Nsci 201 Final Practice Questions and Answers

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Stress:

1. What is the Sympathetic Nervous System responsible for?


A. Regulating sleep cycles
B. Rest and digest
C. Fight or flight response
D. None of the above

2. What is the HPA Axis composed of?


A. Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Amygdala
B. Heart, Pancreas, Liver
C. Stomach, Esophagus, Colon
D. None of the above

3. What type of stressors does the HPA Axis respond to?


A. Chronic, prolonged stressors
B. Acute, transient stressors
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

4. What are the effects of Acute Stress on 1) Oxygen intake 2) Blood flow and sugar 3)
Digestion 4) Immune System 5) Memory
A. 1) Increased oxygen intake 2) Increased blood flow to muscles, Increased energy (blood glucose) 3)
Inhibition of digestion, growth and repair, reproduction, pain perception 4) Altered immune function
(immune trafficking ⇒ immune cells leave blood and enter skin) 5) Enhancement of memory and sensory
processing ⇒ consolidate better
B. 1) Decreased oxygen intake 2) Decreased blood flow to muscles, Decreased energy (blood
glucose) 3) Stimulation of digestion, growth and repair, reproduction, pain perception 4) No
effect on immune function 5) Impairment of memory and sensory processing
C. 1) Increased oxygen intake 2) Decreased blood flow to muscles, Increased energy (blood
glucose) 3) Stimulation of digestion, growth and repair, reproduction, pain perception 4)
Enhanced immune function 5) Impairment of memory and sensory processing
D. None of the above

5. For modern humans what type of stress is most common?


A. Acute stress
B. Transient stress
C. Chronic stress
D. None of the above

6. What do Norepinephrine and adrenaline have in common?


A. Bind to adrenergic receptors
B. Bind to muscarinic receptors
C. Bind to nicotinic receptors
D. None of the above

7. What does negative feedback do?


A. Amplifies initial signal
B. Reduces initial signal
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

8. What is cortisol's inactive state?


A. Progesterone
B. Cortisol
C. Cotisone
D. None of the above

9. What is the transport mechanism for steroid hormones like Cortisol or Corticosterone?
A. Carrier proteins
B. Channel proteins
C. Diffusion through cell membranes
D. Endocytosis

10. What are the two types of steroid hormone receptors?


A. Intracellular and extracellular
B. Intracellular and membrane-bound
C. Membrane-bound and cytoplasmic
D. None of the above

11. What are the adrenal hormones produced by the Zona Fasciculata?
a) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
b) Aldosterone
c) Cortisol/ corticosterone
d) DHEA

12. Which of the following is not a catecholamine?


a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Cortisol

13. What is the HPA Axis Pathway


a) Hypothalamus -> ACTH -> Anterior Pituitary -> CRH -> Adrenal Cortex -> CORT
b) Hypothalamus -> CRH -> Anterior Pituitary -> ACTH -> Adrenal Cortex -> CORT
c) Hypothalamus -> Anterior Pituitary -> CRH -> ACTH -> CORT -> Adrenal Cortex
d) Hypothalamus -> Anterior Pituitary -> CRH -> ACTH -> Adrenal Cortex -> CORT
Immune System:
1. What are leukocytes?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) White blood cells
D) Nerve cells

2. Which of the following is a key component of non-specific immunity?


A) Antibodies
B) Cytokines
C) Antimicrobial peptides/proteins
D) Helper T cells

3. Which type of immunity takes time to develop?


A) Specific
B) Non-specific
C) Humoral
D) A and C

4. Which type of immunity involves B cells?


A) Cell-mediated
B) Non-specific
C) Antibody-mediated

5. Where do lymphocytes originate?


A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Bone marrow
D) Thymus

6. What are antibodies?


A) Proteins that attack healthy cells
B) Proteins that attach to antigens
C) Proteins that produce cytokines
D) Proteins that stimulate fever

7. What happens to lymphocytes when they move from the bone marrow to the thymus?
A) They become macrophages
B) They become B cells
C) They become T cells
D) They become leukocytes

8. What do cytotoxic T cells do?


A) Attack pathogens directly
B) Help other T cells multiply
C) Produce antibodies
D) Attack healthy cells

9. Which brain region has more GR receptors than MR?


A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Thalamus
D) Cerebellum

10. What is the hippocampus's role in stress response?


A) It increases cortisol production
B) It decreases cortisol production
C) It produces cytokines
D) It stimulates fever

11. How does chronic stress affect the hippocampus?


A) It causes dendritic growth
B) It causes cell loss
C) It increases the number of pyramidal cells
D) It has no effect on the hippocampus

12. How does chronic stress affect the amygdala?


A) It causes dendritic growth
B) It causes cell loss
C) It increases the number of pyramidal cells
D) It has no effect on the amygdala
Learning/Memory
1. What is classical conditioning?
A. A type of learning where an organism learns to associate its behavior with consequences.
B. A type of learning where an organism learns to associate two or more stimuli together,
leading to a change in behavior.
C. A type of learning where an organism learns to respond to an unconditioned stimulus.
D. A type of learning where an organism learns to respond to a conditioned stimulus.

2. Which of the following statements is true about the conditioned stimulus?


A. It is a stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response without any prior learning.
B. It is a stimulus that is initially neutral and does not elicit any response from an organism.
C. It is the learned response to the conditioned stimulus that occurs after conditioning.
D. It is the natural, automatic, and unlearned response to the unconditioned stimulus.

3. What is instrumental (operant) conditioning?


A. A type of learning where an organism learns to associate two or more stimuli together,
leading to a change in behavior.
B. A type of learning where an organism learns to associate its behavior with consequences,
leading to a change in the frequency of that behavior.
C. A type of learning where an organism learns to respond to an unconditioned stimulus.
D. A type of learning where an organism learns to respond to a conditioned stimulus.

4. Which type of memory has a limited capacity and fades quickly without rehearsal?
A. Long-term memory
B. Working memory
C. Short-term memory
D. Delayed memory

5. What is consolidation?
A. The transfer of information from long-term memory into short-term memory
B. The transfer of information from short-term memory into long-term memory
C. The process of encoding new information into memory
D. The process of retrieving information from memory

6. What is anterograde amnesia?


A. Impaired memory of events before brain damage
B. Impaired ability to form new memories after brain damage
C. Impaired memory of factual information
D. Impaired memory of personal events

7. Which brain region is involved in fear learning and memory?


A. Caudate and putamen
B. PFC
C. Amygdala
D. HPC

8. Which of the following is true about H.M's memory after his bilateral HPC removal?
A. He had no change in intellect, language ability, and personality.
B. He was unable to consolidate STM to LTM.
C. He had severe retrograde amnesia for events soon before surgery.
D. He had intact explicit memory but severely impaired implicit memory.
E. All of the above

AD:

1. Which of the following is NOT a behavioral symptom of Alzheimer's (AD)?


a) Gradual progressive memory loss that disrupts daily life
b) Reduced arousal (wakefulness)
c) Challenges in planning or problem solving
d) Improved ability to complete familiar tasks

2. How many people are estimated to have AD or related dementia between the ages of 65-74?
a) 1 in 2
b) 1 in 20
c) 1.5 million
d) 750,000

3. Which of the following is a risk factor for AD?


a) Male gender
b) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
c) Cardiovascular disease
d) Headaches

4. Which of the following is a myth about AD?


a) AD is largely genetic
b) Only effects the young
c) There's a cure
d) Crossword puzzles help prevent AD

5. What does AD do to neurons?


a) Promotes growth
b) Causes apoptosis/shrinkage
c) Increases cell division
d) Causes hyperplasia
6. Which brain proteins affect AD?
a) Tau and Amyloid Gamma
b) Tau and Amyloid Beta
c) Amyloid Alpha and Tau
d) Amyloid Gamma and Tau

7. What is the 3xTg-AD mouse model?


a) A mouse with a human brain
b) A mouse with 3 copies of the Tau gene
c) A mouse with 3 mutations associated with familial AD
d) A mouse with 3 copies of the Amyloid Beta gene
Language
1. What is a sonogram?
a) A diagram of bird feathers
b) A representation of sound
c) A tool for bird identification
d) A type of bird habitat

2. What happened when young male chicks were tutored with tapes of WCSP song?
a) They sang a good copy of the taped song, regardless of dialect on the tape
b) They did not learn anything from the tapes
c) They only learned the dialect on the tape
d) They sang a strange song that barely resembled normal WCSP songs

3. Did tape tutoring with heterospecific (another species) songs work?


a) Yes, the birds sang the heterospecific song
b) No, the birds still sang the same song as when isolated
c) The birds sang a mix of both songs
d) The birds sang a strange song that barely resembled either song

4. How do chimpanzees use symbols primarily?


a) To request and describe
b) To describe and ask questions
c) To request and not to describe
d) To teach and learn

5. How do bonobos show better comprehension of language than chimpanzees?


a) Use symbols to describe objects
b) Request items not visible
c) Makes original and creative requests
b) All of the above

6. What is a sensitive period for language development?


a) phase which children are highly receptive to learning language skills.
b) phase when language skills are permanently fixed
c) period in adulthood when language abilities are at the peak
d) none of the above

7. What are children good at when learning language?


a) Learning new vocabulary
b) Pronunciation and grammar
c) Writing and reading
d) None of the above

8. After what age do people rarely gain fluency in a second language equal to a native?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 24

9. Is there a difference in brain areas for second and first languages?


a) Yes, they are completely different
b) No, they are the same
c) Second language only involves the right hemisphere
d) First language only involves the left hemisphere

10. What is aphasia?


a) A type of bird song
b) A type of monkey behavior
c) A severe language impairment
d) A sign language vocabulary

11. Where is Broca's area located?


a) In the left frontal lobe near the auditory cortex
b) In the left frontal lobe near the motor cortex
c) In the right frontal lobe near the auditory cortex
d) In the right frontal lobe near the motor cortex

12. What is Broca's aphasia?


a) Impairment in language comprehension
b) Impairment in the ability to remember the names of objects
c) Impairment in language production
d) Difficulty recalling the name of objects

13. Where is Wernicke's area located?


a) In the left temporal lobe near the motor cortex
b) In the left temporal lobe near the auditory cortex
c) In the right temporal lobe near the motor cortex
d) In the right temporal lobe near the auditory cortex

14. What is Wernicke's aphasia


a) Problem with language pronunciation
b) Poor language comprehension
c) Anomia
d) B and C
Lateralization:
1. What is the biggest commissure in the brain?
a) Anterior commissure
b) Hippocampal commissure
c) Corpus callosum
d) Few other small commissures

2. What percentage of right-handers have left-hemisphere dominance for speech?


a) 80%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 100%

3. Each hemisphere of the brain is generally connected to which side of the body?
a) Ipsilateral side
b) Contralateral side
c) Both sides equally
d) None of the above

4. How does each hemisphere process visual information from the opposite side of the visual
field?
a) The left hemisphere processes visual information from the left visual field
b) The right hemisphere processes visual information from the right visual field
c) Both hemispheres process visual information from both visual fields equally
d) Each hemisphere processes visual information from the opposite visual field.

5. How many axons from each retina cross to the opposite side of the brain at the optic chiasm?
a) All of them
b) Half of them
c) One third of them
d) None of them

6. What does cutting the corpus callosum largely prevent?


a) Speech
b) Walking
c) The two hemispheres from exchanging information
d) Seizures

7. What is epilepsy?
a) A type of brain tumor
b) Repeated episodes of excessive synchronized neural activity
c) A mutation in the GABA receptor gene
d) None of the above

8. What is the cause of epilepsy in 1-2% of people?


a) A mutation in the GABA receptor gene
b) A brain tumor
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

9. What does cutting the corpus callosum do to seizures?


a) Increases their frequency
b) Makes them longer
c) Restricts seizures to one hemisphere, making them less frequent
d) None of the above

10. What abilities do people with split-brain maintain?


a) Speech and intellect
b) Walking and motivation
c) Use of hands independently
d) All of the above

11. What is the right hemisphere better at?


a) Perceiving emotions of other people
b) Face recognition
c) Understanding sarcasm
d) All of the above

12. How does lateralization develop?


a) Through the growth of additional commissures
b) Corpus callosum gradually matures from childhood through adolescence
c) By using one hemisphere more than the other
d) None of the above

13. What is the impact of a weak corpus callosum in young children?


a) Difficulty in comparing information from the left and right hand
b) Difficulty in mental math and memorization.
c) Difficulty in speaking
d) None of the above

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