SỞ GD&ĐT THANH HÓA ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG

TRƯỜNG THPT VĨNH LỘC HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG

KHỐI 11 - MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2023 - 2024
(Đề có 07 trang) Ngày thi: 04/4/2024
(Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian
phát đề)
Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... Mã đề: 108
Số báo danh: .........................................................................

SECTION A: LISTENING (15pts)

Part 1: Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions
from 1 to 5. (5pts)
1. What is the main topic of the conversation?
A. problems with living in an apartment
B. a search for a new apartment
C. the cost of rent near universities
2. Why doesn't Ann like her current apartment?
A. It's too expensive.
B. The neighborhood is noisy.
C. It's located some distance from school.
3. How much money does Ann want to pay for rent?
A. no more than $200 B. around $200 C. a little more than $200
4. What kind of place is she looking for?
A. somewhere that is within a short driving distance of campus
B. an apartment with furniture already in it
C. a place where she can live alone
5. How is Roger going to help her?
A. He is planning on calling a friend who owns an apartment building.
B. He will check the newspapers to see if he can find an apartment for rent.
C. He is going to visit an apartment building near his place.

Part 2: You will hear a university lecturer talk to his students. Listen to the recording twice
then choose A, B, C or D to best answer the questions from 5 to 10. (5pts)
Question 6. The speaker says students can visit her _______.
A. every morning. B. some mornings.
C. mornings only. D. Friday morning.
Question 7. According to the speaker, a tutorial _______________.
A. is a type of lecture. B. is less important than a lecture.
C. provides a chance to share views. D. provides an alternative to groupwork.
Question 8. When writing essays, the speaker advises the students to _________.
A. research their work well. B. name the books they have read.
C. share work with their friends. D. avoid using other writers’ ideas.
Question 9. The speaker thinks that plagiarism is ________.
A. a common problem. B. an acceptable risk.
C. a minor concern. D. a serious offence.
Question 10. The speaker’s aims are to _________.

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 A. introduce students to university expectations. B. introduce students to the members
of staff.
C. warn students about the difficulties of studying. D. guide students round the
university

Part 3: Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B, C or D to best answer the questions
from 11 to 15. (5pts)
Question 11. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in
applications from international students this year?
A. seven percents B. eight percents C. nine percents D. ten percents
Question 12. When is the increase the same as?
A. two years ago B. three years ago C. four years ago D. five years ago
Question 13. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s
and doctoral programs this fall?
A. China B. China, Mexico
C. Mexico and Brazil D. China, Mexico and Brazil
Question 14. Which is the top area of study for international students?
A. Engineering B. Business C. Physical D. Earth sciences
Question 15. Who made the survey?
A. South Korea B. The Council of Graduate Schools C. India D. Brazil

SECTION B: PHONETIC (5 pts)

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions . (3pts)
Question 16: A. suggestion B. congestion C. digestion D. devotion
Question 17: A. blessed B. Minced C. wicked D. wretched
Question 18: A. Inflation B. danger C. angle D. angel

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the same
line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet . (2pts)
Question 19: A. A.mineral B.property C.introduce
D.honesty
Question 20: A. interviewer B. encouragement C. acknowledge D. interpreter

SECTION C: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR. (25 pts)

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.
Question 21: He must be a very intelligent student,__________?
A. isn’t he B. musn’t he C. does he D. needn’t he
Question 22. ____________ photographs of the place, I had no desire to go there.
A. Have seen B. Seeing C. Having seen D. To have seen
Question 23: It turned out that we ________ rushed to the airport as the flight was delayed
by several hours.
A. needn’t have B. shouldn’t have C. mustn’t have D. hadn’t
Question 24: _______ be impolite to our parents.
A. Not in any circumstances should we B. In any circumstances shouldn’t we
C. In no circumstances should we D. No circumstances should we not
Question 25: The Red Cross is an international aid organization.
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 A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsically D. intrepidly
Question 26: The soccer fans _______ their patriotism, waving flags and singing songs.
A. indulged B. favoured C. sacrificed D. yearned
Question 27: It’s time we had a talk with each other in an effort to clear the air.
A. heart to heart B. eye to eye C. face to face D. cheek to cheek
Question 28: I need to your offer very carefully before I make a decision.
A. look over B. see out C. figure out D. mull over
Question 29: ____ being the CEO of Microsoft, Bill Gates is also one of the world’s
greatest philanthropists.
A. Aside from B. But for C. Except for D. In addition
Question 30: Southern Europe is experiencing a high “brain_______” these days because of
the lack of economic prospects.
A. losing B. lacking C. drain D. rain
Question 31: Richard started the race well but ran out of _______ in the later stages.
A. power B. steam C. force D. effort
Question 32: is a general category that includes all mental states and activities.
A.What do psychologists call cognition B. Psychologists call it cognition
C.What psychologists call cognition D. Cognition, as it called by psychologists, which
Question 33: She says that he swept her off her _________, and they were married six
months later.
A. foot B. shoulders C. eyes D. feet

II. Read the following advertisement/announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on

your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered
blanks from 34 to 39.
Arlsborough Antiques
6783 Corwin Road, Arlsborough
TEL: 555-3756
Arlsborough Antiques has been in the business of buying and selling antiques
(34)______more than twenty years. If you are looking for that rare, special item, to
transform any room in your house, look no further. Our shop specializes in cabinets,
desks, tables, mirrors, carpets and other furnishings, mainly from (35)_____
Mediterranean Europe.
What makes our shop different from others is the wide variety of merchandise we carry.
The antique buyers on our staff are steadfast in their search for the finest quality pieces,
which is why almost all of our items are in excellent (36)________. Visit our showroom
at the intersection of Cork Road and Hill Street, and discover for yourself our ever-
changing selection of rare and extraordinary antiques.

Question 34: A. on B. at C. for D. with

Question 35: A. the B. a C. an D. Ø (no article)
Question 36: A. creation B. condition C. situation D. position

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 Platform announcement
This is a platform announcement for (37)________ for the 12:20 service to Bristol
Temple Meads. This train (38)________ by approximately 8 minutes. The train will
now depart from Platform 9. Passengers for the 12:20 train to Bristol, please make
your way to Platform 9.
(39)________ you be interested in receiving real-time alerts and updates, you should
reach out for contact information. Don't let delays catch you off guard - stay
connected with us!

Question 37: A. listeners B. speakers C. Passengers D.

players
Question 38: A. is delayed B. delaying C. delays D.
has delayed
Question 39: A. Should B. Had C. Were D. Do

III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 40 to 45.
The Belize Barrier Reef is a series of coral reefs (40)_________of Belize, roughly 300
metres offshore in the north and 40 kilometres in the south within the country limits. The
Belize Barrier Reef is a 300-kilometre long section of the 900-kilometre Mesoamerican
Barrier Reef System, (41)______________on the north-eastern tip of the Yucatán Peninsula
through the Riviera Maya and down to Honduras, making it (42)______________ in the
world after the Great Barrier Reef in Australia. It is Belize's top tourist destination, popular
(43)_______________ and attracting almost half of its 260,000 visitors. It is also vital to the
country's fishing industry.
(44)______________, it also boasts three distinct Caribbean atolls: Turneffe Atoll, Glover's
Reef and Lighthouse Reef. Lighthouse Reef is the most easterly diving area in Belize,
(45)_________ the Great Blue Hole, made famous by Jacques Cousteau in 1970; Turneffe
Atoll lies directly to the east of Belize City and is the nearest of the atolls to that city.
(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Belize_Barrier_Reef)
Question 40.
A. the most straddling the coast B. which straddling the coast
C. which straddling with the coast D. straddling the coast
Question 41.
A. which is continuous from Cancún B. which is continuously from Cancún
C. which continuous from Cancún D. continuous from Cancún
Question 42.
A. the best second largest coral reef system B. the second largest coral reef systems
C. the second most largest coral reef system D. the second largest coral reef system
Question 43.
A. with scuba diving and snorkel B. for scuba diving and snorkeling
C. with scuba dive and snorkeling D. for scuba dive and snorkeling
Question 44.
A. In addition to its barrier reef B. In additions its barrier reef
C. addition to more its barrier reef D. Addition to the its barrier reef
Question 45.
A. it is home to B. it is a home of C. there is home for D. its home
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 SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each
space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
Peoples' personalities vary considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our
ingrained characteristics which determine the patterns of our behaviour, our reactions and
temperaments are unparalleled on (46) ________of the diversified processes that mould our
personality in the earliest (47) ________of human development.
Some (48) ________ of character may to some extent be hereditary simulating the
attributes that (49) ________ our parents. Others may (50) ________ from the conditions
experienced during pregnancy and infancy in this way reflecting the parents' approach
towards (51) ________ their offspring.
Consequently, the environmental factor (52) ________a crucial role in strengthening or
eliminating certain behavioural systems making an individual more prone to (53) ________
to the patterns that deserve a prize.
Undoubtedly, human personality(54) ________ the most profound and irreversible
formation during the first period of its development, yet, certain characteristics may still be
(55) ________ to considerable changes conditioned by different circumstances and
situations.
Question 46: A. account B. means C. token D. event
Question 47: A. states B. instants C. terms D. stages
Question 48: A .factors B. traits C. items D. breeds
Question 49: A. identify B. recognize C. associate D. pertain
Question 50: A. rise B. relate C. stem D.
formulate
Question 51: A. breeding B. rearing C. growing D.
yielding
Question 52: A. makes B. does C. finds D. plays
Question 53: A. comfort B. pledge C. aquiesce D. obey
Question 54: A .undergoes B. undertakes C. underacts D.
underlies
Question 55: A. practicable B. feasible C. subject D.
potential

II. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (7pts)
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based
entirely on how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance.
Undoubtedly, it’s what’s inside that’s important but sometimes we can send out the wrong
signals and so get a negative reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who
you’re likely to meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks
you are likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more
appropriate to different sorts of activity and this will dictate your choice to an extent.
However, there’s no need to abandon your individual taste completely. After all, if you
dress to please somebody else’s idea of what looks good, you may end up feeling
uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colors bring your natural coloring to life and others can give you a washed-out
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appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours
when you really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and
uncomfortable. You know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to
cross these sometimes, but do take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn’t selfish because everyone who comes into contact with
you will benefit. You’ll look better and you’ll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt,
you only need to read Professor Albert Mehrabian’s book Silent Messages, which showed
that the impact we make on each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38
percent on how we speak, and only seven percent on what we actually say.
(Trích mã đề 404- Đề thi THPTQG 2018)
Question 56: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Making Your Image Work for You B. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
C. Making Judgments about People’s Appearance D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 57: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others
by…….
A. wearing inappropriate clothes B. expressing too strong emotions
C. sending out right signals D. talking about other people’s behaviors
Question 58: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means__________.
A. types of gestures B. sets of equipment C. sets of clothes D. types of signals
Question 59: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in B. Kinds of tasks you perform
C. Other people’s views on beauty D. People you meet
Question 60: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. taste boundaries B. colors C. means D. neutral tones
Question 61: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.
A. reconsidering B. reapplying C. reminding D. recalling
Question 62: According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on___________.
A. how we look and behave B. what we read C. what we actually
say D. how we speak’

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (8pts)
E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other
electronic equipment become obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little
choice but to buy newer ones to keep up. Millions of tons of computers, TVs, smartphones,
and other equipment are discarded each year. In most countries, all this waste ends up in
landfills, where it poisons the environment – e-waste contains many toxic substances such
as lead, mercury, and arsenic that leak into the ground.
Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts
of valuable metals like gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling
gold from old computers is more efficient – and less environmentally destructive – than
digging it from the earth. The problem is that a large percentage of e-waste dropped off for
recycling in wealthy countries is sold and diverted to the developing world, posing an
increasing threat to the health of the people there.
To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the
1989 Basel Convention, an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing
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nations of hazardous waste shipments coming into their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel
Convention was modified to ban hazardous waste shipments to poor countries completely.
Although the ban hasn’t taken effect, the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is
well developed, has nearly written it into their laws. One law holds manufacturers
responsible for the safe disposal of electronics they produce.
Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit
from clean e-waste recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine
able to separate electronic products into their component materials. As the machine’ steel
teeth break up e – waste, all the toxic dust is removed from the process. This machine can
handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year.
Although this is only a fraction of the total, it wouldn’t take many more machines like
this to process the entire USA’s output of high-tech trash.
Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not
compulsory, and while shipping waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more
profitable than processing it safely in the USA. Creative Recycling Systems is hoping that
the US government will soon create laws deterring people from sending e-waste oversea.
(Source:Toefl Reading Comprehension 4)
Question 63: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons
C. E-waste – An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste – A Mess to Clear up
Question 64: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. broken B. outdated C. incomplete D. inaccurate
Question 65: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in
the developed countries _________.
A. is enventually sent to developing nations B. is later recycled in local factories
C. contains all valuable metals except gold D. is buried deep in the soil at landfills
Question 66: The word “notify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assure B. inform C. excuse D. notice
Question 67: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. recycling infrastructure B. the Basel Convention C. the ban D. the european
Union
Question 68: According to the European Union’s laws, electronic manufacturers are
required to ___.
A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly B. sell their e-waste to developed
nations only
C. take responsibiblity for disposing of their products safely D. sign the Basel
Convention
Question 69: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Shipping e-waste abroad yields greater profit than recycling it safely in the USA.
B. The USA’ total e-waste output amounts to 70,000 tons per year.
C. Creative Recycling Systems has made a fortune from their recycling machine.
D. The Basel Convention originally banned the import if high-tech trash into European
countries.
Question 70: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Legislative action is fundamental to solving the problem of e-waste effectively.
B. Developing nations benefit more from the trade in e-waste than their developed
counterparts.
C. Strict laws against sending e-waste abroad have recently been upheld in Florida.
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 D. Most countries have made enormous efforts to manage their e-waste exports.
PART E. WRITING (30 points)
II. Essay-writing: (20 pts)
“Some people say that English should be a compulsory subject in the high school
graduation exam. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?”
In an essay of about 250 - 300 words, give the reasons for your answer and include in your
writing any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.

SECTION 1: LISTENING (20 points)

I. You will hear a radio interview with a man who works on an international camp. Choose
A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the space
provided. (10 points)
1. If you want to apply for the Camp, you must ______.
A. be a student B. be at least twenty-four years old
C. speak more than one language D. be an emloyee
2. In a Camp tent, you can expect to ______.
A. mix with other nationalities B. share with five other people
C. know the other people D. write diaries
3. What do you have to take to the Camp?
A. A tent. B. A map. C. Pictures. D. Cellphones.
4. As a Camp member, you should ______.
A. be a good singer B. join in performances
C. be good at acting D. have experience in camping
5. The Camp fees must be paid ______.
A. in dollars B. by cheques
C. before the Camp starts D. during the Camp
Write your answers here:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
II. You will hear a student union representative talking to some new students. Listen and
complete the table with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for
each blank. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
PLACE CAPACITY REGULAR MENU COST
Main Refectory 500 vegetarian, fish, (7)________- £3
Hall (6)________
Open: 11.30 - 2.30
Arts Building Café (8)________ tea, coffee, hot chocolate, £1.15
Open: 9 - 6 sandwiches
(9)________ tea, coffee, (10)________ £1.30
Open: 10 - 4
Write your answers here:
6. 7. 8.
9. 10.
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SECTION 2: PHONETICS (10 points)
III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by
writing your answers A, B, C, or D in the space provided. (6 points)
1. A. artisan B. residence C. pedestrian D. president
2. A. meteor B. faucet C. decline D. basket
3. A. influenced B. relaxed C. focused D. sunbathed
IV. Choose the word whose primary stress is different from that of the others by writing A,
B, C, or D in the space provided. (4 points)
4. A. asset B. cassette C. lettuce D. hostel
5. A. versatile B. celery C. prestigious D. marinate
Write your answers here:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
SECTION 3: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (70 points)
V. Choose the best answer to complete each of the sentences by writing A, B, C, or D in the
space provided. (60 points)
1. Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the
International Convention, ______.
A. the member applauded him B. he gave a short acceptance speech
C. a speech had to be given by him D. the remember congratulated him
2. ______ more water than the ground can absorb, the excess water flows to the lowest
level, carrying loose material.
A. Any area receiving B. When might any area receive
C. Whenever any area receives D. If any area is receiving
3. As far as orchids are concerned, the most experienced person is undoubtedly Miss Ito.
She appears ______ all the relevant articles in special journals.
A. to read B. having read C. to have read D. reading
4. It is desirable that the hotel manager ______ to call the maintenance staff every 6 months
to clean up the air conditioners.
A. remember B. will remember C. must remember D. remembers
5. After a number of incidents with the police, we decided to close down the club. But now I
think that maybe we ______ it open.
A. should be keeping B. should have kept C. must have kept D. must be keeping
6. As we were in an urgent need of syringes and other medical equipment, the aid
organization promised to deliver them ______ the double.
A. with B. in C. at D. round
7. He was so mean that he couldn’t bear to ______ the smallest sum of money for the
charity appeal.
A. pay off B. part with C. give in D. let out
8. ______ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
A. What the woman was B. The woman was C. What was the
woman D. That the woman was
9. ______, he gained lots of experience in teamwork skills.
A. Having lived abroad for years C. Live abroad for years
B. In order to live abroad for years D. To live abroad for years
10.______ Keith made in his attempt to catch the dog that he strained his back.
A. Such a great effort B. Such was the effort C. So was the effort that D. So great
effort
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11. The student was ______ of understanding the theory even after the
professor’s profound explanation.
A. incompetent B. incapable C. helpless D. unsuccessful
12.As a pianist his ______ is brilliant, but I don’t care much for his interpretation.
A. technique B. mastery C. technology D. attitude
13.I left the company by ______, not because I was forced to.
A. choice B. option C. selection D. preference
14.The woman was in a ______ emotional state after hearing of her son’s accident.
A. doubtfully B. greatly C. largely D. highly
15.His theory ______ some interesting questions for the scientific community.
A. assumes B. poses C. proposes D. faces
16.My sunburnt nose made me feel rather ______ for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-conscious B. self-confident C. self-evident D. self-centred
17. Growing ______ are something many businesses experience when competition heats up.
A. failures B. hurts C. troubles D. pains
18.A ______ of locusts ate all the wheat in the field.
A. flock B. swarm C. herd D. pack
19.There was a(n) ______ of violence when the concert organisers told ticket holders they
would have to pay again to get their tickets validated.
A. setting B. epidemic C. attack D. outbreak
20.In any case, unfortunately, there is a ______ chance of finding alternative employment in
this despoiled area, which to an untutored eye looks rich in natural assets.
A. big B. fat C. good D. huge
21.Once people have given up their heritage, traditional beliefs, and other aspects of their
native culture, they are about to lose their sense of ______.
A. humor B. responsibility C. self D. honesty
22. It’s important to try to spend plenty of ______ time with your family.
A. benefit B. value C. quality D. merit
23. Janny was left to carry the ______ when the project ended in failure although she didn’t
have to take any responsibility for this project.
A. bucket B. bag C. tray D. can
24. The performance in the National Theatre really brought the ______ down last night. The
actors were given a standing ovation.
A. stage B. house C. hall D. world
25. Tooth decay can be kept at ______ by fluoride toothpaste and good dentistry.
A. gulf B. sea C. lake D. bay
26. He paid too much for expensive items without thinking about it. He spent money like
______ and I wonder where he got it all from.
A. paper B. waste C. water D. air
27. His company went bankrupt and not much later his wife walked out on him. However
he managed to ______ and make a fresh start in his life is a mystery to me.
A. kill two birds with one stone B. put the cat among the pigeons
C. take the bull by the horns D. get out of the rat race
* Write your answer A, B, C, or D in the space provided to indicate the word CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence.

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28. The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable therefore she must
be punished for what she did.
A. respectable B. satisfactory C. unacceptable D. mischievous
* Write your answer A, B, C, or D in the space provided to indicate the words OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined words in the following sentence.
29. She’s decided to make a fresh start and regards all her old problems as water under the
bridge.
A. worth looking at B. worth worrying about
C. happening for a long time D. unlikely to be changed
* Write your answer A, B, C, or D in the space provided to indicate the sentence that
best completes the following exchange.
30. Anne and Jim are talking about the preparation for her birthday.
- Anne: “What are you going to get me for my birthday?”
- Jim: “______”
A. Hang on, give me a moment. B. Oh, congratulations!
C. Never you mind. Wait and see! D. In your dreams!
VI. Identify the mistake in each sentence by writing your answers A, B, C, or D in the
space provided. (10 points)
31. According to many economists, international specialisation in the production of some
goods, such as cars and computers, increase world efficiency and output, making all
nations richer.
A. According to B. specialisation C. increase D. making
32. It’s a great complement to be asked to do the job that we always dreamed of when we
were at university.
A. a B. complement C. to do D. dreamed of
33. The villagers are highly appreciable of the volunteers’ efforts in reconstructing their
houses after the devastating storm.
A. highly appreciable B. volunteers’ efforts C. reconstructing D. devastating
34. Police sealed off the town-centre for two hours meanwhile they searched for the bomb.
A. off B. for C. meanwhile D. searched
35. The warm weather of the last week has given way to colder conditions in the last two
days, putting the weekend prospects on the balance.
A. The B. has given way C. putting D. on the balance
Write your answers here:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
SECTION 4: READING (60 points)
VII. Read the following passage and write your answers A, B, C, or D in the space provided
to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. (20 points)
“HOMEWORK AT ROOT OF MANY FAMILY ARGUMENTS”
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Homework can cause friction between parents and children, especially in middle-class
families (1)______ concerns about a child’s future can lead to a climate of pressure to
succeed, according to a recent report. Homework can also create anxiety, boredom, fatigue
and emotional exhaustion in children, who resent the encroachment on their free time,
(2)______ they think homework helps them do well at school.
The resulting (3)______ to the parent-child relationship may (4)______ any educational
advantage homework may (5)______, the Institute claimed. The report found that problems
can (6)______ when parents try to help with homework, especially when they feel they
(7)______ the knowledge or the time. Parents may (8)______ their children’s effectiveness
in doing homework by trying to control the homework environment – telling children when
and where to do homework or trying to eliminate distractions – instead of helping them
adapt it to (9)______ their learning styles, the body said.
On the plus side, parental (10)______ in homework has been shown to be the strongest
predictor of better grades, the report said. Report author Dr Susan Hallam said: “Parents
have the most positive influence when they offer moral support, make appropriate resources
available and discuss general issues. They should only actually help with homework when
their children specifically ask them to.”
1. A. which B. where C. who D. whom
2. A. meanwhile B. although C. supposing D. if
3. A. damage B. injury C. destruction D. detriment
4. A. exceed B. overbalance C. outweigh D. compensate
5. A. bring B. take C. make D. gain
6. A. proceed B. derive C. rise D. arise
7. A. go without B. miss C. lack D. are deprived of
8. A. interfere B. interrupt C. indicate D. inhibit
9. A. satisfy B. suit C. match D. fulfil
10. A. involvement B. contribution C. collaboration D. connection
Write your answers here:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
VIII. Read the following passage and write your answers A, B, C, or D in the space
provided to indicate the correct answers to each of the questions. (20 points)
We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin
- a behavioral biologist - describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does
not give sleeping the importance it deserves.
Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops
and services must be available at all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to,
and more time getting to work. Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round
the clock and late-night TV and the Internet tempt us away from our beds. When we need
more time for work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The average adult sleeps
only 6.2 hours a night during the week, whereas research shows that most people need eight
or even eight and a half hours’ sleep to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got
used to sleeping less than they need and they live in an almost permanent state of sleep debt.
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879, our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the
hours of daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays
our hours of sleep are mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most
people are woken up artificially by an alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world’s most
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popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of the world’s population habitually consume
caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as
humans, it also reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for
society in general. Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially
when they are on “night call”, and may get less than three hours’ sleep. Lack of sleep can
seriously impair their mood, judgment, and ability to take decisions. Tired engineers, in the
early hours of the morning, made a series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our
roads and motorways, lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests show that a
tired driver can be just as dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is
against the law but driving when exhausted isn’t. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that
we admire people who function on very little sleep instead of criticizing them for being
irresponsible. Our world would be a much safer, happier place if everyone, whatever their
job, slept eight hours a night.
11. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. An Alarming Rise in Sleepless People B. Sleep Deprivation: Causes and Effects
C. A Society of Sleepless People D. Sleep Deprivation: Symptoms and
Solutions
12. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul
Martin?
A. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
B. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
C. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
D. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
13. The phrase round the clock in the second paragraph is similar in meaning to ______.
A. having a round clock B. surrounded with clocks C. during the
daytime D. all day and night
14. The word it in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. society B. importance C. sleeping D. book
15. The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as ______.
A. an easy solution to sleep deprivation B. a temptation that prevents us from
sleeping
C. an ineffective means of communication D. a factor that is not related to sleep
deprivation
16. All of the following are mentioned as those whose performance is affected by sleep debt
EXCEPT ______.
A. biologists B. drivers C. doctors D. engineers
17. According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
B. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
C. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
D. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.
18. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?

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 A. Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
B. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
C. Doctors on “night call” do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
D. Thousands of people are killed by drunken drivers every day.
19. The word chronic in the last paragraph probably means ______.
A. lasting for a long time B. temporarily
available
C. being wrongly diagnosed D. likely to become worthless
20. Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?
A. Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
B. Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.
C. There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
D. We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.
Write your answers here:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
IX. Read the passage below and fill each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write
your answers in the space provided. (20 points)
THE POWER OF BELIEF
In a small village nestled between lush green hills, (21)______ lived a young girl named
Sara. Despite growing up in humble surroundings, Sara dreamed of becoming a renowned
singer and sharing her voice (22)______ the world.
(23)______, doubts and insecurities often clouded Sara’s mind. She feared that her dreams
were (24)______ big for someone like her, with no formal training or connections in the
music industry.
Despite these doubts, Sara refused to give up on her passion. Every day, she (25)______
practice singing in the fields, pouring her heart and soul into each note, believing that one
day her voice would be heard.
One evening, a traveling musician passed through the village and heard Sara singing.
Mesmerized by her talent and determination, he offered to mentor her and help her
(26)______ her dreams.
With the guidance of her mentor and unwavering belief in herself, Sara embarked on a
journey of self-discovery and growth. She (27)______ at local events and competitions,
captivating audiences with her soulful melodies.
Years later, Sara’s perseverance (28)______ off when she received an invitation to perform
at a prestigious music festival. Standing on (29)______, surrounded by thousands of
cheering fans, Sara realized that dreams (30)______ come true when you have the courage
to believe in yourself. Her story inspired others to achieve their own ambitions, no matter
how impossible they may seem.
Write your answers here:
21. 22.
23. 24.
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 25. 26.
27. 28.
29. 30.
SECTION 5: WRITING (40 points)
X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
1. We have had reports that the Prime Minister is making a surprise visit to Singapore.
The Prime Minister ............................................................................................................
2. I explained what had happened but they totally refused to accept what I said.
They found .........................................................................................................................
3. Both the doctors I consulted were confident of curing me.
I consulted ..........................................................................................................................
4. I expected the book to be far better because it had been written by such a good novelist.
The book fell ......................................................................................................................
5. Sue left the office right before the manager arrived there.
No sooner ...........................................................................................................................
XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the
capitalized word in bold given without changing the word. Write your answers in the space
provided. (10 points)
6. “Don’t cancel your trip because of us,” we said to John. OFF
 We told John ................................................................................................because of us.
7. We took the ring road because we didn’t want to get caught in traffic in the city centre.
AS
 We took the ring road .............................................................................in the city centre.
8. Michael didn’t want to spend his holidays in London, but in the end he did. RATHER
 Michael ............................................................................................................ in London.
9. You may not like what I have to say, but you don’t have to yell at me. HEAD
 You don’t have to ........................................................ if you don’t like what I’m saying.
10. You have to realise there’s a problem that needs to be dealt with. WAKE
 In regards to the problem at hand, you ...................................................................coffee.
XII. Paragraph writing: (20 points)
Should teenagers earn their pocket money to make a donation to charity?
In about 150 words, write a paragraph to give your own opinions about this topic.
Write your paragraph in the space provided.
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- THE END -

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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
TẠO PHÚ THỌ LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 02 trang)

SECTION 1: LISTENING (20 points)

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. pasta and salad 7. £1.50/1.50 pounds 8. 50/fifty
9. Theatre Bar 10. toasted sandwiches

SECTION 2: PHONETICS (10 points)

1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C

SECTION 3: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (70 points)

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. B
16. A 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. D
26. C 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. C
31. C 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D

SECTION 4: READING (60 points)

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. B
16. A 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. A
21. there 22. with
23. However/Nevertheless/Nonetheless/
24. too
Notwithstanding
25. would 26. pursue/follow/chase
27. performed/sang 28. paid
29. stage 30. do

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SECTION 5: WRITING (40 points)
1. The Prime Minister has been reported to be making/paying a surprise visit
to Singapore.
2. They found my explanation of what had happened (was) totally
unacceptable./
They found it (totally) impossible to accept my explanation of what had
happened.
3. I consulted two doctors, both of whom were confident of curing me.
4. The book fell short of my expectations although/(even) though it had been
written by such a good novelist.
5. No sooner had Sue left the office than the manager arrived there.
6. We told John not to call off his trip because of us.
7. We took the ring road so as not to get caught in traffic in the city centre.
8. Michael would rather not have/he hadn’t spent his holidays in London.
9. You don’t have to bite my head off if you don’t like what I’m saying.
10. In regards to the problem at hand, you must/have to wake up and smell the
coffee.
Paragraph writing (20 points)
Suggested marking criteria:
1. Task achievement: (5 points)
- All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
- Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable
explanations, examples, evidence, personal experience, etc.
- If the whole paragraph is off-topic, it gets no mark.
2. Organization: (7 points)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and
unity.
- The paragraph is well-structured:
• Topic sentence consists of topic and controlling idea.
• Supporting sentences support directly the main idea stated in
the topic sentence and provide logical explanations, persuasive
examples.
• Concluding sentence summarizes the main points/ restates the
topic sentence, offers personal opinions (prediction,
recommendation, consideration,...) on the issue.

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3. Language use: (6 points)
- Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary.
- Excellent use and control of grammatical structures.
4. Punctuation, spelling: (2 points)
- Correct use of punctuation and spelling.
- Legible handwriting.
Tổng điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm. Quy về thang điểm 20 (200:10 = 20)
- Hết -

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