QUESTION LIST

Level : ANT III

Function : Function 1
Competency : Use of radar and ARPA to maintain safety of navigation

1. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12
miles on a course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the
Arpa?

a. True vectors
b. Relative vectors, sea stabilized
c. Relative vectors, ground stabilized
d. Relative vectors.

2. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS system?

a. Incorrect height of the antenna.

b. A three dimensional instead of a two dimensional position output
c. All of the suggested answers
d. Abnormal sun spot activity causing unusual radiation effects.

3. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a Racon not being visible on the
radar screen?

a. All of the suggested answers.

b. The racon may not be transmitting a pulse.
c. The transmitted radar frequency may not trigger the Racon transmitter.
d. The radar may be suppressing the mark with application of the Interference Rejection
control.

4. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what would be the most
probable cause of the error?

a. The density of the water

b. The strength of the tide and current in the river
c. Shallow water effects
d. There should be no error with a properly working echo sounder

5. Which are the four main elements of a radar system?

a. Transmitter, servo link, target,display

b. Transmitter, Servo link, antenna , display
c. Transmitter, Antenna, receiver, display
d. Transmitter, servo link, antenna, target

6. Which of these factors govern the echo presentation?

 a. Characteristics of the display
b. All of these.
c. Characteristics of the receiver
d. Characteristics of the Transmitted

7. Which control on the radar is used to suppress clutter?

a. Gain
b. Anti- clutter
c. Differentiator
d. Tuning

8. What is used as a portable, plotting device which is clamped on top of the radar screen?

a. Plotting chart
b. Plotting sheet
c. Radar reflector
d. Reflection plotter

9. Which of these is a result of true motion display?

a. CPA and time directly obtained

b. CPA and time obtained only by plotting triangle of relative velocities
c. All objects move relatively on the PPI
d. Course, speed and aspect of any target obtained only by plotting of triangle of
relative velocities

10. What is the rate at which two moving objects approach or separate from each other called?

a. Relative bearing
b. Relative movement
c. Relative speed
d. Relative distance

11. Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation?

a. Call for a pilot to do this

b. Master
c. The second in command (CH. Officer)
d. Duty officer

12. What is used to control the amplification of echoes received?

a. Gain
b. Brilliance
c. Differentiatorn
d. Focus

13. What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked?

a. Relative vector
b. True vector
c. Neither nor
d. Both and

14. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures like the Samson posts etc. What
are such areas known as?
 a. Blind sectors
b. Shadow areas
c. Blind areas
d. Shadow sectors

15. What does this control on the radar indicate? (see figure)

a. Tuning.
b. Anti-clutter.
c. Transmitted power monitor.
d. Performance monitor.

16. What is this on the PPI? (see figure)

a. Raymark
b. Clearing bearing
c. Clearing line
d. Racon

17. What type of spurious echoes are these? (see figure)

a. Multiple echoes
b. Side lobe echoes
c. Indirect echoes
d. Second trace echoes

18. What is no.12 ? (see figure)

a. Mixer
b. Trace blanking
c. Scanner
d. CRT

19. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

a. Between 1 - 2 miles
b. Between 2 - 2.2 miles
c. Less than 0.9 miles
d. Between 3 - 3.9 mile

20. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

a. Between 1 - 2 miles
b. Between 4 - 5 miles
c. Less than 0.9 mile
d. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
21. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

a. Less than 1 mile

b. Between 1 - 2 miles
c. More than 5 miles
d. Between 4 - 5 miles

22. In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the quantity S is

a. The speed of the radar waves

b. The diameter of the radar screen
c. The width of the scanner
d. The range scale in use

23. Radar does not transmit continuously because it would:

a. prevent detection of targets

b. reduce the life of components
c. cause interference to other vessels
d. make the equipment get very hot

24. Targets echoes appear along a line called the :

a. scanner
b. timebase
c. heading marker
d. centre line

25. The function of the waueguide is to :

a. shape the beam in vertical plane

b. generate the R.F. pulses
c. conduct pulses to and from the scanner
d. block the transmitter during reception

26. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

a. Target B
b. Target C
c. Target A
d. Target E

27. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

a. Between 46 - 60 minutes
b. Between 21- 30 minutes
c. Now or passed
d. Between 11 - 20 minutes

28. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

 a. Between 4-5 miles
b. Less than 0.9 miles
c. Between 3-3.9 miles
d. Between 2-2.9 miles

29. What is this mark? (see figure)

a. Lt vessel
b. Recon
c. Remark
d. Signal from SART

30. Which are the two most important pieces of input information required to operate the ARPA accurately?

a. Heading and GMT time

b. GMT time and speed.
c. Speed and heading
d. Position and GMT Tim

31. This symbol identifies the

a. heading marker alignment

b. scanner rotating
c. centering control
d. range scale control

32. The symbol shown here identifies the

a. Heading marker alignment control

b. Variable range marker
c. Gain control
d. Bearing cursor

33. What is the term for the number of pulses sent out by the scanner in one second?

a. Pulse length
b. Pulse width
c. Pulsation
d. Pulse repetition frequency

34. Signals are converted to a suitable form for the display by the

a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer crystal
c. I.F. amplifier
d. Video amplifier

35. Compared to the visual horizon, the radar horizon is

 a. About 3% nearer
b. About 6% nearer
c. About 6% further away
d. About 3% further away

36. Radar bearing discrimination should be within

a. 1.5 degrees
b. 2.5 degrees
c. 1.0 degrees
d. 2.0 degree

37. What is the aspect of the target A ?

a. Port quarter (Red 105-160)

b. Starboard bow (Green 15-75)
c. Starboard quarter (Green 105-160)
d. Port bow (Red 15-75)

38. An alternative name for the anti-sea clutter control is the

a. Differentiator
b. S.T.C. control
c. F.T.C. control
d. Radar on/off switch

39. The best land target to use for a radar bearing is

a. A sloping foreshore
b. A small isolated feature
c. A coastal indentation
d. A large headland

40. Vertical beam width is determined by

a. the number of slots in the scanner

b. the height of the scanner
c. the transmitted wavelength
d. the design of the scanner

41. A radar presentation feature which can often be used to advantage for position fixing is

a. Beamwidth distortion
b. Relative motion
c. An off-centred display
d. An unstabilised presentation

42. Multiple echoes can be recognized because they appear

 a. on a false bearing
b. at constant range intervals
c. around the arc of a circle
d. along a curved line

43. Which target will have the closest point of approach?

a. Target A
b. Target C
c. All equal
d. Target B

44. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

a. Target C
b. Target A
c. Target E
d. Target B

45. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

a. Now or passed
b. Between 0-10 minutes
c. Between 11-20 minutes
d. Between 21-30 minutes

46. What is the acronym PPI?

a. Plan position indicator

b. Plan positioning indicating
c. Plan position indicating
d. Plan positioning indicator

47. Acronym of EBL ?

a. Electronic Bearing Line

b. Electric Bearing Liner
c. Electric Bearing Line
d. Electronic Bearing Liner

48. What is the meaning closest point of approach ?

a. the closest two ships will pass each other if both ships maintain course and speed
b. range between three ships will pass each other if both ships maintain course speed
c. Two basic parameters needed to assess the risk of. collision in meeting situation at
sea are passing
d. Located at the bottom which take place within Radar terminology

49. What is function of the waueguide

a. shape the beam in vertical plane

b. generate the R.F. pulses
c. conduct pulses to and from the scanner
d. block the transmitter during reception
50. The advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids is?

a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world
wide
b. The GPS system is based on hyperbola navigation
c. The GPS system has a built-in group of six radio-beacons called a Decca chain
d. The GPS system gives information about weather and waveconditions in the area

51. The quantity s, in the equation d = (t x s) r2, is

a. The speed of the radar waves

b. The diameter of the radar screen
c. The width of the scanner
d. The range scale in use

52. Target ranges are obtained from

a. the range marker

b. the heading marker
c. the bearing marker
d. the pulse repetition frequency

53. uses pulse in radar transmission in order to

a. avoid interference
b. counteract bad weather
c. detect close range targets
d. Conserve energy

54. What is the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and has hyperbolae as position
lines?

a. Loran C
b. GPS
c. Radio Direction Finder
d. All of the suggested systems

55. What is used to warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a range or transits a zone chosen by the
observer?

a. Collision course warning

b. Cpa warnings
c. Target lost warning
d. Guard rings and zones

56. What is the called of a reference for target bearings is provided by a line on the radar screen ?

a. heading marker
b. timebase
c. centre line
d. scanner line

57. What is the main component in the display unit ?

a. scanner
b. cathode ray unit
c. waueguide
d. T/R cell
58. Which of these glues only a bearing and not a range?

a. Buoy
b. Lt vessel
c. Ramark
d. Racon

59. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa for anti-collision
purposes

a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water
b. True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships
c. The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to use for anti-
collision purposes
d. The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with another ship

60. What are such areas known as target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures like
the Samson posts etc.?

a. Blind sectors
b. Shadow areas
c. Blind areas
d. Shadow sectors

61. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a channel?

a. Select ground stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own ships true
vector passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel
b. Acquire the buoy at the entrance to the channel and on relative vector display alter
course to make the vector of the buoy pass directly through the centre of the screen
c. Select True ground stabilised vectors and make the vectors from both buoys at the
entrance to the channel pass either side of the centre of the screen
d. Select Relative motion display and make Own Ship vector pass through the middle of
the entrance to the channel

62. The targets echoes appear along a line called

a. scanner
b. timebase
c. heading marker
d. centre line

63. Where shall the warning signals be placed if a work is performed on the radar mast?

a. Warning plate attached to the mast

b. Warning notes on all the doors to the bridge
c. Warning notes on all the doors to the
d. Warning plates fastened to the mast and each radar

64. The officer in charge of a navigational watch must ?

a. be physically present on the bridge

b. to be on the bridge when necessary
c. to attend the bridge or always be available for the call
d. always be available for the call

65. What is the name of rate at which two moving objects approach or separate from each other called?
 a. Relative bearing
b. Relative movement
c. Relative speed
d. Relative distance

66. Control the amplification of echoes received is used to?

a. Gain
b. Brilliance
c. Differentiatorn
d. Focus

67. The transmitter is have a main component, what is the

a. antenna
b. cathode ray tube
c. magnetron
d. power supply

68. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa when the ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less
than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as
shown.?

a. True vectors
b. Relative vectors, sea stabilized
c. Relative vectors, ground stabilized
d. Relative vectors

69. What is the two of most important input information required to operate the ARPA accurately?

a. Heading and GMT time

b. GMT time and speed
c. Speed and heading
d. Position and GMT time

70. Which of these is a result of true motion display?

a. CPA and time directly obtained

b. CPA and time obtained only by plotting triangle of relative velocities
c. All objects move relatively on the PPI
d. Course, speed and aspect of any target obtained only by plotting of triangle of
relative velocities

71. Where will you find the number of the chart?

a. Always outside the left hand margin

b. Always outside the right hand margin
c. Below the chart title
d. At the bottom right hand corner and top left hand corner outside the margin

72. The PPI known as the ability of a radar set to clearly distinguish two targets, on the same range and slightly
different bearings, as two separate targets on?

a. Maximum range
b. Minimum range
c. Bearing discrimination
d. Range discrimination
73. What would be the most probable cause of the error, when using the echo sounder in a river the soundings
indicated may be incorrect?

a. The density of the water

b. The strength of the tide and current in the river
c. Shallow water effects
d. There should be no error with a properly working echo sounder

74. The international nautical mile is

a. 1,852 meters
b. 1852 meters
c. 1,853 meters
d. 185 meters

75. The echo presentation have factors govern, What is the factors?

a. Characteristics of the display

b. All of these
c. Characteristics of the receiver
d. Characteristics of the Transmitter

76. Radars 10 cm also called ?

a. L band
b. X band
c. S band
d. M band

77. Unwanted radial lines that sometimes appear on the radar screen, the name given is

a. Ranging
b. Spoking
c. Starring
d. Racking

78. Which of these factors does bearing resolution depend on ?

a. VBW
b. PRF
c. Peak power of the set
d. HBW

79. What is the vertical beam must be wide enough to allow for

a. reduction of sea clutter

b. rolling and pitching of the ship
c. elimination of shadow sectors
d. the size of large targets

80. which affects the strength rather than the direction of the reflected radar energy, what the factor is

a. target size
b. target aspect
c. target surface texture
d. target shape

81. What is the function of a corner reflector

 a. enable the radar to examine shadow areas
b. Increase the radar power output
c. detect targets below the radar horizon
d. Increase the detectability of small targets

82. How often should anchor bearings be taken, while as vessel is at anchorage?

a. At least every four hours

b. At least every hour
c. In accordance with local port state rules
d. they are only required if the weather is bad

83. The critical time while anchoring in a strong current and narrow channel is?

a. When the anchor has been dropped

b. When the ship is 'brought-up"to the anchor
c. When the ship stops in the water before the anchor is dropped
d. When the speed drops below steerage way

84. What is the requirements for using radar for collision advance are described in

a. International Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea

b. Radar Manual Vol. 2
c. Marine Orders Part 21
d. Admiralty List of Radio Signals

85. The best land target to use for a radar bearing is

a. a large headland
b. a small isolated feature
c. a sloping foreshore
d. a coastal indentation

86. If possible, when choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should , to avoid

a. small isolated features

b. steep faced features
c. sloping land features
d. large prominent features

87. What is the signal from a racon

a. only provides range data

b. enables the beacon to be identified
c. does not provide identification
d. only provides bearing data

88. To carry out a Trial maneuver, Which of these input information is not required?

a. A delay
b. The proposed position of the target
c. The proposed speed
d. The proposed course

89. To warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a range or transits a zone chosen by the observer, it is
used?
 a. Collision course warning
b. Cpa warnings
c. Target lost warning
d. Guard rings and zones

90. If your mercurial barometer reads 30.50 inches and the temperature is 56o F, what is the correct ready at 55o N,
o
150 W?

a. 30.42
b. 30.45
c. 30.50
d. 30.53
 QUESTION LIST

Level : ANT III

Function : Function 2
Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast
Competency :
tanks

1. After completion of discharge of a dry bulk cargo, the CO2 lines in each cargo hold should be

a. Blown through with compressed air to ensure that they are clear of any cargo traces
b. Washed through with fresh water
c. Flushed with high pressure sea water
d. Flushed with steam, followed by sea water

2. Cargo on a bulk cement carrier is normally discharged by

a. Using its own pumping system and equipment

b. Using shore side cargo gear
c. Using grabs provided by the terminal operator
d. By suction

3. The drain pipe covers fitted on the hatch coamings of a bulk carrier are secured

a. In the event of a cargo hold fire

b. After securing the hatch covers
c. When heavy weather is expected
d. During the ballast passage

4. The full name for the BC Code is

a. The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes

b. The Bulk Carrier Code
c. The Break-bulk Cargo Code
d. The Code of Safe Practice for Bulk Carriers

5. The full name for the IMSBC Code is

a. The International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code

b. The Maritime Safety Bulk Carrier Code
c. International Marine Solid Breakbulk Carriage Code
d. International Maritime Safety of Bulk Carriers Code

6. The hatch cover hydraulic system of a bulk carrier can be damaged by

a. Dust and cargo particles around the piston seals

b. Repeated hatch cover operations
c. Extreme weather conditions
d. Ice accretion on piston jackets

7. The perforated plate cover of the cargo hatch bilges are normally covered with burlap, so as
 a. To prevent small particles of cargo draining into the bilges
b. To protect the plates from stevedore damage
c. To prevent drainage of liquefied cargo into the bilges
d. To allow water and large particles of cargo to drain into the bilges

8. The purpose of the cargo hold ventilator grill is to

a. Prevent any sparks from entering the hold space

b. Prevent any large objects from falling into the hold
c. Prevent stowaways from entering the hold via the ventilator trunking
d. Protect the ship’s crew from pirates in case of an attack on the vessel

9. When carrying bulk coal cargo, during the voyage methane and carbon monoxide gases are measure by

a. Using the approved sampling ports fitted on each hatch coaming

b. Using the cargo hold sounding pipes
c. Partially opening the hatch covers and lowering the measuring sensors
d. Partially opening the hatch covers and lowering the measuring sensors

10. When loading coal on a Bulk Carrier, the vessel should be provided with

a. Means for measuring cargo temperatures

b. Ramneck tapes to seal the cargo holds and deck stores
c. A glass hydrometer for the measurement of water content in the cargo
d. Means for drawing cargo samples

11. Which of these is not used to discharge bulk grain?

a. Pumps
b. Evacuators
c. Grabs
d. Manual bagging

12. How much liferaft capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than 85 meters in length ?

a. 100% of the complement if it can be readily launched on either side of the ship. If it
cannot be readily launched on either side, 100% must be provided on each side
b. 50% of the complement on each side of the ship
c. 25% of the complement on each side of the ship
d. 75% of the complement on each side of the ship

13. Normally, a vessel sails in salt water and therefore salt water draughts are those which are referred to. If there is
a change in density however, this must be taken into account because the true draughts of the ship will change.
Which of the definitions below is that of this "Fresh Water Allowance"?

a. The number of millimetres by which a vessel's True Mean Draught changes when she
passes from salt water to fresh water, or vica versa
b. The number of millimetres by which a vessel's True Mean Draught changes when she
passes from salt water into a dock of a different water density
c. The number of centimetres by which a vessel's maximum draught is calculated to
increase when she passes from salt water to fresh water
d. The allowance assigned by the Classification Society when the vessel is built, to
indicate the compensation that may be applied during topping off to allow for dock
water density

14. What do the letters "TPC" stand for?

 a. Tonnes per Centimetre
b. Tonnes per Centimetre Immersion
c. Tipping Centre
d. Trim per Centimetre

15. What do you understand by the term "luffing"?

a. The raising or lowering of a crane jib, moving the head of the crane and therefore a
suspended load horizontally towards or away from the crane
b. The combined movement of hoisting a load and slewing the crane, employed when
lifting a load from a dockside over and into a ship's hold, or vica versa
c. The initial phase of hoisting a load, where the crane wire and structure takes the
weight of a suspended load
d. The rotating of a ship's jib in a circular movement about the crane

16. What facility exists under the ISM Code for the provision of individual control measures for specific work-related
tasks?

a. The Permit to Work system

b. The due diligence clause
c. The definition of supervisory responsibilites
d. The documentation of individual job descriptions

17. What general background colour is used on warning signs which require a specific "mandatory" action, such as
one which might require the wearing of a safety harness during a particular work task?

a. Blue
b. Red
c. Green
d. Yellow

18. What is a "consignee"?

a. Any person, organization or government entitles to take delivery of a consignment

b. Any person, organization or government that prepares a consignment for shipment
c. Any person or company responsible for the operation of a vessel which carries a
consignment as freight
d. Any person or company which seeks to transport a consignment of cargo by sea

19. What is meant by the term "segregation"?

a. The planned, separated stowage of cargoes that may react dangerously with each
other in the event of leakage or other damage
b. The planned adjacent stowage of packaged goods, thereby confining a listed hazard
within the same area of the ship
c. The process of electronically transferring the data on cargoes loaded on a vessel
between the load port and the discharge port, such that import dcumentation is
prepared in advance of the vessel's arrival
d. The stowage of cargoes when calculated by a computerized load program

20. What is the name given to the special list of cargo loaded on board a ship that needs to be prepared for reporting
and other administrative purposes?

a. Manifest
b. Tally list
c. Load Summary
d. Stowage Plan
21. What is this?

a. The United Nations Packaging symbol used for Dangerous Goods

b. The United Nations stamp used for endorsing international shipping certificates
c. The identification stamp placed in the passport of a stowaway by an Immigration
Officer to indicate that his or her nationality is "unknown"
d. The "Unitary Nomenclature" symbol placed alongside the name of a dangerous cargo
in shipping documents to indicate that it appears on the list of approved international
shipping names

22. What kinds of checks must be carried out on slings, wires and other items of lifting equipment before they are
used in routine operations?

a. They must be visually inspected and ascertained, so far as is possible, as being in

good working order and fit for purpose
b. They do not need to be checked. They are checked under the vessel's planned
maintenance system every 12 months
c. They must be tested under load, to ensure they can bear the planned weight
d. They must be visually inspected to ensure that the ID and SWL marks are clearly
legible

23. What name is given to the inspection and measurements at the end of a bulk carrier's loading operation, that
determines the weight of cargo lifted based on the observed draughts, any list, hog or sag, the dock water density
and the calculation of ballast and consumables on the vessel?

a. Draught Survey
b. Departure Survey
c. Load Survey
d. Port Measurement

24. A bulk carrier is loading to complete at a draught of 10.00m when in salt water. She is currently floating in dock
water and the Dock Water Allowance (DWA) is 80 mm. Her maximum draught at completion of loading should be

a. 10.08 metres
b. 9.92 metres
c. 10.80 metres
d. 9.20 metres

25. The CO2 injection lines into the designated ballast hold of a bulk carrier are sealed

a. Prior to ballasting the hold

b. When testing the CO2 system
c. When carrying non-inflammable cargoes
d. When handling cargoes that emit dust

26. It is common practice on bulk carriers to fill only one set of ballast tanks at any one time so as to
 a. Ensure that free surfaces in ballast tanks do not become excessive during the
ballasting operation
b. Keep the vessel trimmed by the stern at all times during loading
c. Ensure that bending moments do not become excessive
d. Prevent excessive list from developing

27. Before a bulk carrier can load a full cargo of grain, what additional stability information is required?

a. Grain loading conditions must be shown and the vessel is in possession of a

Document of Authorization
b. No additional conditions are required to be shown
c. A bulk carrier cannot load a grain cargo
d. The information is in a standard stability book should be sufficient to calculate a grain
condition

28. Reserve Buoyancy is:

a. The buoyancy provided by all enclosed spaces above the waterline

b. The buoyancy provided by all spaces above the waterline
c. The residual buoyancy at an angle of loll
d. The residual buoyancy at the maximum righting lever

29. The first line of defence against flooding of a bulk carrier is its:

a. Shell plating
b. Pipe outlets
c. Pipe outlets
d. Machinery spaces

30. To withstand flooding of any one cargo hold, a bulk carrier constructed after 1 July 1999 can be loaded to:

a. To withstand flooding of any one cargo hold

b. The Tropical load line
c. The Winter load line
d. The Winter North Atlantic load line

31. What is of utmost concern when steel cargoes are carried in a bulk carrier?

a. Bending moments being greatly exceeded in the seagoing condition

b. The springing of hatch cleats as the vessel flexes due to torsional stresses
c. Deformation due to torsional stresses
d. A relatively small range of stability as compared to carrying grain

32. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of repose of 45 degrees; what does
this indicate?

a. The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift

b. The cargo pile will be very unstable
c. The cargo should not be accepted to load

33. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne (m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are to be
loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?

a. 1500 cubic metres ( m3)

b. 15000 cubic metres (m3)
c. 1000 cubic metres

34. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer calculates 9 500 tonnes have
 been loaded; what should the Master do?

a. Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P& I Club

representative
b. Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA)
c. Bills of Lading to be signed "Clean" by Master.

35. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; the coal is declared as having a high moisture content
(but less than the transportable moisture Limit (TML)); what must the Master ensure?

a. All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water logged; the bilges
can then be pumped out.
b. The bilges must not be pumped out
c. The bilges must be pumped out regularly

36. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the

Chief Officer to be rusted; what must the Master ensure?

a. Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference numbers of the rusty coils and so make
the Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
b. No action needs to be taken.
c. Steel coils to be discharged

37. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the transportable moisture limit of
the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master do?

a. Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the carriage of
cargo which may liquefy
b. Load the cargo as the moisture limits are within acceptable limits
c. Load cargo and ventilate on passage to remove water

38. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a transportable moisture limit of
18, what should the Master do?

a. Load the cargo as the moisture content is within acceptable limits

b. Refuse to load the cargo as the moisture content is outside acceptable limits
c. Seek advice from charterers and owners

39. What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk?

a. Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon monoxide in cargo and communicating

spaces
b. Possible dust explosion due to excessive ventilation
c. Spontaneous combustion and self-heating

40. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose?

a. Liable to shift
b. Unlikely to shift
c. Always stable

41. What is the primary hazard associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a Bulk Carrier?

a. The only possible hazard is associated with ingress of water into the hold and a loss
of stability
b. There are no special hazards associated with this cargo
c. This cargo maybe liable to spontaneous combustion
42. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow characteristics are dependant on what criteria?

a. The volume of air in the cargo

b. The volume of water in the cargo
c. They are fixed and the cargo has a stowage factor of 0.5 cubic metres/tone

43. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate instruments to measure the
concentration of what gases within the cargo space?

a. The gases specified in all of these answers

b. The concentration of Methane only
c. The concentration of Oxygen only

44. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates?

a. When he is fully satisfied that the actual moisture content of the cargo is less than
the Transportable Moisture Limit (TML)
b. Once the actual moisture content of the cargo has been declared by the shipper
c. As soon as the cargo holds have been passed for loading

45. A bulk carrier has to complete loading at a draft of 10 metres. The current amidship drafts are 9.96 metres (port
side) and 9.98 metres (starboard side). The sinkage remaining to maximum draft is:

a. 0.03 metres
b. 0.30 metres
c. 0.02 metres
d. 0.04 metres

46. Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and completed on oil tankers of

a. 150 gross tonnes and above

b. 500 gross tonnes and above
c. 1000 gross tonnes and above
d. 1500 gross tonnes and above

47. a special list of cargo loaded on a ship that needs to be prepared for reporting and other administrative purposes
is called ?

a. Manifest
b. Tally list
c. Load Summary
d. Stowage Plan

48. What the meaning of "Fresh Water Allowance"?

a. The number of millimetres by which a vessel's True Mean Draught changes when
shepasses from salt water to fresh water, or vica versa
b. The number of millimetres by which a vessel's True Mean Draught changes when
shepasses from salt water into a dock of a different water density
c. . The number of centimetres by which a vessel's maximum draught is calculated to
increasewhen she passes from salt water to fresh water
d. The allowance assigned by the Classification Society when the vessel is built, to
indicate thecompensation that may be applied during topping off to allow for dock
water density

49. One of the efforts to avoid rusting on the walls of the loading tank or

ballast are:
 a. Smearing with oil
b. Doing coating
c. Don't fill the tank with seawater
d. All wrong

50. Facilities for providing individual control measures for certain work-related tasks that fall under the ISM Code are

a. The Permit to Work system

b. The due diligence clause
c. The definition of supervisory responsibilites
d. The documentation of individual job descriptions

51. The criteria that must be met when loading cement bulk cargo, specific gravity and flow characteristics are

a. The volume of air in the cargo

b. The volume of water in the cargo
c. They are fixed and the cargo has a stowage factor of 0.5 cubic metres/tone
d. The volume of the cargo

52. What the meaning of Reserve Buoyancy ?

a. The buoyancy provided by all enclosed spaces above the waterline

b. The buoyancy provided by all spaces above the waterline
c. The residual buoyancy at an angle of loll
d. The residual buoyancy at the maximum righting lever

53. In transporting wood pellets in bulk, what hazards are involved?

a. Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon monoxide in cargo and communicating

spaces
b. Possible dust explosion due to excessive ventilation
c. Spontaneous combustion and self-heating
d. I don't know

54. what gas concentration is measured when loading Coal bulk cargo in cargo?

a. The gases specified in all of these answers

b. The concentration of Methane only
c. The concentration of Oxygen only
d. The concentration of gas

55. What should the Master make sure when a bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and the number of rolls recorded by
the Chief Officer is rusty?

a. Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference numbers of the rusty coils and so make
the Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
b. No action needs to be taken
c. Steel coils to be discharged
d. I don't know

56. Cargo hold ventilator grill works for ?

a. Prevent any sparks from entering the hold space

b. Prevent any large objects from falling into the hold
c. Prevent stowaways from entering the hold via the ventilator trunking
d. Protect the ship’s crew from pirates in case of an attack on the vessel

57. How much liferaft capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than 85meters in length ?
 a. 100% of the complement if it can be readily launched on either side of the ship. If it
cannot be readily launched on either side, 100% must be provided on each side
b. 50% of the complement on each side of the ship
c. 25% of the complement on each side of the ship
d. 75% of the complement on each side of the ship

58. Which includes the principle of loading, except:

a. protect cargo
b. loading and unloading quickly and regularly, systematically
c. watch over pirates
d. . protect the crew

59. What is meant by bulk Grain load having a low angle of repose is

a. Liable to shift
b. Unlikely to shift
c. Always stable
d. Fix

60. When loading coal on a Bulk Carrier, the vessel should be provided with

a. Means for measuring cargo temperatures

b. Ramneck tapes to seal the cargo holds and deck stores
c. A glass hydrometer for the measurement of water content in the cargo
d. Means for drawing cargo samples

61. What does ullage mean?

a. distance between the surface of the load and the roof of the tank (Top Tank)
b. distance between the bottom of the tank (measuring table) to the surface of the load
c. the distance between the surface of the water and the keel of the ship
d. the distance between the water surface and the ship's main deck

62. Determination of embossed gastric markings placed on the right and left sides of the

middle of the ship (amidship), must be in accordance with

a. Solas 1974
b. STCW 1978
c. LLC 1966
d. Marpol 73/38

63. Sinkage remaining to maximum draft A bulk carrier that must complete loading at a draft of 10 meters. The
current midline draft of the vessel is 9.96 meters (left side) and 9.98 meters (right side). Is?

a. 0.03 metres
b. 0.30 metres
c. 0.02 metres
d. 0.04 metres

64. Coal to be loaded in Balikpapan for China is declared to have a high moisture content (but less than the
Transportable Moisture Limit (TML)); what should the Master make sure?

a. The bilges must be pumped out regularly

b. The bilges must not be pumped out
c. All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water logged; the bilges can then be
pumped out
d. Report to port authority
65. The main concerns when steel cargo is transported in bulk carriers are?

a. Deformation due to torsional stresses

b. The springing of hatch cleats as the vessel flexes due to torsional stresses
c. Bending moments being greatly exceeded in the seagoing condition
d. A relatively small range of stability as compared to carrying grain

66. A ship that is in a Stiff condition has the characteristics of

a. Weight on the bottom

b. Shaking and returning slowly
c. Very Comfortable
d. everything is correct

67. what is meant by "over stowage cargo"?

a. a condition in which a cargo is carried past the port of unloading, due to negligence in
unloading
b. the situation in which a cargo will be unloaded is at the bottom of the next port cargo
c. the delay in loading and unloading, because it was late in one of the holds
d. . claim for compensation submitted by the recipient of the goods, because the goods
are damaged or lacking

68. The following are the requirements for ships that will carry chemical cargo, except

a. Safety equipment available on board

b. Special ballasting system
c. Double hull
d. Double bottom

69. which can damage the hydraulic system of the hatch cover of the bulk carrier ?

a. Dust and cargo particles around the piston seals

b. Repeated hatch cover operations
c. Extreme weather conditions
d. Ice accretion on piston jackets

70. TPC is acronym from ?

a. Trim per Centimetre

b. Tonnes per Centimetre Immersion
c. Tipping Centre
d. Tonnes per Centimetre

71. what the Master should do when A bulk cargo of heavy metal concentrate has a moisture content of 16 and a
transportable humidity limit of 18 ?

a. Load the cargo as the moisture content is within acceptable limits

b. Refuse to load the cargo as the moisture content is outside acceptable limits
c. Seek advice from charterers and owners
d. I don't know

72. What is not included in the contents of the IMDG-Code Supplement book ?

a. Dangerous Good List

b. MFAG
c. Reporting Procedure
d. AIS
73. A tank used for ship ballast where the tank is completely separated from the cargo tanks and fuel system on
board the ship is…

a. Clean Ballast Tank

b. Segregated ballast tanks
c. Double bottom tank
d. All wrong

74. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer calculates9 500 tonnes have
been loaded; what should the Master do?

a. Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P& I Club representative
b. Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA
c. . Bills of Lading to be signed "Clean" by Master
d. . I don't know

75. A condition when the total concentration of cargo weight is concentrated at the ends of the ship (bow and stern)
is called

a. Leaking
b. Hogging
c. Sagging
d. Trim

76. What is meant by the term "segregation"?

a. The planned, separated stowage of cargoes that may react dangerously with each
other inthe event of leakage or other damage
b. The planned adjacent stowage of packaged goods, thereby confining a listed hazard
withinthe same area of the ship
c. The process of electronically transferring the data on cargoes loaded on a vessel
betweenthe load port and the discharge port, such that import dcumentation is
prepared in advanceof the vessel's arrival
d. The stowage of cargoes when calculated by a computerized load program

77. The perforated plate cover of the cargo hatch bilges are normally covered with burlap, so as

a. To protect the plates from stevedore damage

b. To prevent small particles of cargo draining into the bilges
c. To prevent drainage of liquefied cargo into the bilges
d. To allow water and large particles of cargo to drain into the bilges

78. The meaning of the Hatch List is

a. A list of items in each hold

b. Loading list price
c. List of load types loaded
d. Load destination list

79. During the passage of methane gas and carbon monoxide from bulk coal cargoes are measured by

a. Partially opening the hatch covers and lowering the measuring sensors
b. Using the cargo hold sounding pipes
c. Partially opening the hatch covers and lowering the measuring sensors
d. Using the approved sampling ports fitted on each hatch coaming

80. Which are the main hazards associated with the transportation of bulk salt cargo on the Bulk Carrier are ?
 a. The only possible hazard is associated with ingress of water into the hold and a loss
ofstability
b. There are no special hazards associated with this cargo
c. This cargo maybe liable to spontaneous combustion
d. I don't know

81. Common background colors used on warning signs that require certain "mandatory" actions, such as actions that
may require wearing a seat belt during certain work tasks are ?

a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Green
d. Blue

82. Pertamax is a type of cargo that is flammable, so in the IMDG-code it is included in……

a. class 1
b. class 3
c. class 2
d. class 4

83. In general, the hatch opening/closing system is viewed from the way it works The system is divided into:

a. Lifted hatch opening and closing system

b. Driven and adjustable hatch opening and closing system
c. Folding and reclining hatch opening and closing system
d. Everything is correct

84. .Before entering the enclosed space, there are several things that must be considered, namely:

a. Lighting
b. Ventilation
c. Free from gas
d. Everything is correct

85. IMSBC Code is acronym from ?

a. International Maritime Safety of Bulk Carriers Code

b. The Maritime Safety Bulk Carrier Code
c. International Marine Solid Breakbulk Carriage Code
d. The International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code

86. The drain pipe covers fitted on the hatch coamings of a bulk carrier are secured

a. In the event of a cargo hold fire

b. After securing the hatch covers
c. When heavy weather is expected
d. During the ballast passage

87. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of repose of 45degrees; what does this
indicate?

a. The cargo should not be accepted to load

b. The cargo pile will be very unstable
c. The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
d. The cargo not accepted
88. Cargo disposal system in bulk cement carrier is

a. Using its own pumping system and equipment

b. Using shore side cargo gear
c. Using grabs provided by the terminal operator
d. By suction

89. What is this?

a. The United Nations Packaging symbol used for Dangerous Goods

b. The United Nations stamp used for endorsing international shipping certificates
c. The identification stamp placed in the passport of a stowaway by an Immigration
Officer toindicate that his or her nationality is "unknown"
d. The "Unitary Nomenclature" symbol placed alongside the name of a dangerous cargo
inshipping documents to indicate that it appears on the list of approved international
shippingnames

90. FEU is acronym from ?

a. Fourteenfoot equivalent units

b. Fourtyfoot equivalent units
c. Fourtyfivefoot equivalent units
d. Fourfoot equivalent units
 QUESTION LIST

Level : ANT III

Function : Function 2
Competency : Monitor the loading, stowage, securing, care during the voyage and the unloading

1. A bulk carrier loading to summer marks would load to

a. The top of the summer load line mark

b. The bottom of the summer load line mark
c. The exact centre of the summer load line mark
d. The winter mark to allow for additional safety

2. A good indicator of the possibility of cargo damage on a bulk carrier is

a. The presence of hatch cover sealing tapes

b. Commencing discharge without presentation of bills of lading
c. Commencing discharge in the absence of a cargo surveyor
d. Disallowing cargo interests on board

3. After a fresh water rinse, presence of salt in the hold of a bulk carrier can be tested

a. By carrying out silver nitrate tests which should turn milky in the presence of
chlorides
b. By carrying our Magnesium Chloride tests which should turn milky in the presence of
chlorides
c. By carrying our Magnesium Sulphate tests which should turn milky in the presence of
salt
d. Using silver nitrate which should remain colourless in the presence of salt

4. If the cargo loading rate on a bulk carrier exceeds the de-ballasting rate and thereby affecting the hull stresses,
the OOW must

a. Notify the port state authority with whom the loading plan has been lodged
b. Notify the terminal representative and ask him to stop loading for a while
c. Notify the stevedoring foreman and ask him to stop loading for a while
d. Lodge note of protest with the terminal for an excessive loading rate

5. It is common practice for all bulk carriers to be trimmed and levelled on completion of loading, so as to:

a. Reduce the possibilities of the cargo shifting at sea

b. Assist in the subsequent discharge of cargo
c. Reduce the risk of cargo damage on passage
d. Prevent flammable gasses being generated

6. The maximum possibility of sea water entering the cargo hold of a bulk carrier is through:
 a. Hatch covers and coamings
b. Cargo hold bilges
c. Topside tank drop valves
d. Shell plating

7. When loading, it is recommended not to drop iron ore cargo from a height into the cargo hold bottom because this
can cause:

a. Damage to the tank top and double bottom internals

b. Damage to the vessels shell plating
c. Crack to develop around hatch camings
d. Ship Stresses (Bending Moments and Shearing Forces) to exceed

8. A cargo of steel swarf and borings (waste steel material from industrial processes) carried on a Bulk Carrier is
particularly liable to?

a. Oxygen depletion in the cargo space and self-heating of the cargo

b. Production of carbon monoxide and oxygen
c. A rise in methane gas levels
d. Cargo sweat and reduced carbon dioxide levels

9. Bulk coal cargoes may produce methane and carbon monoxide gases, their main feature being that both these
gases are

a. Flammable and lighter than air

b. Flammable and heavier than air
c. Non-flammable and lighter than air
d. Non-flammable and heavier than air

10. Cargo sweat is generally caused when

a. Warm and moist air is introduced into a cooler cargo hold

b. Warm air is introduced into the cargo hold
c. Warm, dry air is introduced into the cargo hold
d. Cold and moist air is introduced into a warm cargo hold

11. Carrying coal with a high sulphur content in bulk could result in

a. Corrosion of steelwork in the cargo holds if the cargo becomes wet

b. Spontaneous combustion leading to a large outbreak of fire
c. A possible shift of cargo and loss of stability
d. Evolution of methane gases resulting in fire and explosion

12. The main problem when a dry bulk cargo develops a flow state is that

a. The cargo shifts easily causing major stability problems

b. The cargo may produce carbon dioxide gas
c. The cargo pile will cause release of methane gas
d. The cargo may block up bilges leading to balk flow of water into the hold space

13. Ventilation of steel cargoes carried on a bulk carrier should be carried out

a. When atmospheric air temperature is falling

b. When passing from a cool to a relatively warm climate
c. When atmospheric air temperature is rising
d. When passing from a warm climate to a warmer climate
14. When carrying dry bulk cargoes, a low angle of repose indicates that

a. The cargo is more liable to shift than cargo with a high angle of repose
b. The cargo is stable in all situations
c. The cargo Is liable to self-heat
d. The cargo is unlikely to shift

15. With respect to carriage of heavy metal cargoes in bulk, the term liquefaction means that

a. The cargo may suffer moisture migration and become semi-liquid near the top of the
stow
b. The cargo will always remain in a very dry state and will not reach a flow state
c. The cargo may self-heat on voyage, and may be liable to flow around the hold bottom
d. Depending on the atmospheric temperature, cargo will solidify or liquefy accordingly

16. A Combination Carrier is:

a. A ship designed to carry either oil or solid bulk cargoes.

b. A ship designed to carry all types of cargoes.
c. A ship designed to carry bulk cargoes in alternate holds.
d. A general cargo ship.

17. A partly loaded bulk cargo space, whilst the vessel is at sea, may be entered:

a. Under no circumstances except possibly in an emergency.

b. At any time.
c. For hatch cleaning purposes only.
d. On instructions from the CPO (Bosun).

18. A stevedore is working in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier while completing discharge of a concentrate cargo. You
suddenly notice that he appears to be taken ill. You should:

a. Assume problem due to lack of oxygen and/or toxic gas and rescue with self-
contained breathing apparatus.
b. Immediately enter space and give first aid.
c. Assume possible heart attack and give CPR.
d. Ignore the situation as the foreman stevedore will deal with this situation.

19. After completion of cleaning and testing of the bilge spaces in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier, it should be checked
that the:

a. Drain plate over bilge has been fitted and then covered with burlap.
b. Bilge space has been left open for the voyage.
c. Bilge space has been completely sealed off with a strong sealant.
d. Bilge space has been cement washed and then totally sealed off.

20. After completion of discharging coal with a high sulphur content from a bulk carrier, cargo holds should be
inspected and checked for:
 a. Areas of corrosion.
b. Signs of fatigue and buckling.
c. Signs of cracking and denting.
d. Areas where cargo may be sticking to the walls of the hold, prior to water washing.

21. After discharge of a bulk cargo by grabs and bulldozers (bob cats), you should carefully check:

a. Access ladders for any signs of damage.

b. Hold lighting for damage to the bulbs and holder device.
c. Beam knees and upper hoppers for bending and cracks.
d. Corrugated bulkheads for signs of dents.

22. Before starting to ballast double bottom tanks with sea water, the officer responsible for the operation must
ensure that:

a. Correct valves have been opened, air ventilators are open and ballasting plan has
been agreed.
b. Cargo spaces are empty of cargo, and the bilges have been covered with burlap.
c. All hatch covers are secured for sea going condition.
d. After peak tank and fore peak tank have been filled prior to carrying out the ballasting
operation.

23. Cargo holds are usually swept completely prior to washing on a bulk carrier. This is carried out so that:

a. Cargo residues will not clog the bilge lines and associated suctions and valves.
b. Cargo residues will not be pumped overboard.
c. The vessel remains in compliance with the necessary provisions of MARPOL.
d. The vessel remains in compliance with the company's safety management system.

24. During bulk cargo operations, it is required by International regulations that:

a. Ship's personnel must continuously monitor cargo operations.

b. The terminal representative must continuously monitor cargo operations.
c. The Supercargo must continuously monitor cargo operations.
d. Ship's personnel must monitor cargo operations as and when required to do so.

25. For which of the following reasons would a bulk carrier cargo hold inspection be most likely to fail?

a. Loose rust all around the cargo hold

b. Damaged paint on the ships steel structure
c. Hardened rust spots on shell plating
d. Rust stained hopper tank plating

26. In a side rolling hatch cover arrangement of a bulk carrier, wedging ensures that:

a. The compression bar on one panel fits against the seal on the opposite panel.
b. The lowering of the panels for closing is easily conducted.
c. The automatic cleating of hatch cover panels is carried out.
d. The side panels will only move on the roller bars without slipping off.

27. It is important to remove all traces of salt after washing the cargo holds of a bulk carrier, because:

a. Salt encourages the corrosion of steelwork.

b. Salt will contaminate the next bulk cargo.
c. If this is not done, the hatch space may not be able to be painted properly during the voyage.
d. If this is not done, surveyors at the load port will be unable to properly inspect the cargo holds.
28. Prior to opening side-rolling hatch covers of a bulk carrier, it must be ensured that:

a. Cross wedges have been removed.

b. The wheels have been raised up to the wheel track.
c. Hatch rollers are turning freely.
d. Pot lifts are working.

29. Prior to starting the hatch cleaning operations on a bulk carrier, a responsible officer of the ship must carry out a:

a. Risk Assessment, Permit to work /enter and tool-box talk.

b. Thorough check on the ships decks to secure any tools and hoses lying around.
c. Crew familiarisation with the hatch cover opening and shutting procedures.
d. Confirmation of the availability of manpower on the bridge and in the engine room.

30. The most practical means for inspection of the upper parts of a cargo hold in a bulk carrier is by the use of:

a. A cherry picker.
b. High rise scaffolding.
c. Deck crane and basket.
d. Upper platform of the ships Australian ladder.

31. Under international regulations entries be made with regard to the disposal of bulk cargo residues into the sea in
the ships:

a. Garbage record book.

b. Official log book.
c. Deck log book.
d. Cargo record book.

32. Upon completion of ballasting operations on a bulk carrier, it must be ensured that:

a. All valves have been closed, tank ventilators are in open position and sounding pipe
caps replaced.
b. All valves have been closed and tank ventilators are kept in closed position.
c. All valves and lines have been left in a fully open condition.
d. Sounding pipe caps have been left in an open condition to prevent any air pressure
from building up.

33. Upon completion of discharging cargo on a bulk carrier by using grabs, the most important item to check before
closing a hatch cover is to:

a. Check that hatch coaming and sealing bar have not been damaged by grab contact
b. Confirm that the vessel trimmed even keel
c. Make sure that the hold ventilators have been locked into the open position
d. Confirm that all cargo holds are empty of cargo and vessel is ready to sail

34. When ballasting double-bottom tanks on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer must:

a. Avoid ballasting all tanks together including fore peak tank (FP) and after peak (AP)
tank.
b. Commence ballasting at a slow rate prior increasing to a full pumping rate.
c. Confirm 100% tank filled up by overflowing them through the air pipe.
d. Sound the tank every 30 minutes to ensure safety of the ballasting operation.

35. When ballasting double-bottom tanks on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer must:
 a. Avoid ballasting all tanks together including fore peak tank (FP) and after peak (AP)
tank.
b. Commence ballasting at a slow rate prior increasing to a full pumping rate.
c. Confirm 100% tank filled up by overflowing them through the air pipe.
d. Sound the tank every 30 minutes to ensure safety of the ballasting operation.

36. When carrying high sulphur coal on a bulk carrier, the areas of a cargo hold that are most prone to corrosion are:

a. Steelwork with which wet cargo is in contact.

b. All steelwork with which the cargo is in contact.
c. Steelwork with which dry cargo is in contact.
d. Sulphur, dry or wet, does not cause corrosion to ships steelwork.

37. When preparing a previously ballasted hold of a bulk carrier for cargo, it must be checked that:

a. The ballast lines must be blanked off and the bilge lines opened and tested.
b. Heating coils are fitted inside the hatch and in working condition.
c. Paint coating on all bulkheads has been fully re- painted.
d. All rust spots are coated with epoxy paint to prevent contact of rust with the cargo.

38. With a bulk ship in port, when it would it normally be permissible allowed to start painting over-side only after:

a. The necessary permission has been obtained from the port authority.
b. Vessel has been fully berthed and all lines are fast.
c. Cargo operations have started.
d. Chief officer has given a written permission to the bosun to start the work.

39. You have just witnessed a crew member collapse inside a cargo hold. You should:

a. Raise the alarm and wait for the rescue party to arrive.
b. Enter the hold and try to rescue the person.
c. Throw a life line to him and ask him to quickly climb up.
d. Enter the compartment while holding your breath and try to pass him the emergency
escape breathing device.

40. To conform with "best practise", can you drive a crane and stand-by for a colleague who has entered a cargo tank
at the same time?

a. No.
b. Yes.
c. Yes, if I have radio contact with the man inside the tank.
d. Normally no, but if we are in a hurry to get lots of jobs done before entering port and
the Chief Mate know about it, then it is alright to do so.

41. What do the letters IMDG stand for?

a. International Maritime Dangerous Goods.

b. International Marine Dangers Group.
c. Interactive Maritime Dangerous Goods.
d. International Monitoring Department (Geopolitics)

42. What do you understand by the term "Slewing"?

a. Turning or rotating a crane boom.

b. Raising or lowering a crane boom.
c. Hoisting or lowering a load.
d. Making a (travelling) crane move along its rails.
43. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SWL" as stamped on lifting gear around the ship?

a. Safe Working Load.

b. Single Winch Load.
c. Safe Winch Load.
d. Single Working Load.

44. What is shown in the picture, a crane or a derrick using what loading gear?

a. A deck crane using grabs.

b. A sderrick uing grabs
c. A deck crane using a bucket loader
d. A derrick used as a union purchase

45. What are the people probably doing in the picture?

a. The people are hosing down the cargo hold to clean it.
b. The people are pressure testing the hull plating
c. The people are fighting a fire
d. The people are playing with water

46. The most important monitoring when carrying refrigerated cargo is?

a. . cargo samples recorded dairy

b. daily checks on cargo packaging
c. for CO2 build up
d. regular temperature checks

47. Cleaning the cargo area is very important before washing for ?

a. Cargo residues will not clog the bilge lines and associated suctions and valves
b. Cargo residues will not be pumped overboard
c. The vessel remains in compliance with the necessary provisions of MARPOL
d. The vessel remains in compliance with the company's safety management system

48. Usual practice to carry out fresh water washing after sea water washing before loading cargo of steel products for
?

a. Remove all traces of salt that could possibly contaminate the steel cargo
b. Prevent rusting of paint coating of the cargo hold.
c. Maintain a clean and salt free air inside the hold if required for man-entry
d. Assist in drying the hold space at a faster than normal rate

49. Which must be ensured after completing ballast operations on bulk carriers are

a. All valves have been closed, tank ventilators are in open position and sounding pipe
capscreplaced.
b. All valves have been closed and tank ventilators are kept in closed position
c. All valves and lines have been left in a fully open condition
d. Sounding pipe caps have been left in an open condition to prevent any air pressure
frombuilding up.

50. which must be inspected after completion of removing coal with high sulfur content in cargo hold
 a. Areas of corrosion
b. Signs of fatigue and buckling.
c. Signs of cracking and denting
d. Areas where cargo may be sticking to the walls of the hold, prior to water washing

51. The recommended position of storing steel wire rod coils on bulk carriers is ?

a. With their cores aligned fore and aft

b. With their cores aligned athwartships
c. With their cores aligned vertically
d. With their cores aligned alternately fore and aft and athwartships

52. What should be checked before starting ballasting on a bulk carrier in very cold conditions is

a. All air ventilators are open and free from ice build- up.
b. All the air ventilator are fully pipes are closed.
c. All ice accretion on the main deck and associated structures is removed
d. All the air pipes and sounding pipes are in open condition

53. MV. INTAN DAYA 8 which loaded coal departed from Balikpapan to Surabaya. The temperature of the bulk coal
cargo during the voyage was recorded above 55 degrees Celsius,

The recommended procedure is to

a. Seal the hold and monitor the cargo using suitable instruments
b. Use fire fighting water in the cargo space
c. Notify the ship owner and/or charterer and open the hatch covers to cool the cargo
d. Commence ventilation of the hold space to cool the cargo

54. If the cargo area is centered on the top of the ship it will have a negative GM. The impact of negative GM is

a. The ship will capsize if it gets a force from outside

b. . The ship may break
c. The ship is in a hogging position
d. Does not affect the ship

55. MARPOL classified the used dunnage of a bulk carrier as ?

a. Garbage
b. No specific classification
c. . Cargo residue
d. . Cargo waste

56. The precautions to be taken for the safety of personnel when very dusty Cargo is to be loaded in bulk on your ship
are

a. Ensure that all cranes, deck storerooms etc. are fully closed to prevent entry of dust.
b. . Ensure that there is continuous running deck water to wash away the dust instantly
c. Ensure that no personnel are allowed on the ships deck during the loading
d. Carry on with your duties as it is normal to have dust on the deck of a bulk carrier.

57. .When the longitudinal distribution of cargo is concentrated in the middle, then the condition of the ship is called

a. Tender
b. Stiff
c. Hogging
d. Sagging
58. .Which cargo is most likely to melt due to compression and/or vibration when carried in bulk is

a. Iron ore concentrates

b. Wheat
c. Maize
d. Urea

59. .Mate receipt document in loading means ?

a. Receipt of cargo on board

b. Statement letter from the commander I
c. Certificate made by the first officer
d. Loading order for the first officer

60. Small-sized loads that can be arranged or placed between other large loads or as insertion loads are called

a. Broken Stowge
b. Dunnuge
c. Stowage Factor
d. Cargo Fillers

61. The main problem when a dry bulk cargo develops a flow state is that

a. The cargo shifts easily causing major stability problems

b. . The cargo may produce carbon dioxide gas
c. The cargo pile will cause release of methane gas
d. . The cargo may block up bilges leading to balk flow of water into the hold space

62. What is the definition of a hatch list?

a. Is the accumulation of a type of cargo in large quantities in one hold

b. It is a cargo that should be unloaded at the lowest port of destination to the next port
c. A cargo that should be unloaded at one port is blocked by the cargo above it
d. List of cargoes in the relevant hold

63. In loading, Over stowage means

a. Loads that should be unloaded at a port

b. Loads that should be unloaded at a destination port but are carried to the next port
c. Damage to the load due to moving or shifting
d. Loads hidden under sewer covers

64. The most important act before entering a enclosed space and checking the cargo space is ?

a. The necessary permits, based on valid atmospheric and other applicable tests
b. Written instructions from the Chief Officer on what to check in the hold
c. Emergency equipment at the after end of the maindeck
d. A list of the items stowed in the applicable hold, extracted from the Cargo manifest,
must be available for reference during the check

65. What the meaning of Chafage ?

a. Percentage of hold space that cannot be filled by cargo because of the shape and
type of cargo
b. Special loads that require special handling
c. Damage to the load due to moving or shifting from its place
d. . Loads hidden under sewer covers
66. The factors causing the occurrence of broken stowage as below are, except

a. Loading time
b. Charge form
c. Loading space shape
d. Load type

67. The things that required under International regulations during cargo watch keeping on a bulk carrier

a. The vessel's draughts must be frequently checked and recorded

b. The quantity of cargo loaded or discharged must be recorded at hourly intervals
c. Weather conditions must be recorded every hour
d. The number of stevedores working at each hatch must be recorded

68. What the officer in charge should do before commencing hold-cleaning operations on a bulk carrier ?

a. Risk Assessment, Permit to work /enter and tool-box talk

b. Thorough check on the ships decks to secure any tools and hoses lying around
c. Crew familiarisation with the hatch cover opening and shutting procedures
d. Confirmation of the availability of manpower on the bridge and in the engine room

69. What is meant by Limber boards in Permanent dunnage ?

a. Fixed application mounted on top of tank top or bottom of hatch

b. Fixed application mounted above hatch gutters
c. Fixed applications installed to cover pipes or for walls directly adjacent to the engine
room
d. Sweat blades are side-mounted fixed applications in the hold.

70. The application of permanent (permanent dunnage) installed on the bottom of the hatch or above the ship's tank
top is

a. Sweat batten
b. floor ceiling
c. Lumberboard
d. wooden heating

71. Which of the following is not a primary purpose for using dunnage?

a. To protect cargo from the effects of swea

b. To provide cargo segregation
c. To prevent chafage on cargo
d. To provide ventilation circulation

72. What should you know about the emergency stops on deck?

a. Where they are located and how to operate them

b. Where the re-sets are and how to re-set them
c. How to disconnect or over-ride them for routine work
d. I do not need to know anything about the emergency stops. It's only the officers
whooperate them

73. What must be ensured Before starting the ballasting of the double bottom tank with seawater is ?

a. Correct valves have been opened, air ventilators are open and ballasting plan has beenagreed
b. Cargo spaces are empty of cargo, and the bilges have been covered with burlap
c. All hatch covers are secured for sea going condition
d. After peak tank and fore peak tank have been filled prior to carrying out the ballastingoperation
74. The effect of coal with a high sulfur content is?

a. Corrosion of steelwork in the cargo holds if the cargo becomes wet

b. Spontaneous combustion leading to a large outbreak of fire
c. A possible shift of cargo and loss of stability
d. Evolution of methane gases resulting in fire and explosion

75. A material that is placed between cargoes, or between cargo and the floor/wall of the ship's hatch, which
functions as a support for cargo to protect the cargo is ?

a. Wire Clip
b. Turnbuckle
c. Dunnage
d. Chain

76. The weight a vessel can carry is called the

a. Registered Tonnage
b. Deadweight
c. Load Displacement
d. Gross Tonnage

77. What do you understand by the term "Hoist"?

a. Turning or rotating a crane boom

b. Raising or lowering a crane boom
c. Hoisting a load
d. Making a (travelling) crane move along its rails

78. What is the first action to be taken when a port temperature test reveals a fire in a waiting room filled with coal?

a. Close all air ventilators and other openings to the hold in question

b. Fill the hold with water

c. Open the hatches and cover the top of the cargo by foam
d. Call for assistance from other ships or rescue vessels

79. When on a ship the longitudinal distribution of cargo is concentrated at the fore and aft ends. This condition is
known as?

a. Tender
b. Stiff
c. Hogging
d. Sagging

80. Dangerous cargo on a pallet should be stowed

a. on deck
b. In a secure container
c. below deck aft
d. below deck ford

81. Containers on Deck are secured

a. if heavy weather is forecast

b. only if containing cargo
c. with twistlocks, rods and chains
d. up to the second stack
82. What crane operators must ensure during cargo operations ?

a. Crane controls are operational, limit switches are functioning properly and weights to
belifted are within the SWL of the crane
b. The crane control operates, the limit switch works fine, and but the weight must lifted
not inside the crane SWL

c. All Planned Maintenance items are completed prior use and the crane is certified by
theChief Engineer in good working condition
d. Crew is aware of the operator’s loading plan, there is a signalman on standby duty
near thegangway and terminal has been informed of the crane usage in port

83. Full reference and details relating to dangerous goods will be found in which document?

a. ISM Guidelines
b. . “M” Notices
c. Stowage plan
d. IMDG Code

84. Bill of lading could be wich of the ff :

a. a contract
b. a receipt
c. a negotiable instrument
d. all of these

85. The charter party that does not specify the kind of cargo or port of destination is :

a. fixed charter
b. blind charter
c. open charter
d. time charter

86. Sea trade which is not confined to any particular route or harbor which operates to all or any port is :

a. voyage charter
b. tramping
c. time charter
d. ocean charter

87. A detailed statement of a vessel's cargo which includes all data regarding the shipper, consignee and cargo
quantity :

a. cargo manifest
b. cargo list
c. bill of lading
d. mate's receipt

88. The period during which a vessel is detained until free from any contagious diseases among the crew is :

a. detention
b. fumigation
c. demurrage
d. quarantine

89. The loadline disc according to regulation 5 of the international loadline convention of 1966,should have an outside
diameter of :
 a. 300mm
b. 150mm
c. 200mm
d. 280mm

90. Monies paid by the shipowner to the charterer for laytime saved is :

a. claims
b. dispatch
c. demurrage
d. savings
 QUESTION LIST

Level : ANT III

Function : Function 3
Competency : Monitor compliance with legislative requirements

1. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea voyage?

a. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the
ballast voyage.
b. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the
ballast voyage.
c. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full cargo on the
ballast voyage.
d. There isn’t any restrictions of pumping sludge from ships outside special areas

2. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do?

a. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water

b. Absorb the oil for easy removal
c. Remove the oil from the water
d. Contain the oil within a small area

3. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal?

a. Not permissible any where.

b. 100 n.m. from shore line.
c. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL).
d. In coastal waters.

4. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues?

a. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
b. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black Sea where it
is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
c. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Black Sea
where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
d. There isn’t any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil
residues

5. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what?

a. Plugging the scuppers

b. Driving wooden plugs into the vents
c. Closing the lids on the vents
d. Plugging the sounding pipes

6. The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

a. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill

b. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10 gallons of oil
c. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible
d. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and chargedv
 7. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water?

a. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
b. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill
c. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's side
d. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind

8. What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics?

a. Discharge to a shore facility only

b. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore
c. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore
d. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary

9. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which of following priority
sequences to be considered:

a. Stop pumps - report - clean up?

b. Clean up - report - stop pumps?
c. Report - stop pumps - clean up?
d. Stop pumps - clean up - report?

10. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

a. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill

b. It is not covered by the pollution law
c. It does little harm to marine life
d. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil

11. If the subject is subject to manning control, which documentation must the master have at hand?

a. Master's record and Documentation file.

b. Master's record.
c. The employment agreements and Reports on Seamen duly signed and stamped by a
public supervisory authority.
d. The sea service books.

12. Is a repairman not comprised by the specification of crew under obligation to public supervision of maritime
service?

a. Yes, if engaged by the owner.

b. Yes, in any circumstances.
c. Yes, if no collective wages agreement applies to the employment relationship.
d. Not in any circumstances.

13. What can be the result of public supervision of maritime service of seafarers?

a. It could be any of the alternatives listed.

b. Approval with stamping and signing of the employment agreement and report on
seamen.
c. Approval with some remaks about terms to be adjusted.
d. Refusal with report to the Maritime Directorate.

14. What is supervision of maritime service of seafarers?

a. Control by the master/employer and public supervisory authority that the requirements of law or agreement concerning the
employee's service on board are satisfied
b. The master's/employer's control
c. The interview by the employer/master of the seafarer prior to service.
d. A formality: The signing and stamping of employment agreement and report on seamen by the consulate
15. What does ISM stand for?

a. The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for Pollution
Prevention
b. International Safe Manning Certification
c. Internal Ship Safety Management
d. International Ship Measurement and Pollution Control

16. What is the period of validity of the Safety Management Certificate?

a. 5 years
b. 6 months
c. 2 years
d. 1 Year

17. What can be the result of public supervision of maritime service of sefarers?

a. It could be any of the alternatives listed.

b. Approval with stamping and signing of the employment agreement and report on
seamen.
c. Approval with some remaks about terms to be adjusted.
d. Refusal with report to the Maritime Directorate.

18. What is an endorsement/qualification document?

a. A document, which together with the national certificate is entitling the holder to
serve in a position for which a certificate of competency is required
b. A document verifying that application for a such document has been received and
acknowledged
c. A Norwegian certificate of competency issued to foreign nationals according to the
Certification Act
d. A sea service book for Non- Norwegian seafarers

19. Where is the master's responsibility for observing the provisions related to supervision of maritime service stated?

a. In the Act relating to the enrolment of employees onboard ships.

b. In the Regulations concearning supervision of maritime service; section 12.
c. In the NIS Act Section 3.
d. In the Guideline for the supervision of maritime service

20. Which document must a foreign master definitely have before his documents may be considered for public
supervision of maritime service?

a. A letter "Exemption from the nationality requirement for foreign shipmasters"

b. A CRA ( Certificate of receipt of application)
c. A certificate of competency.
d. A working permit.

21. Does the nationality of the shipowning company have any importance in general to the application of Norwegian
law on NIS ships?

a. No.
b. It depends on the trading area of the ship.
c. It depends on the field of legislation.
d. No, unless the most of the crew is also of that nationality.

22. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected on a ship with a crew of 13 members?
 a. 1 member
b. 2 members.
c. 0 members
d. 5 members.

23. Service as master on board a NIS-ship for non-Norwegian citizens has to be approved by:

a. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate

b. The Norwegian Shipowners' Association
c. The International Labour Organization (ILO)
d. The Norwegian Maritime Officers' Association

24. Shall a special form for employment agreement be used for service on NIS ships?

a. Yes, on a form prescribed or approved by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate

b. Yes, but only if one of the parties demands it
c. No obligation if a collective wage agreement exists
d. A verbal agreement is in order for the whole employment relationship

25. What are the duties of the master, specially stated in the NIS act chapter 3?

a. To make a copy of the NIS act and the CBA accessible to the crew if referred to in a
contract
b. To ensure that all necessary safety precautions are taken
c. To control that all necessary documents requested by the NIS office in Bergen have
been submitted
d. To carry out safety and emergency drills at regular intervals

26. What are the prerequisites for having a ship registered in NIS?

a. That the shipowner is a Norwegian subject or fulfils other requirements stated in

Norwegian acts
b. That the ship is insured in an approved insurance company
c. That the ship is classed in one of the approved classification societies
d. That the shipowner is a Norwegian citizen

27. What does normally form the basis for permission to a Non-Norwegian deck or marine engineer officer to serve in
a position for which a certificate of competency is required on NIS ships?

a. A certificate issued by the authorities of a state which has acceded to the STCW-
Convention
b. A general evaluation of the maritime education and certification requirements of the
country concerned
c. A certificate and statement from the issuing authority saying that the national
certificates in question meet the STCW-Convention requirements, and which of the
convention's grades or classes of certificates are covered by the certificate in
question
d. A special examination

28. Which Act has a provision that reads as follows: " The shipmaster shall take care that a copy of this Act and of the
regulations issued in pursuance of the Act is to be found on board" ?

a. The Seaworthiness Act.

b. The Maritime Act.
c. The Seamen's Act.
d. The NIS Act.

29. Which provisions generally speaking govern the rights and duties of the employee and employer on NIS ships?
 a. Norwegian Seamen's Act, NIS Act
b. Norwegian Working Environment Act
c. The law of domicile of the seafarer
d. Provisions as agreed upon in the agreement

30. Who issues an international load line certificate for a NIS cargo vessel of 500 gross tons and above?

a. The recognized classification society, were the vessel is classified.

b. The International Load Line Society.
c. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
d. The Norwegian International Shipregister.

31. Who may through delegation/agreement be given authority to survey a NIS cargo vessel of 500 gross tons and
above (offshore units excepted)?

a. A ship's classification society recognized by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate.

b. The Norwegian Ship Control.
c. The Norwegian Ordinary Ship Register
d. Any classification society

32. Will an individual contract of engagement for service on NIS ships be legally accepted?

a. Yes, provided it appears, amongst others, the wages and overtimepay and that it is
subject to Norwegian laws and courts, but may be brought before a court in the
employee's country of residence
b. No, it is not allowed
c. Yes, if signed by the agent
d. Yes, there are no legal differences between a CBA and an individual contract

33. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationality marks or registration marks of
a registered ship shall be liable to:

a. Fines.
b. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
c. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
d. Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.

34. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?

a. For at least two years

b. As long as the master or owner finds it necessary
c. It shall be delivered to a Norwegian Consulate at first practicable occasion
d. For at least five years

35. How can the master ensure obedience?

a. He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he finds it necessary, but not use
harsher means than the circumstances make necessary.
b. He has the power of denying the seafarer their democratic right if they refuse to obey
orders given.
c. By giving clear orders and referring to the necessity of having the work carried out as
ordered.
d. Only by giving clear orders in an understandable language. It is not allowed to use
any means which may result in personal injuries.

36. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented?

 a. By all the other mentioned alternatives.
b. By ensuring that the work is properly organised and executed and that appropriate
accidental prevention equipment is available and used
c. By ensuring that the seafarer is properly qualified and informed of the hazards
inherent to the work.
d. By having elected or appointed protection supervisors and establishing a Working
Environment Committee as prescribed.

37. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons?

a. Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyage and the
master fails to take steps to remedy the defects
b. Yes, provided the authorities of the port do not deny him entry into the country
c. Yes, if the ship has been transferred to another Norwegian owner
d. No, unless he is taken seriously ill

38. Is there any particular procedure to be followed when dismissing a seafarer?

a. A hearing shall be held before a committee on board.

b. His wages shall be settled and he shall sign the settlement.
c. The agent and shipping company should be informed.
d. The manning agent ordered to send a new man onboard.

39. On what kind of document shall working hours on board ships be kept?

a. On a time sheet arranged by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate

b. On a settlement wages form
c. In an approved logbook
d. There is no obligation to keep a journal

40. Shall every seafarer bring with him a valid health certificate issued as per Norwegian provisions?

a. Yes
b. Not if the seafarer has a certificate of competency
c. Any health certificate will do
d. Only if he has had a contagious disease during the last month

41. The restriction of overtime work is that the person shall not be required, under normal circumstances, to work
more than:

a. 14 hours per day

b. 12 hours per day
c. 16 hours per day
d. 10 hours per day

42. What are the duties of a master if he has to leave a sick or injured seafarer behind in a foreign port?

a. Notify nearest Norwegian Consulate

b. Inform the manning agent
c. Settle the bills. Say goodbye and send the seafarer flowers or a get-well card
d. Inform the seafarer next to him of his present address

43. What are the duties of the master if a seafarer dies in service on board?

a. The master shall notify next of kin/ Norwegian Consulate - arrange for burial/ repatriation
of coffin/ashes - and maritime inquiry
b. The master shall notify next of kin, have them make necessary arrangements
c. The master shall notify the consul of the seafarer's home country
d. The master may leave the case to an undertaker
44. Which mandatory handbooks for medical treatment shall be carried on board?

a. One control book for special medicines, one approved by Norwegian authorities
medical book ("International Medical Guide for ships") and three pamphlets regarding
first aid.
b. None. There are no mandatory requirements.
c. The first aid guide: Resuscitation on board.
d. An approved medical book

45. Which rights does a seafarer who is unfit for work normally have?

a. Care, wages, free passage home

b. Care
c. A compensation equal to wages for six months
d. Free passage home

46. Can an agreement of employment for service on a NIS ship be verbal or has it to be confirmed in writing?

a. The company has to ensure that an agreement is always confirmed in writing

b. It can be verbal during the probationary period, if any
c. It can be verbal if the agreement is for a specified voyage
d. It can be verbal if the seafarer agrees to it

47. What must the master ensure that is carried onboard when provisions concerning holidays?

a. The Act relating to holydays and the NIS Act.

b. The Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating to holydays for employees on
ships.
c. The Act relating to holydays and the Seamen's Act.
d. The Regulations relating to holydays for employees on ships and the relevant wages
agreement only.

48. The supervision of maritime service of seafarers is?

a. The master's/employer's control

b. Control by the master/employer and public supervisory authority that the
requirements of law or agreement concerning the employee's service on board are
satisfied
c. The interview by the employer/master of the seafarer prior to service.
d. A formality: The signing and stamping of employment agreement and report on
seamen by the consulate

49. Is that possible if any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer?

a. No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as dereliction of duty.

b. Yes, if the master considers the reason to be proper
c. Yes, if the seafarer is unagreeable to the master
d. Yes, if the master is asked to do so by members of the crew

50. Is that possible if regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply:

a. to cargo ships only? Yes.

b. to ships and mobile oil drilling offfshore units? Yes.
c. to both passengers and cargo ships? Yes.
d. to Norwegian and foreign ships operating solely in Norwegian waters? Yes.

51. How should you, methodically speaking, get to know and to find relevant provisions in the book "Excerpts from
the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc"?
 a. By help of the Preface.
b. By using the table of contents, only.
c. By help of the Headword Register, the Chronological Register, the table of contents,
the tables of contents in the respective provisions, the Preface, etc.
d. Just turn over thepages.

52. Exemption to serve as master on board a NIS ship for Non Norwegian citizens needs to be given by:

a. The Ministry of Trade and Industry, Oslo.

b. The Norwegian Foreign Service Stations
c. The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
d. The Norwegian Maritime Officers Association

53. The validity of the shipping documents can be extended by the Administration to

a. 5 months.
b. 3 months.
c. 12 months.
d. 1 month.

54. The minimum number and the qualifications of the crew of the ship is evidenced by

a. "Document of Compliance" issued to the vessel by the administration of the flag

State.
b. "Document of Compliance" issued by the classification organization.
c. Safe Manning document issued by the administration of the flag State.
d. Safe Manning document issued by a classification organization.

55. Priority objectives of the ISM Code are

a. the security of ships and ports.

b. competencies and qualifications of the crew.
c. requirements for radio equipment on new ships.
d. safe operation of the ship and avoid inflicting damage to the environment.

56. The rights and obligations of the Maritime Administration of the Republic of Bulgaria arise from…

a. the rules of classification societies.

b. The Merchant Shipping Code of Bulgaria.
c. Customs in Bulgarian ports.
d. Rules for the structure and activity of the EXECUTIVE AGENCY "maritime
administration".

57. The master of the vessel shall submit a sea protest in cases where..

a. the administration of a certain country does not respect the right of the flag.
b. The interests of the ship owner are affected by an unauthorized act
c. If the ship is to pass through an area with active military activities
d. as a result of force majeure or other conditions which affect or might affect the
interests of the ship owner

58. The Executive Director of the Maritime Administration may limit the right of the seafarer to perform a specific
function of the vessel?

a. in case of a discrepancy between the position held and the certificate of competence.
b. if proven guilty of the accident caused, emergency accident or pollution of the environment.
c. incorrectly performed maneuvers in ports.
d. in its sole discretion.
59. What are the levels of responsibility as per the STCW Convention?

a. Command and performing

b. Management, operational, and support level..
c. Higher, medium and performing.
d. Command, management and performance.

60. Oil, chemical and gas tankers over 10,000 GT and other ships above 70,000 GT, the main steering gear shall
comprise:

a. One power unit

b. Two or more identical power units
c. Three or more identical power units
d. Four or more identical power units

61. When is a work considered “working aloft”..

a. When done at a height of over 2 meters.

b. When done at a height of over 2,5 meters.
c. When done at a height of over 1,80 meters.
d. When it is necessary to mount the scaffold.

62. The Load Line Convention applies to which ships?

a. For ships with a draught of over 6m.

b. For all ships in the international voyage.
c. For all vessels over 24m in the international voyage.
d. For ships over 500 GT.

63. The rules of the Convention SOLAS, unless otherwise stated, do not apply to vessels with a size less than

a. 1600 G?
b. 500 G?
c. 300 G?
d. 150 G?

64. The hull and the machinery of a cargo ship are subject of certification over a period of time established by the
Administration, but not more than..

a. 2 years.
b. 3 years.
c. 4 years.
d. 5 years.

65. In case of an alchohol abuse for the first time, the Executive Director of the Maritime administration may suspend
a seafarer’s certificate of competence for:

a. up to 1 year.
b. for 6 months.
c. up to 2 years.
d. over 1 year.

66. Who is responsible for not violating the strength of the ship?

a. The company that manage the ship.

b. The master.
c. The classification organization.
d. The administration of the flag State.
67. A person who officially calculates the contribution due from each beneficiary as consequence of a general average
Act. ?

a. Salvor
b. Assessor
c. Average adjuster
d. Salvage association

68. What do you call to ships and cargoes or any part thereof which have been cast on shore by the sea ?

a. Wreck
b. Ligan
c. jetsam
d. flotsam

69. Used in marine insurance to denote thet the subject of insurance has been completely lost.or has been so
damaged ?

a. Actual Total loss

b. Actual loss
c. Actual partial loss
d. None of the above

70. The term "average" has special meaning in marine insurance ,it means. ?

a. Loss
b. Contribution
c. Risks
d. Mean

71. The employment of vessel to expedite the voyage of another and nothing more is required of her :

a. Towage
b. Salvage
c. Particular average
d. general average

72. Representatives whose duties are to protect underwriters from fraud ,negligence ,and needless expenses are the
:

a. Lloyds agents
b. NBI agents
c. Ship agents
d. Secret agents

73. Inchmaree clause provides for the insurance to cover loss or damage to hull or machinery directly caused by :

a. accident in loading , discharging or shifting of cargo or fuel

b. contact with air craft
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

74. Throwing overboard cargo or equipment to lighten or relieve a vessel in peril ,or to refloat a stranded ship or to
right a ship badly listed ,or on her beam end :

a. jetsam
b. flotsam
c. jettison
d. all of these
75. Goods cast or lost overboard which are recoverable by reason of their remaining afloat is :

a. jetsam
b. lagan
c. flotsam
d. none of these

76. To exempt yourself and all the crew as well as the owner from any liabilities while cruising on heavy weather , you
should prepare at once your :

a. notice of readiness
b. dispatch computation
c. marine protest
d. good laydays

77. Suppose you had incurred losses during the voyage which are subject for general average ,upon arrival in port ,
you should ?

a. make a written report to the customs officers

b. file a note of marine protest
c. make a written report to the coast guard
d. advise the consignee and charterer

78. Any accident of the sea disabling the vessel to navigatc is a ground for :

a. force majeure
b. deviation from destination
c. laid - up vessel
d. arrival under distress

79. When a vessel runs aground with a possibility of refloating her but owners relinquishing all right to the insurers for
payment of the full value of the vessel . ?

a. presumed total loss

b. actual total loss
c. constructive total loss
d. none of these

80. Goods cast overboard and buoyed so as to render them recorverable is:

a. lagan
b. jetsam
c. flotsam
d. jettison

81. "Stand of the tide" is that time when:

a. the vertical rise or fall of the tide has stopped

b. slack waters occur ?
c. tidal current is at maximum
d. the actual depth of water equals the charted depth

82. What does the term "tide" refer to?

a. horizontal movement of the water

b. vertical movement of the water
c. mixing tendency of the water
d. salinity content of the water
83. How many high waters usually occur each day on the East Coast of the United States?

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

84. Weather condition in the middle latitudes generally moves:

a. Eastward
b. Northward
c. Southward
d. Westward

o
85. Tropical cyclones do not form within 5 of the equator because:

a. There are no fronts in the area

b. It is too got
c. It is too humid
d. Of negligible Coriolis force

86. The local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different rates of warming of land and water:

a. Foehn
b. Chinook
c. Land breeze
d. Sea breeze

87. Severe tropical cyclones occur in al warm ocean water except the:

a. Indian ocean
b. N. pacific ocean
c. S. Atlantic ocean
d. S. pacific ocean

88. You are enroute from Puerto Rico to New York. A hurricane makes up and approaches, if the wind veers steadily
this indicates that your vessel is:

a. In the dangerous semi-circle

b. N the navigable semi-circle
c. In the path of the storm
d. In the storm center

89. Early indications of the approach of a hurricane may be all of the following except:

a. Short confused swell

b. Gradually increasing white clouds (mare’s tails)
c. Pumping barometer
d. Continuous fine mist like rain

90. The wind direction around a low pressure area in the N. hemisphere is:

a. Clockwise and inward

b. Clockwise and outward
c. Counterclockwise and inward
d. Counterclockwise and outward