105 Btu
Solution:
Δ𝐻=𝑚𝑐𝑝(𝑇2−𝑇1) Δ𝐻=[15.5(144)(5)96.2(80+460)](0.529)[(80+460)(155)−(80+460)]
Δ𝐻=122.74 𝐵𝑡𝑢
53. Assuming real processes, the net entropy change in the universe:
A. Must be calculated C. is negative
B. Equals zero D. is positive*
54. One pound of air (consider here a perfect gas) with an initial temperature of 200F is allowed to expand without flow between pressures of 90 and 15 psia. What is the specific work if it follows PV k=c?
A. 45.2 Btu/lbm* C. 40.7 Btu/lbm
B. -45.2 Btu/lbm D. -40.7 Btu/lbm
Solution:
𝑤=𝑅𝑎(𝑇2−𝑇1)1−𝑘=53.3[(200+460)(1590)1.4−11.4−(200+460)]1−1.4(1778)=45.29𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
55. Air in an ideal Diesel cycle is compressed from 3 L to 0.15 L and then it expands during the constant pressure heat addition process to 0.5 L. Under cold air standard conditions, the thermal efficiency of this cycle is:
A. 59%* C. 65%
B. 70% D. 54%
Solution:
𝑟𝑘=30.15=20
𝑟𝑐=0.50.115=3.33
ŋ=1−3.331.4−1201.4−1[1.4(3.33−1)]=59.42%
4
56. In an actual gas, the molecular collisions are

A. Plastic C. inelastic*
B. Elastic D. inplastic
57. Air in the amount of 280 m3 per minute is to be heated from 20C to 75C in a tubular heater by means of a saturated steam at 107C condensing on the outside of the tubes. How much steam would be required if the heat of
vaporization of steam at 107C is 2240 kJ/kg?
A. 423 kg/hr C. 473 kg/hr
B. 448 kg/hr D. 497 kg/hr*
Solution:
𝑄𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑎𝑚=𝑄𝑎𝑖𝑟
𝑚𝑠(2240)=[101.325(280)(60)0.287(20+273.15)](1.005)(75−20)
𝑚𝑠=499𝑘𝑔ℎ𝑟
58. What is referred by the control volume?
A. An isolated system C. Fixed region in space*
B. Closed system D. Reversible process only
59. Air flows steadily through an engine at constant temperature, 400 K. find the work per kg if the exit pressure is 1/3 the inlet pressure and the inlet pressure is 207 kPa. Assume that kinetic energy and potential energy variation is
negligible.
A. 234 Btu C. 120 Btu
B. 130 Btu* D. 105 Btu
Solution:
𝑤=𝑅𝑎𝑇ln(𝑃2𝑃1)
𝑤=(0.287)(400)ln(13)=−126.12 𝐵𝑡𝑢
60. In a spark ignition engine, the detonation occurs near the ______.
A. end of combustion* C. middle of combustion
B. beginning of combustion D. beginning of interaction
61. A Carnot power cycle has a maximum cycle temperature of 800 F. The change of entropy for the heat addition process is 0.085 Btu/lbm-R. Heat is rejected at a rate of 45.0 Btu/lbm. What is the minimum cycle temperature in F?
A. 101.7 F C. 107.1 F
B. 69.4 F* D. 62.1 F
Solution:
Δ𝑠=𝑞𝑅𝑇𝐿
0.085=45𝑡𝐿+460
𝑡𝐿=69.41 ℉
62. An Otto engine has a clearance of 7%. It produces 300 kW power. What is the amount of heat rejected in kW?
A. 452 kW C. 300 kW
B. 200 kW D. 152 kW*
Solution:
300𝑄𝑅+300=1−1(1+0.070.07)1.4−1
𝑄𝑅=151.78 𝑘𝑊
63. The continuity equation is applicable to
A. Viscous, unviscous fluids C. Conservation of mass*
B. Compressibility of fluids D. steady, unsteady flow
64. Determine the air standard efficiency of an engine operating on the diesel cycle when the suction pressure is 99.97 kPa and the fuel is injected for 7% of the stroke, the clearance volume is 9% of the stroke. Assume k = 1.4.
A. 50.02% C. 60.02%
B. 58.08%* D. 62.11%
Solution:
𝑟𝑐=1+0.090.09=12.11
𝑉3−𝑉2=0.07𝑉𝐷
𝑉3𝑉2−1=0.07(𝑉𝐷𝑉2)
𝑟𝑐−1=0.07(10.09)
𝑟𝑐=1.78
ŋ=1−1.781.4−112.111.4−1[1.4(1.78−1)]=58.08%
65. Which of the following occurs in a reversible polytropic process?
A. Enthalpy remains constant
B. Internal energy does not change
C. Some heat transfer occurs*
D. Entropy remains constant
66. At the beginning of the compression process in an ideal Diesel cycle the pressure is 15 psia, 70 F and 6.54 ft3. The compression ratio of the cycle is 15, and the heat supplied is 188 Btu. At the end of the compression process, the
pressure is 665 psia and the temperature is 1108 F. Using constant specific heat. What is the thermal efficiency of the cycle?
A. 56.0% C. 50.6%
B. 60.5%* D. 65.0%
Solution:
188=[15(144)(6.54)53.3(70+460)](0.24)[𝑇3−(1108+460)]
𝑇3=3134.456 𝑅
𝑟𝑐=3134.456 𝑅1108+460=2
ŋ=1−21.4−1151.4−1[1.4(2−1)]=60.4%
67. An Otto cycle with air as the working fluid has a compression ratio of 8.2. Under cold air standard conditions, the thermal efficiency of this cycle is
A. 24% C. 52%
B. 43% D. 57%*
Solution:
ŋ=1−18.21.4−1=56.9%
68. What is the area under the curve of a T-s diagram?
A. Volume C. work
B. Heat* D. entropy
69. A Carnot engine receives 100 kJ of heat from a hot reservoir at 370C and rejects 37 kJ of heat. Determine the temperature of the cold reservoir.
A. -35 C* C. 130 C
B. 100 C D. 230 C
Solution:
1−37100=1−𝑡𝐿+273.15370+273.15
𝑡𝐿=−35.18℃
70. In a dual combustion cycle the specific volume at the end of isentropic compression is 1.09 ft3/lbm and the highest temperature in the cycle is 2444F. The heat supplied to the cycle at constant volume is 100 Btu/lbm. At the
beginning of the compression process, the pressure and temperature are 14.7 psia and 60F, respectively. For air-standard assumption, what is the compression ratio of the cycle?
A. 10 C. 12*
B. 11 D. 13
Solution:
𝑟𝑘=𝑣1𝑣2=53.3(60+460)14.7(144)1.09=12.01
71. If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its original volume and twice its original temperature, the pressure:
A. Doubles C. quadruples*
B. Halves D. triples
72. At the start of compression in an air-standard Otto cycle with a compression ratio of 10, air is at 100 kPa and 40°C.heat addition of 2800 kJ/kg is made. What is most nearly thermal efficiency?
A. 52% C. 64%
B. 60%* D. 67%
Solution:
ŋ=1−1101.4−1=60.2%
73. Work is ______between the system and the surroundings.
A. work interaction C. energy interaction*
B. heat interaction D. none of these
74. The compression ratio of an air standard gasoline engine is 8. The initial pressure and temperature are 100 kPa and 25degree Celsius, If heat added in 1850 kJ kg, what is the temperature after isentropic expansion?
5
A. 1147K C. 1423 K*
B. 1399 K D. 1278 K
Solution:
𝑇2=(25+273.15)(8)1.4−1=684.97 𝐾
1850𝑘𝐽𝑘𝑔=(0.717)(𝑇3−684.97)
𝑇3=3265.164 𝐾
𝑇4=(3265.164 𝐾)(18)1.4−1=1421.25 𝐾
75. When four events takes place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the engine is called:
A. Rotary engine C. Reciprocating engine
B. Two-stroke engine* D. four-stroke engine
76. One pound of saturated steam at 100 psia is expanded in a reversible non-flow process from a specific volume of 0.017736 ft3/lbm to a specific volume of 4.434 ft3/lbm. If the pressure remains constant and the internal energy
increases 807.5 Btu/lbm during the process, determine how much heat is transferred, Btu/lbm,.
A. 889.2 Btu/lbm (abstracted) C. 898.2 Btu/lbm (abstracted)
B. 889.2 Btu/lbm (added)* D. 898.2 Btu/lbm (added)
Solution:
𝑞=Δ𝑢+𝑤𝑛𝑓
𝑞=807.5+[100(4.434−0.017736)(144)778]=889.24𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚 (𝑎𝑑𝑑𝑒𝑑)
77. A closed system may refer to ______.
A. Control mass* C. Control volume

B. Control energy D. Control temperature
78. In an ideal diesel cycle the change of entropy for the heat rejection process is 0.1662 Btu/lbm-R. The temperature and pressure at the beginning of the isentropic compression are 75 F and 15 psia, respectively. Pressure at the end
of the isentropic compression process is 555 psia. What is the temperature at the beginning of the heat addition process?
C. 210 F C. 1041 F*
D. 670 F D. 2540 F
Solution:
𝑇2=(75+460)(55515)1.4−11.4=1501.11 𝑅=1041.1 ℉
79. The indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline.
A. Aniline point C. Cetane number
B. Octane number* D. Diesel index
80. In an ideal Otto cycle, air is compressed from 1.20 kg/m3 and 2.2 L to 0.26 L, and the net work output of the cycle is 440 kJ/kg. The mean effective pressure (MEP) for this cycle is
A. 367 kPa C. 416 kPa
B. 599 kPa* D. 612 kPa
Solution:
𝑃𝑀𝐸𝑃=𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑉𝐷=1.2(2.21000)(440)2.2−.261000=598.76 𝑘𝑃𝑎
81. Detonation of pinging noise is due to:
A. Early timing of fuel injection C. late timing of fuel injection*
B. Head of piston carbonized D. valve springs weak or broken
82. At standard atmospheric pressure saturated steam has a specific volume of 26.80 ft3/lbm. If the enthalpy of the same vapor is 1150.5 Btu/lbm, calculate the internal energy of the steam, Btu/lbm.
A. 1110.9 Btu/lbm C. 1077.6 Btu/lbm*
B. 1150.0 Btu/lbm D. -555579.7 Btu/lbm
Solution:
ℎ=𝑢+𝑃𝑣
𝑢=1150.5−14.7(144)(26.80)778=1077.58𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
83. The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine with fixed compression ratio and fixed quantity of heat but with increase in pressure ration, will
A. Increase* C. decrease
B. Remains the same D. depends on cut-off ratio
84. A steady flow system, a substance enters with the following conditions:
p1 = 20 psia, v1 = 11.7 ft3/lb, u1 = 101.6 , V1 = 150 ft/sec.

The working substance leaves the system with the following conditions:
p2 = 25 psia, v2 = 10.3, u2 = 149.0 Btu/lb, and V2 = 500 ft/sec.
There are 10 Btu/lb transferred heat is added to the substance as it is through the system. Determine the work done on or by the fluid, Btu/lb.
A. +46.3 Btu/lbm (by) C. +64.3 Btu/lbm (by)
B. -46.3 Btu/lbm (on)* D. -64.3 Btu/lbm (on)
Solution:
𝑞=[Δ𝑢+Δ𝑘𝑒+Δ𝑝𝑒+Δ𝑤𝑠]+𝑤𝑠𝑓
10=[(149−101.6)+12(5002−1502)32.2(778)+[25(10.3)−20(11.7)](144)778]+𝑤𝑠𝑓
𝑤𝑠𝑓=−46.53𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
85. The enthalpy of a substance at a specified state due to its chemical composition.
A. enthalpy of reaction C. enthalpy of formation*
B. enthalpy of combustion D. enthalpy of vaporization
86. 2 kg of gas undergo a reversible non-flow process at 350 kPa while the volume increases from 0.4734 m3 to 0.9468 m3. Find the work done per unit mass of gas.
A. 165.6 kJ/kg C.166.5 kJ/kg
B. 82.8 kJ/kg* D. 88.2 kJ/kg
Solution:
𝑤=𝑃(𝑉2−𝑉1)𝑚=350(0.9468−0.4734)2=82.85𝑘𝐽𝑘𝑔
87. The mean effective pressure of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio will increase if cut-off ratio is:
A. Increased* C. independent of compression ratio
B. Decreased D. depends on other factor
88. An air standard Diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 18.At the beginning of the compression process, air is at 100kPa and 15 deg C. If the mean effective pressure is 1362kPa and the heat of combustion is 1800 kJ/kg, find the
thermal efficiency.
A. 0.496 C. 0.597
B. 0.587* D. 0.496
Solution:
𝑃𝑀𝐸𝑃=𝑤𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑣𝐷=ŋ𝑡ℎ𝑞𝐴𝑣1(1−1𝑟𝑘)
1362=ŋ𝑡ℎ(1800)0.287(15+273.15)100(1−118)
ŋ𝑡ℎ=0.591
89. One pound of air (consider here a perfect gas) with an initial temperature of 200F is allowed to expand without flow between pressures of 90 and 15 psia. What is the specific work if it follows PV=c?
A. 45.2 Btu/lbm C. 40.7 Btu/lbm
B. 81 Btu/lbm* D. 0
Solution:
𝑤=𝑅𝑎𝑇ln(𝑃1𝑃2)=(53.3)(200+460)ln(9015)778=81.02𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
90. What is true about the polytropic exponent n for perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?
A. n > 0 C. n = ∞
B. n < 0 D. n = 0*
91. Air initially at 10 F and 100 psia and occupying a volume of 0.5 ft3 undergoes a reversible non-flow constant temperature process such that the final pressure becomes 20 psia. Find the work done.
A. -11,590 ft-lbf C. -80.5 ft-lbf
B. 11,590 ft-lbf* D. 80.5 ft-lbf
Solution:
𝑤=𝑃𝑉ln(𝑃1𝑃2)=(100)(144)(0.5)ln(10020)=11588 𝑓𝑡−𝑙𝑏𝑓
92. In a Carnot cycle engine, the volume of helium after adiabatic compression is 23.8% of that before the compression. The sink temperature is 30°C. Determine the thermal efficiency.
A. 60.7% C. 61.6%*
B. 62.7% D. 63.7%
Solution:
6
ŋ=1−𝑇𝐿𝑇𝐻=1−(𝑉1𝑉2)𝑘−1=1−(0.238)1.667−1=61.61%
93. Heat added to or removed from a substance that cause a change of temperature
A. Absolute Heat C. Latent heat
B. Specific Heat D. Sensible Heat*
94. A Carnot cycle is represented by a rectangle in a T-s diagram that operates between temperature limits of 300K and 650K.
Inscribed within a rectangle is a triangle with based coincides with the sink temperature and the triangle apex with the source
temperature. Considering that the base of the triangle is three times that of its altitude. Determine the thermal efficiency of the cycle
represented by a triangle.
A. 44.88% C. 36.84%*
B. 43.66% D. 34.68%
Solution:
ŋ=𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑄𝐴=𝐴𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒+𝐴𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒
ŋ=12[3(650−300)](650−300)[[3(650−300)][300]]+12[3(650−300)](650−300)=36.84%
95. In an ideal Otto cycle, the temperature at the end of the heat addition process is 2600 F, and the temperature at the end of the
expansion process is 883 F. What is the compression ratio?
A. 14.9 C. 12.7
B. 17.9 D. 7.8*
Solution:
𝑟𝑘=𝑟𝑒=𝑉4𝑉3=(𝑇3𝑇4)1𝑘−1=(2600+460883+460)11.4−1=7.84
96. Form of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the random motion of large number of molecules within a body.
A. Internal energy C. Kinetic Energy
B. Thermal energy* D. Heat
97. What is the approximate value of temperature of water having enthalpy of 208 Btu/lbm?
A. 138.89°C C. 258.67°C
B. 115.55°C* D. 68.67°C
Solution: h=cw(tw−32) tw=208(1.0)+32=240℉=115.56℃

98. A container filled with helium is dropped 4900 m above the ground, find the change of temperature?
A. 12.43°C C. 15.43°C*
B. 9.43°C D. 8.43°C
Solution:
PE=ΔU mgh=mcv(Δt) Δt=(9.81)(4900)831441.667−1=15.43℃
99. Which of the following thermodynamic relations is INCORRECT?
A. TdS = dU + pdV C. U = Q – W *
B. TdS = dH - VdP D. H = U + pV
100. Half pound of gas undergoes a reversible non-flow process with the pressure remaining constant at 50 psia while the volume
increases from 4 ft3 to 8 ft3. Find the work done in Btu/lbm.
A. 37.02 Btu/lbm C. 0.51 Btu/lbm
B. 74.04 Btu/lbm* D. 400 Btu/lbm
Solution:
𝑤=50(8−4)0.5(778)=74.04𝐵𝑡𝑢𝑙𝑏𝑚
---NOTHING FOLLOWS ---
41
PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS
1) A boiler fuel contains 86.1% carbon, 12.5% hydrogen, 0.4% oxygen and 1% sulphur. 40% excess
air is supplied to the furnace and the fuel rate is 400 kg/h. Calculate the quantity of heat energy
transferred to the air per hour if it enters the air heater at 18C and leaves at 130°C. Take Cp for air
as 1.005 kJ/kgK and humidity ratio of 0.013kgv/kgda
a. 904,200 kJ/hr b. 913736kJ/hr c. 865425kJ/hr d. 758425kJ/hr
Solution: QAPH = ma Cpa (Δt)air where: ma = (A/F”) mf thus, QAPH = 913736 kJ/hr
2) The constituents of a fuel are 85% carbon, 13% hydrogen, and 2% oxygen. When burning this fuel
in a boiler furnace the air supply is 50% in excess of the theoretical minimum required for complete
combustion, the inlet temperature of the air being 31°C and exit gas temperature of 280°C.
Calculate the heat energy carried away to waste in the flue gases expressed as a percentage of the
heat energy supplied, taking the specific heat of the flue gases as 1.005 kJ/kgK.
a. 10.85% b. 9.62% c. 15.63% d. 11.84%
Qwh
Solution: % Wh = { }(100%) where: HHV = 14600C + 62000 (H – O/8) ;
mf HHV
Qwh/mf = ( mfg/mf ) Cpfg Δtfg ; mfg/mf = A/F + 1 thus, %Wh = 11.84%
3) In an experiment to determine the calorific value of an oil fuel by means of a bomb calorimeter, the
mass of the sample of fuel was 0.75 gram, mass of water surrounding the bomb 1.8 kg, water
equivalent of bomb and fittings 470 grams, and the rise in temperature was 3.3°C. Calculate the
calorific value of this oil in MJ/kg. Take specific heat of water= 4.2 kJ/kgK.
a. 41.94MJ/kg b. 32.15MJ/kg c. 25.63MJ/kg d. 65.63MJ/kg
Solution: HHV = QF / msample where: QF = mwt Cpw Δtw thus, HHV = 41.94 MJ/kg
4) The mass analysis of a fuel is 84% carbon, 14% hydrogen and 2% ash. It is burnt with 20% excess
air relative to stoichiometric requirement. If 100 kg/h of this fuel is burnt in a boiler determine the
volumetric flow rate of the gas if its temperature and pressure are 250°C and 1 bar respectively.
42
Note: Air contains 23.1% oxygen by mass. Ro= 8.3143 kJ/kg mol K and atomic mass relationships
are: oxygen 16, carbon 12, hydrogen 1.
a. 2569m3/hr b. 2759m3/h c. 1256m3/hr d. 5689m3/hr
Solution: Vfg = (mfg Rfg Tfg)/Pfg where: mfg/mf = 18.65 mfg=1827.73 kg/hr ;
R
Rfg = ;
mw=0.28872
Thus, Vfg = 2759.88 m3/hr.
5) Steam at 30 bar, 375°C, is generated in a boiler at the rate of 30000 kg/h from feed water at 130°C.
The fuel has a calorific value of 42 MJ/kg and the daily consumption is 53 tonne. Calculate the
equivalent engine power if the overall efficiency of the plant is 0.13.
a. 3349kW b. 2546kW c. 5634kW d. 8954kW
Solution: Po = (eplant) (mf HHV) where: eplant = (Po/Pi) 100% ; ebo = ms(hs-hf) /mf (HHV)
thus, Po = 3349 kW
6) The equivalent evaporation of a boiler, from and at 100C, is 15kgsteam/kg fuel, and the calorific
value of the fuel burned is 41.9MJ/kg. Find the efficiency of the boiler.
a. 82.8% b. 78.9% c. 85.6% d. 80.8%
Solution: ebo = ms(hs-hf) /mf (HHV) = (ese)(2257) / HHV thus, ebo = 80.8%
7) An economizer receives hot gas (cp=0.27Btu/lb-R) and water in the ratio 1.56lbg/lbw. The gas enters
at 850F and leaves at 355F; the water enters at 120F. Find the exit temperature of the water and the
LMTD for parallel flow.
a. 420.5F, 268F b. 320.5F, 228F b. 365.8F, 321F c. 287.3F. 310F
43
Solution: mCpΔt ] gas=mCpΔt ] water thus, tb = 320.5 °F
LMTD = θmax – θmin / ln (θmax/θmin) thus, LMTD = 227.92°F
8) Steam at 285psia ( tsat=413F, hg=1202.45Btu/lb) enters a convective superheater in a saturated state

and leaves at 600F(h=1316.4). The hot gas (c p=0.241Btu/lb-F) leave the superheater at 1150F. There
are 1.6 lbg/lbsteam and the total steam flow is 17,580lb/hr. If the transmittance is U=4Btu/hr-ft 2-F,
find the temperature of gas entering the superheater and the heating surface area.
a. 987F, 456ft2 b. 3421F, 534ft2 c. 1445.F, 634ft2 d. 765F, 765ft2
Solution: ms(h2 – h1) = mCp(ta – tb) thus, ta = 1445.51 °F

A = q/ U LMTD thus, A = 634 ft2
9) A 22.7kg/s flow of air enters a preheater at 28C and leaves at 150C; 23.7kg/s of exhaust gases,
cp=1.09kJ/kg-K, enters at 315C. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is 710 W/m 2-C. Determine
the surface area for counterflow.
a. 28.77m2 b. 22.82m2 c. 32.54m2 d. 27.49m2
Solution: A = q/ U LMTD where: mCpΔt ] gas=mCpΔt ] air thus, tb = 207.15°C

44
A = 22.82m2
10) A waste heat recovery boiler produces 4.8Mpa (dry saturated) steam from 104C feedwater. The
boiler receives energy from 5kg/s of 954C dry air. After passing through the waste heat boiler, the
temperature of the air has been reduced to 343C. How much steam in kg is produced per second? At
4.8mPa dry saturated, h=2796kJ/kg.
a. 1.3 b. 0.91 c. 2.1 d. 3.4
Solution: ms (hb - ha) = ma Cpa (t1 – t2) thus, ms = 1.3 kg/s
11) A steam boiler generating 25,560 kg/hr of steam at 4.137Mpa and 426.7C an enthalpy of 3274.1
kJ/kg is continuously blown at the rate of 1116kg/hr with an enthalpy of 1055kJ/kg.. Feedwater
enters the economizer at 148.9C with an enthalpy of 629.87kJ/kg. the furnace burns 2700kg/hr of
coal with a higher heating value of 30,470.6kJ/kg. Calculate the overall efficiency of the steam
boiler.
a. 81.78% b. 84.78% c. 82.73% d. 79.63%
Solution: ebo = ( Qs/Qf ) 100% where: Qs = mshs – mbhb – mfwhf thus, ebo = 82.73%
0 0
12) In a food processing plant a brine solution is heated from 6 C to 12 C in a double- pipe heat
0 0
exchanger by water entering at 50 C and leaving at 40 C at the rate of 0.166 kg/s. If the overall
2 0
heat transfer coefficient is 850 W/m . C , what heat exchanger area is required for counter flow ?
a. 0.527m2 b. 0.173m2 c. 0.458m2 d. 0.227m2
45
Solution: A = q/ U LMTD where: q = mCpΔt thus, A = 0.227 m2
13) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger must transfer 205 kW to a solution with a specific heat of 3.26
0 0
kJ/kg-K and change its temperature from 65 C to 93 C . Steam is available at 250 kPa
2 2
(tsat=127.35C). The unit convective coefficient is 3400 W/m −K for the inside and 7300 W/m -K
for the outside. The thermal conductivity for the tubes is 111 W/m-K, and the tubes have 4.0 cm
O.D. and 3.0 cm I.D. and are 3 m long. Determine the number of tubes required.
a.7 b.6 c.5 d.8
14) A closed feedwater heater, with a transmittance of U=350Btu/hr-ft 2-F, uses condensing steam at 20
psia (tsat=227.96F) for heating 85,000lb/hr of water from 60F to 215F. What is the transmitting
area?
a. 627 ft2 b. 622ft2 c. 876ft2 d. 234ft2
Solution: A = q/ U LMTD thus, A = 622.2 ft2
15) A deaerating heater operates at 26.7psia(tsat=242.95F) and receives water at 181.6F. Drains from
higher-pressure heaters enter in the amount of 168,000 lb/hr at 303.7F. The feedwater flow from the
heater is 673,000lb/hr. Calculate the steam flow for an enthalpy of 1237.2Btu/lb.
a. 12102lb/hr b. 21,765lb/hr c. 191024lb/hr d. 12,654lb/hr
46
Solution: mshs + m2h2 + m3h3 = m4h4 where: m2 = m4 – ms – m3 = 505,000ms
Thus, ms = 19102 lb/hr
16) A cold storage compartment is 4.5 m long by 4 m wide by 2.5 m high. The four walls, ceiling and
floor are covered to a thickness of 150 mm with insulating material which has a coefficient of
thermal conductivity of 5.8 X 10-2 W/ m K. Calculate the quantity of heat leaking through the
insulation per hour when the outside and inside face temperatures of the material is 15°C and -5°C
respectively.
a. 2185kJ b. 3652kJ c. 1254kJ d. 4658kJ
Solution: q = AUΔt where: U = k/x thus, q = 607.07 W =2185 kJ/hr.
17) The air inside electronic package housing has a temperature of 50 C. A chip in this housing has
internal thermal power generation rate of 0.003W. this chip is subjected to an air flow resulting in a
convective coefficient h of 9 W/m-K over its two main surfaces which are 0.5cm by 1cm. determine
the chip surface temperature neglecting radiation and heat transfer from edges.
a. 3.33C b. 53.33C c. 56.67C d. 23.33C
47
Solution: q = hAΔt where: ts – 50 thus, ts = 53.33°C
18) Water enters a 3cm diameter tube with a velocity of 50m/s and a temperature of 20C and is heated.
Calculate the average unit convective coefficient. For water, kinematic viscosity= 1.006x10 -6m2/s;
prandt number=7; and thermal conductivity=0.597W/m-K.
a. 86.6kW/m2-K b. 23.45 c. 76.12 d. 123.54
19) The total incident radiant energy upon a body which partially reflects absorbs, and transmits radiant
2 2 2
energy is 2200 W/m . Of this amount, 450 W/m is reflected and 900 W/m is absorbed by the
body. Find the transmissivity.
a. 0.486 b. 0.486 c. 0.386 d. 0.832
Solution: Trans. = Gtrans / G where: G = Gref + Gab + Gtrans thus, Trans. = 0.386
20) What surface area must be provided by the filament of a 100W evacuated light globe where
t=2482C and emissivity= 0.38 for the filament? Assume the ambient temperature to be 25.6C.
a. 0.206cm2 b. 0.806 cm2 c. 1.24 cm2 d. 2.45 cm2
Solution: q = F12 A1 σ (T14 – T24) thus, A = 8.06 x 10-5 m2 = 0.806cm2
21) A flat circular plate is 500 mm diameter. Calculate the theoretical quantity of heat radiated per hour
when its temperature is 215°C and the temperature of its surrounds is 45°C. Take the value of the
radiation constant as 5.67 X 10-11 kJ/ m2 s K4.
a. 1863kJ b. 2658Kj c. 3652kJ d.3215kJ
Solution: qb = F12 A1 σ (T14 – T24) thus, qb = 517.5 W = 1863 kJ/hr.
48
22) The steam drum of a water- tube boiler has hemispherical ends, the diameter is 1.22 m and the
overall length is 6 m. Under steaming conditions the temperature of the shell before lagging was
230°C and the temperature of the surrounds was 51°C. The temperature of the cladding after lagging
was 69°C and the surrounds 27°C. Assuming 75% of the total shell area to be lagged and taking the
radiation constant as 5.67 X 10-11kW/ m2 -K4, estimate the saving in heat energy per hour due to
lagging.
a. 157000kJ b. 187500kJ c. 166915kJ d. 96852kJ
Solution: Savings in Heat = Net area after logging (Rbef - Raft)

where: R: E/A = σ (T14 – T24); thus, Savings = 46365.4 W = 166915 kJ/hr
23) Determine the monochromatic emissive power at 1.30 μ m of a blackbody at a temperature of 1500
0
F.
Btu Btu Btu Btu
a. 1233 2 b. 42 038 2 c. 41,365 2 d. 32564 2
hr−ft −μm hr−ft −μm hr−ft −μm hr−ft −μm
24) Saturated steam at 500K flows in a 20cm-ID, 21cm-OD, pipe. The pipe is covered with 8cm of
insulation that has a thermal conductivity of 0.1W/m-K. The pipe’s conductivity is 52W/m-K. The
ambient temperature is 300K. The unit convective coefficient on the inside is 18,000W/m 2-K and on
the outside is 12W/m2-K. Determine the heat loss from 4m of pipe.
a. 721W b. 1023W c. 987W d. 821W
Solution: q = AUΔt thus, q = 821.96 W
25) An insulated steam pipe passes through a room in which the air and walls are at 25 0 C. The outside
diameter of the pipe is 70mm, and its surface temperature and emissivity are 200 0 C and 0.8
respectively. If the coefficient associated with free convection heat transfer from the surface to the
air is 15W/m2-K, what is the rate of heat transfer loss from the surface per unit length of pipe?
a. 698W/m b. 1243W/m c. 998W/m d. 876W/m
Solution: qT = qconvection + qradiation where: qconvection = hAΔt ; qradiation = F A σ (T14 – T24)

Thus, q/L = 997.85 W/m
26) The hot combustion gases of a furnace are separated from the ambient air and its surrounding, which
are at 250 C, by a brick wall 0.15m thick. The brick has a thermal conductivity of 1.2W/m-K and a
surface emissivity of 0.8. Under steady state conditions and outer surface temperature of 100 0 C is
measured. Free convection heat transfer to the air adjoining this surface is characterized by a
convection coefficient of 20W/m2-K. What is the brick inner surface temperature in C?
49
a. 352.5 b. 623.7 c. 461.4 d. 256.3
Solution: q = kA(t1 – t2) / x =hAΔt + F A σ (T14 – T24) thus, t1 = 352.5°C
27) A cubical tank of 2 m sides is constructed of metal plate 12 mm thick contains water at 75°C. The
surrounding air temperature is 16°C. Calculate the heat loss through each side of tank per minute.
Take the coefficient of thermal conductivity of the metal as 48 W/mK, the coefficient of heat
transfer of the water 2.5 kW/m²K, and the coefficient of heat transfer of the air 16 W/m²K.
a. 229.3kJ b. 214.3kJ c. 124.3kJ d. 224.3kJ
1
Solution: q = AUΔt where: U = 1
hi( )( )
+
x
k
1
+( )
ho
thus, q = 224.2 kJ/min.
28) A steel pipe ( k =45 . 0 W /m⋅K ) having a 5.0 cm OD is covered with a 4.2 cm thick layer of
magnesia (k =0 . 07 W /m⋅K ) which is in turn covered with a 3.4 cm layer of fiberglass
insulation( k=0.048 W/m-K). The pipe wall outside temperature is 370 K and the outside surface
temperature of the fiberglass is 305 K. What is the interfacial temperature between the magnesia and
the fiberglass?
a. 329.6 K b. 329.1 K c. 329.9 K d. 329.25 K
50
Δt
Solution: qb-c = qc-d where: q = thus, tc = 329.6 K
¿¿
29) Determine the critical radius in cm for an asbestos-cement covered pipe.

k asb =0.208 W/m¿ K .The
20
external heat-transfer coefficient is 1.5 Btu/h¿ ft ⋅ F .
a. 2.24 cm b. 2.55 cm c. 2.66 cm d. 2.44 cm
Solution: rc = k/n thus, rc = 0.0244 m =2.44 cm
0
30) A 6 in thick concrete wall, having thermal conductivity k =0.50 Btu/h¿ ft⋅ F , is exposed to air at
0 0
70 F on one side and air at 20 F on the opposite side. The heat transfer coefficients are
hi =2.0
2 0
Btu/h¿ ft ⋅ F on the 70 F side and
0 h 0 =10 Btu/h¿ ft ¿0 F on the 200 F side. Determine the heat
2
transfer rate.
a. 31.25 BTU/hr-ft2 b. 33.52 BTU/hr-ft2 c. 56.6 BTU/hr-ft2 d. 76.8 BTU/hr-ft2
Solution: q = AUΔt thus, U = 0.625 BTU/hr.ft2.°F
51
31) A hollow steel sphere contains a 100-watt electrical filament, and these data are known; r i =9 in., r0
h =6 , h o = 2 Btu hr-ft2 -0 F ; the
=12 in. The film coefficient for the inner and outer surfaces are i
0
environmental temperature is 80 F. Assuming the steady state, compute the temperature inside air
0 0 0 0
a.102.9 F b. 110.8 F c. 101.9 F d. 101.5 F
1
Solution: q = AUΔt where: U = 1
( )(
hiAi
+
ro−ri
4 πrorik
+( )1
hoAo
)
thus, ti = 101.96°F
32) If a triangle of height d and base b is vertical and submerged in a liquid with its vertex at the liquid
surface, compute the depth to its center of pressure.
a. ¾ d b. 2/3 d c. 2/5 d d. ½ d
Solution: hcp = 2/3d + e where: e = I/AYcg ; I = bh3/ 36 ; Ycg = hcg = 2/3d thus, hcp = 3/4d
33) Gate AB is vertical and 5 ft wide by 3ft high hinged at point A and restrained by a stop at point B. If
stop B will break if the force on it reached 9000lb, find the critical water depth.
a. 24.23ft b. 22.3ft c. 20.23ft d. 24.32ft
52
Solution: FH (1.5 + e) = 900 (3) where: e = I/AYcg ; Ycg = hc – 1.5; FH = γA hg
thus, hc = 20.23 ft.
34) The weight of a certain crown in air was found to be 15N and its weight in water is 12N. Compute its
specific gravity.
a. 10.77 b. 5 c. 10.86 d. 11.25
Solution: Sp = N/FB = 5
35) A balloon weighs 300 lb and has a volume of 15,000ft 3. It is filled with helium, which weighs
0.0112pcf at the temperature and pressure of the air, which weighs 0.0807 pcf. What load will the
balloon support?
a. 765.5lb b. 870.2 c. 742.5.8lb d. 812.4 lb
Solution: WHe + Wbal + Wload = FB where: WHe = γHe Vbal thus, Wload = 742.5 lb
36) If the center of gravity of a ship in the upright position is 10m above the center of gravity of the
portion under water, the displacement being 1000metric tons, and the ship is tipped 30 0 causing the
center of buoyancy to shift sidewise 8m. What is the value of the moment in kg-m?
a. 3M kg-m b. 3.5M kg-m c. 4M kg-m d. 2M kg-m
Solution: M= Wx = Fbx; W=1000,000kg ; x = MG sin 300; MG= MBO-GBO; GBo= 10m

MBo=8/sin30o=16m; then MG = 16-10 = 6m, thus x = 6sin 300= 3m
M = 1,000,000kg(3m) = 3,000,000kg-m = 3M kg –m
37) An open tank 1.82m square, weighs 3,425N and contains 0.91m of water. It is acted upon by an
unbalanced force of 10,400N parallel to the pair of sides. What must be the height in m of the sides of
the tank so that no water will be spilled?
a. 1.5 b. 1.3 c. 1.4 d. 1.2
Solution: h – height of tank

53
h = 0.91m + x; x = 0.91(a/g); REF = W(a/g) = 10400N;
W = 3425 + 9806.6(0.910)(1.82)2= 32, 984.9; a/g = 0.3153; x = 0.91 + 0.91(0.3153) = 1.2m
38) An open vessel 30cm in diameter and 90cm high is filled with water to a depth of 45cm. Find the
magnitude of the velocity in rad/s such that the vortex is just at the bottom.
a. 21.01 b. 28.01 c. 12.22 c. 34.2
Solution:
y = w2x2/(2g) where y=0.9m x = 0.15m and solving for w = 28.01rad/s
39) A liquid of specific gravity 1.75 flows in a 6cm horizontal pipe. The total energy at a certain point in
the flow is 80m. The elevation of the pipe above a fixed datum is 2.6m. If the pressure at the specified
point is 75kpa, determine the velocity of flow and the power available at that point.
a. 37.85m/s; 146,979 W b. 44.29, 84372 c. 35.43, 98262 d. 33.38, 78933
Solution: Ht = z + v2/2g + p/γ Ht = 80m, z= 2.6m p =75 sg =1.75 γ = 1.75(9.81) =17.17

Solving for v2/2g = 70.031 and v =37.85m/s finally P = γQH = 146979W
40) If the velocity of water is 8m/s and the pressure is 140kPa on the discharge side of a pump. What is
the head of the pump if the velocity is 4m/s and pressure is 90kpa before the pump?
a. 6.54m b. 7.98m c. 7.54m d. 6.82m
Solution: H = (140 – 90)/9.81 + (82 – 42)/(2(9.81)) = 7.54m
41) A 300mmx75mm venture meter is inserted in a 300mm diameter pipeline where water flows at 55L/s.
Neglecting losses, compute the drop in pressure head from the inlet to the throat.
a. 5.9m b. 4.3m c. 6.4m d. 7.9m
Solution: ( p1- p2)/γ = (v22 – v12)/2g v1 = Q/A1= 0.778m/s v2=Q/A2= 12.45m/s

Thus ( p1- p2)/γ = 7.87m
42) The headloss in 50m of 12cm diameter pipe is known to be 6m when liquid of specific gravity of 0.9
and viscosity of 0.04pa-s at the rate 0.06m3/s.Find the shear stress at the wall of the pipe.
a. 31.6kpa b. 15.8 kpa c. 126.4pkpa d. 63.56 kpa
Solution: Ss = ghfDρ/4L = 63.56Pa
43) Water flows at 0.2m3/s through a 300mm diameter, 120m long pipe under a pressure difference of
280mm Hg. Compute the friction factor.
a. 0.023 b. 0.0435 c. 0.0154 d. 0.0876
Solution: f = 2ghfD/Lv2 hf = 280(13.6) = 3.808mWater v = Q/A = 2.829m/s

Solving for f = 0.023.
44) A square concrete conduit having a side of 0.788m carries water at a rate of 4m 3/s. Using Hazen
William formula with C=120, compute the head loss if the length of the conduit is 45m.
a. 2.8m b. 1.8m c. 1.3m d. 2.1m
Solution: v = 0.8492 ChwRhS0.54m/s Rh = A/wetted perimeter = 0.197m solving for S = 0.04001

But S = hf/L thus hf = 1.8m.
45) Find the equivalent length of 167mm diameter pipe, f=0.024 for a reentrant pipe entrance with k=1.
a. 6.958m b. 7.394m c. 6.807m d. 7.102m
Solution: Le = KmD/f = 6.958m
54
46) Two pipes with the same friction factor and length are parallel. If the first pipe has twice the diameter
of the second, what must be the ratio of their flow
a. 4.66 b. 4.32 c. 5.66 d. 10.22
Solution: For parallel pipes:

Headloss are equal: hf1 = hf2 = fLDv2/2gD
Flow: Q1 + Q2 = QT
But: L1 = L2; f1 = f2 Thus v21/D1 = v22/D2 or v12/v22 = D1/D2 = 2 or v1/v2 = √ 2
Also: Q2 = A2v2 and Q1= A1v1 then Q1/Q2 = 4v1/v2 = 4 √ 2 = 5.657.
47) A 16cm diameter pipe of length 200m and surface elevation of 50m from the discharge of the pipe
with f=0.03 and loss of head due to entrance coefficient k=0.5 what is the velocity of flow in m/s?
a. 5.09m/s b. 6.05m/s c. 4.95m/s d. 3.56m/s
Solution: z1 = v22/2g + hL Where hL= hentrance + hpipe + hexit = Kev2/2g + fLv2/2gD + Kexitv2/2g
hL = (0.5 + (0.03(200))/0.16 + 1) v2/2g = 39v2/2g
finally 50m = v2/2g + 39v2/2g and solving for velocity v = 4.95m/s.
48) Horizontal orifice under a constant head of 1.3m issues a jet which hits a point 5m below the
centerline of the orifice and 5m horizontally from the vena contracta. What is the coefficient of
velocity?
a. 0.98 b. 0.95 c. 0.9 d. 0.89
Solution: Cv = vactual/videal where vactual = -gx2/2y x = 5m y = -5m vactual = 4.95m/s

videal =√ 2 gh = √ 2 ( 9.81 ) (1.3)= 5.05m/s thus Cv = 4.95/5.05 = 0.98.
49) What is the discharge capacity if a concrete pipe culvert 4ft in diameter and 10m long if the difference
in water level at the outlet is 1.52m. Assume coefficient of discharge of 0.74.
Solution: Vel = √ 2 gΔh

Qactual =Cd Vel A ; thus, Qactual = 4.72 cu. m/ s
50) A 35,000 kW plant has a utilization factor of 71 % and a load factor of 39.6 %. What is the average
load in the plant?
a. 7654.2kW b. 9840.6kW c. 10254.3kW d. 12365.2kW
Solution: AL = (LF) (UF) (PC) where: PC = 35000 kW; UF = 71%; LF = 39.6%
Thus, AL = 9840.6 kW
51) The annual peak load on a 15,000kW power plant is 10,500kW. Two substations are supplied by this
plant. Annual energy dispatched through substation A is 27,500,000 kW-hr with a peak at 8900kW,
while 16, 500,000 are sent through B with a peak 6650kW. Neglect line losses. Find the diversity
factor between substations and the capacity factor of the plant.
a. 2.32; 53.6% b. 1.23; 65.3% c. 1.48; 33.48% d. 1.35; 75.46%
55
Solution: GDF =
∑ MDsubstations where: MDsub= 8900 + 66500 (kW); MDplant = 10500 (kW)
MDplant
Thus, GDF = 1.48
AL E
CF = where: AL = ; E= EA + EB thus, CF = 33.48%
PC 8760
52) A furnace burns coal with the ff. ultimate analysis: C=80.17%, H=4.34%, O=2.69%, N=1.45%,
S=0.84%, A=7.09% W=3.42% For 15% excess air and complete combustion. Determine the actual
air needed per kg if water is to be included and air is at 28C and 0%RH(w=0.0143kgv/kgda).
a. 10.32 b. 9.78 c. 12.43 d. 15.43
Solution: A/F” = A/F (1+e) (1+w) where: A/F = 11.53C + 34.36 H− [ O

8 ]
+ 4.32S
thus, A/F” = 12.43
53) A natural gas has the following percentage volumetric composition. CH4=59.8%, C2H6=37.6%,
N2=2.2%, CO2=0.4%. Calculate for complete, the weight of air supplied including moisture if air is
in excess of 25% and at 28C and 50% RH(0.012kgv/kgda).
a. 12.45 b. 20.27 c. 23.35 d. 11.23
Solution: A/F” = A/F (1+e) (1+w) where: A/F = 11.53C + 34.36 H− [ O

8 ]
+ 4.32S; C = 0.75083;
H=0.21479; N2 = 0.02846; CO2 = 0.00296 thus, A/F” = 20.27
54) Two hundred metric tons per hour of coal are burned in 125% stoichiometric air; the as fired ultimate
analysis is 75%C, 4%H, 0.5%S, 6%O, 1.5%N, 8%W, 5% Ash. Find the mass of air needed to burn the
fuel.
a. 2446.45mton/hr b. 3652.3mton/hr c. 4526.2mton/hr d. 6532.2mton/hr
Solution: mair = (mfuel) (A/F’) where: A/F’= A/F (1+e); e=25%; A/F = 11.53C + 34.36 H− [ O
8]+
4.32S; mfuel = 200mton/hr thus, mair = 2446.45 mton/hr
55) C8H18 fuel is burned with 25% excess. Calculate the weight of air needed including moisture if air is
at 25C and 60% RH.(w=0.012).
a. 12.30 b. 19.04 c. 20.23 d. 21.35
Solution: A/F” = A/F (1+e) (1+w) where: A/F = 15.05 (balancing) thus, A/F” = 19.04
1) A vertical jet of water supports a load of 200N at a constant vertical height of 2m

from the tip of the nozzle. The diameter of the jet is 25mm. Find the velocity of the jet at
the nozzle tip.
a. 23.28m/s b. 28.32m/s c. 21.13m/s d. 22.82m/s
Solution: Vi ²=Vf 2+ 2 gh where: Fjet = ρV Vel2 = 200N; Vel2 = 20.105 m/s

Thus, Vf 2 = 21.13 m/s
56
2) A 50mm horizontal jet of water with a discharge of 0.054m3/s strikes a vertical wall at 900 to
the wall. What is the force exerted on the wall?
a. 1.49kN b. 2.19kN c. 1.39kN d. 1.19kN
Solution: Fw = Fj = ρQVel where: Vel = Q/ A = 27.50 m/s thus, Fw =1485 N =1.49 kW
3) A cylindrical tank (10m in diameter and 5m in depth) contains water at 20C (9.789kN/m3)
and is brimful. If the water is heated to 50C (9.689kN/m3), how much water will spill over
the edge of the tank?
a. 4.05m3 b. 4.1m3 c. 5.1m3 d. 3.67m3
Solution: Vspill = Vtank ( γ20 – γ50) / γ50 where: Vtank = π/4 (D2) H; γ20 =9.789kN/m3;
3
γ50=9.689kN/m thus, Vspill = 4.05 m
4) Two large plane surfaces are 1 in apart, and the space between them is filled with a liquid of
absolute viscosity 0.02000 lb-sec/ft2. Assuming the velocity gradient to be a straight line, what
force is required to pull a very thin plate of 4 ft2 area at a constant speed of 1 ft/sec if the plate
is 1/3 in from one of the surfaces?
a.) 7.82lb. b.) 5.67lb c.) 56.7lb d.) 4.32lb
Solution: F = Ff1 + Ff2 where: Ff = (μAVel)/y thus, F =4.32 lbs.
5) A cylinder of 0.122-m radius rotates concentrically inside a fixed cylinder of 0.128-m radius.
Both cylinders are 0.305 m long. Determine the viscosity of the liquid that fills the space
between the cylinders if a torque of 0.881N-m is required to maintain an angular velocity of
60revolutions per minute.
a. 0.34 Pa-s b. 0.65pa-s c. 0.24pa-s d. 0.87pa-s
Solution: T = F f R where: Ff = (μAVel)/Cr; Vel = 2πRN; A= 2πRL thus, T=(4π 2R3LNμ)/Cr

therefore μ=0.24 Pa.s
6) A small drop of water at 80 0F is in contact with the air and has diameter 0.02 in. If the pressure
within the droplet is 0.082 psi greater than the atmosphere, what is the value of the surface
tension?
a. 0.00492 lb/ft b. 0.00654lb/ft c. 0.00876lb/ft d. 0.00043lb/ft
D( ΔP)
Solution: o= =0.00041 lb/in. =0.00492 lb/ft.
4
1. Determine the ASHRAE number designation for dichlorotetraflouroethane, CClF2CClF2.

a. 114 b.123 c. 124 d. 125
Reference: Heating, Ventilating, and Airconditioning: Analysis and Design by Macqueston,
Parker and Spitler page 542.
2. Which of the following refrigerant does not belong to A1 Safety group classification?
a. R11 b. R13 c. R114 d. R21
Reference: Heating, Ventilating, and Airconditioning: Analysis and Design by Macqueston,
Parker and Spitler page 539.
3. A strainer has a coefficient Cv rating of 60. It is to be used in a system to filter 50gpm of water.
What pressure loss expressed in feet of water can be expected?
57
a. 1.6 b. 2.31 c. 3.25 d. 0.85
Solution: hf = 2.31(Q/Cv)2= 1.6ft of water
4. Compute the volume of expansion tank for a chilled water system that contains 2000gal of water.
The system is regulated to 10psig at the tank with an operating temperature of 45F. It is estimated
that the maximum water temperature during extended shutdown would be 100F and a safety relief
valve in the system is set for 35psig. Assume standard barometric pressure and steel pipe. Take
specific volume at 100F as 0.01613ft3/lb and at 45F as 0.01602ft3/lb.
a. 3.2ft3 b. 8.6ft3 c. 10.2ft3 d. 5.2ft3
Solution: The volume of expansion tank is given by the formula:
V T=
[( ) v
V w 2 −1 −3 α ∆ t
v1 ]
P a Pa
−
P 1 P2
Substituting values with P 1=24.696psia, P2=49.696psia, v1=0.01602, v2=0.01613, α=6.5x10-6,
t1=45F, t2=100F and solving we get VT=5.2ft3.
5. Estimate the exit temperature of 1000cfm of air at 120F flowing in a 16in round duct 24ft in
length. The duct has 1in of fibrous glass insulation, and the overall heat transfer coefficient based
on outside surface is 0.2Btu/(hr-ft2-F). The environment temperature is 12F. Take average density
of air as 0.067ft3/lb.
a. 108F b. 117F c. 125F d. 136F
Solution: q = AUΔti-o = mcpΔtin-exit = QρCPΔtin-exit A = πdoL
substituting values and solving for texit; texit=117F
58
IPD PPD REFRESHERS TRIVIA EXAMINATION
(Linx Refreshers Trivia Examination)
Prepared by: Jose R. Francisco, PME

March 2010
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Select the best answer from each of the following questions. On the answer sheet provided, shade the box that
corresponds to your choice. Strictly no erasures allowed.
59
1. An air-vapor mixture has a DB temperature of 30 oC and a humidity ratio of 0.015 kg/kg d.a. Calculate the enthalpy.
a) 68.527 kJ/kg d.a. b) 78.527 kJ/kg d.a. c) 58.527 kJ/kg d.a. d) 88.527 kJ/kg d.a.
2. What is the specific gravity of a fuel at 28o Baume?

a) 0.868 0.688 c) 0.886 d) 0.986
3. Calculate the moisture content of moist air at 20 oC DB, 15 oC WB, and 95 kPa barometric pressure. Let the saturation pressure of water at 15 oC equals to 1.7057 kPaa and at 20 oC is 2.339 kPaa.
a) 0.00923 kg/kg d.a. b) 0.00293 kg/kg d.a. c) 0.00392 kg/kg d.a. d) 0.00239 kg/kg d.a.
4. Determine the mass of a nitrogen gas confined in a 6 m3 tank at a pressure of 198.675 kPag and temperature of 40 oC.
a) 18.4 kg b) 19.4 kg c) 20.4 kg d) 17.4 kg
5. The heat rejected from condenser is 300 kW. The water required to cool the refrigerant is 5 lps. Determine the temperature of water leaving the condenser if water enters at 25 C.
a) 39.33 oC b) 33.39 oC c) 33.93 oC d) 43.93 oC
6. Determine the resulting pressure when one kilogram of air at 103 kPaa and 95 oC is heated at constant volume to 425 oC.
a) 205.36 kPaa b) 195.35 kPaa c) 196.35 kPaa d) 193.56 kPaa
7. What is the amount of heat added to 15 kg of air to increase its temperature from 30 oC to 250 oC without changing the pressure?
a) 3230.46 kJ b) 3420.26 kJ c) 3320.46 kJ d) 3640.36 kJ
8. Determine the compressor work of a Brayton cycle if its pressure ratio is 8 and the initial temperature is 32 oC.
a) 248.67 kJ/kg b) 278.47 kJ/kg c) 284.67 kJ/kg d) 267.84 kJ/kg
9. If the specific humidity of moist air is 0.027 at 1 atmosphere pressure. What is the partial pressure of the water vapor in the mixture?
a) 4.215 Kpaa b) 3.516 Kpaa c) 3.617 Kpaa d) 2.584 kPaa
10. If the enthalpy of a certain gas is 2400 kJ/kg and its internal energy is 2200 kJ/kg, find the specific volume at a pressure of 950 kPaa.
a) 0.2105 m3/kg b) 0.2501 m3/kg c) 0.2015 m3/kg d) 0.1025 m3/kg
60
11. Determine the maximum temperature of a Carnot cycle if it operates at a minimum temperature of 20 oC with an efficiency of 60 %.
a) 459.5 oC b) 455.9 oC c) 495.5 oC d) 559.4 oC
12. Air at 1 MPaa and 310 oC is expanded to 250 kPaa in accordance with the relation pV1.25 = C. Determine the work done.
a) + 162.11 kJ/kg b) – 162.11 kJ/kg c) + 126.11 kJ/kg d) – 126.11 kJ/kg
13. A Rankine cycle operates with a thermal efficiency of 40 % and the factor of evaporation of the boiler is 1.15. Determine the mass flow rate of steam if the cycle power output is 5.5 MW.
a) 5.3 kg/s b) 4.3 kg/s c) 3.5 kg/s d) 6.3 kg/s
14. The mixing ratio of humid air is 0.034 at a dry-bulb temperature of 27°C. Determine the enthalpy of the given air. h g @27 °C = 2550.8 KJ/kg.
a) 67.25 kJ/kg b) 80.62 KJ/kg c) 103.69 KJ/kg d) 55.68 KJ/kg
15. The dry bulb temperature of humid air is 35°C. What is the wet-bulb depression in °F if the wet-bulb temperature is 18°C?
a) 17.6 b) 30.6 c) 18.0 d) 25.8
16. The enthalpies at the entrance and exit of a steam engine are 2700 kJ/kg and 2000 kJ/kg, respectively. The steam consumption of the engine is 1000 kg/hr. If the indicated efficiency is 66 % and the
mechanical efficiency is 92 %, determine the engine brake power output.
a) 118.06 kW b) 181.06 kW c) 110.86 kW d) 168.01 kW
17. The percent rating of water tube boiler is 200 %, factor of evaporation is 1.10, and heating surface is 400 ft 2. Determine the rate of evaporation, in kg/hr.
a) 1831 b) 1831 c) 1138 d) 1813
18. A boiler operates at 82.5 % efficiency while the mass of steam generated is 408 200 kg in 5 hours. The enthalpy of steam is 3187 kJ/kg and feed is 604.83 kJ/kg while the fuel used for boiler has a
heating value of 32 567.85 kJ/kg. Find the mass of fuel needed per day in metric tons.
a) 188.3 b) 183.8 c) 138.8 d) 318.8
19. A 10 kg/s of air enters the theater at 16 oC. The theater is to be maintained at 27 oC DB and 20 oC WB. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.80, what is the latent heat load of the theater?
a) 27.67 kW b) 26.75 kW c) 110.682 kW d) 72.67 kW
20. Determine the mole fraction of the helium in a mixture of 45 % helium and 55 % nitrogen by mass analysis.
a) 14.84 % b) 85.16 % c) 18.44 % d) 81.56 %
61
21. A 60 MW power plant has an average load of 34 500 kW and a load factor of 0.75. Find the reserve power over a peak load power.
a) 14 000 kW b) 20 000 kW c) 46 000 kW d) 5 000 kW
22. A steam generator burns fuel oil with 20 % excess air. Fuel may be represented by C14H30. Calculate the actual-air fuel ratio.
a) 17.9 b) 18.7 c) 16.7 d) 15.7
23. A certain coal has the following ultimate analysis by weight. C = 67 %, Ash = 5 %, Moisture = 8 %, N = 6 %, H = 3 %, Sulfur = 7 %, O = 4 %. Calculate the air-fuel ratio if this coal is burned with 50 % excess
air.
a) 12.4 b) 13.3 c) 14.3 d) 12.4
24. A container filled with helium is dropped 4 km above the ground, find the change of temperature?
a) 12.6 oC b) 17.5 c) 15.2 oC d) 18.5 oC
25. 2.5 m3/s of humid air at a state of 28°C DB, 21 WB and 101.325 Kpaa flow across a cooler coil and leaves at 12.5°C DB and 0.0083 kg vapor per kg dry air. If the apparatus dew point (ADP) is 8.5,
compute for the contact factor (CF).
a) 0.835 b. 0.795 c. 0.579 d. 0.306
26. A pump draws water at a head of 110 m and a discharge rate of 550 lps. Determine the brake power input if the pump efficiency is 70 %.
a) 847.57 kW b) 874.57 kW c) 875.74 kW d) 854.75 kW
27. A turbine has a peripheral coefficient of 0.6. Find the runner diameter of the turbine if it operates at 450 rpm and a head of 60 m.
a) 0.874 m b) 0.784 m c) 0.478 m d) 0.748 m
28. A 5 m x 5 m wall of a room has a surface temperature of 40 oC. The wall thickness is 25 cm and has a thermal conductivity of 0.07 W/m- oK, and air film conductance is 15 W/m 2-oK. If the outside air
temperature is 18 oC, what is the heat loss through the wall?
a) 151.18 W b) 185.18 W c) 158.11 W d) 118.15 W
29. An air compressor operates with discharge pressure of 6 times the suction pressure. If the volume flow rate at the suction is 0.8 m 3/s and the compression process is in accordance with pV 1.38 = C,
determine the compressor power, in kW.
a) 187.16 kW b) 178.16 kW c) 167.18 kW d) 168.17 kW
62
30. A horizontal pipe carries oil with a specific gravity of 0.83. If two pressure gauges along the pipe read 515 kPa and 430 kPa, respectively. Determine the head loss between the two gauges.
a) 10.44 m b) 14.40 m c) 14.04 m d) 40.14 m
31. Air at 33 oC DB and 19 oC WB is cooled and humidified by passing through an air washer in which water is continuously recirculated. The air leaves the air washer at 23 oC DB. What is the efficiency of
the air washer?
a) 71.43 % b) 73.41 % c) 74.31 % d) 73.14 %
32. A stream of outdoor air is mixed with a stream of return air in an air conditioning system that operated at 101.325 kPa barometric pressure. The flow rate of outdoor air is 2 kg/s, and its conditions are
35 oC DB, 25 oC WB, and 0.0159 kg/kg d.a.. The flow rate of return air is 3 kg/s, and its conditions are 24 oC DB, 50 % RH, and 0.00925 kg/kg d.a. Determine the temperature of the mixture.
a) 28.4 oC b) 26.4 oC c) 29.4 oC d) 30.4 %
33. Determine the indicated power of a four-cylinder, 4-stroke, Diesel engine with 20-cm bore and 30-cm stroke running at 1000 rpm and has a reading of 450 kPa mean effective pressure in the indicator
diagram.
a) 159.83 Hp b) 189.53 Hp c) 158.93 Hp d) 198.53 Hp
34. The approach and efficiency of cooling tower are 10 oC and 65 %, respectively. If the temperature of water leaving the tower is 27 oC, determine the temperature of water entering the tower.
a) 54.57 oC b) 55.47 oC c) 45.57 oC d) 54.75 oC
35. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.80 and the cooling load is 100 kW, what is the amount of sensible heat?
a) 100 kW b) 125 kW c) 80 kW d) 60 kW
36. A dryer is to deliver 1000 kg/hr of cassava with 2 % moisture and 20 % moisture in the feed. Determine the mass of air required per hour if the change in humidity ratio is 0.0165.
a) 16 136.36 kg/hr b) 13 636.36 kg/hr c) 13 163.63 kg/hr d) 16 336.63 kg/hr
37. The change of enthalpy in an air conditioning unit is 23.5 kJ/kg. The mass of supply air is 68000 kg/hr. What is the conditioner capacity, in TR?
a) 126.21 TR b) 125.26 TR c) 162.25 TR d) 152.26 TR
38. A DC motor driven pump running at 100 rpm delivers 30 lps of water against a total pumping head of 27 m with a pump efficiency of 60 %. What speed would result if the pump rpm is increased to a
pumping head of 36 m assuming no change in efficiency?
a) 115.47 rpm b) 114.57 rpm c) 117.54 rpm d) 114.75 rpm
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39. A mechanical draft cooling tower cools the cooling water from 60°C to 25°C at the rate of 8 kg/sec. Atmospheric air enters the tower at a state of 20°C DB and 16°C WB. The air leaves the tower at
35°C. What is the temperature of approach?
a. 9°C b. 6°C c. 8°C d. 35°C
40. In a geothermal power plant, the enthalpies of the ground water and the turbine inlet are 1500 kJ/kg and 3500 kJ/kg respectively. If the enthalpy of the hot water in the flash tank is 700 kJ/kg and the
mass flow rate of steam is 15 kg/s, what is the mass flow rate of ground water?
a) 52.5 kg/s b) 55.2 kg/s c) 25.5 kg/s d) 35.2 kg/s
41. 12 kg of gas with a molecular mass of 30 at 101.325 kPaa pressure and 30 oC temperature occupies a volume of 9500 liters. Determine the compressibility factor.
a) 0.955 b) 0.595 c) 0.795 d) 0.895
42. A refrigeration compressor has a specific volume of 0.0482 m3/kg at entrance and 0.017 m3/kg at the exit. If volumetric efficiency is 90 %, determine the percent clearance of the compressor.
a) 5.45 % b) 5.54 % c) 4.55 % d) 5.65 %
43. In an air-standard Brayton cycle, air enters compressor at 1 bar and 15 oC. The pressure leaving the compressor is 0.6 MPaa and maximum temperature of the cycle is 1000 oC. Calculate the cycle
thermal efficiency.
a) 35 % b) 32 % c) 37.5 % d) 40 %
44. Liquid ammonia at a temperature of 26 oC is available at the expansion valve. The temperature of the vaporizing ammonia in the evaporator is 2 oC. Find the percentage of liquid vaporized while
flowing through the expansion valve. Properties of refrigerant: At t = 2 oC, hf = 190.4 kJ/kg and hg = 1445.6 kJ/kg; At 26 oC, hf = 303.6 kJ/kg and hg = 1465.6 kJ/kg.
a) 10.2 % b) 9.02 % c) 11.02 % d) 12.02 %
45. An ideal dual combustion cycle operates on 0.45 kg of air. At the beginning of compression, the air is 97 kPaa, 43 oC. Let rp = 1.5, rc = 1.6, and rk = 11. Determine the percent clearance.
a) 10 % b) 11 % c) 9 % 12 %
46. An ideal dual combustion cycle operates on 0.45 kg of air. At the beginning of compression, the air is 97 kPaa, 43 oC. Let rp = 1.5, rc = 1.6, and rk = 11. Determine the thermal efficiency.
a) 58.7 % b) 57.8 % c) 48.7 % d) 68.7 %
47. In an air standard Otto cycle, the clearance volume is 18 % of the displacement volume. Find the thermal efficiency. (10/93)
a) 52 % b) 53 % c) 55 % d) 60 %
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48. Helium is used in a Carnot engine where the volumes beginning with the constant temperature heat addition are V 1 = 0.3565 m3, V2 = 0.5130 m3, V3 = 8.0 m3, and V4 = 5.57 m3. Determine the thermal
efficiency if k = 1.666.
a) 83.95 % b) 89.35 % c) 85.93 % d) 85.39 %
49. Determine the equivalence ratio of the following mixture: 4 grams of butane, C4H10, and 75 grams of air.
a) 0.72 b) 0.92 c) 0.62 d) 0.82
50. A hydraulic turbine receives water from a reservoir at an elevation of 100 m above it. What is the minimum water flow in kg/s to produce a steady turbine output of 50 MW?
a) 51 000 b) 15 000 c) 50 100 d) 50 010
51. An ideal vapor compression cycle requires 2.5 kW to power the compressor. You have found the following data for the cycle: the enthalpy at the condenser entrance = 203 kJ/kg, exit = 55 kJ/kg; and
evaporator entrance = 55 kJ/kg, exit = 178 kJ/kg. If the mass flow rate of the refrigerant is 0.10 kg/s, what is the coefficient of performance of the system?
a) 9.42 b) 4.92 c) 4.29 d) 2.94
52. A 100 TR system is used to produce chilled water from 22 C to 2 C. Determine the volume flow rate of water in lps.
a) 3.2 lps b) 4.2 lps c) 3.8 lps d) 4.8 lps
53. A refrigeration system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The minimum and maximum temperatures are – 25 oC and 72 oC, respectively. If the heat rejected at the condenser is 6000 kJ/min,
determine the power input required.
a) 1686.83 kJ/min b) 1668.83 kJ/min c) 1866.83 kJ/min d) 1683.68 kJ/min
54. Fish weighing 11 000 kg with a temperature of 20 oC is brought to a cold storage and which shall be cooled to – 10 oC in 11 hours. Find the required plant refrigerating capacity in TR if the specific heat
of fish is 0.7 kCal/kg-oC above freezing and 0.30 kCal/kg-oC below freezing point that is – 3 oC. The latent heat of freezing is 55.5 kCal/kg.
a) 25.26 b) 14.38 c) 15.26 d) 24.38
55. Determine the brake power of the engine having a brake thermal efficiency of 35 % and uses 25 oAPI fuel with fuel consumption of 40 kg/hr.
a) 160.67 kW b) 173.52 kW c) 174.52 kW d) 165.84 kW
56. A refrigeration compressor has a specific volume of 0.0482 m3/kg at entrance and 0.017 m3/kg at the exit. If volumetric efficiency is 90 %, determine the percent clearance of the compressor.
a) 5.45 % b) 5.54 % c) 4.55 % d) 5.65 %
57. In a Carnot cycle, heat addition occurs during which of the following processes?
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a) Isothermal compression process c) Isentropic expansion process
c) Isothermal expansion process d) isentropic compression process
58. Stirling cycle is also called as:

a) Constant volume regenerative cycle b) Constant pressure regenerative cycle
c) Constant temperature regenerative cycle d) Constant entropy regenerative cycle
59. Ericson cycle is also called as:

a) Constant volume regenerative cycle b) Constant pressure regenerative cycle
c) Constant temperature regenerative cycle d) Constant entropy regenerative cycle
60. It is the generic term given to a family of solid fuels with high carbon content. How do you call this?
a) Solid fuel b) Coal c) Anthracite d) Bituminous
61. Pressure drop caused by friction in fully developed fluid flow can be determined directly using which of the following?
a) Computational fluid dynamics b) The Bernoulli’s equation
c) The Darcy-Weisbach equation d) The first law of thermodynamics
62. The existing 2000 TR chiller at a large hospital, where you are assigned as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the following types most likely to be installed?
a) Screw chiller b) Scroll Chiller c) Reciprocating chiller d) Centrifugal chiller
63. Which of the following parameters has the greatest limiting effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower?
a) Wet-Bulb temperature b) Dry-Bulb temperature c) Range c) Approach
Note: It is not possible to cool the water below the air’s wet-bulb temperature. Thus, the WB temperature, more than any other parameter, sets the absolute limit on the cooling tower’s capacity.
64. The amount of heat required melting a ton (2000 lbs) of ice at 32°F, 288,000 Btu/24 hr, 12,000 Btu/hr, or 200 Btu/min.
a) KW of Refrigeration b) Tons of Refrigeration c) Refrigerating Effect d) Latent Heat
65. It is the temperature of vapor refrigerant above its saturation temperature corresponding to the given pressure..
a) Saturated b) Superheat c) Subcooled d) Absolute
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66. What is the chemical name of R-23?
a) Trifluoromethane b) Dichlorofluoromethane c) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane d) Trichlorofluoromethane
67. In a vapor-compression refrigeration system, evaporator is a component normally called as:

a) High-pressure vapor heat exchanger b) Low-pressure heat exchanger
c) Throttling device d) Pressure-raising device
68. It is a component in the refrigeration system that returns the lubricating oil, carried over by the refrigerant vapors, to the compressor. How do you call this component?
a) Liquid receiver b) Oil separator c) Accumulator d) Capillary tube
69. It is a boiler fuel created from the residue produced from crude petroleum after it has been distilled to produce lighter oils like gasoline, paraffin, kerosene, diesel or gas oil. What is this fuel?
a) Oil b) Kerosene c) Coke d) Peat
70. What do you call a form of boiler fuel that is easy to burn, with very little excess air?
a) Coal b) Oil c) Gas d) Bunker
71. It defined as energy added to or removed from a system divided by the mean absolute temperature over which the change takes place. How do you call this?
a) Enthalpy b) Heat energy c) Specific heat d) Entropy
72. The second law of thermodynamics says that whenever energy is exchanged or converted from one form to another, the potential for energy to do work will be _________.
a) Decreased b) Increased c) Zero d) Stagnant
73. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned
rooms. How do you call this?
a) Zone b) Room c) Space d) Plenum
74. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or a partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this?
a) Zone b) Room c) Space d) Plenum
75. What is true about steam as it condenses?

a) It does so at constant entropy and temperature
b) It does so at constant enthalpy and reducing temperature
c) Both enthalpy and entropy reduce and temperature remains constant
d) Both enthalpy and entropy increase
76. It is an increase in fluid pressure in a long pipe caused by a sudden velocity decrease, where the sudden decrease in velocity is caused by a valve closing.
a) Aero dynamics b) Water hammer c) Terminal velocityd) Drag
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77. It is the term referring to any glazed aperture in a building envelope; the components of which include the following: glazing material, either glass or plastic; framing, mullions, muntins, and
dividers; external shading devices; and integral-shading systems (between glass). What is this?
a) Infiltration b) Radiation c) Fenestration d) Transmission
78. It is an envelope area with significantly higher rate of heat transfer than the contiguous enclosure. How do you call this?
a) Thermal Bridge b) Thermal Radiation c) Thermal Surface d) Thermal area
79. How is the water in a pressurized deaerator heated to the required temperature?
a) By a blanket of steam above the water b) By direct steam injection into the water
c) By a spray of steam as it enters the deaerator dome d) It is not heated further but just held at a higher pressure
80. It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its cooling load component is the rate at which heat is removed by the chilled water flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the refrigerant
inside the coil. What do you call this?
a) Coil load b) Heating coil load c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load
81. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric heating elements inside the coil.
a) Coil load b) Heating coil load c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load
82. It is an upward force that is exerted on an object (like flat plate, airfoil, rotating cylinder, etc.) as the object passes through a fluid. What do you call this?
a) Drag b) Lift c) Aero horsepower d) Terminal velocity
83. What is a frictional force that acts parallel but opposite to the direction of motion of fluid?
a) Drag b) Lift c) Aero horsepower d) Terminal velocity
84. It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity, dew point, or absolute humidity of ambient or moving air. This device could be mechanical or electronic. How do you call this?
a) Hydrometer b) Hygrometer c) Psychrometer d) Barometer
85. It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water, gas, or other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice positioned by an actuator in response to impulses or signals from the controller. It
may be equipped with either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball specially designed to provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you call this device.
a) Automatic Valve b) Automatic flow meter c) Thermostat d) Pyrometer
86. It is a term used by automobile manufacturers to designate the power required to move a car horizontally at 50 mi/hr against the drag force. What is this?
a) Mechanical horsepower b) Aero horsepower c) Fuel power d) Fluid power
87. A manufacturer claims that it has a COP of 2.0 when cooling a food at 5 oC using ambient air at 30 oC as a heat sink. Is the claim of the manufacturer valid?
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a) Yes b) No c) Probably d) It needs experimental verification
88. A storage chamber for low-side liquid refrigerant; also known as surge drum, or surge header. Also, a pressure vessel whose volume is used in a refrigerant circuit to reduce pulsation.
a) Receiver b) Accumulator c) Absorber d) Oil separator
89. A form of aluminum oxide that absorbs moisture readily and is used as a drying agent.
a) Calcium chloride b) Lithium bromide c) Activated carbon d) Activated alumina
90. A form of carbon made porous by special treatment by which it is capable of absorbing various odors, anesthetics and other vapors.
a) Activated carbon b) Activated alumina d) Absorber d) Absorbent
91. What can you say about the velocity of fluid at the center of the pipe section?
a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Average d) Zero
92. Continuity equation is applicable to which of the following?

a) Viscous and unviscous fluids b) Compressibility fluids c) Conservation of mass d) Steady and unsteady flows
93. Hygrometer is an instrument used to determine of which of the following?

a) Specific gravity of fluids b) Specific gravity of gases c) Specific gravity of liquids d) Specific gravity of solids
94. The temperature at which the condensation of water vapor in a space begins for a given state of humidity and pressure as the temperature of the vapor is reduced. This is the temperature
corresponding to saturation for a given absolute humidity at constant pressure.
a) Dew point temperature b) Wet bulb temperature c) Dry bulb temperature d) Saturation temperature
95. The temperature of gas or mixture of gases indicated by an accurate thermometer after correction for radiation.
96. The temperature registered by a thermometer whose bulb is covered by a wetted wick and exposed to a current of rapidly moving air.
97. The ratio of the actual water vapor pressure of the air to the saturated water vapor pressure of the air at the same temperature is known as:
a) Relative humidity b) Humidity ratio c) Specific humidity d) Percent humidity
98. The weight of water vapor in grains, pounds, grams, or kilograms per grain, pound, gram, or kilogram of dry air.
a) Relative humidity b) Specific volume c) Specific humidity d) Percent humidity
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99. At critical point of a pure substance, what is the value of latent heat?
a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Zero d) Below zero
100. Which of the following is a function of a steam nozzle?

a) Converts kinetic energy into heat energy b) Changes internal energy into kinetic energy
c) Converts potential energy into heat energy d) Changes enthalpic energy into kinetic energy
101. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.75, what does it mean?

a) 75 % latent heat and 25 % sensible heat b) 75 % sensible heat and 25 % latent heat
c) 25 % latent and sensible heat and 75 % latent heat d) 75 % sensible and latent heat and 25 % sensible heat
102. The hardness of ground water required as feed water for a boiler is 0 – 10 ppm (part per million), which of the following is the range of alkalinity requirement?
a) pH 9 to pH 10 b) pH 6 to pH 10 c) pH 10 to pH 11 d) pH 8 to pH 10
103. As used in the Revised PSME Code for Boilers and Pressure Vessels, it is any boiler which does not exceed any of the following limits: 405 mm inside diameter, 1065 mm overall length of outside to
outside heats at center, 1.85 m2 of water heating surface, and 7.03 kg/cm2 maximum allowable working pressure. What is this boiler?
a) Power boiler b) Portable boiler c) Miniature boiler d) Locomotive boiler
104. It is a closed vessel in which steam or other vapor (to be used externally to itself) is generated by the direct application of heat used for power generation. How do you call this boiler?
a) Power boiler b) Portable boiler c) Oil-fired boiler d) Miniature boiler
105. Name one characteristic feature of mechanical steam traps.

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature b) They operate by sensing condensate temperature
c) They can be fitted into any position d) They are not affected by increasing back pressure
106. In a mechanical steam trap, why is a float trap better at venting air than an inverted bucket trap?
a) A float can quickly adjust to the presence of air b) A float is fitted with an automatic air vent
c) A float trap does not vent air better than bucket trap d) The air vent orifice is adjustable on a float trap
107. The thermal efficiency of Stirling cycle is the same as the efficiency of which of the following cycles?
a) Otto cycle b) Brayton cycle c) Carnot cycle d) Dual cycle
108. In a Brayton cycle or gas turbine cycle, what do you call the heat exchanger that passes exhaust heat to the compressed air, prior to combustion?
a) Reheater b) Recuperator c) Heater d) Heat exchanger
109. The heat rejected by the working substance to the regenerator in the Stirling cycle is:
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a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator
b) Not equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator
c) Dependent on the value of temperature in the heat addition process
d) Measured during the constant temperature heat rejection process
110. In a gas which flow into an expansion control and without doing work, this process is called:
a) Purging b) Scavenging c) Throttling d) Priming
111. The latent heat of vaporization decreases as the pressure and temperature of the liquid decreases. At the critical point, the heat of vaporization becomes what?
a) Increased b) Zero c) Decreased d) Constant
112. A fluid flowing in a reversible adiabatic deceleration process to zero velocity will reach a state known as:
a) Isentropic expansion b) Isentropic compression c) Adiabatic irreversibility d) Isentropic Stagnation
113. The ratio of the actual velocity to the sound velocity.

a) Prandtl Number b) Isottop number c) Mach number d) Torecelli’s number
114. How do you call a refrigeration system in which only part of the refrigerant passing over the heat transfer separated from the vapor and re-circulated?
a) Absorption refrigeration system b) Cascade refrigeration system
c) Flooded refrigeration system d) Steam jet refrigeration system
115. What do you call a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant gas evolved in the evaporator is taken up in an absorber and released in a generator upon the application of heat?
116. On the level of a molecule, the gas constant for one mole divided by the number of molecules in a mole is known as:
a) Avogadro’s Number b) Planck Constant c) Boltzmann’s Constant d) Gravitational Constant
117. Which of the following is true for white ice?

a) A fast-cooled water b) A sub-cooled water
c) Due to dissolved air, gases and impurities d) Formed by blowing air during freezing
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118. In the detection of refrigerant leak, sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will release of which of the following colors of smoke?
a) Dense White b) Dense Yellow c) Dense Orange d) Dense Red
119. What is a common cause of waterhammer in drying coils?

a) Wet steam supplied to the coil b) Too low a steam pressure onto the coil
c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap d) The coil falling in the direction of steam flow
120. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Bimetallic steam traps are an ideal choice for rotating cylinders
b) Rotating cylinders can not suffer from steam locking
c) Strainers cannot be fitted to float traps which have a steam lock release
d) Air vents around the thermodynamic and inverted bucket traps can considerably improve start-up times
121. Name the principle cause of waterhammer?

a) Water particles suspended in steam b) Water allowed to build up in pipes
c) Water droplets carried along the insides of pipes d) Wet steam passing through steam traps
122. As a general rule, the cooling water side of the condenser should be scheduled for inspection every which of the following number of months?
a) Month b) 3 Months c) 6 Months d) Year
123. How do you call a refrigeration system in which only part of the refrigerant passing over the heat transfer separated from the vapor and re-circulated?
124. What do you call a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant gas evolved in the evaporator is taken up in an absorber and released in a generator upon the application of heat?
125. What do you call a shut-off valve other than a valve for controlling the flow of refrigerant in a refrigeration system?
a) Fusible valve b) Stop valve c) Check valve d) Relief valve
126. Steam plant thermal efficiency may be increased by increasing the boiler pressure. However, the undesirable effect is that the moisture content will increase. This undesirable effect maybe2 corrected
by;
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a) exhausting to atmosphere b) reheating c) regenerative feed water installation d)decreasing condenser pressure
127. What is the working substance in jet refrigeration?

a) Ammonia b) R – 11 c) Brine & R – 12 d) water
128. What is a device, used in refrigeration system, having a predetermined temperature fusible member for the relief of pressures?
a) Fusible valve b) Stop valve c) Check valve d) Relief valve
129. Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio is used for comfort air conditioning?
a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 %
130. In cascade regenerative steam power plant. The device that allows liquid to to be throttled to a lower region but remains vapor.
a) Throttle valve b) Steam trap c) Blow down valve d) Check valve
131. The production of more than one useful form of energy form the same energy source.
a) Thermodynamic process b) Reversible process c) Regeneration d) Combustion
132. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the system?
a) High pressure side b) Low pressure side c) Low and high pressure sided) Compressor discharge line
133. Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85 oC?

a) To reduce the energy required to raise steam
b) To reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the water supplied to the boiler
c) To reduce the gas content of the water
d) To reduce the content of suspended solids in the water
134. Which of the following is the chemical formula for R – 12 or dichlorodifluoromethane?

a) CHCLF2 b) CCl2F2 c) CH3Cl d) C3H8
135. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?

a) Low thermal conductivity b) Low freezing point c) Low condensing pressure d) Low viscosity
136. It is the process of treating air so as to control simultaneously its temperature, humidity, cleanliness and distribution to meet the comfort requirements of the occupants of the conditioned room or space.
What is this?
a) Comfort Air Conditioning b) Summer Air Conditioning
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c) Industrial Air Conditioning d) Commercial Air Conditioning
137. It is the ozone-destroying power of a substance measured relative to refrigerant 11 (R-11 or CFC-11).
a) Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) b) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)
c) Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) d) Global Warming Potential (GWP)
138. What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of steam?

a) An increase in entropy b) An increase in enthalpy c) A decrease in entropy d) A decrease in enthalpy
139. What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator over an atmospheric deaerator?

a) A boiler feed tank is no longer required b) Less over all energy will be required to produce the steam
c) It can be fitted at ground level d) It removes more oxygen
140. At which typical pressure will a pressurized deaerator supplying a shell boiler normally operate?
a) 0.2 bar g b) 1.2 bar g c) 5 bar g d) Boiler pressure
141. How is the released oxygen in a pressurized deaerator prevented from being reabsorbed by the water?
a) By an air vent b) There is sufficient water surface for the air to be absorbed
c) By steam blanket over the water d) By the incoming steam against the incoming water
142. How is the water in a pressurized deaerator heated to the required temperature?
a) By a blanket of steam above the water b) By direct steam injection into the water
c) By a spray of steam as it enters the deaerator dome d) It is not heated further but just held at a higher pressure
143. In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of moisture content, fixed carbon, ash, and which of the following?
a) Sulfur b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Volatile matter
144. A relative measure of the ability of a substance to cause an increase in the temperature of the atmosphere by absorbing solar and earth radiation that is relative to the effect of refrigerant 11.
a) Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) b) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)
c) Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) d) Global Warming Potential (GWP)
145. A ratio calculated by dividing the cooling capacity in Btu/hr by the power input in watts and any set of rating conditions, expressed in Btu/Watt-hr; it is also defined as the amount of heat removed
from the cooled space in Btu for one Watt-hour of electricity consumed.
a) Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER) b) Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP)
c) Global Warming Potential (GWP) d) Coefficient of Performance (COP)
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146. Which of the following would cause low head pressure?
a) Too much cooling water b) Insufficient refrigeration gas
c) Insufficient cooling water d) Too much cooling water and insufficient refrigeration gas
147. What do you all the locus of elevations to which water will rise in the Piezometer tube?
a) Hydraulic gradient b) Space gradient c) Elevation gradient d) Velocity gradient
148. Which of the following is true if the dry-bulb and wet-bulb temperatures in air are identical?
a) The dew point of air is reached b) The mixture is completely dry
c) Relative humidity is zero d) Temperature of air cannot be determined
149. Which of the following defines Surging?

a) A fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio b) Change of mass flow rate in proportion to pressure ratio
c) An unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in the compressor d) A reduction in lift force in the compressor
150. In a Brayton cycle or gas turbine cycle, what do you call the heat exchanger that passes exhaust heat to the compressed air, prior to combustion?
a) Reheater b) Recuperator c) Heater d) Heat exchanger
The measure of the ability of a goal to withstand exposure to the environment elements without excessive crumbling
a. crumbling coefficient
b. weatherability
c. cohensiveness
d. attrition coefficient
Answer. (B)
A type of coal that tends to break apart as it burns thereby exposing the unburned coal to the combustion air.
a. loose coal
b. free burning coal
c. non-cohensive coal
d. aggregate
Answer: (B)
A type of coal that produced a fused coal mass as it burns.

a. plastic coal
b. caking coal
c.soft coal
d. high-moisture coal
Answer: (B)
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A combustible coal content that produces a major atmospheric pollutant consequently, it is important that coal has a low percentage of this
component.
a. nitrogen
b.sulfur
c. carbon
d. hydrogen
Answer: (B)
Which of the following statement is/are true regards to the first law of thermodynamics for a change in state of a control mass
a. since heat and work are path function Q-W must also be a path function
b. Q-W is an inexact differential
c. A and B
d. Q-W is a point function
Answer: (D)
Which of the following statements is/are true with regards to heat and work.
a. heat and work are both transient phenomena
b.both heat and work are boundary phenomena
c.both heat and work are path function
d. all of the above
Answer: (D)
The height of the surface of the water above the gage point
a. pressure head
b. velocity head
c. dynamic head
d. static head
Answer: (D)
The head required to produced a flow of the water.

a. static head
b. pressure head
c. velocity head
d. dynamic head
Answer: (C)
The sum of the pressure head and velocity head.

a. static head
b. pressure head
c. velocity head
d. dynamic head
Answer: (D)
The dynamic pressure of the liquid at pump section less the corresponding to the temperature at the same point, converted to liquid.
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a. NPSH
b. specific head
c.pump operating head
d. suction head
Answer: (A)
The algebraic difference of the discharge and suction heads.

a. pump operating head
b. TDH
c. A and B
d. NPSH
Answer: (C)
The transfer of the heat energy from exhaust gases to compressed air flowing between the compressor and combustion chamber.
a. intercooling
b.convection
c. regeneration
d. economics
Answer :(C)
The removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.

a. regeneration
b. exhaustion
c. heat evacuation
d. intercooling
Answer:( D)
As a general rule, the cooling water side of the condenser should be schedule for inspection for every:
a. month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. year
Answer: (B)
If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the:

A. high-pressure cutout switch is jammed shut
B. low pressure switch is jammed shut
C. thermal bulb is not operating properly
D. scale trap is clogged
Answer: (B)
If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could be:
A. a clogged scale trap
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B. air in the system
C. automatic controls not functioning properly
D. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
Answer: C
If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be:

A. expansion valve not open wide enough
B. charging valve open too wide
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. dehydrator not working properly
Answer: C
The most likely cause of high superheat would be:

A. too much refrigerant
B. expansion valve open too wide
C. expansion valve closed in too much
D. back-pressure valve set too high
Answer: C
Short-cycling means that the machine:

A. grounds out frequently
B. stops and starts frequently
C. runs too fast
D. runs too slow
Answer: B
If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail:

A. the solenoid valve will close
B. the compressor will shut down
C. the expansion valve will close
D. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
Answer: (B)
Which of the following regions in a multi-stage turbine where efficiency a highest?

A. High pressure region above 200 psi
B. Intermediate pressure region
C. Low pressure most region
D. A and B
Answer (B)
Calculate the use factor of a 135 MW plant with a load facetor of 0.8 and a peak load of 120 MW if its operation is limited to 8500 hrs in
a year
A. 0.90
B. 0.73
C. 0.70
D. 0.78
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Answer (B)
Calculate the net radiation heat flux exchange of two bodies with surface temperature of 25 deg C. The radiation heat transfer coefficient
is 7.0 W/m2-k
A. 700 w/sq m
B. 750 w/sq m
C. 665 w/sq m
D. 650 w/sq m
Answer C
Calculate the reserve factor for a power plant with a load factor of 0.7 average load of 50 MW and rated capacity of 80 MW
a. 2
b. 1.5
c. 1.12
d. 1.6
Answer C
Maximum demand of 30 MW and 10 MW are connected to a power plant with a peak load of 70 MW. What is the diversity factor of the plant?
a. 0.50
b. 0.70
c. 0.65
d. 0.86
Answer C
A gas in piston-cylinder set-up undergoes an expansion of such rate that PV 1.2 =constant. Before the expansion process the pressure of the
gas is 300 kpa and the volume is 0.50 m3. If the final volume of the gas is 0.1 m3, calculate the work done by the gas
a. 9.71 KJ
b. 11.0 KJ
c. 12 KJ
d. 8 KJ
Answer A
The phenomenon in which air enters a submerged suction pipe from the water surface is called a:
a. whirlpool
b. vacuum
c. vortex
d. thixotropic
Answer C
Where groundwater ( wells and springs) or surface water (streams and takes) are used for feedwater, water hardness of ___ and alkalinity of
pH 10 to be ph should be considered
a. 0-10 ppm
b. 10-20 ppm
c. 20-30 ppm
d. 30-40 ppm
Answer A
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Which of the following is not a solid fuel?
a. peat
b. briquettes
c. tar
d coke
answer C
the memory lost when the operating power is removed

a. power memory
b. volatile memory
c. initial memory
d. quick data
answer b
Canisters of helmets shall be removed immediately after having been used or

Seal broken and is unused, must be renewed at least once every:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
answer b
Pump whose purpose is to increase the effective water pressure by sucking water from a public service main or private-use water system
a. horizontal split case pump
b. vertical shaft turbine pump
c. booster pump
d. submersible pump
answer C
A small fitting with a double offset, or shaped like the letter U with the ends turned out
a. elbow tee
b. expansion loop
c. spigot joint
d. cross-over
Answer d
The condition in which droplets of water are carried by steam in the boiler
a. priming
b. breeching
c. carryover
d. condensation
answer a
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At the start of the compression process of an air-standard diesel power cycle the pressure is 100kpa and the temp is 15 deg C. for a mean
effective pressure of 1362 kpa and compression ratio of 18 the heat of combustion developed is 1800 kj/kg. what is the thermal efficiency
of the cycle?
a. 65 %
b. 59 %
c. 55%
d. 68%
answer b
A circular chip ( k= 150 w/ mk) with a diameter d=10mm and thickness t= 4 mm is embedded in a circuit board. Its surface is exposed to the
flow of a coolant (h = 250 W/m2k, T = 10 degrees C) while its side and back surface and perfectly insulated. If any point in the chip the
temp must not exceed 90 degrees C, what is the steady state heat dissipation of the chip?
a. 2.5 W
b. 1.6 W
c. 2.0 W
d. 1.8 W
answer: b
A 3 cm layer asbestos [k=20 W/m degrees C] is used for a pipe [k=20 W/m degrees C] with 15 cm inside diameter and 12 cm outer diameter. The
inside wall temperature of the pipe is maintained at 500 deg C while the outside surface of asbestos at 90 deg C. Calculate the heat loss
per meter length
a. 1265 w/m
b. 1500 w/m
c. 1400 w/m
d. 1100 w/m
answer a
A 5m thick flat plane ( k=60 w/ m k) is well insulated on its sides, while the top and bottom surfaces are maintained at 150 deg. Assuming
a steady state heat conduction, calculate the temperature 4 m below the top surface.
a. 100 deg c
b. 120 deg c
c. 94 deg c
d. 80 deg c
answer c
A solid of diameter D=0.5 m and surface emissivity of 0.8 contains electrons that dissipate 100 W of heat. If it does not receive radiation
from the surroundings, what is the surface temp?
a. 300 deg C
b. 280 deg C
c. 230 deg C
d. 270 deg C
answer C
which of the following is basically a jet engine that exhausts into a turbine generator?
a. aeroderivative gas turbine
b. brayton engine
c. industrial gas turbine
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d. joule turbine
answer A
it is referred to as the maximum continous power available from a hydroelectric power plant even under the most adverse hydraulic condition
a. primary power
b. continuous base power
c. continuous peak power
d. firm power
answer D
working fluids used in refrigeration cycle decreases in temperature as they pass through the throttle valve. The Joule- Thompson
coefficient of these fluids is
a. negative
b. zero
c. positive
d. none of the above
answer C
the interaction that occurs between a system and its surroundings as the system executes a process, which is the result of the system being
at the temperature different from the surrounding is
a. mass transfer
b. heat transfer
c. work transfer
answer B
Exergy is always
a. being produced
b. being destroyed
c. not changing
answer b
Working fluids used in refrigeration cycle decreases in temperature as the pass through the throttle valve. The joule-thompson coefficient
of these fluids is
a. negative
b. zero
c. positive
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answer C
The interactions that occurs between a system and its surroundings as a system executes a process, which is the result of the system being
at temperature different from the surrounding is
A. mass transfer
b. heat transfer
c. work transfer
answer b
Exergy destruction is a result of

a. heat transfer
b. work production
c. process irreversibility
answer c
an air pollutant which isth e result of burning fuels oils

a. ferrous oxide
b. hydrogen nitride
c. sulfur dioxide
d. aluminum oxide
answer c
analysis of solid fuel to determine moisture, volatile matter, fixed carbon, and ash expressed as percentage of the total weight of the
sample
a. viscometer
b. proximate analysis
c. ultimate
d. pour point
answer b
a gas analysis apparatus in which the percentage of oxygen, carbon dioxide and neonoxide in the gas measured by absorption in separate
chemical solutions
a. orsat
b. proximate
c. ultimate
d. pour point
answer a
the water added to boiler feed to compensate for the water lost through blowdown, leakage, etc
a. condensate
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b. make-up
c. sulfur
d. economizer
answer b
gas flow caused by boiler’s pressure being less than boiler’s furnace pressure
a. induced draft
b. infrared
c. injector
d. inhibitor
answer (a)
an automatic pressure-relieving device that opens in proportion to the increase in pressure over its opening pressure
a. pressure gauge
b. relieve valve
c. ammeter
d. calorimeter
ans b
a rotating device used to convert kinetic energy into mechanical energy

a. turbine
b. generator
c. pump
d. vacuum
ans a
air can be prevented from getting into the system by:

a. keeping all gland and stuffing boxes on the high pressure side tight
b. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
c. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low pressure side tightr
d. running the refrigerant through an aerator
ans c
an excessively high head pressure could be caused by

a. solenoid valve shut off
b. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
c. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils
d. too much cooling water to the condenser
ans b
the solenoid valve is controlled by

a. the amount of liquid in the system
b. the amount of gas in the system
c. the temperature in the condenser
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d. the thermal switch operated by the icebox temperature
ans D
if the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is warmer than the
a. expansion valve is working normally
b. expansion valve is not working normally
c. solenoid valve is not working normally
d. scale trap is dirty
ans B
If the pressure is too high

a. the relief valve should open before the high pressure output
b. the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant go to receiver
c. the high pressure output switch should operate before the relief valve
d. close in on the suction valve
ans c
if a pressurized water reactor (PWR)

a. the coolant water is pressurized to work as moderator
b the coolant water boils in the core of the reactor
c. the coolant water is pressurized to prevent boiling of water in the core
d. no moderator is used
ans c
which of the following property of coal has major influence on the design and operation of a steam power plant
a. density of coal
b. carbon content of coal
c. ash content of coal
d. shape and size of coal
ans C
a boiler horsepower is equal to the evaporation of 3405lbs of 100 degrees c water per hr. how much steam in lb per hour a 700 horsepower
boiler can generate?
a. 24150 lb / hr
b. 21000 lb/ hr
c. 18000 lb/hr
d. 30000 lb/hr
ans b
___ is obtained by mixing and burning precisely the right amount of fuel and oxygen so that products are left once combustion is complete
a. perfect combustion
b. burning combustion
c. firing combustion
d. burning combustion
ans a
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what type of boiler commonly used in industrial and heavy commercial application due to less expensive to make low pressure, easier to
maintain and repair
a. water tube boiler
b. fire tube boiler
c. air tube boiler
d. marine water
ans b
during the emergency operation of the boiler, when there is no water in the gauge glass and steam comes out of the bottom trycock, the
water level cannot be determined. What preventive measure the operator does to save the boiler
a. shutdown the boiler and do not add water
b. add water to compensate the water losss
c. increase the firing rate
d. continue to operate the boiler and add water
ans a
the most important valve in the boiler operation and the last line of defense against disaster is known as
a. pressure gauge
b. compound gauge
c. safety valve
d. gate valve
ans c
a common test and very important when a boiler is being repaired and or replaced before being back in operation or in service is known as
a. hydrostatic test
b. water level test
c. test clamp
d. acid test
ans a
in heat transfer by conduction, due to symmetry the heat flow as a point is perpendicular to the isothermal surface through the point. This
mode of conduction is a characteristic of
a. non-isotropic
b. isotropic solid
c. insulators
d. conductors
ans b
why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air conditioning unit?
a. it will not cause ice build up
b. it will wear out the motor bearings &cause noise
c. it may not slice suction line
d. it decrease the volume flow of refrigerant
ans b
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the heat transferred radially across insulated pipe per unit area
a. remain constant
b. inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity
c. decrease from pipe wall to insulated surface
d. increase form pipe wall to insulated surface
ans c
under normal operating conditions, when a solid material to be dried is placed inside a batch tray dryer, the material is usually subjected
a. under constant drying conditions
b. under variable drying conditions
c. under high temperature drying
d. under low temperature drying
ans a
a change of phase directly from vapor to solid without passing through the liquid state is called as
a. sublimation
b. vaporization
c. solidification
d. deposition
ans d
in terms of heat transfer, the use of a cooling tower is said to be more efficient and more economical compared to an ordinary heat
exchanger since
a. large vol of air is available and free
b. temperature profiles of air and water can cross each other
c. large amount of water can be processed
d. a cooling tower is much smaller and cheaper than a heat heat exchanger
ans b
it is a form of oxygen photochemicallly produced in nature

a. ozone
b. oxidizing agent
c. oxidation
d. C02
ans a
what is the chemical formula of ozone

a. O3
b. D3O
c. O2
d. O1
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ans a
in the upper atmosphere, ozone is nade by ultraviolet light reacting with

a. oxygen
b. nitrogen
c. hydrogen
d. water vapor
ans a
the ozone concentration of parts per million(ppm) is generally considered maximum permissible for how many hours of exposure?
A. 8 hrs
b. 7 hrs
c. 4 hrs
d. 3hrs
ans a
how may moisture be removed from air?

a. condensation
b. adsorption
c. A and B
d. none of these
ans c
in cooling cycle, the dry bulb temp (db) of the air is lowered, what will happens to the relative humidity
a. increased
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. increases or decreases depending on the temperature at which it is cooled
ans A
what is the effect of superheating the

refrigerant?
a. it increases the coefficient of performance
b. it decreases the coefficient of performance
c. it lowers the boiling point of the refrigerant
d. it increases the suction pressure of the refrigerant
ans a
A turbine setting where one disadvantage is the difficulty of lubricating the operating mechanism, with consequent relatively rapid water
a. siphon setting
b. open fume setting
c cast setting
d. capacity setting
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ans b
A patented device combining expansion and compression function in a single rotor permitting higher cycle temperatures
a. comprex
b. compressor
c. expander
d. single-shaft
answer: A
A rough measure of the physical size of the equipment which must handle the specified quantity of the fluid
a. pressure ratio
b. fuel rate
c. thermal efficiency
d. air ratio
ans d
The ratio of the highest main compressor discharge pressure as the lower main compressor inlet pressure
a, cycle pressure ratio
b. cycle pressure level
c. work ratio
d. air ratio
ans a
The ratio of the maximum pressure in the cycle to the atmospheric pressure
a. cycle pressure ratio
b. cycle pressure level
c. regenerator effectiveness
d. thermal efficiency
ans b
The ratio of the actual partial pressure exerted by tge water vapor in any volume of air to the partial pressure that would be exerted by
the water vapor in the air is saturated at the temperature of the air
a. relative humidity
b. absolute humidity
c. humidity ratio
d. saturation ratio
ans a
In sensible heating the absolute humidity remains constant but the relative humidity
a. increases
b . remains constant
c. decreases
d. zero
ans c
The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor start to condense
a. dew point
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b. saturated point
c. cloud point
d. critical point
ans a
Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air conditioning unit?
a. It will cause ice build-up
b. It will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise
c. It may not slice suction line
d. It decreases the volume flow of refrigerant
Answer: B
A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer.

a. Hydrofluorocarbons (HCF’s)
b. R-22
c. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
d. R-12
Answer: A
Which of the following is the type of refrigerant that damages Ozone layer?
a. Hydrocholorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
b. R-22
c. R-12
d. All of these
Answer: D
Large-bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air speed or atmospheric condition by means of cooling.
a. Kata thermometer
b. JJ Thompson Thermometer
c. Kelvin Thermometer
d. Wet Bulb Thermometer
Answer: A
The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is called
a. Stratification
b. Setting Due
c. Sedimentation
d. Ventilation
Answer: A
Which of the following components of the window air conditioning system cleaned annually?
a. Evaporator and condenser
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b. Fan blades and fan motor
c. Motor and compressor
d. All of these
Answer: C
A cooled heat exchanger that transfer heat from compressed air to cooler air.
a. Intercooler
b. Refrigerator
c. Economizer
d. Aftercooler
Answer: D
All the control stand, pitch of the turbine blades must be adjusted manually by a.
a. Sensor
b. Float valve
c. Gate
d. Switch
Answer: A
The most commonly used adjustable-blade propeller turbine.

a. Francis turbine
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Impulse turbine
d. Pelton wheel
Answer: B
Runner blades are adjusted automatically in synchronism with turbine wicker gates by a/an.
a. Control valve
b. Governor
c. Oil servomotor
d. Manual operation
Answer: C
What is supplied to the servomotor from the turbine governor oil system through the generator shaft and through a control valve.
a. Water
b. Air
c. Steam
d. Oil
Answer: D
Used to exhaust air from the casing for starting.

a. Ejectors
b. Dearator
c. Injector
d. Blower
Answer: A
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Advantage for propeller turbines of all types
a. open flumes setting
b. siphon setting
c. cost setting
d. capacity setting
Answer: B
An office air conditioning system drew in a quantitity of hot air from outside, cooled it to 1 deg C, and mixed it with the internal air of
a building. Care was taken to supply enough fresh air to eliminate objectionable odors. The temperature of the space was maintained
constant, and yet some people became uncomfortable in the afternoon, why?
a. The relative humidity had dropped
b. When a person spends a long time at a constant temperature that person becomes uncomfortable
c. Radiant heat from others in the office made the space uncomfortable
d. The complainers were not really uncomfortable, they were just bored
Answer: A
A large paper plant uses its own cogeneration power plant to generate its electricity because.
a. It permits the use of a more efficient generator

b. The company can better control the voltage
c. It does away with high power lines leading to the plant
d. It provides a more efficient conversion of fuel
Answer: D
The volumetric output of a centrifugal pump is reduced by closing a valve part way on the intake side of the pump, throttling the intake.
The reduction of flow is accompanied by “popping” noises which seem to come from inside the case.
What is the probable cause?
a. The impeller has broken
b. Dirt particles have got into the pump intake
c. The intake valve flow seal is loose and vibrates
d. The fluid is cavitating
Answer: D
If a man touches two metals which were kept together at room temperature, why would one metal feel colder that the other?
a. One has a high temperature coefficient
b. One has a lower temperature
c. One has a high thermal conductivity
d. One has a high temperature
Answer: C
The ratio of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the boundary layer thermal resistance is described by:
a. Biot number
b. Nusselt number
c. Prandtl number
d. Reynolds number
Answer: A
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An instrument which is commonly used to measure the most important characteristics of fuel oil which is viscosity is known as;
a. Saybolt Viscosimeter
b. Ph-meter
c. Acid Testmeter
d. Gravuty meter
Answer: A
Equipment designed to reduce the amount of water vapor in the ambient atmosphere;
a. Blower
b. Condenser
c. Dehumidifier
d. Cooling tower
Answer: C
In a refrigerator, this is a chamber for storing low-side liquid refrigerant in a system, which also serves as a surge drum.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Compressor
d. Accumulator
Answer: D
The measure of a fluids resistance to flow(the internal friction of a fluid) as temperature increase.
a. Density
b. Viscosity
c. Specific gravity
d. Temperature
Answer: B
A mechanical device used to burn solid fuel specifically used in coal power palnt.
a. Stroker
b. Boiler
c. Staybolt
d. Condenser
Answer: A
The chemically correct ratio of air fuel a mixture capable of perfect combustion with no unused air or fuel,
a. Fuel point
b. Pour point
c. Stoichiometric ratio
d. Stack
Answer: C
When a solid material is said to be “dry” it means that

a. The solid does not contain any moisture
b. The solid still contains very small amount of moisture
c. The solid contains equilibrium moisture
93
d. The weight of the solid is the same as the bone dry weight
Answer: B
A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The heat that is first transferred to the air layer close to the block is
by conduction. It is eventually carried away from the surface by:
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Thermal
Answer: A
When drying banana chips under the sun, the rate of drying is faster
a. On a slightly breezy day
b. On a calm day
c. On a cloudy day
d. On a hot and windy day
Answer: D
Reflector of a nuclear reactor are made up of

a. Boron
b. Cast iron
c. Beryllium
d. Steel
Answer: C
The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is
a. To slow down the fast moving electrons

b. To speed up the slow moving electrons
c. To start the chain reaction
d. To transfer the heat produced inside the reactor to a heat exchanger
Answer: A
Which of the following is the most commonly used moderator?

a. Graphite
b. Sodium
c. Deuterium
d. Heavy water
Answer: A
Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by:

a. Smelling the discharge water
b. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge
c. Adding oil of peppermint to the system and tracing the small
d. Applying a scapy mixture to the condenser heads and looking for bubbles
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Answer: B
Air arrangement of headwater tubes located in the boiler

a. Economizer
b. Condenser
c. Evaporator
d. Boiler
Answer: A
Scale in boiler can.

a. Create low steam quality
b. Cause foaming
c. Over blow-off line
d. Inhibit circulation and heat transfer
Answer: D
The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given temperature.

a. Absorptivity
b. Emissivity
c. Conductivity
d. Reflectivity
Answer: B
In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by;

a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Convection
d. Conduction
Answer: C
A temperature above which a given gas cannot be liquefied;

a. Cryogenic Temperature
b. Absolute Temperature
c. Vaporization
d. Critical Temperature
Answer: D
What part of heat exchangers that are classified as radiant convection and placed at the near of the furnace, where they receive the bulk
of the radiation from the flame.
a. Radiant superheaters
b. Condenser
c. Radiator
d. Evaporators
Answer: A
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Which of the following is the major consideration while selecting the nuclear power plant?
a. Safety
b. Load center
c. Disposal of waste
d. Availability of water
Answer: C
A moderator is used to:

a. Slow down neutrons
b. Slow down electrons
c. Accelerate neutrons
d. Direct flow of electron
Answer: A
Which of the following material is not used as moderator?

a. Graphite
b. Beryllium
c. Aluminum
d. Light water
Answer: C
In nuclear power plant which of the following is used to slow down the fast neutron?
a. Reflector
b. Shield
c. Control rod
d. Moderator
Answer: D
Control rods for nuclear reactors are made of

a. Graphite
b. Concrete
c. Cadmium
d. Lead
Answer: C
The reactor in which fissionable fuel produced is more than the fuel consumed is known as
a. Fast reactor
b. Breeder reactor
c. Thermal reactor
d. None of the above
Answer: B
Heavy duty gas turbines typically have

a. Double shaft
b. Triple shaft
c. Single shaft
d. Quadruple shaft
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Answer: C
Which of the following statements is not a key feature of fourier’s heat conduction.
a. It is phenomenological
b. It defines an important material property called thermal conductance
c. It is vector expression indicating that the heat flux is normal and the direction of decreasing temperature.
d. Assume that the thermal conductivity is constant with repect to temperature of the material
Answer: D
What is the color code of steam line in geothermal power plant?

a. Green
b. Blue
c. Silver Gray
d. Red
Answer: C
What is absorbed by sulphites in boiler water treatment?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Impurities settled in mud drums
Answer: D
A flow volume in which the fluids flow upward through a tapered tube lifting a shaped weight to a position where the upward force just
balances to weight.
a. Rotameter
b. Thermometer
c. Viscometer
d. Ammeter
Answer: A
An instrument that register total pressure and static pressure in a used to determine velocity.
a. Ammeter
b. Rotameter
c. Pitot tube
d. Pour point
Answer: C
A heat engine whose thermodynamic efficiency is greater than that of a Carnot device using the same energy reservoir is known as:
a. A perpetual machine of the zeroth kind
b. A perpetual machine of the second kind
97
c. A perpetual machine of the first kind
d. A perpetual machine of the third kind
Answer: B
The degrees of power interval in 4-stroke cycle of a six-cylinder engine is

a. 60 degrees
b. 180 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 120 degrees
Answer: D
The portion of sunlight, rich in ultraviolet rays, which has a strong effect on photographic plate.
a. Gamma rays
b. X-rays
c. Beta rays
d. Actinic rays
Answer: D
Which of the following does not illustrate the effect of temperature or pressure on gas solubility?
a. Air bubbles from on the sides of a warm glass of water
b. Soda pop is bottle under pressure
c. Boiling frees water gases
d. Air is more humid on rainy days
Answer: D
Among the effluents that may be released from the hydrothermal reservoir which one is the most toxic?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Methane
d. Ammonia
Answer: B
Newton said that a projectile if given enough horizontal velocity will not fail to the earth. Instead, it moves along a path around the
earth. The 1st artificial satellite that verified Newton’s statement is
a. Apollo 1
b. Houston 1
c. Sputnik 1
d. None of these
Answer: C
A refrigerant control valve that maintains a constant pressure in a evaporator

a. Bleed valve
b. Angle valve
c. Automatic expansion valve
d. Ball check valve
Answer: C
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A rigid contains gas a 100 kpa and 10 degrees C. the gas is heated until the temperature reaches 100 degree C. Calculate the work done by
the system.
a. 2
b. 0
c. 1
d. 1.5
Answer: B
The compression ratio in an air-standard Otto cycle is 10. At the beginning of the compression stroke the pressure is 120 kpa and the
temperature is 15 degree C. Calculate the pressure and the temperature at the end of the compression process.
a. 4,000 kPa
b. 3,500 kPa
c. 3,014 kPa
d. 3,200 kPa
Answer: C
Find the thermal efficiency of an air-standard Otto power cycle with a compression ratio of 7.
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 65%
d. 54%
Answer: D
At the beginning of the compression stroke in an standard Otto cycle. The pressure is 100 kPa and the temperature is 15 degree C. the
compression ratio is 8 and work is 1,017.7 kj/kg. Determine the mean effective pressure.
a. 1,406 kPa
b. 1,500 kPa
c. 1,350 kPa
d. 1,550 kPa
Answer: A
The compression ratio in an air standard diesel cycle is 20. At the beginning of the compression process the pressure and the temperature
are 0.12 Mpa and 15 degree C respectively. What is the pressure at the end of the compression process?
a. 8,500 kPa
b. 7,955 kPa
c. 8,300 kPa
d. 8,200 kPa
Answer: B
The accounting of all energy units involved in a system a cycle of an piece of equipment
a. Thermodynamic solution
b. Equilibrium condition
c. Summation of energy units
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d. Heat Balance
Answer: D
It refers to any arrangement whereby steam is bled from a turbine more pressure for any purpose whatsoever
a. Regeneration
b. Extraction
c. Bled-off cycle
d. Regenerative extraction cycle
Answer: B
Any arrangement whereby steam is bled from a turbine for a purpose of thermal regeneration of the condensate to a temperature level
approaching that of the boiler water.
a. Regenerative
b. Extraction cycle
c. Bled-off steam cycle
d. Regenerative extraction cycle
Answer: A
The steam extracted from the turbine

a. Bled steam
b. Extraction
c. Extracted steam
d. A and C
Answer: D
The point of particular pressure where the steam is extracted

a. Bleeder point
b. Extraction point
c. Bleeder
d. A and B
Answer: D
Vapor pumps that raise the pressure of the refrigeration to a level that permits sufficient heat rejection to the condensing medium.
a. Fans
b. Blower
c. Compressor
d. Suction
Answer: C
Low temperature heat exchanger that is used to absorb heat from the refrigerated space and transfer it to the refrigerant in its tubes so
that it can be transported to another and released.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Capillary tube
d. Compressor
Answer: B
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The substance employed as cooling effect to absorb heat from the refrigerated space in called
a. Condensate
b. Feedwater
c. Refrigerant
d. Moisture
Answer: C
It is inversely proportional to the power required to grind the coal to certain fitness
a. Pulverizing index
b. Fireness index
c. Grindability index
d. Inverse power coefficient
Answer: C
The temperature where the ash becomes very plastic, somewhat below the melting point of the ash.
a. Ash- softening temperature
b. Ash- plasticity temperature
c. Ash – fluidity temperature
d. Ash – liquefaction temperature
Answer: A
The amount of chemical energy in a given mass or volume of fuel.

a. Heating value
b. Energy storage
c. Calorific value
d. A and C
Answer: D
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A vertical turbine pump with the jump and motor closed coupled and design to be installed underground, as in the case of a deepwell pump.
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. Booster pump
C. Submersible pump
D. Vertical shaft turbines pump
Answer: C
An underground formation that contains sufficient saturated permeable material to yield significant quantities of water.
A. Aquifer
B. Ground water
C. Wet pit
D. Well water
Answer: A
A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having

a screened inlet kept partially filled with water by an open body of water such as pond, lake, or steams.
A. Aquifer
B. Ground water
C. Wet pit
D. Well water
Answer: C
Water which is available from well, driven into water bearing subsurface strata (aquifer)
A. Aquifer
B. Ground water
C. Wet pit
D. Well water
Answer: B
Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal force as the impeller is rotated.
A. Impeller
B. Stuffing box
C. Casing
D. Shaft sleeve
Answer: A
A means of throttling the leakage which would otherwise occur at the point of entry of the shaft into the casing.
A. Impeller
B. Stuffing box
C. Casing
D. Shaft sleeve
Answer: B
Protect the shaft where it passes through the stuffing box.

A. Impeller
B. Stuffing box
C. Casing
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D. Shaft sleeve
Answer: D
The ratio of the actual vapor density to the vapor density at saturation
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: A
An expression of the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry air
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: C
Which of the following is equivalent to 1lb?

A. 5000 grains
B. 6000 grains
C. 7000 grains
D. 8000 grains
Answer: C
The bypass factor for large commercial units

A. Around 20%
B. Around 30%
C. Around 10%
D. Around 50%
Answer: C
Sometimes called specific humidity

C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: C
For any given barometric pressure, the humidity ratio is a function of the
A. Critical temperature
B. Dew point temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Wet bulb temperature
Answer: B
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The humidity ratio corresponding to any given dew point temperature varies with the total barometric pressure, increasing as the barometric
pressure
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Varies
D. Constant
Answer: B
The ratio of the mass of water vapor in the air per unit mass of dry to the mass of water vapor requires for saturation of the same air
sample
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: D
A closed channel excavated through an obstructiuon such as a ridge of higher land between the dam and the powerhouse is called
A. Canal
B. Headrace
C. Penstock
D. Tunnel
Answer: D
The small reservoir in which the water level rises or falls to reduce the pressure swings so that they are not transmitted to the closed
conduit is called
A. Penstock
B. Power reservoir
C. Pressure tank
D. Tunnel
Answer: D
The regulation of the water in the form of a relatively small pond of reservoir provided at the plant is called
A. Pondage
B. Water storage
C. Reservoir
D. Lake
Answer: A
A structure used to relieve the reservoir of excess water

A. Spillway
B. Diversion channel
C. Butress dam
D. Arch dam
Answer: A
The fluid pressure difference created by column of heated gas, as by7 chimney is called
A. Natural draft
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B. Forced draft
C. Induce draft
D. Required draft
Answer: A
The pressure rise from greater to a lesser vacuum, created in a gas loop between stream generator outlet and chimney by means of a fan is
called
A. Forced draft
B. Induced draft
C. Required draft
D. Balanced draft
Answer: B
Also known as Francis turbines or radial flow turbines

A. Impulse turbines
B. Tangential turbines
C. Reaction turbines
D. Axial flow turbines
Answer: C
The turbine, draft tube and all related parts comprise what is known as
A. Powerhouse
B. Forbay
C. Setting
D. Surge chamber
Answer: C
When a forbay is not part of the generating plant’s design, it will be desirable to provide a _________ in order to relieve the effects of
rapid changes in flowrate.
A. Forbay
B. Draft tube
C. Surge chamber
D. Penstock
Answer: C
To keep the deflected jet out of the way of the incoming jet, the actual angle is limited to approximately
A. 90 deg.
B. 135 deg.
C. 165 %
D. 175 deg.
Answer: C
The minimum fluid energy required at the pump inlet for satisfactory operation is known as
A. NPSHR
B. NPSHA
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C. Velocity head
D. Friction head
Answer: A
Throttling the input line to a pump and venting or evacuating the receiving tank
A. Both increase cavitation
B. Both decrease cavitation
C. Both eliminate cavitation
D. Both drive cavitation
Answer: A
Traditional reciprocating pumps with pistons and rods can be either single-acting or double acting and are suitable up to approximately
A. 2000 psi
B. 4000 psi
C. 8000 psi
D. 10,000 psi
Answer: A
In a sensible heating process the final humidity ratio is:

a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. The same
d. Cannot be determined
Answer: C
In an adiabatic saturation process the final relative humidity is:

A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. The same
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A
Cooling and dehumidifying process is commonly used for:

A. Summer air conditioning
B. Ice making
C. Winter cooling
D. Heat pumping
Answer: A
An adiabatic saturation process is also known as:

A. Constant WB temperature process
B. Constant DB temperature process
C. Constant DP temperature process
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D. Constant vapor temperature process
Answer: A
The process of simultaneous heating and dehumidifying is known as:

A. Sensible heating
B. Cooling and dehumidifying
C. Sensible cooling
D. Chemical dehumidifying
Answer: D
The process in increasing the dry-bulb temperature without changing the humidity ratio is known as:
A. Sensible heating
C. Sensible cooling
D. Heating and dehumidifying
Answer: A
The process of simultaneous cooling and decreasing of humidity ratio is known as:
A. Sensible cooling
B. Cooling and humidifying
C. Cooling and dehumidifying
Answer: C
The process of cooling without changing the humidity ratio is known as:
A. Sensible heating
C. Sensible cooling
D. Heating and humidifying
Answer: C
The process of simultaneous heating and humidifying ratio is known as:

A. Sensible cooling
B. Cooling and humidifying
C. Heating and humidifying
Answer: C
Which of the following cycle is bulky and involves toxic fluids hence it is unsuitable for home and autocooling
A. Carnot refrigeration cycle
B. Absorption cycle
C. Vapor and compression cycle
D. Air refrigeration cycle
Answer: B
Which of the following refrigeration cycle is practical when large quantities of waste or inexpensive heat energy are available?
A. Heat driven refrigeration cycle
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B. Absorption cycle
C. Vapor compression cycle
D. Air refrigeration cycle
Answer: A
A product of computer-aided manufacturing and precision machining were introduce commercially in the late 1980’s as replacements for
reciprocating compressors in small residential air conditioners
A. Reciprocating compressors
B. Centrifugal compressors
C. Rotary compressors
D. Scroll compressors
Answer: D
Condensers used in small and medium sized up to approximately 100 tons refrigerators.
A. Air-cooled condensers
B. Water cooled condensers
C. High side condensers
D. Low side condensers
Answer: A
For efficient operation, the condensing temperature should not be lower than
A. 5 C
B. 17 C
C. 10 C
D. 20 C
Answer: A
For efficient operation, the condensing temperature should not be more than
A. 5 C
B. 17 C
C. 10 C
D. 20 C
Answer: B
An evaporator in a refrigeration unit makes use of which heat transfer modes?

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Energy added to a vapor is known as a latent heat of vaporization

A. Latent heat of vaporization
B. Sensible heat of vapor
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C. Superheat
D. B and C
Answer: C
The vaporization process that occurs at temperature below the triple point of a substance is called.
A. Evaporation
B. Boiling
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation
Answer: C
As the pressure increases, the amount of work it can do increases and its enthalpy
A. Increases
B. Remained the same
C. Decreases
D. Pressure and enthalpy has no relation at all
Answer: A
During the compression process, the internal energy of the refrigerant vapor
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain the same
D. Internal energy has no relation to the compression process
Answer: A
The measure of the amount of thermal energy transfer occurring within the evaporator per unit mass under stated conditions.
A. Refrigeration capacity
B. Heat capacity
C. Refrigeration effect
D. Heat absorptivity
Answer: C
The peak power that can be produced on an occasional basis

A. Brakepower
B. Intermittent rating
C. Continous duty rating
D. Power rating
Answer: B
A value of a property that includes the effect of friction is known as:

A. Brake value
B. Indicated value
C. Friction value
D. Actual value
Answer: A
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Forced draft fans are run at relatively high speeds in the range of
A. 1200 to 1800 rpm
B. 1500 to 2000 rpm
C. 1000 to 1600 rpm
D. 900 to 1500 rpm
Answer: A
Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes referred to as

A. Natural chimney
B. Normal chimney
C. Gravity chimney
D. Stack
Answer: C
For realistic problems, the achievable stack effect probably should be considered to be
A. 75% of the ideal
B. Equal to the ideal
C. 80 % of the ideal
D. Half the ideal
Answer: C
In a balanced system, the available draft is

A. Unity
B. 100
C. Zero
D. Infinite
Answer: C
It is a device used for atomizing or cracking fuel oil and through which the fuel oil is injected into the working cylinders of Diesel
engines
A. Atomizer
B. Injector
C. Fuel spray nozzle
D. Cracker
Answer: A
The device that transfer thermal energy from one fluid to another
A. Condenser
B. Feedwater
C. Evaporator
D. Heat exchanger
Answer: D
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Undergrounds system of hot water and / or steam
A. Hydrothermal resource
B. Geothermal resource
C. Hot water resource
D. High pressure water system
Answer: A
The process of returning spent geothermal fluids to the subsurface Is called

A. Injection
B. Returning
C. Rejection
D. Exhaustion
Answer: A
The simultaneous demand of all customers required at any specified point in an electric power system is called
A. Demand
B. Electrical demand
C. Power demand
D. Load
Answer: D
The electricity generating plants that are operated to meet the peak or maximum load on the system are called
A. Peaking plants
B. High-load plants
C. High demanding plants
D. Add-on plants
Answer: A
The capacity of a substance to transmit a fluid is called

A. Fluidity
B. Permeability
C. Porosity
D. Smoothness
Answer: B
The ratio of the aggregate volume pore spaces in rock or soil to its total volume is called
A. Porosity
B. Sphericity
C. Permeability
D. Salinity
Answer: A
Cooling efficiency is typically

A. 75 to 80%
B. 50 to 70%
C. 80 to 85%
D. 90 to 95%
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Answer: B
Forced draft towers can cool the water to within

A. 10 to12 F
B. 5 to 6 F
C. 20 to 24 F
D. 2.5 to 3 F
Answer: B
The higher the wet bulb temperatures

A. The higher the efficiency
B. The lower the efficiency
C. The efficiency is limited
D. The efficiency is maximum
Answer: B
Define the relative difficulty in cooling, essentially the relative amount of contact area or fill volume required
A. Heat load
B. Tower load
C. Cooling duty
D. Rating factor
Answer: D
Evaporation loss can be calculated from the humidity ratio increase and is approximately _________ decrease in water temperature
A. 0.18% per C
B. 0.25% per C
C. 0.10% per C
D. 0.30% per C
Answer: A
Water lost in small droplet and carried away by the air flow
A. Range
B. Approach
C. Drift
D. Bleed-off
Answer: C
The ratio of total dissolved solids in the recirculating water to the total dissolved solids in the make-up water.
A. Ratio of concentration
B. Cooling efficiency
C. Coil efficiency
D. Bypass factor
Answer: A
A dry-cooling tower where steam travels through large diameter “trunks” to a cross-flow heat exchanger where it is condensed and cooled by
the cooler air
A. Direct condensing tower
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B. Indirect condensing dry cooling tower
C. Evaporative cooling tower
D. Atmospheric cooling tower
Answer: A
The minimum fluid energy required at the pump inlet for satisfactory operation is known as
A. NPSHR
B. NPSHA
C. Velocity head
D. Friction head
Answer: A
The actual fluid energy at the inlet

A. NPSHR
B. NPSHA
C. Velocity head
D. Friction head
Answer: B
Throttling the input line to a pump and venting or evacuating the receiver tank
A. Both increase cavitation
B. Both decrease cavitation
C. Both eliminate cavitation
D. Both drive cavitation
Answer: A
Traditional reciprocating pumps with pistons and rods can be either single-acting or double acting and are suitable up to approximately
A. 2000 psi
B. 4000 psi
C. 8000 psi
D. 10,000 psi
Answer: A
Plunger pumps are only single-acting and are suitable up to approximately

A. 2000 psi
B. 4000 psi
C. 8000 psi
D. 10,000 psi
Answer: D
The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat transfer coefficient.

A. Fouling factor
B. Sensible heat ratio
C. Cleanliness factor
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D. Biot number
Answer: C
The ratio of the maximum to minimum mass steam flow rates at which the temperature can be accurately contained by the desuperheater.
A. Cleanliness factor
B. Capacity factor
C. Turndown ratio
D. Fouling factor
Answer: C
With a reversible regenerator, the thermal efficiency of the Ericsson cycle is ______ to that of the Carnot cyle
A. Less than
B. Greater than
C. Proportional
D. Equal
Answer: D
The electro magnetic radiation emitted from the daughter nucleus when an alpha particles leaves the patent atom
A. Neutron
B. Position
C. Gamma ray
D. K-capture
Answer: C
Which of the following statement is a scheme for energy storage?

A. Pumped hydro
B. Magnetic energy storage
C. Thermal energy storage
D. All of the above
Answer: D
A reactor that employs fast or high energy neutrons and contains no moderator is called
A. High energy reactor
B. Fast reactor
C. High speed reactor
D. Turbo reactor
Answer: B
A reactor that utilizes slow moving neutrons

A. Slow reactor
B. Intermediate reactor
C. Thermal reactor
D. Slow speed reactor
Answer: C
The water bearing stratum of permeable san, rock, or gravel is called

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A. Reservoir
B. Water source
C. Aquifer
D. Well
Answer: C
The electricity generating units that are operated to meet the constant or minimum load on the system is called
A. Constant load plants
B. Baseload plants
C. Invariable load plants
D. Steady load plants
Answer: B
The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given temperature,

A. Absorptivity
B. Conductivity
C. Emissivity
D. Reflectivity
Answer: C
What are the main components in a combined cycle power plant?

A. Diesel engine and air compressor
B. Steam boiler and turbine
C. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler
Answer: C
The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is generally designed by a three-digits number size as 646. The first digit designates
A. Stroke of the pump in inches
B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured in inches
C. Percent clearance
D. Number of cylinder
Answer: B
The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given head with no losses in the pump is called
A. Wheel power
B. Brake power
C. Hydraulic power
D. Indicated power
Answer: C
Fluid that are pumped in processing work are frequently more viscous than water. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity increases
C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts and the passing fluid increases useful work
D. Working head increases as the viscosity
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Answer: C
The law that states “Entropy of all perfect crystalline solids is zero at absolute zero temperature”
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: D
An expression of the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry air
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: C
Which of the following is equivalent to 1 lb?

A. 5000 grains
B. 6000 grains
C. 7000 grains
D. 8000 grains
Answer: C
The locus of states that the same value of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux is called.
A. Fanno line
B. Rayleigh line
C. Willian’s line
D. Mollier’s line
Answer: A
Combining the conservation of mass and momentum equations into a single equation and plotting it on the h-s diagram yield a curve called
A. Fanno line
B. Rayleigh line
C. Willian’s line
D. Mollier’s line
Answer: B
Across the shock, the stagnation temperature of an ideal gas

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Proportional
Answer: C
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Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing moisture on a solid dessicant or drying material such as activated alumina,
silicon gel or molecular sieve?
A. Regenerative dryer
B. Spray dryer
C. Deliquescent dryer
D. Refrigerated dryer
Answer: C
When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, the two are in thermal equilibrium with
each other.
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: A
The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system where energies appear in several complex forms is the
A. Kinetic energy
B. Internal energy
C. Potential energy
D. Friction energy
Answer: B
The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the following process except
A. Isentropic expansion
B. Isenthalpic expansion
C. Isothermal expansion
D. Isentropic compression
Answer: B
The maximum possible work that can be obtained a cycle operating between two reservoirs is found from
A. Process irreversibility
B. Carnot efficiency
C. Availability
D. Reversible work
Answer: B
The following factors are necessary to define a thermodynamic cycle expect

A. The working substance
B. High and low temperature reservoirs
C. The time it takes to complete the cycle
D. The means of doing work on the system
Answer: C
A temperature above which a given gas cannot be liquefied

A. Cryogenic temperature
B. Absolute temperature
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C. Vaporization temperature
D. Critical temperature
Answer: D
The geometrical electricity generating plants that employs a closed-loop heat exchange system in which the heat of the primary fluid is
transferred to a secondary fluid, which is thereby vaporized and used to drive a turbine generator set
A. Binary cycle plant
B. Dual cycle plant
C. Double cycle plant
D. Cascade cycle
Answer: A
The geothermal solution which contains appreciable amounts of sodium chloride or other salts is called
A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Potassium silicate
C. Sea water
D. Brine
Answer: D
The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit at standard conditions.
A. Btu
B. Calorie
C. Joule
D. Centigrade
Answer: A
The process that uses a stream of geothermal of hot water or stream to perform successive task requiring temp is called
A. Diminishing heat
B. Decreasing heat
C. Cascading heat
D. Negative gradient process
Answer: C
The water formed by condensation of steam is called

A. Distilled water
B. Condensate
C. Dew
D. Condenser
Answer: B
A structure that removes heat from condensate is called

A. Desuperheater
B. Cooling tower
C. Evaporator
D. Condenser
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Answer: B
In a typical hydroelectric generating plant using reaction turbines, the turbine is generally housed in a
A. Powerhouse
B. Penstock
C. Forbay
D. Setting
Answer: A
After the water passes through the turbine, it is discharges through the draft tube to the receiving reservoir known as the
A. Tail race
B. Tailwater
C. Draft tube
D. Setting
Answer: B
If a draft tube is not employed, water maybe returned to the tailwater by way of a channel is known as the
A. tail race
B. tailwater
C. draft tube
D. setting
Answer: A
The turbine, draft tube and all related parts comprise what is known as
A. Powerhouse
B. Forbay
C. Setting
D. Surge chamber
Answer: C
When a forbay is not part of the generating plant’s design, it will be desirable to provide a ________ in order to relieve the effects of
rapid changes in flowrate.
A. Forbay
B. Draft tube
C. Surge chamber
D. Penstock
Answer: C
A. 90 deg.
B. 135deg.
C. 165%
D. 175deg.
Answer: C
The spontaneous vaporization of the fluid, resulting in a degradation of pump performance.

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A. Cavitation
B. Vapor lock
C. Available head
D. Net head
Answer: A
A dry cooling tower where steam is condensed by cold water jets (surface or jet condenser)
A. Direct condensing tower
B. Indirect condensing dry cooling tower
C. Evaporative cooling tower
D. Atmospheric cooling tower
Answer: B
If the heat is being removed from water, the device is known as

A. Chiller
B. Cooler
C. Air conditioner
D. Air cooler
Answer: A
Which of the following is the refrigerant “of choice” in uniting air conditioners?
A. R-22
B. R-123
C. R-11
D. R-502
Answer: A
In new equipment, which of the following replace R-11?

A. R-12
B. R-123
C. R-502
D. R-22
Answer: B
The mass flow rate produces by the compressor is

A. Proportional to the mass of the suction vapor that the compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
B. Equal to the mass of the suction vapor that the compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
C. Less than the mass of the suction vapor that the compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
D. Greater that the mass of the suction vapor that the compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
Answer: B
A boiler operated at pressure not exceeding 1.055kg/cm2 gage steam, or water temperature no exceeding 121˚C.
A. Low pressure heating boiler
B. Hot water supply boiler
C. Miniature
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D. Power boiler
Answer: A
The very hot steam that doesn’t occur with a liquid

A. Pure steam
B. Saturated vapor
C. Critical steam
D. Dry steam
Answer: D
The steam produced when the pressure on a geothermal liquid is reduced

A. Low pressure steam
B. High quality steam
C. Sub pressure steam
D. Flashed steam
Answer: D
The vent or hole in the Earth surface, usually in a volcanic region, from which, gaseous vapors, or hot gasses issue.
A. Fumaroles
B. Crater
C. Hot spot
D. Hot spring
Answer: A
The earth interior heat made available to man by extracting it from hot water or rocks.
A. Geological heat
B. Geothermal heat
C. Volcanic heat
D. None of these
Answer: B
Device that takes advantage of the relatively constant temperature of the Earth’s interior, using it as a source and sink of heat for both
heating and cooling.
A. Geothermal devices
B. Geothermal generator
C. Geothermal heat pumps
D. Geothermal turbines
Answer: C
The spring that shoots jets of hot water and steam into the air is called
A. Geyser
B. Hot jet
C. Thermal jet
D. Guyshen
Answer: A
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What is the power seat width of a spray valve?
A. 1/16 in.
B. 1/32 in.
C. 1/8 in.
D. 1/4 in.
Answer: A
A device which automatically governs or controls the speed of an engine.

A. Servomotor
B. Indicator
C. Governors
D. Speedometer
Answer: C
The useful energy transfer in Btu/hr divided by input power in watts. This is just the coefficient of performance expressed in mixed units.
A. Energy efficient ratio
B. Coil efficient
C. Bypass factor
D. Sensible heat ratio
Answer: A
If EER is the energy efficiency ratio, and COP is the coefficient of performance then
A. EER=3.41COP
B. COP=3.41EER
C. EERxCOP=3.41
D. 3.41EERxCOP=1
Answer: A
Which of the following is a reversed Rankine vapor cycle?

B. Vapor refrigeration cycle
C. Air refrigeration cycle
D. Absoption cycle
Answer: B
The most common type of refrigeration cycle, finding application in household refrigerators, air conditioners for cars and houses, chillers
and so on.
D. Absoption cycle
Answer: B
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Which of the following is a reserved Brayton cycle?
D. Absoption cycle
Answer: C
A 100kg is at 0˚C is heated by supplying 2000KJ of heat to it. If the heat of fusion is 335kJ/kg how many kilograms of ice will melt into
water?
A. 8 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 6 kg
D. 3 kg
Answer: C
Determine the quantity of latent heat transferred to an evaporator when 5 kg of water undergoes those changes from a liquid at 0˚C to ice
at 0˚C.
A. 1,300 kJ
B. 1,675 kJ
C. 1,450 kJ
D. 1,800 kJ
Answer: B
Compute the rate of water transfer by melting an ice at a rate of 50 kg/hr.

A. 8 kJ/sec
B. 10 kJ/sec
C. 5 kJ/sec
D. 12 kJ/sec
Answer: C
10 kg of water at 60˚C receives 42,000kJ of heat coming from the surrounding. Assuming it is open to the atmosphere, how many kilograms of
water will be vaporized?
A. 18 kg
B. 15 kg
C. 10 kg
D. 20 kg
Answer: A
As the liquid changes phase to vapor, its enthalpy
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Enthalpy has no relation to phase change
Answer: A
Which of the following processes does not alter the kinetic energy level of a substance?
123
A. Fusion
B. Adding sensible heat to a solid
C. Adding sensible heat to a liquid
D. Superheating a vapor
Answer: A
Condensers used for larger capacities refrigerators.

A. Air-cooled condersers
B. Water-cooled condensers
C. High side condensers
D. Low side condenser
Answers: B
Coolers and chillers for water generally operate with an average temperature difference of
A. 3 to 11 C
B. 5 to 8 C
C. 6 to 22 C
D. 10 to 16 C
Answer: A
To avoid freezing problems, entering refrigerant should be

A. Below-2 C
B. Above-2 C
C. Equal to-2 C
D. 0 C
Answer: B
Suction lines should not be sized too large, as reasonable velocity is needed to carry oil from the evaporator back to the compressor. For
horizontal suction lines, the recommended minimum velocity is
A. 3.8 m/s
B. 6.1 m/s
C. 7.1 m/s
D. 4.8 m/s
Answer: A
Type of turbine used for low heads, high rotational speeds and larger flow rates
A. Axial flow turbines
B. Reaction turbines
C. Radial flow turbines
D. Impulse turbines
Answer: A
A. 135 deg.
B. 150 deg.
124
C. 165 deg.
D. 175 deg.
Answer: C
Which of the following turbines are centrifugal pumps operating in reverse?

A. Reaction turbines
B. Impulse turbines
C. Tangential turbines
D. Axial flow turbines
Answer: A
Weight per unit volume is termed as:

A. Specific gravity
B. Specific density
C. Weight density
D. Pressure
Answer: C
Measure of hotness or coldness of the body

A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Energy
D. Entropy
Answer: B
The temperature at which the water vapor in the air begins to condensed, or the temperature at which the relative humidity of air becomes
100%.
A. Flash point
B. Boiling point
C. Dew point
D. Freezing point
Answer: C
It consists of a wet and dry bulb thermometers mounted on a strip of metal

A. Manometer
B. Gyrometer
C. Pyrometer
D. Sling psychrometer
Answer: D
A manometer is an instrument that is used to measure:

A. Air pressure
B. Condensate water level
C. Heat radiation
D. Air volume
Answer: A
125
The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point temperature to the amount that should be in the air if the air were saturated
at the dry-bulb temperature is:
A. Partial pressure actual dew point
B. Percentage humidity
C. Relative humidity
D. Run faster
Answer: A
All of the following statements about wet bulb temperature are true, EXCEPT
A. Wet bulb temperature aequals adiabatic saturation temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature is the only temperature necessary to determine grains water per lb of dry air
C. Wet bulb temperature lies numerically between dew point and dry bulb temperature for unsaturated systems
D. Wet bulb temperature equals both dry-bulb and dew point temperature at 100% relative humidity
Answer: C
Heat added to or removed from a substance that cause a change of temperature:

A. Absolute heat
B. Latent heat
C. Specific heat
D. Sensible heat
Answer: D
Plunger pumps are only single-acting and are suitable up to approximately

A. 2000 psi
B. 4000 psi
C. 8,000 psi
D. 10,000 psi
Answer: D
The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat transfer coefficient.

A. Fouling factor
B. Sensible heat ratio
C. Cleanliness factor
D. Biot number
Answer: C
The ratio of the maximum to minimum mass steam flow rates at which the temperature can be accurately contained by the desuperheater.
A. Cleanliness factor
B. Capacity factor
C. Turndown ratio
D. Fouling factor
Answer: C
126
Used to described the act of blowing the exhaust product out with the air-fuel mixture
A. Supercharging
B. Scavenging
C. Honing
D. Choking
Answer: B
Which of the following compresses and increases the amount of air that enters the cylinder per stoke
A. Supercharging
B. Scavenging
C. Honing
D. Choking
Answer: A
A form of supercharging in which the exhaust gases drive the supercharger

A. Lugging
B. Honing
C. Turbocharging
D. Blower charging
Answer: C
The maximum speed of the turbine under no and no governing action is called
A. Runaway speed
B. Pre governing speed
C. Governing speed
D. No load governing
Answer: A
Which of the following statements is false when gasoline is used as diesel fuel.
A. Gasoline does not ignite
B. Gasoline wears the fuel-injection pumps because of its low viscosity
C. Addition of lubrication oil to gasoline will just severe the situation
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Which of the following is an advantage of hydro-plants?

A. Hydro plants provide ancillary benefits like irrigation, flood control, aquaculture navigation etc.
B. Modern hydro generators give high efficiency over considerable range of load. This helps in improving the system
C. Due to its great ease of taking up and throwing off the load, the hydro power can be used as the ideal spinning reserve in a system
mix of the thermal, hydro and power station
D. All of the above
Answer: B
127
The hole area behind the dam draining into a stream or river across which dam has been constructed is called
A. Lake
B. Forebay
C. Catchment area
D. Reserve potential
Answer: C
Dams constructed primarily to store flood waters called

A. Storge dams
B. Diversion dams
C. Detention dam
Answer: C
A channel which lead water to a turbine is called

A. Canal
B. Tailrace
C. Penstock
D. Headrace
Answer: D
Sometimes called percentage humidity
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: D
When measuring ____________ of air, the bulb of the thermometer should be shaded to reduce the effect of direct radiation
A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Critical temperature
D. Saturation temperature
Answer: A
An ordinary thermometer whose bulb is enclosed in a wetted cloth sac or wick

A. Dry bulb thermometer
B. Wet bulb thermometer
C. Ordinary thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
Answer: B
To obtain an accurate reading with a wet bulb thermometer, the wick should be saturated with
128
A. Clean air
B. Vapor
C. Moist
D. Clean water
Answer: D
The amount by which the wet bulb temperature is reduced below the dry bulb temperature depends on the relative humidity of the air and is
collective
A. Range
B. Approach
C. Drify
D. Wet bulb depression
Answer: D
The measure of the relationship between the dry bulb and dewpoint temperature of the air and as such, it provides a convenient means of
Dewpoint temperature of the air when the dry bulb temperature is known
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Saturation temperature
C. Humidity ratio
D. Relative humidity
Answer: A
An index of the total heat (enthalpy) of the air

B. Saturation temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Dewpoint temperature
Answer: A
The sensible heat of the air is a function of the

B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dewpoint temperature
Answer: B
The latent heat of the air is a function of the

B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dewpoint temperature
129
Answer: C
The total heat of air is a function of the

A. wet bulb temperature
B. dry bulb temperature
C. dewpoint temperature
D. saturation temperature
Answer: A
A single suction pump having its suction nozzle on the opposite side casing from the stuffing box and having the face of the suction
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the shaft.
A. Centifugal pump
B. In line pump
C. End suction pump
D. Horizontal pump
Answer: C
A centrifugal pump with one or more impellers discharging into one or more bowls and a vertical educator or column pipe used to connect the
bowls to the discharge head on which the pump driver is mounted.
B. In line pump
C. End suction pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Answer: D
A pump that takes suction from a public service main or private use water system for the purpose of increasing the effective water
pressure.
B. Booster pump
C. Submersible pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Answer B
130
131
PIPE PROBLEMS
Find the work posses for a Helium gas at 200C
*A. 609 KJ/kg B. 168 KJ/kg C. 229 KJ/kg D. 339 KJ/kg
Solution:
W = m R T = m (8.314 / M) T
For helium, M = 4
W/m = (8.314/4)(20 + 273) = 609 KJ/kg
Two kilogram of gas is confined in a 1 m3 tank at 200 kpa and 880C. What type of gas is in the tank?
A. Helium *B. Ethane C. Methane D. Ethene
Solution:
PV=mRT
200 (1) = 2 (8.314/M)(88+273)
M = 30
Therefore: the gas is Ethane (C2 H6)
Find the enthalpy of Helium if its internal energy is 200 KJ/kg
A. 144 KJ/kg B. 223.42 KJ/kg *C. 333.42 KJ/kg D. 168 KJ/kg
Solution:
R = 8.314/4 = 2.0785
K = 1.667 for helium
Cp = k R/(k - 1) = 1.667(2.0785)/(1.667 – 1) = 5.195 KJ/kg-K
Cv = R/(k – 1) = 2.0785/(1.667 – 1) = 3.116 KJ/kg – K
Δh/ΔU = Cp/Cv
Δh/200 = 5.195/3.116
Δh = 333.42 KJ/kg
Compute the mass of a 2 m3 propane at 280 kpa and 40˚C.
A. 6.47 kg B. 5.1 kg C. 10.20 kg *D. 9.47 kg
Solution:
Propane is C3 H3--------------M = 12(3) + 8(1) = 44
PV = m R T
280(2) = m (8.314/44)(40 + 273)
m = 9.47 kg
Compute the air flow in ft3/min of mechanical ventilation required to exhaust an accumulation of refrigerant due to leaks of the system capable of revolving air from the machinery room for a mass of 4 lbs refrigerant.
*A. 200 B. 210 C. 220 D. 230
Solution:
Q = 100 x G0.5 ft3/min
Q = 100 x (4)0.5 = 200 ft3/min
Compute the free-aperture cross section in m2 for the ventilation of a machinery room if the mass of refrigerant is 9 kg.
A. 0.314 *B. 0.414 C. 0.514 D. 0.614
Solution:
F = 0.138 G0.5 m2
F = 0.138 (9)0.5 = 0.414 m2
A 29.53” x 39.37” pressure vessel contains ammonia with f = 0.041. Compute the minimum required discharge capacity of the relief device in kg/hr.
A. 106.71 kg/hr B. 108.71 kg/hr *C. 110.71 kg/hr D. 112.71 kg/hr
Solution:
C = f D L, kg/s
C = 0.041(29.53/39.37)(39.37/39.37) = 0.03075 kg/s (3600) = 110.71 kg/hr
Compute the maximum length of the discharge pipe installed on the outlet of a pressure-relief device in feet for internal pipe diameter of 0.5 inch and rated discharge capacity is 8 lb/min of air. The rated pressure of relief valve is 16 psig.
*A. 0.286 ft B. 0.386 ft C. 0.486 ft D. 0.586 ft
132
Solution:
P = Pg + Patm = 16 x 1.1 + 14.7 = 32.3 psia
L = 9P2d5/16Cr2 = 9(32.3)2(0.5)5/16(8)2 = 0.286 ft
A thermal power plant has a heat rate of 11,363 Btu/kw-hr. Find the thermal efficiency of the plant.
A. 28% *B. 30% C. 34% D. 40%
Solution:
eth = 3412/Heat rate = 3412/11,363 = 30%
What is the hydraulic gradient of a 1 mile, 17 inches inside diameter pipe when 3300 gal/min of water flow with f = 0.03.
*A. 0.00714 B. 0.00614 C. 0.00234 D. 0.0018
Solution:
v = (3300/7.481)/(π/4)(17/12)2(60) = 4.66 ft/s
L = 1 mile = 5280 ft
hL = fLv2/2_D = 0.03(5280)(4.66)2/2(32.2)(17/12) = 37.7 ft
Hydraulic gradient = 37.7/5280 = 0.007.14
Find the loss of head in the pipe entrance if speed of flow is 10 m/s.
A. 5.10 m B. 10.2 m C. 17.4 m *D. 2.55 m
Solution:
Loss at entrance = 0.5 (v2/2g) = 0.5 [102 / 2(9.81)] = 2.55 m
Wet material, containing 220% moisture (dry basis) is to be dried at the rate of 1.5 kg/s in a continuous dryer to give a product containing 10% (dry basis) . Find the moisture removed, kg/hr
*A. 3543.75 kg/hr B. 3513.75 kg/hr C. 3563.75 kg/hr D. 3593.75 kg/hr
Solution:
Solid in wet feed = solid in dried product
[1/(1 + 2.2)](1.5) = [1/(1 + 0.1)](x)
x = 0.5156 kg/s (total dried product)
Moisture removed = 1.5 – 0.5156 = 0.984 kg/s = 3543.75 kg/hr
Copra enters a dryer containing 70% moisture and leaves at 7% moisture. Find the moisture removed on each pound on solid in final product.
A. 6.258 lb B. 1.258 lb C. 4.258 lb *D. 2.258 lb
Solution:
Solid in wet feed = solid in dried product
0.3x = 1
x = 3.333 lbs
133
Calculate the specific volume of an air-vapor mixture in cubic meters per kilogram of dry air when the ff. conditions: t=30°C, w=0.015 kg/kg, and Pt =90kpa
A. 0.99 m3/kg C. 0.79 m3/kg
B. 0.89 m3/kg D. 0.69 m3/kg
A
A coil has an inlet temperature of 60 °F and an outlet of 90°F. If the mean temperature of the coil is 110°F. Find the bypass factor of the coil.
A. 0.20 C. 0.40
B. 0.30 D. 0 .50
C
A rectangular duct has a diameter of 0.25 m by 1 m. determines of the equivalent diameter of the duct.
A. 0.40 m C. 0.70 m
B. 0.80 m D. 0.30 m
A
The mass of an outside air at 50°C in an air conditioning unit is 60 kg. Find the temperature after mixing if the outside air mixed with 40 kg with recirculated air at 35°C.
A. 44°C C. 52°C
B. 39°C D. 47°C
A
A creamery must cool 20,000 liters of milk received each day from initial temperature at 29°C to a final temperature at 2°C in 5 hours. If refrigeration losses amount to 10 percent of the cuilling load, what must be the capacity of the refrigeration machine?
Note: specific heat of milk 3.9 kJ/kg-K and S.G. = 1.05
A. 38.5 TOR C. 37.5 TOR
B. 36.5 TOR D. 39.5 TOR
A
How many tons of refrigeration are required to produce 10 metric tons of ice per day at -10°C from raw water at 22°C if miscellaneous losses are 15% of the chilling and freezing load?
A. 17 TOR C. 15 TOR
B. 20 T0R D. 24 TOR
A
Five hundred kilogram of poultry enters a chiller at 8°C and are frozen and chilled to a final temperature of -18°C for a storage in 15 hours. The specific heat above and below the freezing are 3.18 kJ/kg-K°C and 1.55 kJ/kg-K°C respectively. The latent heat is 246 kJ/kg
and the freezing temperature is -5°C. Compute the product load.
A. 2.75 kW C. 2.95 kW
B. 2.85 kW D. 3.15 kW
B
Fish weighing 11,000 kg with a temperature of 20°C is brought to a cold storage and which shall be cooled to -10°C in 11 hours. Find the required plant refrigerating capacity in tons of refrigeration if the specific heat of fish is 0.7 kCal/kg°C above freezing and 0.30
kCal/kg°C below freezing point which is -3°C. The latent heat of freezing is 55.5 kCal/kg.
A. 25.26 C. 14.38
B. 15.26 D. 24.38
D
The power requirement of Carnot refrigeration in maintaining a low temperature region at 300 K 1.5 kW per ton. Find the heat rejected.
A. 4.02 kW C. 5.02 kW
B. 7.02 kW D. 6.02 kW
C
A vapor compression refrigeration system is designed to have a capacity of 150 tons of refrigeration. It produces chilled water from 22 °C to 2°C. Its actual coefficient of performance is 5.86 and 35% of the power supplied to the compressor is lost in the form of friction
and cylinder cooling losses. Determine the condenser cooling water required for a temperature rise of 10°C.
A. 14.75kg/s C. 18.65 kg/s
B. 15.65 kg/s D. 13.75 kg/s
A
134
Determine the heat extracted from 2000 kg of water from 25°C to ice at -10°C.
A. 621,150 kJ C. 821,150 kJ
B. 721,159 kJ D. 921,150 kJ
D
A single acting, twin cylinder, Ammonia compressor with bore equal to stroke is driven by an engine at 250 rpm. The machine is installed in a chilling plant to produce 700 kW of refrigeration at -18 °C evaporating temperature. At this temperature the cooling effect per
kg mass is 1160 kJ. The specific volume of vapor entering the compressor is 0.592 m3 per kilogram. Assume 85% volumetric efficiency. Determine the bore in mm.
A. 400 mm C. 450 mm
B. 300 mm D. 500 mm
A
A cylindrical flash tank mounted with its axis horizontal is used to separate liquid ammonia from ammonia vapor. The ammonia vapor bubbles through the liquid with 70 m3/min leaving the disengaging surface. The disengaging rate is limited to 60 m/min and the liquid
level is to operate with the liquid level one-third of the diameter from the top. Determine the diameter if the tank is 1.5 m long.
A. 830 mm C. 860 mm
B. 730 mm D. 760 mm
A
A 150 Hp motor is used to drive a compressor. If the heat loss from the compressor is 25 kW and the mass flow rate of the refrigerant entering the compressor is 0.50 kg/s, determine the difference of the enthalpies between the inlet and outlet of the compressor.
A. 143.80 kJ/kg C. 173.80 kJ/kg
B. 153.80 kJ/kg D. 183.80 kJ/kg
C
Determine the estimated condenser load for an open-type compressor having a cooling capacity of 16,500 Btu/hr and a heat rejection factor of 1.32.
A. 22,280 Btu/hr C. 21,780 Btu/hr
B. 20,780 Btu/hr D. 91,780 Btu/hr
C
To cool farm products 300 kg of ice at -4.4°C are placed in bunker twenty four hours later the ice have melted into water at 7.2°C. What is the average rate of cooling provided by the ice in kJ/Hr?
A. 2679.28 kJ/Hr C. 3679.28 kJ/Hr
B. 5679.28 kJ/Hr D. 4679.28 kJ/Hr
D
The load on a water–cooled condenser is 90,000 Btu/hr. if the quantity of water circulated through the condenser is 15 gpm, determine the temperature rise of the water in the condenser.
A. 12°F C. 16°F
B. 14°F D. 18°F
A
If the load on a water–cooled condenser in 150,000 Btu/hr and the temperature rise of the water in the condenser is 10°F. What is the quantity of water circulated in gpm?
A. 30 C. 20
B. 40 D 50
A
The weight of ammonia circulated in a machine is found to be 21.8 lb/hr. if the vapor enters the compressor with a specific volume of 9.6 Ft3/hr, calculate the piston displacement, assuming 80% percent volume efficiency.
A. 261.6 Ft3/hr C. 281.8 Ft3/hr
3
B. 271.6 Ft /hr D. 291.6 Ft3/hr
A
A single stage ammonia compressor is producing 10 tons of refrigeration and the power consumed is 15 Hp. Suction pressure is 25 psi, condensing pressure is 180 psi. Brine temperature is 20°F off brine cooler. Determine the actual coefficient of performance.
A. 10.14 C. 12.14
B. 11.14 D. 13.14
D
In an ammonia condensing machine (compressor plus condenser) the water used for condensing is 55°F. Calculate the ideal COP.
A. 11.875 C. 10.875
B. 12.875 D. 13.875
A
135
How much refrigeration capacity is required to cool 2000 cfm of air from 85°F to 70°F?
A. 2.7 TOR C. 1.7 TOR
B. 3.7 TOR D. 4.7 TOR
A
Determine the coil face area required to maintain a face velocity of 400 Ft/min if the air flow rate over the coil is 2100 Ft3/hr
A. 3.25 Ft2 C. 5.25 Ft2
B. 4.45 Ft2 D. 6.25 Ft2
C
A centrifugal pump discharge 20 L/s against a head of 17 m when the speed is 1500 rpm. The diameter of the impeller was 30 cm and the brake horsepower was 6.0. A geometrically similar pump 40 cm in diameter is to run at 1750 rpm. Assuming equal efficiencies,
what brake horsepower is required?
A. 51.55 HP C. 40.15 HP
B. 50.15 HP D. 45.15 HP
C
A pump delivers 20 cfm of water having a density of 62 lb/ft3. The suction and discharge gage reads 5 in. Hg vacuum and 30 psi respectively. The discharge gage is 5 ft above the suction gage. If pump efficiency is 70%, what is the motor power?
A. 5.31 Hp C. 4.31 Hp
B. 3.31 Hp D. 6.31 Hp
C
Calculate the air power of a fan that delivers 1200 °F Ft3/hr of air through a 1m by 1.5m outlet. Static pressure is 120 mm WG and the density of air is 1.18
A. 20.45 kW C. 30.45 kW
B. 25.64 kW D. 35.64 kW
B
The piston displacement of a double acting compressor is 0. 358 m 3 delivers gas from 101.325 kPa and 300 K to 675 kPa at the rate of 0.166 m 3/s at 150 rpm. Value of n for compression and expansion is 1.33. Find the compressor percent clearance.
A. 19.66 C. 15.69
B. 10.75 D. 16.96
D
Determine the specific speed of a centrifugal pump delivers 7500 gpm acting against a total head of 370 ft and operating at 1000 rpm.
A. 1072 rpm C. 1041 rpm
B. 1027 rpm D. 1014 rpm
B
An induced draft fan is used to extract 270000 m3 of flue gas per hour from a boiler furnace. The fan is to deliver at a total pressure of 250 mm water gage. Determine the size of the electric motor in kW if a mechanical efficiency of 55% is considered.
A. 444.33 kW C. 433.44 kW
B. 343.44 kW D. 334.44 kW
D
The fan has a total head of 190 m and static pressure of 20 cm WG. If the air density is 1.2 kg/m3. What is the velocity of air flowing?
A. 16.21 m/s C. 16.66 m/s
B. 27.21 m/s D. 17.77 m/s
D
A pump delivers 500 gpm of water against a total head of 200 ft and operating at 1770 rpm. Changes have increased the total head to 375 ft. At what rpm should the pump be operated to achieve the new head at the same efficiency?
A. 2800 rpm C. 3434 rpm
B. 3600 rpm D. 2424 rpm
D
The diesel electric plant supplies energy for meralco. During a 24 hr period, the plant consumed 200 gallons of fuel at 28 °C and produced 3930 Kw-hr. industrial fuel is used is 28°API and was purchased at P 5.50 per liter at 15,6°C. What should the cost of fuel be
produced one kw-hr?
A. P 1.05 C. P 1.069
B. P 1.10 D. P 1.00
136
A
A boiler contains 3.5 tons of water initially having 40 ppm dissolved solids after 24 hrs the dissolved solids in the water is 2500 ppm. If the feed rate is 875 kg/hr, find the ppm of dissolved solids contained in the feed water.
A. 410 ppm C. 390 ppm
B. 320 ppm D. 420 ppm
A
A travelling-grate stoker can burn bituminous coal with 10% moisture and 10% ash at a rate of 500,000 Btu/hr-Ft 2. A boiler with a steam rating of 200,000 lb/hr will be fired with the above fuel having a high heat value of 12,200 Btu/lb. if the boiler efficiency is 80%, and
if it takes 1000 BTU to evaporate and superheat one pound of feed water to the desired temperature, find the hourly coal supply and grate area needed.
A. 20,500 lb, 500 Ft2 C. 28,200 lb, 400 Ft2
B. 26,400 lb, 700 Ft2 D. 22,600 lb, 200 Ft2
A
A steam is expanded through a nozzle and the enthalpy drop per kg of steam from the initial pressure to the final pressure is 60 kJ. Neglecting the friction, find the velocity of discharge and the exit area of the nozzle to pass 0.20 kg/s if the specific volume of the steam
at exit is 1.5 m3/kg.
A. 346.4 m/s, 879 m2 C. 765.6 m/s, 467 m2
2
B. 356.7 m/s, 278 m D.346.4 m/s, 866 m2
D
A 60 MW steam turbine generator power plant has a full-load steam rate of 8 kg/kW-hr. assuming that no-load steam consumption as 15% of full-load steam consumption, compute for the hourly steam consumption at 75% load, in kg/hr.
A. 37,800 kg/hr C. 30,780 kg/hr
B. 38,700 kg/hr D. 30,870 kg/hr
A
The feed water to a boiler is 92% condensate and 8% make-up containing 270 ppm solids. What weights of solids enter the boiler per hour at 22,680 kg per steam evaporation?
A. 0.49 kg solids/hr C. 0.39 kg solids/hr
B. 0.59 kg solids/hr D. 0.69 kg solids/hr
A
The 1370 diameter steam drum on a boiler is 2440 mm long has a 250 mm gage glass at mid-drum level. Find the maximum steam generation that could be cared for by a blow down of half a water gauge each 8 hr. shift. Pressure, 17.5 kg/cm 2 gage. Sr = 150 PPM, Sb =
2000 PPM
A. 450.59 kg/hr C. 650.59 kg/hr
B. 550.59 kg/hr D. 750.59 kg/hr
B
Given a horizontal conveyor, 46 m centers, 175 pounds per hr capacity of handling bituminous coal at 0.5 m/s with 800 kg per m 3. Other data as follows
Flight width and depth 610 mm x 200 mm
Quantity of material 0.108 mm3/m
Coefficient of friction elements 0.10
Material coefficient of friction 0.59
Assume an engineering-type chain with sleeve bearing rollers weighing with flights, 89.3 kg/m. Calculate the chain pull in kg
A. 2180.33 C. 1555.36
B. 4550.10 D. 3166.46
D
Air is drawn into a gas turbine working on the constant pressure cycle at 1 bar 21 °C and compressed to 5.7 bars. The temperature at the end of heat supply is 680°C. Taking expansion and compression to be adiabatic where Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg-K, Cp = 1.055 kJ/kg-K,
calculate the heat energy supplied per kg at constant pressure.
A. 472 kJ/kg C. 501 kJ/kg
B. 389 kJ/kg D. 489 kJ/kg
A
In an air-standard Bryton cycle, the compressor receives air at 101.325 kPa, 21°C and it leaves at the rate of 4 kg/s. determine the turbine work if the temperature of the air entering the turbine is 1000°C
A. 3000 kW C. 2028 kW
137
B. 2701 kW D. 3500 kW
C
The net power output of an air-standard Brayton cycle is 200 kW. Air enters the compressor at 32°C and leaves the high-temperature heat exchanger at 800°C. What is the mass flow rate of air if it leaves the turbine at 350°C?
A. 0.57 kg/s C. 0.77 kg/s
B. 0.67 kg/s D. 0.87 kg/s
D
In an air-standard Brayton cycle the inlet temperature and the pressure are 20°C and 101.325 kPa. The turbine inlet conditions are 1200 kPa and 900°C. Determine the air flow rate if turbines produce 12 MW.
A. 21.41 kg/s C. 19.25 kg/s
B. 20.20 kg/s D. 18.10 kg/s
B
A gas turbine power plant operating on the Brayton cycle delivers 15 MW to a standby electric generator. What are the mass flow rate and the volume flow rate of air if the minimum and maximum pressures are 100 kPa and 500 kPa respectively, and temperature of
20°C and 1000°C?
A. 31.97 kg/s, 26.88 m3/s C. 41.97 kg/s, 26.88 m3/s
B. 36.98 kg/s, 28.99 m3/s D. 46.98 kg/s, 28.99 m3/s
A
A hydro-electric power plant consumes 60,000,000 kW-hr per year. What is the net if the expected flow is 1500 m 3/min and over-all efficiency is 63%?
A. 34.34 m C. 44.33 m
B. 43.43 m D. 33.44 m
C
A pelton type turbine has a gross head of 40 m and a friction head loss of 6 m. What is the penstock diameter if the penstock length is 90 m and the coefficient of friction head loss is 0.0001 (Morse).
A. 2040 mm C. 2440 mm
B. 3120 mm D. 2320 mm
A
A hydro-electric impulse turbine is directly coupled to a 24 pole, 60 Hz alternator. It has a specific speed of 60 rpm and develops 3000 Hp. What is the required diameter assuming a peripheral speed ratio of 0.45?
A. 0.661 m C. 0.443 m
B. 0.552 m D. 0.775 m
A
The tail water and the headwater of a hydro-electric power plant are 150 m and 200 m respectively. What is the water power if the flow is 15 m 3/s and a head loss of 10% of the gross head?
A. 6,621.75 kW C. 5,621.76 kW
B. 7,621.65 kW D. 4,621.56 kW
A
In a hydro-electric plant, water flows at 10 m/s in a penstock of 1 m 2 cross-sectional area. If the net head of the plant is 30 m and the turbine efficiency is 85%, what is the turbine output?
A. 2,501.55 kW C. 3,626.34 kW
B. 2,100.21 kW D. 3,124.65 kW
A
A 75 MW power plant has an average load of 35,000 kW and a load factor of 65%. Find the reserve over peak.
A. 21.15 MW C. 25.38 MW
B. 23.41 MW D. 18.75 MW
A
A power plant is said to have/had a use factor of 48.5% and a capacity factor of 42.4%. How many hrs. Did it operate during the year?
A. 6,600.32 hrs C. 8,600.32 hrs
B. 7,658.23 hrs D. 5,658.23 hrs
B
138
A 50,000 kW steam plant delivers an annual output of 238,000,000 kW-hr with a peak load of 42,860 kW. What is the annual load factor and capacity factor?
A. 0.634, 0.534 C. 0.634, 0.543
B. 0.643, 0.534 D. 0.643, 0.534
C
Calculate the use factor of a power plant if the capacity factor is 35% and it operates 8000 hrs during the year?
A. 38.325 % C. 35.823 %
B. 33.825 % D. 32.538 %
A
A 39.5 m high chimney of radial brick masonry is described by the ff. top and bottom. D 2 = 1.9 m, d2 = 1.5 m, D1 = 3.2 m, d1 = 2.3 m. Determine the moment due to wind load.
A. 172,051 kg-m C. 150,160 kg-m
B. 160,388 kg-m D. 182,030 kg-m
D
It is desired to deliver 5 gpm at a head of 640 ft in a single stage pump having s specific speed not to exceed 40. If the speed is not to exceed 1352 rpm, how many stages are required?
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 2
D
A centrifugal pump discharge 20 L/s against a head of 17 m when the speed is 1500 rpm. The diameter of the impeller was 30 c, and the brake horsepower was 6.0. A geometrically similar pump 40 cm in diameter is to run at 1750 rpm. Assuming equal efficiency, what
brake horsepower is required?
A. 51.55 Hp C. 40.15 Hp
B. 50.15 Hp D. 45.15 Hp
C
A condensate pump at sea level takes water from a surface condenser where the vacuum is 15 in. of mercury. The friction and turbulence in the piping in the condenser hot well and the pump suction flange is assumed to be 6.5 ft. if the condensate pump to be installed
has a required head of 9 ft, what would be the minimum height of water level in the hot well that must be maintained above the centerline of the pump to avoid cavitations?
A. 2.5 ft C. 18 ft
B. 15.5 ft D. 5.5 ft
B
A pump delivers 2o cfm of water having a density of 62 lb/ft3. The suction discharge gage reads 5 in. Hg vacuum and 30 psi respectively. The discharge gage is 5 ft above the suction gage. If the pump efficiency is 70%, what is motor power?
A. 5.31 Hp C. 4.31 Hp
B. 3.31 Hp D. 6.31 Hp
C
A fan has a total head of 190 m and a static pressure of 20 cm WG. If the air density is 1.2 kg/m 3, what is the velocity of air flowing?
A. 16.21 m/s C. 16.66 m/s
B. 17.21 m/s D. 17.766 m/s
D
A jet of water is discharge through a 1 – inch diameter orifice under constant head of 2.1 ft total discharge is 228 lb, in 90 seconds. The jet is observed to pass through a point 2 ft downward and 4 ft away from vena contrata. Coefficient of contraction.
A. O.786 C. 0.567
B. 0.685 D. 0.345
B
A jet of water is discharge through a 1 – inch diameter orifice under constant head of 2.1 ft total discharge is 228 lb, in 90 seconds. The jet is observed to pass through a point 2 ft downward and 4 ft away from vena contrata. Coefficient of velocity.
A. 0.976 C. 0.567
B. 0.758 D. 0.845
A
What is the velocity of sound 150°F (66°C) air at a standard pressure? Note: density of air @ 150°F is 0.064 lbm/ft 3.
A. 1215 ft/s C. 2345 ft/s
B. 3245 ft/s D. 4321 ft/s
139
A
Ideal Oxygen is throttled at 140°F from 10 atm to 5 atm. What is the temperature change?
A. 0 C. infinity
B. Negative D. 1
A
A duct 0.40 m high and 0.80 wide suspended from the ceiling in a corridor, makes a right angle turn in the horizontal plane. The inner radius is 0.2 m and the outer radius is 1.0 m measured from the same center. The velocity of air in the duct is 10 m/s. compute the
pressure drop in this elbow. Assuming; f = 0.3, ρ = 1.204 kg/m 3 and L = 10 m.
A. 341 Pa C. 143 Pa
B. 441 Pa D. 144 Pa
A
To what weight will 68°F ethyl alcohol rise in a 0.005 inch internal diameter glass capillary tube? The density of alcohol is 49 lbm/ft 3. Where: β = 0° = angle of contact angle and surface tension σ = 0.00156 lbm/ft @ 68°F.
A. 0.3056 ft C. 0.4312 ft
B. 0.2504 ft D. 0.2432 ft
A
What is the velocity of sound in 150°F (66°C) air at a standard pressure? Note: density of air @ 150°F is 0.064 lbm/ft 3.
A. 1295 ft/s C. 2345 ft/s
B. 3245 ft/s D. 1096 ft/s
A
What is the pressure 8000 ft below the water surface of the ocean? Neglect compressibility.
A. 512,000 psf C. 157,000 psf
B. 324,500 psf D. 213,000 psf
A
If atmospheric air 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what is the pressure at 12000 ft altitude if air is incompressible? Note: @ 60°F; the density of air is 0.0763 lbm/ft 3 ; P1 = 14.7 psia
A. 5.467 psia C. 8.342 psia
B. 9.345 psia D. 2.346 psia
C
If atmospheric air 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what is the pressure at 12000 ft altitude if air is compressible? Note @ 60°F; the density of air is 0.0763 lbm/ft 3 ; P1 = 14.7 psia
A. 5.467 psia C. 8.342 psia
B. 9.53 psia D. 2.346 psia
B
A two-pass surface condenser is to be designed using overall heat transfer coefficient of 480 BTU/°F lbm/ft 2 of outside tube surface. The tubes are to be 1 inch outside diameter with 1/16 in walls (or 7/8 in. inside diameter). Entering circulating water velocity is to be 6
ft/s. steam enters the condenser at a rate of 100,000 lb/hr at a pressure of one psia and an enthalpy of 1090 Btu/lb. condensate leaves at saturated liquid at one psia. Circulating water enters the condensate at 85 deg. F and leaves at 95 deg. F. Note: 1 psia condensate
has temperature of 101.7 deg. F. wet steam entering becomes condensate at 101.7 deg. F with hf = 69.72 Btu/lb. calculate the total number of tubes to be used in each passes.
A. 18,200 tubes C. 10,450 tubes
B. 15,400 tubes D. 11,456 tubes
A
Determine the approximate load on a cooling tower if the entering and leaving temperatures are 96°F and 88°F, respectively and the flow rate of the water over the tower is 30 gpm.
A. 2500 Btu/min C. 3000 Btu/min
B. 2000 Btu/min D. 3500 Btu/min
B
Determine the quantity of water lost by bleed off if the water flow rate over the tower 30 gpm and the range is 10°F. Percent bleed-off requires 33%.
A. 0.077 gpm C. 0.099 gpm
B. 0.088 gpm D. 0.066 gpm
C
140
How many tons of refrigeration is required to produce 10 metric tons of ice per day at -10°C from raw water at 22°C if miscellaneous losses are 15% of the chilling and freezing load?
A. 17 TOR C. 15 TOR
B. 20 TOR D. 24 TOR
A
Refrigeration is 2 m high, 1.2 m wide and 1 m deep. The over-all heat transfer coefficient is o.532 W/m 2 °C. how many kilograms of 0°C ice will melt per hour if the inside temperature is maintained at 10°C while the surrounding air temperature is at 35°C?
A. 1.60 kg C. 2.60 kg
B. 1.80 kg D. 2.80 kg
A
Determine the heat extracted from 2000 kg of water from 25°C to ice -10°C.
A. 621,150 kJ C. 821,150 kJ
B. 721,150 kJ D. 921,150 kJ
D
How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?
A. 1 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4
C
Calculate the heat transfer per hour through a solid brick wall 6 m long, 2.9 m high, and 225 mm thick, when the outer surface is at 5°C and the inner surface at 17°C, the coefficient of thermal conductivity of the brick being 0.6 W/m-K.
A. 2,004.48 kJ C. 2,400.48 kJ
B. 3,004.48 kJ D. 3,400.48 kJ
A
A vertical furnace wall is made up of an inner wall of firebrick 20 cm thick followed by insulating brick 15 cm thick and an outer wall of steel 1 cm thick. The surface temperature of the wall adjacent to the combustion chamber is 1200°C while that of the outer surface of
steel is 50°C. The thermal conductivities of the wall material in W/m-K are; firebrick, 10; insulating brick, 0.26; and steel, 45. Neglecting the film resistance and contact resistance of joints, determine the heat loss per sq.m. Of the wall area.
A. 1.93 W/m2 C. 1.55 W/m2
B. 2.93 W/m2 D. 2.55 W/m2
A
A composite wall is made up of an external thickness of brickwork 110 mm thick inside which is a layer of fiberglass 75 mm thick. The fiberglass is faced internally by an insulating board 25 mm thick. The coefficients of thermal conductivity for the three are as follows:
Brickwork 1.5 W/m-K
Fiberglass 0.04 W/m-K
Insulating board 0.06 W/m-k
The surface transfer coefficient of the inside wall is 3.1 W/m2-K while that of the outside wall is 2.5 W/m2-K. Take the internal ambient temperature as 10°C and the external temperature is 27°C. Determine the heat loss through such wall 6 m high and 10 m long.
A. 330.10 W C. 430.10 W
B. 230.10 W D. 530.10 W
A
One insulated wall of a cold-storage compartment is 8 m long by 2.5 m high and consist of an outer steel plate 18 mm thick. An inner wood wall 22.5 mm thick, the steel and wood are 90 mm apart to form a cavity which is filled with cork. If the temperature drop across
the extreme faces of the composite wall is 15°C. Calculate the heat transfer per hour through the wall and the temperature drop across the thickness of the cork. Take the coefficients of thermal conductivity for steel, cork and wood as 45, 0.045, and 0.18 W/m-K
respectively.
141
A. 408.24 kJ, 12.12°C C. 608.24 kJ, 13.12°C
B. 708.24 kJ, 11.12°C D. 508.24 kJ, 14.12°C
D
One side of refrigerated cold chamber is 6 m long by 3.7 m high and consist 168 mm thickness of cork between outer and inner walls of wood. The outer wood wall is 30 mm thick and its outside face temperature is 20°C, the inner wood wall 35 mm thick and its inside
face temperature is -3°C. taking the coefficient of thermal conductivity of cork and wood 0.42 and 0.20 W/m-k respectively, calculate the heat transfer per second per sq. m of surface area.
A. 5.138 J C. 6.318 J
B. 4.138 J D. 3.318 J
B
Hot gases at 280°C flow on one side of a metal of 10mm thickness and air at 35°C flows on the other side. The heat transfer coefficient of the gasses is 31.5 W/m 2-K and that of the air is 32 W/m2-K. Calculate the over-all transfer coefficient.
A. 15.82 W/m2-K C. 14.82 W/m2-K
2
B. 16.82 W/m -K D. 17.82 W/m2-K
A
The surface temperature of the hot side of the furnace wall is 1200 °C.it is desired to maintain the outside of the wall at 38°C. A 152 mm of refractory silica is used adjacent to the combustion chamber and 10 mm of steel covers the outside. What thickness of insulating
brick is necessary between refractory and steel, if the heat loss should be kept at 788 W/m 2, and 45 for steel.
A. 220 mm C. 260 mm
B. 240 mm D. 280 mm
A
A hollow sphere has an outside radius of 1 m and is made of polystyrene foam with a thickness of 1 cm. a heat source inside keeps the inner surface 5.20°C hotter than the outside surface? The thermal conductivity of polystyrene foam is 0.033 W/m°C.
A. 200 W C. 300 W
B. 216 W D. 316 W
B
An insulated steam pipe located where the ambient temperature is 32°C, has an inside diameter of 50 mm with 10 mm thick wall. The outside diameter of the corrugated asbestos insulation is 125 mm and the surface coefficient of still air is, h o = 12 W/m2-K. Inside the
pipe is steam having a temperature of 150°C with film coefficient hi = 6000 W/m2-K. Thermal conductivity of pipe and asbestos insulation are 45 and 0.12 W/m2-K respectively. Determine the heat loss per unit length of pipe.
A. 110 W C. 130 W
B. 120 W D. 140 W
B
How many watts will be radiated from s spherical black body 15 cm diameter at a temperature of 800°C?
A. 5.34 kW C. 6.34 kW
B. 4.34 kW D. 3.34 kW
A
A wall with an area of 10 m2 cm thickness of white pine (k = 0.113 W/m°C) followed by 10 cm of brick (k = 0.649°C W/m°C). The pine is on the inside where the temperature is 10°C. Assuming equilibrium conditions exist, what is the temperature at the interface
between the two metals?
A. 15.65°C C. 18.21°C
B. 17.64°C D. 19.31°C
D
A counter flow heat exchanger is designed to heat fuel oil from 45°C to 100°C while the heating fluid enters at 150°Cvand leaves at 115°C. Calculate the arithmetic mean temperature difference?
A. 40°C C. 60°C
B. 50°C D. 70°C
C
A pipe with an outside diameter of 2.5 in. is insulated with a 2 in layer of asbestos (k a = 0.396 Btu/in./hr-ft2-°F). If the temperature of cork 1.5 in. thick (k c = 0.30 Btu/in./hr-ft2-°F). If the temperature of the outer surface of the cork is 90°F, calculate the heat loss per 100
ft of insulated pipe.
A. 847.64 Btu/hr C. 2847.42 Btu/hr
B. 3847.51 Btu/hr D. 1847.14 Btu/hr
C
The journals of a shaft are 380 mm diameter, it runs at 105 rpm and the coefficient of friction between journals and bearings is 0.02. If the average load on the bearing is 200 KN, find the heat generated per minute at the bearing?
A. 501.375 kJ C. 401.375 kJ
B. 505.575 kJ D. 501.575 kJ
142
A
The flow energy of 124 liters per minute of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 108.5 kJ/min. determine the pressure at this point.
A. 875 kPa C. 975 kPa
B. 675 kPa D. 575 kPa
A
Work done by a substance in reversible non flow manner in accordance with V = 100/P ft 3, where P is in psia. Evaluate the work done on or by the substance as the pressure increases from 10 psia to 100 psia.
A. 33,157.22 ft-lb C. 43,157.22 ft-lb
B. -33,157.22 ft-lb D. -43,157.22 ft-lb
B
Calculate the change in enthalpy as 1 kg of nitrogen is heated from 1000 K to 1500 K, assuming the nitrogen is an ideal gas at a constant pressure. The temperature dependent specific heat of nitrogen is C p = 39.06 – 512.79 T 1.5 + 1072.7 T2 – 820.4T3 where Cp is in kJ/kg-
mol, T is in K.
A. 600 kJ C. 800 kJ
B. 697.27 kJ D. 897.27 kJ
B
One kilogram of wet steam at a pressure of 8 bar (Vg = 0.2404 m 3/kg, vf = 0.0011148 m3/kg) and dryness 0.94 is expanded until the pressure is 4 bar (vg = 0.4625 m 3/kg, vf = 0.0010836 m3). If the expansion follows the law PVn = C, where n =1.12, find the dryness fraction
of the steam at the lower pressure.
A. 0.9072 C. 0.2260
B. 0.4197 D. 0.2404
A
Wet saturated steam at 16 bar (hf = 859 kJ/kg , hg = 1935 kJ/kg) reducing valve and is throttled to a pressure of 8 bar (h r = 721 kJ/kg, hfg = 2048 kJ/kg). Find the dryness fraction of the reduces pressure steam.
A. 0.8833 C. 0.9933
B. 0.7733 D. 0.6633
C
A 650 BHP diesel engine uses fuel oil of 28°API gravity, fuel consumption is 0.65 lb/BHP-hr. cost of fuel is P 7.95 per liter. For continuous operation, determine the minimum volume of cubical day tank in cm 3, ambient temperature is 45°C.
A. 4,372,890 cm3 C. 5,291,880 cm3
B. 5,987,909 cm3 D. 7,352,789 cm3
A
A typical industrial fuel oil, C16H32 with 20% excess air by weight. Assuming complete oxidation of the fuel, calculate the actual air-fuel ratio by weight.
A. 17.56 kgair/kgfuel C. 16.75 kgair/kgfuel
B. 15.76 kgair/kgfuel D. 17.65 kgair/kgfuel
A
143
CIT – UNIVERSITY MECHANICAL ENGINEERING ME COMPREHENSIVE EVALUATION COURSE 3 PRELIM
EXAMINATION – SET A
PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark ONLY ONE ANSWER for each item by SHADING THE CORRESPONDING LETTER of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
Indicate the SET of your questionnaire by writing it on your answer sheet. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED!
1. Which of the following thermodynamic law(s) provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature
A. Zeroth law* C. Second Law
B. First law D. Third Law
2. 7 mole of water vapor at 100°C and 1 atm are compressed isobarically to form liquid at 100°C. The process is reversible, and the ideal gas laws apply. What is most nearly the initial volume of the vapor?
A. 150 L C. 204 L
B. 185 L D. 214 L*
Solution: 𝐕𝟏=(𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟕 𝐤𝐦𝐨𝐥)(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝐊)(𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝟏𝟎𝟏.𝟑𝟐𝟓 𝐤𝐏𝐚 𝐕𝟏=𝟎.𝟐𝟏𝟒𝟑𝟑 𝐦𝟑=𝟐𝟏𝟒.𝟑𝟑 𝐋

3. Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body wherein it is impossible to convert heat without other effects.
A. Nernst Law C. Claussius Postulate
B. Kirchoff’s Law D. Kelvin-Planck Postulate*
4. 10 kmol of water vapor at 100°C and 1 atm pressure are compressed isobarically to form liquid at 100°C. The process is reversible, and the ideal gas laws apply. The heat of vaporization is 2257 kJ/kg. What is most nearly
the heat required for condensation for the amount of water given?
A. -406 MJ * C. 203 MJ
B. -203 MJ D. 406 MJ
Solution: 𝐐𝟏=−(𝟏𝟎𝐤𝐦𝐨𝐥)(𝟏𝟖𝐤𝐠𝐤𝐦𝐨𝐥)(𝟐𝟐𝟓𝟕𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠)=−𝟒𝟎𝟔𝟐𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐉
5. The sum of the energies of all molecules in a system where energies appear in several complex form.
A. Kinetic energy C. potential energy
B. Frictional energy D. internal energy*
6. 17 g of oxygen gas are compressed at a constant temperature of 30°C to 8% of their original volume. What work is done on the system?
A. 807 cal* C. 1120 cal
B. 907 cal D. 1127 cal
Solution: 𝐖=(𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝟕 𝐤𝐠)(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟑𝟐𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠−𝐊)(𝟑𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝐥𝐧(𝟏𝟎.𝟎𝟖) 𝐖=𝟑.𝟑𝟖𝟐 𝐤𝐉=𝟖𝟎𝟕.𝟖𝟗 𝐜𝐚𝐥

7. The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid.
A. Absolute temperature C. Boiling temperature*
B. Calorimetric temperature D. Thermal temperature
8. Helium (R = 0.6403 kJ/kg-K) is compressed isothermally from 101.3 kPa and 30°C. The compression ratio is 4. What is most nearly the work done by the gas?
A. -270 kJ/kg* C. 170 kJ/kg
B. -260 kJ/kg D. 180 kJ/kg
Solution: 𝐰=(𝟎.𝟔𝟒𝟎𝟑𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠−𝐊)(𝟑𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝐥𝐧(𝟏𝟒)=−𝟐𝟔𝟗.𝟎𝟗𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠
9. An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so well insulated that there is essentially no heat transfer. The temperature of the gas
144
A. Decreases C. remains constant
B. Increases* D. is zero
10. Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m 3 to 0.11 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 kPa. Calculate the work done by the system?
A. 8.0 kJ C. 12 kJ
B. 10 kJ D. 14 kJ*
Solution: 𝐰=𝟐𝟎𝟎(𝟎.𝟏𝟏−𝟎.𝟎𝟒)=𝟏𝟒 𝐤𝐉
11. The volume of fluid passing a cross-section of steam in unit time.
A. Steady flow* C. Discharge flow
B. Uniform flow D. Continuous flow
12. A piston-cylinder system contains a gas that expands under a constant pressure of 57 kPa. If the piston is displaced 0.2 m during the process, and the piston diameter is 0.6 m, what is the work done by the gas on the
piston?
A. 2.4 kJ C. 3.4 kJ
B. 3.2 kJ* D. 4.8 kJ
Solution: 𝐖=𝟓𝟕(𝛑𝟒)(𝟎.𝟔)𝟐(𝟎.𝟐)=𝟑.𝟐𝟐𝟑 𝐤𝐉
13. Two independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound.
A. Nernst postulate C. two-state postulate
B. Wein’s law D. state postulate*
14. Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m 3 to 0.10 m3. The pressure varies such that pV is constant, and the initial pressure is 325
kPa. What is most nearly the work done by the system?
A. 6.8 kJ C. 10 kJ
B. 7.3 kJ D. 12 kJ*
Solution: 𝐰=(𝟑𝟐𝟓)(𝟎.𝟎𝟒)𝐥𝐧(𝟎.𝟏𝟎.𝟎𝟒)=𝟏𝟏.𝟗𝟏 𝐤𝐉
15. What is true about the polytropic exponent n for perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?
A. n > 0 C. n = ∞
B. n < 0 D. n = 0*
16. In an isentropic compression, P1 = 2.14 N/cm2, P2 = 4.28 N/cm2, V1 = 146 cm3, and the ratio of specific heats is 1.4. What is most nearly the value of the final volume?
A. 18 cm3 C. 89 cm3*
B. 21 cm3 D. 100 cm3
Solution: 𝐕𝟐𝟏𝟒𝟔=(𝟐.𝟏𝟒𝟒.𝟐𝟖)𝟏𝟏.𝟒 𝐕𝟐=𝟖𝟖.𝟗𝟗 𝐜𝐦𝟑
17. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom or the number of electrons in the orbit of an atom.
A. Atomic volume C. Atomic number*
B. Atomic Weight D. Atomic mass
18. In an adiabatic, isentropic process, P1 = 4.28 N/cm2, P2 = 6.42 N/cm2, and T1 = 400 K. The ratio of specific heats is 1.4. What is most nearly the value of T 2?
A. 420 K C. 440 K
B. 430 K D. 450 K*
Solution: 𝐓𝟐𝟒𝟎𝟎=(𝟔.𝟒𝟐𝟒.𝟐𝟖)𝟏.𝟒−𝟏𝟏.𝟒 𝐕𝟐=𝟒𝟒𝟗.𝟏𝟑 𝐊

19. Form of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the random motion of large number of molecules within a body.
A. Internal energy C. Kinetic Energy
B. Thermal energy* D. Heat
20. Air undergoes an isentropic compression from 0.31 N/cm2 to 3.87 N/cm2. If the initial temperature is 20°C and the final temperature is 465.5°C, what is most nearly the work done by the gas?
A. -320 kJ/kg* C. 120 kJ/kg
145
146
2
B. -220 kJ/kg D. 230 kJ/kg

Solution: 𝐖=(𝟎.𝟐𝟖𝟕)(𝟒𝟔𝟓.𝟓−𝟐𝟎)𝟏−𝟏.𝟒=−𝟑𝟏𝟗.𝟔𝟓𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠
21. If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation pressure, then, the working medium must be,
A. Saturated vapor C. compressed liquid*
B. Saturated liquid D. subcooled liquid
22. Nitrogen gas is expanded isentropically. Its temperature changes from 635K to 288 K. Find the pressure ratio (P 1/P2).
A. 11 C. 16*
B. 13 D. 22
Solution: 𝐏𝟐𝐏𝟏=(𝟔𝟑𝟓𝟐𝟖𝟖)𝟏.𝟒𝟏.𝟒−𝟏=𝟏𝟓.𝟗𝟐

24. Nitrogen is expanded isentropically. Its temperature changes from 227°C to 15°C. The volumetric ratio is V2/V1 = 6.22, and the specific gas content for nitrogen is 0.1017 kJ/kg-K. What is most nearly the work done by
the gas?
A. -80 kJ/kg C. 54 kJ/kg*
B. -13 kJ/kg D. 79 kJ/kg
Solution: 𝐖=(𝟎.𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟕)(𝟏𝟓−𝟐𝟐𝟕)𝟏−𝟏.𝟒=𝟓𝟑.𝟗𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠
25. Work done per unit charge when charge is moved from one point to another.
A. Equipotential surface C. electrostatic point
B. Potential at a point* D. potential difference
26. Helium is compressed isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68°C. the compression ratio is 4. What is most nearly the change in entropy of the gas, given that the specific gas constant is R He = 0.6411 kJ/kg-K?
A. -0.97 kJ/kg-K C. 0.45 kJ/kg-K
B. -0.89 kJ/kg-K* D. 0.89 kJ/kg-K
Solution: Δ𝐬=(𝟎.𝟔𝟒𝟏𝟏)𝐥𝐧(𝟏𝟒)=−𝟎.𝟖𝟗𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠−𝐊
27. What is the process that has no heat transfer?
A. Reversible isometric C. Polytropic
B. Isothermal D. Adiabatic*
28. For an ideal gas, what is most nearly the specific molar entropy change during an isothermal process in which the pressure changes from 210 kPa to 150 kPa?
A. 2.0 K/mol-K C. 2.8 J/mol-K*
B. 2.4 J/mol-K D. 3.1 J/mol-K
Solution: Δ𝐬=(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒)𝐥𝐧(𝟐𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟓𝟎)=𝟐.𝟖𝟎𝐉𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝐊
29. Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?
A. Temperature C. Mass*
B. Pressure D. Density
30. In the p-V diagram shown, heat addition occurs between points 1 and 2. Given that c v = 0.245 kJ/kg-K, what is most nearly the entropy produced during this step?
147
A. -0.41 kJ/kg-K C. 0.23 kJ/kg-K*
B. -0.23 kJ/kg-K D. 0.41 kJ/kg-K
Solution: Δ𝐬=𝟎.𝟐𝟒𝟓𝐥𝐧(𝟏𝟓𝟑𝟒𝟔𝟎𝟎)=𝟎.𝟐𝟑𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠−𝐊
31. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is undergoing
A. Isobaric process C. isometric process
B. Quasi-static process* D. cyclic process
32. 230 g of water are heated from 5°C to 100°C and vaporized at a constant pressure. The heat of vaporization of water at 100°C id 539.2 cal/g. The heat capacity at constant pressure, cp, is 1.0 cal/g-K. What is most nearly
the total change in entropy?
A. 250 cal/K C. 350 cal/K
B. 300 cal/K D. 400 cal/K*
Solution: Δ𝐬=Δ𝐬𝟏+Δ𝐬𝟐=𝟐𝟑𝟎(𝟏.𝟎)𝐥𝐧(𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓𝟓+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)+𝟐𝟑𝟎(𝟓𝟑𝟗.𝟐) Δ𝐬=𝟑𝟗𝟗.𝟗𝟑𝐜𝐚𝐥𝐊

33. What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant?
A. Isobaric process C. Isothermal process
B. Isochoric process* D. Isovolumetric process
34. What is most nearly the combined volume of 2.0 g of hydrogen gas and 6.0 g helium gas when confined at 20°C and 5 atm?
A. 10 L C. 14 L
B. 12 L* D. 16 L
Solution: 𝐕=(𝟐𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝟓(𝟏𝟎𝟏.𝟑𝟐𝟓)[𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟐(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟐)+𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟔(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟒)]=𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟑 𝐦 𝟑 𝐕=𝟏𝟐.𝟎𝟑𝐋

35. Extensive properties per unit mass are called _____.
A. Specific properties* C. Relative properties

B. Intensive properties D. Phase properties
36. A piston-cylinder device contains 5 kg of air at 400 kPa and 30°C. During a quasi-equilibrium isothermal expansion process, 15 kJ of boundary work is done by the system, and 3 kJ of paddle-wheel work is done on the
system. The heat transfer during this process is
A. 12 kJ* C. 18 kJ
B. 2.4 kJ D. 3.5 kJ
Solution: 𝐐=+𝟏𝟓 𝐤𝐉+(−𝟑𝐤𝐉)=𝟏𝟐 𝐤𝐉


38. Find the enthalpy a helium gas if its internal energy is 100 kJ/kg.
A. 144.42 kJ/kg C. 333.42 kJ/kg
B. 223.42 kJ/kg D. 166.7 kJ/kg*
Solution: 𝐡=𝐤(𝐮)=𝟏.𝟔𝟔𝟕(𝟏𝟎𝟎)=𝟏𝟔𝟔.𝟕 𝐤𝐉/𝐤𝐠

39. Open system usually encloses which of the following devices?
A. Compressor C. Turbine
B. Nozzle D. All of the above*
40. What is the approximate value of temperature of water having enthalpy of 250 Btu/lbm?
A. 138.89°C * C. 258.67°C
B. 115.55°C D. 68.67°C
Solution: 𝐡=𝐜𝐰(𝐭𝐰−𝟑𝟐) 𝐭𝐰=𝟐𝟓𝟎(𝟏.𝟎)+𝟑𝟐=𝟐𝟖𝟐℉=𝟏𝟑𝟖.𝟖𝟗℃
148
41. Convert 740 R to K
149
3
A. 390.33 K C. 410.93 K*
B. 395.33 K D. 416.33 K
Solution: 𝐭𝐰=(𝟕𝟒𝟎−𝟒𝟔𝟎)=𝟐𝟖𝟎℉=𝟏𝟑𝟕.𝟕𝟖℃=𝟒𝟏𝟎.𝟗𝟑 𝐊
A. Perfect gas flow C. ideal fluid flow*
B. Irreversible adiabatic flow D. reversible adiabatic flow
43. 100 g of water are mixed with 150 g of alcohol (SG = 0.79). What is the specific volume of the resulting mixture, assuming that the fluids mixed completely?
A. 1.82x10-3 m3/kg C. 1.88x10-3 m3/kg
B. 1.11x10-3 m3/kg D. 1.16x10-3 m3/kg*
Solution: 𝐯=𝟎.𝟏 𝐤𝐠+𝟎.𝟏𝟓𝐤𝐠(𝟎.𝟏)(𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎)+(𝟎.𝟏𝟓)(𝟕𝟗𝟎)=𝟏.𝟏𝟒𝟒𝐱𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝐦𝟑𝐤𝐠

44. The following are all commonly quoted values of STP, except:
A. 32°F and 14.7 psia C. 0°C and 760 mm Hg
B. 273.15 K and 101.325 kPa D. 0°C and 29.92 in Hg*
45. A hiker carried an Aneroid barometer from the foot of Mount Banahaw to the camp of the NPA leader Ka Roger. On the foot of the mountain, the barometer reads 30.150 inches of Hg, and on the camp, which is nearly at
the top of the mountain it reads 28.607 inches of Hg. Assume that the average air density (atmospheric) was 0.075 pcf, estimate the height of the mountain, in ft.
A. 1455.54 C. 1554.54
B. 1545.54 D. 1455.54*
Solution: 𝐡=(𝟑𝟎.𝟏𝟓−𝟐𝟖.𝟔𝟎𝟕)(𝟏𝟒.𝟕(𝟏𝟒𝟒)𝟐𝟗.𝟗𝟐)𝟑𝟐.𝟐(𝟎.𝟎𝟕𝟓)𝟑𝟐.𝟐=𝟏𝟒𝟓𝟓.𝟓𝟒 𝐟𝐭
46. The pressure exerted in a vessel by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressures that each separate gas would exert if it alone occupied the whole volume of the vessel.
A. Boyle’s law C. Dalton’s law*
B. Charles’ law D. Avogadro’s law
47. Air at 1 MPaa and 310 oC is expanded to 250 kPaa in accordance with the relation pV 1.25 = C. Determine the work done.
A. + 162.11 kJ/kg* C. + 126.11 kJ/kg
B. – 162.11 kJ/kg D. – 126.11 kJ/kg
Solution: 𝐓𝟐𝟑𝟏𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓=(𝟐𝟓𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎)𝟏.𝟐𝟓−𝟏𝟏.𝟐𝟓 𝐓𝟐=𝟒𝟒𝟏.𝟗𝟓 𝐊 𝐰=(𝟎.𝟐𝟖𝟕)(𝟒𝟒𝟏.𝟗𝟓−(𝟑𝟏𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓))𝟏−𝟏.𝟐𝟓=+𝟏𝟔𝟐.𝟏𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠

48. The constant volume and constant pressure specific heats are identical for
A. compressible substance C. incompressible substance*
B. compressible substance D. none of these
49. A container filled with helium is dropped 3000 m above the ground, find the change of temperature?
A. 12.43°C C. 15.43°C
B. 9.43°C * D. 8.43°C
Solution: 𝐏𝐄=Δ𝐔 𝐦𝐠𝐡=𝐦𝐜𝐯(Δ𝐭) Δ𝐭=(𝟗.𝟖𝟏)(𝟑𝟎𝟎𝟎)𝟖𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟒𝟏.𝟔𝟔𝟕−𝟏=𝟗.𝟒𝟒℃

50. A 3153-lb car is accelerated from 32 fps to 55 fps in 10 seconds. Determine the work done, in Btu.
A. 125.92* C. 152.92
B. 192.52 D. 129.52
Solution: 𝐖=𝐊𝐄=𝟏𝟐(𝟑𝟏𝟓𝟑)(𝟓𝟓𝟐−𝟑𝟐𝟐)𝟑𝟐.𝟐(𝟕𝟕𝟖)=𝟏𝟐𝟓.𝟗𝟐 𝐁𝐭𝐮

150
51. Represents the temperature an ideal gas will attain when it is brought to rest adiabatically.
A. Absolute zero C. Boiling
B. Stagnation* D. Critical
52. An adiabatic turbine steam generating plant receives steam at a pressure of 7.0 MPa and 550OC (h = 3531 kJ/kg) and exhausts at a condenser pressure of 20kPa (h = 2290 kJ/kg). The turbine inlet is 3 meters higher
than the turbine exit, inlet steam velocity is 15m/s and the exit is 300m/s. Calculate the turbine work in kJ/kg.
A. 1296.14 C. 1619.42
B. 1196.24* D. 1294.16
Solution: 𝐰=(𝟑𝟓𝟑𝟏−𝟐𝟐𝟗𝟎)+𝟏𝟐(𝟏𝟓𝟐−𝟑𝟎𝟎𝟐)𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎+𝟗.𝟖𝟏(𝟎−𝟑)𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎=𝟏𝟏𝟗𝟔.𝟎𝟖𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠
53. The extension and compression of a helical spring is an example of what process?
A. Isothermal cycle C. adiabatic process
B. Thermodynamic process D. reversible process*
54. The temperature inside a furnace is 320 oC and temperature of the outside is – 10 oC. What is the temperature difference in R?
A. 495 C. 594*
B. 945 D. 596
Solution: Δ𝐓𝐊=(𝟑𝟐𝟎−(−𝟏𝟎))=𝟑𝟑𝟎℃=𝟑𝟑𝟎 𝐊 Δ𝐓𝐑=𝟏.𝟖 (𝟑𝟑𝟎)=𝟓𝟗𝟒 𝐑

55. Convert a vacuum pressure of 110 mm of mercury into absolute pressure. Atmospheric pressure is 5.2 m of H 2O.
A. 3.7 m of H2O* C. 9.01 m of H2O
B. 45.6 m of H2O D. 99.5 m of H2O
Solution: 𝐡𝐚𝐛𝐬=𝟓.𝟐 𝐦+(−𝟏𝟏𝟎 𝐦𝐦 𝐇𝐠)(𝟏𝟎𝟏.𝟑𝟐𝟓 𝐤𝐏𝐚𝟕𝟔𝟎 𝐦𝐦𝐇𝐠)𝟗.𝟖𝟏𝐤𝐍𝐦𝟑=𝟑.𝟕𝟏 𝐦 𝐇𝟐𝐎

56. Water temperature rise of 90.7ºF in the water cooled condenser is equivalent in ºC to
A. 50.4 ºC * C. 10 ºC
B. 15.6 ºC D. -9.44 ºC
Solution: Δ𝐭𝐅=𝟗𝟎.𝟕𝟏.𝟖=𝟓𝟎.𝟒℃
57. Calculate the change in enthalpy as 1 kg of air is heated from 1000 K to 1500 K, assuming the air is an ideal gas at a constant pressure. The temperature-dependent specific heat of air is
Cp = 39.06 – 512.79 T -1.5 + 1072.7 T -2 – 820.4T -3

(Cp is in kJ/kmol-K, and T is in K)
A. 651 kJ C. 697 kJ
B. 674 kJ* D. 610 kJ
Solution: 𝐡=(𝟏𝐤𝐠𝟐𝟖.𝟗𝟕𝐤𝐠𝐤𝐦𝐨𝐥)(∫𝟑𝟗.𝟎𝟔−𝟓𝟏𝟐.𝟕𝟗𝐓−𝟏.𝟓𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎+𝟏𝟎𝟕𝟐.𝟕𝐓−𝟐−𝟖𝟐𝟎.𝟒𝐓−𝟑𝐝𝐓) 𝐡=𝟔𝟕𝟑.𝟗𝟓 𝐤𝐉

58. 20 g of Oxygen gas are compressed at a constant temperature of 30ºC to 5% of their original volume. What work is done on (negative work) the system?
A. 820 cal C. 950 cal
B. 920 cal D. 1120 cal*
Solution:
151
4
𝐖=(𝟎.𝟎𝟐𝟎)(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟑𝟐)(𝟑𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝐥𝐧(𝟎.𝟎𝟓)𝟒.𝟏𝟖𝟔=−𝟏.𝟏𝟐𝟕𝟑𝟑 𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐖=−𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟕.𝟑𝟑 𝐜𝐚𝐥
59. Robert Boyle observed during his experiments with a vacuum chamber that the pressure of gasses is inversely proportional to their
A. Temperature C. Volume*
B. Pressure D. none of these
60. Which of the following occurs in a reversible polytropic process?

A. Enthalpy remains constant
B. some heat transfer occurs*
C. Internal energy does not change
D. entropy remains constant
61. A vessel has two compartments ‘A’ and ‘B’ with pressure gauges mounted on each compartment. Pressure gauges of A and B read 400 kPa and 150 kPa respectively. Determine the absolute pressure existing in
compartment A if the local barometer reads 720 mm Hg.
A. 96 kPa C. 496 kPa*
B. 246 kPa D. 197 kPa
Solution: 𝐏=𝟒𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐏𝐚+(𝟕𝟐𝟎)(𝟏𝟎𝟏.𝟑𝟐𝟓𝟕𝟔𝟎)=𝟒𝟗𝟓.𝟗𝟗 𝐤𝐏𝐚

62. Work is ______between the system and the surroundings.
A. work interaction C. energy interaction*
B. heat interaction D. none of these
63. A cylindrical vessel of 1 m diameter and 4 m length has hydrogen gas at pressure of 100 kPa and 27ºC. Determine the amount of heat to be supplied so as to increase gas pressure to 125 kPa. For hydrogen take Cp =
14.307 kJ/kg.K, Cv = 10.183 kJ/kg K.
A. 375 kJ C. 4.124 kJ
B. 254 kJ D. 194 kJ*
Solution: 𝐐=𝐦𝐜𝐯(𝐓𝟐−𝐓𝟏) 𝐐=[(𝟏𝟎𝟎)[𝛑𝟒(𝟏)𝟐(𝟒)]𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟐(𝟐𝟕+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)](𝟏𝟎.𝟏𝟖𝟑)(𝟐𝟓𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟎(𝟐𝟕+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)−(𝟐𝟕+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)) 𝐐=𝟏𝟗𝟐.𝟑𝟗 𝐤𝐉

64. In the absence of any work interactions between a system and its surroundings, the amount of net heat transfer is equal
A. to the change in the total energy of a closed system*
B. to heat and work
C. energy interactions
D. none of these
65. Two cylindrical vessels of 2 m3 each are inter connected through a pipe with valve in-between. Initially valve is closed and one vessel has 20 kg air while 4 kg of air is there in second vessel. Assuming the system to be at
27ºC temperature initially and perfectly insulated, determine final pressure in vessels after the valve is opened to attain equilibrium.
A. 1033 kPa C. 1.033 kPa
B. 517 kPa* D. 517 Pa
Solution: 𝐕=(𝟐𝟎+𝟒)(𝟎.𝟐𝟖𝟕)(𝟐𝟕+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝟐+𝟐=𝟓𝟏𝟔.𝟖𝟔 𝐤𝐏𝐚

66. A thermodynamic system that generally serves as a heat source of heat sink for anther system.
A. Combustion chamber C. Heat engine
B. Heat reservoir* D. Stirling engine
67. 2 kg of Hydrogen and 3 kg of Helium are mixed together in an insulated container at atmospheric pressure and 100 K temperature. Determine the specific heat of final mixture if specific heat at constant pressure is 11.23
kJ/kg. K and 5.193 kJ/kg . K for H2 and He respectively.
A. 6.61kJ/kg-K C. 8.61 kJ/kg-K
152
B. 7.61 kJ/kg-K* D. 9.61 kJ/kg-K
Solution: 𝐜𝐩=(𝟐)(𝟏𝟏.𝟐𝟑)+(𝟑)(𝟓.𝟏𝟗𝟑)𝟐+𝟑=𝟕.𝟔𝟏𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠−𝐊
68. Which property of state is not an extensive state?
A. Temperature* C. number of molecules
B. Volume D. mass
69. A gas at 65 kPa, 200°C is heated in a closed, rigid vessel till it reaches to 400°C. Determine the amount of heat required for 0.5 kg of this gas if internal energy at 200°C and 400°C are 26.6 kJ/kg and 37.8 kJ/kg
respectively.
A. 3.6 kJ C. 5.6 kJ*
B. 4.6 kJ D. 6.6 kJ
Solution: 𝐐=(𝟎.𝟓)(𝟑𝟕.𝟖−𝟐𝟔.𝟔)=𝟓.𝟔 𝐤𝐉
70. Which of the following thermodynamic relations is INCORRECT?
A. TdS = dU + pdV C. U = Q – W *
B. TdS = dH - VdP D. H = U + pV
71. In a winter season when outside temperature is –1ºC, the inside of house is to be maintained at 25ºC. Estimate the minimum
power required to run the heat pump of maintaining the temperature. Assume heating load as 125 MJ/h.
A. 1.02 kW C. 3.02 kW*
B. 2.02 kW D. 4.02 kW
Solution: (𝟏𝟐𝟓,𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟑𝟔𝟎𝟎)𝐖=𝟐𝟓+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓𝟐𝟓−(−𝟏) 𝐖=𝟑.𝟎𝟑 𝐤𝐖

72. The work done in a turbine is _______ since it is done by the fluid.
A. positive * C. negative
B. zero D. none of these
73. Ten kilograms per seconds of steam enter the turbine with an enthalpy of 3200 kJ/kg and enter the condenser with an enthalpy of 2500 kJ/kg in a Rankine cycle. If the turbine efficiency is 80% and the generator efficiency
is 90%, determine the power plant output.
A. 4320 kW C. 4056 kW
B. 3213 kW D. 5040 kW *
Solution:
𝐏=(𝟎.𝟖)(𝟎.𝟗)(𝟏𝟎)(𝟑𝟐𝟎𝟎−𝟐𝟓𝟎𝟎)=𝟓𝟎𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐖
74. For a perfect gas the internal energy is the function of,
A. Pressure only C. Volume only
B. Temperature only* D. None of these
75. An apple with an average mass of 0.15 kg and average specific heat of 3.65 kJ/kg.°C is cooled from 20°C to 5°C. The entropy change of the apple is
A. –0.0288 kJ/K* C. -0.526 kJ/K
B. –0.192 kJ/K D. 0 kJ/K
Solution: Δ𝐒=(𝟎.𝟏𝟓 𝐤𝐠)(𝟑.𝟔𝟓)𝐥𝐧(𝟓+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓𝟐𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)=−𝟎.𝟎𝟐𝟖𝟖𝐤𝐉𝐊

76. An ideal gas mixture consists of 30% helium and 70% argon gases by mass. The mixture is now expanded isentropically in a turbine from 400°C and 1.2 MPa to a pressure of 200 kPa. The mixture temperature at turbine
exit is
A. 195°C C. 112°C
B. 56°C* D. 130°C
Solution: 𝐭𝟐+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓𝟒𝟎𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓=(𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟎)𝟏.𝟔𝟔𝟕−𝟏𝟏.𝟔𝟔𝟕 𝐭𝟐=𝟓𝟓.𝟓𝟐℃

77. The air in an automobile tire with a volume of 0.53 ft3 is at 90°F and 20 psig. Determine the amount of air that must be added to raise the pressure to the recommended value of 30 psig. Assume
153
5
the atmospheric pressure to be 14.6 psia and the temperature and the volume to remain constant.
A. 0.026 lb* C. 0.066 lb
B. 0.046 lb D. 0.086 lb
Solution: 𝐦=𝟎.𝟓𝟑𝟓𝟑.𝟑(𝟗𝟎+𝟒𝟔𝟎)(𝟑𝟎−𝟐𝟎)(𝟏𝟒𝟒)=𝟎.𝟎𝟐𝟔 𝐥𝐛𝐦
78. ‘Work’ done upon the system and ‘heat’ added to the system shall have sign convention as shown respectively.
A. (–) and (–) C. (+) and (+)
B. (–) and (+)* D. (+) and (–)
79. A rigid tank contains 2 kmol of N2 and 6 kmol of Co2 gases at 300 Deg K and 15 Mpa. Find the tank volume using ideal gas equation.
A. 7.33 m3 C.3.33 m3
B. 5.33 m3 D.1.33 m3 *
Solution: 𝐕=(𝟐+𝟔)(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒)(𝟑𝟎𝟎)𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎=𝟏.𝟑𝟑 𝐦𝟑
80. The characteristic gas constant R and universal gas constant R can be related through molecular weight M as under,
A. R = 𝑅̅ x M C. 𝑅̅ = R + M
B. 𝑅̅ = R x M * D. R = 𝑅̅ + M
81. A heat source at 800 deg K losses 2000 of heat to a sink at 500 deg K. Determine the entropy generated during this process.
A. 1.5 KJ/K * C.-2.5 KJ/K
B. 2.5 KJ/K D.4 KJ/K
Solution: 𝐬𝐭𝐨𝐭𝐚𝐥=−𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐉𝟖𝟎𝟎 𝐊−−𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐉𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐊=𝟏.𝟓𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠

82. Loci of the series of state change during heat addition to a gas shall be,
A. Process C. State change
B. Path * D. All of the above
83. A dealer advertises that he has just received a shipment of electric resistance heaters for residential buildings that have an efficiency of 100 percent. Assuming an indoor temperature of 21 deg C and outdoor temperature
of 10 deg C, determine the second law efficiency of these heaters.
A. 8.74% C.3.74% *
B. 6.74% D.4.74%
Solution: ŋ𝐈𝐈=𝟏−𝟏𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓𝟐𝟏+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓=𝟑.𝟕𝟒%
84. A process which gives the same states/conditions after the system undergoes a series of processes:
A. Reversible process C. cyclic process*
B. Irreversible process D. Quasit-static process
85. Find the depth in furlong of the ocean, SG=1.03, if the pressure at the sea bed is 2,032.56 kPag.
A. 1* C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
Solution: 𝐡=𝟐𝟎𝟑𝟐.𝟓𝟔 𝐤𝐏𝐚𝟏.𝟎𝟑(𝟗.𝟖𝟏𝐤𝐍𝐦𝟑)=𝟐𝟎𝟏.𝟏𝟔 𝐦(𝟑.𝟐𝟖𝟏 𝐟𝐭𝟏 𝐦)(𝟏 𝐟𝐮𝐫𝐥𝐨𝐧𝐠𝟔𝟔𝟎 𝐟𝐭)=𝟏 𝐟𝐮𝐫𝐥𝐨𝐧𝐠

86. A piston–cylinder device contains an ideal gas. The gas undergoes two successive cooling processes by rejecting heat to the surroundings. First the gas is cooled at constant pressure until T2 = ¾T1. Then the piston is
held stationary while the gas is further cooled to T3 = ½T1, where all temperatures are in K.
A. 0.25 C. 0.50
B. 0.67 D. 0.75*
154
Solution: 𝐕𝟑=𝐕𝟐 𝐕𝟐𝐕𝟏=𝐕𝟑𝐕𝟏=𝐓𝟐𝐓𝟏=𝟑𝟒=𝟎.𝟕𝟓
87. For fluid flow, the enthalpy is the sum of internal energy and ____.
A. Entropy C. Non-flow work
B. Flow work* D. pressure and volume
88. Liquid water enters an adiabatic piping system at 15°C at a rate of 8 kg/s. If the water temperature rises by 0.2°C during flow due to friction, the rate of entropy generation in the pipe is
A. 23 W/K* C. 68 W/K
B. 55 W/K D. 220 W/K
Solution: Δ𝐬=(𝟖𝐤𝐠𝐬)(𝟒.𝟏𝟖𝟔𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠𝐊)(𝟎.𝟐℃)𝟏𝟓+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓=𝟎.𝟎𝟐𝟑𝟐𝟒𝐤𝐖𝐊=𝟐𝟑.𝟐𝟒𝐖𝐊
89. A rigid tank contains 5 kg of an ideal gas at 4 atm and 40 deg C. Now a valve is opened, and half of mass of the gas is allowed to escape. If the final pressure in the tank is 1.5 atm, the final temperature in the tank is:
A. -38 deg C * C.40 deg C
B. -30 deg C D.53 deg C
Solution: 𝐕𝟐=𝐕𝟏 (𝟐.𝟓 𝐤𝐠)(𝐑)(𝐭𝟐+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝟏.𝟓=(𝟓 𝐤𝐠)(𝐑)(𝟒𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)𝟒 𝐭𝟐=−𝟑𝟖.𝟐𝟗℃

90. The pressure of an automobile tire is measured to be 200 kpa(gage) before the trip and 220 kpa(gage) after the trip at a location where the atmospheric pressure is 90 kpa. If the temperature of the air in the tire before the
trip is 25 deg C, the air temperature after the trip is:
A. 45.6 deg C * C.27.5 deg C
B. 54.8 deg C D.26.7 deg C
Solution: 𝐏𝟐𝐏𝟏=𝐓𝟐𝐓𝟏 𝟐𝟐𝟎+𝟗𝟎𝟐𝟎𝟎+𝟗𝟎=𝐭𝟐+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓𝟐𝟓+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓 𝐭𝟐=𝟒𝟓.𝟓𝟔𝟐℃

91. 3 kg of liquid water initially at 12°C is to be heated to 95°C in a teapot equipped with a 1200 W electric heating element inside. The specific heat of water can be taken to be 4.18 kJ/kg.°C, and the heat loss from the water
during heating can be neglected. The time it takes to heat the water to the desired temperature is
A. 4.8 min C. 14.5 min*
B. 6.7 min D. 9.0 min
Solution: 𝐭𝐢𝐦𝐞=𝐦𝐜(Δ𝐭)𝐏=(𝟑)(𝟒.𝟏𝟖)(𝟗𝟓−𝟏𝟐)𝟏.𝟐=𝟖𝟔𝟕.𝟑𝟓 𝐬𝐞𝐜=𝟏𝟒.𝟒𝟔 𝐦𝐢𝐧

92. A glass of water with a mass of 0.45 kg at 20°C is to be cooled to 0°C by dropping ice cubes at 0°C into it. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 334 kJ/kg, and the specific heat of water is 4.18 kJ/kg.°C. The amount of ice
that needs to be added is
A. 56g C. 113 g*
B. 124 g D. 224 g
Solution: 𝐐𝐰𝐚𝐭𝐞𝐫=𝐐𝐢𝐜𝐞 𝐦𝐰𝐜𝐰Δ𝐭𝐰=𝐦𝐢𝐜𝐞𝐋𝐢𝐜𝐞 𝐦𝐢𝐜𝐞=(𝟎.𝟒𝟓)(𝟒.𝟏𝟖)(𝟐𝟎−𝟎)𝟑𝟑𝟒=𝟎.𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟔 𝐤𝐠=𝟏𝟏𝟐.𝟔 𝐠

93. Which of the following gases can be used to measure the lowest temperature?
A. Nitrogen C. Oxygen
B. Helium* D. Hydrogen
94. Compute the mass of a 2 m3 propane at 280 kPa and 40°C.
A. 6.47 kg C. 10.20 kg
B. 5.1 kg D. 9.47 kg*
Solution:
155
6
Propane (C3H8) 𝐦𝐂𝟑𝐇𝟖=(𝟐𝟖𝟎𝐤𝐏𝐚)(𝟐 𝐦𝟑)(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟑(𝟏𝟐)+𝟖(𝟏)𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠𝐊)(𝟒𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)=𝟗.𝟒𝟔𝟒 𝐤𝐠
95. Which of the thermodynamic property best describes the molecular activity of a substance?
A. Enthalpy C. internal energy*
B. Entropy D. external energy
96. Find the work possess for a Helium gas at 20°C.

A. 609 kJ/kg* C. 229 kJ/kg
B. 168 kJ/kg D. 339 kJ/kg
Solution: 𝐰=𝐏𝐯=𝐑𝐓=(𝟖.𝟑𝟏𝟒𝟒𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠𝐊) (𝟐𝟎+𝟐𝟕𝟑.𝟏𝟓)=𝟔𝟎𝟗.𝟑𝟏𝐤𝐉𝐤𝐠

97. At a given temperature and pressure all molecules of gas occupy the same volume. This is called
A. Charle’s law C. Avagadro’s law*
B. Boyle’s law D. Regnault’s law
98. Find the pressure at the 100 fathom depth of water in kpag.
A. 1793.96 kPag* C. 1893.96 kPag
B. 1993.93 kPag D. 1693.96 kPag
Solution; 𝐏=(𝟗.𝟖𝟏𝐤𝐍𝐦𝟑)(𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝐟𝐚𝐭𝐡𝐨𝐦)(𝟔 𝐟𝐭𝟏 𝐟𝐚𝐭𝐡𝐨𝐦)(𝟏 𝐦𝟑.𝟐𝟖𝟏 𝐟𝐭)=𝟏𝟕𝟗𝟑.𝟗𝟔𝟓 𝐤𝐏𝐚𝐠

99. Specific heats at constant pressure (Cp) and at constant volume (Cv) can be related by
A. Cp = Cv C. Cp > Cv*
B. Cp < Cv D. Cp + Cv = 0
100. Helium gas is compressed in an adiabatic compressor from an initial state of 14 psia and 50°F to a final temperature of 320°F in a reversible manner. Determine the exit pressure of Helium.
A. 38.5 psia C. 40.5 psia*
B. 42.5 psia D. 44.5 psia
Solution: 𝐓𝟐𝐓𝟏=(𝐏𝟐𝐏𝟏)𝐊−𝟏𝐊 𝐏𝟐=𝐏𝟏(𝐓𝟐𝐓𝟏)𝐤𝐤−𝟏=(𝟏𝟒)(𝟑𝟐𝟎+𝟒𝟔𝟎𝟓𝟎+𝟒𝟔𝟎)𝟏.𝟔𝟔𝟕𝟏.𝟔𝟔𝟕−𝟏=𝟒𝟎.𝟓 𝐩𝐬𝐢𝐚

---NOTHING FOLLOWS ---
156
CIT – UNIVERSITY MECHANICAL ENGINEERING ME COMPREHENSIVE EVALUATION COURSE 3 DIAGNOSTIC
1
1. The 600 kg hammer of a pile drive is lifted 2 m above
the piling head. If the hammer is released, what will
be its velocity at the instant it strikes the piling?
Local g = 9.65 m/s2.
A. 6.21 m/s * C. 1.2 m/s
B. 3.25 m/s D. 4.5 m/s
Solution:
V = 2gh
= 2(9.65)(2)
= 6.21 m/s
2. In pump installations, what is referred as the vertical
distance from the water supply level to the pump
centerline wherein the pump is above the supply level?
A. Discharge head C. Static suction head *
B. Suction head D. Static discharge head
3. The 600 kg hammer of a pile drive is lifted 2 m above
the piling head. If the hammer is released, what will
be its velocity at the instant it strikes the piling?
Local g = 9.65 m/s2.
A. 6.21 m/s * C. 1.2 m/s
B. 3.25 m/s D. 4.5 m/s
Solution:
V = 2gh
= 2(9.65)(2)
= 6.21 m/s
4. Which of the following is an extensive property?
A. mass * C. density
B. pressure D. all of the above
5. Calculate the thermal diffusivity of pure aluminum with
density of 2,702 kg/m3 , thermal conductivity of 237
W/m.K and specific heat of 0.903 kJ/kg.K.
A. 97.1 x 10-6 m2/s * C. 14.9 x 10-6 m2/s
B. 23.25 x 10-6 m2/s D. 34.5 x 10-6 m2/s
Solution:
p
-6 2
k
=
C
237
=
(2702)(0.903)
= 97.1 x10 m/s


6. At what temperature wherein an oil of any grade becomes
cloudy and it freezes, thus its application is limited.
A. Cloud point * C. Flash point
B. Pour point D. Freezing point
7. A new temperature scale is to be used where freezing
and boiling temperature of water is at 100 deg.N and
157
400 deg. N respectively. Calculate the absolute zero
in degree N.
A. – 992.6 deg. N * C. – 995.6 deg. N
B. – 932.7 deg. N D. – 932.4 deg. N
Solution:
N-100
=
100 400
N = 4 C + 100
For: Absolute Zero
N =4(-273)+100 = -992.6 N
C 


8. A closed vessel intended for use in heating water or
for application of heat to generate steam.
A. Intercooler C. Sink
B. Water heater D. Boiler *
9. An elastic sphere containing gas at 120 kPa has a
diameter of 1.0 m. Heating the sphere causes it to
expand to a diameter of 1.4 m. During the process the
pressure is proportional to the sphere diameter.
Calculate the work done by the gas
A. 143.91 kJ C. 154.5 Kj
B. 200.7 kJ D. 133.91 kJ *
Solution:


44
fo
44
W = 15 D D
= 15 1.4 1.0
W = 133.91 kJ




10. What is the lowest permissible water level of a boiler
without internal furnace?
A. 1/2 height of shell C. 1/4 height of shell
B. 1/3 height of shell * D. 1/5 of shell
11. Air is used in a Carnot engine where the volumes at
the beginning of the constant temperature heat addition
and end of the constant temperature heat rejection are
0.456 cm3 and 6.73 cm3 respectively. Calculate the
thermal efficiency.
A. 0.667 C. 0.786
B. 0.656 * D. 0.765
Solution:
L
H
k-1 1.4-1
H4
L1
158
e=1-
T
where:
T V 6.573
= = 2.91
T V 0.456
subst:
1
e = 1 - = 0.656
2.91



12. At ordinary temperature what substance will behave as
inert gas and will not react in the combustion process?
A. nitrogen * C. sulfur
B. hydrogen D. carbon
13. What is the lifting force in kN for a 10 m diameter
spherical balloon with helium inside at 101 kPa and
320 K surrounded by air at 101 Kpa and 298.15 K ?
A. 17.38 kN C. 18.73 Kn
B. 5.28 kN * D. 8.25 kN
Solution:


a
3
F=
101 101 4 0.00981 kN
= 5 kg
0.287(298.15) 2.077(320) 3 1 kg
= 5.28 kN
He V





14. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than
the blood temperature of human body then the transfer
of heat will take place only by
A. Convection C. Radiation *
B. Cooling D. Evaporation
15. The filament of a 100 W bulb maybe considered a
blackbody radiating into a black enclosure at 80 deg.
C. Considering only radiation, calculate the filament
temperature in deg. C if the filament diameter is 0.10
mm and the length is 6 cm.
A. 3109.97 deg. C C. 3245.45 deg. C
B. 2837 deg. C * D. 2313.5 deg. C
Solution:

159

-8 4 4
1o
2
-8 4
Q = 5.67 x 10 A T -T
0.0001
100 = 5.67 x 10 (0.0001)(0.06) 353
4
T = 3109.97 K
T = 2837°C
T





16. Both Stirling and Ericsson engines are
A. internal combustion engines
B. external combustion engines *
C. Carnot engines
160
CIT – UNIVERSITY MECHANICAL ENGINEERING ME COMPREHENSIVE EVALUATION COURSE 3 DIAGNOSTIC
3
161
40. The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is
 1.4-1 1.4 Q = ( ) 270 where: COP = = 9 (300- generally designated by a three-digit number size as
270) 1 W = = 0.497 12 subst: Q = 9(0.497) = 4.42 646. The first digit designates
A. stroke of the pump in inches
kW = 1.26 TR COP W B. inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured in
32. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over
inches*
its top surface. The heat that is first transferred
to the air layer close to the block is by C. percent clearance
conduction. It is eventually carried away from the D. number of cylinders
surface by
A. convection* C. radiation 41. A refrigeration system produces 20 kg/hr of ice
B. conduction D. thermal radiation from water at 20 deg. C. Find the tonnage of the
unit.
33. A refrigeration system produces 20 kg/hr of ice A. 0.66 * C. 0.77
from water at 20 deg.C. Find the tonnage of the B. 0.55 D. 0.88
unit.
A. 0.66 * C. 0.77 Solution:
B. 0.55 D. 0.88
Solution:
Q = where: h = 335 + 4.19 ( 20 - 0 ) h = 418.8 kJ/kg then: Q = 20(418.8) =
8376 kJ/kg 8376 TR = = 0.66 tons 3.5(3600) mh
34. An engineer inspected an air-conditioning unit.
He found out that the unit does not produce any
cooling effect, however, the air-conditioning unit
is running. He checked the temperatures of the
condenser and evaporator and had the unit run. He
found out that there was no change in the
temperature. What should he do?
A. Replace fuse C. Charge with new refrigerant *
B. Replace relay D. Adjust door seal
35. About 3 Hp per ton is required to maintain a

temperature of – 40 deg. C in a refrigerator. If the
refrigerator works on the reverse Carnot cycle,
determine the heat rejected to the sink per ton of
refrigeration.
A. 69.72 kCal/min C. 81.61 kCal/min *
B. 70.24 kCal/min D. 84.65 kCal/min
Solution:
R E E R Heat rejected to the sink = Heat extracted + Work required Q = Q +
W where: Q 1 TR = 50 kCal/min W = 3 Hp = 31.6 kCal/min thus: Q = 81.61
kCal/min. 
36. A turbine pipe determined its “nominal” size
refers to
A. inside diameter * C. outside diameter
B. pipe wall thickness D. approximate size
37. Determine the mass of ice produced from water

per day for the following conditions: Water
temperature 22 deg. C, tonnage of the unit 150 tons,
operating temperature 22 deg. C, tonnage of unit 150
tons, operating temperatures – 5 deg. C and 28 deg.
C, latent heat of ice 330 kJ/kg.
A. 107,498 kg * C. 134,112 kg
B. 120,465 kg D. 140,362 kg
Solution:
RE m = Q : RE = 150 TR = 525 kW Q = 330 + 1 (4.19)(22-0) = 421.96 kJ/kg
thus: 525 m = = 1.24 kg/s = 107,498 kg/day 421.96 where
38. A cold storage is required to store 20 tons of
fish. The fish is supplied at a temperature os 30
deg.C . The specific heat of fish above the freezing
point is 2.93 kJ/kg.K. The specific heat of fish
above the freezing point is 2.93 kJ/kg.K. The
specific heat of fish below freezing point is 1.26
kJ.kg.K. The fish is stored in cold storage that is
maintained at -8 deg. C. The freezing point of the
fish is -4 deg. C. The latent heat of solidification
of the fish is 235 kJ/kg. If the plant requires 75
kW to drive it, find the time taken to achieve
cooling. Assume the actual COP as 0.3 times the
Carnot COP of the refrigerating plant.
A. 14.72 hrs C. 10.41 hrs
B. 9.64 hrs D. 12.03 hrs *
Solution:
        1 2 3 6 6 Q t = RE where: RE = (COP)W = [ 0.3(6.97)]
(75) = 156.8 kW Q = Q + Q + Q = (2.93)(303-269) 1.26(269 265) 235 20,000
= 6.793 x 10 kJ thus: 6.793 x 10 t = = 43,320 156.8 seconds = 12.03 hrs
39. A research laboratory building is to be heated
and ventilated. Air is to be supplied to a room 12 m
by 18 m from the outside at the rate of 1 m3/min air
replacement for each square meter of floor space.
The design condition include 20 deg. C room
temperature and – 20 deg. C outside air temperature.
In addition the pressure in the room is to be
maintained at a positive pressure of 7 kPa, to
ensure that there will be no air leakage into the
laboratory. How much heat would be required to
condition the air for this room?
A. 177.11 kW C. 168.7 Kw
B. 154.8 kW D. 185.3 Kw *
Solution:
 p Q = mC T where: PV 108.325(216) m = = = 278 kg/min RT 0.287(293)
Q = 278(1)(40) = 11120 kJ/min = 185.3 kW
162
Solution:
CIT – UNIVERSITY W = mRT ln (V2 V1) = (0.02 kg) (8.314 kJ kg−K 2(16) ) (30 + 273.15) ln(0.05)
W = −4.719 kJ
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING 49. The increase of enthalpy of a certain gas is
141.9 KJ. when the pressure increases from 103.448
ME COMPREHENSIVE kpa to1034.48 kpa and the volume decreases form
0.4722 cu. m to 0.0745 cu. M. Find he change of
EVALUATION COURSE 3 internal enthalpy.
A. 121.45 C. 141.5
DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION – SET A B. 114.25 * D. 154.2
CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS
AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME Solution: Δ𝐻 = Δ𝑈 + (𝑃2𝑉2 − 𝑃1𝑉1) Δ𝑈 = 141.9 𝑘𝐽 − [(1034.48)
TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! (0.0745) − (103.448)(0.4722)] Δ𝑈 = 114 𝑘𝐽
CIT-ME TOPS AGAIN! 50. Foundations are preferably built of concrete in
4 the proportion of what measure of Portland cement:
 Q = mh where: h = 335 + 4.19 (20 0) = 418.8 sand : crushed stones?
A. 1:2:5 C. 2:4:6
kJ/kg then: Q = 20 (418.8) = 8376 kJ/hr 8376 TR = B. 2:3:5 D. 1:2:4*
= 0.66 tons 3.5(3600)
42. About 3 hp per ton is required to maintain a ---NOTHING FOLLOWS ---
temperature of – 40 deg. C in a refrigerator. If the
refrigerator works on the reverse carnot cycle,
determine the heat rejected to the sink per ton of
refrigeration.
A. 69.72 kCal/min C. 81.61 kCal/min *
B. 70.44 kCal/min D. 84.65 kCal/min
Solution:
R E ER Q = Q + W where: Q = 1 TR = 50 kCal/min. W = 3 Hp = 31.6
kCal/min. thus: Q = 81.61 kCal/min
43. Determine the mass of ice produced from water
per day for the following conditions: water
temperature 22 deg C, tonnage of the unit 150 tons,
operating temperatures – 5 deg. C and 28 deg C,
latent heat of ice 330 kJ/kg.
A. 107,498 kg * C. 134,112 kg
B. 120,465 kg D. 140,362 kg
Solution:
RE m = Q where: RE = 150 TOR = 525 kW Q = 330 + 1(4.19)(22-0) = 421.96
kJ/kg thus: 525 m = = 1.24 kg/s = 107.498 kg/day 421.96
44. What should be the cooling requirement due to
emission of body to maintain a comfortable
temperature in a dance hall that had an attendance
of 1500 people if it has been determined that 75% of
the people will be dancing and others will be
seated. Test have shown that an adult will give off
71.8 W of sensible heat while engaging in moderate
dancing and 57.1 W of sensible heat while sitting.
The latent heat emissions for similar situations
have been found to equal 177.3 W for dancers and
45.5 W for sitters.
A. 200 kW C. 301 Kw
B. 267 kW D. 319 Kw *
Solution:
Q = 1125 ( 71.8 + 177.3 ) + 375 ( 57.1 + 45.4 ) = 318,676 W = 319 kW
45. A refrigerator is rated at a USA one ton
capacity. It maintains a cooling temperature of 4.4
deg. C ( evaporator temperature). A refrigerant with
a refrigerating effect of 136 kJ/kg is in the
condenser just ahead of the expansion valve. If the
refrigerant vapor has a density of 19.80 kg/m3 ,
what should be the capacity of the compressor?
A. 0.078 m3 / min * C. 0.102 m3 / min
B. 0.091 m3 / min D. 0.113 m3/min.
Solution:
3 3 3 907(335) Q = = 3.52 kW 24(3600) 3.52 kW m = = 0.0259 kg/s 136
kJ/kg 0.0259 kg/s V = = 0.001308 m /s = 0.07848 m /min 19.8 kg/m
46. An engine operating on a Carnot Cycle between
temperatures of 500 deg. C and 30 deg. C produces 50
kJ of work. What change in entropy occurs during the
heat rejection portion of the cycle ?
A. 106.4 J/K * C. 120.5 J/K
B. 160.4 J/K D. 102.5 J/K
Solution:
  A R RA A Q - Q Q S = = T T where: Q = 50 kJ Q = 50/e 773 - 303 e =
= 0.6080 773 Q = 50/0.6080 = 82.24 thus: 82.24 - 50 S = = 0.1064 kJ/K =
106.4 J/K 303
47. A 3 Hp refrigerator or heat pump operates
between 0 deg F and 100 deg. F. The maximum
theoretical heat that can be transferred from the
cold reservoir is nearest to:
A. 1300 Btu/hr C. 35000 Btu/hr *
B. 2300 Btu/hr D. 43000 Btu/hr
Solution:
R R Q = COP Wwhere: W = 3 Hp = 7635 Btu/hr 460 COP = = 4.6 560 - 460
thus: Q = 4.6(7635) = 35,100 Btu/hr
48. Twenty grams of Oxygen are compressed at
constant temperature of 30 deg. C to 5% of their
original volume. What work is done on the system in
SI.
A. -2.516 C.-3.75
B. -2.615 D. -4.72 *
163
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