QUALIFICATION OF PROFESSIONAL TECHNICAL CAREER QUESTIONS

INFORMATION SYSTEMS DEVELOPMENT

EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION QUESTIONS I

1. Place where the communication process takes place.

a. Context
b. Code
c. Channel
d. Message
e. Transmitter
2. Where the message is sent.
a. Context
b. Code
c. Channel
d. Message
e. Transmitter
3. It is he who receives the message.
a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Message
d. Channel
e. Code
4. A red cross on a white background, the traffic light, various icons. Examples of
communication are:
a. Auditory
b. Iconic
c. Sensory
d. Olfactory
e. Linguistics
5. Applause at a public spectacle, whistles produced for communicative purposes.
Examples of communication are:
a. Auditory
b. Iconic
c. Sensory
d. Olfactory
e. Linguistics
6. Braille writing is one of the most representative of this type of communication.
a. Auditory
b. Iconic
c. Sensory
d. Olfactory
e. Linguistics
7. Although it is not very widespread, a language of smells seems to have been
codified: classes of perfumes. Belonging to:
 a. Auditory
b. Iconic
c. Sensory
d. Olfactory
e. Linguistics
8. He _______ It is the individual materialization of a person's thoughts,
It is the way each individual uses the language.
a. Language
b. Speaks
c. Transmitter
d. Context
e. Receiver
9. Which of the following is not a speech act classification:
a. Declarative
b. Expressive
c. Counterproductive
d. Managers
e. Assertives
10. Which of the following is not a fundamental feature of language.
a. Economic
b. Inflexible
c. Creative
d. Symbolic
e. Flexible

BASIC MATHEMATICS I QUESTIONS

1. The following expression “ ^ ∪ ∅ = ^ ”

a. Complementarity
b. universal element
c. Morgan's Laws
d. Null Element
e. Associative
2. The following expression “A n U = U ”
a. Complementarity
b. universal element
c. Morgan's Laws
d. Null Element
e. Associative
3. The following expression “ (^ ∪ B )` = ^` ∩ B ` ”
a. Complementarity
b. universal element
c. Morgan's Laws
d. Null Element
e. Associative
4. R is a _______________ in a non-empty set A, if and only if each element
of it is related to itself.
 a. Symmetrical Relationship
b. Reflective Relationship
c. Antisymmetric Relationship
d. Transitive Relationship
e. Referential Relationship
5. R is a _________________ on a non-empty set A, if and only if each pair of
elements of it satisfy the following: a R b∧bR a
a. Symmetrical Relationship
b. Reflective Relationship
c. Antisymmetric Relationship
d. Transitive Relationship
e. Referential Relationship
6. R is a ____________________ on a non-empty set A, if and only if each pair
of elements of it satisfies the following: a R b∧bR a ^ a =b
a. Symmetrical Relationship
b. Reflective Relationship
c. Antisymmetric Relationship
d. Transitive Relationship
e. Referential Relationship
7. R is a ____________________ in a non-empty set A, if and only if each trio
of elements of it satisfies the following: a R b∧bRc—c
a. Symmetrical Relationship
b. Reflective Relationship
c. Antisymmetric Relationship
d. Transitive Relationship
e. Referential Relationship
8. The real numbers are the set:
a. R
b. Z
c. AND
d. Q
e. TO
9. Indicate which numerical set the following number belongs to - :
a. Fraction rational number
b. Integer numbers
c. Irrational
d. Natural numbers
e. Royals
10. Indicate which numerical set the following number 4 √15 belongs to:
a. Rational fraction
b. Integer numbers
c. Irrational Number
d. Natural numbers
e. Royals
11. The differential mean of a proportion is 24. Determine the ratio of the proportion
if the first extreme is twice the second.
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 16
 e. 12
12. We have a continuous arithmetic proportion, where the sum of its 4 terms is 200
and the difference of their extremes is 28. Indicate the largest of the extremes.
a. 36
b. 64
c. 16
d. 81
e. 256
13. The geometric proportion is expressed as: '=5
a. Discreet
b. Only
c. Partial
d. Keep going
e. Multiple
14. Calculate the fourth differential of the prices of three items that are $50, $34, and
$29.
a. 12
b. 21
c. 13
d. 18
e. 17
15. In an arithmetic proportion, the extreme terms are to each other like 4 is to 3 and
the middle terms are like 5 is to 9. Calculate the sum of antecedents, if they differ
by 18.
a. 306
b. 326
c. 123
d. 186
e. 94
QUESTIONS FOR USING COMPUTER TOOLS

1. To close the desktop you are using:

a. Windows Key + Ctrl + F5
b. Windows Key + Ctrl + F2
c. Windows Key + Ctrl + F4
d. Windows Key + Ctrl + F3
e. Windows Key + Ctrl + F8
2. What is the route to change the desktop background and colors
a. Home / Settings / Personalization
b. Home / Personalization
c. Open File Browser / Settings / Personalization
d. It cannot be done since Windows uses only the background by default.
e. Home / Wallpaper
3. What is the route to backup and restore files?
a. Go to Start / Settings > Screen Saver > Backup > Add a drive
b. Open file finder / Settings > Update and security > Backup > Add a drive
QUALIFICATION OF PROFESSIONAL TECHNICAL CAREER QUESTIONS 1
INFORMATION SYSTEMS DEVELOPMENT 1
c.
security > Add a drive
4. To use caps lock while using Narrator, quickly press the key twice.
a. Blog Shift
b. F1
c. Ctrl
d. Alt
e. Space
5. Get email, calendar, contacts and files for all your accounts in the app for
Android phones or tablets, iPhone or
iPad.
a. words
b. Outlook
c. Cortana
d. skype
e. Excel
6. Make free video calls and send free messages over the Internet.
a. words
b. Outlook
c. Cortana
d. skype
e. Excel
7. It is one of the most popular free image editing programs. Windows 7 offers an
improved version, more practical and powerful.
a. words
b. Outlook
c. Cortana
d. skype
e. paint
8. It is an application to take screenshots.
a. zip
b. Recuva
c. flux
d. greenshot
e. CCleaner
9. It is a program to decompress or compress various types of files
a. zip
b. Recuva
c. flux
d. greenshot
e. CCleaner
10. Program that allows you to eliminate junk files, freeing up space, and making
your PC always run as fast and light as possible.
a. zip
b. Recuva
c. flux
d. greenshot
e. CCleaner

BASIC ENGLISH QUESTIONS I

1. Midnight in English
a. At midnight
b. At middle day
c. At half day
d. At noon
e. At night
2. “At night” in English
a. in the night
b. At middle day
c. In the evening
d. On the night
e. at night
3. What ___ your name?
a. es
b. are
c. A.M
d. Does
QUALIFICATION OF PROFESSIONAL TECHNICAL CAREER QUESTIONS...1
INFORMATION SYSTEMS DEVELOPMENT.........................................................1
a.
b. May Yo leave?
c. Bless you
4. I can leave the classroom, it is said …………
a. go out
b. May Yo go?
c. May Yo eat in?
d. May Yo leave?
e. Bless you
5. Ana ______ from Peru.
a. A.M.
b. Are.
c. Es.
d. To be.
e. An.
6. Omar _______my friend.
a. A.M.
b. Are.
c. Es.
d. To be.
e. An.
7. Monkeys ______funny.
a. A.M.
b. Are.
c. Es.
d. To be.
e. An.
8. Are you Sandra?
a. Yes, she is.
b. No, you aren't.
c. Yes, I am.
d. Yes, you are.
e. Yes, I am
9. The House ______big.
a. A.M.
b. Are.
 c. Es.
d. To be.
e. An.
INTRODUCTION QUESTIONS TO THE DEVELOPMENT OF INFORMATION SYSTEMS

1. Convert 1656 from base 6 to base 2:

a. 1100
b. 1011
c. 1010
d. 1111
e. 1000
2. As the brain of the system, the CPU has the mission of directing all the activities
carried out by the system.
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Graphic card
d. Memories
e. motherboard
3. Large quantity storage unit.
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Graphic card
d. Memories
e. motherboard
4. In computing, a device based on circuits that enable limited storage of
information and its subsequent retrieval.
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Graphic card
d. Memories
e. motherboard
5. A _____________ It is an expansion card for the computer motherboard
which is responsible for processing the data coming from the central processing
unit and transforming it into understandable and representable information on the
output device
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Graphic card
d. Memories
e. motherboard
6. It is a printed circuit board to which the components that make up the computer
are connected.
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Graphic card
d. Memories
e. motherboard
7. If we talk about an i3 8100 we are talking about a:
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Graphic card
d. Memories
e. motherboard
8. If we talk about a Gtx 1080ti we are talking about one:
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Graphic card
d. Memories
e. motherboard
9. It is simply designed to take power from the alternating current electrical grid
and convert it into low voltage direct current.
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Power supply
d. Memories
e. motherboard
10. If we talk about this device having DDR5 we are talking about one:
a. Microprocessor
b. HDD
c. Power supply
d. Memories
e. motherboard

REQUIREMENTS SEARCH TECHNIQUES QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a function of requirements engineering.

a. Start
b. Negotiation
c. Management
d. Obtaining
e. Rebilling
2. Which of the following is not a function of requirements engineering?
a. Negotiation
b. Commercialization
c. Validation
d. Start
e. Specification
3. The most difficult thing in building a software system is deciding precisely what
to build. There is no task with a greater capacity to harm the system, when done
poorly.
a. Pressman Roger S
 b. Boehm
c. Chaos Report
d. From Marco
e. FPBrooks
4. Carrying out good requirements engineering leads to:
a. Time reduction
b. Disagreements between users and developers.
c. Cost increase
d. The possible loss of the project
e. Errors in the development of the system
5. Carrying out good requirements engineering leads to:
a. Disagreements between users and developers.
b. Cost increase
c. Higher project quality
d. The possible loss of the project
e. Errors in the development of the system
6. What is requirements engineering?
a. Obtain customer requirements appropriately
b. Computer engineering
c. Systems engineer
d. Information Engineering
e. Obtain customer requirements

7. According to a study by “standishgroup” in the US, what is the percentage of

canceled projects?
a. 31.1%
b. 52.7%
c. 16.2%
d. 45.8%
e. 36.1%
8. According to a study by “standishgroup” in the US, what is the percentage of
projects that cost 190% more than estimated.
a. 31.1%
b. 52.7%
c. 16.2%
d. 45.8%
e. 36.1%
9. According to a study by “Standishgroup” in the US, what is the percentage of
projects that will be completed on time, with the initial budget, but the final
product will have half of the initial requirements.
a. 31.1%
b. 52.7%
c. 16.2%
d. 45.8%
e. 36.1%
10. 45% of errors originate from requirements and preliminary design.
a. Boehm
b. standishgroup
 c. From Marco
d. Chaos Report
e. FPBrooks

EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION QUESTIONS II

1. Is it a statement that encompasses the entire treatment of this ? refers to:

a. The text.
b. The topic.
c. The subtopic
d. Literary text.
e. Languageand message.
2. Is it created from reading each paragraph ?
a. The literary text.
b. The non-literary text.
c. The subtopic
d. Literary text.
e. Language and message
3. In order to produce coherent and meaningful sentences, this involves making a series of decisions
about?
a. Spelling, syntax and speech structure.
b. The generation of ideas.
c. The theme and subthemes
d. Oral language.
e. The subtopic
4. Should a text not be abandoned until we are completely sure that a good result has been achieved
?
a. Speech.
b. The revision.
c. Edition
d. The generation of ideas.
e. The subtopic
5. Does it consist of searching for data that may be useful to prepare the text?
a. Analysis of the situation of the writing .
b. The revision.
c. The planning.
d. The generation of ideas.
e. The subtopic
6. Is it key to idea generation ?
a. The planning.
b. The observation.
c. The subtopic
d. Cohesion
e. The topic.
7. At this stage it consists of carefully analyzing the topic and clarifying the ideas you want to
communicate ?
a. The planning.
b. The conclusion.
c. The edition.
d. Organization of ideas.
e. The subtopic
8. Do they help the receiver interpret the meaning of the message? Refer to:
a. The planning.
b. Textual markers.
c. Substitution mechanisms.
d. Literary text.
e. Text classes.
9. Could the author's objective be to inform the recipient about some topic or event ?
 refer to:
a. Text narrative.
b. Text Literary.
c. Text not Literary.
d. The planning.
e. Text expository
10. Does it include: Richness and precision of vocabulary, rhetorical resources, complexity and
syntactic variety?
a. Intentionality.
b. Intertextuality.
c. Stylistics.
d. Situationality.
e. The conclusion.

BASIC ENGLISH II QUESTIONS

1. “NINE AND DIES” (SPANISH) = __________________(ENGLISH)

a. It's ten ten
b. It`s nineto ten
c. It's nine nine
d. It's ten to nine
e. It's ten past nine
2. “DIES AND TWENTY” (SPANISH) = _______________(ENGLISH)
a. It's ten past twenty
b. It's twenty past ten
c. It's twenty to ten
d. It's ten to twenty
e. It's ten half past twenty
3. “HALF AN HOUR” (SPANISH) = __________________(ENGLISH)
a. a quarter past
b. a quarter to
c. `clock
d. half paste
e. Middle hour
4. “A QUARTER FOR” (SPANISH) = _______________________(ENGLISH)
a. a quarter past
b. a quarter to
c. `clock
d. half paste
e. Middle hour
5. “A PAST QUARTER OF” (SPANISH) = ___________________(ENGLISH)
a. half past
b. a quarter to
c. `clock
d. a quarter past
e. hour Middle
6. “ELEVEN AND FIFTY” (SPANISH) = ________________(ENGLISH)
a. It's ten to eleven
b. It's ten to twelve
 c. It's nine to twelve
d. It's ten past eleven
e. It's ten a quarter to eleven
7. Yo ___ in a bank.
a. works
b. working
c. work
d. is working
e. works
8. Barbara ___ Cada dia.
a. run
b. runs
c. is running
d. running
e. runnes
9. I have __ in Canada.
a. doesn't live
b. don't live
c. not live
d. not lives
e. doesn't live
10. 4.-I have ……….. in the olive trees
to.live
b. life
c. Lifes
d. Lives
an Watches

INTRODUCTION QUESTIONS TO COMMUNICATION NETWORKS

1. The ___________ network is defined as the physical or logical map of a network

to
exchange data.
a. Topology
b. Grid
c. Etymology
d. Software
e. Hardware
2. It is the set of interconnected nodes.
a. Topology
b. Grid
c. Etymology
d. Software
e. Hardware
3. The ____________ network is determined solely by the configuration of the
connections between nodes.
a. Topology
b. Grid
c. Etymology
 d. Software
e. Hardware
4. A set of equipment, nodes and software connected to each other through physical
or wireless devices that send and receive electrical impulses in order to share
information, resources and offer services.
a. Topology
b. Grid
c. Etymology
d. Software
e. Hardware
5. In ___________, Apple introduces the Apple I, one of the first computers
personal.
a. 1976
b. 1978
c. 1981
d. 1980
e. 1979
6. In ________, IBM introduces its first PC.
a. 1976
b. 1978
c. 1981
d. 1980
e. 1979
7. The layer ________ includes all the elements that a team uses
to communicate with other equipment within the network, such as network cards.
a. Subnet
b. Physical
c. Logic
d. Metric e) Static
8. They belong to the layer ______ the material and electrical characteristics
They will be used in the transmission of data through physical media, and in its
corresponding reception.
a. Subnet
b. Physical
c. Logic
d. Metrics
e. Static
9. Communication through the layer ___________is governed by better rules
known as protocols.
a. Subnet
b. Physical
c. Logic
d. Metrics
e. Static
10. They are the teams that make the different services available to users.
a. Computer
b. Servers
c. network card
d. Protocol
e. motherboard
11. It stores HTML documents, images, text files, scripts, and other web material
composed of data.
 a. proxy server
b. Web server
c. Authentication server
d. streaming server
e. Database server
12. It performs certain types of functions on behalf of other clients on the network to
increase the performance of certain operations.
a. proxy server
b. Web server
c. Authentication server
d. streaming server
e. Database server
13. Servers that distribute multimedia continuously, avoiding the user to wait for the
complete download of the file.
a. proxy server
b. Web server
c. Authentication server
d. streaming server
e. Database server
14. It allows you to store the information used by applications of all types, keeping it
organized and classified and which can be retrieved at any time and based on a
specific query.
a. proxy server
b. Web server
c. Authentication server
d. streaming server
e. Database server
15. It is responsible for verifying that a user can connect to the network at any access
point, whether wireless or wired.
a. proxy server
b. Web server
c. Authentication server
d. streaming server
e. Database server
BUSINESS MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS

1. The term _________ refers to the person in charge of management or

coordination of an organization, institution or company, or of a part of it, such as
a department or a work group.
a. Manager
b. Dealers
c. Company
d. Administrator
e. Employee
2. It is the one in charge of organizing the resources of an entity and also
designating positions and tasks to the staff.
a. Manager
b. Dealers
c. Company
d. Administrator
e. Employee
3. What virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong to?
Successful managers are clear that the achievement of the objectives of the
organization they lead depends on the quality of their relationships with others.
a. Self-discipline
b. Self-esteem
c. Kindness
d. Creativity
e. Determination
4. To which virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong? It is the
discipline imposed by the individual's own conviction, it implies the control of
willpower through one's own motivation, it requires commitment from the
person.
a. Self-discipline
b. Self-esteem
c. Kindness
d. Creativity
e. Determination
5. To which virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong? For a
manager, this virtue is related to the concept they have of themselves and what
they consider their worth.
a. Self-discipline
b. Self-esteem
c. Kindness
d. Creativity
e. Determination
6. To which virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong? It is the
ability of a manager to produce new ideas and concepts, find original ways to
solve a situation or reach new conclusions.
a. Self-discipline
b. Self-esteem
c. Kindness
d. Creativity
e. Determination
7. To which virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong? It is a
manager's tireless pursuit toward a goal, which requires courage and persistence.
a. Self-discipline
b. Self-esteem
c. Kindness
d. Creativity
e. Determination
8. To which virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong? It is a
valuable attribute that goes beyond honesty, loyalty and compliance with ethical
codes, it implies being a person of principles, word and conscience; incorruptible
a. Optimism
b. Integrity
c. Self-esteem
d. Creativity
e. Responsibility
9. To which virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong? It is
one of the main sources of self-motivation and the ideal complement for the
virtue of “determination”.
a. Optimism
 b. Integrity
c. Self-esteem
d. Creativity
e. Responsibility
10. What virtue of a good manager does the following statement belong to? When a
manager demonstrates commitment to his actions and is responsible for his
decisions and the consequences that these may generate on the company or its
members.
a. Optimism
b. Integrity
c. Self-esteem
d. Creativity
e. Responsibility

1) Name and briefly describe the 4 phases of preparing a budget.

2) Explain what the chain of command is.

3) Within the matrix organization, what does project departmentalization consist of?

4) What does the behavioral approach focus on?

5) According to Fayol, five administrative functions are essential for company
managers? Explain them briefly.

6) How does Max Weber define the term bureaucracy?

7) What does adhocracy mean?

8) Define what budgets are.

9) When does risky decision-making occur?

10) What is the role of an administrator?

SOFTWARE DESIGN QUESTIONS

1. What we learn with Object Oriented programming is:

a. Learn to design problems
b. Learn to manage problems
c. Learn to think how to solve problems
 d. Learn to enter programs
e. Learn to operate the programs
2. Object-oriented programming seeks to solve.
a. Be able to develop systems
b. Be able to develop design
c. Be able to develop applications
d. Being able to develop cases.
e. Power of design
3. What is the goal of object-oriented programming?
a. Think in thereal life
b. Think in he design
c. Think in theengineering
d. Think inthe classes
e. weigh in everything
4. What is Software Engineering?
a. It is a branch of engineering
b. It is a set of ordered tasks
c. It is the maintenance of a Software
d. It is the creation of programs
e. It is a set of disciplines
5. People who sponsor and promote Information Systems.
a. System Owners.
b. Software designers.
c. Systems analysts.
d. Free software creators.
e. Distribution creators.
6. The software development process is comprised of an equal number of phases.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. 7
7. The paradigm is a way of thinking about;
a. Stages
b. Elaboration
c. Construction
d. Transition
e. Closing
8. Describes the expected behavior of the software once developed.
a. The requirements specification
b. The resource specification
c. The definition of commands.
d. The definition of resources
e. The definition of specifications.
9. It is a concrete entity that exists in time and space
a. Class
b. Object
c. Entity
d. User
e. Ruler
10. Software engineering includes 2 types of requirements that define the problem: these
are:
a. Normal and abstract
b. Functional and non-functional
c. Analysis and design
d. Theoretical and practical
e. Inductive and deductive
 ALGORITHMIY QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following options does not distinguish the actions of an algorithm.
a. Process
b. Exit
c. Fragmentation
d. Entrance
e. Income
2. Ordered set of systematic instructions that allows finding the solution to a
specific problem.
a. Sequence
b. Algorithm
c. Addition
d. Subtraction
e. Function
3. The word __________is derived from the Latin translation of the Arabic word
Alkhowarizmi,
a. Sequence
b. Algorithm
c. Addition
d. Subtraction
e. Function
4. Alkhowarizmi was an Arab mathematician and astronomer who wrote a treatise
on the manipulation of numbers and equations in the 19th century. .
a. IIX
b. XI
c. IX
d. SAW
e. VIII
5. They are a set of operations that are used to solve specific problems. These
instructions indicate the sequence of operations that must be carried out so that
the desired result can be obtained based on the input data.
a. Sequence
b. Algorithm
c. Addition
d. Subtraction
e. Function
6. The _________They are used in the world of science for the resolution
method of problems.
a. Sequence
b. Algorithm
c. Addition
d. Subtraction
e. Function
7. Which of the following options is not a characteristic that a good algorithm must
have.
a. It must have a particular starting point.
b. It must be infinite in size and execution time.
c. It must be completely defined and must not allow for double
 interpretations.
d. It must be general, that is, it must support most of the variants that may
arise in the definition of the problem.
e. It must be finite in size and runtime.
8. Which of the following options is not a characteristic that a good algorithm must
have.
a. It must be completely defined and must not allow for double
interpretations.
b. It must be general, that is, it must support most of the variants that may
arise in the definition of the problem.
c. It must be finite in size and runtime.
d. It must be completely defined and may allow for double interpretations.
e. It must be legible, clear and easy to interpret and understand.
9. They are those in which the steps are described using words.
a. Qualitative logarithms
b. Quantitative functions
c. Qualitative functions
d. Quantitative logarithms
e. Quantitative equations
10. They are those in which numerical calculations are used to define the steps of the
process.
a. Qualitative logarithms
b. Quantitative functions
c. Qualitative functions
d. Quantitative logarithms
e. Quantitative equations

NETWORK PROTOCOLS QUESTIONS

1. A symmetric protocol is…

a. A single-layer protocol, this being the one in which all its functions
occur, while in a structured one it will have an impact on several layers of
the communication model.
b. That which is used to communicate two users or computers with the same
permissions and functions within the network.
c. Who joins two points within two different networks
d. The way in which the information will travel throughout the network.
e. One developed solely to perform a specific function that does not vary
and does not need to be connected to an external agent
2. An indirect protocol is…
a. A single-layer protocol, this being the one in which all its functions
occur, while in a structured one it will have an impact on several layers of
the communication model.
 b. That which is used to communicate two users or computers with the same
permissions and functions within the network.
c. Who joins two points within two different networks
d. The way in which the information will travel throughout the network.
e. One developed solely to perform a specific function that does not vary
and does not need to be connected to an external agent
3. Which is not a network protocol?
a. TCP
b. IP
c. P.O.P.
d. HTTP
e. SJRP
4. It is a protocol for network communication:
a. TCP/IP
b. HTTP
c. HTTPS
d. SSL
e. SFTP
5. It is a protocol for network security:
a. TCP/IP
b. HTTP
c. ICMP
d. SSL
e. SNMP
6. It is a protocol for network management:
a. NSMP
b. HTTP
c. HTTPS
d. SSL
e. SFTP
7. A group of network protocols that work together at the upper and lower levels
are commonly called
a. bits
b. Files
c. Protocol Family
d. Server
e. TCP protocols
8. The “Open System Interconnection” model is better known as…
a. OPSYS
b. OSYSIN
c. SIA
d. OSYS
e. OR IF
9. Which does not belong to the “layer 1 protocol – Physical Layer” according to
the layers of the OSI model?
a. USB
b. ETHERNET
c. FRAME
 d. IPv4
e. SONET
10. Which one does not belong to the “Layer 2 – Data Link protocol” according to
the layers of the OSI model?
a. HDLC
b. MPLS
c. STP
d. XDR
e. FDDI

DATA STRUCTURES QUESTIONS

1. They are mainly characterized by the particular form of ordered data retrieval
they support, and the two main types (stack and queue).
a. Container
b. queue
c. array
d. Linked List
e. stack
2. Supports orderly recovery of data last-in, first-out (LIFO) or: last data in, first
data out.
a. Container
b. queue
c. array
d. Linked List
e. stack
3. A ___________, supports first-in, first-out orderly data recovery
(FIFO).
a. Container
b. queue
c. array
d. Linked List
e. stack
4. A linear array is a list of finite numbers of similar data, referenced by a set of n
consecutive numbers, usually 1,2,3,..., n.
a. Container
b. queue
c. array
d. Graphs
e. stack
5. A ___________ is a linear list in which insertions and extractions have
place only at one end called the cusp.
a. Container
b. queue
c. array
d. Graphs
e. stack
6. It is a linear list in which extractions are always made at one end called the front
 and insertions at the opposite end called the end of the list.
a. Container
b. queue
c. array
d. Graphs
and. stack

7. Suppose some airlines operate flights only between cities connected by lines. The
data structure that reflects this relationship is called .
a. Container
b. queue
c. array
d. Graphs
e. stack
8. They are those structures where data is stored in continuous areas (successive or
adjacent), one after the other. Example: stacks, queues, lists.
a. Linear structures
b. Partial structures
c. Unique structures
d. Non-linear structures
e. Algorithmic structures
9. They are those structures where the data is not found continuously, that is, there
is “bifurcation”.
a. Linear structures
b. Partial structures
c. Unique structures
d. Non-linear structures
e. Algorithmic structures
10. They are those that are not composed of other data structures, for example,
integers, booleans and characters.
a. Simple structures
b. Tree structures
c. Primitive structures
d. Program structures
e. Language structures
 SOFTWARE CHECK QUESTIONS

1. When we say “The better we can control the software, the more it can be automated
and optimized” it corresponds to:
a. Observability
b. Controllability
c. Simplicity
d. Stability
e. Ease of understanding
2. When we say “By controlling the scope of testing, we can more quickly isolate
problems and perform better regression testing” it corresponds to:
a. Observability
b. Decomposition capacity
c. Simplicity
d. Stability
e. Ease of understanding
3. When we say “ The less there is to prove, the faster we can prove it ” it corresponds to:
a. Observability
b. Decomposition capacity
c. Simplicity
d. Stability
e. Ease of understanding
4. When we say “ The less I change, the fewer interruptions to the tests ” it corresponds to:
a. Observability
b. Decomposition capacity
c. Simplicity
d. Stability
e. Ease of understanding
5. When we say “ The more information we have, the smarter the tests will be ” it
corresponds to:
a. Observability
b. Decomposition capacity
c. Simplicity
d. Stability
e. Ease of understanding
6. Among the characteristics of Observability, indicate which one of them is not:
a. All factors that affect results are visible
b. An incorrect result is easily identified
c. The technical documentation is exact
d. A different output is generated for each input.
e. System states and variables are visible
7. Among the characteristics of Controllability, indicate which one of them is not.
a. All code is executable through some combination of input
b. All possible outcomes can be generated through some combination of input
c. Inputs and results are consistent
d. Tests can be conveniently specified, automated, and reproduced
 e. The software system is built with independent modules.
8. The set of features is the minimum necessary to meet the requirements, we mean:
a. Functional simplicity
b. Logical simplicity
c. Structural simplicity
d. Code Simplicity
9. The architecture is modularized to limit the propagation of failures, we refer to:
a. Functional simplicity
b. Logical simplicity
c. Structural simplicity
d. Code Simplicity
10. A code standard is adopted to facilitate inspection and maintenance.
a. Functional simplicity
b. Logical simplicity
c. Structural simplicity
d. Code Simplicity

SOFTWARE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A software testing strategy should be…

a. fast
b. logic
c. flexible
d. slow
e. systematic
2. The testing strategy should promote a:
a. result
b. reasonable follow-up
c. design
d. questioning
e. discovery
3. For many years, our only defense against programming errors was...
a. a careful design
b. group them
c. be able to analyze them
d. individualize them
e. try to identify them
4. Similarly, different testing methods are starting to:
a. go global
b. organize in groups
c. formalize
d. group into philosophies
 e. develop
5. How does the test begin?
a. there is no order
b. from the small to the biggest
c. from the big to the smallest
d. It is variable
e. It depends on who executes it.
6. After the elementary components have been approved, we proceed to…
a. Her organization
b. its distribution
c. your new review
d. its integration
e. devise a strategy
7. Finally, a series of high-level tests will be executed once the program is…
a. fully prepared for operation
b. still under review
c. with mistakes
d. no variations
e. in verification process
8. Testing is a set of activities that:
a. are carried out systematically
b. originate automatically
c. do not require planning
d. They don't have an order
e. are continuous
9. A template for testing of…
a. the software
b. the strategy
c. planning
d. the project
e. Computer
10. Various software testing strategies have been proposed in different books. They all
provide a template for the test. Which is not one of their general characteristics?
a. Testing begins at the module level and works “outwards,” toward integration
of the entire computer-based system.
b. Depending on the moment, different testing techniques are appropriate
c. Testing is carried out by the software developer and (for large projects) an
independent testing group
d. Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging should be
included in any testing strategy.
e. It is inappropriate to have different testing techniques
11. Low-level tests verify that all small segments of source code have been...
a. implemented correctly
b. generated with errors
c. restructured
d. considerably reduced
e. removed
12. Software testing is known as:
a. verification and implementation
b. implementation and simulation
c. digitization and validation
d. verification and validation
e. simulation and verification
13. It refers to the set of activities that ensure that the software correctly implements
a specific function:
a. decoding
b. validation
c. check
d. implementation
e. simulation
14. It refers to a different set of activities that ensure that the built software conforms
to the customer's requirements:
a. simulation
b. check
c. implementation
d. validation
e. coding
15. These are the acronyms that refer to “Software quality assurance”
a. (SOA)
b. (SQA)
c. (SCA)
d. (SGA)
e. (SDA)
PROGRAMMING LANGUAGE QUESTIONS I

1. Identify which step does not correspond to the programming methodology.

a. Algorithm design
b. Documentation
c. Definition of the problem
d. Debugging and testing
e. Definition of the origin of the problem
2. Does this symbol used in flowchart represents?
a. Decision
b. Process
c. Entry or exit
d. Connector
e. Address
3. To run a program in Java Netbeans, what should you do?
a. Press the SHIFT key + F6
b. Press the F6 key
c. Press the SHIFT key + F5
d. Press the F5 key
e. Press the ALT + F5 key
4. Known by the name “C Plus Plus”, it is object-oriented and emerges as a
continuation and extension of C.
a. C#
b. VisualBasic. net
c. JavaScript
d. PHP
e. SQL
5. It is the action of instructing or specifying through instructions or commands to a
computer how it should carry out a certain work or task.
a. Program
b. Program
c. Compile
d. Language
e. Execution
6. Series of instructions that the computer must execute sequentially.
a. Program
b. Program
c. Compile
d. Language
e. Execution
7. It is the value that can be positive or negative
a. Numerical data
b. Logical data
c. Character type data
d. Character string data
e. Variable
8. Also called boolean, it is data that can only take one of two values, true or false.
a. Numerical data
b. Logical data
c. Character type data
d. Character string type data
e. Variable
9. A ____________ It is a reserved space in the computer's main memory
Identified by a name, it contains a value that can change throughout the program.
a. Fact
b. Language
c. System
d. Variable
e. Unit
10. The primitive data type Char, how many bytes it occupies in memory.
a. 6 bytes
b. 8 bytes
c. 1 byte
d. 2 bytes
e. 4 bytes

BASIC ENGLISH III QUESTIONS

1) She has…….
a) sore throat
b) sore troat
c) sore throating
d) sore ache
e) sore sore
2) She has the…….
a) flowing
b) flu
c) floo
d) flowing
e) fool
3) They have……..
a) runny nose
b) running nose
c) run nose
d) ranny nose
e) nose runny
4) How do you feel today?
a) I am sad
b) I am sading
c) I am sadly
d) I am feeling sad
e) I feel sad
5) How does she feel?
a) She is tiring
b) She feels tired
c) She feels tired
d) She feeling tired
e) She is feeling
6) Part of the body:
a) Ankle
b) Ank
c) Anke
d) Anchor
e) Anchoring
7) Part of the face:
a) eyebrown
b) eyesbrow
c) eyesbrewn
d) eyebrows
e) broweyes
8) Is it correct to spell……?
a) mout
b) mouth
c) mouthing
d) mauth
e) month
9) Is correct to spell……. ?
a) forhead
b) forhad
c) forhead
 d) forheading
e) forhand
10) Is it correct to spell……?
a) elbow
b) elbou
c) elbouin
d) elbows
e) bow
11) Where is the hospital?
a) It is next to the school
b) It is next to the school
c) It is next the school
d) It's next to school
e) It is the school
12) Where is the bus station?
a) They are on the corner
b) It is on the corner
c) It's on the corner
d) It is the corner
e) It's on the block
13) Is it ………..the newsagent and the school?
a) near
b) next to
c) between
d) in front of
e) on
14) The school is………. The bank.
a) between
b) opposite
c) blocks
d) above
e) on
15) It's on Angamos Street right …………..the supermarket.
a) in
b) under
c) behind
d) above
e) across

SOFTWARE FUNCTIONAL TESTING QUESTIONS

1. It is one of the objectives of software testing.

a) Evaluate through a user test.
b) Discover errors in the software.
c) Test if the software does what the user wants.
d) Show how good a software is.
e) Discover numerous software applications.
2. A feature that leads to easy software to test is:
a) The descomposition.
b) The composition.
c) Observability.
 d) Probability.
e) The orientation.
3. One of the attributes of a good test is:
a) You can find bugs quickly.
b) Hide errors.
c) Do not identify easy errors.
d) Identify exceptions.
e) Be very redundant.
4. The white box testing of the software checks:
a) The logical paths of software.
b) The condition loops.
c) The program states.
d) The program interface.
e) The integrity of external information.
5. Basic path testing is a white box testing technique that allows:
a) Obtain a measure of the logical complexity of a procedural design.
b) Obtain a basic set of execution paths.
c) Go the shortest and simplest route between states.
d) Work with graphs and flows.
e) Create flow graphs.
6. Which of the following is not a functional test.
a) Fraction tests
b) Integration testing
c) Regression tests
d) Sanity check
e) Acceptance Tests
7. They are what ensure that each cell of the code developed in a component
provides the appropriate results.
a) Unit tests
b) Component testing
c) Acceptance Tests
d) Regression tests
e) Fraction tests
8. These tests support functional testing by testing the code that is most likely to
break.
a) Unit tests
b) Component testing
c) Acceptance Tests
d) Regression tests
e) Fraction tests
9. They are executed independently to verify that the result is what is required. Its
objective is to verify the functionalities and/or usability of the components,
although it is not limited to that.
a) Unit tests
b) Component testing
c) Acceptance Tests
d) Regression tests
e) Fraction tests
10. This test can be any element that has input and must generate some output, for
example, the code module.
a) Unit tests
b) Component testing
 c) Acceptance Tests
d) Regression tests
e) Fraction tests
11. These tests are carried out to verify whether the most significant functionalities
of the application work or not.
a) smoke tests
b) Integration testing
c) Regression tests
d) Sanity check
e) User acceptance testing
12. They are done to test individual components with the aim of verifying how
modules, working individually, work when integrated.
a) smoke tests
b) Integration testing
c) Regression tests
d) Sanity check
e) User acceptance testing
13. These tests allow data and operational commands to flow between modules.
a) smoke tests
b) Integration testing
c) Regression tests
d) Sanity check
e) User acceptance testing
14. These tests are performed to ensure that changes or additions have not altered or
eliminated existing functionality.
a) smoke tests
b) Integration testing
c) Regression tests
d) Sanity check
e) User acceptance testing
15. The objective of the ________________ is to find errors that may be
been accidentally introduced into the existing build to ensure that bugs removed
remain so.
a) smoke tests
b) Integration testing
c) Regression tests
d) Sanity check
e) User acceptance testing

DATABASE MODELING QUESTIONS

1. Relational databases began to be used in the years:

a. 70
b. 60
c. 75
d. 80
 e. 90
2. They are a collection of data elements organized in a set of formally described
tables, from which the data can be accessed or reassembled in many different
ways without having to reorganize the base tables.
a. Base of data relational
b. Base of data numerical
c. Base of data non-relational
d. Base of data physical
e. Base of data partial
3. They are designed specifically for specific data models and have flexible
schemas for building modern applications.
a. Relational database
b. Numerical database
c. Non-relational database
d. Physical database
e. Partial database
4. They are based on the organization of information into small parts that are
integrated using identifiers.
a. Relational database
b. Numerical database
c. Non-relational database
d. Physical database
e. Partial database
5. They are databases that do not have an identifier that can be used to relate two or
more data sets.
a. Relational database
b. Numerical database
c. Non-relational database
d. Physical database
e. Partial database
6. Usually the data stored in tables is:
a. Relational database
b. Numerical database
c. Non-relational database
d. Physical database
e. Partial database
7. It is a “warehouse” that allows us to store large amounts of information in an
organized way so that we can easily find and use it later.
a. Data
b. Database
c. Software
d. Program
e. Data language
8. The term databases was first heard in:
a. 1965
b. 1960
c. 1963
 d. 1959
e. 1958
9. It is a set of related information that is grouped or structured.
a. Data
b. Database
c. Software
d. Program
e. Data language
10. Which of the following options does not belong to a part of the life cycles of an
information system.
a. Identification of problems, opportunities and objectives.
b. Determination of information requirements.
c. Implementation of a backup system.
d. Analysis of system needs.
e. Recommended system design.
11. Which of the following options does not belong to a part of the life cycles of an
information system.
a. Software development and documentation.
b. Implementation of a backup system.
c. System testing and maintenance.
d. Recommended system design.
e. Implementation and evaluation of the system.
12. In database systems the files are integrated, because multiple copies of the same
data are not stored. This refers to the advantage of:
a. Control over data redundancy
b. Data consistency
c. Share data
d. Standards maintenance
e. Improved data integrity
13. If a piece of data is stored only once, any updates must be made only once, and
are available to all users immediately. If a piece of data is duplicated and the
system is aware of this redundancy, the system itself can take care of ensuring
that all copies remain consistent. This refers to the advantage of:
a. Control over data redundancy
b. Data consistency
c. Share data
d. Standards maintenance
e. Improved data integrity
14. In file systems, files belong to the people or departments that use them. But in
database systems, the database belongs to the company and can be shared by all
authorized users. This refers to the advantage of:
a. Control over data redundancy
b. Data consistency
c. Share data
d. Standards maintenance
e. Improved data integrity
15. In databases, thanks to integration, it is easier to respect the necessary standards,
 both those established at the company level and national and international ones.
This refers to the advantage of:
a. Control over data redundancy
b. Data consistency
c. Share data
d. Standards maintenance
e. Improved data integrity
NETWORKS AND COMMUNICATION TEST DEVELOPMENT QUESTIONS

1. ……. are strenuous for a network administrator, since they require an amount
substantial amount of resources and manual effort.
a. Network testing.
b. IT
c. Network testing tools
d. Technology testing
e. Windows commands
2. It is a complete and easy-to-use network testing software designed for all
networks.
a. SNMP Ping
b. Ping
c. OpManager
d. Ping Proxy
e. Traceroute
3. Provides a complete set of network testing tools that delivers accurate and fast
results in real time.
a. SNMP Ping
b. Ping
c. Ping Proxy
d. Traceroute
e. OpManager
4. Automates network testing, reducing resource usage and saving valuable time.
a. SNMP Ping
b. OpManager
c. Ping
d. Ping Proxy
e. Traceroute
5. Monitor physical and virtual servers, interfaces, switches, routers, firewalls and
any network devices in real time for more than 200 parameters.
a. SNMP Ping
b. Ping
c. Ping Proxy
d. OpManager
e. Traceroute
6. The acronym Ping means:
a. Packet Internet Groper
b. Generated Internet Package
c. Packet IntraNet Group
d. Packet IntraNet Group
e. Group Internet Package
 7. It works on Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) by transmitting packets.
a. SNMP Ping
b. Ping
c. Ping Proxy
d. OpManager
e. Traceroute
8. It works on a higher layer of the TCP/IP network model, where there is no direct
access to the IP.
a. a proxy
b. Ping
c. Ping Proxy
d. OpManager
e. Traceroute
9. It is used to ping a target device using a Cisco router.
a. SNMP Ping
b. Ping
c. Ping Proxy
d. OpManager
e. Traceroute
10. Collects information from the target device, such as DNS name, system name,
location, system type, and system description.
a. SNMP Ping
b. Ping
c. Ping Proxy
d. OpManager
e. Traceroute

WEB APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT TEST

1) What does the acronym HTML mean?

a) Http Text Message Language.
b) Hyper Text Markup Language.
c) Html Text Max Language.
d) Hyper Test Maximo Linguistic.
e) Hypnotize Textual Mark Language.
2) Language with which Web pages are written…
a) PHP.
b) css.
c) C++.
d) HTML.
e) COBOL.
3) What is the function of Hyperlinks?
 a) They refer to other documents or sources of related information and allow you to
incorporate multimedia files.
b) Allows you to introduce other programming languages for the design.
c) Make the web page look with a better design.
d) Add database to a web page.
e) Add tables to a web page.
4) With what tags does an HTML document begin and end?
a) (HTML) and (/HTML)
b) HTML and /HTML
c) “HTML” and ”/HTML”
d) [HTML] and [/HTML]
e) <HTML> and </HTML>
5) It is recommended to use to familiarize ourselves with HTML…
a) Memo pad.
b) Word.
c) NetBeans.
d) Excel.
e) Rational Rose.
6) <HEAD> and </HEAD>, these tags include:
a) The design of the document.
b) The heading of the document.
c) The body of the document.
d) The title of the document.
e) The document database.
7) <BODY> and </BODY>, these tags include:
a) The title of the document.
b) The document header
c) The design of the document.
d) The body of the document.
e) The prototype of the document.
8) <TITLE> AND </TITLE>, these tags include:
a) The prototype of the document.
b) The design of the document.
c) The body of the document.
d) The header of the document.
e) The title of the document.
9) What should the title of a web page be like:
a) Conceptualized and descriptive of its content.
b) Brief and descriptive of its content.
c) Expanded and explicit of its content.
d) Related and impartial of its content.
e) Compact and concise.
10) If we want to separate the text into different paragraphs we must use the label:
a) <H1>.
b) <PARAGRAPH>.
c) <T>.
d) <P>.
 e) <H2>.
11) Center everything inside it, be it text, images, etc.:
a) <CENTER> and </CENTER>
b) <TITLE> and </TITLE>.
c) <FORM> and </FORM>.
d) <BODY> and </BODY>.
e) <MEDIUM> and </MEDIUM>.
12) If we want to separate paragraphs, or anything else, but without leaving a blank line,
we use the tag:
a) <T>.
b) <P>.
c) <BR></BR>.
d) <P></P>.
e) <BR>.
13) These <B> and </B> tags perform the function of:
a) Putsomething in italics.
b) Putsomething as title.
c) Putsomething in bold font.
d) Putsomething in red.
e) Put something as a header.
14) These <I> and </I> tags serve the purpose of.
a) Put something in bold.
b) Put something as a header.
c) Put something as a footer.
d) Put something underlined.
e) Put something in italics.
15) The <PRE> and </PRE> tag is due to its function:
a) The text will appear as if I had been written with style italics.
b) The text will appear as if I had been written with style underlined.
c) The text will appear as if I had been written with a machine
write.
d) The text will appear as if I had been written with style bold font.
e) The text will appear as if it had been written in capital letters.

NETWORK ADMINISTRATION QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not an advantage of a computer network

implementation.
a. Reduction in service expenses of a company.
b. Reduction of economic cost of the internal functioning of a company.
c. Facilitates the administration of the company.

d. Increased communication of the company's administrative workers.

e. Improving response time in a company's activities.
2. When implementing a computer network in a company, what process model is
 used as a reference:
a. ITIL
b. WSP
c. TCP
d. LAN
e. ISP
3. This process model aims to improve competitiveness, reduce operational costs,
increasing profits in time and money.
a. DNS
b. Http
c. ITIL
d. WSP
e. ISP
4. Which of the following is not a requirement for a data network?
a. Scalability
b. Complexity
c. Adaptability
d. Administration
e. Functionality
5. Which of the following options is not a step to start with network design:
a. Requirements analysis.
b. Network testing with company personnel.
c. Layer 1, 2 and 3 design.
d. Collect all data and user expectations.
e. Documentation of the physical and logical network implementation.
6. In the design of the network topology, which is the most used when creating a
computational network:
a. Bus
b. Star
c. Ring
d. Tree
e. Mesh
7. When creating a computer network, what type of CSMA/CD protocol is most
used:
a. 803.3
b. 802.3
c. 804.3
d. 806.3
e. 805.3
8. When a computer network is created, the ____________ is what is done by
control of how information is transmitted between nodes.
a. System
b. Physical
c. Virtual
d. Service
e. Design
9. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the type of wiring:
 a. Traffic load on the network.
b. Level of security required on the network.
c. Distance that the cable must cover.
d. Origin of the cable.
e. Budget for the cable.
10. This consists of two insulated copper wires, usually 1 mm thick.
a. Three color cable.
b. Twisted pair cable.
c. Wire conductor.
d. Insulated wire conductor.
e. Flexible cable conductor.
11. He _______________They can be used for both analog and
digital. Bandwidth depends on the thickness of the cable and the distance it
travels.
a. Three color cable.
b. Twisted pair cable.
c. Wire conductor.
d. Insulated wire conductor.
e. Flexible cable conductor.
12. Generally the main factors that affect a network ______________Are the
collisions and collision domains, this is because they directly affect network
operation.
a. WAN
b. LAN
c. TCP
d. IP
e. PHP
13. He _________It is a device that we can find in the network layer, which are
used to create unique physical and logical network segments and allow
communication in the network segments through IP addressing.
a. Cabling
b. Adapter
c. Communicator
d. Router
e. switch
14. A __________consists of a network of computers that behave as if
They will be connected to the same switch, although they may actually be
physically connected to different segments of a local area network.
a. WAN
b. VLAN
c. TCP
d. IP
e. LAN
15. Network administrators configure the ___________ via software instead
of hardware, which makes them extremely flexible.
a. WAN
b. VLAN
c. TCP
 d. IP
e. LAN

DATABASE ADMINISTRATION QUESTIONS I

1. They are the people who manipulate the data in the system.
a. Data
b. Software
c. Users
d. Hardware
e. End Users
2. Those who use data from its database for their daily work that does not have to
do with computing.
a. Data
b. Software
c. Users
d. Hardware
e. End Users
3. They are responsible for generating applications for end users.
a. Data
b. Users
c. Developers, analysts and programmers
d. Hardware
e. Administrators
4. They are in charge of managing the databases.
a. Data
b. Users
c. Developers, analysts and programmers
d. Hardware
e. Administrators
5. They are those that do not use the database directly, but rather use applications
created for them to facilitate data manipulation.
a. Data
b. Software
c. Users
d. Hardware
e. End Users
6. They are those who are interested in the ease of use of the database.
a. Data
b. Users
c. End users
d. Developers
e. Administrators
 7. They are those who are interested in the power and flexibility of the built-in
languages of the Database system.
a. Data
b. Users
c. End users
d. Developers
e. Administrators
8. They are those who are interested in advanced management tools for the
database.
a. Data
b. Users
c. End users
d. Developers
e. Administrators
9. The _____________are data that serve to specify the structure of the base
of data.
a. Groups
b. state
c. Metadata
d. Meanings
e. Data

PROGRAMMING LANGUAGE QUESTIONS II

1 .- A class is:

a) A classification of objects.

b) Items stored in a package.

c) Group of students in a learning session.

d) A generating template for new objects.

e) A program in source code.

2 .- The main method of a class:

a) It is the constructor method.

b) It is essential for its execution.

c) It is what generates the instances of the class.

d) It is what happens automatically when an instance of the class is made.

 e) It is the one that contains the definition of the properties and methods of the
class.

3 .- A static variable:

a) It is associated with the instantiated object.

b) It is associated with the class.

c) It is associated with the state of an object.

d) It is associated with the argument of a method.

e) It is associated with the constants.

4 .- A static method.

a) They are actions that do not change over time.

b) Requires the instantiated object to be invoked.

c) It is associated with the state of an object.

d) Requires the class to be invoked.

e) It is associated with the constants.

5 .- A static variable.

a) It is a static variable of type constanct.

b) It is a static variable of type const.

c) It is a static variable of type final.

d) It is a static variable of type var.

e) It is a static variable of type static.

6 .- The user interface belongs to:

a) Business logic.
 b) Presentation logic.

c) Component logic.

d) Data logic.

e) Business logic.

7 .- The instantiate action is:

a) Downgrade an object from a class.

b) Create a new object from a class.

c) Promote an object from a class.

d) Invoke an object from a class.

e) Use an object.

8 .- It is used to calculate the square root of a number:

a) The Power method.

b) The LOG method.

c) The SQRT method.

d) The EXP method

e) The POW method.

9 .- The string class contains:

a) Instance methods.

b) Instanced objects.
 c) A form.

d) Static methods.

e) Properties.

10 .- The substring method.

a) Returns the length of the string.

b) Returns a fragment of the string.

c) Returns the position of a character.

d) Removes whitespace before or after the string.

e) Returns a character that corresponds to a character.

11 .- The length method.

a) Returns the length of the string.

b) Returns a fragment of the string.

c) Returns the position of a character.

d) Removes whitespace before or after the string.

e) Returns a character that corresponds to a character.

12 .- The trim method.

a) Returns the length of the string.

b) Returns a fragment of the string.

c) Returns the position of the first occurrence of a character.

d) Removes whitespace before or after the string.

 e) Insert one string inside another.

13 .- The following instruction: string x=new string(“java”);

a) Creates an instantiated object of the string class.

b) Create a variable of the string class.

c) Create a state of the string class.

d) Create a property of the string class.

e) Create a method of the string class.

14 .- The following instruction: string z=”java”;

a) Creates an instantiated object of the string class.

b) Create a variable of the string class.

c) Create a state of the string class.

d) Create a property of the string class.

e) Create a method of the string class.

15 .- An instantiated object The properties and methods of the class:

a) Inherit.

b) Release.

c) Optimize.

d) Extend.

e) Implement.
 SOFTWARE AND SYSTEMS QUALITY CONTROL QUESTIONS

1. When we refer to a property or set of properties inherent to an object that allows

it to be appreciated as better, equal or worse than other objects of its kind.
[DRAE: Diccionario de la Real Academia Española], we refer to:
a. Quality
b. Dynamic
c. Expectation
d. Worth
e. Criterion
2. When we refer to a set of properties and characteristics of a product or service
that give it the ability to satisfy expressed or implicit needs. [ISO 8042:1994], we
refer to:
a. Quality
b. Dynamic
c. Expectation
d. Worth
e. Criterion
3. When we refer to the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics meets the
requirements. [ISO 9000: 2000], we refer to:
a. Quality
b. Dynamic
c. Expectation
d. Worth
e. Criterion
4. It means developing, designing and producing and maintaining a product that is
the most economical, the most useful and always satisfactory for the consumer
(Kaoru Ishikawa, 1943), we refer to:
a. Quality
b. Dynamic
c. Expectation
d. Worth
e. Criterion
5. It is the application of statistical principles and techniques in all phases of
production, aimed at the most economical manufacture of a product (or service)
that is maximally useful and that has a market (William Edwards Deming, 1986),
we refer to to:
a. Quality
b. Dynamic
c. Expectation
d. Worth
e. Criterion
6. Which of the following characteristics does not refer to the concept of quality?
a. It is subject to restrictions
b. Deals with acceptable compromises
c. It is absolute
d. It is multidimensional
 e. Quality criteria are not independent
7. Offer low-cost products and services that satisfy customers. It implies a
commitment to innovation and continuous improvements, it is:
a. A dynamic quality concept
b. William Deming's concept of quality
c. A Philip Crosby concept of quality
d. A DRAE concept
e. An ISO concept
8. It is closely related to the development of the human being, subject to different
definitions depending on the time and environment in which it develops.
a. A dynamic quality concept
b. William Deming's concept of quality
c. A Philip Crosby concept of quality
d. A DRAE concept
e. An ISO concept
9. It explains it from an engineering perspective as compliance with precise
standards and requirements. Their motto is “Do it right the first time and achieve
zero defects.”
a. A dynamic quality concept
b. William Deming's concept of quality
c. A Philip Crosby concept of quality
d. A DRAE concept
e. An ISO concept
10. It is something multidimensional, since it is subject to restrictions and linked to
acceptable commitments.
a. A dynamic quality concept
b. William Deming's concept of quality
c. A Philip Crosby concept of quality
d. A DRAE concept
e. An ISO concept
11. The quality of the software is the ____with which a system, component or
process meets the ___________ specified and the needs or expectations
of the client or user.
a. degree - requirements
b. analysis - requirements
c. percentage - requirements
d. control - requirements
e. standard – requirements
12. The purpose of software quality management is:
a. Understand customer expectations in terms of quality, and implement a
proactive plan to meet those expectations.
b. Achieve the intersection between the quality required and the quality
achieved c. Obtain perceived quality
d. Achieve a multidimensional result
e. The application of statistical principles and techniques in all phases of
production
13. Set of planned and systematic activities.
 a. Software quality assurance
b. Software quality control
c. Software verification
d. Software validation
e. Software structuring
14. Set of planned and systematic activities necessary to provide confidence that the
product (software) will satisfy the given quality requirements.
a. Software quality assurance
b. Software quality control
c. Software verification
d. Software validation
e. Software structuring
15. Set of techniques and activities of an operational nature.
a. Software quality assurance
b. Software quality control
c. Software verification
d. Software validation
e. Software structuring

INTERMEDIATE ENGLISH V QUESTIONS

1. My family and I in London when I was young.

a) lived
b) live
c) was live
d) lives
e) living room

2. We ……… some sandwiches and fresh fruit to eat for lunch yesterday.
a) buy
b) buys
c) bought
d) bought
e) buying

3. They wanted to………. the new action movie but there were no more tickets.
a) see
b) saw
c) seeing
d) seen
e) it is

4. Did you have a good time?

Yes, I………
 a) had
b) did
c) have
d) donated
e) does

5. He didn't…….. me because I was behind the tree.

a) saw
b) see
c) it is
d) seeing
e) seen
6. ……… you a good student in school Yes, I was.
a) Did
b) Were
c) was
d) Does
e) Es

7. Did you………lots of interesting photos on your holiday?

a) took
b) take
c) takes
d) taking
e) taken

8. We had a great time and we ………lots of fun and exciting things.

a) did
b) do
c) was did
d) had did
e) have done

9. Why…………. Your classmates finish their math homework last week?

a) didn't
b) wasn't
c) weren't
d) no
e) have done

10. He ……… see a dentist yesterday because he had a toothache.

a) have you
b) have to
c) had to
d) have
e) had

11. I wanted to………. but I couldn't. I had to stay and help my friend.
 a) went b) go c) going d) see e) gone
12. …….. Michael and Steven late or on time for work yesterday morning?
a) Were
b) Did
c) was
d) been
e) Do
13. my dog _______a large bone.
a) eta
b) eaten
c) tie
d) eaten
e) eats

14. Paul _____to Scotland last holidays.

a) traveled
b) spent
c) go
d) goes
e) going

15. Maria _________some socks in the shopping center

a) opened
b) bought
c) danced
d) dances
e) bought

MOBILE APP DEVELOPMENT QUESTIONS I

1. In what year was Android purchased by Google.

to. 2005
b. 2007
c. 2008
d. 2009
and. 2006
2. The Android code was released under the Apache license when the Open Handset
Alliance was created on November 5, 2007.
to. 2005
b. 2007
c. 2008
d. 2009
and. 2006
3. Android is a kernel-based mobile operating system _________________and other
open source software.
 a. Solaris
b. Linux
c. iOS
d. Windows
e. Mac
4. It is software that provides development tools for creating Java programs.
a. AVD (Android Virtual Device Manager)
b. SDK Manager
c. JDK (Java Development Kit)
d. mysql
e. Runtime interpreter (JRE)
5. Allows the execution of non-graphical Java programs (*.class) (applications).
a. AVD (Android Virtual Device Manager)
b. SDK Manager
c. JDK (Java Development Kit)
d. mysql
e. Runtime interpreter (JRE)
6. It is used to package Java source code files (usually *.java), into executable Java
class files (*.class).
a. Scrubber
b. Flash
c. Documentation Generator
d. Compiler
e. Applet viewer
7. It is a tool that is used to see how an applets look.
a. Scrubber
b. Flash
c. Documentation Generator
d. Compiler
e. Applet viewer
8. It is not a visual environment, but it allows you to find and eliminate errors in
Java programs with great accuracy.
a. Scrubber
b. Flash
c. Documentation Generator
d. Compiler
e. Applet viewer
9. It is a command line utility that allows you to fine-tune Java applications.
a. Scrubber
b. Flash
c. Documentation Generator
d. Compiler
e. Applet viewer
10. It is a useful tool for generating API documentation directly from Java source
code.
a. Scrubber
b. Flash
c. Documentation Generator
d. Compiler
e. Applet viewer
11. Generates HTML pages based on javadoc statements and comments, in the
format /** comments */.
a. Scrubber
b. Flash
c. Documentation Generator
d. Compiler
e. Applet viewer
12. It is an ADB command that is used in the Android SDK to “Take a file from the
mobile phone and move it to the computer.”
a. Flash
b. Pull
c. Erase
d. Reboot
e. Devices
 13. It is an ADB command used in the Android SDK to “Rewrite a partition with
another binary image saved on the computer.”
a. Flash
b. Pull
c. Erase
d. Reboot
e. Devices
14. It is an ADB command used in the Android SDK to “Reboot the device or return
to the bootloader.”
a. Flash
b. Pull
c. Erase
d. Reboot
e. Devices
15. It is an ADB command that is used in the Android SDK to “Delete a specific
partition.”
a. Flash
b. Pull
c. Erase
d. Reboot
e. Devices

DATA MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS

1 .- What is a database?

a) It is an entity that can store data logically.

b) It is an entity in which data can be stored logically.

c) It is an entity in which data can be stored in a structured way.

d) It is a program in which data can be stored in a structured way.

e) It is an entity in which data can be controlled in a structured way.

2 .- Objective of creating a database?

a) It is that programs can access data without needing to know exactly how the data
is stored.
 b) It is that applications can enter data without needing to know exactly how the
data is stored.

c) It is that programs can save data without needing to know exactly how the data is
stored.

d) It is that applications can modify data without needing to know exactly how the
data is stored.

e) It means that applications can access data without needing to know exactly how
it is stored.

3 .- What is an SBD?

a) It is a series of steps that are taken to be able to view large volumes of

information.

b) It is a series of resources to manage large volumes of information.

c) It is a series of steps to handle large volumes of data.

d) It is a set of data to update large volumes of information.

e) It is a series of resources to handle large volumes of data.

4 .- What are the elements of a database system?

a) Hardware, data, users and administrators.

b) Developers, data, administrators, hardware and users.

c) Hardware, data, users, software, end users, administrators, developers, analysts
and programmers.

d) Data, administrators, analysts, programmers, users, hardware and software.

e) Software, hardware, analysts, users, data, developers.

5 .- What is the function of administrators?

 a) They are in charge of managing the databases.

b) They are responsible for updating the databases.

c) They are responsible for directing the information base.

d) They are responsible for moving information from the databases.

e) They are responsible for saving the information in the database.

6 .- What is the database made up of?

a) It is made up of data and information.

b) It is made up of information and metadata.

c) It is made up of data and metadata.

d) It is made up of characters and data.

e) It is made up of metadata and characters.

7 .- What are the divisions of the database?

a) Physical and directional structure.

b) Logical and physical structure.

c) Conceptual and functional structure.

d) Physical and functional structure.

e) Logical and directional structure.

8 .- What structure is used by the developer?

a) External scheme.
 b) Physical scheme.

c) Functional scheme.

d) Internal scheme.

e) Conceptual scheme.

9 .- What are the types of information systems?

a) Object- and database-oriented information systems.

b) Information systems oriented to the process and the database.

c) Information systems oriented to the process and the information base.

d) Information systems oriented to objects and the information base.

e) Information systems oriented to databases and programming.

10 .- What drawback of process-oriented information systems says: for it to not exist, each
modification must be repeated in all copies of the data?

a) Difficult modification of data.

b) High processing times.

c) High probability of data inconsistency.

d) Redundant data.

e) High storage cost.

11 .- In the data integration advantage of database-oriented information systems, what point

says: if a piece of data is duplicated and the system knows this redundancy, the system itself
can be in charge of guaranteeing that all copies are Do they stay consistent?

a) Data sharing.
 b) Maintenance of standards.

c) Control over data redundancy.

d) Information sharing.

e) Data consistency.

12 .- In the advantage of the existence of DBMSs of database-oriented information systems,

what point does it say: do they provide query languages or report generators that allow the
user to make any type of query about the data?

a) Improved security.

b) Improved data accessibility.

c) Improvement in data integrity.

d) Increase in attendance.

e) Improved data maintenance.

13 .- What drawback of database management systems does it say: it is necessary to
understand the functionality very well to be able to get the most out of them?

a) Size.

b) Economic cost of the DBMS.

c) Conversion cost.

d) Cost of additional equipment.

e) Complexity.

14 .- What important point does the data manager say: help verify data integrity?

a) Recoverability.
 b) Integrity.

c) Security.

d) Performance.

e) Availability.

15 .- What function of the database administrator says: database standards and access
policies?

a) Installing and uninstalling patches.

b) Product testing.

c) Definition of the structure and access method.

d) Modification of the scheme and physical organization.

e) Definition of the database schema.

DATABASE DESIGN QUESTIONS

1 .- It is within the record-based model.

a) Aim.

b) Object-oriented model.

c) Database.

d) Network model.

e) Data storage.

2 .- It must be manipulable through operations.

 a) Logical design.

b) Schemes.

c) Database.

d) Hierarchical model.

e) Fact.

3 .- The smallest unit that can be referred to in a program.

a) Records.

b) Deductive model.
c) Database.

d) Field.

e) Data.

4 .- Collection of fields of the same or different types.

a) Sgbd.

b) Deductive model.

c) Database.

d) Models.

e) Records.

5 .- It is responsible for the creation and access of the database.

a) Ddl.
 b) Deductive model.

c) Dbms.

d) Sql.

e) Dml.

6 .- A level of database management system.

a) First level.

b) Deductive model.
c) Physical level.

d) Main.

e) Sql.

7 .- Actual level of stored data.

a) First level.

b) Deductive model.

c) Physical level.

d) Main.

e) Sql.

8 .- Level seen from the point of view of the real world.

a) Vision level.

b) Deductive model.
 c) Physical level.

d) Conceptual level.

e) Sql.

9 .- Language that enables users to manipulate data.

a) Data recovery.
b) Deductive model.

c) Dml.

d) Data.

e) Sql.

10 .- A function of the database administration.

a) Dbms.

b) Deductive model.

c) Storage and access method.

d) DB query.

e) Sql.

11 .- The schema created by bd is translated by the compiler.

a) Vision level.

b) Deductive model.

c) Physical level.
 d) Ddl.

e) Sql.

12 .- It is a read-only database.

a) Dml.
b) Static database.

c) Schemes.

d) Dynamic database.

e) Sql.

13 .- Object-based models are used to describe data.

a) Records model.

b) Deductive model.

c) Database.

d) Logical models.

e) Mysql.

14 .- It is used to describe data at the lowest level.

a) Object data models.

b) Deductive model.

c) Physical level.

d) Physical data models.

 e) Bd.

15 .- An element of the entity-relationship model.

a) Modules.

b) Deductive model.

c) Physical level.

d) Entities.

e) Entity-relationship.

INFERENTIAL STATISTICS QUESTIONS

1 .- Classify the following random variables as discrete or continuous: Number of pages in a

book? discreet, How long does it take for a light bulb to burn out? continued, Number of
questions in a one-hour class? Discrete, Amount of water consumed in a month? keep going.

a) Cccc.

b) Cddc.

c) Dcdc.

d) Ddcc.

e) Ddddd.

2 .- A pair of dice is thrown. The random variable x is defined as the sum of the scores
obtained. Find the mathematical expectation

a) 7.

b) 6.
 c) 5.
d) 8.

e) 9.

3 .- A pair of dice is thrown. The random variable x is defined as the sum of the scores
obtained. Find the standard deviation.

a) 2,423.

b) 2,415.

c) 2,455.

d) 2,432.

e) 2,416.

4 .- A player throws a regular dice. If a prime number comes up, you win as many hundreds of
euros as the dice shows, but if a prime number does not come up, you lose as many hundreds
of euros as the dice shows. Determine the probability function and the mathematical
expectation of the game.

a) 16.668.

b) 16.662.

c) 16.667.

d) 16.669.

e) 16.665.

5 .- If a person buys a ticket in a raffle, in which they can win s/5,000 or a second prize of
s/2000 with probabilities of: 0.001 and 0.003. What would be the fair price to pay for the
ballot?

a) 10.
b) 12.
 c) 14.

d) 11.

e) 13.

6 .- A die is rolled. It is defined as it goes The number that comes out, what is its average?

a) 3.5.

b) 3.9.

c) 3.2.

d) 3.7.

e) 3.6.

7 .- A game consists of rolling two dice. If the sum of its faces is greater than or equal to 10,
you win 300 pts, if it is between 7 and 9 you win 100 pts. And for any other result nothing is
gained. What should be the price of the bet so that the banker's expected profit is 50 pts?

a) 142.4.

b) 142.6.

c) 141.9.

d) 141.1.

e) 141.7.

8.- A compound is developed to relieve migraines. The manufacturer claims that it is effective
in 90% of cases. It is tested on 4 patients. Let x be the number of patients who get relief. Find
p(x = 1).
a) 0.0043.

b) 0.0039.
 c) 0.0032.

d) 0.0037.

e) 0.0041.

9 .- A compound is developed to relieve migraines. The manufacturer claims that it is effective

in 90% of cases. It is tested on 4 patients. Let x be the number of patients who get relief. Let x
be the number of patients who get relief. Is finding the probability that the compound does not
provide relief to any of the patients a reason to question the manufacturer's claimed efficacy?

a) 0.0003.

b) 0.0001.

c) 0.0005.

d) 0.0002.

e) 0.0006.

10 .- A compound is developed to relieve migraines. The manufacturer claims that it is

effective in 90% of cases. It is tested on 4 patients. Let x be the number of patients who get
relief. Let x be the number of patients who get relief. Calculate the average. What does it mean
in this example?

a) 3.6.

b) 3.8.

c) 3.5.
d) 3.2.

e) 3.7.

11.- Let x be the survival time in years after a diagnosis of acute leukemia. The pdf for x is f(x) =
-x/2 + 1, for 0 < x < 2. Find p(x>1)

a) 0.25.
 b) 0.30.

c) 0.42.

d) 0.35.

e) 0.20.

12 .- Let x be the survival time in years after a diagnosis of acute leukemia. The pdf for x is f(x)
= -x/2 + 1, for 0 < x < 2. Find p(x =1)

a) 0.01.

b) 0.02.

c) 0.

d) 0.03.

e) 0.04.

13 .- Let x be the survival time in years after a diagnosis of acute leukemia. The pdf for x is f(x)
= -x/2 + 1, for 0 < x < 2. Find p(x =1)

a) 0.30.

b) 0.20.
c) 0.25.

d) 0.35.

e) 0.32.

14 .- Let x be the survival time in years after a diagnosis of acute leukemia. The pdf for x is f(x)
= -x/2 + 1, for 0 < x < 2. Calculate the average.

a) 0.69.
 b) 0.70.

c) 0.65.

d) 0.67.

e) 0.68.

15 .- An investor realizes that he has a 60% probability of obtaining a profit of s/5000 and a
25% probability of losing s/5000 and a 15% probability of neither winning nor losing. What is
the investor's hope?

a) 1725.

b) 1765.

c) 1785.

d) 1750.

e) 1760.
PROJECT FORMULATION AND EVALUATION QUESTIONS

1. Concept of a Project is:

a) Design or thought to do something
b) The plan for the execution of a work or operation
c) The entire range of activities ranging from the “intention or thought to
perform something-
d) Idea of a thing that is planned to be done and for which a certain way and
a set of necessary means are established
e) Design or thought of doing something, The plan for the execution of a
work or operation, The whole range of activities ranging from the
“intention or thought of executing something, Idea of a thing that is
planned to be done and for which a plan is established certain way and a
set of necessary means
2. Project is a unit of activity of any nature, which requires for its realization the
immediate or short-term use or consumption of some scarce or at least limited
resources such as:
a) Savings
b) Foreign exchange
c) Skilled labor
d) Specialized talent
e) Savings, foreign exchange, qualified labor, specialized talent, etc.
3. The definition of Project implies:
a) Realization of a new material work
b) Modernization, extension or modification of an existing work
c) Organization or execution of an activity that produces or facilitates the
production of goods or services.
d) Carrying out a new material work and Modernization, Extension or
modification of an existing work.
e) Realization of a new material work, Modernization, Extension or
modification of an existing work, Organization or execution of an
activity that produces or facilitates the production of goods or services,
Realization of a new material work and Modernization, Extension or
modification of a existing work.
4. It is the careful selection of ends and appropriate means to achieve them:
a) Planning.
b) Projects.
c) Programming.
d) Policies.
e) Values.
5. It involves giving organic form to a set of decisions, integrated and compatible
with each other, that will guide the activity of a government, a company, or a
family.
a) Planning.
b) Projects.
c) Programming.
d) Policies.
e) Values.
6. Agricultural extension program, Livestock, Forestry, Agroindustry, etc.
Belonging to:
a) According to their insertion in the sectors of the economy.
b) According to its relationship with other projects.
c) Depending on the nature of the product.
d) According to the project owner.
e) Depending on the objective or purpose of the investment.
7. Projects related to each other; When one is approved, the others are approved.
Belonging to:
a) According to their insertion in the sectors of the economy.
b) According to its relationship with other projects.
c) Depending on the nature of the product.
d) According to the project owner.
e) Depending on the objective or purpose of the investment.
8. Physical infrastructure: Railways, Electrification, Hydraulic infrastructure,
Communications, etc. Belonging to:
a) According to their insertion in the sectors of the economy.
b) According to its relationship with other projects.
c) Depending on the nature of the product.
d) According to the project owner.
e) Depending on the objective or purpose of the investment.
9. Private: fruit processing plant, mobile home factory, etc. Belonging to:
a) According to their insertion in the sectors of the economy.
b) According to its relationship with other projects.
 c) Depending on the nature of the product.
d) According to the project owner.
e) Depending on the objective or purpose of the investment.
10. Change, improvement or modernization of an existing company: Expansion of
cement plant, modernization of port, etc. Belonging to:
a) According to their insertion in the sectors of the economy.
b) According to its relationship with other projects.
c) Depending on the nature of the product.
d) According to the project owner.
e) Depending on the objective or purpose of the investment.
11. To measure the project's capacity to meet its financing commitments incurred
for its execution. Belonging to:
a) According to their insertion in the sectors of the economy.
b) According to its relationship with other projects.
c) Depending on the nature of the product.
d) According to the project owner.
e) Depending on the objective or purpose of the study.
12. Which stage does not belong to Pre-Investment.
a) Identification of the investment project idea.
b) Preliminary study.
c) Study of pre-feasibility.
d) Feasibility study
e) Tenders and contracts
13. Which stage does not belong to the Investment.
a) Definitive engineering studies.
b) Tenders and contracts.
c) Execution of works and equipment.
d) Testing and commissioning.
e) Initial Operation.
14. Opportunity Studies are those that allow the identification of investment
opportunities or ideas for investment projects, demonstrating (at this level) the
viability of the proposal. Belonging to:
a) Identification of the investment project idea (Opportunity study)
b) Preliminary study (Investment profile)
c) Study of pre-feasibility
d) Feasibility study
e) Definitive engineering studies.
15. It is a first study carried out on a specific proposal for an investment opportunity
or investment project idea. It is similar to a concrete project opportunity study.
Belonging to:
a) Identification of the investment project idea (Opportunity study)
b) Preliminary study (Investment profile)
c) Study of pre-feasibility
d) Feasibility study
e) Definitive engineering studies.

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING QUESTIONS

1 .- It is the branch of engineering that applies the principles of computing and mathematics:

a) Systems engineering.

b) Software engineering.

c) The reengineering.

d) Artificial engineering.

e) Artificial intelligence.

2 .- The software engineering process is defined as:

a) A set of concepts, a methodology and its own language.

b) The principles of computer science and mathematics to achieve cost-effective
solutions.

c) It allows you to consistently produce correct products.

d) A set of partially ordered stages with the intention of achieving an objective.

e) A set of coherent steps with an objective to achieve.

3 .- What does the software development process require?

a) Concepts, a methodology and its own language.

b) Own language and hardware.

c) Project plan, a business idea and concepts.

d) Hardware, a methodology and its own language.

e) Hardware and a development tool.

4 .- What other name is the software development process known by?

 a) Software stages.

b) Software phases.

c) Software cycles.

d) Software life cycle.

e) All of the above.

5 .- What principles are applied in software engineering?

a) Natural Sciences.

b) Maths and physics.

c) Computer science and mathematics.

d) Logic.

e) Physics.

6.- How many phases are there in software engineering?

a) 5.

b) 6.

c) 4.

d) 2.

e) 3.

7 .- The paradigm “It is a way of thinking…”:

a) A model to follow.
 b) Stages.

c) Construction.

d) Validation.

e) Verification.
8 .- These are the phases of software engineering:

a) Coding, testing, validation and analysis.

b) Coding, design, analysis and testing.

c) Conception, elaboration, construction and transition.

d) Define needs, tests, analysis and maintenance.

e) Design, development, testing and transition.

9 .- Define the scope of the project and develop a business case.

a) Transition.

b) Coding.

c) Conception.

d) Evidence.

e) Validation.

10 .- It is not an objective of software engineering.

a) It allows you to consistently produce correct and usable products.

b) Improves the quality of software products.

 c) It provides developers with the foundation to build high-quality software in an
efficient way.

d) Increase the productivity and work of software engineers.

e) Facilitate the control of the software development process.

ELECTRONIC PHYSICS QUESTIONS

1 .- Crystalline solids are composed in a periodic way in:

a) One dimension.

b) Two dimensions.

c) Four dimensions.

d) Three dimensions.

e) Five dimensions.

2 .- Common salt or sodium chloride is:

a) An amorphous solid.

b) A crystalline solid.

c) A cube

d) A pattern.

e) A model.

3 .- Amorphous solids are composed of atoms, molecules or ions and do not have:
 a) A defined model.

b) A microscopic part.
c) A pattern.

d) A long-range order.

e) Atoms.

4 .- A crystalline solid can be represented as a network of lines called:

a) Space cell.

b) Unit cell.

c) Spatial grid.

d) Unitary reticle.

e) NA

5 .- The network of lines of the crystalline solid can be described from the repetition in space
of an elementary structure called:

a) Spatial grid.

b) Unitary reticle.

c) Space cell.

d) Unit cell.

e) NA

6 .- Depending on the network parameters of the elementary parallelepiped and the angles
they form, we distinguish:
a) A crystalline system.
 b) A unit cell.

c) Four crystalline systems.

d) A space cell.

e) Seven crystalline systems.

7 .- How many basic crystalline structures are established in the unit cell:

a) 10.

b) 12.

c) 14.

d) 16.

e) 18.

8 .- What is the difference in behavior between some materials and others?

a) To the number of atoms that the materials have.

b) To the molecules that act on each atom.

c) The nucleus at rest that contains each element.

d) The energy that each material stores.

e) To the different chemical elements and the electronic bonds that exist between
atoms.

9 .- Quantum mechanics tells us that the electrons in atoms:

a) They form a proton and an electron.

b) They move in an orderly manner.

 c) They move in an elliptical shape.

d) They move around the atomic nucleus.

e) All of the above.

10 .- How much is one electro volt equivalent?

a) 1.7 ×10-14J.

b) 1.8 ×10-19J.

c) 1.6 ×10-10J.

d) 1.8 ×10-29J.

e) 1.6 ×10-19J.

QUESTIONS FOR RESEARCH AND TECHNOLOGICAL INNOVATION PROJECTS

1 .- What is a technological research and innovation project?

a) These are steps you must follow to obtain a degree.

b) It is a project that is delivered to a jury.

c) It is a complementary course.

d) It is the application of techniques for research.

e) It is a scheme to obtain a degree.

2 .- With respect to the economic aspect of the project that we must mainly take into
account.

a) See the interest rate of the banks.

 b) See the profitability of the project.

c) Do the project in a primitive way to reduce costs.

d) List the risks and take contingency measures to prevent.

e) If you do not have the necessary capital, postpone the project.

3 .- The description of a project is:

a) A summary of the project with just a few pages.

b) The project detailed in many pages.

c) Project draft.

d) It is the description of the project techniques.

e) It is the description of the operation of the project.

4 .- What are the general objectives?

a) They correspond to the most significant contribution or contributions of the

project.

b) They correspond to the development of a project.

c) They correspond to the sale of a product.

d) They correspond to the goal of the project.

e) They correspond to the project mission.

5 .- What is know how?

a) It's a thesis.
 b) It is a project.

c) It's an exhibition.

d) Set of technical and administrative knowledge.

e) It's a patent.

6 .- The specific objectives are related to:

a) With the goals of the projects.

b) With the objectives of the project.

c) With the mission of the project.

d) With the vision of the project.

e) With the functions of the project and with the specific needs that gave rise to it.

7 .- What is not a particularity of technological research?

a) Scientific research problem.

b) Theoretical framework.
c) Technological research.

d) Collect photos.

e) Hypothesis.

8 .- What are the limitations of an investigation?

a) Climate and mood.

b) Personnel and money.

 c) Government intervention and financing.

d) Feasibility, time and financing.

e) Effort and dedication.

9 .- Contains the fundamental arguments that support the importance of the research to be
carried out:

a) Conclusion.

b) Justification.

c) Quality.

d) Goals.

e) Annexes.

10 .- It is the part where mention will be made of the work that is intended to be carried out,
accompanied by the information documented in current bibliography:

a) Approaches.

b) The theoretical framework.

c) Strategic approach.

d) Organization chart.

e) General objectives.

11 .- They are the possible explanations that offer us alternatives to the possible solutions of
the problem being studied:

a) Problem Statement.

b) Scientific investigation.
 c) Limitations of the Technology.

d) Hypothesis.

e) The topic.

12 .- It is a process in which one part is carried out and another part can be developed
simultaneously:

a) Project Design.

b) Theme design.

c) The project.

d) Table of contents.

e) Technical study.

13 .- What is meant by an innovative idea?

a) It is a plan to have new income.

b) They are obligations of the company with its employees.

c) It is necessary to make a relationship between income and expenses.

d) It is a new way of preserving a product or a novel use of a new invention.

e) It is the way a customer deals with the company.

14 .- Types of research according to the use of information?

a) Applied-technological.

b) Development – applied.
 c) Pure-applied-technological-development.

d) Pure-applied- - development.

e) Applied-technological-development-quality.

15 .- What does the research model of a thesis require?

a) The development of a whole problem.

b) The solution of problems to be resolved by following a methodology that allows

the stated objectives to be met.

c) The monitoring of a methodology that allows the stated objectives to be met.

d) Mention of the work that aims to investigate a problem in depth.

e) Discuss the results of other researchers