Assurance Question Bank ICAEW 2019

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Assurance question bank 2019

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The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales
ASSURANCE
For exams in 2019
Question Bank
www.icaew.com
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Assurance
The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales
ISBN: 978-1-50971-993-8
Previous ISBN: 978-1-78363-691-4
First edition 2007
Twelfth edition 2018
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored

in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, graphic,
electronic or mechanical including photocopying, recording, scanning or
otherwise, without the prior written permission of the publisher.
The content of this publication is intended to prepare students for the
ICAEW examinations, and should not be used as professional advice.
British Library Cataloguing-in-Publication Data

A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library
Originally printed in the United Kingdom on paper obtained from
traceable, sustainable sources.
© ICAEW 2018
ii ICAEW 2019
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Contents
The following questions are exam-standard. Unless told otherwise, these questions are the style,
content and format that you can expect in your exam.
Title Page
Questions Answers
1 Concept of and need for assurance 3 129
2 Process of assurance: obtaining an engagement 10 132
3 Process of assurance: planning the assignment 14 134
4 Process of assurance: evidence and reporting 24 138
5 Introduction to internal control 30 141
6 Revenue system 43 145
7 Purchases system 50 148
8 Employee costs 56 150
9 Internal audit 62 152
10 Documentation 66 154
11 Evidence and sampling 71 156
12 Written representations 83 161
13 Substantive procedures – key financial statement figures 87 163
14 Codes of professional ethics 101 168
15 Integrity, objectivity and independence 106 170
16 Confidentiality 122 175
Mock Exam guidance notes 179
ICAEW 2019 Contents iii

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Exam
This assessment will consist of 50 questions with equal marks, adding up to 100 marks.
The questions are of the following types:
 Multiple choice – select 1 from 4 options A, B, C or D (see Chapter 1 Q3)
 Multi-part multiple choice – select 1 from 2, 3 or 4 options, for two or more question parts
(see Chapter 1 Q7)
 Multiple response – select 2 or more responses from 4 or more options (see Chapter 1 Q1)
In this Question Bank you should select only one option per question unless told otherwise.
The assessment is 1.5 hours long and at least 55 marks are required to pass this assessment
Our website has the latest information, guidance and exclusive resources to help you prepare
for this assessment. Find everything you need, from exam webinars, sample assessments, errata
sheets and the syllabus to advice from the examiners at icaew.com/exams if you're studying the
ACA and icaew.com/cfabstudents if you're studying ICAEW CFAB.
iv Assurance ICAEW 2019

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Question Bank
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2 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

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Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance

1 Which three of the following are key elements of a general assurance engagement?
A A user
B A subject matter
C Suitable criteria
D An assurance file LO 1a
2 Which three of the following describe aspects of the expectations gap with respect to the
external audit?
A Users do not understand the meaning of the audit opinion
B Users are not aware of the limitations of the audit process
C Users do not appreciate that reasonable assurance is a low level of assurance
D Users do not understand what the audit process involves LO 1e
3 Which one of the following qualifications is required for individuals working on audits in the
UK?
A University degree
B Professional qualification
C Membership of a recognised supervisory body
D Employment by a firm controlled by qualified persons LO 1f
4 Which two of the following are limitations of the provision of assurance?

A Assurance work is carried out by people independent of the entity
B Sampling is used in assurance work
C Client systems have inherent limitations
D Unqualified staff may be used on assurance engagements LO 1e
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance 3

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5 In any assurance engagement there are three parties involved: the responsible party, the
practitioner and the user.
In respect of given subject matter state which party:
determines the suitable criteria?
A User
B Practitioner
C Responsible party
provides an opinion on whether the subject matter complies with the criteria?
D User
E Practitioner
F Responsible party LO 1c
6 Which one of the following statements best describes the evidence obtained and the
opinion given in a reasonable assurance engagement?
A Sufficient appropriate evidence and a negatively worded opinion
B Sufficient appropriate evidence and a positively worded opinion
C A lower level of evidence and a negatively worded opinion
D A lower level of evidence and a positively worded opinion LO 1h
7 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false.
A statutory audit gives reasonable assurance that the financial statements give a true and
fair view.
A True
B False
A negative assurance conclusion gives a limited level of assurance.
C True
D False
Reasonable assurance is absolute assurance of the correctness of the subject matter.
E True
F False LO 1d

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8 Jones LLP is the external auditor of Blue plc, a listed company. The directors of Blue plc
have requested that Jones LLP carry out a review engagement assessing the effectiveness
of its corporate governance policies against the UK Corporate Governance Code.
For the above review engagement, select which part of the engagement description
constitutes the subject matter, which describes the suitable criteria and which party is the
responsible party.
The subject matter
A Blue plc's corporate governance policies
B The UK Corporate Governance Code
The suitable criteria
C Blue plc's corporate governance policies
D The UK Corporate Governance Code
The responsible party
E Jones LLP
F The directors of Blue plc LO 1a/c
9 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false in respect of
suitable criteria used in an assurance engagement.
The criteria for all assurance engagements will be the same.
A True
B False
Suitable criteria can only be identified for assurance engagements relating to financial
statements.
C True
D False
Relevant criteria for assurance engagements relating to financial statements are likely to be
accounting standards.
E True
F False LO 1d

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10 There are two types of assurance engagement: reasonable assurance engagements and
limited assurance engagements. There are also two types of assurance conclusion: positive
and negative.
For each type of assurance engagement, select the appropriate conclusion given.
Reasonable assurance
A Positive form of words
B Negative form of words
Limited assurance
C Positive form of words
D Negative form of words LO 1d
11 For each of the following statements relating to the provisions of the Companies Act 2006,
select whether they are true or false.
An individual or firm is eligible for appointment as statutory auditor if the individual or firm
is a member of a recognised supervisory body and is eligible for appointment under the
rules of that body.
A True
B False
A person may not act as a statutory auditor if that person is an officer or employee of the audit
client.
C True
D False LO 1f
12 Which one of the following best describes the concept of assurance?

Assurance refers to:
A an assurance firm's high level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being
made by one party for the use of another party
B an assurance firm's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one
party for the use of another party
C a user's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by another party
D an assurance firm's limited level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being
made by one party for the use of another party LO 1a

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13 Which three of the following are benefits of an assurance report on financial information?
An assurance report:
A enhances the credibility of the information being reported on
B reduces the risk of management bias in the information being reported on
C attests to the correctness of the information being reported on
D draws the attention of the user to deficiencies in the information being reported on
LO 1b
14 In any assurance engagement there are three parties involved: the responsible party, the
practitioner and the user.
For each of the following select which party:
prepares the subject matter?
A Responsible party
B Practitioner
C User
gathers evidence on the subject matter?
D Responsible party
E Practitioner
F User LO 1c
15 The following is an extract from an independent accountant's unmodified report on a profit

forecast:
'Based on our examination of the evidence supporting the assumptions, nothing has come
to our attention which causes us to believe that these assumptions do not provide a
reasonable basis for the forecast.'
Which one of the following best describes the type of assurance provided by this
statement?
A Positive assurance expressed negatively
B Negative assurance expressed positively
C High level of assurance expressed negatively
D Limited level of assurance expressed negatively LO 1d

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16 In the context of a statutory audit which three of the following are examples of the
expectation gap?
The belief that:
A the auditor's report certifies the financial statements as correct
B the auditor's principal duty is to detect fraud
C the auditor is employed by the directors
D the auditor checks all transactions LO 1e
17 The level of assurance provided by an assurance engagement will depend on the type of
engagement.
For each of the following examples, select the level of assurance which would be given.
Statutory audit
A Absolute
B Reasonable
Review of financial information
C Reasonable
D Limited
Report on profit and cash flow forecasts
E Reasonable
F Limited LO 1d
18 Which two of the following factors would render a person ineligible to be a company
auditor, in line with the Companies Act 2006?
A He/she is a partner in a firm of auditors regulated by an RSB
B His/her wife/husband is an officer/employee of the company
C He/she is an officer/employee of a directly connected company
D He/she does not hold an appropriate qualification, although they do work for a firm
controlled by qualified persons LO 1f

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19 The Companies Act 2006 requires all companies to be audited, but allows small companies
an exemption from this requirement where they meet certain criteria.
Small Ltd has an annual turnover of £10 million, total assets of £5.1 million, and
101 employees.
Assuming no special circumstances exist, is Small Ltd required to have an audit in the UK?
A Yes
B No
Tiny Ltd has an annual turnover of £15 million, total assets of £5.2 million, and
99 employees.
Assuming no special circumstances exist, is Tiny Ltd required to have an audit in the UK?
C Yes
D No
Little Ltd has an annual turnover of £5 million, total assets of £4.9 million, and
45 employees.
Assuming no special circumstances exist, is Little Ltd required to have an audit in the UK?
E Yes
F No LO 1f

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Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an

engagement
1 Which two of the following are auditors always required to do on being invited to accept an
audit engagement?
A Ensure they are professionally qualified to act
B Ensure they have adequate existing resources to carry out the audit
C Obtain references for key personnel within the entity to be audited
D Communicate with the predecessor auditors to discover any reasons they should not
accept appointment LO 1f
2 Which two of the following might indicate that an assurance client could be higher than
normal inherent or control risk?
A Poor recent performance
B Strong internal controls
C Unusual transactions
D The existence of an internal audit department LO 1f
3 Claret LLP, an assurance firm, has the following two clients among its client portfolio. For
each client, select whether inherent risk is high or low.
Tulip Ltd is planning to list on the local stock exchange within the next two years.
A High risk
B Low risk
Dhalia Ltd is currently facing financial difficulties and is seeking alternative forms of finance.
C High risk
D Low risk LO 1f
4 Which three of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of assurance
services?
A Clearly defines the extent of the assurance provider's responsibilities
B Provides written confirmation of the acceptance of the engagement
C Confirms the scope of the engagement
D Certifies the assurance provider's opinion LO 1f

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5 For each of the following factors present at a prospective client, select whether that factor
indicates that that client is high risk or low risk.
Company has prudent accounting policies
A High risk
B Low risk
Company carries out unusual transactions
C High risk
D Low risk
Company currently has no finance director
E High risk
F Low risk LO 1f
6 Which three of the following procedures should be carried out after the audit firm has
decided to accept appointment as auditor?
A Ensure that the outgoing auditors' removal/resignation has been properly conducted
B Ensure that a resolution has been passed at the general meeting to appoint the new
auditors
C Perform checks to ensure that there are no legal or ethical reasons why the new audit
firm cannot act as auditor
D Submit a letter of engagement to the directors LO 1f
7 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false in respect of the
audit engagement letter.
The engagement letter should be sent before acceptance of appointment.
A True
B False
The engagement letter should be sent after the appointment of the auditor but before the
commencement of the audit.
C True
D False
The engagement letter should be sent after the commencement of the audit but before the
signing of the auditor's report.
E True
F False
An engagement letter should be sent to all new clients.
G True
H False LO 1f
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an engagement 11

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8 Which one of the following correctly describes the period for which client identification
documents must be kept under money laundering regulations?
A For a minimum of five years and until five years have elapsed since the relationship
with the client has ceased
B For a minimum of seven years and until seven years have elapsed since the relationship
C For a minimum of five years and until seven years have elapsed since the relationship
D For a minimum of seven years and until five years have elapsed since the relationship
with the client has ceased LO 1f
9 Which two of the following must be included in the engagement letter?

A The responsibilities of the auditor
B Arrangements regarding the planning and performance of the audit
C The form of any reports
D Basis on which fees are computed LO 1f
10 Which three of the following are purposes of a letter of engagement?

A Setting out the form of any report to be issued
B Providing constructive suggestions to management concerning improvements in
internal control
C Documenting and confirming acceptance of the appointment
D Narrowing the expectations gap
E Providing evidence on matters where other evidence is not expected to exist LO 1f
11 Which one of the following best describes professional scepticism?

The assurance provider should:
A not believe anything that management tells him
B not believe anything that management tells him, without obtaining supporting
evidence
C apply a questioning mind to the information and evidence he obtains
D always assume the worst outcome in cases of uncertainty LO 1g

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12 Which two of the following must be included in the engagement letter?

A The scope of the audit
B The reporting framework that is applicable for the financial statements being prepared
C Details of client identification procedures to be performed in relation to Money
Laundering Regulations
D A statement that, in accordance with the Companies Act 2006, the auditor's liability
cannot be restricted LO 1f
13 Ferenczi LLP is in the process of being appointed as auditor of two clients, Klein Ltd and
Breuer Ltd.
The predecessor auditor of Klein Ltd has gone into liquidation and cannot be contacted.
Can Ferenczi LLP accept the appointment as auditor of Klein Ltd?
A Yes
B No
The managing director of Breuer Ltd was not previously known to Ferenczi LLP. An enquiry
with Companies House has shown that she has a bankruptcy order.
Can Ferenczi LLP accept the appointment as auditor of Breuer Ltd?
C Yes
D No LO 1f

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Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the

assignment
1 Which three of the following are objectives of audit planning?
A To determine the scope of the engagement
B To ensure appropriate attention is devoted to the important areas of the audit
C To identify potential problems and resolve them on a timely basis
D To assign work to members of the audit team LO 1f
2 With respect to ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement
Through Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment, which three of the following
procedures shall be used in understanding the entity and its environment?
A Inquiries of management and others within the entity
B Inquiries of third parties
C Analytical procedures
D Observation and inspection LO 1f
3 Which three of the following constitute analytical procedures?

A Consideration of comparable information for prior periods
B Consideration of relationships between elements of financial information that are
expected to conform to a predicted pattern
C Consideration of whether a balance has been calculated correctly
D Consideration of similar industry information LO 1f
4 Which three of the following are auditors helped to decide by setting a preliminary
materiality threshold?
A What audit staff to assign to the audit
B How many items to examine
C Whether to use sampling
D What level of misstatement is likely to lead to the auditor not being able to give an
unmodified opinion LO 1f

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5 Which three of the following would normally be included in the overall audit strategy?
A Details of economic factors and industry conditions
B The results of initial analytical procedures
C Confirmation of management's responsibility for the financial statements
D Identification of specific audit risks LO 1f
6 In each of the following cases, select whether inherent risk is higher or lower than normal.
The company operates a profit-related pay scheme.
A Inherent risk higher than normal
B Inherent risk lower than normal
The business of the company is cash-based.
C Inherent risk higher than normal
D Inherent risk lower than normal
Financial statements contain balances with straightforward financial accounting
requirements.
E Inherent risk higher than normal
F Inherent risk lower than normal LO 1f
7 For each of the following statements about materiality, select whether they are true or false.
Materiality may depend on the size of the error in the context of its omission or
misstatement.
A True
B False
Materiality should be considered when planning audit procedures and when evaluating
discovered misstatements.
C True
D False
Materiality is always expressed as a proportion of profits.
E True
F False LO 1f
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the assignment 15

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8 Audit risk can be split into three components: inherent risk, control risk and detection risk.
For each of the following examples, select the type of risk illustrated.
The organisation is seeking to raise finance for a new venture.
A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
The organisation has a number of estimates in its financial statements.
D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f
The organisation has a high turnover of staff in the accounts department.
A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
The auditor will be using samples in testing.
D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f

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10 Adam has been given the following draft figures for Imperious Ltd for the year ended
30 June 20X7 to analyse. Materiality has been set at £35,000 and the finance director has
told Adam in a planning meeting that there have been few changes in the year. Budgets
were set at 20X6 levels and there have been no major movements in non-current assets.
20X7 20X6
£ £
Revenue 3,497,284฀ 3,487,286฀

Cost of sales 1,867,294฀ 2,008,967฀
Salaries 467,900฀ 420,975฀
Repairs and renewals 3,645฀ 3,800฀
Depreciation 4,598฀ 4,365฀
Advertising 37,945฀ 37,283฀
For each item identified below, state whether it warrants further testing to analytical
procedures or not.
Cost of sales
A Warrants further testing
B No further testing required
Repairs and renewals
C Warrants further testing
D No further testing required
Advertising
E Warrants further testing
F No further testing required LO 1f
11 Which two of the following would be used in understanding the entity in accordance with
ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement Through
Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment?
A Industry, regulatory and other external factors
B A preliminary review of internal controls
C The results of tests of details
D The results of a review of events after the date of the financial statements LO 1f

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12 Which one of the following is normally designed to detect possible material monetary
errors in the figures in financial statements?
A Test of control
B Walk-through test
C Analytical procedure
D Observation of a procedure LO 3f
concept of materiality.
Materiality should be calculated at the planning stage of all audits.
A True
B False
Once established, the materiality level initially set cannot be revised during the course of
the audit.
C True
D False
Materiality will influence the audit opinion given.
E True
F False LO 1f
Senior management regularly override the system of controls.
A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
Directors' pay is related to company profitability.
D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f

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15 Which three of the following would increase inherent risk?

A Sample sizes have been calculated incorrectly by the auditor and are too small
B A significant number of balances are based on estimates
C The financial statements include complex transactions
D Audit staff are inexperienced
E The company is seeking to raise finance LO 1f
16 As part of his overall risk assessment an auditor has concluded that detection risk must be
low.
For each of the following, select the appropriate consequence of this.
Materiality
A Higher
B Lower
Sample sizes
C Bigger
D Smaller LO 1f
17 For each of the following situations, select the most appropriate approach which should be
used by the assurance firm.
The audit of a new client, recently started up, with few employees in its accounting
department
A Tests of control only
B Substantive procedures only
C A mix of tests of control and substantive procedures
The audit of a long-standing client with a sophisticated IT system and an internal audit
department
D Tests of control only
E Substantive procedures only
F A mix of tests of control and substantive procedures LO 3f

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18 As part of your analytical procedures on the financial statements of Dreamy Desserts Ltd
you have identified that the gross profit margin has fallen from 27% to 24%.
Which two of the following could be a valid explanation for this decrease?
A Unusually high sales at the end of the year resulted in lower levels of closing inventory
as compared to the previous year
B Increased competition resulted in sales prices being cut
C A bank overdraft resulted in a higher interest expense than in previous years
D There was a significant change in the mix of products sold LO 1f/3g
19 In each of the following cases, select whether inherent risk is higher or lower than normal.
The company has recently listed on the local stock exchange with high profit expectations
from analysts.
A Inherent risk higher than normal
B Inherent risk lower than normal
Inventory is the largest balance on the statement of financial position.
C Inherent risk higher than normal
D Inherent risk lower than normal
The company operates in a slow-moving, stable industry.
E Inherent risk higher than normal
F Inherent risk lower than normal LO 1f
concept of materiality.
Materiality depends only on the monetary amount of an item.
A True
B False
Materiality may depend on either the nature of an item or its monetary amount.
C True
D False
Materiality is a matter of professional judgement.
E True
F False LO 1f

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The organisation has few employees in its accounting department.
A Inherent
B Control
C Detection
The organisation operates in a fast-moving, high-tech environment.
D Inherent
E Control
F Detection LO 1f
22 Which two of the following options are signs of overtrading?

A Inventory decreasing
B Cash decreasing
C Payables decreasing
D Receivables increasing LO 1f
23 Deteriora Ltd's quick ratio has fallen from 1.9:1 to 1.6:1.

Which one of the following might help to explain this decline?
A The allowance for receivables has been reduced
B Credit control has been poor
C The entity has purchased a property for cash
D Inventory levels have fallen LO 1f
24 An electrical store and a cake shop have the same mark-up on cost. However, the gross
profit margin of the electrical store is significantly higher than that of the cake shop.
Which one of the following is a possible reason for this?
A The cake shop's revenue is increasing, while that of the electrical shop is decreasing.
B The cake shop has a higher level of wastage of inventory than the electrical store.
C The electrical shop takes advantage of trade discounts for bulk buying.
D The cake shop has a higher turnover of inventory than the electrical store. LO 1f

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25 Thatch plc's current ratio this year is 1.33:1 compared with 1.25:1 last year.
Which two of the following would be possible explanations of this?
A Thatch paid its payables earlier than usual out of a bank overdraft
B Thatch made an unusually large sale immediately before the year end
C Thatch made an unusually large purchase of goods for cash immediately before the
year end, and these goods remain in inventory
D Thatch paid its payables earlier than usual out of a positive cash balance LO 1f
26 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the principal purpose of an
external audit of a limited company?
A To help in the preparation of the company's financial statements
B To prevent fraud within the company
C To examine and express an opinion on the company's financial statements
D To help the directors in improving the company's financial reporting process LO 1i
27 Which one of the following best describes the principal difference between fraud and
error?
A Fraud may result in the financial statements being material misstated
B Fraud is an intentional act whereas error is unintentional
C A misstatement can be material whether it is caused by fraud or by error
D Fraud may be the result of negligence whereas error is unintentional LO 1i
28 Which two of the following are true in respect of related party transactions?
A Related party transactions tend to be low-risk to the auditor
B Disclosure of related party transactions is unlikely to be material to the financial
statements
C Related party transactions must be completely disclosed in the financial statements
D There may be a significant control risk in relation to related party transactions LO 1f

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29 ISA (UK) 300, Planning an Audit of Financial Statements distinguishes the audit strategy from
the audit plan.
For each of the following examples, select the document in which the information would be
found.
Understanding of the entity's accounting policies
A Audit strategy
B Audit plan
Assessment of the principal risks of material misstatement
C Audit strategy
D Audit plan
Planned timetable for the financial statements to be ready for discussion with client
E Audit strategy
F Audit plan LO 1f
30 Rasvi LLP has been informed by its client, Wilson Ltd, that it has discovered that a payroll
fraud was in operation during the previous financial year, a year in respect of which Rasvi
LLP gave a 'clean' auditor's opinion.
Wilson Ltd says that Rasvi LLP was responsible for preventing the fraud. A review of the
previous year's audit working papers shows that Rasvi LLP failed to perform any procedures
at all in relation to the payroll.
For each of the following statements, select whether the statement is true or false.
Rasvi LLP was responsible for preventing the fraud
A True
B False
Rasvi LLP failed to discharge its responsibilities as auditor
C True
D False LO 1f, i
31 Which two of the following are true of the auditor's objectives in relation to fraud, in line
with ISA (UK) 240, The Auditor's Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of Financial
Statements?
A The auditor performs the audit with the aim of deterring fraud.
B The auditor must identify and assess the risks of material misstatement due to fraud.
C The auditor must obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement due to
fraud.
D The auditor must only obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement
due to error. LO1i

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Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and

reporting
1 Which three of the following are procedures that could be used by assurance providers to
provide evidence relating to a balance in the financial statements?
A Walk-through procedure
B Test of control
C Test of detail
D Analytical procedure LO 3b
2 Which two of the following are valid comments about the quality of assurance evidence?
A Evidence from external sources is more reliable than evidence obtained from the
entity's records.
B Evidence from internal sources is more reliable when related internal controls operate
effectively.
C Evidence from internal sources is more reliable than evidence created by the assurance
provider.
D Photocopies are more reliable than facsimiles. LO 3e
3 Which three of the following are assertions used by the auditor about classes of
transactions?
A Occurrence
B Existence
C Completeness
D Cut-off
E Rights and obligations LO 3f
4 Which three of the following statements are valid?

A Positive (reasonable) assurance will be given on a statutory audit assignment.
B Positive (reasonable) assurance requires more rigorous work to be undertaken than
negative assurance does.
C Positive (reasonable) assurance will be given on a review assignment.
D Negative assurance is assurance given in the absence of any indications to the
contrary. LO 1d

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5 Which two of the following describe manifestations of the expectations gap?

A Users blaming the auditors for a fraud discovered in a company subsequent to an audit
B Users discovering that the directors refuse to cooperate in providing the auditor with
the evidence he requests
C Shareholders approving the appointment of the auditor at an annual general meeting
D Users relying on the audited financial statements as a fair valuation of the company
LO 1e
6 The level of assurance given by an assurance engagement will depend on the type of
engagement.
For each of the following examples, select the level of assurance you would expect to be
given.
Statutory audit
A Absolute
B Reasonable
C Limited
Report on prospective financial information
D Absolute
E Reasonable
F Limited
Report on review of interim financial information
G Absolute
H Reasonable
I Limited LO 1d
7 For each of the following situations, select the most appropriate approach which should be
used by the assurance firm in the given circumstances.
The audit of a client where controls have been assessed as deficient
A Tests of controls only
B Substantive procedures only
C A mix of tests of controls and substantive procedures
The audit of a client where controls have been assessed as strong
D Tests of controls only
E Substantive procedures only
F A mix of tests of controls and substantive procedures LO 3f
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and reporting 25

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8 The following are types of test that might be carried out by an assurance provider. For each
example, select the financial statement assertion that is being tested.
Review of the financial statements using a Companies Act checklist
A Existence
B Completeness
C Classification
Tracing non-current assets which have been observed in use back to the non-current asset
register
D Existence
E Completeness
F Classification LO 3d
9 Which three of the following are assertions used by the auditor about account balances at
the period end?
A Existence
B Accuracy, valuation and allocation
C Cut-off
D Completeness LO 3f
substantive procedures.
The auditor must carry out substantive procedures on all material items.
A True
B False
The auditor only carries out substantive procedures if the results of tests of controls are
inconclusive.
C True
D False
Substantive procedures include both analytical procedures and tests of details.
E True
F False LO 3d

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11 Two types of procedures used in gathering evidence are tests of controls and substantive
procedures.
For each of the following examples, select the type of procedure illustrated.
Observation of opening the post
A Test of control
B Substantive procedure
Calculation of the gross profit margin and comparison with that of the previous accounting
period
C Test of control
D Substantive procedure
Reviewing invoices paid for evidence of authorisation
E Test of control
F Substantive procedure LO 3b
12 An auditor's report prepared in accordance with ISA (UK) 700, Forming an Opinion and
Reporting on Financial Statements expresses an opinion on a number of matters. Some of
these matters are required by the Companies Act 2006 to be reported on by exception
only.
Which two of the following are reported on by exception only?
A The financial statements have been prepared in accordance with the requirements of
the Companies Act 2006
B Adequate accounting records have been kept
C Directors' remuneration has been disclosed correctly
D Information in the strategic report and the directors' report is consistent with the
financial statements LO 1f
procedures.
Observation of inventory counting at the year end
A Test of control
Calculation of the quick ratio and comparison with that of the previous accounting period
C Test of control
Inquiring into the operation of the purchases transaction cycle
E Test of control

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14 The following are types of test that might be carried out by an assurance provider. For each
example, select the financial statement assertion that is being tested.
Tracing a sample of transactions selected from sales orders back to the nominal ledger
A Occurrence
B Completeness
C Classification
Reviewing the financial statements disclosure note for non-current assets, using a checklist
based on IFRS requirements
D Existence
E Completeness
F Valuation LO 3d
15 Smith plc is required to apply ISA 701, Communicating Key Audit Matters in the
Independent Auditor's Report.
Which two of the following could be key audit matters?
A Areas of high audit risk
B Areas in relation to which the auditor expresses a separate opinion
C Areas of significant auditor judgement
D Significant transactions or events LO 1f
16 Which two of the following describe manifestations of the expectations gap?

A Potential shareholders using the statement of financial position as a fair valuation of the
entity
B Users discovering that the audit firm relies on the audited entity for its fee
C Users believing that the audit firm must not sell other services to the audited entity
D Users believing that the amounts in the financial statements are stated precisely LO 1e
17 Which two of the following would be included in an assurance report?

A Statement of directors' responsibilities
B Identification of the criteria
C Auditor's opinion
D Title LO 1f

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18 The following are items that might be included in an auditor's report. For each item, select
whether it is reported on explicitly, or only by exception.
Whether the financial statements are in agreement with the accounting records and returns
A Explicit
B By exception
Whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the company's
affairs at the end of the financial year
C Explicit
D By exception
Whether details of directors' emoluments and other benefits have been correctly disclosed
in the financial statements.
E Explicit
F By exception LO 1f

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Chapter 5: Introduction to internal control

1 ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement Through
Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment states that an internal control system in an
organisation consists of five components: the control environment, the entity's risk
assessment process, the information system, control activities and monitoring of controls.
For each of the following examples, select the component which it illustrates.
The process of preparing the financial statements
A Control environment
B Information system
C Control activities
Locking the inventory storeroom
D Control environment
E Information system
F Control activities LO 2d
2 In each of the following three cases, select whether control risk is higher or lower than
normal.
The company has an established and well-resourced internal audit function.
A Control risk is higher than normal
B Control risk is lower than normal
The company has a history of reviewing financial performance on a regular basis at board
level.
C Control risk is higher than normal
D Control risk is lower than normal
Purchase invoices are not authorised before payment.
E Control risk is higher than normal
F Control risk is lower than normal LO 2b
3 Which three of the following statements about audit committees are correct?
A At least 50% of the members of an audit committee must be non-executive directors
B Listed companies are required to have an audit committee
C Audit committees are considered to be good practice for all large companies
D If a company has an internal audit function, the chief internal auditor should sit on the
audit committee
E Audit committees are an important aspect of a company's control environment
LO 2d

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4 According to ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement
Through Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment, which three of the following are
aspects of an entity's control environment?
A The attitude of the directors to internal controls
B The attitude of staff to internal controls
C The awareness of internal control issues in the company
D The actions of senior management in relation to internal controls LO 2d
5 For each of the following internal controls, which is the principal limitation?
The preparation of a bank reconciliation
A Human error
B Collusion
Segregation of duties in a sales system
C Human error
D Collusion LO 2f
6 Which one of the following is not part of an entity's risk assessment process?
A Identify relevant business risks
B Estimate the impact of risks
C Assess the likelihood of occurrence
D Decide upon actions to manage the risks
E Report the process to the auditors LO 2b
7 For each of the following statements about the information system in a company, select
whether they are true or false.
The information system comprises only the IT system of a company.
A True
B False
The information system includes the process of preparing the financial statements, such as
the production of journals.
C True
D False LO 2b
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 5: Introduction to internal control 31

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8 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Badweather plc.
For each example, select the type of control activity which it illustrates.
The financial controller counts petty cash on a monthly basis.
A Authorisation
B Information processing
C Physical control
There are two keys to the locked finance department safe: one held by the finance director
and the other by the managing director.
D Authorisation
E Information processing
F Physical control LO 2e
9 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Castle Ltd.
The financial controller reconciles the receivables ledger to the receivables ledger control
account monthly.
A Performance review
C Segregation of duties
The receivables ledger clerk posts invoices to the receivables ledger. The cash book clerk
posts cash receipts to the receivables ledger.
D Performance review
E Information processing
F Segregation of duties LO 2e
10 The following are examples of computer controls which operate at Goody plc.
For each example, select the type of computer control which it illustrates.
Storing extra copies of programs and data files off-site
A General
B Application
Programmes to check data fields on input transactions
C General
D Application
Manual checks to ensure that input data were authorised
E General
F Application LO 2e

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11 Which one of the following would be the simplest way of recording a straightforward
system not subject to a great deal of change annually?
A Flowchart
B Narrative notes
C Questionnaire
D Family tree LO 2i
12 Which three of the following would be the best sources of information about a company's
systems?
A The company's procedures manual
B The internal audit function's system notes
C The prior year audit file
D Inquiries made of company staff
E The company's website LO 2i
13 Most entities make use of IT systems for financial reporting and operational purposes.
Controls operating in an IT environment can be split into general controls and application
controls.
Which one of the following is an application control?
A Training staff in new IT procedures
B Taking back-up copies of programs
C Maintenance agreements over IT equipment
D Cyclical reviews of all master files LO 2e
14 Which two of the following represent inherent limitations of a system of internal controls?
A Lack of controls over the purchases system
B Lack of understanding of the purposes of controls
C Lack of staff to ensure segregation of duties
D The possibility that staff members will collude in fraud LO 2f

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15 Which two of the following are authorisation control activities?

A A bank reconciliation signed by the finance director
B A cheque payment run approved by the finance director
C An appraisal of the sales ledger clerk by the finance director
D A trial balance compiled by the finance director LO 2e
16 With regards to internal control systems in small entities, select whether each of the
following statements is true or false.
Smaller companies are more likely to be successful in the implementation of segregation of
duties controls.
A True
B False
Management override is more likely to take place in smaller companies.
C True
D False LO 2f
17 ISA (UK) 315 states that an internal control system in an organisation consists of five
components: the control environment, the entity's risk assessment process, the information
system, control activities and monitoring of controls.
For each of the following examples, select the component which it illustrates.
Training programme for all staff
B Control activity
C Monitoring of controls
Review of actual performance against budget
E Control activity
F Monitoring of controls LO 2d

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limitations of a system of internal control.
The cost of implementing controls may be more expensive than the cost of any potential
risk arising.
A True
B False
The effectiveness of many controls rely on the integrity of those applying them.
C True
D False
Internal controls are only applied to material items.
E True
F False
Standard controls may not be designed to deal with unusual transactions.
G True
H False LO 2f
business risk.
Business risk is the risk inherent to the company in its operations.
A True
B False
Business risk is of no relevance to the auditor. The auditor is only concerned with audit risk.
C True
D False
Management are responsible for identifying and controlling business risks.
E True
F False LO 2b
20 One of the five elements of internal control is monitoring of controls.

Which two of the following are activities which would be used to monitor controls?
A Management's review of whether bank reconciliations are being prepared on a timely
basis
B Internal auditors' evaluation of whether the sales team are following company policy
regarding customer discounts
C Authorisation of purchase invoices before they are paid
D Authorisation of purchase orders by the department manager LO 2e

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21 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Elm plc.
The financial controller reconciles the payables ledger to the payables ledger control
account on a monthly basis.
A Performance review
The payables ledger clerk posts invoices to the payables ledger. The cash book clerk posts
cash receipts to the payables ledger.
C Segregation of duties
D Performance review LO 2e
22 The following are examples of computer controls which operate in the payroll system at
Dobson Ltd.
Password protection limiting access to data
A General
B Application
Range checks on payroll processing
C General
D Application
Manual checks to ensure that timesheets are authorised before details are processed
E General
F Application LO 2e
23 Which three of the following are general controls?

A Disaster recovery procedures
B Back-up copies of programs stored at an alternative safe location
C Procedures for resubmission of rejected data
D Staff training in the use of new/revised programs LO 2e

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24 Peach plc is a large organisation with a complex accounting and information system. Critical
to an understanding of the system are the reporting lines and relationships between different
departments.
In this situation which one of the following methods is most likely to be used by the auditor
to record the system of document flow?
A Narrative notes
B Flowcharts
C Questionnaires
D Organisational charts LO 2i
25 In each of the following three cases, select whether control risk is higher or lower than
normal.
The payables ledger is not regularly reconciled to the payables ledger control account.
A Control risk is higher than normal
B Control risk is lower than normal
Management often override internal controls.
C Control risk is higher than normal
D Control risk is lower than normal
Entry to the inventory storeroom is only for authorised personnel.
E Control risk is higher than normal
F Control risk is lower than normal LO 2b
26 Which two of the following are reasons why organisations need to have effective systems of
control?
To help the organisation in:
A minimising business risks
B maximising its profitability
C managing its assets and liabilities
D cutting down the time needed for the audit
E complying with laws and regulations LO 2a

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27 An effective system of internal control requires segregation of basic functions.

Which three of the following functions should ideally be segregated?
A Authorisation of transactions
B Preparation of financial statements
C Custody or handling of assets
D Budgetary control
E Recording of transactions LO 2b
28 An audit committee is a committee with responsibility for audit-related matters.

Which one of the following could be members of an effective audit committee?
A Executive directors only
B Non-executive directors only
C Non-executive directors and internal auditors
D Non-executive directors and external auditors LO 2d
For each of the following examples, select which component is illustrated.
The entity's organisational structure
B Control activity
Review by management of monthly bank reconciliations
E Control activity

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30 The following are examples of internal controls which operate at Fairweather plc. In each
example select which control activity is illustrated.
The financial accountant signs the bank reconciliation, which was prepared by a member of
his staff.
A Authorisation
B Performance review
The finance director compares monthly expenditure on consumables to budgeted
expenditure.
C Authorisation
D Performance review LO 2e
31 Most entities make use of IT systems for financial reporting and operational purposes.
Controls operating in an IT environment can be split into general controls and application
controls.
Which one of the following is an application control?
A Use of passwords
B Testing of new systems
C Authorisation of data for input
D Disaster recovery plan LO 2e
32 Which two of the following reduce password effectiveness?

A Frequent changes of passwords
B User selection of passwords
C Automatic disconnection after failed attempts to access system
D Disciplinary offence if passwords revealed
E Displaying the password on screen LO 2f

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For each of the following examples, select which component is illustrated.
The entity's internal audit function
B Control activity
The audit committee
E Control activity
34 For each of the following internal controls, which is the principal limitation?
The preparation of an accounts payable reconciliation
A Human error
B Collusion
Authorisation of new starters in a wages system in which duties are segregated
C Human error
D Collusion LO 2f
35 For each of the following statements about audit committees, select whether the statement
is true or false.
Audit committees are responsible for recommending the appointment of the external
auditor
A True
B False
One of the roles of the audit committee is to review the integrity of formal announcements
relating to the company's performance
C True
D False LO 2d

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36 Which two of the following are controls over input completeness?

A Document counts
B Manual check to ensure input was by authorised personnel
C Screen warning to prevent logout before processing is complete
D Programmed matching of input to an expected input control file LO 2e
37 For each of the following internal controls, select whether a preventive or a detective
control is being described.
Segregation of duties between raising and authorisation of purchase orders
A Preventive
B Detective
Monthly reconciliation of payables ledger with supplier statements
C Preventive
D Detective
Restricting users to read-only access of key folders on internal network
E Preventive
F Detective LO 2d
38 The following are examples of computer controls which operate at Mesa plc.
Approval of new applications by a sample of users and by management
A General
B Application
Virus checks on software on employees' computers
C General
D Application
A check that all data entered in a field contains the correct number of digits
E General
F Application LO 2e

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39 One of the emerging operational issues that internal auditors need to be involved with is
cyber security (defined as the protection of systems, networks and data in cyberspace).
Which three of the following internal audit activities are most likely to feature in relation to
an entity's cyber security?
A Reviewing the password protocols in place for employees with access to information
systems
B Testing the operating effectiveness of an entity's firewall and anti-virus software
C Monitoring the entity's website for signs of unauthorised modification
D Comparing the costs and benefits of the entity's online social media presence LO 2d

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Chapter 6: Revenue system

1 Which three of the following are risks associated with the sales system?
A Orders may be taken from customers who are not able to pay
B Goods may be despatched but not invoiced
C The full credit period offered might not be taken
D Money might be received at the premises but not banked LO 2c
2 Which two of the following controls best mitigate the risk that customers might not be able
to pay?
A Authorisation of credit terms to customers
B Obtaining customers' signatures on delivery documentation
C Regular preparation of trade receivables statements
D Checking the ageing of the current receivables ledger balance before to accepting
orders LO 2f
3 Which three of the following controls best prevent misappropriation of customers'

remittances?
A Segregation of duties between cash handling and recording
B Post opening by two people
C Investigation of differences between till records and cash collected
D Regular banking LO 2f
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 6: Revenue system 43

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4 The following describes the processes which make up the sales system in operation at
Sheraton and Co.
For each process, select whether it represents a strength or a deficiency of the system.
Orders are placed by telephone. When a call is received, the person receiving the order
checks the customer's credit status and that the customer's current balance is below the
maximum level, checks that the item is in inventory, and then immediately inputs the order
into the system.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The order automatically generates a message to the distribution centre which despatches
the goods and to the accounts department, which immediately raises an invoice and sends
it to the customer.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Customer queries are dealt with by reception staff.
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2g/h
5 Select whether each of the following statements is true or false.

In the sales system, the following duties should be segregated:
Recording sales and access to remittances from customers
A True
B False
Credit control and invoicing
C True
D False LO 2b

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6 The internal auditor at Windsor Ltd has identified the following deficiencies within that
organisation's sales system.
For each deficiency, select the most likely consequence which might arise as a result of that
deficiency.
Invoices are matched to orders but not warehouse records.
A Customers may not pay promptly
B Invoices may be raised in error
C Orders may be accepted from customers who are unable to pay
Receivables statements are not sent to customers.
D Customers may not pay promptly
E Invoices may be raised in error
F Orders may be accepted from customers who are unable to pay LO 2f/h
7 The external auditor at Reading Ltd has identified the following deficiencies within that
organisation's sales system.
deficiency.
Overdue accounts are not followed up.
A Invoiced sales might not be properly recorded
B Credit notes might not be properly recorded
C Debts might be included on the receivables ledger that are not collectable
Invoices are not in numerical sequence.
D Invoiced sales might not be properly recorded
E Credit notes might not be properly recorded
F Debts might be included on the receivables ledger that are not collectable LO 2f/h
8 Which two of the following are risks associated with the sales system?
A Orders may be taken from customers who are not able to pay
B Invoices may be cancelled by valid credit notes
C Goods may be received but not invoiced
D Sales might be recorded in the wrong customer accounts LO 2c

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9 Bourne Ltd operates a number of control procedures in its sales system.

Assuming that all controls are operating effectively, which one of the following control
procedures is most likely to ensure that customers are invoiced for goods received?
A Use of pre-printed sequentially numbered sales order documentation
B Matching of sales orders with despatch records
C Matching of despatch records with sales invoices
D Requiring customers to sign for goods received LO 2f
10 The following describes aspects of the sales system in operation at Barrow plc.
Sales invoices are matched to despatch records and sales orders. The calculations on the
invoices are checked by the accounts clerk.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The receivables ledger clerk posts the sales invoices and cash received to the receivables
ledger. The receivables ledger clerk also reconciles the receivables ledger to the control
account on a monthly basis.
C Strength
D Deficiency
The condition of goods returned is checked and a goods returned record is produced. A
copy of this is sent to the accounts department and a credit note is raised by the chief
accountant.
E Strength
11 The following deficiencies have been identified in two separate sales systems.
deficiency.
Despatch documentation is not sequentially pre-numbered.
A Sales may be made to customers who cannot pay
B Invoices may not be raised for all goods despatched
C Customers may not pay promptly
Customers are not required to evidence receipt of goods.
D Sales may be made to customers who cannot pay
E Invoices may not be raised for all goods despatched
F Customers may not pay promptly LO 2f/h

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12 Which two of the following are objectives of the sales ordering part of the sales system?
A Sales are only made to credit worthy customers
B Goods are correctly invoiced
C Cut-off is correct
D Orders can be fulfilled LO 2c
13 The following describes processes which make up the sales system at Raffles Ltd.
Orders are placed by telephone. On receipt of a call, following credit checks, the order is
immediately entered onto the system.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The order generates a despatch record which is sent to the warehouse, and an invoice
which is sent to accounts receivable. Goods in inventory are despatched immediately and
the despatch record is amended manually for unavailable goods.
C Strength
D Deficiency
A copy of any despatch records with incomplete orders is placed in an 'unfulfilled orders'
file. This file is reviewed daily and the order filled as soon as inventory is available.
E Strength
14 Which one of the following is a control objective relating to the sales system?
A Credit notes are only issued for valid reasons.

B Sales invoices are checked to goods despatched records by accounts staff.
C Customer accounts are scrutinised to see if credit limits have been observed.
D Orders are made only to authorised suppliers. LO 2g

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15 Which one of the following controls would provide the most positive assurance regarding
the completeness of the sales figure recorded in the financial statements of a manufacturing
company?
A Segregation of duties between the preparation of goods despatched records and the
preparation of the sales invoices
B The issue of pre-numbered sales invoices for every sales transaction and internal
checking for completion of processing
C The use of a pre-numbered goods despatched record for every sales transaction and
internal checking for completeness of processing
D Authorisation of all sales invoices by the sales manager before processing LO 2g
16 Which one of the following populations should the auditor start from when testing for the
completeness of reported sales of a manufacturing company?
A Sales receipts
B Sales invoices
C Goods despatch records
D Sales orders LO 2g
17 Which one of the following is a control objective relating to the revenue system?
A Credit notes are only issued for valid reasons
B Sales invoices are checked to Goods Despatched Notes by accounts staff
C Customer accounts are scrutinised to determine whether credit limits have been
observed
D Orders are made only from authorised suppliers LO 2e
18 Which one of the following controls would provide the most assurance regarding the
completeness of the revenue figure in the financial statements of a manufacturing
company?
A Segregation of duties between the preparation of goods despatched notes and the
preparation of the sales invoices
B The issue of pre-numbered sales invoices for every sales transaction and internal
checking for completion of processing
C The use of a pre-numbered goods despatched note for every sales transaction and
internal checking for completeness of processing
D Authorisation of all sales invoices by the sales manager prior to processing LO 2g

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19 Which two of the following are risks directly associated with recording in the revenue
system?
A Sales are included in the wrong customer accounts
B Goods are recorded incorrectly
C Goods may be despatched but not invoiced for
D Credit notes might not be properly recorded LO 2c

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Chapter 7: Purchases system

1 For each of the following examples, select the type of internal control activity which it
represents.
Monthly management accounts are compared to budget and differences investigated.
A Authorisation
B Performance review
C Information processing
Numerical sequence checks are undertaken on goods received records.
D Authorisation
E Performance review
F Information processing LO 2e
2 The auditor of Twickenham Ltd has identified the following deficiencies within that
organisation's accounting system.
deficiency.
Goods inwards are not checked.
A Accepting inferior quality goods
B False invoices could be paid
C Services received are not accurately recorded
Invoices are not checked to original orders.
D Accepting inferior quality goods
E False invoices could be paid
F Services received are not accurately recorded LO 2f/h

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3 The following describes processes which make up the purchases system at Hawthorns and
Co.
Orders are placed by department heads, usually by telephone, when they determine a
service is required.
A Strength
B Deficiency
Invoices for services are checked against the service provider's proof of delivery of service,
which is requested from every service provider.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Payments are made by direct transfer. The direct transfer list is authorised by the financial
controller, who checks the payments to supporting documents, such as the invoice or
service agreement.
E Strength
4 Redesign Ltd is a large property management company which makes use of the services of
many different contractors for building, design and decorating services.
Which two of the following internal controls are most likely to prevent services being used
for the private purposes of employees?
A Purchase orders are processed by the buying department following authorisation by
the production director
B Purchase requisitions must be signed by two team members for any given project
C Purchase orders should only be placed with authorised contractors
D Purchase invoices are matched to authorised purchase orders LO 2f
5 The organisational structure at Molyneux Ltd is as follows.

The production department is headed by Jack Frost, whose deputy is Tiny Tim. Jack Frost
reports to the managing director, Nicholas Clause. There are several other departments
(sales and marketing, accounting, purchasing, human resources and internal audit).
Which one of the following statements reflects the ideal situation with regard to purchase
ordering?
A Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should make purchase orders as production needs dictate.
B Jack Frost should make purchase orders, although Tiny Tim could make requisitions as
production needs dictate.
C Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should requisition materials as production needs dictate, but
orders should be placed by the purchasing department.
D Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should requisition materials as production needs dictate but
orders should be placed by the purchasing department, having been authorised by
Nicholas Clause. LO 2g
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 7: Purchases system 51

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6 Grey Ltd has recently discovered that it has been paying invoices in respect of goods which
had been returned as faulty before acceptance. It is company policy to record goods only if
they have been accepted.
Which one of the following controls would have prevented this from occurring?
A Matching of purchase invoices with goods received records
B Matching of purchase invoices with orders
C Comparison of supplier statements with payables ledger accounts
D Date stamping purchase invoices on receipt LO 2f
7 The following are examples of deficiencies in the purchases system of Burns Ltd.
For each example, select the type of internal control activity which would improve the
system.
Errors have been made in the calculation of discounts receivable.
A Authorisation
B Physical controls
C Information processing
There has been increasing levels of theft from the main distribution centre.
D Authorisation
E Physical controls
F Information processing LO 2f
8 Which two of the following deficiencies identified in the purchases system of Harrow Ltd
could result in a misstatement of liabilities?
A The buying department does not always use authorised suppliers
B Harrow Ltd does not always take advantage of prompt payment discounts
C Purchase invoices are not matched with goods received records
D The payables ledger is not reconciled to the payables ledger control account LO 2f/h

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9 The auditor has identified the following deficiencies within Rainer Ltd's accounting system.
deficiency.
Purchase of goods from unauthorised suppliers
A Payment to fictitious suppliers
B Purchase of inferior goods
C Prompt payment discounts not obtained
Purchase ledger clerks permitted to amend standing data on the payables master file
D Payment to fictitious suppliers
E Purchase of inferior goods
F Prompt payment discounts not obtained LO 2f/h
10 Which three of the following are control activities relating to the purchases system?
A All orders are authorised by a senior staff member

B Blank order forms are kept in a secure location with restricted access
C All goods and services received are accurately recorded
D Order forms are sequentially pre-numbered LO 2g
11 The following describes processes in the purchases system at Woggle Ltd.

New inventory is ordered over the telephone by the company buyer, who initiates orders
herself and maintains a record of telephone orders.
A Strength
B Deficiency
When goods are subsequently received, the buyer has sole responsibility for checking the
quantity of goods received to the record of telephone orders.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Invoices from suppliers are sent to the buyer for authorisation, before being forwarded to
the Accounts Department for entry into the accounting records and subsequent payment.
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2g

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12 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of Pogo Ltd's purchases system.
For each deficiency, select the risk which is most likely to arise.
A lack of segregation of duties in relation to the ordering process
A Unauthorised purchases may be made for personal use
B The company may not take advantage of the full period of credit extended
Records of goods received are not kept.
C Goods may be misappropriated for private use
D Goods and services might not be obtained on the most advantageous terms
The payment listing produced by the accounting system is only read by the payments clerk.
E Invoices may not be recorded resulting in non-payment
F Invoices are paid at the wrong time LO 2f
13 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of Loot Ltd's purchases system.
For each deficiency, select the risk which arises most immediately.
Comparisons are not made of goods received notes with purchase orders
A Unauthorised purchases may be made for personal use
B Entries to the payables ledger are not made to the correct accounts
Supplier terms are not regularly monitored
C Goods and services may be obtained from unauthorised suppliers
D Goods and services may not be obtained on the most advantageous terms
Pre-numbered goods received notes are not used to record the arrival and acceptance of
goods.
E Goods and services received may not be accurately recorded
F Goods and services received may not result in liabilities being recorded correctly
LO 2f

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14 The following are descriptions of processes in the purchases system at Pontipines plc.
Blank order forms are readily available from a tray in the finance department
A Strength
B Deficiency
Buyers have a free choice of suppliers, in order to obtain the best terms
C Strength
D Deficiency
Order forms are prepared only when a pre-numbered purchase requisition has been
received
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2g
15 Which two of the following describe control activities in the purchases system of
Wottinger Ltd?
A A purchase ledger clerk checks all supplier invoices against the order and the goods
received record
B All orders for goods and services are properly authorised and duly processed
C All goods and services received are accurately recorded
D All purchase order forms are sequentially pre-numbered LO 2g
16 The following describes processes in the payment system at Tombliboo Ltd.

The responsibility for preparing and signing cheques is delegated to a dedicated cashier.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The company keeps all securities and title deeds in a safe, to which only the cashier and the
managing director hold keys.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Set limits are placed on any cash advances that can be paid to subcontractors.
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 2f

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Chapter 8: Employee costs

1 Hire Company Ltd uses a lot of temporary employees.
Which one of the following controls would best ensure that employees are only paid for
work they have performed?
A Temporary staff records should be maintained for each member of temporary staff.
B Temporary staff should complete work schedules, authorised by their supervisor.
C Temporary staff pay should be authorised by the human resources manager.
D Temporary staff should be paid by direct transfers to their bank accounts. LO 2f
2 Tulips Ltd has a number of staff on maternity leave claiming statutory maternity pay.
Which three of the following controls would best ensure that the correct payments are
made to employees?
A The payroll should be checked back to individual employee personnel records
B Payroll totals should be compared to adjusted budgets on a monthly basis
C Total tax deductions should be reconciled with tax returns
D BACS transfer lists should be authorised by the head of personnel LO 2f
internal controls over payroll.
Requiring employees to clock in and out of work helps to ensure that they are paid at the
correct rate.
A True
B False
Reviewing wages paid against wages budgeted helps to ensure that employees are being
paid the correct amounts.
C True
D False
Changes in pay rates should be authorised by senior management.
E True
F False LO 2f

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4 Stamford plc employs a number of trainee staff, at six monthly intervals. All trainees must
complete a probationary period of six months before progressing to the next level of
traineeship. The accountant providing assurance on the efficiency of the operation of
controls has identified the following deficiencies within Stamford Ltd's payroll system.
deficiency.
Employees are not given a personnel file until they have completed their six month
probationary period.
A Employees may be paid the wrong amounts
B The computerised payroll may contain miscalculations
Many employees work overtime but there is no system for authorising the levels of overtime
claimed.
C Employees may be paid the wrong amounts
D The computerised payroll may contain miscalculations LO 2f/h
5 The following describes the processes in the payroll system at Wembley Ltd.
Employees are given individual security codes to punch into the main door key pad. This
key pad also monitors the hours worked by employees, a sample of which are checked
against data from headcounts during the day.
A Strength
B Deficiency
The payroll is prepared by a payroll clerk from hours worked information on a standard
payroll IT package. The payroll is checked to individual records automatically by the system.
The payroll is approved by the financial controller.
C Strength
D Deficiency
Wages are paid by bank transfer, which is authorised by the financial controller.
E Strength
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6 Workworld Ltd has a computerised payroll system. All employees are paid by BACS directly
into their bank account.
Which two of the following controls will be most effective at ensuring that payment is made
to the correct employee?
A Authorisation of overtime worked
B A sample of calculations performed by the payroll package are manually reperformed
each month
C The BACS list is reviewed by the chief accountant together with supporting payroll
documentation
D The print out from the bank is agreed to the BACS list and any discrepancies
investigated LO 2f
7 Which two of the following features in the payroll system of Tyne plc could result in the
employee costs figure in the financial statements being misstated?
A Rates of pay are negotiated at a local level, there is no central control
B The payroll clerk can amend standing data on the payroll system without authorisation
of a senior member of staff
C Personnel records are not kept up to date
D The payroll department receives confirmation of new employees in writing LO 2h
8 For each of the following statements about internal controls over payroll, select whether
they are true or false.
The payroll should be checked back to individual employee personnel records on a regular
basis.
A True
B False
Leavers and joiners should be authorised by a senior member of staff.
C True
D False
Reperformance of calculations is unnecessary where the payroll system is computerised.
E True
F False LO 2f

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9 Spoon Ltd is a company that is expanding rapidly and is regularly taking on new
employees. The payroll is processed in-house in the accounts department using a PC. The
financial controller is worried that fictitious employees could be included on the payroll by a
dishonest employee from the accounts department.
Which one of the following internal controls is most likely to prevent this from happening?
A Payroll standing data periodically printed out and checked on a line-by-line basis to
independently held employee details
B Use of hierarchical passwords over standing data files
C Pre-authorisation of all amendments to payroll standing data by an independent
official
D Supervision of the wages payout by an independent official LO 2f
10 Which two of the following control procedures will reduce the risk of unauthorised
disclosure of payroll data?
A Exception reporting of high amounts of net pay
B Access controls
C Back-up procedures
D Encryption of data
E Independent review of payroll LO 2f
11 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of a company's wages system.
Details of wages are not regularly checked to the personnel file.
A Pay might not be recorded correctly in the general ledger
B The company may pay employees who have left
Regular reconciliations of the payroll to timesheets are not performed.
C Pay might not be recorded correctly in the general ledger
D The various elements of pay might not be calculated correctly
Regular reconciliations of the wages and salaries control account are not performed.
E Payments might be made incorrectly
F The various elements of pay might not be calculated correctly LO 2f

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12 At Disastora Ltd, potential employees are interviewed by the production manager, who
then forwards successful candidates' details, the job title and the rate of pay to the
company's personnel manager for an employment offer to be made.
Which two of the following controls could be most effective at ensuring that wages are paid
accurately?
A Payments should be authorised by a director before being submitted for processing
B Employees should be interviewed by the production manager and a responsible
personnel official
C Hours paid should be reconciled to timesheets
D Reconciliations should be performed between the payroll and the company's cash
records
LO 2f
Approving the wages and salary summary for payment helps to ensure that there is
adequate segregation of duties.
A True
B False
Agreeing gross earnings and total tax deducted with taxation returns helps to ensure that
employees are being paid the correct amounts.
C True
D False
Reconciling this month's payroll with the previous month's payroll, without performing any
other procedures, ensures that starters and leavers are accounted for correctly.
E True
F False LO 2f

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each is true or false.
The payroll master file should contain details of the employee's cumulative statutory
deductions to date.
A True
B False
Reviewing changes to statutory deductions helps to ensure that changes to the calculation
of gross pay are processed correctly.
C True
D False
Reviewing wages paid against budgets and timesheets helps to ensure that employees are
only paid for the work that they have done.
E True
F False LO 2f
15 Which two of the following control activities will reduce the risk that the different elements
of pay might not be recorded correctly in the payroll?
A One for one checking of payroll details back to independently maintained personnel
records
B Segregation of duties throughout the payroll department
C Reconciliation of total pay and deductions between one pay day and the next
D Encryption of data LO 2f
16 Deficiencies have been identified in the following areas of a company's wages system.
No central records are kept of changes in personnel and pay rates.
A Pay might not be recorded correctly in the general ledger
B The company may pay employees who have left
There are no procedures for dealing with non-routine matters.
C Pay might not be recorded correctly in the general ledger
D The company may pay employees who have left
There is no segregation of duties between the preparation and the authorisation of the
payroll.
E Pay might not be recorded correctly in the general ledger
F The company may pay employees who have left LO 2f

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Chapter 9: Internal audit

1 The scope and objectives of the internal audit function vary widely and depend on the size
and structure of the entity and the requirements of its management.
Which two of the following functions could internal audit perform and still operate
effectively?
A Examination of financial and operating information
B Review of the company's compliance with laws and regulations
C Authorisation of unusual transactions
D Development of internal control systems LO 2d
2 Which two of the following roles could internal audit carry out in respect of risk
management and still operate effectively?
A Monitoring the company's overall risk strategy
B Designing an internal control system in a production department
C Testing internal controls in the purchasing department
D Implementing internal controls in the sales department LO 2d
3 Which three of the following roles could the internal audit function take on to help the
board in its management of the company and still operate effectively?
A Carrying out the statutory audit
B Giving expert advice on technical accounting matters
C Liaising with the external auditors
D Auditing board reports not audited by the external auditors LO 2d

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4 Internal audit helps in achieving corporate objectives.

For each of the following statements, select whether or not they are true or false.
Having an internal audit function is a requirement of the UK Corporate Governance Code.
A True
B False
Internal audit can be seen as an internal control in a company.
C True
D False
Internal auditors should not get involved in operational matters.
E True
F False LO 2d
5 For each of the following statements, concerning internal audit, select whether they are true
or false.
Internal audit can never be independent of those on whom they are reporting, because
they are employees of the company.
A True
B False
The UK Corporate Governance Code requires all listed companies in the UK to have an
internal audit function.
C True
D False
Internal audit focuses on the efficiency and effectiveness of a company's operations by
testing its internal controls. They do not carry out substantive testing.
E True
F False LO 2d
6 Hiltson Hotels is a global group of hotels. The parent company, Hiltson Holdings plc
employs an internal audit function which carries out audits and investigations on the
individual hotels in the group.
Which two of the following could the internal audit function carry out and still operate
effectively?
A Secondment to the accounts department of the Singapore Hiltson to cover the
maternity leave of the financial controller
B Special investigation into the profits of the New York Hiltson where the group directors
suspect a fraud may have been carried out
C Tests of the controls at the Edinburgh Hiltson as part of a routine internal audit cycle
D Identification of risks at the proposed Nairobi Hiltson, which is due to open in nine
months' time LO 2d
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7 Internal and external auditors provide different services to companies.

For each of the following examples, select whether it is a service which would be provided
by internal auditors only, by external auditors only or by either.
Statutory audit
A Internal auditors
B External auditors
C Either
Monitoring of internal controls
D Internal auditors
E External auditors
F Either LO 2d
8 Many of the procedures undertaken by the internal auditor are very similar to those
performed by the external auditor.
Which three of the following may be performed by the internal auditor if he is to operate
effectively?
A Monitoring of internal controls
B Making recommendations regarding improvements to controls
C Examining and testing financial information
D Expressing an opinion on the truth and fairness of the financial statements LO 2d
9 Which one of the following best describes the term 'operational audit'?
A Any audit performed by the internal auditor
B An audit of the operational processes of the organisation
C An audit performed by the operations director
D A statutory audit LO 2d
10 To which two of the following parties would the internal auditor report?
A Board of directors
B Shareholders
C Audit committee
D External auditors LO 2d

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11 Which three of the following activities would typically be performed by both the internal
and external auditor?
A Review of compliance with laws and regulations
B Assessment of the effectiveness of internal controls
C Review of the efficiency of operations
D Carrying out tests of details on transactions and balances LO 2d
12 The scope and objectives of the internal audit function vary widely and depend on the size
and structure of the entity and the requirements of its management.
Which three of the following functions could internal audit perform and still operate
effectively?
A Examination of financial and operational information for management
B Authorisation of transactions in excess of limits set by management
C Review of accounting systems and related controls
D Advising management on cost effective controls for systems and activities
E Routinely preparing bank reconciliations LO 2d
13 There are many similarities between the internal auditor and the external auditor. However,
there are some crucial differences that are important to note.
Which two of the following usually only relate to the internal auditor?
A They provide an opinion on the financial statements
B Their work is focused on the operations of the entire business
C The role can be carried out by employees of the entity
D They are appointed by the shareholders of an entity LO 2d
14 One of the emerging operational issues that internal auditors need to be involved with is
cyber security (defined as the protection of systems, networks and data in cyberspace).
Which three of the following internal audit activities are most likely to feature in relation to
an entity's cyber security?
A Reviewing the password protocols in place for employees with access to information
systems
B Testing the operating effectiveness of an entity's firewall and anti-virus software
C Monitoring the entity's website for signs of unauthorised modification
D Comparing the costs and benefits of the entity's online social media presence LO 2d

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Chapter 10: Documentation

1 Which three of the following are reasons why assurance providers record their work?
A To confirm the terms of the engagement
B To help the assurance team to plan and perform the engagement
C To retain a record of matters of continuing significance to the engagement
D To enable an experienced assurance provider to carry out quality control reviews
LO 3a
2 Which three of the following should working papers show?

A The name of the client
B The date the work was planned
C The date the work was carried out
D The date the work was reviewed
E The initials of the person supervising the work LO 1f
3 Which two of the following are likely to be kept on a permanent audit file?
A Engagement letter
B Planning memorandum
C Review notes
D Previous year's signed financial statements
E Current year's draft financial statements LO 1f
4 Which two of the following statements are correct?

A Working papers belong to the assurance provider
B Working papers should be kept for the current and previous year only
C Working papers should not be made available to third parties without client
permission
D Working papers should be made available to third parties at the request of the client
LO 1f

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5 The assurance provider will prepare documentation in relation to the fieldwork carried out
on an assurance engagement.
For each of the following, select whether or not they are valid reasons for preparing this
documentation.
To retain a record of matters of continuing significance to future engagements
A Valid
B Not valid
To fulfil legal requirements covering assurance providers
C Valid
D Not valid
To enable quality control reviews to be carried out
E Valid
F Not valid LO 3a
6 Many auditors use two types of audit file: a current audit file and a permanent audit file.
For each of the following documents, select whether it is most likely to be included in the
current audit file, permanent audit file or in both.
Engagement letter
A Current audit file
B Permanent audit file
C Both
Audit plan
D Current audit file
E Permanent audit file
F Both
Manager review notes
G Current audit file
H Permanent audit file
I Both LO 1f
7 Which three of the following documents would be held on a current audit file?
A Details of the history of the client's business
B Communications with experts
C Audit file review notes
D Copies of management accounts
E Lease agreements LO 1f
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8 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false.
Working papers should be stored in locked premises.
A True
B False
An auditor can destroy the audit plan relating to Jacobs Ltd for the year ended
30 June 20X3 in 20Y0.
C True
D False
Working papers belong to the client and may be stored at their premises.
E True
F False LO 1f
9 For each of the following, select whether or not they are valid reasons for preparing audit
working papers.
To help the audit team to plan and perform the audit
A Valid
B Not valid
To enable the auditor to charge a higher fee
C Valid
D Not valid
To prove adherence to ISAs
E Valid
F Not valid LO 3a
10 The assurance provider will prepare documentation in relation to the fieldwork carried out
on an assurance engagement.
For each of the following, select whether or not they are valid reasons for the preparation of
such documentation.
To help in establishing this year's overall audit strategy
A Valid
B Not valid
To help in this year's review process
C Valid
D Not valid
To provide a record of evidence gathered to support the conclusions reached
E Valid
F Not valid LO 3a

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11 Many auditors use two types of audit file: a permanent audit file and a current audit file.
For each of the following types of information, select the appropriate file in which it will be
contained.
Audit strategy document
A Permanent audit file
B Current audit file
Written representation from management
C Permanent audit file
D Current audit file
Accounting systems notes
E Permanent audit file
F Current audit file LO 1f
12 Which three of the following are advantages of automated working papers?

A They may result in substantial time-savings
B The risk of errors is reduced
C The auditor does not need to apply judgement in assessing the results
D They will be easier to review LO 1f
13 Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the minimum period, as
required by ICAEW, for which audit working papers must be retained by the auditor?
A Five years from the date of completion of the audit work
B Six years from the date of the auditor's report
C Six years from the end of the accounting period to which they relate
D Five years from the date of approval of the financial statements by the shareholders
LO 1f
14 Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the safe custody of audit
documentation?
A While audit documentation is held on the client's premises it is the responsibility of the
client to ensure its safe custody
B The auditor need only ensure the safe custody of audit documentation for the duration
of the audit
C The auditor must ensure the safe custody of audit documentation for at least six years
from the end of the accounting period to which it relates
D All audit documentation must be destroyed within five years of the end of the
accounting period to which it relates LO 1f

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15 The auditor may choose to include a number of items within their working papers.
For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false.
Auditors may include a summary of all significant matters arising during the audit and how
they were addressed.
A True
B False
In cases where significant judgement is required, the auditor can choose to delay the
preparation of working papers in order to allow for suitable reflection.
C True
D False
Audit working papers will record matters of continuing significance to future audits.
E True
F False LO 3a, 1f
16 Which one of the following statements is correct when describing automated and electronic
working papers?
A Electronic working papers do not involve any automatic calculations.
B Both electronic and automated working papers never involve any automatic
calculations.
C Automated working papers do not involve any automatic calculations.
D Both electronic and automated working papers always involve automatic calculations.
LO 3a, 1f

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Chapter 11: Evidence and sampling

A Inspection of assets confirms rights and obligations
B Inspection of a purchase invoice confirms the cost of inventory
C Observation gives strong ongoing evidence of the matter being observed
D Inquiry of third parties gives better evidence than inquiries of entity insiders LO 3d
2 In which three of the following situations could audit software appropriately be used?
A When checking calculations on a selection of invoices
B When extracting a sample of invoices over a certain value
C When extracting all invoices to specific customers
D When testing controls over invoice processing LO 3d
3 According to ISA (UK) 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement
Through Understanding of the Entity and Its Environment and ISA (UK) 520, Analytical
Procedures which two of the following statements are correct?
A Analytical procedures must be used as risk assessment procedures.
B Analytical procedures must be used as substantive procedures.
C Analytical procedures must be used during the overall review stage of an audit.
D Analytical procedures must be carried out by senior level assurance staff. LO 3d
4 Which three of the following statements are correct?

When using analytical procedures, assurance providers should:
A consider whether the information they might require will be available.
B consider the knowledge gained during previous assurance engagements.
C consider the source of the information and whether it is reliable.
D not use information that has been internally generated at the entity. LO 3e
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5 Which one of the following procedures would be the most appropriate for verifying the
interest accrued on borrowings?
A Confirming the interest rate with the lender
B Vouching to the interest paid
C Testing internal controls over cash payments
D Recalculating the interest accrued on the basis of outstanding amount, interest rate
and period to which it relates LO 3d

A When testing for overstatement, the assurance provider will test items from the
accounting records to the supporting documents.
B When testing for understatement, the assurance provider will test items from the
accounting records to the supporting documents.
C When testing for overstatement, the assurance provider will select items from outside
the accounting records and trace to the records.
D When testing for understatement, the assurance provider will select items from outside
the accounting records and trace to the records. LO 3f
7 Which two of the following constitute sampling?

A Testing 100% of the items in a population
B Testing less than 100% of the items in a population
C Testing all items with a certain characteristic
D Testing items selected randomly from the population LO 3b
8 Which two of the following are factors that an assurance provider should take into account
when determining the sample size for a test of details?
A The time available to complete the test
B The skill of the team member assigned to carry out the test
C A decrease in the assurance provider's assessment of the risk of material misstatement
D An increase in the level of expected misstatement LO 3g

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9 The assurance provider is using statistical sampling.

Which three of the following methods would be most appropriate to use to select a sample
of accounts receivable?
A Random selection
B Systematic selection
C Haphazard selection
D Sequence selection
E Monetary unit selection LO 3f
10 Which two of the following misstatements discovered in a sample would not generally be
extrapolated against the total population?
A A misposting between customer accounts
B A misstatement in invoice value
C An invoice omitted in error
D An invoice disputed by a customer
E A timing difference between customer records and client records LO 3g
11 Assurance providers obtain evidence using procedures set out in ISA 500.
For each of the following tests, select the type of procedure which is being used.
The assurance provider writes to a sample of customers asking them to inform him of the
balance they owe the company at the year end.
A Inspection
B Observation
C Confirmation
The assurance provider looks at a share certificate to confirm that the company has an
investment in Company A.
D Inspection
E Observation
F Confirmation
The assurance provider attends the inventory count and ensures that it is being carried out
in accordance with the issued instructions.
G Inspection
H Observation
I Confirmation LO 3f

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12 For each of the following statements concerning computer–assisted audit techniques

(CAATs), select whether they are true or false.
CAATs can be used to perform the assurance procedure of 'reperformance'.
A True
B False
Test data can be used to ensure that controls in the client's system are operating as the
assurance provider expects them to.
C True
D False
Audit software makes use of the client's specialised software to run audit procedures.
E True
F False LO 3b
13 In respect of an assurance engagement, which one of the following is the least persuasive
method of gathering evidence?
A Inspection of a supplier's invoice
B Reperformance of a client's supplier statement reconciliation
C Reperformance of a depreciation calculation
D Inspection of a sales invoice LO 3e
14 When determining a sample size for tests of details there are a number of factors which an
auditor should take into account.
For each of the following factors, select whether it would cause the sample size to increase
or to decrease.
The auditor's required confidence level increases.
A Increase
B Decrease
The assessed risk of a material misstatement in respect of a balance has been reappraised
and has increased.
C Increase
D Decrease
The population has been stratified.
E Increase
F Decrease LO 3g

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15 When determining a sample size for tests of controls, there are a number of factors which
an auditor should take into account.
For each of the following factors, select whether it would cause the sample size to increase,
decrease, or to have negligible effect.
An increase in tolerable misstatement
A Increase
B Decrease
C Negligible effect
An increase in the number of invoices in the population
D Increase
E Decrease
F Negligible effect
A decrease in the auditor's required confidence level
G Increase
H Decrease
I Negligible effect LO 3g
16 Which two of the following statements are correct regarding factors which influence sample
sizes for tests of controls?
A An increase in the number of sampling units within the population will increase the
sample size.
B A decrease in the expected misstatement will decrease the sample size.
C A decrease in the tolerable misstatement will decrease the sample size.
D An increase in the extent to which the risk of material misstatement is reduced by the
operating effectiveness of controls will decrease the sample size. LO 3g
procedures to obtain evidence.
Physical examination of property, plant and equipment confirms ownership.
A True
B False
Recalculation is a strong form of evidence as it is created by the assurance provider.
C True
D False
Inquiry is always an unreliable means of obtaining evidence.
E True
F False LO 3d

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18 For each of the following pieces of evidence, select whether it is more reliable or less
reliable than the piece of evidence it is paired with.
A sales invoice is more reliable/less reliable than a purchase invoice.
A More reliable
B Less reliable
An original copy of a lease agreement is more reliable/less reliable than a photocopy.
C More reliable
D Less reliable
A bank statement is more reliable/less reliable than a cash book.
E More reliable
F Less reliable LO 3e
19 All methods of obtaining evidence have deficiencies. Examples of these are listed below.
For each deficiency, select the method of obtaining evidence which is most likely to result in
that deficiency.
Limited to the point in time it takes place
A Analytical review
B Observation of a procedure
Limited by the underlying accounting system
C Analytical review
D Observation of a procedure
A balance which is overstated may be agreed because it favours the respondent
E Direct confirmation of a receivables balance
F Direct confirmation of a payables balance LO 3c
20 In accordance with ISAs 315 and 520, select whether analytical procedures are compulsory
or optional in each of the following circumstances.
At the risk assessment stage of the audit
A Compulsory
B Optional
As a substantive procedure
C Compulsory
D Optional
At the overall review stage of the audit
E Compulsory
F Optional LO 3d

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21 Which two of the following circumstances would reduce the reliability of the results of
analytical procedures?
A Detailed information is available analysed by department
B Budgeted figures in the past have proved to be highly optimistic
C Reliable industry data are available
D Significant deficiencies in the internal control system have been identified in the past
LO 3e
22 Which two of the following procedures describe tests for understatement?

A Selecting a sample of despatch records and tracing these to a matching sales invoice
and entry in the sales account
B Selecting a sample of sales invoices and tracing these to a matching despatch record
C Selecting a sample of items of plant physically verified by the assurance provider and
tracing these to an entry in the asset register
D Selecting a sample of items of plant from the asset register and physically verifying
their existence LO 3f
23 The auditor of Frost Ltd has carried out a test on a sample of receivables and has
discovered a higher than expected number of misstatements.
Which three of the following steps would be an appropriate response to this?
A Investigate the nature and cause of the misstatements
B Consider the effect of the misstatements on other parts of the audit
C Estimate the probable overall misstatement by extrapolating the results
D Increase the tolerable misstatement LO 3g

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24 When determining a sample size for tests of details there are a number of factors which an
auditor should take into account.
For each of the following factors, select whether it would cause the sample size to increase
or to decrease.
An increase in the auditor's assessment of the risk of material misstatement
A Increase
B Decrease
An increase in the use of analytical procedures to test the same assertion
C Increase
D Decrease
An increase in the level of misstatements that the auditor expects to find when testing the
assertion
E Increase
F Decrease LO 3g
25 For each of the procedures below, select whether the auditor will be testing primarily for
overstatement or primarily for understatement.
Communicating with the client's legal advisers for details about outstanding legal claims
A Primarily for overstatement of provisions
B Primarily for understatement of provisions
Reviewing the aged inventory analysis to identify old/obsolete inventory
C Primarily for overstatement of inventory
D Primarily for understatement of inventory
The auditor calculating for himself the warranty provision and comparing their figure to the
balance stated in the statement of financial position
E Primarily for overstatement of warranty provision
F Primarily for understatement of warranty provision LO 3f

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26 For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false in respect of test
data.
Test data are a type of substantive procedure.
A True
B False
Test data can include real data and dummy data.
C True
D False
Test data can be used to help in the calculation of ratios.
E True
F False LO 3b
27 Which one of the following is the definition of an anomaly?

A A misstatement or deviation that is demonstrably not representative of misstatements
or deviations in a population
B The misstatement that the auditor expects to be present in the population
C Control deviations, when performing tests of control, or misstatements, when
performing substantive procedures
D The maximum misstatement in the population that the auditor would be willing to
accept LO 3g
28 For each of the following descriptions, select whether they describe monetary unit
sampling, block selection or systematic selection.
Peter is auditing trade accounts receivable. Materiality is £25,000. The sample is selected
on the basis of choosing the balances containing each 25,000th £1 on a cumulative basis.
A Monetary unit sampling
B Block selection
C Systematic selection
Paul is checking whether purchase invoices have been authorised for payment. He has
selected all the November purchase invoices as his sample and has reviewed them for an
authorisation signature.
D Monetary unit sampling
E Block selection
F Systematic selection LO 3b

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29 In order to gather sufficient, appropriate evidence, the auditor may make use of external
confirmation requests.
For each of the following statements with regards to external confirmation requests, select
whether it is true or false.
A positive confirmation request always asks the respondents to reply to the auditor
indicating whether or not they agree with the information provided.
A True
B False
A sample of confirmation requests drawn from the client's list of balances is more
appropriate for receivables balances than for payables balances.
C True
D False
A positive confirmation request ordinarily provides more reliable audit evidence than a
negative confirmation request.
E True
F False LO 3c
30 Which one of the following procedures would provide the most reliable source of evidence
where a company receives an invoice after the year end which relates to a period that
straddles the year end?
A Confirming the purchase amount to a supplier statement at the year end
B Vouching the payment of the invoice
C Testing internal controls over accruals
D Recalculating the portion of the invoice amount which relates to the reporting period
LO 3d
31 For each of the procedures below, select the option which best describes the auditor's test
when performing the procedure.
Reviewing post year-end invoices for amounts which relate to the reporting period
A Testing primarily for existence of accruals
B Testing primarily for completeness of accruals
Reviewing the payments made to suppliers after the year end
C Not a relevant procedure for payables
D Testing primarily for completeness of payables
The auditor calculating for herself the amount accrued where an invoice straddles the year
end
E Testing primarily for cut-off of accruals
F Testing primarily for completeness of accruals LO 3f

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32 For each of the following statements about audit data analytics, select whether it is true or
false.
Data analytics allows auditors to investigate complex data using simple visualisation
techniques.
A True
B False
Significant time must be always spent tailoring data analytics procedures to the individual
audit client to achieve good results.
C True
D False
Data analytics allows auditors to test large quantities of transactions very quickly.
E True
F False LO 3b
33 Assurance providers obtain evidence using procedures, as set out in ISA (UK) 500, Audit
Evidence.
For each of the following statements about specific audit procedures, select whether they
are true or false.
When attempting to verify controls over petty cash, inquiry is likely to be strong evidence
when assessing the risk of fraud from poor segregation of duties.
A True
B False
Recalculation of a depreciation expense by the auditor using the client's stated estimation
techniques is regarded as strong audit evidence.
C True
D False
Observing an employee of the client re-performing a particular control is usually sufficient
to determine that it is operating satisfactorily.
E True
F False LO 3c
34 Which one of the following is not an example of a specific area where audit data analytics
may now be used?
A Comparing entity data to externally obtained data
B Three-way matching between sales orders, goods despatched records and invoices
C Extracting samples of transactions for further examination
D Re-performing calculations relevant to the financial statements LO 3b

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35 ISA (UK) 450, Evaluation of Misstatements Identified During the Audit requires the auditor to
evaluate the effect of any uncorrected misstatements on the financial statements. This
includes determining whether any uncorrected misstatements are material.
Which three of the following factors will the auditor use to determine whether uncorrected
misstatements are material?
A The materiality level for the financial statements as a whole
B The size of the misstatement
C The circumstances of the occurrence of the misstatement
D The nature of the misstatement LO 3g

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Chapter 12: Written representations

1 According to ISA (UK) 580, Written Representations which three of the following is an
auditor required to confirm in writing with management?
A Management's belief that it has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation of financial
statements
B All transactions have been reflected in the financial statements
C The fact that management has provided the auditor with all relevant information
D Management's agreement of the level of materiality used during the audit LO 3h
2 According to ISA (UK) 580, Written Representations which two of the following must
auditors obtain written representations about?
A Material matters where other evidence cannot reasonably be expected to exist
B Material matters where other evidence is missing due to an emergency such as a fire
C Management's belief that it has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation of the
financial statements
D That the financial statements record and reflect all transactions LO 3h
3 For each of the following statements concerning written representations, select whether
The auditor should evaluate whether the representations appear reliable and are consistent
with other evidence obtained before they are relied on as audit evidence.
A True
B False
Written representations are appropriate evidence when evidence the auditors expected to
be available is unavailable.
C True
D False
If written representations given do not agree with other evidence, auditors should not trust
any other representations made by management during the course of the audit.
E True
F False LO 3h
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4 Auditors seek written representations from management to support oral representations

that have been made during the course of the audit.
For each of the following in relation to a statutory audit, select whether a written
representation is required or not required.
The directors have fulfilled their responsibility for the preparation of the financial
statements.
A Required
B Not required
The accounting policies selected and applied by management are appropriate.
C Required
D Not required
A material item, subject to management judgement, for which no other evidence could
reasonably be expected to exist
E Required
F Not required LO 3h
5 Written representations may be sought as audit evidence.

Which two of the following are valid circumstances in which written representations may be
required?
A To support other evidence about the suitability of accounting policies
B Where information which would normally be expected to be available is unavailable
C To support inspection of a board minute introducing the directors' intention to sell a
material investment
D When the alternative audit procedure would be too time consuming LO 3h
6 On which two of the following matters should an auditor seek written representations?
A Whether there are plans to abandon product lines that will result in obsolete inventory
B Whether plant and equipment held on the client's premises exists
C The existence (or not) of reconciling items between the cash balance and the bank
statement balance
D Whether there are any undisclosed subsequent events LO 3h

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7 For each of the following statements concerning written representation letters, select
A written representation letter is only required for new clients.
A True
B False
The written representation letter must be dated before the auditor's report.
C True
D False
The written representation letter must include a list of all uncorrected misstatements.
E True
F False LO 3h
8 For each of the following statements concerning written representation letters, select
Written confirmations are required from all client staff who have made oral representations.
A True
B False
The matters to be referred to in the written representation letter shall be discussed by the
auditor with senior management.
C True
D False
Written representations can be used as a substitute for evidence which would be available
to the auditor by other means.
E True
F False LO 3h
9 Which two of the following are purposes of a written representation letter?

A Acknowledgement that management has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation
of the financial statements
B Provision of evidence in respect of material items where other evidence is available
C Acknowledgement by management of its belief that the aggregate of uncorrected
misstatements are immaterial to the financial statements
D Confirmation by management of the scope of the work to be carried out by the
assurance firm
E Provision of details of proposed modifications to the auditor's report LO 3h

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10 ISA (UK) 580, Written Representations deals with the auditor's responsibility to obtain
written representations from management and, where appropriate, those charged with
governance of an audited entity.
Which three of the following are included in the definition of management in this context?
A Persons with executive responsibility for the conduct of the entity's operations
B An owner-manager
C Executive members of a governance board
D Majority shareholders LO 3h
11 Which one of the following ISAs (UK) is not normally referred to in a standard written
representation letter from management?
A ISA (UK) 240, The Auditor's Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of Financial
Statements
B ISA (UK) 300, Planning an Audit of Financial Statements
C ISA (UK) 550, Related Parties
D ISA (UK) 560, Subsequent Events LO 3h

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Chapter 13: Substantive procedures – key financial

statement figures
1 Which three of the following provide evidence to support the rights and obligations
assertion in relation to non-current assets?
A Title deeds
B Purchase invoices
C Vehicle registration documents
D Sales invoices LO 3d
2 Which one of the following assertions is the assurance provider least concerned with when
testing a non-current asset balance?
A Existence
B Rights and obligations
C Completeness
D Cut-off LO 3d
3 Which three of the following are the more significant risks in relation to an inventory
balance in the financial statements?
A Inventory exists but has not been included in the financial statements
B Inventory has been valued at cost when net realisable value is lower
C Inventory has been valued when it is obsolete and has no value
D Inventory has not been disclosed properly in the financial statements LO 3d
4 Which two of the following constitute the best quality evidence concerning the net
realisable value of inventory?
A Company's controls over inventory counting
B Post year-end sales invoices
C Post year-end sales orders
D Post year-end sales price list LO 3e
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 13: Substantive procedures – key financial statement figures 87
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5 Which one of the following is the reason why the positive method of confirming receivables
balances with customers is generally preferred?
A It is carried out in the auditor's name
B It requires the customer to reply giving or confirming or disagreeing with the balance
C It only requires the customer to reply if he disagrees with the balance
D It requires replies to be sent to the client LO 3e
6 Which two of the following procedures are most appropriate to confirm the valuation of
trade receivables?
A Review of the receivables ledger
B Direct confirmations with customers
C Review of cash paid after date
D Review of sales invoices LO 3d
7 Which one of the following procedures which could be undertaken to confirm the valuation
of a client's bank balance is the most reliable?
A Inspection of the bank reconciliation
B Inspection of the bank statement
C Inspection of the bank letter
D Inspection of the cash book LO 3e
8 In which two of the following situations should an auditor carry out a cash count?
A An individual cash float is material
B A client has a large number of cash floats, which are immaterial in total
C A client has poor controls over cash floats, which are immaterial in total
D The auditor suspects that a fraud has been committed in relation to immaterial cash
floats LO 3d
9 Which one of the following is the key assertion with which auditors are concerned in
relation to payables?
A Completeness
B Existence
C Accuracy
D Classification LO 3d

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10 Which three of the following are reasons why the auditors might seek direct confirmation of
balances due from suppliers?
A To obtain third party evidence
B The auditors suspect that the client is deliberately understating payables
C The internal controls relating to purchases are weak
D Supplier statements are unavailable LO 3d
11 Which two of the following are reasons why sales are often verified by testing the internal
controls in place over sales?
A There are usually too many individual transactions to test them individually
B Sales constitute a high volume of similar transactions which are suitable for controls
testing
C Controls over sales in a company are often strong
D Because there are so many individual transactions, there is a significant risk that sales
are misstated LO 3b
12 Which three of the following relationships/ratios are reasons why analytical procedures can
give strong evidence in relation to the accuracy of purchases?
A Operating margin
B Purchases and payables
C Purchases and inventories
D Gross margin LO 3g
13 The results of substantive tests in relation to non-current assets at Hammersmith plc are set
out below. The materiality threshold set for these tests was £5,000.
For each of the following results, select the action which should be taken by the audit
senior.
A sample of three assets worth £2,000 in total had been excluded from the non-current
asset register and the financial statements.
A Draw conclusion
B Refer to senior colleague
C Extend sample
A building revalued to £100,000 during the year was vouched to an expert valuation carried
out by a firm of chartered surveyors.
D Draw conclusion
E Refer to senior colleague
F Extend sample LO 3i
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14 The results of substantive tests on trade payables at Fulham Ltd are set out below. The
materiality threshold set for these tests was £17,000.
senior.
Three goods inwards records dated before the year end relating to goods worth £16,000
were traced to purchase invoices which have been included in the subsequent year and not
provided for this year.
A Draw conclusion
C Extend sample
In a sample of 20 supplier statement reconciliations, statements were unavailable for
10 suppliers. Statements were available for seven of these 10 suppliers in the previous year.
D Draw conclusion
F Extend sample LO 3i
15 The auditor of Barnett plc carried out an external confirmation of receivables at the year end
to confirm the accuracy of total trade receivables in the statement of financial position at
that date. Two of the replies to the confirmations disagreed with the balance.
For each of these two disagreements, select whether the disagreement would or would not
be considered a misstatement for the purposes of evaluating the accuracy of total trade
receivables in the statement of financial position at the year end.
Watford Ltd disagreed with the balance because they had made a payment two days
before the year end. The auditor has confirmed that the cheque cleared the bank two days
after the year end.
A Misstatement
B Not misstatement
Radlet Ltd disagreed with the balance because their records did not contain invoice
number SI 00492. This invoice and associated goods were despatched by Barnett plc on
the last day of the year. The auditor has verified that the despatch record and cut-off with
inventory are correct.
C Misstatement
D Not misstatement LO 3g

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16 Hayley, an audit junior, has carried out the following tests to verify the valuation of inventory
in the financial statements of Cobham plc.
In each case, select whether the test proves the assertion of valuation or not.
Attending the inventory count and carrying out sample counts on a number of items
A Proves valuation
B Does not prove valuation
Comparing cost on a number of inventory items to sales invoices subsequent to the year
end
C Proves valuation
D Does not prove valuation LO 3d
17 Lisa has obtained a list of items which make up the cash and cash equivalents balance
(£3,556) in the financial statements of Baker Ltd. Materiality has been set at £4,000.
For each item, select whether or not Lisa should test the item.
Current account balance (overdrawn) £5,600
A Test
B Not test
Petty cash float £750
C Test
D Not test
Special directors' cash account £1,294
E Test
F Not test LO 3g
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18 Kamran, an audit junior, has been asked to test the completeness of certain items in the
income statement. He has carried out the following tests.
For each test carried out, select whether that test proves the assertion of completeness or
not.
Analytical procedures on revenue figures, budget v actual and actual current year v actual
previous year
A Proves completeness
B Does not prove completeness
Tracing a sample of goods received records to payables ledger and financial statements
C Proves completeness
D Does not prove completeness
Tracing a sample of entries on the payroll to individual HR records
E Proves completeness
F Does not prove completeness LO 3d
19 Which two of the following assertions is the auditor most concerned with when testing
property, plant and equipment?
A Occurrence
B Existence
C Rights and obligations
D Cut-off LO 3d
20 The auditor of Mondays Ltd is performing a test to ensure that there are no omissions from
the non-current asset register.
In respect of which one of the following assertions will this procedure provide audit
evidence?
A Cut-off
C Completeness
D Existence
E Classification LO 3d

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21 Which two of the following procedures would provide evidence of rights and obligations of
motor vehicles?
A Vouching a sample of motor vehicles in the asset register to registration documents
B Physical inspection of motor vehicles
C Review of purchase invoices for motor vehicles acquired in the period
D Confirmation that calculations on the non-current asset schedule are correct in respect
of motor vehicles LO 3d
22 For each of the following circumstances in respect of inventory, select which financial
statement assertion would be affected.
Inventory which had been sold by the end of the period has been included in inventory.
A Completeness
C Cut-off
Damaged items of inventory have not been written down to net realisable value.
D Completeness
E Accuracy, valuation and allocation
F Cut-off LO 3d
23 For each of the following circumstances in respect of inventory, select which financial
statement assertion would be affected.
Inventory items were excluded from the total in the financial statements in error.
A Completeness
C Cut-off
Due to the miscalculation of cost, some inventory items have been included at cost when
net realisable value is lower.
D Completeness
E Accuracy, valuation and allocation
F Cut-off LO 3d
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24 The following describes a number of features of the inventory count instructions of

Sydney Ltd.
For each feature, select whether it represents a strength or a deficiency.
The inventory count is performed by warehouse staff and supervised by the warehouse
manager.
A Strength
B Deficiency
Inventory sheets are completed in pencil.
C Strength
D Deficiency
There are two teams of counters, one counting and one checking.
E Strength
F Deficiency LO 3g
25 For each of the following statements concerning perpetual inventory counts, select whether
Adequate inventory records must be kept up to date.
A True
B False
All inventory lines must be counted at least once per month.
C True
D False
Material differences between book inventory and actual inventory must be investigated and
corrected.
E True
F False LO 3g
26 Management should compare cost and net realisable value for each item of inventory.
Which three of the following circumstances could result in net realisable value being lower
than cost?
A An increase in the cost of raw materials which cannot be passed on to the customer
B An increase in selling price
C Errors in production
D An increase in production overheads
E Trade discounts from suppliers LO 3g

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27 Direct confirmation of trade receivables provides evidence in respect of which two of the
following assertions?
A Existence
C Rights and obligations
D Completeness
E Occurrence LO 3d
28 The following statements apply to the use of the positive or negative method of direct
confirmation of receivables.
For each statement, select whether it applies to a situation where the positive method
should be used or to a situation where the negative method could be used.
The assessed risk of material misstatement is high.
A Positive method
B Negative method
A small number of large balances is involved.
C Positive method
D Negative method
A substantial number of misstatements is not expected.
E Positive method
F Negative method
There is no reason to believe that respondents will disregard the requests.
G Positive method
H Negative method LO 3d
29 Which one of the following is the most reliable evidence of the valuation of trade
receivables?
A A comparison of current year-end total with previous year
B Analysis of after-date receipts
C Reconciliation of receivables ledger and receivables ledger control account
D Reconstruction of receivables balance by tracing individual amounts invoiced to
despatch records LO 3e
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30 Smith LLP is considering the preliminary audit strategy for the following two new audit
clients whose principal characteristics are set out below.
For each client, select whether Smith LLP would be likely to rely on internal controls or to
rely completely on substantive procedures.
Client AX has recently been incorporated and is experiencing rapid growth. It is in the
process of recruiting a financial controller.
A Rely on internal controls
B Rely completely on substantive procedures
Client BF is an established company with well-documented systems and controls. It has an
internal audit function whose principal activity is to monitor the implementation and
effectiveness of existing controls.
C Rely on internal controls
D Rely completely on substantive procedures LO 3f
procedures.
Examining the instructions issued for a year-end physical inventory count
A Test of control
Observing despatch procedures
C Test of control
Comparing this year's sales figures to those of previous years
E Test of control

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32 The following are examples of tests which an assurance firm might use at the gathering
evidence stage of an assignment.
For each example, select the type of procedure that test illustrates.
Adding the list of year-end receivables
A Confirmation
B Recalculation
C Reperformance
Using computer–assisted audit techniques (CAATs) to check the ageing of the year-end list
of aged receivables
D Confirmation
E Recalculation
F Reperformance LO 3b
33 In order to gather sufficient, appropriate evidence, the auditor may make use of external
confirmation requests.
For each of the following statements, select true or false.
A positive confirmation request always asks the respondents to reply to the auditor
indicating whether or not they agree with the information provided.
A True
B False
A sample of confirmation requests drawn from the client's list of balances is more
appropriate for receivables balances than for payables balances.
C True
D False
A positive confirmation request usually provides more reliable audit evidence than a
negative confirmation request.
E True
F False LO 3c
34 Which one of the following financial statement assertions will be supported by a sample
check on the numerical sequence of despatch records and invoices?
A Cut-off
B Occurrence
C Completeness
D Accuracy, valuation and allocation LO 3d
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35 Which one of the following procedures should be undertaken to confirm the existence of
cash at bank?
A Inspecting the bank reconciliation statement prepared by the client
B Agreeing the figures on the bank reconciliation to the bank column in the cash book
C Obtaining direct confirmation of the bank balance from the client's bank
D Reperforming the additions on the bank reconciliation LO 3d
36 The auditor of Raindrop Ltd carried out a direct confirmation at the year end to confirm the
accuracy of total trade receivables in the statement of financial position at that date. Two of
the replies to the circularisation disagreed with the balance.
For each of these two disagreements, select whether the disagreement would be
considered a misstatement for the purpose of evaluating the accuracy of total trade
receivables.
Jones LLP disagreed with the balance because their records indicated that the amount had
been paid a few days before the year end. The auditor's enquiries revealed that the cheque
was cleared shortly after the year end.
A Misstatement
B Not a misstatement
Sunny plc disagreed with the balance because its records indicated that it had paid the
balance two weeks before the year end. The auditor's enquiries revealed that the amount
had been received and credited to another customer's account before the year end.
C Misstatement
D Not a misstatement LO 3g
37 The external auditor of Aaron Ltd has set materiality thresholds such that items under
£40,000 are not generally considered material.
For each of the following items in Aaron Ltd's financial statements select whether the
auditor would usually test it for overstatement or for understatement, or whether the item
would not be tested at all.
£1,000 due from Harry, a director of Aaron Ltd
A Overstatement
B Understatement
C Not test
Sundry income £35,000
D Overstatement
E Understatement
F Not test LO 3f/g

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38 Gamma Ltd has a head office and several branches. The head office operates a continuous
inventory counting system. The system ensures that all items are counted at least twice a
year and checked against inventory records.
During the interim audit, an examination of the counts undertaken by head office staff
showed that differences between inventory records and the physical count frequently arise.
Usually, actual inventory levels at branches are found to be higher than book inventory.
Which one of the following explains this difference?
A Unrecorded write offs of scrapped inventory
B Unrecorded purchase returns
C Unrecorded branch requisitions
D Unrecorded branch returns LO 3g
39 The results of substantive audit tests at Errata plc are set out below. The materiality
threshold set for these tests was £1,000.
senior.
No misstatements found
A Draw conclusion
C Extend sample
An arithmetical misstatement of £5,000 found
D Draw conclusion
F Extend sample
A misstatement of £10 found, sanctioned by the finance director
G Draw conclusion
H Refer to senior colleague
I Extend sample LO 3i
40 Which one of the following describes how an assurance provider would check the existence
assertion for a non-current asset?
A Trace the physical item to the non-current asset register
B Trace the physical item to the financial statements
C Trace an entry in the non-current asset register to the physical item
D Trace an entry in the non-current asset register to the financial statements
E Trace an entry in the financial statements to the physical item LO 3f
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41 Which two of the following statements identify an appropriate source of information for
audit work directed towards the stated risk associated with tangible non-current assets?
A Purchase invoices for assets purchased within the year may contain evidence in relation
to the risk of omission of assets owned by the company.
B Physical inspection of the assets themselves by the auditor may generate evidence in
relation to the risk of the company not actually owning the assets.
C Valuations carried out by third party valuers may contain evidence in relation to the risk
of the assets being incorrectly presented in the financial statements.
D Sales invoices for assets sold within the year may contain evidence in relation to the risk
of the company not actually owning the assets. LO 3f
42 Assurance providers obtain evidence using procedures, as set out in ISA (UK) 500, Audit
Evidence.
For each of the following statements, select whether they are most likely to be true or false.
A major risk of misstatement of the receivables balance in the financial statements is of
debts not being complete.
A True
B False
The principal risk of misstatement of long-term liabilities in the financial statements is of
non-existent liabilities being declared.
C True
D False
A major risk of misstatement of the inventory balance in the financial statements is of
inventory being included in the financial statements at full value when it is obsolete or
damaged.
E True
F False LO 3f
43 At which two of the following business locations should auditors be particularly alert to the
risk of money laundering?
A Car wash
B Manufacturer of upholstery
C Surveyors' offices
D Pawn shop LO 3f

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Chapter 14: Codes of professional ethics

1 Which three of the following are reasons why the accounting profession needs ethical
codes?
A Accountants have access to confidential information
B Assurance providers claim to give an independent view
C The financial community relies on accountants
D The law requires it LO 4a/c/l
2 ICAEW qualified auditors acting in the UK are subject to which two of the following?
A IESBA Code of Ethics
B ICAEW Code of Ethics
C FRC's Ethical Standard
D The Code of Ethics set by the Government LO 4d
3 Which three of the following are stated fundamental principles of the IESBA Code?
A Integrity
B Objectivity
C Independence
D Confidentiality
E Courtesy LO 4e
4 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members only.
B The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members and employees of member firms
only.
C The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members, employees of member firms and
ICAEW students.
D The ICAEW Code of Ethics applies to its members, employees of member firms,
ICAEW students and all other members of UK accountancy bodies. LO 4d
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 14: Codes of professional ethics 101

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5 For each of the following statements concerning professional ethics, select whether they
are true or false.
Prescriptive rules of ethical guidance are beneficial because they place the onus on the
accountant to actively consider independence in every given situation.
A True
B False
A framework of ethical guidance allows principles to be applied to different situations, and
is therefore effective in a situation that is changing rapidly.
C True
D False
A framework of ethical guidance prevents accountants interpreting legalistic requirements
narrowly, in order to circumvent ethical requirements.
E True
F False LO 4b
6 Which three of the following bodies issue ethical guidance?

A ICAEW
B IESBA
C IAASB
D FRC LO 4d
7 Which one of the following statements best describes ethical guidance in the UK?
A Ethical guidance provides a set of rules which must be followed in all circumstances.
B Ethical guidance is a framework containing a combination of rules and principles the
application of which is dependent on the professional judgement of the assurance
provider based on the specific circumstances.
C Ethical guidance provides a set of principles which can be applied at the discretion of
the assurance provider.
D Ethical guidance is a series of legal requirements. LO 4d

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8 For each of the following threats, select whether they are identified by the IESBA Code only,
the FRC's Ethical Standard only or both the IESBA Code and the FRC's Ethical Standard.
Self-interest threat
A IESBA Code only
B FRC's Ethical Standard only
C Both
Management threat
D IESBA Code only
E FRC's Ethical Standard only
F Both
Familiarity threat
G IESBA Code only
H FRC's Ethical Standard only
I Both
Self-review threat
J IESBA Code only
K FRC's Ethical Standard only
L Both LO 4f
9 Which three of the following are valid reasons why independence and objectivity are
important to the assurance profession?
A The public's expectations of accountants
B Public interest in financial information
C Tradition
D Credibility of published financial information LO 4f

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10 There are two main approaches to a code of professional ethics: a rules-based ethical code
and a principles-based code.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
A principles-based code requires a professional accountant to comply with a set of specific
rules.
A True
B False
A rules-based code requires a professional accountant to identify, evaluate and address
threats to compliance with fundamental ethical principles.
C True
D False
ICAEW uses a rules-based approach.
E True
F False LO 4b/d
11 The ICAEW Code of Ethics provides guidance for members regarding their independence.
The auditor should completely eliminate all threats to their independence.
A True
B False
The degree of required independence is higher for a non-audit engagement than for an
audit engagement.
C True
D False
If safeguards do not allow a threat to be sufficiently mitigated, then the auditor should
decline the engagement.
E True
F False LO 4d

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12 The ICAEW Code of Ethics provides guidance for members regarding their independence.
If guidance is principles-based then it does not contain rules prohibiting certain activities
A True
B False
If guidance is based on general principles then it does not allow for particular or unique
situations.
C True
D False
Principles-based guidance may permit multiple correct responses in a given situation.
E True
F False LO 4b
13 The FRC's Ethical Standard gives examples of threats in its six classificatory categories.
For each threat below, select the category into which they would most likely be placed.
Auditing financial statements prepared by the firm
A Familiarity threat
B Self-review threat
An audit team member having family at the client
C Familiarity threat
D Self-review threat
Making a loan to an audit client
E Familiarity threat
F Self-interest threat LO 4e

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Chapter 15: Integrity, objectivity and independence

1 Which three of the following should an auditor consider if there is a threat to
independence?
A Withdrawing from the engagement
B Applying specific safeguards
C Making disclosures to the client
D Making disclosures to ICAEW LO 4g
2 Which three of the following should not own a material financial interest in an audit client?
A A member of the audit team
B A minor child of a member of the audit team
C A parent of a member of the audit team
D A spouse of a member of the audit team LO 4f
3 Which three of the following threats to independence might arise on the current audit when
an audit team member is involved in employment negotiations with an audit client during
the course of the audit?
A Self-interest
B Self-review
C Intimidation
D Familiarity LO 4m

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4 Allisons LLP is a firm of chartered accountants. It has a reputation for excellence in the
banking and insurance industry and has been invited to accept engagements by various
institutions as follows.
(1) The audit of Nationally plc, the leading building society in the UK. 40% of staff
members of Allisons LLP who have mortgages have mortgaged their home with
Nationally.
(2) The audit of Cash It Ltd, a large business which banks cheques and cash items for the
general public and also advances loans. A member of the proposed audit team was
impressed by the loan rate offered to the team during the tendering process and took
out a loan with Cash It Ltd to buy a car.
Which, if any, of the above companies present a major threat to the independence of
Allisons LLP, if the engagement were to be accepted?
A Nationally plc and Cash It Ltd
B Cash It Ltd only
C Nationally plc only
D Neither Nationally plc nor Cash It Ltd LO 4f
5 Which one of the following is correct in relation to the presumption of dependence for a
non-listed client?
A There is a presumption of dependence when annual fee income from all services to the
client will regularly exceed 15% of gross practice income.
B There is a presumption of dependence when annual fee income from all services to the
client will regularly exceed 5% of gross practice income.
C There is a presumption of dependence when annual assurance fee income from all
services to the client will regularly exceed 15% of gross practice income.
D There is a presumption of dependence when annual assurance fee income from all
services to the client will regularly exceed 5% of gross practice income. LO 4f
6 Majors LLP, a firm of chartered accountants, offers the following additional services to
various audit clients.
In which three of the following situations is an insurmountable self-review threat most likely
to arise?
A Preparing the financial statements for Power Group plc, a listed company, on a regular
basis
B Carrying out valuations of various non-current property assets for Tower Investments
Ltd, a property investment company
C Promoting tax structures to Haven Ltd, where there is scope for doubt about the
appropriateness of the accounting treatments involved to achieve the tax benefits
D Helping Craven plc in defining its corporate strategies and identifying possible sources
of finance for a potential new venture LO 4f
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7 In accordance with FRC's Ethical Standard, in which three of the following engagements is
there a significant threat to independence?
A Alan Johnson has been the audit engagement partner of Domino Ltd for 11 years.
B Barry Thomson has been the audit engagement partner of Beetle Group plc, a listed
company, for seven years.
C Having been the audit engagement partner of Risk Group plc, a listed company, for
five years, Colin Jackson resigned as audit engagement partner three years ago;
following a reshuffle in the firm, he has just been assigned as a key partner involved in
the audit of Risk Group plc.
D Don Matthewson has recently been appointed as the audit engagement partner of
Scrabble plc, a listed company; he previously held this position six years ago. LO 4f
8 The ethics partner at Juleyson Co, a firm of chartered accountants, is trying to resolve an
ethical conflict in respect of two clients of the firm.
Which two of the following are appropriate actions for him to take?
A Do nothing because the situation is likely to resolve itself over time
B Refer the matter to the management board of partners because he cannot determine a
solution himself
C Solicit advice from the ICAEW ethics helpline
D Seek the opinion of an ethics partner at a different firm LO 4o
9 Julia is a member of ICAEW who works in industry at KiwiCorp plc, a listed company. The
company is experiencing difficulty meeting the expectations of the market, and Julia has
been told by the board of directors that the company must meet its optimistic profit targets
at the year end, regardless of what accounting is required to achieve this.
Which two of the following are the most appropriate initial courses of action for Julia to take
in these circumstances?
A Report her concerns to the audit committee
B Resign
C Take legal advice
D Obtain advice from the human resources department at KiwiCorp plc LO 4o

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10 Threats to independence can be placed into six general categories of threat.

For each of the following statements, select whether they are true or false.
Having a close business relationship, including a common financial interest with an audit
client, can cause self-interest and intimidation threats.
A True
B False
A partner should not serve on an audit client's board as this can constitute a management
threat.
C True
D False
Contingent fees for audit work cause a self-interest threat.
E True
F False LO 4m
11 There are various general threats to independence recognised by ethical codes.

For the following two examples, select the type of threat which might arise in that situation.
The audit senior assigned to the audit of Loesdon Ltd has recently become engaged to the
finance director's daughter.
A Self-interest
B Management
C Advocacy
The finance director of Litten Ltd has recently informed the audit engagement partner that
Litten Ltd will be seeking a stock exchange listing. The finance director has implied that
Litten Ltd will want to use the firm for significant amounts of advisory work in relation to the
listing, but joked at the same time that 'clean bills of health' would be crucial from now on.
D Self-interest
E Management
F Self-review LO 4m

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12 Estelle LLP is a 10-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on the
audit of the financial statements of two separate companies. The following potential issues
have been identified before acceptance of any such appointments.
For each of the following clients, select the basis on which the engagement could be
accepted, if at all.
Othello Ltd, which will also require you to provide routine tax compliance work and advice
A Do not accept
B Accept with safeguards
C Accept with no safeguards
Desdemona Ltd, the finance director of which worked at Estelle LLP four years ago, but who
does not know any of the members of the proposed audit team personally
D Do not accept
E Accept with safeguards
F Accept with no safeguards LO 4g
13 Fagin LLP, a large assurance firm, has been asked to carry out recruitment services for its
client, Claret plc, by recruiting senior accounting staff.
Which two of the following threats to independence would arise if Fagin LLP agree to
provide such services?
A Self-review
B Management
C Advocacy
D Familiarity LO 4m
14 The following are examples of situations in which an audit firm might be faced with threats
to its independence.
For each example, select the type of threat which that situation best illustrates.
The finance director of Fussy Ltd has requested that the audit team for the current year
audit be the same as the team which performed last year's audit.
A Self-review
B Familiarity
C Intimidation
The finance director of Pernickety Ltd has told the audit manager that he is not happy with
the proposed audit opinion and is likely to seek a second opinion.
D Self-review
E Familiarity
F Intimidation LO 4m

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15 The following are examples of situations in which Carnation LLP, an audit firm with 50
similar medium-sized audit clients, which are non-listed, might need to implement
safeguards in order to protect its independence.
For each situation, select the most appropriate safeguard in accordance with Ethical
Standards, or state that there are no safeguards that could reduce the risk to an appropriate
level.
Carnation LLP has been invited to accept the audit of a major listed company. The fee
income from this engagement would represent 5% of the gross fee income of the firm.
A Separate personnel
B Discuss the issues with the audit committee
C No safeguards possible
Carnation LLP has been invited to accept the audit of a major competitor of an existing
client and has obtained consent from both to act.
D Separate personnel
E Discuss the issues with the audit committee
F No safeguards possible LO 4n
16 Hermione LLP is a 12-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on
the statutory audit of two separate companies. The following potential issues have been
identified before acceptance of any such appointments.
For each of the following potential clients, select on what basis the engagement could be
Snowman Ltd, which has just grown to the point where a statutory audit is required;
Snowman Ltd is already a client of Hermione LLP, which prepares the financial statements
for the company
A Do not accept
Snowball Ltd, which is a competitor of an existing client of Hermione LLP
D Do not accept

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17 Which three of the following are areas in which a self-interest threat might arise?
A Where there is a close business relationship between the auditor and the client
B Where the auditor prepares and audits the financial statements
C Where the auditor has a financial interest in the client
D Where there are a significant amount of overdue fees
E Where the audit firm provides internal audit services and significant reliance is to be
placed on the internal audit work for the purposes of the external audit LO 4m
18 Monty LLP, an audit firm, has a number of medium-sized audit clients which are non-listed.
It has a current gross practice income of £500,000.
For each of the following prospective clients taken separately, select whether there are
safeguards which could reduce any risk to independence to an acceptable level in
accordance with Ethical Standards.
Marty Ltd has insisted that the audit fee be based on 5% of reported profit after tax.
A Safeguards possible
B No safeguards possible
Fee income in respect of Andrews Ltd is expected to be £95,000
C Safeguards possible
D No safeguards possible
Fee income in respect of Borne Ltd is expected to be £65,000
E Safeguards possible
F No safeguards possible LO 4f
19 Wright LLP, a firm of auditors, has the following employees who previously worked for
current audit clients.
Name Previous employer Position held Date of resignation
Sam Brown Hastle Ltd Finance director 31 January 20X6

James Hastle Ltd Office junior 30 June 20X7
Sanderson
Sally Jones Morgan Ltd Chief accountant 1 June 20X4
For the audit of Hastle Ltd and Morgan Ltd for the year ended 31 December 20X7, for
which, if either, could all three members of staff be used on the audit team if the
engagement is to be conducted in accordance with Ethical Standards?
A Both Hastle Ltd and Morgan Ltd
B Hastle Ltd only
C Morgan Ltd only
D Neither Hastle Ltd nor Morgan Ltd LO 4f

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20 Edward is an audit trainee working on the audit of Trekker Trailers Ltd. It is the day before
the audit manager is coming out to the client to review the files. Edward has been asked to
perform some additional tests on inventory valuation by his supervisor. These tests have
revealed a number of problems which Edward has highlighted to the supervisor. The
supervisor has told Edward that it is too late to deal with these and has asked him to falsify
the working papers.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate course of action for Edward to take?
A Falsify the results as instructed
B Inform the audit manager
C Seek legal advice
D Inform the client LO 4o
21 Morgan LLP, an audit firm, has a number of prospective clients: Masons Ltd, Burton Ltd and
Dewburry Ltd.
For each of these following prospective clients, select whether the holding of the stated
financial interest should result in the firm declining the engagement or the individual being
excluded from the audit team in accordance with Ethical Standards. (Assume that the
interests are not disposed of.)
Bill Brown, a partner in Morgan LLP, owns 10% of the shares in Masons Ltd.
A Firm must decline
B Individual excluded
Sam Larson's wife owns 5% of the shares in Burton Ltd. Sam Larson is an audit manager at
Morgan LLP.
C Firm must decline
D Individual excluded
Jane Smith's husband owns 15% of the shares in Dewburry Ltd. Jane Smith is a partner in
Morgan LLP.
E Firm must decline
F Individual excluded LO 4f

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22 Panama LLP is an audit firm with 30 similar, non-listed, medium-sized audit clients. The
following are examples of situations in which Panama LLP might need to implement
safeguards in order to protect its independence.
For each situation, select the most appropriate safeguard or state that there are no
safeguards which could reduce the risk to an acceptable level in accordance with the
FRC's Ethical Standard.
One of Panama LLP's clients is a competitor of one of its other clients.
A Separate personnel
B Fee threshold not exceeded
C No safeguards possible
Panama LLP has been asked to take on the role of internal auditor at one of its clients and
would be responsible for implementing its own recommendations.
D Separate personnel
E Fee threshold not exceeded
F No safeguards possible LO 4n
23 Cairns LLP, a small assurance firm, has been asked to provide two of its audit clients with the
following additional services. For each of the companies, select on what basis the additional
services could be provided, if at all, in accordance with Ethical Standards.
Leyton Ltd has had to employ a new accountant who is unsure of the correct treatment of a
number of transactions. Cairns LLP has been asked to provide advice and help in the
preparation of the financial statements.
A Do not provide
B Provide with safeguards
C Provide with no safeguards
Blacks Ltd has asked Cairns LLP to provide some tax planning advice and has suggested
that the fee could be based on a percentage of the tax saving. The total fee from this client
is material to Cairns LLP.
D Do not provide
E Provide with safeguards
F Provide with no safeguards LO 4g

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24 In each of the following cases, select the principal threat that the audit firm is facing.
Polly Nunn, a partner in an audit firm, has just inherited some shares in an audit client.
A Self-interest
B Familiarity
Golf World Ltd is so pleased with the way that the audit has been conducted that it has
offered the members of the audit team two free golf lessons each.
C Self-interest
D Familiarity
Tobin LLP, an audit firm, has been asked to provide internal audit services to an audit client.
E Self-interest
F Self-review LO 4m
25 Jane Stanley is a qualified accountant working for a small catering company. The directors
of the company are looking to expand and have approached a number of potential
investors. Jane has been asked to produce management accounts for the investors to
review. The managing director has specifically told her that they must show a gross profit
margin of 30% and he "doesn't care how she achieves it." The gross profit margin is
normally approximately 20%. There is no internal complaints procedure.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial course of action for Jane to take?
A Resign
B Seek legal advice
C Contact the ICAEW telephone helpline
D Comply with her employer's request LO 4o
26 Richard Richardson LLP is a multi-national audit firm responsible for the audit of a high
street bank, Barkers Bank.
For each example below of loans provided to members of the audit team by Barkers Bank,
select whether the loan gives rise to a threat to Richard Richardson LLP's independence in
accordance with ethical standards.
The audit junior's student loan
A Threat
B No threat
The audit partner's mortgage, negotiated on normal commercial terms
C Threat
D No threat
The audit manager has recently taken out a car loan. He is being charged an interest rate of
2% below the standard rate applied to this product
E Threat
F No threat LO 4f

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27 The following are examples of situations in which an audit firm might be faced with threats
For each example, select the type of threat which that situation illustrates.
The audit firm has been asked to underwrite its client's shares in relation to a proposed
flotation.
A Self-review
B Advocacy
The board of directors does not contain a qualified finance professional and the company
has asked the audit firm to prepare the financial statements.
C Self-review
D Advocacy LO 4m
28 Talland LLP is the external auditor of Huntley Ltd, a retailer. The managing partner has been
called to a meeting with the board of directors of Huntley Ltd. At that meeting the firm has
been asked if it can provide the following non-audit services.
Huntley Ltd would like to implement a new sales system. They have asked Talland LLP to
take on a consultancy project whereby the firm will evaluate several possible systems,
advise on which system should be selected, and oversee the installation of the new system.
Which one of the following sets of threats would arise from the above scenario, if the
project was accepted by Talland LLP?
A Advocacy and management
B Management and familiarity
C Management and self-review
D Advocacy and familiarity LO 4m
29 Hammers LLP is a firm of chartered accountants. It has been invited to accept engagements
by various institutions as follows.
(1) Advisers to New Generation Insurance and Co, a small group of insurers seeking to
buy out the home insurance business of Insurance Plus, a major UK insurer. The partner
in charge of the advice team has made certain guarantees to New Generation
Insurance and Co's bank in respect of one of the members of New Generation
Insurance and Co, whom he knows personally. Hammers LLP has been promised the
audit of New Generation Insurance and Co if the buy out is successful.
(2) A review of banking procedures at NatEast plc, a major high street bank. Hammers LLP
has a modest business loan from NatEast plc.
Which, if any, of the above companies presents a major threat to the independence of
Hammers LLP, if the engagement were to be accepted?
A New Generation Insurance and Co and NatEast plc
B NatEast plc only
C New Generation Insurance and Co only
D Neither New Generation Insurance and Co nor NatEast plc LO 4f

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30 The following are examples of situations in which Bouldry LLP, an audit firm, might need to
implement safeguards to protect its independence. Bouldry LLP has 75 small, non-listed
audit clients and has been asked to provide additional services to three of these clients.
For each situation, select whether the additional services could be accepted with
appropriate safeguards, in accordance with Ethical Standards, or state that there are no
safeguards that could reduce the risk to an appropriate level.
Bouldry LLP has been asked to carry out a valuation service. The valuation is material to the
financial statements but does not involve a significant degree of subjectivity.
A Accept with safeguards
Bouldry LLP has been asked to provide accounts preparation assistance.
C Accept with safeguards
Bouldry LLP has been asked to design and implement an IT system which will significantly
impact on the accounting system. Historically, Bouldry LLP has placed reliance on the
accounting system as part of the audit.
F No safeguards possible LO 4g
31 Brown LLP has been invited by Alpha plc, a listed company, and Beta Ltd, a non-listed
company, to provide audit and non-audit services. If accepted, the fees for Alpha plc would
represent 11% of the firm's gross fee income, and the fees for Beta Ltd would represent
12%.
Assuming Brown LLP would like to take on as many clients as is permitted by ethical
standards, which one of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
A Accept both Alpha plc and Beta Ltd as clients
B Accept Alpha plc as a client and refuse Beta Ltd
C Accept Beta Ltd as a client and refuse Alpha plc
D Refuse to take on either Alpha plc or Beta Ltd as clients LO 4f

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32 Helena LLP is an eight-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on
the statutory audit of two separate companies. The following potential issues have been
identified.
For each of the following potential clients, select on what basis the engagement could be
accepted or state that the engagement should not be accepted, in accordance with the
Titania plc, a listed company, will also require Helena LLP to prepare the financial
statements.
A Do not accept
Puck Ltd, whose finance director is the brother of one of the partners at the assurance firm
D Do not accept
33 Two different audit juniors have been asked to carry out the following tasks. For each of the
tasks you should select the action that the audit junior should take.
An audit junior at Oberon LLP, a large assurance firm, has been asked to join the audit team
at a major client to carry out the receivables section of the audit. The junior has not carried
out this section of the audit before but has covered it in his training.
A Perform the work
B Refer to training partner
C Contact the ICAEW telephone helpline
An audit junior at Lear LLP, a sole practitioner audit firm, has been asked to commence the
audit of a small manufacturing client. The junior has expressed reservation about this but
the practitioner has insisted that he should go out to the client unsupervised at the
beginning of the following week.
D Perform the work
E Refer to training partner
F Contact the ICAEW telephone helpline LO 4h

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34 David, a recently qualified ICAEW Chartered Accountant, is the newly-appointed financial

controller of Hartpury Ltd. Hartpury Ltd is a relatively small company, which is likely to be
taken over in the near future.
As one of his first assignments, David has been asked to prepare the financial statements
for the year ended 31 December 20X6. David has now been called into the last part of a
board meeting where the directors have given him a profit target which must be met in
those financial statements. They have stressed that this profit target must be met, even if it
means that accounting standards are not followed.
Which two of the following describe possible appropriate courses of action which David
could consider taking?
A Report his concerns to the audit committee
B Resign his post
C Report his concerns to the finance director
D Take legal advice
E Use Hartpury Ltd's formal dispute resolution process to resolve the issue LO 4o
35 The following are examples of situations in which an audit firm might be faced with a threat
For each example, select the main type of threat that situation illustrates.
The finance director has a very strong personality and insists on the audit team working in
his office.
A Familiarity
B Intimidation
C Management
The audit team and the management team at the client have remained unchanged for
several years.
D Familiarity
E Intimidation
F Management LO 4m

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36 Dudley & Partners is a large assurance firm. They have acted as the external auditors to
Birmingham Ltd, a small owner-managed company, for two years.
The managing director and major shareholder of Birmingham Ltd, Mr Black, has now asked
the firm to represent the company's interests in a legal case which has been brought
against it. Mr Black has indicated that if the firm refuse to do this they will not be
reappointed as external auditor. He is also making matters difficult for those members of
the audit team carrying out the interim audit.
Which one of the following sets of threats arises from the above scenario?
A Intimidation, self-review and management
B Advocacy, self-interest and management
C Intimidation, advocacy and self-interest
D Intimidation, advocacy and management LO 4m
37 Callinicos LLP is a 12-partner assurance firm which has been asked to consider taking on the
audit of the financial statements of two separate companies. The following potential issues
have been identified before acceptance of any such appointments.
For each of the following clients, select the basis on which the engagement could be
Luxemburg Ltd, which will also require Callinicos LLP to provide a valuation service in
relation to some immaterial financial assets.
A Do not accept
Cliff plc, a listed company which will also require you to provide routine bookkeeping work
D Do not accept

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38 You are a trainee in the audit department of Termite LLP. You have been working in the
department for 18 months and have experience of completing audit testing under
supervision, but are yet to work independently.
Several months ago, you had worked on the audit of Cioran Ltd. You have just received a
call from the audit manager, asking you to address a review point in relation to some
accruals testing that you did. The manager said that the audit report is to be signed
tomorrow, and that you need to resolve the point immediately. You are finding it difficult to
understand what was wrong with your testing, and do not know how to resolve the review
point.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for you to take?
A Perform the work
B Refer to training partner
C Contact ICAEW
You have also been assigned to the upcoming audit of Schopenhauer Ltd, in which you are
to be allocated the non-current assets section of the audit. You have not carried out this
section of the audit before, but you have covered it in his training.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for you to take?
D Perform the work
E Refer to training partner
F Contact ICAEW LO 4h
39 The following are examples of situations in which Habermas LLP, an audit firm, might need to
implement safeguards to protect its independence. Habermas LLP has 50 small, non-listed
audit clients and has been asked to provide additional services to three of these clients.
For each situation, select whether the additional services could be accepted with
appropriate safeguards, in accordance with the ICAEW Code of Ethics and the FRC's Ethical
Standard, or state that there are no safeguards that could reduce the risk to an appropriate
level.
Habermas LLP has been asked to provide tax planning advice. The efficacy of the advice
depends on balances included within the financial statements, but the outcome of the
advice would not be material to them.
A Accept with safeguards
Habermas LLP has been asked to draw up a shortlist of candidates for the position of
finance director, using criteria determined by the client in advance.
C Accept with safeguards
Habermas LLP has been informed that an audit client to whom other assurance services
were provided last year, is bringing legal proceedings against Habermas LLP for
negligence in its performance of those services.
F No safeguards possible LO 4g

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Chapter 16: Confidentiality

1 Which two of the following are the principal reasons why confidentiality is so important to
accountants?
A It is a fundamental principle of all the major ethical codes
B Failure to keep information confidential reflects badly on the accountant
C Accountants need their clients to be comfortable to make full disclosure of company
affairs to them
D It means that accountants can work for competitors LO 4i
2 Which three of the following should an accountant take care not to do, in order to
safeguard confidentiality?
A Discuss client matters with third parties
B Discuss client matters with colleagues in public places
C Discuss client matters with colleagues in non-public places
D Leave working papers in the car LO 4j
3 In which three of the following situations is it appropriate to disclose confidential

information?
A When the client has granted permission
B In order to obtain audit evidence about an amount in the financial statements
C When there is a public duty to make disclosure
D When there is a legal duty to make disclosure LO 4k
4 Which three of the following are situations where there is a legal duty to disclose
confidential information?
A When a fraud has taken place, it should be reported to the police
B When terrorist activity has taken place, it should be reported to the police
C When regulatory breaches have taken place at a charity, it should be reported to the
Charities Commission
D When money laundering is suspected, it should be reported to the National Crime
Agency (NCA)
LO 4k

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5 Emma is faced with the following situations as part of her work.

For each situation, select the action Emma should take.
As part of her routine assurance work on revenue at Dodgy Ltd, Emma discovers that the
company accepts cash payments for sales that are never recorded in the accounting
records.
A Make no external report
B Report to the police
C Report to the firm's money laundering nominated officer
As part of her routine payables testing at Risky Ltd, Emma discovers that controls are
deficient and some payments have been made to suppliers twice in error.
D Make no external report
E Report to the police
F Report to the firm's money laundering nominated officer LO 4k
6 For each of the following situations, select whether the assurance provider may disclose
confidential information or must disclose confidential information.
The assurance provider is being sued for negligence and is trying to establish a defence.
A May make disclosure
B Must make disclosure
The assurance provider has discovered a fraud at the client, which the client has agreed
should be referred to the police.
C May make disclosure
D Must make disclosure
The assurance provider believes that the client is saving money by breaching environmental
clean up requirements.
E May make disclosure
F Must make disclosure LO 4k
7 In which one of the following instances would the client's permission be required before
disclosure is made to a third party?
A The client is involved in tax evasion
B The receivables ledger clerk at a client has committed a theft by teeming and lading
C An employee of a client is involved in terrorist activities
D There has been an industrial accident at one of the client's factories which has not been
reported to the relevant licensing authorities LO 4k
ICAEW 2019 Chapter 16: Confidentiality 123

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8 If an assurance provider suspects that money laundering is taking place, to which one of the
following should the details be reported in the first instance?
A The police
B The Department of Trade and Industry
C The board of directors
D The firm's money laundering nominated officer LO 4k
9 In respect of conflicts of interest, select whether each of the following statements is true or
false.
Where a conflict of interest exists between two audit clients, the auditor must cease to act
for one party.
A True
B False
If the effects of a conflict of interest can be mitigated by safeguards these should be
recorded.
C True
D False
Where adequate safeguards are available the parties involved do not need to be informed
of the conflict of interest.
E True
F False LO 4n
10 Which two of the following would be an appropriate use of confidential information?

A On a change of employment, using experience gained in a previous position
B Encouraging others to buy shares in a company on the basis of information obtained
during the course of the audit
C Providing a prospective auditor with information required by him in order for him to
decide whether or not to accept the appointment
D Using information obtained on the audit of one client to influence the audit opinion
given in respect of another client LO 4k

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11 In which one of the following situations may confidential information in respect of a client
only be disclosed if the permission of the client has first been granted?
A As a defence in a negligence claim
B In order to avoid giving an incorrect auditor's report to another client
C Where money laundering is suspected
D Where terrorism is suspected LO 4k
12 During the course of an assurance engagement, a member of the assurance team from
Endeavour LLP discovers that the owner of the business regularly collects cash received
from customers and does not include any details relating to the transaction in the
accounting records of the business.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate action for him to take in respect of this
matter?
A Discuss the matter with the client and advise him of the legal position
B Report the matter to the manager of the assurance engagement so that she can discuss
it with the client
C Obtain the client's permission to report the matter to a designated officer within your
firm
D Report the matter to a designated officer within your firm without the client's
permission
LO 4k
13 Lilac Ltd is currently in a dispute with the tax authorities, and ask asked Lilly LLP to represent
it. Lilly LLP is concerned that doing so may breach its duty of confidentiality.
Which of the following statements best reflects the auditor's duty of confidentiality?
A Auditors must never, under any circumstances, disclose any matters of which they
become aware during the course of the audit to third parties, without the permission of
the client.
B Auditors may disclose any matters in relation to criminal activities to the police or
taxation authorities, if requested to do so by the police or a tax inspector.
C Auditors may disclose matters to third parties without their client's consent if it is in the
public interest, and they must do so if there is a statutory duty to do so.
D Auditors may only disclose matters to third parties without their client's consent if the
public interest or national security is involved. LO 4k

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14 You are an audit manager in Leaf LLP, a large audit firm which specialises in the audit of
insurance companies. The firm currently audits Caterpillar Ltd, a car insurer, but
Caterpillar's main competitor, Snail Ltd, has approached the audit firm to act as auditors.
Caterpillar is concerned that if Leaf LLP audits both companies then confidential
information could pass across to Snail.
Which two of the following actions should Leaf LLP take regarding the potential
confidentiality issue?
A Inform the audit committees of both Caterpillar and Snail of the potential conflict of
interest and obtain their consent to act for both parties
B Use separate audit teams for each audit with a common independent review partner to
determine whether confidentiality has been maintained
C Draw up confidentiality agreements to be signed by the board of directors of
Caterpillar and Snail
D Prevent unauthorised physical access to the information relating to both company
audits LO 4k
15 For each of the following statements about the principle of confidentiality, select whether
the statement is true or false.
It is appropriate for a member of the audit team to discuss a client's financial statements
with a member of the tax team in the firm's reception area.
A True
B False
The auditor must disclose a client's breach of environmental law as soon as is practicable
after it is discovered.
C True
D False LO 4i, 4k

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Answer Bank
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Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance

1 A,B,C
A key element of an assurance engagement is sufficient appropriate evidence, but is
not generally mandatory that this evidence is recorded in an assurance file. (It is
mandatory to record audit evidence, however.)
2 A,B,D
Reasonable assurance is a high, but not absolute, level of assurance. The other options
available represent various aspects of the expectations gap which is the gap between
what the assurance provider understands he is doing and what the user of the
information believes he is doing.
3 D Employment by a firm controlled by qualified persons. Membership of a recognised
supervisory body cannot be obtained until exams have been passed, but provided that
the person is employed by a qualifying person/firm, work can be carried out on audits.
4 B,C The answer is not option A as the fact that assurance work is carried out by
independent people is a strength of assurance provision. Option D is also incorrect as
the use of unqualified staff increases the detection risk of the auditor as opposed to
being an inherent limitation of the provision of assurance. Work carried out by less
qualified staff should always be supervised, directed and reviewed by more senior
personnel.
5 C,E It is the responsible party who will determine the suitable criteria (in response to the
obligations it has) against which the practitioner will test the subject matter and on
which the practitioner will report to the users.
It is the practitioner who will provide the opinion on whether the subject matter
complies with the criteria after the evidence has been gathered and evaluated
accordingly. The opinion prepared will be issued to the user.
6 B Sufficient appropriate audit evidence is gathered and a positively worded opinion
issued in a reasonable assurance engagement. A lower level of evidence coupled with
a negatively worded opinion applies to a limited assurance engagement.
7 A,C,F
Whereas the statutory audit provides reasonable assurance through a positively
worded assurance conclusion, in a review engagement, limited assurance is provided
with the issue of the negatively worded assurance conclusion. This can be seen in the
wording of the two conclusions. The positively worded assurance conclusion includes
wording 'the financial statements give a true and fair view', whereas the negatively
worded assurance conclusion includes the wording 'nothing has come to our
attention', emphasising the limited nature of the assignment.
Reasonable assurance is high assurance provided on the truth and fairness of the
subject matter as opposed to absolute assurance of the correctness of the subject
matter.
8 A,D,F
The subject matter under examination are the company's corporate governance
policies. These policies are to be assessed against the UK Corporate Governance
Code, which is the suitable criteria. The responsible party is Blue plc, the party
commissioning the report, who has the responsibility to apply the UK Corporate
Governance Code. Jones LLP is the practitioner, responsible for gathering the
appropriate evidence and issuing an appropriate opinion.

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9 B,D,E
Criteria used will depend on the type of engagement conducted. Suitable criteria
should be available for other engagements eg, health and safety can be measured
against health and safety legislation.
10 A,D Reasonable assurance engagements include the statutory audit. The auditor's report is
phrased using a positive form of words but does not give absolute assurance. Limited
assurance indicates that nothing has come to light which would cast doubt on the
subject matter being reviewed, and is expressed using a negative form of words.
11 A,C As per Companies Act, 2006, a statutory auditor must be a member of a recognised
supervisory body and an officer or employee of the client is ineligible as auditor.
12 B Assurance refers to an assurance firm's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion
being made by one party for the use of another party. This assurance is then expressed
in an assurance report with a negative or positive conclusion given as appropriate to
that particular engagement. SAMPLE PAPER
13 A,B,D
An assurance report does not 'attest(s) to the correctness of the information being
reported upon'. Even a reasonable assurance engagement (which gives more
assurance than a limited assurance engagement) does not provide a guarantee that
the information being reported on is correct. Assurance can never be absolute as this
statement implies. SAMPLE PAPER
14 A,E It is the responsible party that prepares the subject matter and the practitioner who is
responsible for gathering evidence. The user is the party who receives the final report.
SAMPLE PAPER
15 D There are two types of conclusion which can be given: a conclusion expressed in
positive terms and a conclusion expressed in negative terms. A conclusion expressed
in negative terms is indicated by the phrase 'nothing has come to our attention' which
indicates the restricted work carried out and hence the fact that the assurance is
limited, as opposed to reasonable. Hence this type of assurance is limited level of
assurance expressed negatively.
SAMPLE PAPER
16 A,B,D
The expectation gap is the gap between what users of financial statements believe the
auditor does and what the auditor actually does. The following three are common
manifestations of the expectation gap:
 the auditor's report certifies the financial statements as correct
 the auditor's principal duty is to detect fraud
 the auditor checks all transactions
The belief that the auditor is employed by the directors is a common misconception
but not a manifestation of the expectation gap. (The company employs the auditor,
who is appointed by the shareholders in a general meeting.) SAMPLE PAPER
130 Assurance: Answer Bank ICAEW 2019

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17 B,D,F
A statutory audit provides reasonable assurance, which reflects the comprehensiveness
of the audit procedures carried out. No assurance engagement, not even a statutory
audit, can give absolute assurance.
A review of financial information gives limited assurance, which is a lower level of
assurance than a statutory audit. Its conclusion would be worded negatively.
A report on profit and cash flow forecasts gives limited assurance. Forecasts are by
nature about uncertain future events, and so cannot be made with enough certainty to
give a 'reasonable' level of assurance. SAMPLE PAPER
18 B,C
An officer/employee of the company cannot act as auditor of the same company as
they would not be independent of it.
If the individual's wife/husband is an officer/employee of the company, then they
cannot audit that company as they too would not be independent of it.
If the person is a partner in a firm of auditors regulated by an RSB then this is a good
thing as it provides assurance that they are appropriately trained and qualified.
It is acceptable for an individual, who is not themselves qualified, to act as auditor
provided that they are in a firm controlled by qualified persons.
19 B,C,F
Small Ltd meets the requirements of a small company in relation to turnover and total
assets (it has no more than £5.1 million total assets), which is the two out of three
required for the company to be exempted from having an audit even though it has
more than 50 employees.
Tiny Ltd does not meet any of the requirements to be a small company, and must have
an audit.
Little Ltd meets all three of the requirements, and is therefore exempted from having
an audit.

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Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an

engagement
1 A,B The answer is not option C as it will not be necessary to obtain references when the
entity is already known to the firm. It will not be necessary to contact previous auditors
in the case of a company's first audit.
2 A,C Poor recent performance may indicate a high risk that the company may misstate its
financial statements in order to show improved recent performance. A company
carrying out unusual transactions would also be a high risk, as each transaction would
require a separate understanding leading to a higher risk of error. Strong internal
controls and the existence of an internal audit department would be low risk indicators.
3 A,C Given its intention to list on the stock exchange, Tulip Ltd may be motivated to show a
better picture of itself than that which exists, hence it is a high risk client. Dhalia Ltd is
also a high risk client given that it is seeking alternative forms of finance. It has the
incentive to show itself as a more healthy company than it actually is in order to attract
the finance it requires.
4 A,B,C
The engagement letter does not contain any certification of the assurance provider's
opinion. An engagement letter does serve the other purposes listed.
5 B,C,E
Prudent accounting policies would constitute a low risk indicator as directors would
appear not to be aggressive in interpreting accounting policies in order to enhance the
performance portrayed by the financial statements.
A company carrying out unusual transactions would be high risk, as each transaction
would require a separate understanding leading to a higher risk of error.
Having no finance director is a high risk indicator – the staff in the function may not be
supervised and they may not have the skills or the knowledge to apply accounting
standards and address the key risks in the systems of the company.
6 A,B,D
Checks on legal and ethical restrictions should be performed before the appointment
is accepted. Once the appointment is accepted, legal and professional obligations
need to addressed, options A and B (as per Companies Act 2006) and option D as per
ISA 210, Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements.
7 B,C,F, G
The engagement letter is essentially the contract between the client and the auditor
and therefore should be sent to all clients. It confirms acceptance of the appointment
by the auditor so must be issued after acceptance but before work is commenced.
8 A The Money Laundering Regulations state that client identification documents must be
kept for a minimum of five years and until five years since the relationship elapses.
9 A,C Arrangements regarding the planning and performance and the basis of the fee
calculation are not essential to be included in the engagement letter, whereas the
responsibilities of the auditor and the form of any reports must be included in the
engagement letter.

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10 A,C,D
The following are not purposes of an engagement letter:
 providing constructive suggestions to management concerning improvements to
internal control
 providing evidence on matters where other evidence is not expected to exist (eg,
on management plans for the future of the entity) – this is the purpose of a written
representation SAMPLE PAPER
11 C Apply a questioning mind to the information and evidence he obtains would indicate
professional scepticism. The alternative options offered are all a step too far.
SAMPLE PAPER
12 A,B Verifying the client's identity would be performed before the engagement letter is
prepared and signed.
The Companies Act 2006 does not stop auditors from making agreements with clients
to restrict their liability, so it would be incorrect to state this is in the engagement letter.
13 A,D This is not an indication that there is anything that would prevent Ferenczi LLP from
acting as auditor, so the appointment may be accepted.
Being an undischarged bankrupt would prevent her from being a company director, so
the appointment should be declined.

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Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the

assignment
1 B,C,D
The answer is not option A as to determine the scope of the engagement should have
been done in the engagement letter.
2 A,C,D
The standard states that inquiries of third parties may be carried out if useful, but lists
options A, C and D as procedures that shall be carried out.
3 A,B,D
The answer is not option C as consideration of whether a balance has been correctly
calculated will require a procedure of recalculation as opposed to analytical
procedure.
4 B,C,D
What audit staff to assign to the audit would depend more on the risks associated with
the engagement than the level of materiality.
5 A,B,D
Option C is incorrect as confirmation of management's responsibility for the financial
statements is contained in the letter of engagement.
6 A,C,F
A profit-related scheme means that directors have the incentive to overstate profit and
hence the accounts are susceptible to material fraud/error. Therefore inherent risk is
higher than normal. A cash-based business is more inherently risky than a non-cash-
based business, as cash is susceptible by its nature to theft and omission. Where
balances in the financial statements have straightforward financial accounting
requirements, the susceptibility to material error or misinterpretation is reduced.
7 A,C,F
Option A is correct as the concept of materiality does not exist in a void, but depends
on the context of the omission or misstatement. Option C is correct as materiality acts
as a form of guidance in the amount of work required to be performed, and so when
planning audit procedures. It is also made reference to in evaluating discovered
misstatements (both individual misstatements and in aggregate). Option F is correct as
materiality is not a fixed percentage of profits or other measure but depends on the
audit risks faced for the particular client. Further, materiality is not only measured
quantitatively but also qualitatively.
8 A,D Both the examples increase the susceptibility of the accounts to material fraud and
error. The fact the organisation is seeking to raise finance for a new venture represents
a risk at the company level, whereas the estimates present a risk at the individual
account level where those estimates are found.
9 B,F High staff turnover increases the risk that the internal controls in place will not be
effective. The use of samples in testing, represents a sampling risk: that the sample
tested will not represent the population as a whole. Sampling risk is part of detection
risk.

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10 A,D,E
Warrants further testing – both the balance in the Cost of Sales account and the annual
decrease of 7% are significant and therefore further work is required to explain the
movement in the gross margin.
No further testing – the balance of repairs and renewals and the year on year decrease
of 4% is not significant (immaterial).
Warrants further testing – although an increase of 2% is not significant, the balance in
the advertising account is material and so further testing to analytical procedures is
warranted.
11 A,B Options C and D are incorrect as tests of details and review of events after the date of
the financial statements are normally performed after the initial planning stage of the
audit.
12 C Analytical procedures help identify material monetary errors in the financial statements
(which could be due to changes in account balances or key ratios as a result of
mispostings, misclassification errors or under/overstatements). The other techniques
are all concerned with systems assessment or testing of controls.
13 A,D,E
Option A is correct as materiality needs to be calculated at the audit planning stage to
provide a guide as to the extent of audit procedures required. Option D is correct as
materiality can be revised during the course of the audit, as the assessment of audit risk
changes. With regards to option E, the materiality level set will have an impact on the
audit opinion as the existence of material unadjusted errors and misstatements will
lead to a qualified audit opinion.
14 B,D The existence of management override increases control risk as controls may be
ignored leading to an increased risk of material fraud or error. Profit related pay may
motivate the directors to distort the financial information, so constituting an inherent
risk.
15 B,C,E
Options A and D are incorrect as sample sizes and inexperienced audit staff will affect
detection risk.
16 B,C If detection risk is low this means that the auditor must have a higher expectation of
identifying errors and misstatements. Materiality is lower as the financial statements are
more sensitive and sample sizes are increased so that more work is performed.
17 B,F Substantive procedures only – a new client with few employees implies a lack of
segregation of duties and hence high control risk. Therefore reliance should not be
placed on the internal control system. Audit evidence should be gathered using
substantive procedures.
A mix of tests of control and substantive procedures may be used for the audit of a
long-standing client with a sophisticated IT system and an internal audit department as
it will be possible to rely on internal controls and then perform reduced substantive
procedures.
18 B,D If sales prices are cut but costs remain the same gross profit margins will fall. If the
company sells a greater proportion of goods with a lower margin than in previous
years the overall margin will be reduced. Increased levels of sales (and therefore lower
closing inventory) will not affect gross profit margins provided selling prices are
maintained. Interest expense is not deducted in arriving at gross profit, therefore it can
have no effect on gross profit margins.

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19 A,C,F
With a recent listing on the stock exchange and high profit expectations, inherent risk
is higher than normal as accounts are more susceptible to material fraud and error.
Inventory is by its nature more inherently risky as it is susceptible to theft, omission and
misstatement. The fact that the company operates in a slow-moving, stable industry,
decreases the susceptibility of the financial statements to material fraud and error.
20 B,C,E
False – materiality can be both quantitative and qualitative.
True – materiality may depend on either the nature of an item or its monetary amount.
True – materiality is determined by the external auditor and he will use his professional
judgement in setting a level of materiality which best addresses the audit risk.
SAMPLE PAPER
21 B,D Control – few employees indicates limited segregation of duties, which is a control
deficiency.
Inherent – a fast-moving, high-tech environment presents inherent risks both at the
company level but also at individual account levels (eg, inventory). SAMPLE PAPER
22 B,D Cash would be decreasing in a situation of overtrading as cash flows out to fund the
increases in working capital.
Receivables would be increasing as the company expands without the resources to
support the expansion.
23 C If the entity has purchased a property for cash, this would reduce current assets without
any corresponding reduction in current liabilities.
24 B If the cake shop has a higher level of wastage of inventory than the electrical shop, then
the cost of wasted inventory will be treated as an expense in cost of sales. This will
reduce its cost of sales independently of the mark-up applied. Cost of sales will
therefore be high in relation to revenue, so the cake shop's gross margin will be lower.
25 B,D An unusually large sale would increase receivables and the current ratio.
If payables are paid out of a positive cash balance then this will reduce both cash
(assets) and payables by the same absolute amount. However, since the current ratio is
positive (assets are greater than liabilities), the ratio will increase.
26 C It is management's responsibility to prevent fraud within a company (option B). There
are auditor independence issues with regard to external auditors being involved in the
preparation of financial statements and in helping management to improve reporting
processes (options A and D). It should therefore be apparent that option C is correct.
27 B It is true that fraud may result in a material misstatement, but this is also true of error so
option A is incorrect. It is also true that a misstatement can be material whether it is
caused by fraud or by error, but this does not help us to distinguish between them
(option B). Option D is incorrect, since fraud is an intentional act. Option B is correct –
fraud is an intentional act but error is not.
28 C,D Option A is incorrect, as related party transactions tend to be a high-risk area. Option B
is incorrect because misstatements of disclosure may well be material, especially if they
relate to eg, directors' remuneration. Option C is correct – disclosure should be
complete. Option D is correct, because it is commonly the case that management has
not put in place reliable internal controls to identify related party transactions.

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29 A,C,E
Understanding of the entity's accounting policies is included in the audit strategy
document.
The assessment of the principal risks would be included in the audit strategy
document.
The planned timetable would be included in the audit strategy document.
30 B,C The prevention of fraud is the responsibility of management, not the auditor. However,
the auditor is responsible for obtaining evidence to address the risks of material
misstatement, which it failed to do in relation to payroll.
31 B,C Although deterrence of fraud may be a consequence of the audit, the auditor does not
perform the audit with this aim – their aim is to obtain evidence regarding the truth and
fairness of the financial statements.
The auditor is responsible for assessing the risks of material misstatement, which
includes the risk of misstatements resulting from fraud, and for obtaining evidence in
relation to this risk.

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Chapter 4: Process of assurance: evidence and

reporting
1 B,C,D
A walk-through procedure does not provide evidence relating to a specific balance on
the financial statements, but is used instead to ensure that the systems operate as the
assurance provider believes that they do.
2 A,B Option C and D are incorrect as evidence from internal sources is not more reliable
than evidence created by the assurance provider (in fact, the reverse is true).
Furthermore, the statement that photocopies are more reliable than facsimiles is not
true as the assurance provider should exercise professional caution with both.
3 A,C,D
Options B and E are incorrect as existence and rights and obligations would be used in
respect of a balance, not a class of transactions.
4 A,B,D
Option C is incorrect as positive (or reasonable) assurance will be given on an audit
assignment, whereas negative (or limited) assurance is given on a review assignment,
reflecting the limited procedures carried out.
5 A,D Directors refusing to cooperate with the auditor constitute an inability to obtain
sufficient appropriate audit evidence – the fact that users discover this has nothing to
do with the expectations gap. Shareholders approving the auditor's appointment at a
general meeting is a legal obligation of the company.
6 B,F,I
It is only the statutory audit that provides reasonable assurance. The review
engagements provide limited assurance. None of the engagements provides absolute
assurance.
7 B,F Option B is correct as where the controls have been assessed as deficient, this means
that reliance can not be put on these controls. Option F is correct as where controls
have been assessed as strong, this means that they can be relied upon. In this way,
tests of controls are carried out coupled with limited substantive procedures.
8 C,E The Companies Act checklist ensures that all classification issues are addressed.
Tracing non-current assets observed back to the non-current asset register ensures that
this balance is recorded completely.
9 A,B,D
Option C is incorrect because cut-off relates to classes of transactions (ISA (UK) 315:
para. A129).
10 A,D,E
Option A is correct as material items must be tested with substantive procedures,
although the extent of these procedures will depend on whether reliance can be
placed on the related internal controls. Option D is correct as while results from tests of
controls may affect the extent of substantive procedures they will not eliminate the
need for them completely.

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11 A,D,E
Observing the opening of the post is a test of control as it is the observation of a
control taking place. Calculation of the gross profit margin and comparison with that of
the previous accounting period is an analytical procedure (which is, in turn, a
substantive procedure). Reviewing for authorisation is also testing that a control has
been applied (option E).
12 B,C As per Companies Act 2006, 'That adequate accounting records have been kept' and
'Directors' remuneration has been disclosed correctly' are reported on by exception.
13 A,D,E
Observing inventory counting is a test of control as it is the observation of a control
taking place (ie, the year end inventory count).
Calculation of the quick ratio and comparison with that of the previous accounting
period is an analytical procedure (which is, in turn, a substantive procedure).
Inquiring into the systems used to process purchases is a test of control (option E).
14 B, E By selecting items from sales orders and tracing them back to the nominal ledger, the
auditor is beginning outside of the accounting system (with the sales orders), and then
testing whether these orders have been reflected in the accounts. The aim is therefore
to test whether all of the sales orders have been included in the accounts (it will be
discovered in the course of testing whether all of the orders resulted in sales). This is
therefore a test of whether the accounts are complete.
Reviewing the non-current assets disclosure note is not testing for existence or
classification, because no test is being performed here of the underlying assets. From
the information given in the question, this could either be a test of completeness
(completeness of disclosures in line with IFRS), or a test of presentation (that
disclosures are relevant and understandable in line with IFRS). Only completeness is
offered as an option here.
15 A,C Key audit matters are the matters that are of most significance to the audit.
The auditor does not express a separate opinion on any of the key audit matters,
rather; the auditor expresses a single opinion on the financial statements as a whole,
and then communicates the key audit matters that relate to that opinion.
16 A, D The statement of financial position is based on a mixture of fair values and amounts
stated at historical cost; this would not usually represent a suitable basis for valuing a
business.
The amounts in the financial statements are not stated precisely – rather, they are
prepared using the concept of materiality.
It is standard practice for the audit firm to be paid by the audited entity. Auditing
standards do not consider this to impair the auditor's independence.
Auditors are allowed to sell other services to the audited entity, provided that this does
not create an unacceptable threat to the auditor's independence.
17 B,D A statement of directors' responsibilities and an auditor's opinion are included within
an auditor's report, not an assurance report.

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18 B,C,F
Whether the financial statements are in agreement with the accounting records and
returns is reported only by exception (an implied opinion only).
Whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the company's
affairs at the end of the financial year is an explicit opinion, relating to the statement of
financial position.
Whether details of directors' emoluments and other benefits have been correctly
disclosed in the financial statements is reported only by exception (an implied opinion
only).

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Chapter 5: Introduction to internal control

1 B,F The process of preparing the financial statements forms part of the information
processing system.
Locking the inventory storeroom is a specific control activity.
None of the above relate to the control environment, which refers to the management
style and philosophy towards controls.
2 B,D,E
Control risk is lower than normal (ie, internal controls are stronger) where the company
has an established internal audit function (which strengthens the control environment
by monitoring the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls in place) and where the
board has a track record of performance review, monitoring and investigating
deviations from expected performance. Control risk is higher than normal where
purchase invoices are not authorised (control deficiency).
3 B,C,E
Option A is incorrect as all members of an audit committee must be non-executive
directors. Option D therefore is also incorrect. The chief internal auditor does not sit on
the audit committee, but should ideally report directly to this committee.
4 A,C,D
Option B is not correct as it is the attitude of management and senior staff that will
shape the entity's control environment and not that of the ordinary staff.
5 A,D For the preparation of reconciliations where calculations are involved, the inherent
limitation is that these reconciliations are susceptible to human error. Even where
duties are segregated, this control can be overridden by the collusion of the parties
involved.
6 E Reporting the process to the auditors is part of the external audit process and not part
of the internal risk assessment process.
7 B,C The information system comprises all the information (be it in hardcopy or electronic
form) that flows into the financial statements and does include the whole process of
financial statement preparation.
8 C,F Both are physical controls.
9 B,F Reconciliations are information processing as they are undertaken to check the
completeness and accuracy of information. Having separate clerks recording sales
invoices and posting cash receipts in the sales ledger reduces the risk of fraud and
error (is therefore a segregation of duties control).
10 A,D,F
Option A is a general control as it supports the effective functioning of application
controls. Options D and F are correct as they relate specifically to the processing of
individual applications.
11 B Narrative notes would be the simplest way of recording a straightforward system that
was is not subject to a great amount of change annually. It is, however, the least
effective way in terms of readily identifying the system in operation and the
deficiencies of the system.

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12 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as while the prior year audit file will be useful, the system may
have changed in the intervening period. The company's website is very unlikely to
contain details on the internal control system. SAMPLE PAPER
13 D Cyclical reviews of the master files is an application control. The remainder of the
options available are general controls.
14 B,D Options A and C are incorrect as they are control deficiencies, rather than inherent
limitations of an internal control system as such.
15 A,B Appraising the sales ledger constitutes performance review and compiling the trial
balance are information processing control activities.
16 B,C Small companies are less likely to be successful in the implementation of segregation
of duties controls due to the limited number of employees available to segregate
specific tasks within the various cycles. Given the limited number of staff in small
companies and the dominance of management, controls are more likely to be
overridden in smaller companies than larger ones.
17 A,E Training programme for all staff is part of the control environment. Review of actual
performance versus budget is a control activity.
18 A,C,F,G
Option F is the only false item in the question as internal controls should be applied
equally to all transactions, whether material or not.
19 A,D,E
Business risk is of relevance to the auditor as business risks may impact on the financial
statements. Management are responsible for identifying and controlling business risks
although the auditor will assess business risk as part of the audit.
20 A,B Options C and D are specific control activities (relating to authorisation).
21 B,C Information processing, segregation of duties.
Reasoning as per question 9 of this chapter.
22 A,D,F
Password protection constitutes a general control. The remaining controls are
application controls.
23 A,B,D
Procedures for resubmission of rejected data are an application control.
24 B Narrative notes are more suitable for smaller businesses. Questionnaires do not show
relationships and reporting lines as clearly. Although the organisational chart would
show the structure of the organisation and general reporting lines, it would not
document the system in operation.
25 A,C,F
A lack of regular reconciliations and management overriding internal controls lead to
an increase in control risk (higher than normal). The safeguarding of the physical
security of the inventories is a strength which renders control risk lower than normal.
26 A,E Minimising business risks and complying with laws and regulations are the primary
reasons why organisations need effective systems of control. The others may result
from that effective internal control system. SAMPLE PAPER

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27 A,C,E
Authorisation of transactions, custody or handling of assets and recording of
transactions are the three functions which should ideally be separated such that no-one
person can initiate the transaction, record that transaction in the accounting records
and have custody of assets which arise from that transaction. For fraud to take place,
with such segregation of duties, there would have to be significant collusion. Preparing
financial statements is a function which follows from the recording of transactions and
effective budgetary control can only take place once there is confidence on the
integrity of data coming from effective internal control systems. SAMPLE PAPER
28 B An audit committee is made up of non-executive directors only. SAMPLE PAPER
29 A,F The entity's organisational structure is part of the entity's control environment.
Monitoring of controls involves a review of the effectiveness of controls and whether
they need improving – hence a review by management of monthly bank reconciliations
is part of that monitoring system. SAMPLE PAPER
30 A,D Authorisation showing that the accountant has reviewed the reconciliation.
Performance review includes reviews and analyses of actual performance against
budgets (as here), forecasts and prior period performance. SAMPLE PAPER
31 C Application controls apply to the processing of individual applications (eg, sales,
purchases, inventory), hence authorisation of data for input (say of purchase orders) is
the application control. The remaining options are general controls, which relate to
many applications and support the operation of the whole IT environment.
SAMPLE PAPER
32 B,E User selection of passwords and displaying the password on screen would reduce
password effectiveness. The existence of frequent changes of passwords, automatic
disconnection after failed attempts and disciplinary offences if passwords are revealed
would all increase password effectiveness. SAMPLE PAPER
33 C,D The internal audit function monitors controls that are already in operation.
The audit committee is part of the control environment as it contributes to the status of
internal controls within an organisation.
34 A,D For the preparation of reconciliations where calculations are involved, the inherent
limitation is that these reconciliations are susceptible to human error.
Even where duties are segregated, this control can be overridden by the collusion of
the parties involved.
35 A,C The external auditor is appointed by shareholders, but the audit committee makes
recommendations in relation to this.
The audit committee reviews the integrity of the financial statements of the company
and formal announcements relating to the company's performance.

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36 A,D All options are examples of application controls. Document counts ensure that the
expected number of documents is submitted, and hence that the documents are
complete.
A manual check to ensure input was by authorised personnel is a control over input
authorisation, not completeness.
A screen warning to prevent logout before processing is complete is a control over
input processing.
A programmed matching of input to an expected input control file is a control over
input completeness (this is similar in principle to a document count).
37 A,D,E
Segregation of duties is a preventive control here because its aim is to prevent
unauthorised purchases from being made.
Reconciliation of the payables ledger with supplier statements aims to detect any
misstatements that have already been made – it is therefore a detective control.
Restricting users to read-only access of key folders on internal network aims to prevent
unauthorised changes being made to the files in these folders.
38 A,C,F
Approval of applications by a sample of users and by management is a general control
related to the development of computer applications.
Virus checks on software on employees' computers is a general control.
A check that all data entered in a field contains the correct number of digits is an
application control, since it relates to a particular field in a particular application.
39 A,B,C
Cyber security is all about protecting data, systems and networks – firewalls and
password protocols address this at source, while monitoring the website helps to
identify any instances of breaches from other means.
Appraising the success or otherwise of an online social media presence does operate
in the same cyber context, but is more commercial than security driven.

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Chapter 6: Revenue system

1 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as it is a benefit to the company if its customers do not take the
full credit period and pay sooner. This would be a risk in the purchases system as it
would benefit the company to take the full credit period extended to it by its suppliers.
2 A,D Authorisations of credit terms to customers and checking the ageing of current
receivables ledger balance before accepting orders in order to assess the
creditworthiness and history of payments. Options B and C are not correct as they are
procedures that take place after the customer has made the purchase.
3 A,B,D
Option C, investigation of differences between till records and cash collected, is not a
preventative control activity but a detective activity ie, it happens after the fact.
4 A,D,F
Option D applies as there is no link between despatch and invoice (goods could be
invoiced without being despatched), and there is no link between order and despatch
(orders may not be fulfilled). Option F is correct as reception staff are unconnected
with any of the departments with whom customers might have a query – ordering,
warehouse or accounts.
5 A,C The duties of authorisation, recording and custody of assets should be segregated.
6 B,D If invoices are matched to orders but not warehouse records, invoices may be raised in
error. If receivables statements are not sent to customers, customers may not pay
promptly.
7 C,D If overdue accounts are not followed up, debts might be included on the receivables
ledger that are not collectable. Where invoices are not in numerical sequence, invoiced
sales might not be properly recorded.
8 A,D If credit notes are valid then the related invoice is cancelled. Goods received are part
of the purchases system. As such, options B and C are not risks associated with the
sales system.
9 C Despatch records are evidence of goods delivered. If there are sales invoices for each
of these all sales will be invoiced. Options A and B are incorrect as they relate to the
completeness of sales orders and ensure that all orders are subsequently despatched
respectively. Option D is also incorrect as requiring customers to sign for goods
confirms delivery only.
10 A,D,E
In process 2 there is insufficient segregation of duties. The same individual should not
be responsible for processing invoices, posting cash and performing the control
account reconciliation.
11 B,F If despatch records are not pre-numbered they may be lost and therefore no invoice
raised. If customers do not evidence receipt of goods disputes may arise leading to
slow payment.
12 A,D Correct invoicing is an objective of the invoicing stage of the sales system. Cut-off
affects the recording stage of the sales cycle.

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13 A,D,E
Strength – that orders placed by telephone, once credit checked, are entered into the
system is a strength as it ensures the prompt recording of an order. Also the customer
is checked for creditworthiness before the order being generated – indicating that the
company is protecting itself from loss.
Deficiency – the order should only be accepted once it has been confirmed that the
goods ordered are available. The invoice should be generated once it is confirmed
that the goods have reached the customer (as evidenced by the customer signing the
despatch record).
Strength – a copy of any despatch records with incomplete orders filed and reviewed
daily will ensure that orders are filled at a later date. SAMPLE PAPER
14 A Statement B is a control activity, not a control objective. Statement C is a test of
controls, not a control objective. Statement D is a control objective relating to the
purchases system, not the sales system.
15 C A sale should be recognised as soon as goods have been safely despatched to a
customer and every despatch should be accompanied with a goods despatched
record. Consequently to obtain assurance about the completeness of sales, the auditor
needs to be confident that all despatch records have been recorded in the accounting
system (option C). Checking that all sales invoices have been processed merely
confirms that 'all sales invoices have been processed' (option B) and similarly the
existence of authorisation controls merely provides assurance as to whether
transactions have been authorised (option D). The existence of segregation of duty
controls (option A) does not in itself provide assurance as to completeness of
recording of sales transactions.
16 C Revenue is usually recognised when goods have been despatched to the customer as
this is the point at which control transfers to the customer. In order to test for
completeness of sales, auditors should therefore start from the goods despatched
records.
17 A Credit notes are only issued for valid reasons – this is a control objective relating to the
revenue system which will ensure that credit notes are not issued without appropriate
reasons.
Checking sales invoices to despatch records is a control, not an objective.
Scrutinising customer accounts is a control, not an objective.
Orders are made only from authorised suppliers – this is a control objective relating to
the purchases system.
18 C Only option C provides evidence of sales completeness.
Segregation of duties does not principally provide assurance of sales completeness.
Issuing pre-numbered sales invoices just confirms that all the invoices have been
processed through the invoicing system – this does not mean that the invoices tie in
with goods actually despatched.
Authorisation controls provide assurance only that the transactions have been
authorised, and do not help with the completeness assertion.

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19 A,D If sales are included in the wrong customer accounts, or credit notes are not properly
recorded, then this comes as a result of an error in recording.
Goods being recorded incorrectly is, logically, not a risk associated with recording. It
might result from deficiencies with sales ordering, for example.
Goods being despatched but not invoiced for would be more likely to result from an
error in despatching and invoicing than from recording.

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Chapter 7: Purchases system

1 B,F Analysis of actual performance against budget is performance review. Checking
numerical sequences helps ensure completeness of records.
2 A,E Option B is incorrect as does not relate to the goods inwards stage of the purchase
system. Option C is also incorrect as the question refers to goods and not services.
The checking of invoices to orders will reduce the risk of accepting invoices for goods
or services which were not ordered.
3 B,C,E
Deficiency – there is no authorisation of payment orders
Strength – company only recognises liability for services received
Strength – payments authorised SAMPLE PAPER
4 A,B The answer is not option C as inappropriate orders could still be made with authorised
suppliers. The answer is not option D as once inappropriate orders have been
authorised, matching the order with the invoice will not prevent that act having taken
place. SAMPLE PAPER
5 C Jack Frost and Tiny Tim should requisition materials as production needs dictate, but
orders should be placed (and by implication authorised) by the purchasing
department. The managing director would not be involved in authorising normal
purchasing transactions in a company with a purchasing department. Someone other
than the production department leaders should authorise purchases.
6 A As it is company policy to record goods only if accepted then a comparison of invoices
with goods received records would identify if the goods had not been accepted – as
there is no goods received record, the goods must have been faulty (or rejected for
some other reason). This would then prevent the invoice from being processed.
7 C,E Checking arithmetical accuracy is an information processing control. Physical security
measures should reduce risk of theft.
8 C,D Where goods received records are not matched to purchase invoices, goods may have
been received and not invoiced; or, where invoices not matched to goods received
records, invoices could be posted without having received goods, leading to a
misstatement of liabilities. Control account reconciliations help to identify posting
errors. Options A and B are control deficiencies that do not result directly in the
misstatement of liabilities.
9 B,D Purchase of goods from unauthorised suppliers is likely to lead to inferior goods being
purchased. By having access to the payables master file, purchase ledger clerks are in
a position to create fictitious suppliers and so then enable payments to them.
10 A,B,D
Statement C is not a control activity, it is a control objective relating to the purchases
system. The others are all control activities.

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11 B,D,F
Deficiency – although a record of orders is kept, there is a lack of segregation of duties
as the buyer both places and authorises the order. A director should authorise
purchases (particularly those above a certain cost limit) rather than the buyer.
Deficiency – The buyer only checks the goods received to ensure that the quantities are
the same as was ordered.
Deficiency – The buyer appears to have complete control over what is purchased by
Woggle Ltd. There does not appear to be any kind of purchase limit placed upon him,
or any reference made to the sales department for what they want to sell. There is a risk
that the buyer could purchase items for personal use.
12 A,C,F
The risk of not taking full advantage of a period of credit would be a consequence of
problems with goods received or payments.
The risk of goods and services not being obtained on the most advantageous terms
would be more likely to arise at the ordering stage.
The risk of invoices not being recorded would arise at the goods received/invoicing
stage, before the production of a payment listing.
13 A,D,E
Comparing goods received records with purchase orders is mainly a check on whether
the purchases have been authorised and are bona fide purchases.
Monitoring supplier terms helps ensure that the terms obtained are the most
advantageous ones available.
Although it is true that pre-numbered goods received records would help to ensure
that liabilities are recorded correctly, this is only as a consequence of the goods or
services first having been recorded accurately.
14 B,D,E
Blank order forms should not be readily available, but should be secured; if they were
readily available then anyone with access to them could place an order.
Instead of allowing buyers a free choice of suppliers, there should be a central policy
for the choice of suppliers so that only authorised suppliers are used. Such suppliers
should have been vetted to verify that they give the best value for money.
Preparing order forms only when a pre-numbered purchase requisition has been
received is a strength, as goods will only be ordered once the need for such goods has
been approved.
15 A,D The remaining options describe control objectives rather than control activities.
16 B,D,E
The responsibilities for preparing and signing cheques should be separated.
The cashier should not have access to the company's securities and title deeds.
Cash advances are not in themselves problematic, provided that proper controls exist
in relation to them (eg, over their authorisation).

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Chapter 8: Employee costs

1 B It is the temporary staff's work schedules that document the hours worked. As such
they require control to ensure that it is only the hours authorised that are subsequently
paid.
2 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as it does not relate directly to the employees' payments but to
their tax deductions.
3 B,C,E
With regards to option B, clocking in and out of work ensures correct recording of the
hours clocked in and out, but has no bearing on the rate of pay.
4 A,C Both cases lead to the possibility that employees are paid the wrong amounts.
5 A,C,E
All three processes represent strengths. Process 1 involves physical security as a
control. Process 2 has elements of performance review and authorisation. Process 3 is
also a strength as an authorisation control features.
6 C,D Options A and B are not correct as authorisation of overtime ensures that the correct
number of hours are paid for and reperformance of payroll calculations ensures the
accuracy of the deductions etc.
7 B,C Unauthorised amendments could result in the creation of bogus employees or
overpayment of existing employees. Personnel records contain details of pay rates. If
these are not kept up to date standing data in the payroll system may also be invalid.
Options A and D would not lead to misstatement in the financial statements.
8 A,C,F
Process 3 is false (option F) as while the risk of errors is reduced in a computerised
payroll system, a sample of calculations should still be checked. This may also bring to
light errors with standing data and input.
9 B In order to prevent this from happening, the key is that fictitious employees never
make it onto the payroll. The financial controller is concerned that an employee from
the accounts department, who has the right to access the payroll system, might be so
unscrupulous as to add a fictitious employee and gain access to the wages.
 Payroll standing data periodically printed out and checked on a line-by-line basis
to independently held employee details – this will detect fictitious employees
added but will not prevent fictitious employees from being added.
 Use of hierarchical passwords over standing data files – this will allow the company
to restrict access to standing data files to a responsible official, yet still allow other
employees to process the wages. This means that an unscrupulous employee
cannot access the part of the system where new employees would be added and
hence will prevent the fraud. This is therefore the correct answer.
 Pre-authorisation of all amendments to payroll standing data by an independent
official – an unscrupulous employee will not ask for authorisation – he will simply
add the fictitious details if the system allows him to do this.
 Supervision of the wages payout by an independent official – again, this might
detect dummy employees but would be unlikely to prevent the fraud.
SAMPLE PAPER

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10 B,D Access controls and encryption of data will reduce the risk of unauthorised disclosure.
Exception reporting and an independent review of the payroll, would help identify
unauthorised changes to payroll information. Back-up procedures would help in the
protection of company data. SAMPLE PAPER
11 B,D,E
The deficiency arises when calculating wages and salaries: a failure to check wages to
the personnel file could result in an employee who has left (which would be recorded
on the file) being included on the payroll. The recording of pay in the general ledger
would not be directly affected by this.
The deficiency arises when calculating pay (ie, ensuring that the amounts on the payroll
reflect the amount recorded on the timesheets), so would not directly affect the
general ledger.
The deficiency arises after the calculation of the payroll, so although it might expose
errors in that calculation it is more likely to expose errors in the amount paid/general
ledger.
12 B,C The key problem here is a lack of segregation of duties: the production manager may
be tempted to introduce non-existent employees into the system, leading to the
misappropriation of company funds by way of wages payments for non-existent
employees.
Controls to curb this would therefore seek to verify that the employees being paid do
in fact exist and have done work for the company. Authorisation by a director would
not help because the director would not know whether or not the employees were
legitimate. Reconciliation of payroll to cash records would not control the amounts
included on the payroll in the first place.
13 B,D,F
This is an authorisation control, rather than segregation of duties specifically.
This helps ensure that the correct amounts are paid to HMRC, rather than employees.
Performing this reconciliation would flag up changes from the previous month's
payroll, which would then need to be verified.
14 B,D,E
The payroll master file would not contain details of cumulative statutory deductions to
date – these would be included on the monthly payroll instead.
Statutory deductions do not affect gross pay.
15 A,C Segregation of duties would not help ensure that the elements of pay are recorded
correctly (although it may help eg, to prevent unauthorised payments from being
made).
Encryption of data would help to safeguard the payroll data.
16 B,C,F
Not keeping adequate records of changes in personnel and pay rates would not in
itself affect the entries to the general ledger.
Having no procedures for dealing with non-routine matters would not cause
employees to be paid too much money in itself, but is more likely to affect the entries
to the general ledger.
A lack of segregation of duties would be more likely to result in making the wrong
payment than in an error making entries to the ledger.

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Chapter 9: Internal audit

1 A,B Authorising unusual transactions and developing internal control systems are part of
the accounting function in an entity. In order for the internal audit function to operate
objectively and independently, it should not be involved in these activities.
2 A,C Options B and D are not correct as they are too operational and would compromise
internal audit's monitoring role.
3 B,C,D
Option A is not correct as it is the external auditors who have the legal duty to carry out
the statutory audit. It is, however, usually encouraged that there is some cooperation
between the internal and external auditors where this is possible.
4 B,C,E
Having an internal audit function is not a requirement of the UK Corporate Governance
Code but the need for directors to review the need for one annually is. The other
statements are both true.
5 B,D,F
All of the statements are false. Because independence is a concern, internal audit
report to the board of directors or the audit committee. The UK Corporate Governance
Code does not require listed companies to have an internal audit function per se, but
requires companies to consider the need for one annually, in order to maintain an
adequate system of internal controls. Internal audit uses both testing of internal
controls and substantive testing, as appropriate to the task in hand.
6 B,C Secondment to the financial controller role and being involved in the identification of
risks should not be carried out by the internal auditor. This is because these roles are
operational and would compromise the ability of internal audit to provide a monitoring
role. The risk assessment should be undertaken by the risk assessment committee or
whomever is responsible for risk assessment.
7 B,D External auditors are responsible for carrying out the statutory audit. Internal auditors
are responsible for the monitoring of internal controls. External auditors, as part of their
external audit, will not monitor internal controls but must at least ascertain the controls
in place and document them. They may then choose to test them for purposes of
reliance.
8 A,B,C
Expressing an opinion on the truth and fairness of the financial statements is done by
the external auditor only.
9 B An operational audit is just one type of work carried out by the internal auditor. Other
audit work might include, for example, investigation into a suspected fraud. Therefore
the term does not apply to all internal audit work.
10 A,C Options B and D are incorrect as external auditors report to the shareholders and,
although internal auditors will normally provide information to the external auditors,
they do not formally report to them.
11 A,B,D
The external auditor may identify efficiency issues during the course of the statutory
audit but audit work is not specifically planned with this objective.

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12 A,C,D
Internal audit should not have operational responsibilities so should not authorise
transactions or routinely prepare bank reconciliations. SAMPLE PAPER
13 B,C External auditors do not focus on operations, as their prime focus is providing an
opinion on the financial statements.
External auditors are appointed by the shareholders of an entity and cannot be
employees of the entity in order to maintain their objectivity and independence.
14 A,B,C
Cyber security is all about protecting data, systems and networks – firewalls and
password protocols address this at source, while monitoring the website helps to
identify any instances of breaches from other means.
Appraising the success or otherwise of an online social media presence does operate
in the same cyber context, but is more commercial than security driven.

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Chapter 10: Documentation

1 B,C,D
Confirming the terms of the engagement is done in the engagement letter and does
not constitute a reason for assurance providers to record their work.
2 A,C,D
The answer is not option B as the details relating to the planning of the work will be
included in the planning memorandum. The answer is not option E as the initials of the
person supervising the work are not necessary, but the reviewer would initial the
working paper. The supervisor and the reviewer might be the same person, but not
necessarily.
3 A,D Options B, C and E will be kept on the current year audit file.
4 A,C Option B is incorrect as ICAEW requires all firms should keep all audit working papers
for at least six years from the end of the accounting period to which they relate, so
more than the current and previous year will be kept.
Option D is incorrect as working papers belong to the assurance provider so this
decision does not belong to the client.
5 A,D,E
The second statement is not valid as documenting fieldwork is a professional and not a
legal requirement. The other two statements are valid.
6 B,D,G
The engagement letter will be held on the permanent audit file. The audit plan and
manager review notes will be on the current file only.
7 B,C,D
Details of the history of the client's business and lease agreements would be held on
the permanent audit file.
8 A,C,F
Working papers belong to the auditor and should be stored securely by the auditor in
locked premises. Although ISA 230 requires documentation to be kept for a minimum
of five years from the date of the auditor's report, ICAEW requires registered auditors
to keep all audit working papers required by auditing standards for a period of at least
six years from the end of the accounting period to which they relate.
9 A,D,E
The second statement is not valid as there is no direct correlation between the number
of working papers produced and the audit fee charged. The other two statements are
valid.
10 B,C,E
Not valid – fieldwork documentation does not help in establishing the audit strategy.
Valid – fieldwork documentation helps in an effective review process.
Valid – the fieldwork documentation provides a record of evidence gathered.
SAMPLE PAPER

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11 B,D,E
The permanent audit file contains documents of ongoing relevance, whereas the
current audit file contains documents and working papers that relate directly to the
audit of the current year end.
12 A,B,D
Option C is not correct as computerised audit processes cannot replace the exercise of
judgement by the auditor.
13 C Six years from the end of the accounting period to which they relate is the ICAEW
requirement.
14 C The auditor must ensure the safe custody of audit documentation for at least six years
from the end of the accounting period to which it relates.
15 A,D,E
Matters of significance should be documented for both current and future audits.
However, documentation must be prepared on a timely basis, as any delay could lead
to inaccurate working papers. The need for reflection is unlikely to benefit the auditor's
judgement in such cases! Working papers can also be updated as and when
subsequent information/evidence is obtained.
16 A In contrast to automated working papers, electronic working papers do not involve any
automatic calculations (although these can be made use of if desired).

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Chapter 11: Evidence and sampling

1 B,D Inspection of assets does not confirm rights and obligations as the asset might be
possessed wrongfully or leased and inspection will not show that. Observation gives
only weak evidence of the matter being observed and only at the moment the matter
was being observed, not the next time it is done, unobserved.
2 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as test data, as opposed to audit software, is used to test
controls over processing.
3 A,C While analytical procedures must be used at the risk assessment and overall review
stages, they need not be used as substantive procedures as tests of details and other
procedures may be more appropriate. Although it may be advisable for analytical
procedures to be carried out by senior level assurance staff, this is not a requirement of
ISA 520.
4 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as the assurance provider may use information that has been
internally generated at the entity, provided he is satisfied that information has been
properly prepared.
5 D Recalculating the interest accrued on the basis of outstanding amount, interest rate
and period to which it relates would be the most appropriate for verification of the
interest accrued on borrowings. Confirming the interest rate with the lender would not
verify the total interest accrued balance (as the interest rate is only one component of
the calculation) nor would vouching the interest payment (as interest paid is not the
same as interest accrued). Testing the internal controls over cash payments would not
lead to direct verification of the interest accrued. SAMPLE PAPER
6 A,D When testing for overstatement (ie, seeking to discover errors), the assurance provider
will test items from the accounting records to the supporting documents. When testing
for understatement (ie, seeking to discover omissions), the assurance provider will
select items from outside the accounting records and trace to the records.
7 B,D Testing 100% of items in a population and testing all items with a certain characteristic
is not sampling, as in the former case the whole population is tested, and in the latter
case the 'sample' is not representative of the whole population.
8 C,D The time available to complete the test and the skill of the team member assigned to
carry out the test will not affect the number of items to be tested, whereas risk
assessment and expected misstatement will.
9 A,B,E
Sequence sampling would more commonly be used in testing controls. Haphazard
selection should not be used when the assurance provider is using statistical sampling.
10 A,E A misposting between customer accounts and a timing difference between customer
records and client records are errors which would not generally be extrapolated
against the total value of the population.
11 C,D,H
Documents and other pieces of evidence are inspected. Processes are observed.
External confirmations involve seeking evidence from a third party.

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12 A,C,F
Audit software makes use of the assurance provider's own specialised software. It can
extract and analyse information from the client's system. Test data are used to test
controls by inputting data which should activate a control and checking that it does so.
13 D Inspection of a sales invoice produced by the client would constitute the least
persuasive method of gathering evidence as it is the least reliable of all the options.
The supplier's invoice is more reliable as it comes from a third party and
reperformance of calculations and reconciliations is also more reliable as this evidence
is generated by the assurance provider/reporting accountant. SAMPLE PAPER
14 A,C,F
For tests of details:
 When the required confidence level increases the sample size increases (ie, the
auditor needs to do more work to be more confident).
 When the assessed risk of material misstatement for a balance is increased, the
sample size increases (ie, more work is needed for higher risk balances).
 Stratifying the population decreases the sample size (as testing is more efficient).
15 B,F,H
For tests of controls:
 An increase in tolerable misstatement will cause a decrease in sample size as an
increase in the amount of 'acceptable misstatements' (or audit risk acceptable) will
reduce the extent of the work necessary to be performed (as there is a
corresponding acceptable increase in detection risk).
 An increase in the population will have a negligible effect on sample size as it is
not a factor that determines the sample size.
 A decrease in the auditor's required confidence level will lead to a decrease in
sample size.
16 B,D Per ISA 530, regarding factors influencing sample sizes for tests of controls:
 An increase in the number of sampling units will have a negligible effect on the
sample size.
 A decrease in the tolerable misstatement will increase sample size.
17 B,C,F
Physical examination of property, plant and equipment confirms existence (it may
belong to a third party). The reliability of inquiry depends on who is providing the
information. A third party eg, a bank would normally be a reliable source.
18 B,C,E
A sales invoice is less reliable than a purchase invoice as it is internally generated.
Original documents are more reliable than copies. A bank statement is more reliable
than a cash book as it is generated by a third party.

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19 B,C,F
The weakness of observation of a procedure is that the conclusion drawn as a result
only applies to the system at the time the observation took place – hence it is limited to
the point in time it takes place.
The usefulness of analytical review is limited by the underlying accounting system
which generates the balances under review.
A respondent will agree to an overstated balance if that is direct confirmation in
respect of a payables balance (he would disagree if the amount he owed – ie, a
receivables balance – were overstated). SAMPLE PAPER
20 A,D,E
Per ISA 315, analytical procedures must be used at the risk assessment stage of an
audit. Per ISA 520, they must also be used at the overall review stages of an audit and
may be used as a substantive procedure.
21 B,D If budgets are not realistic they will not provide a reasonable basis for comparison with
actual. Deficiencies in internal controls reduce the reliability of the basic accounting
information which will be used in the analytical procedures.
22 A,C Tests for understatement (ie, omission) cannot start from the source being tested for
understatement/omission. They must start from some other source and trace through
to the accounting records, to prove that nothing has been omitted (ie, the entity's
transactions or balances are not understated).
23 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as tolerable misstatement is related to the auditor's judgement
about materiality.
24 A,D,E
An increase in the auditor's assessment of the risk of material misstatement would
cause the sample size to increase as an increase in audit risk can only be addressed
and reduced by an increase in the work carried out.
An increase in the use of analytical procedures to test the same assertion would
decrease the sample size, so that the area is not over-audited.
An increase in the expected misstatements would lead to an increase in the sample
size. SAMPLE PAPER
25 B,C,F
The auditor's main concern in testing assets is that they might be overstated, whereas
he or she will be concerned that liabilities might be understated. Communicating with
the company's legal advisers about outstanding legal claims is testing for
understatement in liabilities. Reviewing the aged inventory analysis is testing for
overstatement in the valuation of inventories, as the existence of old/obsolete
inventory may require a write-down to net realisable value. Performing the calculation
on the warranty provision and then comparing that figure with the balance stated, is
testing a liability and therefore testing for understatement.
26 B,C,F
Test data are used to test controls. Audit software (not test data) can be used to help in
the calculation of ratios.

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27 A The misstatement that the auditor expects to be present in the population = expected
misstatement. Control deviations, when performing tests of control, or misstatements,
when performing substantive procedures = misstatement. The maximum error in the
population that the auditor would be willing to accept = tolerable misstatement.
28 A,E Systematic selection involves selecting items using a constant interval between
selections, the first interval having a random start.
29 B,C,E
Positive confirmations may request that the respondent provides the balance owing as
opposed to simply confirming the balance stated. A sample taken from a list of
receivables is more effective than for payables, as in this way testing the balance for
overstatement is carried out directly. For payables, the auditor's key concern is that of
understatement and testing a sample from the payables listed will not test
understatement. A positive confirmation is more reliable than a negative confirmation
as in the first case, a response is always sought.
30 D A supplier statement would not include this invoice, as it was dated after the year end.
Vouching the payment would not help to determine whether the expense and the
payable were included correctly.
Testing internal controls would provide evidence over accruals in general, but would
not be relevant to this invoice specifically.
Only by recalculating the prorating of the invoice can the auditor be confident that the
correct amount has been included.
31 B, C, E
Reviewing post year-end invoices begins with the invoices and traces them back to the
accounting system. This is an attempt to find expenses which have been omitted from
the system.
Reviewing post year-end supplier payments is a test not often conducted – all it could
really tell the auditor is whether the entity has the cash to pay its suppliers. This
procedure is not to be confused with post year-end receipts from receivables, which is
an important test of debt recoverability.
Recalculating the amount accrued is primarily a test of cut-off because it focuses on the
split between the period before and after the year end. It does also, therefore, test
completeness, but this is not its primary aim.
32 A, D, E
A key element of data analytics is the ability to process very large and complex data
into simple visual representations, which can help auditors to spot trends they might
otherwise have missed.
Data analytics is not about spending time tailoring the procedures to the client (as was
the case with the older computer–assisted audit techniques). A major advantage of
data analytics is that they are standardised.
Data analytics makes it possible not just to test large quantities of transactions very
quickly, but also to test whole populations of transactions and so, potentiality and in
the future, to revolutionise the whole basis of auditing!

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33 B,C,F
Inquiring about controls over petty cash will not be strong evidence on its own as
employees could misrepresent the facts in their responses (especially if attempting to
conceal a fraud they may be involved in).
Recalculation by the auditor of amounts used by the client do provide strong evidence
as there is no influence from the client.
Re-performance of an internal control can be strong evidence as long as the auditor
has completed some or all of this re-performance – otherwise, it is less likely to be
considered strong evidence as the employee may have deliberately avoided certain
conditions that would have provided audit evidence of poor operation.
34 C Computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs) have been used by auditors to extract
samples of transactions for many years, but the advent of computers that can handle
such 'big data' now means that entire populations can be tested, rather than just
samples.
The remaining options are all recommended by the FRC (2017) as areas where audit
data analytics can be used to streamline the audit.
35 B,C,D
It is possible that a misstatement below the materiality level for the financial statements
as a whole may still be considered material if it remains uncorrected – examples of the
reasons given include the extent to which the misstatement affects compliance with
regulatory requirements or debt covenants, masks a change in earnings or other
trends or even increases management compensation and triggers the payment of a
bonus.
The remaining options (size, nature and circumstances) are all used by the auditor to
determine whether an uncorrected misstatement is material.

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Chapter 12: Written representations

1 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as the level of materiality used during the audit is the
responsibility of the auditors.
2 C,D Auditors may only obtain written representations to support other audit evidence
(ISA 580 paragraph 13).
Where evidence is missing due to a fire, this is not a matter to obtain a written
representation on but is an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
3 A,D,F
Statement 2 is false as this is an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
Statement 3 is also false because if written representations are inconsistent with other
audit evidence, the auditor shall perform audit procedures to attempt to resolve the
matter. If the matter remains unresolved, the auditor shall reconsider the assessment of
management.
4 A,D,F
Specific written representations may include confirmation from management that
accounting policies selected are appropriate, but this is not compulsory.
Auditors may only obtain written representations to support other audit evidence
(ISA 580 paragraph 13).
5 A,C The other two options would not be valid circumstances in which to seek written
representations. If information normally expected to be available is unavailable, this
would indicate an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence. The fact that
an alternative audit procedure is time-consuming is not a reason to seek a written
representation – a written representation cannot act as a substitute for other evidence
which is expected to exist.
6 A,D The auditor should be able to obtain sufficient alternative evidence regarding the
existence of plant and equipment and reconciling items on the cash account.
7 B,C,E
Written representation letters are required on an annual basis so that representations
are valid for each specific audit. They should be dated before (although not much
before) the auditor's report as they form part of the audit evidence on which the
auditor is relying to reach his opinion. The written representation letter must include a
list of all uncorrected misstatements as per ISA 450. It shall also include a statement
that the directors believe the total of uncorrected misstatements to be immaterial to
the financial statements as a whole.
8 B,C,F
It is usually only of senior management that auditors request written representations as
they are responsible for matters of judgement, cooperating with the auditors etc.
Written representations cannot be used as a substitute for other evidence that is
expected to be available.

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9 A,C Acknowledgement that management has fulfilled its responsibility for the preparation
of the financial statements and acknowledgement by management of its belief that the
aggregate of uncorrected misstatements are immaterial to the financial statements are
the two purposes of the written representation letter from the list provided.
Where other evidence is available on a matter, the written representation letter does
not serve to provide evidence. Management's confirmation of the scope of the work to
be carried out is included in an engagement letter. SAMPLE PAPER
10 A,B,C
Majority shareholders may have some executive responsibility, but this is expected to
be considered in the same category as an owner-manager. The remaining options are
all included in the category of management or those charged with governance.
Shareholders are usually excluded from this as they have no executive responsibility.
11 B ISA (UK) 300, Planning an Audit of Financial Statements is not referred to in a written
representation letter as it relates to how the auditor plans the audit, which is beyond
the scope of management and those charged with governance of an audited entity.
Fraud, related parties and subsequent events are all areas where the auditor has a
responsibility to receive representations from management regarding specific aspects
of the audit.

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Chapter 13: Substantive procedures – key financial

statement figures
1 A,B,C
The rights and obligations assertion means that the entity holds or controls the rights
to assets. Although vehicle registration documents show registered keeper, not owner,
the keeper is likely to have control of the asset. Both title deeds and purchase invoices
give evidence of ownership (which gives control). Sales invoices give evidence of no
longer having ownership of something and do not therefore support the rights and
obligations assertion.
2 D Cut-off is a financial statement assertion that affects classes of transactions, not account
balances.
3 A,B,C
Inventory has not been disclosed properly in the financial statements constitutes the
lowest risk, as the disclosure requirements in relation to inventory are not onerous. In
contrast, inventory is often easy to conceal or omit from records or count wrongly, and,
as it usually consists of a large number of items, valuation can be tricky also.
4 B,C Post year-end sales invoices and orders. The controls over counting relate to existence,
not valuation. A post year-end sales price list gives evidence of management intention
in relation to inventory, but not evidence of the price that customers are genuinely
prepared to pay (in the way that invoices and orders do).
5 B The fact that a positive confirmation requires the customer to reply to confirm or deny
the balance (or to reply giving the balance) is the reason why this method is generally
preferred in preference to a negative confirmation. This is because a negative
confirmation only requires a reply if the balance is not agreed – thereby giving poorer
quality evidence as if there is no reply the auditor cannot be sure that the customer has
not just ignored the letter (or whether he has even received it). The answer is not
option A as negative confirmations are also carried out in the auditor's name. Option C
describes a negative confirmation and so is not correct. Option D does not apply to
any type of confirmation.
6 B,C Direct confirmations with customers and review of cash paid after date are most
appropriate as these provide independent confirmation of the year-end trade
receivables balance, whereas the receivables ledger and sales invoices are part of the
client's own records.
7 C Inspection of the bank letter gives the most reliable evidence as this is received by the
auditor directly from the bank. Bank statements have been sent via the client, so there
is scope for them to have been tampered with in some way. Bank reconciliations and
the cash book are client-generated documents and are, therefore, less reliable.
8 A,D The auditor should count an individual cash float which is material because he should
test all material items. He should also count immaterial cash floats where he suspects
that a fraud has been committed as although the individual floats are immaterial, the
overall impact of such a fraud could be material to the financial statements if repeated
over time.
9 A Completeness (ie, understatement): liabilities are generally tested for understatement,
as they are more likely to be understated than overstated.
Existence (overstatement): a higher-risk assertion for assets, as opposed to liabilities.
Presentation and classification are generally less risky assertions in this case.
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10 B,C,D
Although a payables circularisation does provide third party evidence, it is unnecessary
on those grounds alone, because supplier statements provide third party evidence as
well. Therefore a payables circularisation will only be needed where there is some
problem, such as those described in options B, C and D.
11 B,C Option B is correct – that sales constitute a high volume of similar transactions and are
hence suitable to controls testing. Regarding option C – where controls are expected
to be strong, ISA 330 requires that the auditors test them so this is also correct. Option
A cannot be used as a reason for testing internal controls over sales – however many
transactions there are, if controls appear to be deficient, then those transactions will
need to be subjected to tests of detail. Option D is incorrect as where there is a high
risk of misstatement, substantive procedures should be used.
12 B,C,D
Applying analytical procedures to the operating margin which contains the effect of all
expenses, not just purchases, will not provide direct evidence as to the accuracy of
purchases.
13 C,D Extending the sample of assets inspected will test if the misstatement found to date is
an anomaly or represents a larger misstatement.
Vouching the revalued building to a valuer's report is sufficient to enable a conclusion
to be drawn.
14 C,E For the misstatement in cut-off, the sample should be extended to measure the full
extent of the cut-off misstatement.
Missing supplier statements (which should make the auditor suspicious) should be
referred to a senior colleague, so that this is investigated and alternative procedures
designed if necessary.
15 B,D Both disagreements are due to timing differences and hence do not constitute
misstatements in the accuracy of total trade receivables.
16 B,C The first statement represents a test of control over inventory counting procedures and
therefore the completeness or existence of the quantity of inventory. It is not a test of
valuation. Checking inventory items against sales invoices tests for net realisable value
(NRV) and hence valuation of the inventory.
17 A,D,E
The current account balance should be tested as it is over the materiality threshold.
The petty cash float is not material and hence need not be tested.
The special directors' cash account should be tested whatever its monetary value. Strict
materiality thresholds do not apply to directors' emoluments which need to be
disclosed whatever their amount. In any case the auditor needs to ascertain what this
balance represents.

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18 A,C,F
Analytical procedures are useful for detecting incomplete figures (ie, the auditor can
calculate what figure he expects and then compare the actual to it).
Tracing from goods received records to the payables ledger and financial statements
proves the completeness of purchases/payables (ie, that all goods received have been
recorded as purchase/payables).
Tracing a sample of entries on the payroll to human resources records does not test
completeness as the direction of testing is from the payroll balance to the source
documentation.
19 B,C Only existence and rights and obligations are assertions about account balances.
Occurrence and cut-off are assertions in respect of classes of transactions and events
for the period.
20 C Testing for omissions is the same as testing for completeness (ie, saying that nothing
has been omitted from the register means the same as saying the register is complete).
21 A,C Physical inspection and confirmation of calculations provide evidence of existence and
valuation respectively as opposed to rights and obligations.
The rights and obligations assertion means that the entity holds or controls the rights
to assets. Although registration documents show registered keeper, not owner, the
keeper is likely to have control of the asset. Purchase invoices give evidence of
ownership (which gives control).
22 C,E The cut-off assertion is affected by including inventory sold in inventory at the end of the
period (ie, cut-off is incorrect). Where damaged items have not been written down to NRV,
then the accuracy, valuation and allocation assertion is directly affected (ie, inventory is
incorrectly valued).
23 A,E The completeness assertion is affected by the omission of inventory items (ie, inventory
is not complete).
The accuracy, valuation and allocation assertion is affected by miscalculations of cost
and the not writing down of damaged items (ie, inventory is incorrectly valued).
24 B,D,E
The inventory count should involve personnel who are independent of the warehouse
staff. Count sheets should be completed in pen so that there is a permanent record. By
having two teams of counters involved in the inventory count, there is a check within
the inventory counting process that the count is being carried out correctly.
25 A,D,E
All inventory lines must be counted at least once per year, not once per month.
26 A,C,D
An increase in selling price increases net realisable value. Trade discounts from
suppliers reduce cost.
27 A,C Accuracy, valuation and allocation is not supported as we have no evidence that these
receivables intend to pay. Completeness is not supported as it is the list of receivables
provided by the client that is subject to direct confirmation (ie, the test is for existence
and ownership (= rights and obligations) from that list). Occurrence is a financial
statement assertion that affects classes of transactions and not account balances.
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28 A,C,F,H
The negative method of direct confirmation of receivables (ie, only receiving responses
by exception) could be used when a substantial amount of misstatements is not
expected and there is no need to believe that respondents will disregard these
requests. In other circumstances the positive method should be used.
29 B Whereas the procedures described in A, C and D are helpful with respect to the
valuation assertion, subsequent receipt of cash confirms absolutely that the balance
was recoverable at the year end.
30 B,C If the auditor cannot rely on the internal controls in place, because they are deficient,
he will need to rely completely on substantive procedures. Client AX, a newly formed
company without a financial controller, will be unlikely to have effective internal
controls; therefore, the auditor will need to rely completely on substantive procedures.
Client BF is an established company with apparent controls in place so the auditor
should be able to test and rely on those controls.
31 A,C,F
Test of control – that the instructions are likely to lead to an accurate count
Test of control – that despatch procedures are being properly followed
Substantive procedure – remembering that substantive procedures include analytical
procedures, which is what this describes SAMPLE PAPER
32 B,F Recalculation consists of checking the mathematical accuracy of documents or records,
therefore casting the list of year-end receivables is a recalculation procedure.
SAMPLE PAPER
Reperformance is the auditor's independent execution of procedures or controls which
were originally performed as part of the entity's internal control, therefore using CAATs
to check the ageing of the year-end list of aged receivables is a reperformance of that
ageing analysis, which is itself a control over the recoverability of receivables.
SAMPLE PAPER
33 B,C,E
False – a positive confirmation may take two forms: requesting a response indicating
whether they agree or disagree with the information provided, or requesting the
recipient to state the amount owed by/to them.
True – receivables are tested for overstatement therefore it is acceptable to select the
sample from the client's list of balances. The direct confirmation would be likely to elicit
a response (even if negative confirmation is used) if the balance is indeed overstated.
However, payables are tested for understatement and the auditor is looking for
balances which are not on the client's list, but should be. Therefore this sample should
be drawn from a list of all possible payables, not from the client's list, which may
already be understated.
True – with a positive confirmation, a response is expected whether there is agreement
or disagreement. With a negative confirmation, there is an element of uncertainty as to
the reasons for non-response. Hence the former is ordinarily more reliable than the
latter. SAMPLE PAPER
34 C Completeness – a sequence check will highlight missing documents which may
indicate unrecorded transactions – ie, test the completeness of sales. SAMPLE PAPER
35 C Obtaining direct confirmation of the bank balance from the client's bank will confirm
the existence of the cash at bank with a third party (ie, the bank). SAMPLE PAPER

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36 B,D Not misstatement – this disagreement stems from a timing difference and, as such,
does not indicate a misstatement in the receivables balance.
Not misstatement – this disagreement stems from a misposting which does not affect
the total receivables balance in the financial statements. SAMPLE PAPER
37 A,F Overstatement – the amount is an asset so we test primarily for overstatement. The
amount owed is considered irrespective of the materiality threshold due to the nature
of the item (director loan).
Not test – the amount is below the materiality threshold. The likelihood of material
fraud or misstatement within the balance is very low. SAMPLE PAPER
38 C Actual inventory levels at branches are higher than book inventory – ie, there must be
unrecorded goods inwards. Only unrecorded branch requisitions (goods coming in
from head office) would explain this. All the others would lean to book inventory higher
than actual inventory. SAMPLE PAPER
39 A,F, H
No misstatements are found; therefore, the appropriate action would be to draw a
conclusion.
An arithmetic misstatement of £5,000 found would be above the materiality threshold
and so the auditor should extend his sample.
A misstatement of £10 found, sanctioned by the finance director (FD) should lead to
the auditor to refer the matter to a senior colleague due to the FD's sanctioning.
SAMPLE PAPER
40 C To test for existence the reporting accountant should work from the financial
statements to the physical item. However, the financial statements themselves do not
contain an analysis of the individual items that make up non-current assets so the
reporting accountant will need to select his sample from the non-current asset register
(having checked that this record agrees to the financial statements). SAMPLE PAPER
41 A,D Purchase invoices for assets purchased within the year may contain evidence in relation
to the risk of omission of assets owned by the company.
Physical inspection of the assets themselves by the auditor would not generate
evidence in relation to the risk of the company not actually owning the assets. The
mere existence of the physical assets does not tell us that the company has the rights
and obligations that relate to them.
Valuations carried out by third party valuers would not generate evidence in relation to
the risk of the assets being incorrectly presented in the financial statements. Although
the assets may be valued correctly, this does not necessarily mean that they have been
presented in line with IFRSs.
Sales invoices for assets sold within the year may contain evidence in relation to the risk
of the company not actually owning the assets. This helps address the risk that the
assets do not exist.
42 B,D,E
Completeness of debts receivable is not usually considered a major risk (ie,
understatement of assets) – the opposite is usually the case ie, existence is a major risk.
Although existence of long-term liabilities is indeed a risk, it is not the principal risk.
Incorrect valuation of inventory – particularly obsolete or damaged inventory – is a
major risk of misstatement.
43 A,D A car wash or a pawn shop is likely to have a large number of cash transactions, which
makes it a suitable front business for a money laundering operation.
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Chapter 14: Codes of professional ethics

1 A,B,C
There is no legal requirement for ethical codes.
2 B,C ICAEW qualified auditors acting in the UK are subject to the ICAEW Code and the
3 A,B,D
Independence and Courtesy (options C and E) are not fundamental principles of the
IESBA Code.
4 C As per the ICAEW Code of Ethics, the Code applies to its members, employees of
member firms and ICAEW students.
5 B,C,E
The first statement is false as following prescriptive rules of ethical guidance may
become a mechanical process without due consideration given to the ethical principles
of each case. The other statements are true.
6 A,B,D
The IAASB issues ISAs, but not ethical guidance.
7 B Although there are some specific 'rules', the majority of ethical guidance is in the form
of principles, the spirit of which should be followed by the assurance provider.
8 C,E,I,L
Both the IESBA Code of Ethics and the FRC's Ethical Standard identify the following five
threats: self-interest, self-review, advocacy, familiarity and intimidation. The
FRC's Ethical Standard also identifies the management threat in addition; the IESBA
Code of Ethics does not specify a 'management threat' as such, but notes that the
assumption of 'management responsibilities' would create other threats.
9 A,B,D
Tradition (option C) is not a valid reason why objectivity and independence matter.
10 B,D,F
A principles-based code does not contain specific rules for auditor compliance.
A rules-based code does not require auditor adherence to a set of principles.
ICAEW uses a principles-based approach. SAMPLE PAPER
11 B,D,E
The aim is not to completely eliminate all threats, but to either reduce them to an
acceptable level or to eliminate them.
The degree of required independence is higher for an audit engagement.
If safeguards do not allow a threat to be sufficiently mitigated, then the auditor should
decline the engagement (or the interest/activity giving rise to the threat).

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12 B,D,E
Principles-based guidance may contain rules for prohibitions, although its substantial
content would be based on general principles.
It is a major strength of principles-based guidance that its general principles may be
applied to unique situations, eg, situations for which a specific rule may not have been
created under a rules-based approach.
Principles-based guidance may permit multiple correct responses in a given situation.
Advocates of rules-based approaches see this as one of its principal defects.
13 B,C,F
Auditing financial statements prepared by the firm represents a self-review threat – the
firm would be auditing ('reviewing') material that it had itself produced, and may be
inclined to trust it more than if it had been produced by an entity that was independent
of it.
An audit team member having family at the client represents a familiarity threat – the
audit team would be overly familiar with the client. This is related to a self-review threat
in the sense that both threats involve proximity to the information being audited;
where the familiarity threat differs is that the information is prepared by someone else
but with whom the auditor has a close relationship.
Making a loan to an audit client represents a self-interest threat because the auditor
may have an incentive not to do anything that could imperil the client's financial
position (such as modifying the audit opinion) lest this prejudice their ability to repay
the loan.

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Chapter 15: Integrity, objectivity and independence

1 A,B,C
Making disclosures to ICAEW (option D) is no substitute to the other options A,B,C.
2 A,B,D
Option C is not correct here as a parent of a member of an audit team may own a
material financial interest in an audit client – provided they are not a dependant, which
would not normally be assumed to be the case.
3 A,C,D
Option B does not apply as given the staff member does not yet work for the audit
client, there is no risk of self-review at this stage.
4 B Cash It Ltd is a threat as it is implied that an audit team member took advantage of the
loan rate mentioned in the audit tendering process.
Nationally plc is not a threat as it is acceptable for staff to have mortgages on
commercial terms with an audit client who is a mortgage provider, especially if it is the
leading building society.
5 A For non-listed companies, there is a presumption of dependence when annual fee
income from all services to the client will regularly exceed 15% of gross practice
income.
6 A,B,C
Option D is not correct as it is assistance that is provided as opposed to management
or operational decisions being taken.
7 A,B,C
There is no significant threat to the independence of the audit engagement of
Scrabble plc, as the partner had previously rotated off the client six years ago and is
allowed to return to the same position after five years.
8 B,C Doing nothing is not an option available to the ethics partner. It is best to seek to
resolve this matter internally by discussing it with the management board of partners
while at the same time, soliciting advice from ICAEW to ensure that an acceptable
resolution is reached. Seeking the opinion of another ethics partner would probably
not be deemed appropriate as the specifics of the case are probably confidential and
ICAEW would be the authority in this area as to the appropriate course of action to be
taken.
9 A,D Before seeking legal advice or even resigning (options B and C), Julia should initially
try to resolve this issue internally by reporting concerns to the audit committee (which
will exist in a listed company) and by obtaining advice from the human resources
department at KiwiCorp plc (as to the official internal mechanisms that she can use to
make her complaint).
10 A,C,E
All three cases are examples of the stated threats to auditor independence.
11 A,D Loesdon Ltd: Self-interest and intimidation threats arise, therefore select self-interest
(intimidation is not available as an option). Litten Ltd: Self-interest and intimidation
threats arise, therefore select self-interest (intimidation is not available as an option).
Management and self-review threats would only arise if the advisory work was
accepted.

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12 B,E Othello Ltd: Accept with safeguards (as there are self-interest and self-review threats.
There may also be a management threat with regards to the advice provided, so care
must be taken not to take management decisions). Desdemona Ltd: Accept with
safeguards (despite the time lag, the finance director may have too good a knowledge
of the firm's procedures).
13 B,D Per FRC's Ethical Standard, familiarity and management are the main threats to
independence created by the provision of recruitment services. A familiarity threat
arises from a close long-standing relationship between the assurance provider and the
client (which may start at the point of recruitment). A management threat arises
because the assurance provider is acting in a management role. Option A, self-review,
is not correct as the assurance provider will not subsequently review the work from the
recruitment process. Option C, advocacy, is also incorrect as the assurance provider is
not representing the interests of the client in a bid to secure or protect a particular
interest.
14 B,F Fussy Ltd: a familiarity threat is possibly present as the prior year audit team may have
developed personal relationships with client staff which may threaten their objectivity.
Pernickety Ltd: by expressing his dissatisfaction, the finance director is posing an
intimidation threat – effectively seeking a different audit opinion or threatening the
auditors with replacement.
15 B,D Where there is a high proportion of fee income derived from a particular client (the 5%
and 10% rules), if the amount is not prohibitive (the 10% and 15% rules), then
safeguards should be put in place. One safeguard would be to discuss the issues with
the audit committee, if there is one (which there would be for a major listed company).
Having separate personnel assigned where there are competing clients is the most
appropriate safeguard to protect independence.
16 B,E Snowman Ltd: Assuming that this is not a listed company, then provided certain
safeguards are applied (such as different teams), the auditor can provide both
accounting and auditing services.
Snowball Ltd: Where a client's competitor is also prospectively to be audited by the
same auditor, the auditor may accept the appointment with safeguards (such as
separate personnel).
17 A,C,D
Both B and E present a self-review threat as opposed to a self-interest threat.
18 B,D,E
A firm should not accept a fee calculated on a contingency basis. Where total fees
exceed 15% (10% for a listed entity) of the annual fee income of the firm there is a
presumption of dependence and the firm should resign. Where total fees exceed 10%
(5% for a listed entity) safeguards should be applied as necessary.
19 C Sam Brown has been a director of Hastle Ltd within the last two years and therefore
cannot be used on the audit. James Andersen had the role of office junior and as such
was not in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of
the audit; therefore, he can be used on the audit of Hastle Ltd, even though it is only six
months since he resigned. Sally Jones' position, while one where she would have been
able to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the audit, falls
outside the two-year period, therefore she could be used on the audit of Morgan Ltd.
20 B Resolving ethical conflicts should be kept in-house where possible.

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21 A,D,E
If a partner, a person in a position to influence the outcome of that engagement (eg,
the audit manager), or an immediate family member of either of these (eg, spouse) has
a financial interest in a company the firm cannot accept appointment unless the
interest is disposed of. As long as Sam Larson is excluded from the audit of Burton Ltd,
the firm can accept the appointment.
22 A,F By assigning separate personnel to each assignment the confidentiality of each client
and hence the auditor's independence will be protected.
An internal audit role cannot be taken on per FRC's Ethical Standard where the audit
firm would need to rely on their own work (self-review threat) or where the audit firm
would take on part of the role of management (Panama LLP would be responsible for
implementing their own recommendations – a management threat). Hence there are
no safeguards possible. SAMPLE PAPER
23 B,D For non-listed companies, assurance providers can provide accounts preparation
assistance provided that adequate safeguards are in place (eg, the use of separate
teams). Tax advice may be provided but the fee charged cannot be calculated on a
contingency basis.
24 A,C,F
Inheriting shares in an audit client immediately creates a financial interest on the part of
the auditor.
The audit client providing two free golf lessons to audit staff may create a self-interest
threat, as audit staff may be eager to please their client to gain such benefits, than be
truly objective in carrying out their audit.
The external auditor providing internal audit services to a client creates a self-review
threat, as the external auditor is then likely to review his own work.
25 C Jane should initially seek advice from ICAEW before deciding on her next steps. The
general approach to resolving conflicts should be firstly to resolve within the employer
if possible, then seek advice from ICAEW, then take legal advice, then resign (perhaps
on legal advice, but, in any case, as a last resort).
26 B,D,E
The car loan has been given at a special rate and is likely to be material to the audit
manager. All other loans are in the normal course of business on commercial terms.
27 B,C Advocacy threat as the auditor is taking the part of the client in underwriting the client's
shares in a flotation.
Self-review threat as the audit firm will be preparing the financial statements and will
then review them (though the use of separate teams would reduce this threat).
28 C Management threat – selection of systems should be carried out by management. If the
auditor undertakes this role he becomes too closely aligned with management and this
threatens his independence.
Self-review threat – the audit firm will audit the system it has implemented.
There are no indications of a familiarity threat, as no indication is given of the length of
the relationship nor of any family or close personal relationships between audit firm
and client. SAMPLE PAPER

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29 C New Generation Insurance is a threat as a personal guarantee appears to have been

given by the auditor in favour of the company, in return for the audit should the buy out
take place. Hence there is a dependency that threatens the independence of the
assurance provider.
NatEast plc is not a threat as the loan to Hammers LLP is modest and in the normal
course of business for a major high street bank.
30 A,C,F
Valuations are only prohibited for non-listed companies where the item to be valued is
material to the financial statements and involves a significant degree of subjectivity (for
listed companies, any material valuation is prohibited). However, safeguards must be
implemented to minimise self-review (eg, the valuation should be carried out by a
different team). Helping a non-listed company with accounts preparation is acceptable
with safeguards to ensure that the role of management is not assumed by the audit
firm. No safeguards are possible with the design and implementation of the IT system
as the very same system is relied upon for the purposes of the external audit.
31 C Accept Beta Ltd as 12% is below the 15% threshold for private companies. Refuse
Alpha plc as 11% is above the 10% threshold for listed companies. SAMPLE PAPER
32 A,E Do not accept Titania plc as it is not acceptable to prepare and audit the financial
statements of a listed company.
The audit of Puck Ltd can be accepted with safeguards – such as not letting the FD's
brother take any part in the audit. SAMPLE PAPER
33 A,F At Oberon LLP, the junior can go ahead and perform the work, given the low risk
nature of the receivables balance, and the fact that the junior has covered this in his
training. The junior is also to join an audit team, where resources for guidance,
supervision and review will also be available.
With regards to Lear LLP, the junior should contact the ICAEW telephone helpline.
Commencing the audit of a client unsupervised, may lead to exposure of both the
junior and the firm to risks. In a larger firm the junior could refer to his training partner,
but since this is a sole practitioner firm the practitioner himself must also be the
training partner. SAMPLE PAPER
34 B,D David has no other option in this case but to resign his post and take legal advice.
Given that these instructions have come from the board of directors, it would seem
fruitless to pursue this issue internally. SAMPLE PAPER
35 B,D The FD having a very strong personality may lead to an intimidation threat.
The audit and client team remaining unchanged for many years is likely to lead to a
familiarity threat. SAMPLE PAPER
36 C An intimidation threat arises because of Mr Black's attitude. There is an advocacy threat
if the firm acts in the company's defence. A self-interest threat arises because the firm
will be afraid of losing the audit fee.
37 B,D Since the assets of Luxemburg Ltd are immaterial, it is possible to accept both
engagements subject to safeguards (if Luxemburg Ltd had been a public interest entity
then the valuation service should have been declined).
Auditors are prohibited from providing bookkeeping services to listed clients, so the
work for Cliff plc may not be accepted.

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38 B,D In relation to Cioran Ltd, this point should be referred to the training partner. It appears
that the audit trainee in question does not have sufficient knowledge or experience to
perform the work being asked of them.
In relation to Schopenhauer Ltd, you can go ahead and perform the work, given the
low risk nature of the non-current assets balance, and the fact that you have covered
this in your training. You are also to join an audit team, where resources for guidance,
supervision and review will also be available.
39 B,C,F
Tax planning may only be provided where the advice is clearly supported by a tax
authority or other precedent, and where eg, the efficacy of the advice does not depend
on a particular accounting treatment or presentation in the financial statements.
Provided that the entity is not listed (as here), it is possible to provide recruitment
advice as long as the auditor does not take on a management role. Drawing up a
shortlist of candidates is acceptable if the client has drawn up the criteria by which they
are to be selected, and makes the final decision in respect of who to hire.
Given that the client is already bringing legal proceedings, this is actual litigation rather
than merely the threat of it. This creates an intimidation threat, whereby Habermas LLP
may be pressurised into inappropriately issuing an unmodified auditor's report. In this
case, the proceedings are for negligence against Habermas LLP, so this is a serious
issue; the threat is therefore serious enough that Habermas LLP should resign from the
audit.

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Chapter 16: Confidentiality

1 A,C Options B and D are not the principal reasons for the importance of confidentiality.
2 A,B,D
Option C does not apply as accountants may discuss client matters with colleagues in
non-public places.
3 A,C,D
Option B is not correct as it is not acceptable to disclose confidential information in a
bid to secure further audit evidence.
4 B,C,D
Where a fraud has been identified, this is usually reported to the client unless the fraud
has been carried out by senior management/directors, in which case, great care should
be taken in the steps taken.
5 C,D In the first case, report to the firm's money laundering nominated officer as the case is
suspicious. In the second case, make no external report as there is no public or legal
duty to disclose an internal control deficiency.
6 A,C,F
In the first case the assurance provider may make disclosure. In case 2, he may make
disclosure if the client does not. In the final case, the auditor has a duty to make
disclosure as this constitutes money laundering.
7 D Terrorist activities should be reported to the police. Tax evasion should be reported to
the National Crime Agency (NCA). The theft involves money laundering and should be
reported to the money laundering nominated officer, who would report it onto the
NCA.
Where a licence is required but is not applied for, disclosure is not required unless
there is a legal requirement to do so. Since this does not appear to be the case here,
the client's permission is required.
8 D The money laundering nominated officer will then decide on the appropriate course of
action.
9 B,C,F
If the audit firm believes that the conflict of interest can be managed through
safeguards the firm can continue to act for both parties (option B). The clients involved,
however, should be informed of the situation (option F).
10 A,C Encouraging others to buy shares in a company on the basis of information obtained
during the course of the audit is known as insider dealing and is a criminal offence.
Where audit evidence obtained in the audit of one client affects the audit of another
client, procedures must be performed so that the same evidence is obtained from
another source.
11 B In order to avoid giving an incorrect auditor's report to another client is the only option
where permission must first be granted (otherwise the assurance provider will be
breaking his duty of confidentiality to that client). For the other options, client
permission is not required (and indeed to seek this could be regarded as 'tipping off'
the client) but disclosure is necessary by law or the auditor is protected by the court
(eg, in a negligence claim). SAMPLE PAPER

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12 D Report the matter to a designated officer within your firm without the client's permission.
Discussing or mentioning the matter with the client would only serve to tip him off
about the transactions identified. SAMPLE PAPER
13 C There is no blanket prohibition on disclosure, nor is there any general right of the
police or taxation authorities to demand information. Auditors have an implied
contractual duty of confidentiality. There is no statutory duty of confidentiality.
14 A,D Separate audit teams should be used including audit partners and independent review
partners.
Confidentiality agreements should be signed by Leaf LLP's staff, not by the client.
15 B,D The reception area is likely to be open to the public, so to discuss a client's affairs there
would be to breach the duty of confidentiality.
Where an auditor discovers non-compliance with laws and regulations, they must first
inform the client's management (or the directors) of the breach and ask them to report
it. The auditor would only report the breach to the authorities if the client refuses to do
so, and if there is either a legal obligation to report it, or the auditor considers it to be
in the public interest to do so.

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Mock Exam guidance

notes
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฀
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178 Assurance ICAEW 2019

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Suggested structure for Mock Exams in 2019

Exam standard
The Mock Exam should be set at the same level represented as the 2019 sample papers.
Exam format
The Mock Exam should consist of 50 questions worth 2 marks each.
Style of exam questions
Each question should conform to one of the styles used in the sample paper:
 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) (1 from 4); or
 Multi-part Multiple Choice MPMC (eg, 2 or 3  true or false or other choice); or
 Multiple Response Question (MRQ) (more than 1 from 4 or more).
Note that there are no partial marks. All parts of a question must be answered correctly to attain
the marks.
Exam coverage and balance
A Mock Exam should reflect the weightings in the syllabus specification grid as follows:
Syllabus Area Weighting Number of questions

%
1 The concept, process and 20฀ 10 10

need for assurance
2 Internal controls 25฀ 12 13
3 Gathering evidence on an 35฀ 18 17

assurance engagement
4 Professional ethics 20฀ 10 10
Total 100฀ 50 50
ICAEW 2019 Mock Exam guidance notes 179

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The following matrix contains three sets of questions, selected from within this Question Bank.
Each one contains an appropriate balance of questions which form an 'Illustrative Paper' for you
to attempt. Note that the question topics listed here are only examples of the nature of
questions which may be included --- the actual exam questions may be on different topics.
Question Illustrative Paper 1 Illustrative Paper 2 Illustrative Paper 3
1 Ch1; Q4 Ch1; Q2 Ch1; Q9

2 Ch1; Q5 Ch1; Q7 Ch1; Q10
3 Ch1; Q6 Ch1; Q8 Ch1; Q12
4 Ch2; Q1 Ch2; Q8 Ch2; Q5
5 Ch2; Q7 Ch2; Q10 Ch2; Q13
6 Ch2; Q11 Ch3; Q1 Ch3; Q10
7 Ch3; Q15 Ch3; Q13 Ch3; Q12
8 Ch3; Q21 Ch3; Q20 Ch3; Q29
9 Ch4; Q1 Ch4; Q2 Ch4; Q12
10 Ch4; Q11 Ch4; Q13 Ch4; Q14
11 Ch5; Q1 Ch5; Q9 Ch5; Q5
12 Ch5; Q8 Ch5; Q18 Ch5; Q20
13 Ch5; Q10 Ch5; Q28 Ch5; Q25
14 Ch5; Q34 Ch5; Q37 Ch5; Q39
15 Ch6; Q1 Ch6; Q2 Ch6; Q3
16 Ch6; Q5 Ch6; Q7 Ch6; Q10
17 Ch6; Q9 Ch6; Q11 Ch6; Q13
18 Ch7; Q5 Ch7; Q6 Ch7; Q8
19 Ch7; Q14 Ch7; Q15 Ch7; Q16
20 Ch8; Q4 Ch8; Q6 Ch8; Q12
21 Ch8; Q16 Ch8; Q11 Ch8; Q13
22 Ch9; Q2 Ch9; Q5 Ch9; Q7
23 Ch9; Q4 Ch9; Q13 Ch9; Q14
24 Ch10; Q1 Ch10; Q3 Ch10; Q4
25 Ch10; Q2 Ch10; Q8 Ch10; Q5

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Question Illustrative Paper 1 Illustrative Paper 2 Illustrative Paper 3
26 Ch10; Q6 Ch10; Q9 Ch10; Q11
27 Ch10; Q10 Ch10; Q15 Ch10; Q16
28 Ch11; Q1 Ch11; Q2 Ch11; Q3
29 Ch11; Q4 Ch11; Q6 Ch11; Q7
30 Ch11; Q8 Ch11; Q9 Ch11; Q10
31 Ch11; Q11 Ch11; Q12 Ch11; Q14
32 Ch11; Q17 Ch11; Q20 Ch11; Q24
33 Ch12; Q3 Ch12; Q5 Ch12; Q7
34 Ch12; Q8 Ch12; Q9 Ch12; Q10
35 Ch13; Q1 Ch13; Q2 Ch13; Q3
36 Ch13; Q4 Ch13; Q5 Ch13; Q7
37 Ch13; Q11 Ch13; Q12 Ch13; Q13
38 Ch13; Q14 Ch13; Q15 Ch13; Q18
39 Ch13; Q31 Ch13; Q16 Ch13; Q30
40 Ch13; Q43 Ch13; Q33 Ch13; Q37
41 Ch14; Q7 Ch14; Q8 Ch14; Q4
42 Ch14; Q12 Ch14; Q13 Ch14; Q10
43 Ch15; Q4 Ch15; Q5 Ch15; Q10
44 Ch15; Q8 Ch15; Q9 Ch15; Q13
45 Ch15; Q11 Ch15; Q15 Ch15; Q16
46 Ch15; Q14 Ch15; Q21 Ch15; Q22
47 Ch15; Q19 Ch15; Q31 Ch15; Q33
48 Ch15; Q36 Ch15; Q32 Ch15; Q34
49 Ch16; Q5 Ch16; Q6 Ch16; Q7
50 Ch16; Q10 Ch16; Q13 Ch16; Q15
ICAEW 2019 Mock Exam guidance notes 181

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ICAEW 2019 Notes

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Notes ICAEW 2019

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ICAEW 2019 Notes

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Notes ICAEW 2019

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Question Bank
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REVIEW FORM (continued)
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Assurance question bank 2019

The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales

For exams in 2019

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored

British Library Cataloguing-in-Publication Data

1 Concept of and need for assurance 3 129

2 Process of assurance: obtaining an engagement 10 132

3 Process of assurance: planning the assignment 14 134

4 Process of assurance: evidence and reporting 24 138

5 Introduction to internal control 30 141

6 Revenue system 43 145

7 Purchases system 50 148

8 Employee costs 56 150

9 Internal audit 62 152

11 Evidence and sampling 71 156

12 Written representations 83 161

13 Substantive procedures – key financial statement figures 87 163

14 Codes of professional ethics 101 168

15 Integrity, objectivity and independence 106 170

16 Confidentiality 122 175

Mock Exam guidance notes 179

ICAEW 2019 Contents iii

iv Assurance ICAEW 2019

2 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance

4 Which two of the following are limitations of the provision of assurance?

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance 3

4 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance 5

12 Which one of the following best describes the concept of assurance?

6 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

15 The following is an extract from an independent accountant's unmodified report on a profit

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance 7

8 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 1: Concept of and need for assurance 9

Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an

10 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an engagement 11

9 Which two of the following must be included in the engagement letter?

10 Which three of the following are purposes of a letter of engagement?

11 Which one of the following best describes professional scepticism?

12 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

12 Which two of the following must be included in the engagement letter?

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 2: Process of assurance: obtaining an engagement 13

Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the

3 Which three of the following constitute analytical procedures?

14 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the assignment 15

16 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

Revenue 3,497,284฀ 3,487,286฀

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the assignment 17

18 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

15 Which three of the following would increase inherent risk?

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the assignment 19

20 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019

22 Which two of the following options are signs of overtrading?

23 Deteriora Ltd's quick ratio has fallen from 1.9:1 to 1.6:1.

ICAEW 2019 Chapter 3: Process of assurance: planning the assignment 21

22 Assurance: Question Bank ICAEW 2019