VFR Communication (VC)

1. When arriving at an airfield with an Aerodrome Flight Information Service, a pilot

receives the following call

“G-EFIM, Land at your discretion, Surface Wind 230/08”

Which of the following pilot responses to this radio call is correct?”

a. “At my discretion, 230/08, G-EFIM.”

b. “G-EFIM.” or “Roger, G-EFIM.” or “Landing, G-EFIM.”
c. “Cleared to land, G-EFIM.”
d. “Land at my discretion. G-IM.”

2. In a distress call, immediately following the MAYDAY prefix, what information should an
aircraft next transmit, if circumstances permit:
a. The call-sign of the station addressed.
b. The position of the aircraft.
c. Aircraft type.
d. The nature of the emergency.

3. What should be the full content of a Distress call?

a. Station Addressed, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign, Position, Intention of
Person in command.
b. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, and
Intention of Person in command, Pilot Qualification, Any Other Useful Information.
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Type of Aircraft,
Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Position, Level and
Heading, Pilot Qualification (wherever possible), Any other useful information.
d. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in
command, Endurance

4. What should be the content of an Urgency call?

a. Station Addressed, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign, Position, Pilot
Qualification Intention of Person in command.
b. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, Intention of
Person in command, Any Other Useful Information
c. PAN, PAN, PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Position, Nature of Emergency,
Intention of Person in command, Endurance
d. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed (time and
circumstances permitting) , Type of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency,
Intention of Person in command, Position, Level and Heading, Pilot
Qualification (wherever possible), Any other useful information

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VFR Communication (VC)

5. In United Kingdom RT Phraseology, which of the following options is correct regarding the
wording of
radio messages relating an aircraft’s climb or descent to a HEIGHT or ALTITUDE?
a. The message should avoid all use of the word “to”.
b. The message should employ the word “to”, followed immediately by the word
HEIGHT or ALTITUDE.
c. The message should employ the word “to”, followed by the QFE or QNH
d. The message should employ the word “to”, followed immediately by the word LEVEL

6. Which of the following options best describes the purpose of a Special VFR clearance?
a. It enables a pilot to fly in the Open FIR with weather minima which are lower than for VFR
b. It enables a pilot flying VFR to cross an airway
c. It permits a pilot flying VFR to operate at his discretion within Control Zone
d. It enables a pilot flying VFR to fly in a Control Zone where normally an IFR
clearance would be required.

7. Under what circumstances would a conditional clearance be used to direct movements on

an active runway?
a. When an aircraft not equipped with a radio is landing or taking off
b. When air traffic movements are particularly dense, provided it is safe to do so
c. When all aircraft and/or vehicles included in the clearance can be seen by the
controller issuing, and the pilot receiving, the clearance, and provided that the
clearance relates to a single movement.
d. When vehicles not equipped with radio require to cross the active runway

8. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?
a. Call-sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading, Request
b. Call-sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA
c. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign
d. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign

9. Within what limits of accuracy is a VDF bearing which is passed to a pilot over the RT, and
identified as a Class B bearing?
a. + or – 5 degrees
b. + or – 3 degrees
c. + or – 10 degrees
d. + or – more than 10 degrees

10. When requesting a Special VFR clearance, in flight, what details must a pilot pass to ATC?
a. Call-sign, Altitude, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone
b. Call-sign, Type, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone.
c. Type, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone, Call-sign
d. Call-sign, Type, Intentions, ETA at entry point of Control Zone

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VFR Communication (VC)

11. Emergency procedures may be practiced using the Frequency 121.5 provided that:
a. The permission of the appropriate Control Centre has been previously obtained by
telephone
b. The permission of the ATSU with which the pilot is in contact has been previously
obtained
c. The procedure practiced does not include simulating a condition of distress
d. The procedure practiced does not include simulating either a condition of
Distress or a condition of Urgency

12. What are the three categories of aeronautical communication service?

a. Air, Land and Sea
b. Approach, Tower, Ground.
c. IFR, VFR, SVFR
d. Air Ground Communication Service, UK Flight Information Service, Air Traffic
Control.

13. When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft’s position as
a. The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading
b. A GPS position
c. A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome
d. A DME range from the station being addressed

14. Having obtained a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone (MATZ), a pilot is
requested to maintain 2,500 feet on the MATZ QFE. All references to the aircraft’s vertical
position should, from that point, be made in terms of its:
a. Altitude.
b. Height
c. Flight Level
d. Minimum Vertical Separation Distance

15. If the pilot of G-ABCD wishes to obtain a true bearing from a VDF station, the correct RTF
call to make is:
a. G-ABCD, Request QDR, G-ABCD.
b. True Bearing, True Bearing, G-ABCD, Request True Bearing, G-ABCD
c. G-ABCD, Request QDM, G-ABCD.
d. QDR, QDR, G-ABCD, Request QDR, G-ABCD
16. Which of the following is a correctly worded Conditional Clearance, using United
Kingdom phraseology?
a. Whiteknuckle 248, After the landing 737, Line up
b. Whiteknuckle 248, Line up after the landing 737
c. Oxbow 321, Report Final, One ahead.
d. Cheapo 742, Cleared for take-off, Caution Wake turbulence

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VFR Communication (VC)

17. The pilot of G-GOOD is carrying out a standard, overhead join at an unattended airfield in
the United Kingdom. Which of the following RT calls indicates that he is commencing his
descent in accordance with the standard procedure?
a. G-GOOD, Crosswind, Descending
b. G-GOOD, Overhead, Descending
c. G-GOOD, Deadside, Descending
d. G-GOOD, Right Base, Descending.

18. When requesting a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone, a pilot
should pass information to the military controller with the following content and in the
following order
a. Call-sign, Heading, Route, Present Position, Intentions
b. Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position,
Altitude or Level, Additional Details or Intentions.
c. Aircraft Type, Route, Present Position, Additional Details or Intentions, Call-sign
d. Call-sign, Altitude, Position, Intentions

19. A pilot receives the following message from ATC.

“G-HOPE, After departure cleared to zone boundary via Route Bravo, Climb to Altitude 2 500
feet, QNH
1005, Squawk 6521.”

What type of clearance is this?

a. A Take-off Clearance
b. A Conditional Clearance
c. A Departure Clearance
d. A Route Clearance

20. What should be the most correct content and order of a pilot’s reply to the ATC instruction,
“Pass Your
Message”?
a. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present
Position, Altitude or Level, Additional Details and Intention (e.g. Flight Rules, Next
Point on Route).
b. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position,
Heading, Altitude or Level, Additional Details and Intentions, Request.
c. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Position, Heading, Level, Request.
d. Aircraft Type, Route Information, Position, Heading, Level, Additional Details and
Intentions, Aircraft Call-sign

21. In his initial call to Stealthy Approach, what words should be transmitted by the pilot of
aircraft G- KEEN, if, during a cross-country flight, he requires a Flight Information
Service?
a. Stealthy Approach, Golf Kilo Echo Echo November.
b. Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Stealthy Approach
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VFR Communication (VC)
c. Stealthy Approach, Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Request Flight Information
Service.
d. Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Stealthy Approach, Request Flight Information Service

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VFR Communication (VC)

22. You discover in your pre-flight planning that the air traffic service at your destination airfield
is provided by an Aerodrome Flight Information Service Officer (AFISO). What will be the
allocated RT call-sign of the of the ground station?
a. Information.
b. Radio
c. Tower.
d. Approach

23. You discover in your pre-flight planning that the air traffic service at your destination airfield
is provided by an Air-Ground Communications Service. What will be the allocated RT call-
sign of the of the ground station?
a. Information.
b. Approach.
c. Tower
d. Radio

24. On entering United Kingdom Airspace from an adjacent region where you have not been
required to squawk a transponder code, what transponder code should you select?
a. 7000
b. 7600
c. 2000
d. You would contact the appropriate FIR to ask for a transponder code.

25. ‘SQUAWK IDENT’ means

a. Select the SSR transponder code to 7000.
b. Select the SSR transponder mode to ‘ALT’
c. say again your call-sign
d. Operate the SSR transponder ‘Special Position Identification’ feature.

26. The phrase “Squawk Charlie” means:

a. Transponder.
b. Select ‘ALT’ on the transponder.
c. Confirm the transponder is selected ON.
d. Select 7700 on the transponder.
27. From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain automated
broadcasts on aerodrome and weather information?
a. RIS
b. FIS
c. ATIS
d. AGCS

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VFR Communication (VC)

28. The frequency used for the initial transmission of a MAYDAY call should be
a. The distress frequency 121.5 MHz.
b. The frequency on which the pilot is currently receiving a service.
c. Any international distress frequency.
d. The approach frequency of the nearest airfield.

29. An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as

a. FIFTEEN HUNDRED FEET
b. WUN TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET
c. WUN FIFE HUNDRED FEET
d. WUN FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET

30. The correct pronunciation of the frequency 122.1 MHz when passed by RT is:
a. WUN TOO TOO POINT WUN
b. WUN TOO TOO DAYSEEMAL WUN
c. WUN TOO TOO DECIMAL WUN
d. WUN TWENTY WUN DECIMAL WUN

31. The word ‘ROGER’ means:

a. that is correct
b. message received and understood
c. pass your message
d. I have received all of your last transmission.

32. Which of the following is correct?

a. Runway 18 is passed as “Runway Eighteen”.
b. “With you” means that you are on frequency.
c. ROGER means I have received all of your last transmission.
d. WILCO means I have received and understood the message.

33. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

a. QDR
b. QNH
c. QTE
d. QFE

34. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

a. QGH
b. QDM
c. QNH
d. QDR

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VFR Communication (VC)

35. Your radio check is reported as ‘Readability 3’, your transmission is:
a. unreadable.
b. perfectly readable.
c. reading only half the time.
d. readable but with difficulty

36. Pilots requiring a MATZ penetration service must establish 2-way communications with the
aerodrome controlling the zone when:
a. 10 miles or 15 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner.
b. 15 miles or 10 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner.
c. 15 miles or 5 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner.
d. 10 miles or 5 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner

37. Which of these statements is true?

a. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the unit providing the
service can also give you clearance to cross the danger area.
b. VFR flights are allowed in Danger Areas only if aircraft are equipped with a
transponder fitted with Mode Charlie.
c. VFR flights are not allowed in Danger Areas under any circumstances.
d. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the unit
providing the service cannot also give you clearance to cross the danger area

38. A pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. The frequency that would normally be
used for this purpose is:
a. the frequency of the FIR in which you are flying.
b. the Radar frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.
c. the Approach frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.
d. the Tower frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact

39. What RT call would you make when you are ready to take off is?
a. Request departure.
b. Ready for takeoff.
c. Request take-off clearance.
d. Ready for departure.

40. In the United Kingdom, when operating in the vicinity of a busy aerodrome, which has a high
concentration of visual circuit traffic, what transponder code may the controller ask the pilot to
select?
a. 7700
b. 7010
c. 7600
d. 7000

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VFR Communication (VC)

41. If you wish to request a service from an Air Traffic Services Unit:
a. you must do so in your initial call.
b. you must do so after you have established two way communications with the station.
c. you must monitor the ground station frequency until you hear the ground station
giving the service you require to another aircraft.
d. as a private pilot you are not entitled to request a service.

42. A pilot may abbreviate his call-sign only:

a. after having established communication with an aeronautical ground station on the
frequency in use.
b. when he considers no confusion with another similar call-sign is likely to occur on the
frequency in use.
c. when communicating with the departure and destination airfields.
d. if it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on the frequency
in use

43. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full:
a. level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.
b. clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an
active runway; speed instructions, SSR instructions.
c. VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.
d. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports

44. On hearing a Distress message a pilot must:

a. acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further messages if
required.
b. maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is provided.
c. change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use.
d. take control of the situation and co-ordinate the efforts of all agencies in the rescue operation.

45. URGENCY is defined as a condition:

a. of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of requiring immediate
assistance.
b. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or
within sight and requiring immediate assistance.
c. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on
board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
d. requiring urgent assistance from ground stations.

46. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a. Emergency and PAN PAN.
b. Distress and Urgency.
c. MAYDAY and PAN PAN.
d. Emergency and Security

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VFR Communication (VC)

47. If making a straight-in approach, the FINAL call should be made at about:
a. 2 nm
b. 4 nm
c. 8 nm
d. 25 nm

48. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring
immediate assistance describes what category of message?
a. Distress.
b. Flight Safety.
c. Urgency.
d. Emergency

49. ‘STANDBY’ means:

a. wait and I will call you again.
b. select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.
c. hold your present position.
d. continue on present heading and listen out.

50. Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

a. CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE TAXIWAY.
b. REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1.
c. REQUEST QDM.
d. TAXY TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS

51. Which statement is correct?

a. A VHF Direction Finding message has priority over a flight safety message.
b. A meteorological message has priority over a flight safety message.
c. An urgency message is lower priority than a flight safety message.
d. A “windshear” warning has a higher priority than “cleared to take off”.

52. Altitude is defined as:

a. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,
measured from mean sea level.
b. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,
measured from another point.
c. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured
from an aircraft.
d. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured
from an airfield.

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VFR Communication (VC)

53. Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

a. Mode Alpha.
b. Mode Bravo.
c. Mode Charlie.
d. Mode Delta

54. What are the 4 categories of Flight Information Service?

a. Basic, Radar Information, Radar Advisory, Procedural
b. Basic, Normal, Collision Avoidance, Procedural
c. Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural
d. Basic, Normal, Deconfliction, Procedural

55. What is the Q-code for a magnetic bearing to a VDF station?

a. QGH
b. QDM
c. QDR
d. QTE

56. Frequency 121.725 MHz should be transmitted as:

a. ONE TWO ONEPOINTSEVENTWO
b. WUNTOOWUNDAYSEEMALSEVENTOOFIFE
c. WUNTOOWUNPOINTSEVENTOO
d. ONETWENTYONEDECIMALSEVENTWENTYFIVE

57. Certain words may be omitted from transmissions provided no confusion will result. Which
of the following underlined words must not be omitted?
a. SURFACE in relation to surface wind and direction.
b. FEET in relation to altitude or height.
c. DEGREES in relation to radar headings.
d. CLOUD in meteorological reports.

58. Loss of communications is indicated by which transponder

code? a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7400

59. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase “Transmitting blind due to receiver
failure” the
aircraft station shall also:
a. advise the time of its next intended transmission.
b. hold for 5 minutes at its present position.
c. proceed to the alternate airport.
d. enter the next en-route holding pattern.

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VFR Communication (VC)

60. Radio test transmissions should take the following form:

a. station being called, aircraft identification, words “Readability check”, frequency.
b. station being called, aircraft identification, words “radio check”, frequency being
used.
c. station being called, aircraft identification, words “How do you read?”.
d. station being called, aircraft identification, frequency, words “Do you read?”.

61. The point to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance is the:

a. limit point.
b. clearance limit.
c. no go point.
d. point of No Return.

62. Taxi instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:
a. the threshold of the runway in use.
b. the entrance to the parking area.
c. the holding point of the runway in use.
d. the holding point of an intermediate runway.

63. Which of these statements is true?

a. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state the
ground station name and suffix first and then your abbreviated call-sign.
b. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state
the ground station name and suffix first and then your full call-sign.
c. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state your full
call-sign first and then the ground station name and suffix.
d. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state your
abbreviated call-sign first and then the ground station name and suffix

64. What is the meaning of the UK term FREECALL when used by an ATSU to a pilot in flight?
a. Call (designator of unit/frequency), when you choose to do so.
b. Call (designator of unit/frequency), before contacting your destination airfield.
c. Call (designator of unit/frequency), passing what information you judge relevant to
the safe continuation of your flight.
d. Call (designator of unit/frequency) and pass your full details on first contact.

65. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out, he should use the phrase:
a. UNABLE.
b. NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION.
c. NO CAN DO.
d. CANCEL INSTRUCTION.

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VFR Communication (VC)

66. The phrase “Squawk Charlie” means:

a. Transponder.

b. Select ‘ALT’ on the transponder.

c. Confirm the transponder is selected on.

d. Select 7700 on the transponder.

67. Which of the following condition will NOT affect the radar controller’s ability to see an aircraft:

a. Being very close.

b. Being very low.

c. Being very high.

d. Being very far away.

68. In the event of radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:

a. 7700

b. 7600

c. 7500

d. 7000

69. A Blind Transmission is:

a. A transmission of information relating to the safety of air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
station or stations

b. A transmission from an aircraft to obtain VDF guidance to descend from the initial approach
altitude to a position from which an approach can be completed visually.

c. A transmission from an aeronautical station to all aircrafts on its frequency.

d. A transmission made in the circumstances where two-way communications cannot be

established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.

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VFR Communication (VC)

70. When flying in VMC an aircraft with communication failure shall continue to fly VMC and:

a. Land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC.

b. Land at the nearest suitable airfield and close the flight plan.

c. Land at the nearest suitable airfield and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.

d. Land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.

71. Loss of communication is indicated by which transponder

code? a.7700

b. 7600

c. 7500

d. 7400

72. If you suspect you have radio failure which of the following series of checks would you do first?

a. Correct frequency; correct volume; microphone plug; within radio range; check ground station is open.

b. Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; radio fuse; check ground station is open.

c. Correct frequency; correct squelch setting; headset plugs; radio fuse; check ground station is open.

d. Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; within radio range; check ground station is
open.

73.When transmitting a message preceded by the phase “Transmitting blind due to receiver failure” the

aircraft station shall also:

a. Advise the time of its next intended transmission.

b. Hold for 5 mins at its present position.

c. Proceed to the alternate airport.

d. Enter the next en-route holding pattern.

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VFR Communication (VC)

74. Urgency is defined as a condition:

a. Of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of requiring immediate assistance.

b. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within sight and
requiring immediate assistance.

c. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within
sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.

d. Requiring urgent assistance from ground stations.

75. When transmitting an Emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft’s position as:

a. The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.

b. A GPS position.

c. A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.

d. A DME range from the station being addressed.

76. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a. Emergency and PAN PAN.

b. Distress and Urgency

c. MAYDAY and PAN PAN

d. Emergency and Security

77. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
describes what category of message?

a. Distress.

b. Flight Safety.

c. Urgency

d. Emergency

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VFR Communication (VC)

78. The frequency used for the first transmission of a MAY DAY call should be:

a. The distress frequency 121.5 MHz

b. The frequency currently in use

c. Any International distress frequency

d. Approach frequency of the nearest airfield.

79. What do you say in a distress situation?

a. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY.

b. PAN

c. PAN PAN

d. MAYDAY

80. On hearing a distress message a pilot must:

a. Acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further messages if required.

b. Maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is provided.

c. Change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use.

d. Take control of the situation and co-ordinate the efforts of all agencies in the rescue operations.

81. A pilot who has already established communication with a civil or military ATSU should in the event
of being confronted with an emergency:

a. Make a distress call on the frequency in use and maintain the allocated SSR code.

b. Make a MAYDAY call on 121.5 MHz.

c. Select 7700 on the SSR and change to 121.5 MHz.

d. Squawk Ident.

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VFR Communication (VC)

82. What should be the full content of a Distress call?

a. Station addressed, MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY, Call Sign, Position, Intention of Person in command.

b. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in
command, Pilot Qualification, Any Other Useful Information.

c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Endurance.

d. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call sign of Station Addressed, Identification of Aircraft, Nature
of Emergency, Intention of Person in Command, Position, Level and Heading, Any other useful
information.

83. What should be the content of an Urgency call?

a. Station addressed, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call sign, Position, Pilot qualification, Intention
of Person in command.

b. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call sign of station addressed (time and circumstances
permitting), Type of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command,
Endurance.

c. PAN, PAN, PAN Call sign of Station Addressed, Position, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in
command, Endurance.

d. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in

command, Any other useful information.

84. The opening words of an urgency message are:

a. Emergency

b. Mayday, Mayday, Mayday.

c. Pan, Pan, Pan

d. Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan.

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85.In a Distress call immediately following the MAYDAY prefix, what information should an

aircraft next transmit, if circumstances permit:

a. The call-sign of the station addressed.

b. The position of the aircraft.

c. Aircraft type.

d. The nature of the emergency.

86. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

a. QDR

b. QNH

c. QTE

d. QFE

87.The correct pronunciation for the number 3500 when used to pass Altitude, height, cloud height or

visibility by radio telephony is:

a. TREE FIFE ZERO ZERO

b. TREE TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED.

c. THREE THOSNAD FIVE HUNDRED.

d. TREE FIFE HUNDRED.

88. The correct pronunciation of the frequency 122.1MHz when passed by RT is:

a. WUN TOO TOO POINT WUN.

b. WUN TOO TOO DAYSEEMAL WUN.

c. WUN TOO TOO DECIMAL WUN.

d. WUN TWENTY WUN DECIMAL WUN.

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89. Which of the following is correct?

a. Runway 18 is passed as “Runway Eighteen”.

b. “With you” means that you are on frequency.

c. ROGER means I have received all of your last transmission.

d. WILCO means I have received and understood the message.

90. Using the readability scale, readability 5 means:

a. Readable now and then.

b. Unreadable

c. Readable with difficulty.

d. Perfectly readable.

91. What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean?

a. Pass me the following information...

b. Yes

c. Proceed with your message

d. Taxi on

92. What does the phrase "Roger" mean?

a. A direct answer in the affirmative

b. A direct answer in the negative

c. Cleared for take-off or cleared to land

d. I have received all of your last transmission

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93. Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ?

a. Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder

b. Permission granted for action proposed

c. Wait and I will call you

d. Continue on present heading and listen out

94. What does the phrase "Read back" mean?

a. Did you correctly receive this message?

b. Check and confirm with originator

c. Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received

d. Let me know that you have received and understood this message

95. What does the phrase "Verify" mean?

a. Check and confirm with originator

b. Repeat your last transmission

c. Read back VDF bearing

d. Consider that transmission as not sent

96. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."?

a. Request

b. Report

c. Acknowledge

d. Confirm

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97. When shall the phrase "Take-off" be used by a pilot :

a. Never, it is used only by the control tower

b. To inform TOWER when ready for departure

c. Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway

d. To acknowledge take-off clearance only

98. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off?

a. Ready for take-off

b. Ready to line-up

c. Ready to go

d. Ready for departure or ready

99. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off maneuver?

a. Cancelling take-off

b. Stopping

c. Abandoning take-off

d. Aborting take-off

100. Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: "Consider that
transmission as not
sent"?

a. My last transmission is cancelled

b. Disregard

c. Cancel my last message

d. Forget it

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101. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I understand your message and will comply with it":

a. Roger

b. Will comply with your instruction

c. OK, will do it

d. Wilco

102. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes":

a. Yes

b. Roger

c. Affirmative

d. Affirm

103. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...":

a. Report

b. Request

c. Say again

d. Check

104. Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly?

a. That is right

b. Affirm

c. That is affirmative

d. Correct

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105. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this transmission (or message
indicated). The correct version is ...":

a. QNH 1017, negative 1016

b. QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

c. QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016

d. QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016

106. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service:

a. CONTROL

b. AERODROME

c. APRON

d. TOWER

107. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service:

a. FLIGHT CENTRE

b. CONTROL

c. INFORMATION

d. FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE

108. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of
aircraft on the manoeuvring area:

a. CONTROL

b. GROUND

c. APPROACH

d. TOWER

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109. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control (no radar
service) ?

a. ARRIVAL

b. RADAR

c. CONTROL

d. APPROACH

110. When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be
omitted ?

a. Never

b. Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign

c. In dense traffic during rush hours

d. When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do so

111. Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct?

a. ABC

b. BC

c. X-BC

d. XY-BC

96. Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct?

a. Cherokee BC

b. Cherokee XY-BC

c. Cherokee X-BC

d. Cherokee X-ABC

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112. When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ?

a. Only after satisfactory communication has been established

b. Provided no confusion is likely to result

c. In dense traffic

d. After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station

113. How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?

a. TOWER XY-ABC

b. Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC

c. Stephenville TOWER X-BC

d. Stephenville XY-ABC

114. On the readability scale what does "Readability 3" means:

a. Loud and clear

b. Unreadable

c. Readable but with difficulty

d. No problem to understand

115. An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it
will follow this instruction ?

a. Roger

b. Will stop before

c. Wilco

d. Holding short

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Questionnaire