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MATH 101 Successive Differentiation

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26 views12 pages

MATH 101 Successive Differentiation

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navalandmarine12
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SUCCESSIVE DIFFERENTIATION

Faiza Ruka
Lecturer in Mathematics
DEPARTMENT OF SCIENCE & HUMANITIES (SH)
Successive differentiation, also known as repeated differentiation, involves finding higher-order derivatives of a function.
ⅆ ⅆ2
Given a function𝑓 𝑥 , the first derivative is denoted by 𝑓′ 𝑥 or 𝑓 𝑥 . The second derivative is 𝑓′′(𝑥) or 𝑓 𝑥 , and so
ⅆ𝑥 ⅆ𝑥 2
on.
Examples and General Formulas
ⅆ
1.First Derivative: 𝑓′ 𝑥 = ⅆ𝑥 𝑓 𝑥

ⅆ2 ⅆ
1.Second Derivative: 𝑓′′(𝑥) = ⅆ𝑥 2 𝑓 𝑥 = ⅆ𝑥 𝑓′ 𝑥
ⅆ3 ⅆ
2.Third Derivative: 𝑓′′’(𝑥) = ⅆ𝑥 3 𝑓 𝑥 = ⅆ𝑥 𝑓′′ 𝑥
𝑛 ⅆn
3.nth Derivative: 𝑓 𝑥 = ⅆ𝑥 n 𝑓 𝑥
❑ 𝑦 = ⅇ−𝑥 sin 𝑥 prove that 𝑦4 + 4𝑦 = 0
SOL: From previous we get,
⇒ 𝑦4 = −4y
⇒ 𝑦4 + 4y = 0

HOMEWORK:
❑ 𝑦 = ln 𝑥 + 𝑎2 + 𝑥 2 then show that (𝑎2 + 𝑥 2 )𝑦2 + 𝑥𝑦1 = 0.
LEIBNITZ’S THEOREM:
The Leibnitz’s theorem states that if two functions 𝑢 𝑥 and v 𝑥 are differentiable n times
individually, then their product 𝑢 𝑥 v 𝑥 is also differentiable n times.
PROOF:
Let 𝑦 = 𝑢𝑣
Differentiating both w.r.t. 𝑥 we get,
𝑦1 = 𝑢𝑣1 + 𝑢1 𝑣
𝑦2 = 𝑢𝑣2 + 𝑢1 𝑣1 + 𝑢1 𝑣1 + 𝑢2 𝑣
𝑦2 = 𝑢𝑣2 + 2𝑢1 𝑣1 + 𝑢2 𝑣 = 𝑢𝑣2 + 2𝑐1 𝑢1 𝑣2−1 + 𝑢2 𝑣
𝑦3 = 𝑢𝑣3 + 𝑢1 𝑣2 + 2(𝑢1 𝑣2 + 𝑢2 𝑣1 ) + 𝑢2 𝑣1 + 𝑢3 𝑣
𝑦3 = 𝑢𝑣3 + 3𝑢1 𝑣2 + 3𝑢2 𝑣1 + 𝑢3 𝑣
𝑦3 = 𝑢𝑣3 + 3𝑐1 𝑢1 𝑣3−1 + 3𝑐2 𝑢2 𝑣3−2 + 𝑢3 𝑣
So the theorem is true for n=2 and n=3
Now if n=m then
𝑦m = 𝑢𝑣m + 𝑚𝑐1 𝑢1 𝑣m−1 + 𝑚𝑐2 𝑢2 𝑣m−2 + ⋯ + 𝑚𝑐r−1 𝑢𝑟−1 𝑣m−r+1 + 𝑚𝑐r 𝑢𝑟 𝑣m−r +𝑢m 𝑣
𝑦m+1
= (𝑢𝑣m+1 + 𝑢1 𝑣m ) + 𝑚𝑐1 (𝑢1 𝑣m + 𝑢2 𝑣m−1 ) + 𝑚𝑐2 (𝑢2 𝑣m−1 + 𝑢3 𝑣m−2 ) + ⋯ + 𝑚𝑐r−1 (𝑢𝑟−1 𝑣m−r+2
+ 𝑢𝑟 𝑣m−r+1 ) + 𝑚𝑐r (𝑢𝑟 𝑣m−r+1 + 𝑢𝑟+1 𝑣m−r +(𝑢m 𝑣1 +𝑢m+1 𝑣)
𝑦m+1 = 𝑢𝑣m+1 + (1 + 𝑚𝑐1 )𝑢1 𝑣m + (𝑚𝑐1 + 𝑚𝑐2 )𝑢2 𝑣m−1 + ⋯ + (𝑚𝑐r + 𝑚𝑐r−1 )𝑢𝑟 𝑣m−r+1 + ⋯ +𝑢m+1 𝑣
We know that, 𝑚𝑐r + 𝑚𝑐r−1 = (𝑚 + 1)𝑐r
𝑦m+1 = 𝑢𝑣m+1 + (𝑚 + 1)𝑐1 𝑢1 𝑣m + (𝑚 + 1)𝑐2 𝑢2 𝑣m−1 + ⋯ + 𝑚 + 1 𝑐r 𝑢𝑟 𝑣m−r+1 + ⋯ +𝑢m+1 𝑣
So it is true for n=m and n=m+1 as well.
By method of induction we can say that it is true for all the values of n.
Hence, 𝑦n = 𝑢𝑣n + 𝑛𝑐1 𝑢1 𝑣n−1 + 𝑛𝑐2 𝑢2 𝑣n−2 + ⋯ + 𝑛𝑐r−1 𝑢𝑟−1 𝑣n−r+1 + 𝑛𝑐r 𝑢𝑟 𝑣n−r +𝑢n 𝑣
[PROVED]
HOMEWORK:
❑ 𝑦 = cos −1 𝑥 2 then show that 1 − 𝑥 2 𝑦𝑛+2 − 𝑛2 𝑦𝑛 = 0.
❑ 𝑦 = cos asin−1 𝑥 then show that 1 − 𝑥 2 𝑦𝑛+2 − 2𝑛 + 1 𝑥𝑦𝑛+1 + (𝑎2 − 𝑛2 )𝑦𝑛 = 0.

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