Republic of the Philippines

PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Manila

BOARD OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY

Medical Technology Licensure Examination

Microbiology
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

1. Which is NOT a common instrument/system in the Microbiology

Laboratory?
a. Advance Expert System c. PCR
b. BacT Alert d. VITEK 2

2. This produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and

club-shaped with smooth walls
a. Fonsecaea pedrosoi c. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Microsporum audouinii d. Epidermophyton floccosum

3. Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida albicans

through the organism’s production of:
a. Chlamydospore c. Germ tube
b. Urease d. Inositol

4. This presumptive test for Candida uses serum.

a. Germ tube test c. Hair perforation test
b. Latex agglutination d. Chlamydospore tes
5. Used to demonstrate of the encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus
neoformans in wet preparations:
a. Methylene blue c. Malachite green
b. India ink d. Safranin

6. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis?

a. Flowerette conidia c. Sclerotic body
b. Asteroid body d. Germ tube

7. Rose gardener’s disease:

a. Sporotrichosis c. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis d. Blastomycosis

8. Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?

a. Urease medium c. Czapek’s agar
b. Rice agar d. Blood agar

9. Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in

sputum?
a. Paragonimus westermani c. Taenia saginata
b. Entamoeba histolytica d. Ascaris lumbricoides

10. The following are techniques used for detection of parasitic

infection and their corresponding causative agent. Which of
the following is correctly matched?
a. Harada Mori: Capillaria philippinensis
b. Xenodiagnosis: Leishmania
c. Knott’s Technique: Microfilariae
d. Cellotape Method: Trichuris trichiura
11. Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius
vermicularis includes collecting:
a. A 24-hour urine collection
b. A first morning stool with proper preservative
c. Capillary blood
d. Perianal scotch tape preparation

12. Heart-lung migration except:

a. Roundworm c. Hookworm
b. Whipworm d. Seatworm

13. Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the adult form of:

a. Paragonimus westermani c. Taenia saginata
b. Echinococcus granulosus d. Spirometra

14. Second intermediate host of Paragonimus westermani:

a. Snail c. Freshwater crab
b. Fish d. Vegetation

15. What is a schistosomule?

a. Cercaria minus a tail c. Metacercaria
b. Cercaria minus a head d. Cercaria with a tail

16. The third Taenia spp.:

a. T. asiatica c. T. taeniaeformis
b. T. crassiceps d. T. saginata

17. The definitive host to Plasmodium is the:

a. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
c. Mosquito (Female Anopheles)
d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma)
18. Plasmodium species which ruptures after 72 hours.
a. P. ovale c. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax d. P. malariae

19. What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?

a. Amastigote c. Promastigote
b. Trypomastigote d. Sporozoites

20. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using:

a. Monkey kidney cells c. Human embryonic fibroblasts
b. A549 cells d. Embryonated hen’s eggs

21. It is the smallest RNA virus:

a. Enterovirus c. Cytomegalovirus
b. Picornavirus d. Togavirus

22. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by:

a. Size c. Ribonuclease treatment
b. Ether stability d. Acid resistance

23. A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of

organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called:
a. Enriched c. Selective
b. Differential d. Transport

24. Which of the following is a suitable transport medium for

bacteria and virus?
a. Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP)
b. Hank’s balanced salt solution
c. Eagles minimum essential medium
d. Stuart’s medium
25. Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:
a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
b. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
c. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas
d. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

26. Prosthetic heart valve endocarditis is most commonly caused

by this staphylococcal species:
a. S. aureus c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis d. S. pyogenes

27. Which Staphylococcus spp. is resistant to 5 µg novobiocin?

a. S. aureus c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis d. S. pyogenes

28. In the β-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method, which

indicates a positive reaction?
a. Production of acid c. Color change
b. Reduction of nitrates d. Turbidity

29. The following are DNase positive, except:

a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Serratia marcescens

30. For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of group A beta-

hemolytic streptococci, how many units of bacitracin is used?
a. 10.00 c. 5.00
b. 0.02 - 0.04 d. 1.00 – 2.00
31. Characteristically, species from the genus Enterococcus are:
a. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl
b. Bile esculin positive
c. Relatively sensitive to penicillin
d. Sodium hippurate negative

32. A positive Quellung test is:

a. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
b. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction
c. Visible only by fluorescent light
d. Oxidation but not fermentation

33. A medical technologist cultured a specimen from a suspected

cystic fibrosis patient. After 24 hours of incubation, the MT
noticed colonies which were spreading and flat, with serrated
edges and a metallic sheen. There was a characteristic corn
taco-like odor. Identify the bacteria.
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Escherichia coli d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

34. Serratia strains are readily differentiated from Klebsiella

on the basis of their:
a. Failure to produce gas from inositol
b. Slowness and reluctance to ferment lactose
c. Rapid gelatin liquefaction
d. All of the above

35. Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture

of:
a. Stool c. Bone marrow
b. Urine d. Blood
36. Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following
for cultures of Haemophilus?
a. III Factor c. X Factor
b. I Factor d. V Factor

37. String test is used for the diagnosis of which bacteria?

a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Campylobacter jejuni

38. Which diphtheroid has the same morphology as Corynebacterium

diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)?
a. C. ulcerans c. jeikeium
b. C. minutissimum d. urealyticum

39. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from

Mycobacterium bovis by:
a. Growth rate
b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
d. Catalase test at 68°C

40. Woolsorter’s disease is caused by the __________ form of

anthrax.
a. Gastrointestinal c. Pulmonary
b. Cutaneous d. Urinary

41. Acridine orange for fungal elements:

a. Fluorescent green c. Purple
b. Red d. Doesn’t stain
42. Acridine Orange is used to stain:
a. Cell wall c. Nuclei
b. Mitochondria d. Flagella

43. Color of C. diphteriae in Potassium tellurite

a. Green c. Red
b. Gray-black d. Brown

44. Enrichment of Enterobacteriaceae

a. extend lag phase of normal flora
b. extend lag phase of pathogen
c. decrease lag phase of normal flora
d. decrease lag phase of pathogen

45. H. influenzae needs:

a. X factor c. Both
b. V factor d. Neither

46. P. aeruginosa:
a. grows at 35C & 42 C c. grows only at 42C
b. grows at 35C but not at 42C d. does not grow at 35C & 42C

47. MR/VP of E. coli:

a. Green c. Pink
b. Red d. Blue

48. In water bacteriology, the following are used as confirmatory

test media except:
a. Lactose broth
b. Endo agar
c. Eosin methylene blue agar
d. Brilliant green lactose broth
49. Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal
“lollipop” spores?
a. Clostridium tetani c. Clostridium butyricum
b. Eubacterium lentum d. Bacteroides ureolyticus

50. Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
b. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
c. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas
d. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
 KEY TO CORRECTION
1. C 11. D 21. A 31. B 41. A
2. D 12. D 22. D 32. B 42. C
3. A 13. D 23. B 33. D 43. D
4. A 14. C 24. D 34. D 44. B
5. B 15. A 25. A 35. C 45. C
6. C 16. A 26. B 36. D 46. A
7. A 17. C 27. C 37. C 47. B
8. C 18. D 28. C 38. A 48. A
9. D 19. C 29. B 38. B 49. A
10. C 20. C 30. B 40. C 50. A