Practice paper set 4

Geography marks 80 time 15min + 2 hrs

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PART I (30 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Part.)

Question 1

Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. G43S7eastings 25-35/northings 89-99[given behind
geography text book] and answer the following questions:

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Question 2 On the outline map of India provided

A. Mark and name the River Ghaghara and Jhelum.

B. Shade and name the Vindhya Mountains
C. Mark the Nathu la pass
D. Mark and name the Konkan Coast,
E. Shade and label a region where Alluvial soil is found.
F. Mark and name a coalfield in Jharkhand.
G. With dot mark and name the city of Srinagar.
H. Draw and name the standard meridian
I. Mark gulf of kutch
J. Mark with arrows the direction of winds blowing over the Bay of Bengal in winter .

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Question 3 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question,
write the correct answers only.)

1. Why is there a need to conserve water in India?

(a) A lot of water is polluted
(b) No water is found below the land in India
(c) Water is in abundance in India
(d) We receive lot of rain in summer
2. What are the advantages of rain water harvesting?
(a) Recharge of ground water and conservation of water
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(b) Provide water through canals to the farms and its conservation
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(c) It helps in harvesting of crops and its storage

(d) Provide water for multinational companies to produce packaged drinking water
 3. Which of the following cause rain to Coromandel Coast?
(a) Retreating monsoons
(b) Kal Baisakhi
(c) Western disturbance
(d) South-West Monsoons

4.Which of the statement is not correct for Indian monsoon?

(a) It is erratic in nature
(b) It is seasonal in nature
(c) Most of the rain is in winter time
(d) Most of the rain is geographic or relief type

5. Why does Patna get more rain than Agra during the summer monsoon season?
(a) Patna lies on windward side
(b) Patna is on Western side, so Arabian Sea branch brings more rain to it than to Agra
(c) Patna is on Eastern side, so Bay of Bengal branch brings more rain to it than to Agra
(d) Patna gets rain throughout the year

6. Why is the central part of Deccan Plateau a dry area?

(a) It is away from the sea
(b) There is no barrier in the path of rain bearing wind
(c) It is due to Jet Streams
(d) It is a rain shadow area of Western Ghats

7. Why are the foothills of Himalayas prime to excessive soil erosion?

(a) absence of crop cover
(b) Too much of development of transportation
(c) Large scale deforestation in past
(d) Tourists are spreading pollutants in rivers

_8, Why is laterite soil used in Goa and Kerala for the construction of houses?
(a) It become hard when dry
(b) This soil is generally coarse in texture and poors in nature
(c) It has more of clay contest in it
(d) It looks beautiful when used in buildings

9. The productive functions of forests include:

(a) Habitat for the wildlife
(b) Control the water flow
(c) Provide various products such as timber, fuel, wood, leaves, etc
(d) Producing oxygen

10. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Babool - Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Sandalwood - Tropical deciduous forest
(c) Cinchona - Mountain forest
(d) Sal- Tidal forest
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PART II (50 Marks) (Attempt any five questions from this Part.)

Question 4

1) Mention any two factors responsible for the tropical monsoon climate[2]
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 2) Study the following data and answer the questions that follow[2]

(i) What is the annual range of temperature experienced by the station?

(ii) Which according to the given data is the driest month?
3) What type of wind is 'Monsoon'? What is its direction during summer?which parts receive heaviest
and lowest rainfall in india[3]
4) Give reasons[3]
i. Rainy season in India is after the summer season
ii. Western coastal plains receive more rainfall than the Eastern coastal plains

Question5

1. Name the soil that is found in Central Deccan Plateau? How is the soil named by you formed?[2]
2. Why does alluvial soil differ in texture? State two cash crops that grow well in alluvial soil.[2]
3. Name the soil that possess the following characteristics[3]
a. Soil is generally confined to river basins
b. Soil that becomes infertile because of desilication
c. Soil that is formed due to high temperature and heavy rainfall
4. Mention two similarities between red soil and laterite soil.What is soil erosion?[3]

Question 6

A. With reference to Hirakud project answer the following:[2]

(i) On which river is it based? (ii) Name an Indian State benefitted by Hirakud project.
B. Mention any two methods of recharging ground water aquifers[2]
C. Give one geographical reason for [3]
I. the sprinkler irrigation being practised in arid and semi-arid regions
II. "Without irrigation, development of agriculture is difficult in India
III. Most of the South Indian states are not suitable for development of canal irrigation
D. Briefly explain the following terms [3]
(i) Inundation canal (ii) Rooftop rainwater harvesting (iii) Surface water

Question7.

1. Briefly explain two reasons for forests being an important natural resource[2]
2. Give two characteristics of tidal forests[2]
3. Name the type of Natural Vegetation that is found in the windward side of the Western Ghats. What
are two main characteristics of the trees found here[3]
4. Name the forest which is commercially most important in India. Name two trees which grow in this
forest[3]

Question8

1) Name one area in Odisha and one area in Chhattisgarh, where iron-ore is mined.Mention one
advantage of generating power from biogas [2]
2) Mention two reasons why minerals are important[2].
3) Name four types of coal. Which of these is the best for the industrial purposes? Justify your answer[3]
4) Give reasons[3]
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a. Copper is used to make electric wires.

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b. India's location is advantageous for the generation of solar power

c. The location of coal fields is an important factor in industrial development.
 Question 9

1) Mention two differences between shifting agriculture and plantation agriculture.[2]

2) Answer the following questions [2]
a. When are Kharif crops sown and harvested?
b. Name the cash crop which is also a Kharif crop.
3) Explain[3]
A. why wheat is grown as a Rabi crop
B. the following terms: (i) Ginning. (ii) Ratooning.
4) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow.[3]

(i) Name one State, where this crop grows well.

(ii) Why are mostly women employed to harvest it?

(iii) Mention two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of this crop.

Question10

1) . Name two products each of the following industries. (i) petrochemical industry (ii) electronic
industry[2]
2) Mention any two problems faced by the cotton textile industry of India.[2]
3) Differentiate between mineral-based industry and agro-based industry giving one example for each[3]
4) Give reasons to justify the statement.[3]
A. The iron and steel industry constitutes the backbone of modern industrial economy.'
B. 'Karnataka has developed as an important state for the growth of the Silk industry'
C. Kolkata is an important cotton manufacturing centre even though West Bengal is not a leading
producer of cotton

Question 11

1]Mention one advantage and one disadvantage each of inland waterways[2]

2]Name two areas, where helicopter services may be used.[2]

3]Give a reason for the following: [3]

(i) Railways are not well developed in the North Eastern States of India. in India

(ii) Air transport has gained popularity in recent time

(iii) NSEW is helpful for India.

4]Mention any three problems being faced by the Indian Railways[3]

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Question 12
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1) How can waste be reused? Explain with help of an example.[2]

 2) Why should sewage be treated before disposal?[2]
3) Answer w.r.t reusing water [3]
i) Why should we resue water?
ii) how can farm waste be made useful?
iii) what is eutrophication ?[3]
4) Answer w.r.t recycling wastes[3]

(i)recycling of Waste help in reducing waste. Explain with suitable examples.

(ii) Mention one initiative taken by the Government to manage waste.

(iii) How can you as an individual contribute towards waste management?

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 practice papers Set 4

History civics marks 80 time 15+ 2 hrs

PART I Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question,
write the correct answers only.[16x1=16}

I. Assertion(A): The Treaty of Versailles can be considered one of the main factors that led to
the rise of Fascism and Nazism.
Reason(R): It was seen as more favourable to the principal Allied powers.
a) :Both A and R are incorrect
b) A is correct and R is incorrect
c) A is incorrect and R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct

II. Assertion:the first world War had a devastating impact on italy .

Reason:it was forced to sign harsh and humiliating Versailles treaty
a) :Both A and R are incorrect
b) A is correct and R is incorrect
c) A is incorrect and R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct

III. Why were the Europeans attracted the most to Africa?

(A) By its natural beauty
(B) By the opportunities for investment

(C) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth.

(D) For recruitment of labour

IV. Assertion (A): Only elected members of the Parliament can become cabinet ministers.
Reasons (R): Cabinet ministers handle important ministries of the Government of India.

a) :Both A and R are incorrect

b) A is correct and R is incorrect
c) A is incorrect and R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct
V. Assertion (A):The President of India is the head of the State.

Reason (R):Parliament comprises President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

a) :Both A and R are incorrect

b) A is correct and R is incorrect
c) A is incorrect and R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct

VI. Assertion (A)- The Prime Minister of India is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha
Reason (R)-The Rajya Sabha functions primarily as the representative of the states of India in
the Parliament

a) A is correct but R is wrong

b) Both A and R are wrong
c) iii.) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) iv.) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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 VII.

. What does this logo symbolise?

a) Global progress

b) World peace

c) Equity in the world.

d) Harmony amongst the people

VIII. 2. The United Nations was set up through the signing of the UN charter by:

a) 61 states

b) 51 states

c) 71 states

d) 81 states

IX. ASSERTION: NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional body.

Reason: The Chief Minister of India is the Ex- Officio Chairman of NITI Aayog.

(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.

(b) Both the Assertion and the Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion.

(c) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.

(d) The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

X. Assertion: All members of the UN have one vote. However, the permanent members can
vote in a negative manner.
Reason: The developing world consists of countries at many different levels of development.
a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
b) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
c) The Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.
d) The Assertion is correct but the Reason isincorrect.
XI. Assertion (A)-The MPs as representatives of the people have a central role in controlling,
guiding and informing Parliament and this is a key aspect of the functioning of Indian
democracy.
Reason (R)- The question hour is an important mechanism through which MPs can elicit
information about the working of the government.

a) Only A is correct
b) Both A and R are wrong
c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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 XII. Assertion (A): The US dropped the atomic bomb in Japan to dominate in the war.
Reason (R): Japan refused to surrender
a) Only A is correct
b) Both A and R are wrong
c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

XIII. Arrange the following events in chronological order.

(i) Treaty of Versailles

(ii) Hitler's invasion of Poland

(iii) Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour

(iv) Japanese invasion of China

A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)

C. (i), (iii), (iv) and (ii)

D. (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii)

XIV. Arrange the various conferences in chronological order.

(i) Potsdam

(ii) Yaltra

(iii) San Francisco

a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

b) (iii), (ii) and (i)

c) (ii), (i) and (iii)

d) (ii), (i) and (iii)

XV. Which of the following does NOT come under Panchsheel?

a) Mutual non-interference in internal affairs

b) Mutual aggression

c) Equality for Mutual benefit

d) Peaceful co-existence.

XVI. A detained person has not been produced before the magistrate within 24 hours of arrest.
Which legal remedy is available to him/her?
a) Writ of Mandamus

b) Writ of Quo Warrants

c) Writ of Habeas Corpus

d) Writ of Prohibition.

XVII. What is the full form of "PIL"?

a) Public Interest Law

b) Public Interest Litigation

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c) People's Interest Litigation

 d) People's Interest Law

Question 2 answers the following [2x 7=14]

1) What is Zero Hour and ‘Adjournment of the House’? [ 2 ]

2) What is the ‘revisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? [ 2 ]
3) Why is the Prime Minister of India called the link between the President and the Council of Ministers? [
2]
4) Why did the drain of wealth become the economic cause of the revolt of 1857?[ 2 ]
5) State any two objectives of the Muslim League. [ 2 ]
6) Mention any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles signed on June 28,1919.[ 2 ]
7) What was Forward Bloc’s programme for rebuilding India? [ 2 ]

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PART II SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section[3+3+4=10 each ]

Question 3 answer the following w.r.t union legislature

1. Why is Rajya Sabha called the Council of States? What is the maximum gap allowed between the two
parliamentary sessions .name two types of bills presented in the Parliament? [ 3 ]

2. Explain terms:[3]

A. Federal system
B. Bicameral parliament
C. Universal adult franchise

3. With reference to the powers of the Union Parliament, state the following:

a) two of its Legislative Powers.

b) two of its Administrative or Executive Powers.

Question 4 answer w.r.t to the excecutive

1. What are the responsibilities of a Cabinet Minister?Why is the Prime Minister of India called the link
between the President and the Council of Ministers? [ 3]
2. In a coalition government, a number of parties join together to form the government. Is a coalition
government good for development of the country?. Give your views and reasons to justify them.[3]
3. Suppose you are appointed as the president of India. Given a chance to nominate rajyasabha
members ,which two persons will you choose and why ?[4]

Question 5 :answer with reference to judiciary

1) State three qualifications required to be the judge of this supreme court [3]
2) Discuss how the Constitution has ensured that the Supreme Court acts as:[any one point each]
(a) Custodian of the Constitution.
(b) Guardian of the Fundamental Rights.
(c) A Court of Records and its implication.
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3) The independence of the judiciary is necessary in a federal democratic set-up. In this context, describe
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the part played by the following:[4]

 (a) Security of Tenure of Office.

(b) Security of Salary and Allowances of the Judges.

(c) Power to punish for Contempt of itself.

(d)What is meant by the term Single Integrated Judicial System?

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SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section. [3+3+4=10 each ]

Question 6: The First War of Independence, 1857

1. State two consequences of the First War of Indian Independence on the East India Company.What
impact did the uprising of 1857 have on the Mughal rule and Maratha rule.
2. Why did the General Service Enlistment Act of 1856 become one of the causes for the revolt of 1857?
Give any two military impacts after the war[3]
3. There were uprisings against the British in every corner of the country in the nineteenth century. Make
a list of the uprisings in your locality and manner in which the imperialists dealt with them.[4]

Question 7 the growth of Nationalism

1. Where were the first two sessions of the Indian National Congress held and who presided over the
sessions.also name any 2 delegates?[ 3 ]
2. Surendranath Banerjee was popularly known as father of Indian Nationalism. In this context answer
the following questions:
(a) Trace his contribution towards the formation of the Indian National Congress.[any one]
(c) What was his contribution to India's freedom struggle?[any two]
3. Suppose you want to present the demands of the people of your area to the MLA of your area. State
which methods followed by the Early Nationalists you would choose and why?[4]

Question 8 Mass Phase of the National Movement (1915- 1947)

1. Why was the Simon Commission boycotted by the Indians? All the parties and people rejected the
proposal of Cripps Mission. Give two reasons to justify the statement.[ 3 ]
2. Name the last British Governor General of India and the first Indian Governor General of free India.
Give any two clauses of the India independence act 1947[3]
3. Explain in brief :[4]
A. Chauri chaura incident
B. Jallianwala Bagh incident

Question 9 The World war I and world war 2

1. Why do you think that all the dictatorships have an appeal to the masses? Give reasons to support your
answer.[3]
2. How was the Second World War different from the First World War?[3]
3. State four causes of the First World War.

Question 10 United Nations

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 (a) Identify the organisation associated with the given emblem. Where are its headquarters located? what is
the main objective of this organisation?.[3]

[b]Give permanent members of security council.Do you think that in the changed global scenario, the Security
Council should add more permanent members? Give one reason to support your answer.[3]

(c) Do you think that the major agencies of the United Nations have lived up to the agenda for which they were
created? Give reasons to support your answer. [4]

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 practice papers Set 4

BIOLOGY marks 80 time 15+ 2 hrs

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SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this Section.)

Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question,
write the correct answers only.) [15]

(i) After wound or cut in a body, blood coagulates 2. humidity

through
3. temperature
1. WBC
4. CO2 concentration
2. RBC
(vii) An example of bio-degradable waste is
3. Platelets
1. Peels of vegetables
4. Plasma
2. Grass
(ii) The first menstrual flow is called
3. Paper
1. Menopause
4. All of these
2. Menstruation
(viii) The normal gestation period in humans is
3. Menarche
1. 270 days
4. Ovulation
2. 290 days
(iii) Light induced reactions which lead to splitting of
3. 280 days
water
4. 295 days
1. Photolysis
(ix) A dark muscular membrane which controls size of
2. Photo-oxidation
pupil
3. Electrolysis
1. pupil
4. Activation
2. iris
(iv) The cell component visible only during cell
3. cornea
division
4. retina
1. Centrosome
(x) When pregnancy does not occur, life of corpus
2. Chromosome
luteum is about
3. DNA
1. 4 days
4. Nucleosome
2. 10 days
(v) Action of parathormone in the human body
3. 14 days
1. decreases blood sodium level
4. 28 days
2. increases blood sodium level
(xi) The amount of light entering the eye can be
3. decreases blood calcium level controlled by the

4. increases blood calcium level 1. iris

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(vi) The rate of photosynthesis is not affected by 2. pupil

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1. light intensity 3. cornea

 4. ciliary muscles (xiv) The state of a cell wall in which the cell wall is
rigid and stretched by the increase in
(xii) Which one of the following pairs is not matched
correctly? volume due to the absorption

1. Cerebrum- memory 1. Flaccidity

2. Cerebellum- balance of body 2. Turgidity

3. Medulla oblongata- controls activities of internal 3. Capillarity

organs
4. Tonicity
4. Pons- consciousness
(xv) Nitrogenous wastes excreted through urine in
(xiii) The shortest phase of mitosis is humans is

1. Prophase 1. Trimethylamine oxide

2. Metaphase 2. Ammonia

3. Anaphase 3. Uric acid

4. Telophase 4. Urea

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Question 2

(A) Name the following:[5]

(a) Pair of chromosomes carrying dissimilar alleles for a particular character

(b) Term used for Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus together

(c) Hormone which controls the basal metabolic rate

(d) Chemicals leading to the formation of the ozone hole

(e) Number of persons per square kilometre at any given time

(B) Arrange and rewrite the terms in each group in the correct order so as to be in a logical sequence
beginning with the term that is underlined[5]

(a) Upper epidermis, spongy cell, stoma, palisade tissue

(b) Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase

(c) Vena cava, right ventricle, pulmonary veins, right auricle

(d) Ovulation, Implantation, Fertilization, Parturition

(e) Receptor, effector, motor neuron, sensory neuron

(C) State the exact location of the following structures. [5]

(a) Lenticels

(b) Thyroid gland

(c) Proximal convoluted tubule

(d) Bicuspid valve

(e) Pancreas
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(D) Choose the odd one out from the following terms and name the category to which the others belong: [5]
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(a) Cretinism, myxoedema, goitre, scurvy

 (b) Sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour

(c) Olfactory lobes, cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon

(d) Tympanum, Macula, Cochlea, Utriculus

(e) Seismonasty, Hydrotropism, Geotropism, Phototropism

(E) Match the items given in Column I with the most appropriate ones in Column II and rewrite the correct
matching pairs[5]

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SECTION B (Attempt any four questions from this Section.){1+2+2+2+3 each question }

Question 3

(i) Why gametes have a haploid number of chromosomes? [1]

(ii) Root hairs become flaccid, when fertilizers are added to the moist soil around it.Explain. [2]

(iii) What are lenticels? Where are they found? [2]

(iv) State the difference in the arrangement of neurons in the brain and the spinal cord. [2]

(v) What is dialysis? Under what conditions is it carried out? [3]

Question 4

(i) Name the blood vessel which [1]

(1) begins and ends in capillaries,

(2) supplies blood to the walls of the heart

(ii) When are the sounds ‘LUBB’ and ‘DUB’ produced during a heartbeat? [2]

(iii) The diagram below is that of a structure present in the human kidneys. [2]

a) Name the structure represented in the diagram.

b) What is the liquid entering part ‘1’ and ‘2’called?

(iv) Give the functions of spinal cord. [2]

(v) What type of reflexes are the following? [3]

(a) Sweating in summer, (b) Knitting and swimming, (c) Solving mathematical sums.

(d) Formation of goose-pimples in cold weather. (e) Blinking of the eye.

Question 5

(i) Name two involuntary actions controlled by medulla in the hind brain. [1]
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(ii) Abnormally a large number of WBCs in the blood is usually an indication of some infections in our body.
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Give reason [2]

 (iii) Why is photosynthesis important in nature? [2]

(iv) What is fertilization? Name the site of fertilization in human female. [2]

(v) Why is it necessary to know the blood groups before giving transfusion of blood? [3]

Question 6

(i) Define the following term- Diapedesis. [1]

(ii) State the function of the sensory neuron and the motor neuron. [2]

(iii) Where is the thymus gland located and what is its function? [2]

(iv) Explain why the grass in the lawn becomes greener if you add a little fertilizer to it, but dies if you add a lot
of it. [2]

(v) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a defect of the human eye. [3]

a) Identify the defect.

b) State how the defect can be rectified.

c) Name the part of the eye responsible for

maintaining the shape of the eyeball.

Question 7

(i) One feels blinded for a short time after coming out of a dark room. Explain. [1]

(ii) Define growth rate of population. In what situation can this rate be negative? [2]

(iii) Define the four stages in the menstrual cycle. [2]

(iv) What is monohybrid cross? How did Mendel perform this cross? [2]

(v) Describe in brief about cardiac cycle. [3]

Question 8

(i) How is soil pollution caused? [1]

(ii) What are the disadvantages of transpiration? [2]

(iii) The full-grown human embryo respires but does not breathe. [2]

(iv) What is greenhouse effect and how is it caused? [2]

(v) Study the diagram given below and then answer the questions that follow: [3]

a) Name the cells of the pancreas that produce (1) glucagon, (2) insulin.

b) State the main function of glucagon and insulin.

c) Why is insulin not given orally but is injected into the body?
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