Midterm Model Paper 1

SUBJECT BIOLOGY (36)

Duration: 3hr 15 Min Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions
1. This Question paper consists of four parts A, B, C, D.
2. Part A consists of I and II and Part D consists of two parts, section V and VI
3. All the parts are compulsory
4. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabeled diagrams do not carry any marks

PART A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 1 x 15 = 15
1. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to:
a) Megasporangium b) Megasporophyll c) megaspore mother cell d) megaspore
2. The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual apparatus is used for forming
embryos without fertilization is called
a) Parthenocarpy b) Apomixes c) vegetative propagation d) sexual reproduction
3. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large numbers and its stigmas are long
and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by
a) Insects b) water c) wind d) animals
4. Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system:
a) Rete testis b) Epididymis c) Vasa efferentia d) Isthmus
5. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from:
a) seminiferous tubules b) vas deferens c) Epididymis d) prostate gland
6. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?
a) Spermatogonia b) Zygote c) Secondary oocyte d) Oogonia
7. Identify the odd one from the following:
a) labia minora b) Fimbriae c) infundibulum d) isthmus
8. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen, progesterone are produced by:
a) ovary b) Placenta c) fallopian tube d) pituitary
9. Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?
a) Lepidoptera b) Lichens c) Lycopersicon d) Lycopodium
10. Palaeontological evidences for evolution refer to the
a) development of embryo b) homologous organs
c) fossils d) analogous organs
11. Analogous organs arise due to
a) Divergent evolution b) Artificial selection
c) genetic drift d) Convergent evolution
12. Widal test is carried out to test
a) malaria b) diabetes mellitus c) HIV/AIDS d) typhoid fever
13. Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment?
a) IUD b) GIFT c) IUI d) ICSI
 14. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within,
a) 72 hrs of coitus b) 72 hrs of ovulation
c) 72 hrs of menstruation d) 72 hrs of implantation.
15. Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
a) increase in birth rate b) decrease in death rate
c) lack of education d) all of these.

II Fill the blanks with appropriate answers given in brackets 5X1=5

(Langdon Down, T-lymphocytes, Coelocanth, DNA ligase, Aedes)
16. The discontinuously synthesized fragments are later joined by the enzyme__________
17. widespread incidences of the vector-borne diseases like dengue and chikungunya in many parts of India
through____________
18. Graft rejection in our body is due to___________
19. Presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21 is associated with _________
20. In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a ___________which was thought to be extinct.
PART - B
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 5 sentences wherever applicable: 2 x 5 = 10
21. List out the qualities of ideal contraceptives.

22. What are emergency contraceptives? Give an example.

23. What are reproductive tract infections? Give two examples.

24. Distinguish between incomplete dominance and co-dominance

25. Differentiate between male heterogamety and female heterogamety with an example to each.
 26. What homologous organs? Give one plant example.

27. What is amniocentesis? Why it is banned in India?

28. Draw a neat labeled diagram of structure of antibody molecule.

PART - C
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 80 words each wherever applicable: 3 x 5 = 15
29. Explain the types of pollination in angiosperms.

30. Draw a neat labeled diagram of fertilized embryo sac.

31. Write the function for the following:
i. Fimbriae
ii. Ampulla
iii. Uterus
32. What is cleavage? Explain with labeled sketches.

33. Explain packaging of DNA in eukaryotes.

34. Explain the structure of pollen grain with a neat labeled diagram.
 35. Write the diagrammatic representation of Miller's expt.

36. State Hardy-Weinberg law. Mention the factors affecting the law.

PART D
(Section I)
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable:
5 x 4 = 20
37. Explain the structure of T.S of young anther.
38. Draw a neat labeled diagram of structure of mammary gland.

39. Explain two gene Inheritance in garden pea plants.

40. a) How sex is determined in human beings? 3M

b) Mention two autosomal genetic disorders. 2M

41. a) Mention the two advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel. 2M

b) Write Karyotype and four symptoms for syndrome. 2M

c) State law of segregation. 1M

42. Write the steps involved in DNA fingerprinting.

 43. (a) Write the causative organism and four symptoms of typhoid disease. 3M

(b) Give two examples for primary lymphoid organs. 2M

44. (a) What is allergy? Write four symptoms. 3M

(b) How the allergy is treated? Name the antibody involved in it. 2M

Section II
Answer any ONE of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable:
5 x 1= 5
45. Explain Hershey and chase experiment to prove DNA as genetic material.
46. (a) Write the four criteria for genetic material. 2M

(b) Distinguish between template and coding strand of DNA. 2M

(c) What is cistron? 1M

47. (a) What is innate immunity? Mention the four types of barriers with an example to each. 3M

(b) Differentiate between active and passive Immunity. 2M

 Midterm Model Paper 2
SUBJECT BIOLOGY (36)
Duration: 3hr 15 Min Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions
1. This Question paper consists of four parts A, B, C, D.
2. Part A consists of I and II and Part D consists of two parts, section V and VI
3. All the parts are compulsory
4. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabeled diagrams do not carry any marks

PART A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 1 x 15 = 15
1. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of
a) Pesticides b) growth hormones c) Steroids d) Abscic acid
2. This residual, persistent nucellus is the
a) Nucleus b) Integument c) perisperm d) Funicle
3. One of the cell of pollen grain divides to form two male gametes.
a) Vegetative cell b) Generative cell c) Microspore mother cell d) None of these
4. Darwin was gradual while deVries believed mutation caused speciation and hence called it is
a) Saltation b) Founder effect c) Natural selection d) Artificial selection
5. Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called
a) founder effect b) saltation c) branching descent d) natural selection
6. Hepatitis B vaccine produced from yeast by
a) PCR b) ELISA c) rDNA technology d) Gene therapy
7. One such method in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle when ovulation could be expected.
a) Lactational amenorrhoea b) Coitus interuptus c) Syngamy d) Periodic abstinence
8. Copper releasing IUDs
a) Multiload 375 b) Progestasert c) LNG-20 Lippes loop
9. Scientist united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles and called it the
chromosomal theory of inheritance
a) T.H Morgan b) Sutton c) Mendel d) Griffith
10. Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) are
a) Physical barrier b) Cytokine barrier c) Cellular barrier d) Physiological barrier
11. The urethra originates from the urinary bladder and extends through the penis to its external opening
called
a) Excretory pore b) Urethral meatus c) Auditory meatus d) Anus
12. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla which is connected to
a) Mammary tubule b) Alveoli c) lactiferous duct d) Nipple
13. In the event of pregnancy, the corpus luteum persists under the influence of
a) LH b) FSH c) chorionic gonadotropin d) progesterone.
 14. Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically called
a) parturition b) oviposition c) abortion d) ovulation.
15. Which of the following contains the actual genetic part of a sperm?
a) Whole of it b) Tail c) Middle piece d) Head
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/Words from those given below: 1 x 5 = 5
(Homo erectus, nucellus, degenerate, Genital herpes, Phenyl ketonuria)
16. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the ___________
17. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage____________
18. The inborn error of metabolism is also inherited as the autosomal recessive trait____________
19. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is __________
20. The sexually transmitted disease is not completely curable________
PART - B
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 5 sentences wherever applicable: 2 x 5 = 10
21. Give examples for hormone releasing. IUDs.

22. Define MTP. Write the Safe period for MTP.

23. Write four examples for female barrier contraceptive methods

24. What is point mutation? Give an example.

25. What is aneuploidy? Give an example.

26. What is infertility? Write any two reasons for infertility.

27. What are homologous organs? Give animal example.

28. Mention any four control measures to prevent insect vector borne diseases.
 PART - C
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 80 words each wherever applicable: 3 x 5 = 15
29. Mention the three types of fruits with an example to each.

30. Explain pollination in Vallisnaria

31. Mention the three types of male accessary glands.

32. Define the following terms:

i) Implantation

ii) Parturition

iii) Foetal ejection reflex.

33. Explain the structure of transcription unit with a neat labeled diagram.

34. Write any three characteristic features of insect pollinated flowers.

 35. Write a note on industrial melanism.

36. Explain the mechanism of natural selection with the help of graphs.

PART D
(Section I)
Answer any THREE of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable:
5 x 4 = 20
37. Explain the structure of megasporangium with a neat labeled diagram.
38. Draw a neat labeled diagram of structure of human sperm.

39. Explain incomplete dominance in snapdragan plant with the help of schematic representation.
40. (a) Write the cause and symptoms of PKU. 3M

(b) Explain the sex determination in honey bees. 2M

41. Explain Meselson and Stahl experiment to prove DNA replication is semiconservative.

42. Write any five salient features of HGP.

43. Give reason.2M

b) Mention the possible genotypes of A and B blood group individuals.2M

c) State law of independent assortment. 1M

44. (a) Write the Schematic representation of lifecycle of plasmodium. 3M

(b) Write the two symptoms of malaria disease. 2M

 Section II
Answer any TWO of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable: 5 x 1= 5
45. (a) What are untranslated regions? Where does they are located? 2M

(b) AUG has dual functions. Substantiate. 2M

(c) What is DNA polymorphism? 1M

46. (a) Distinguish between infectious and non-infectious diseases with an example to each. 2M

(b) Mention the two causative agents of pneumonia disease, 2M

(c) Write the confirmatory test for typhoid. 1M

47. Explain the steps involved in DNA replication.

 Midterm Model Paper 3
SUBJECT BIOLOGY (36)
Duration: 3hr 15 Min Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions
1. This Question paper consists of four parts A, B, C, D.
2. Part A consists of I and II and Part D consists of two parts, section V and VI
3. All the parts are compulsory
4. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabeled diagrams do not carry any marks

PART A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 1 x 15 = 15
1. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is
a) 8 celled b) 7 celled c) 6 celled d) 5 celled
2. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
a) bees b) butterflies c) birds c) wind
3. One of the most resistant biological material present in the exine of pollen grain is
a) pectocellulose b) sporopollenin c) suberin d) cellulose.
4. The part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen is
a) stigma b) style c) ovary d) synergids
5. After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into
a) corpus atresia b) corpus callosum c) corpus luteum d) corpus albicans
6. A human female reaches menopause around the age of
a) 50 years b) 15 years c) 70 years d) 25 years.
7. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
a) hCG b) Estrogens c) Progesterone d) LH
8. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 2 d) 1
9. The first movements of the fetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which
month of pregnancy?
a) Fourth month b) Fifth month c) Sixth month d) Third month
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?
a) User-friendly b) Irreversible c) Easily available d) Least side-effects
11. Multiload device contains
a) manganese b) iron c) copper d) calcium
12. ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
a) platypus b) snails c) cockroach d) peacock
13. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
a) multiple allelism b) mosaicism c) pleiotropy d) polygeny.
14. In Antirrhinum (dog flower), phenotypic ratio in F2 generation for the inheritance of flower colour would
be
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 1 : 1 d) 2 : 1
 15. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced?
a) Chromosome 1 b) Chromosome 11 c) Chromosome 21 d) Chromosome X

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/Words from those given below: 1 x 5 = 5
(Ramapithecus, UV rays and lightning, Vault, Charles Darwin, blood transfusion)
16. One of the possible early sources of energy was/were__________
17. The primate which existed 15 mya was_________
18. The theory of natural selection was given by____________
19. The birth control device used by women is__________
20. Hepatitis B is transmitted through___________

PART - B
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 5 sentences wherever applicable: 2 x 5 = 10
21. Give two examples for copper releasing IUDs.

22. Mention the two sterilization techniques generally advised for the male/female partner method to prevent
pregnancies as terminal

23. Mention any two principles used to prevent STDS.

24. What is test cross? Write its significance.

25. What are multiple alleles? Give an example.

26. What is contraception? Give an example for male barrier method.

27. Write the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of evolution.

28. Mention any two personal hygiene methods to prevent infectious diseases.
 PART - C
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 80 words each wherever applicable: 3 x 5 = 15
29. Explain megasporogenesis with the help of diagrams showing 2, 4 and && nucleated embryo sacs.

30. Write any three features of wind pollinated flowers.

31. What are cleistogamous flowers? Write their significance.

32. Explain the structure of seminiferous tubule with a neat labeled diagram.

33. Explain the different phases of menstrual cycle.

 34. Explain the biochemical experiment of Avery.

35. Give an example for each of the following:

i) Biggest dinosaur
ii) Fish like reptile
iii) Ancestors of modern day frogs & Salamanders
36. write two salient features for each of the following:
i) Homo habilis
ii) Homo erectus
iii) Neanderthal man
PART D
(Section I)
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable:
5 x 4 = 20
37. Explain any five outbreeding devices to prevent self-pollination.

38. Draw a neat labeled diagram of human male reproductive System.

39. Explain one gene inheritance in garden pea plants.

40. (a) Construct a pedigree chart autosomal dominant trait i.e. Myotonic dystrophy. 3M

(b) Write the karyotype and symptoms for Klinefelter's Syndrome. 2M

41. (a) What are Mendelian disorders? Give an example. 2M

(b) Write karyotype and symptoms of Turner's syndrome. 2M

(c) Define polyploidy. 1M

42. Explain lac operon concept.

43. (a) Write Causative organism, mode of transmission and symptoms for Amoebiasis. 3M
 (b) Give two examples for worm diseases. 2M

44. (a) Mention the two methodologies used in HGP.2M

(b) Give two examples for vectors used in HGP. 1M

Section II
Answer any ONE of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable:
5 x 1= 5
45. Write any five salient features of Watson and Crick double helix model.

46. (a) Give any four examples for secondary lymphoid organs 2M.

(b) Define acquired immunity. Mention the types cells involved in it. 2M

(c) Name the organ/gland is quite large at the time of birth but keeps reducing in size with age. 1M
47. Mention the steps involved in DNA fingerprinting.
 Midterm Model Paper 4
SUBJECT BIOLOGY (36)
Duration: 3hr 15 Min Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions
1. This Question paper consists of four parts A, B, C, D.
2. Part A consists of I and II and Part D consists of two parts, section V and VI
3. All the parts are compulsory
4. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabeled diagrams do not carry any marks

PART A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 1 x 15 = 15

1. Wind-pollination is quite common in

a) Zostera b) Vallisnaria c) Grasses d) Viola
2. Tallest flower is about 6 feet in height
a) Amorphophallus b) Yucca c) Orchid orphrys d) Fig
3. The hormone of hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary to secrete
a) Gonadotropins b) Androgens c) Progesterone d) Estrogen
4. The secondary follicle soon transforms into a tertiary follicle which is characterised by a fluid filled
cavity called
a) Archeonteron b) antrum c) Blastocoel d) Gastrocoel
5. The first menstruation begins at the puberty and it is called
a) Menopause b) Oogenesis c) Spermatogenesis d) Menarche
6. The incomplete dominance is observed in
a) Pea b) Hibiscus c) Vallisnaria d) Viola
7. Mendelian disorders is
a) Cystic fibrosis c) Malaria
8. The genetic codes are universal except
a) bacteria b) Human c) Cyanobacteria d) Protozoans
9. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the
a) Second trimester b) first trimester c) First five months d) Three months
10. Saheli is
a) Twice a week pill b) Thrice a week pill c) Once a week pill d) everyday pill
11. Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) located at
a) Bangalore b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Lucknow
12. The theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe
a) Abiogenesis b) Chemical evolution c) Big bang d) Biogenesis
13. The eye of the octopus and of mammals or the flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are
a) Homologous organs b) Analogous organs c) Vestigial organs d) Rudimentary organs
14. The first cellular forms of life appeared on earth
a) about 3000 mya b) about 4000 mya c) about 200 mya d) about 5000 mya
 15. The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly
disease like
a) Typhoid b) Cancer c) AIDS d) smallpox.
II Fill the blanks with appropriate answers given in brackets 5X1=5
(spermatogonia, Colostrum, Three, Vinca, Triploid tissue)
16. You can easily study pollen germination by dusting some pollen from flowers such as __________
17. The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms _________
18. The present ________on the inside wall of seminiferous tubules multiply by mitotic division and
increase in numbers.
19. The milk produced during initial few days of lactation________
20. In 1900, ___________
characters

PART - B
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 5 sentences wherever applicable: 2 x 5 = 10
21. Write any two characteristic features of Autralopithecines

22. Explain the following assisted reproductive technologies

i) IVF-ET

ii) ICSI

23. Write any two strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care.

24. Write two possible ill effects of use of contraceptives.

25. Write four symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases.

 26. Write the genotype of AB blood group.

27. Why has T H Morgan selected fruitfly for his genetical experiment?

28. Mention the two hosts of malarial parasite.

PART - C
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 80 words each wherever applicable: 3 x 5 = 15
29. What is adaptive radiation? Give two examples.

30. a) Distinguish between divergent and convergent evolution. 2M

b) Mention the two principles of Lamarckism. 1M

31. Write any three goals of HGP.

32. What is artificial hybridisation? By which technique it is achieved?

33. a) Difference between Geitonogamy and Xenogamy. 2M

b) Papaya plants exhibit xenogamy only. Why? 1M

34. Give three examples for plants which produces both cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers.

35. a) Mention the accessary ducts of human male reproductive system. 2M

b) Name the cells which secrete androgens. 1M

36. Mention the parts of female external genitalia.

 PART D
(Section I)
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable:
5 x 4 = 20
37. a) What are non-histone proteins (NHC)? 1M

b) Distinguish between euchromatin and heterochromatin. 2M

c) Mention the two basic amino acids present in histone. 2M

38. Draw a neat labeled diagram human female reproductive system.

39. Explain the structure of monocot embryo with a neat labeled diagram.
40. Write any five salient features of genetic codes.

41. a) What are the conclusions drawn by T.H Morgan experiment in Drosophila melanogaster with
respect to linkage. 2M

b) What is polygenic inheritance? Give an example. 2M

c) What is recombination? 1M

42. (a) Distinguish between humoral immune response and cell mediated immune response. 2M

(b) What is autoimmune disease? Give an example.2M

(c) Give two examples for drugs to treat allergy. 1M

43. (a) Write any two to symptoms of common cold. 2M

(b) Write any two public hygiene methods to prevent infectious diseases. 2M

(c) Name the plasmodium species which most serious and fatal. 1M
 44. Explain post-transcriptional changes in eukaryotes.

Section II
Answer any ONE of the following questions in about 200 250 words each wherever applicable:
5 x 1= 5
45. Explain the process of translation in protein synthesis.
46. a) Explain sex determination in insects. 3M

b) Distinguish between dominant and recessive alleles. 2M

47. Write the causative organisms for the following diseases:

a) Elephantiasis/Filariasis
b) Ascariasis
c) Ringworm
d) Typhoid
e) Pnemonia