SET-1

Series ZZYY1/5 àíZ-nÌ H$moS>

Q.P. Code 32/5/1
amob Z§.
narjmWu àíZ-nÌ H$moS> >H$mo CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
Roll No. _wI-n¥ð >na Adí` {bIo§ &
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

gm_m{OH$ {dkmZ
SOCIAL SCIENCE
:3 : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _o§ _w{ÐV n¥ð> 21 + 1 _mZ{MÌ h¢ &
àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H$s Amoa {XE JE àíZ-nÌ H$moS> H$mo narjmWu CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$ _wI-n¥ð>
na {bI| &
H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _| >37 àíZ h¢ &
H¥$n`m àíZ H$m CÎma {bIZm ewê$ H$aZo go nhbo, CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| àíZ H$m H«$_m§H$
Adí` {bI| &
Bg àíZ-nÌ 15 {_ZQ >H$m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H$m {dVaU
10.15 ~Oo {H$`m OmEJm & 10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH$ N>mÌ Ho$db àíZ-nÌ H$mo
-nwpñVH$m na H$moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo &
Please check that this question paper contains 21 printed pages +1 Map.
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
Please check that this question paper contains 37 questions.
Please write down the serial number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m.,
the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
*
32/5/1 1 P.T.O.
 :
:
(i) 37
(ii) :
(iii) 1 20 1
(iv) 21 24 2
40
(v) 25 29 3
60
(vi) 30 33 5
120
(vii) 34 36 3 3
4
(viii) 37 5
37 2 37 3
(ix)

(x)

IÊS> H$$
(~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ) (20 1=20)

1. {ZåZ{b{IV nhbwAm| _| ~«oQ>Z dwS²>g ì`dñWm H$m AmYma H$m¡Z-gm Wm ?

(a) g¡{ZH$ ì`dñWm
(b) gm§ñH¥${VH$ ì`dñWm
(c) Am{W©H$ ì`dñWm
(d) Eo{Vhm{gH$ ì`dñWm

2. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gr nwñVH$ g~go nhbo JwQ>oZ~J© Ûmam N>mnr JB© Wr ?

(a) (b) A_a OrdZ
(c) ~mB{~b (d) n§Mm§J

32/5/1 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This questions paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper comprises six sections Sections A, B, C, D, E and F.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 21 to 24 are very short answer type questions,
carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
(v) Section C Questions no. 25 to 29 are short answer type questions, carrying
3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying
5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three
sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
(viii) Section F Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts,
37(a) from History (2 marks) and 37(b) from Geography (3 marks).
(ix) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions
has to be attempted.
(x) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.

SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions) (20 1=20)

1. Which one of the following aspects was the base of the Bretton Woods
system ?
(a) Military system
(b) Cultural system
(c) Economic system
(d) Historical system

2. Which one of the following books was printed first by Gutenberg ?

(a) Chapbooks (b) Amar Jivan
(c) Bible (d) Almanac
32/5/1 3 P.T.O.
3. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$gZo 1928 _| ~maXmobr _| {H$gmZ Am§XmobZ H$m ZoV¥Ëd {H$`m ?
(a) ~m~m am_M§Ð
(b) Odmhabmb Zohê$
(c) gw^mf M§Ð ~mog
(d) dëb^^mB© nQ>ob
4. \«$m§grgr Zmar ê$nH$m| Ho$ {df` _| {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm ghr h¡ ?
(a) CgH$m Zm_ _marAmZ Wm &
(b) CgZo \«$m§grgr H«$mpÝV _| ^mJ {b`m &
(c) dh amîQ´>r` EH$Vm H$m àVrH$ Wr &
(d) CgH$s N>{d Am¡a {Q>H$Q>m| na A§{H$V H$s JB© &
5. ghr `w½_ H$m M`Z H$s{OE &
(a) Am{XH$mbrZ {Zdm©h H¥${f - s OmVr h¡
(b) JhZ {Zdm©h H¥${f EH$b \$gb CËnmXH$ H¥${f H$s OmVr h¡
(c) dm{UpÁ`H$ H¥${f AmYw{ZH$ {Zdoem| H$m A{YH$ _mÌm _| Cn`moJ hmoVm h¡
(d) amonU H¥${f ^y{_ Ho$ N>moQ>o ^y-^mJ na H$s OmVr h¡
6. dÝ`Ord ajU A{Y{Z`_ H$~ bmJy {H$`m J`m Wm ?
(a) 1972
(b) 1978
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
7. O¡go amÁ`m| _| ^y{_ jaU Ho$ _w»` H$maU H$m CëboI
H$s{OE &
(a) A{V MamB©
(b) IZZ
(c) A{V qgMmB©
(d) IZZ à{H«$`m
8. gZ² 1956 _| nm[aV A{Y{Z`_ Ûmam lrb§H$m _| {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gr ^mfm
Am{YH$m[aH$ Kmo{fV H$s JB© Wr ?
(a) V{_b (b) qghbr
(c) {hÝXr (d) A§J«oµOr
32/5/1 4
3. Who among the following led the peasant movement in Bardoli in 1928 ?
(a) Baba Ramchandra
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel

4. Which one of the following is not true about the female allegory of
France ?
(a) She was named Marianne.
(b) She took part in the French Revolution.
(c) She was a symbol of national unity.
(d) Her images were marked on coins and stamps.

5. Choose the correctly matched pair.

(a) Primitive subsistence farming practised on large patches of land
(b) Intensive subsistence farming single crop production farming
(c) Commercial farming use of higher doses of modern inputs
(d) Plantation farming practised on small patches of land

6. When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented ?

(a) 1972
(b) 1978
(c) 1980
(d) 1985

7. Mention the main reason for land degradation in states like Jharkhand,
Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
(a) Over-grazing
(b) Mining
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Mineral processing

8. Which one of the following languages was declared as the official

language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956 ?
(a) Tamil (b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi (d) English

32/5/1 5 P.T.O.
9. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm {dH$ën {gÕ H$aVm h¡ {H$ ^maV EH$ AY©-g§Kr` amÁ` h¡ ?
I. Ho$ÝÐ Ho$ nmg A{YH$ e{º$`m| H$m hmoZm
II. "~mH$s ~Mo' {df` Ho$ÝÐ Ho$ nmg
III. Ho$ÝÐ Am¡a amÁ`m| Ho$ ~rM {df`m| H$m g_mZ {dVaU
IV. H$a|gr Am¡a aobdo Ho$ÝÐ Ho$ nmg
{dH$ën :
(a) I, III Am¡a IV
(b) I, II Am¡a IV
(c) II, III Am¡a IV
(d) I, II Am¡a III

10. {ZåZ{b{IV H$WZm| _| go H$m¡Z-gm ghr h¡ ?

(a) g§{dYmZ Y_© Ho$ AmYma na {H$E OmZo dmbo {H$gr àH$ma Ho$ ^oX^md H$mo amoH$Vm h¡ &
(b) g§{dYmZ h_| {H$gr ^r Y_© Ho$ nmbZ H$aZo, àMma H$aZo Am¡a Z nmbZ H$aZo H$s
AmµOmXr XoVm h¡ &
(c) ^maVr` g§{dYmZ Ym{_©H$ g_wXm`m| _| g_mZVm gw{ZpíMV H$aZo Ho$ {bE emgZ H$mo
Ym{_©H$ _m_bm| _| XIb XoZo H$m A{YH$ma XoVm h¡ &
(d) g§{dYmZ Ho$ AZwgma Y_© H$mo H$^r ^r amOZr{V go n¥WH$ Zht {H$`m Om gH$Vm h¡ &
11. Xmo H$WZ A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) Am¡a
CÎma Ho$ {bE ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z H$s{OE :

(A) : ^maV _| ~hþXbr` ì`dñWm h¡ &

(R) : BgH$m H$maU h¡ {H$ ^maV _| gm_m{OH$ Am¡a ^m¡Jmo{bH$ {d{dYVmE± h¢ &
{dH$ën :
(a) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢ Am¡a H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(b) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a H$maU (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢, naÝVw H$maU (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s
ghr ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(c) A{^H$WZ (A) ghr h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) µJbV h¡ &
(d) A{^H$WZ (A) µJbV h¡, naÝVw H$maU (R) ghr h¡ &
32/5/1 6
9. Which one of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal
state ?
I. More powers with Centre
II. Residuary subjects with Centre
III. Equal subjects with Centre and States
IV. Currency and Railways with Centre
Options :
(a) I, III and IV
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
10. Which one of the following statements is not true ?
(a) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of
religion.
(b) The Constitution allows us to practice, profess and propagate any
religion or not to follow any.
(c) The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in the
matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious
communities.
(d) As per the Constitution, religion can never be separated from
politics.
11. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
both the statements and choose the correct option as your answer :

Assertion (A) : India has a multiparty system.

Reason (R) : It is because of the social and geographical diversities in
India.
Options :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
32/5/1 7 P.T.O.
12. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go H$m¡Z-gm bmoH$Vm§{ÌH$ gaH$ma Ho$ {df` _| ghr h¡ ?
(a) bmoH$Vm§{ÌH$ gaH$ma d¡Y emgZ h¡ &
(b) bmoH$Vm§{ÌH$ gaH$ma {µOå_odma gaH$ma h¡ &
(c) bmoH$Vm§{ÌH$ gaH$ma bmoJm| H$s gaH$ma h¡ &
(d) `h Jb{V`m| Ho$ gwYma H$m Adga Zht XoVr h¡ &
13. Vm{bH$m _| {XE JE Am± Am¡a Xoe A H$s Am¡gV _m{gH$ Am` kmV
H$s{OE & ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z H$s{OE &
Xmo Xoem| Ho$ ZmJ[aH$m| H$s _m{gH$ Am` (én`m| _|)
Am¡gV
I II$ III$ IV$ V$
Am`
Xoe A 10500 9800 9500 10000 10500 ?

Xoe B 6000 6000 6000 6000 50000

{dH$ën :
(a) 9500 (b) 10000
(c) 10500 (d) 10060

14. ~opëO`_ H$s OZg§»`m Ho$ {H$VZo à{VeV bmoJ âbo{_e joÌ _| ahVo h¢ ?
(a) 40% (b) 80%
(c) 59% (d) 70%

15. nVm bJmBE {H$ {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$gH$mo YZ Ûmam IarXm Zht Om gH$Vm h¡ & ghr {dH$ën
H$m M`Z H$s{OE :
I. g§H«$m_H$ ~r_m[a`m| go nyU© gwajm
II. àXÿfU-_wº$ n`m©daU
III. UdÎmm dmbr {ejm
IV. Amam_Xm`H$ Ka
{dH$ën :
(a) I Am¡a III (b) III Am¡a IV

(c) I Am¡a IV (d) I Am¡a II

32/5/1 8
12. Which one of the following is not true about a democratic government ?
(a) Democratic government is a legitimate government.
(b) Democratic government is a responsive government.
(c) .
(d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.

13. Read the given data in the table and find out the average monthly income
of Country A. Choose the correct option.

Monthly Income of Citizens of Two Countries (in Rupees)

Average
I II$ III$ IV$ V$
Income$

Country A 10500 9800 9500 10000 10500 ?

Country B 6000 6000 6000 6000 50000

Options :
(a) 9500 (b) 10000
(c) 10500 (d) 10060

14. What percentage of the population of Belgium lives in the Flemish

region ?
(a) 40% (b) 80%
(c) 59% (d) 70%

15. Select which among the following cannot be purchased through money.
Choose the correct option :
I. Full protection from infectious diseases
II. A pollution-free atmosphere
III. High quality education
IV. A luxury home
Options :
(a) I and III (b) III and IV
(c) I and IV (d) I and II

32/5/1 9 P.T.O.
16. ZrMo Xr JB© Vm{bH$m _| Am±
M`Z H$a {b{IE &
H$m¡Z-gm g~go _hÎdnyU© joÌH$ h¡ Omo bmoJm| H$mo A{YH$V_ amoµOJma àXmZ H$aVm h¡ ?

joÌH$ g§J{R>V Ag§J{R>V $ `moJ $

àmW{_H$ 1 231 232

{ÛVr`H$ 41 74 115
V¥Vr`H$ 40 88 128

`moJ 82 393 475

(a) àmW{_H$ joÌH$, {deofH$a g§J{R>V joÌH$

(b) {ÛVr`H$ joÌH$, {deofH$a g§J{R>V joÌH$
(c) V¥Vr`H$ joÌH$, {deofH$a g§J{R>V joÌH$
(d) àmW{_H$ joÌH$, {deofH$a Ag§J{R>V joÌH$
17. , O`nwa Ho$ EH$ dñÌ {Z`m©V H$aZo dmbo CÚmoJ H$m EH$ l{_H$ h¡ & dh ñdmñÏ` ~r_m,
^{dî` {Z{Y, {M{H$Ëgm AdH$me, Am{X O¡gr gw{dYmE± àmá H$aVm h¡ &
{ZåZ{b{IV joÌH$m| _| go {H$g_| H$m`© H$a ahm h¡ ?

(a) àmW{_H$ joÌH$

(b) µJ¡a-gaH$mar joÌH$
(c) g§J{R>V joÌH$
(d) Ag§J{R>V joÌH$
18. ^maV _| {ZåZ{b{IV g§JR>Zm| _| go H$m¡Z H$a|gr ZmoQ> {ZJ©{_V H$aVm h¡ ?
(a) ^maV H$s H|$Ðr` gaH$ma
(b) Zr{V Am`moJ
(c) {dÎm _§Ìmb`
(d) ^maVr` [aµOd© ~¢H$
32/5/1 10
16. Study the data given below in the table and answer the question by
selecting the correct option.
Which is the most important sector that provides maximum jobs to the
people ?

Table Workers in different sectors (in millions)

Sector Organized Unorganized Total
Primary 1 231 232
Secondary 41 74 115
Tertiary 40 88 128
Total 82 393 475

(a) Primary sector, especially organized sector

(b) Secondary sector, especially organized sector

(c) Tertiary sector, especially organized sector

(d) Primary sector, especially unorganized sector

17.
like health insurance, provident fund, medical leave, etc.
In which o
(a) Primary sector
(b) Non-Governmental sector
(c) Organized sector
(d) Unorganized sector

18. Which among the following organisations issues the currency notes in
India ?
(a) The Central Government of India
(b) The NITI Aayog
(c) The Finance Ministry
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

32/5/1 11 P.T.O.
19. H$ma{Jb \
CËnmXH$ h¡ & `h H§$nZr {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$g Xoe H$s h¡ ?

(a) ^maV
(b) \«$m§g
(c) J«oQ> {~«Q>oZ
(d) g§`wº$ amÁ` A_o[aH$m
20. gyMZm Am¡a g§Mma àm¡Úmo{JH$s Zo d¡ídrH$aU H$s à{H«$`m H$mo {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$g VarHo$
go gdm©{YH$ ào[aV {H$`m h¡ ?

(a) Xþ{Z`m Ho$ Xoem| VH$ ImÚ nXmWm] H$s nhþ±M

(b) Xþ{Z`m Ho$ Xoem| VH$ Wm] H$s nhþ±M
(c) Xþ{Z`m Ho$ Xoem| VH$ godmAm| H$s nhþ±M
(d) Xþ{Z`m Ho$ Xoem| VH$ VËH$mb gyMZmAm| H$s nhþ±M

IÊS> I$
(A{V bKw-CÎmar` àíZ) (4 2=8)

21. 19dt gXr _| `yamon Ho$ ? ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 2

22. "gm§àXm{`H$Vm amîQ´> Ho$ {bE hm{ZH$maH$ h¡ &' ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 2

23. (H$) "D$Om© H$s ~MV hr D$Om© n¡Xm H$aZm h¡ &' Bg H$WZ H$s nwpîQ> H$s{OE & 2
AWdm
(I) µJ¡a-naånamJV D$Om© Ho$ g§gmYZm| H$m Cn`moJ H$aZm g_` H$s _m± ? ñnï>
H$s{OE & 2

24. J«m_rU joÌH$ _| A{YH$ amoµOJma g¥{OV H$aZo Ho$ H$moB© Xmo Cnm` gwPmBE & 2 1=2

32/5/1 12
19. Cargill Foods, a very large MNC, is the largest producer of edible oil in
India. Which one of these countries does it belong to ?
(a) India
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) United States of America

20. In which one of the following ways has information and communication
technology stimulated the globalisation process the most ?
(a) Access foods across countries
(b) Access raw material across countries
(c) Access services across countries
(d) Access information instantly across countries

SECTION B
(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (4 2=8)

21. Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century ? Explain. 2

22. 2

23. (a) Support the statement. 2

OR

(b) Why is there a pressing need to use non-conventional energy

resources ? Explain. 2

24. Suggest any two ways to create more employment in the rural sector. 2 1=2

32/5/1 13 P.T.O.
 IÊS> J
(bKw-CÎmar` àíZ) (5 3=15)

25. (H$) ^maVr` AW©ì`dñWm na Agh`moJ Am§XmobZ Ho$ {H$Ýht VrZ à^mdm| H$mo ñnîQ>
H$s{OE & 3 1=3
AWdm
(I) ^maV Ho$ bmoJm| Ûmam am°boQ> Eo ? VrZ CXmhaUm|
g{hV ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 3 1=3
26. ^maV _| n[adhZ gmYZ Ho$ ê$n _| nmBnbmBZm| Ho$ _hÎd H$mo ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 3

27. 3
28. "nmaX{e©Vm bmoH$V§Ì H$s g~go _hÎdnyU© {deofVm h¡ &' Bg H$WZ H$s nwpîQ> H$s{OE & 3
29. g§gmYZm| Ho$ ñdm{_Ëd Ho$ AmYma na Xmo joÌH$ H$m¡Z-go h¢ ? CZ_| go àË`oH$ H$s ì`m»`m
H$s{OE & 3
IÊS> K
(XrK©-CÎmar` àíZ) (4 5=20)

30. (H$) BQ>br Ho$ EH$sH$aU H$s à{H«$`m H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 5
AWdm
(I) `yamon _| "amîQ´>' Ho$ {dMma H$mo n¡Xm H$aZo _| \«$m§grgr H«$mpÝV Zo {H$g àH$ma _hÎdnyU©
^y{_H$m {Z^mB© ? ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 5
31. (H$) {d{Z_m©U CÚmoJm| Ho$ _hÎd H$mo ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 5
AWdm
(I) Am¡Úmo{JH$ àXÿfU H$mo H$_ H$aZo Ho$ {H$Ýht nm±M Cnm`m| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 5 1=5

32. (H$) ^maV _| amOZr{VH$ Xbm| Ho$ g_j {H$Ýht nm±M MwZm¡{V`m| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 5 1=5
AWdm
(I) amOZr{VH$ Xbm| Ho$ {H$Ýht nm±M à_wI H$m`m] H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 5 1=5
33. (H$) G$U {H$g àH$ma gH$mamË_H$ Am¡a ZH$mamË_H$ ^y{_H$m {Z^mVm h¡ ? CXmhaUm| g{hV
ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 5
AWdm
(I) g_W©H$ G$U ? `h J
µ ar~m| H$mo ~¢H$m| go G$U boZo go amoH$Zo H$m _w»`
¡ ? ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 1+4=5

32/5/1 14
 SECTION C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (5 3=15)

25. (a) Explain any three effects of Non-Co-operation Movement on the

Indian economy. 3 1=3
OR
(b) How was the Rowlatt Act opposed by the people of India ? Explain
with three examples. 3 1=3
26. Explain the importance of pipelines as a means of transportation in
India. 3
27. Describe the impact of flexibility in the labour laws on the workers in
India. 3
28.
statement. 3
29. Which are the two sectors based on the ownership of resources ? Explain
each of them. 3

SECTION D
(Long Answer Type Questions) (4 5=20)

30. (a) Explain the process of unification of Italy. 5

OR
(b) How did the French Revolution play an important role in creating
? Explain. 5

31. (a) Explain the importance of manufacturing industries. 5

OR
(b) Explain any five ways to reduce industrial pollution. 5 1=5

32. (a) Explain any five challenges faced by political parties in India. 5 1=5
OR
(b) Explain any five major functions of the political parties. 5 1=5

33. (a) How does credit play a positive and a negative role ? Explain with
examples. 5
OR
(b) What is a collateral ? Why is it a main reason to prevent the poor
getting a loan from banks ? Explain. 1+4=5
32/5/1 15 P.T.O.
 IÊS> L>
(Ho$g-AmYm[aV àíZ) (3 4=12)

34. {XE JE CÕaU H$m nR>Z H$s{OE Am¡a CgHo$ ZrMo {XE JE àíZm| Ho$ CÎma {b{IE :

1854 _|
bJr Am¡a Xmo gmb ~mX Cg_| CËnmXZ hmoZo bJm &
1862 VH$ dhm± Eogr Mma {_b| H$m_ H$a ahr Wt & CZ_| 94,000 VH${b`m± Am¡a 2,150
H$aKo Wo & Cgr g_` ~§Jmb _| OyQ> {_b| IwbZo bJt & dhm± Xoe H$s nhbr OyQ> {_b 1855
_| Am¡a Xÿgar 7 gmb ~mX 1862 _| Mmby hþB© & CÎmar ^maV _| EpëJZ {_b 1860 Ho$ XeH$

JB© & 1874 _| _Ðmg _| ^r nhbr H$VmB© Am¡a ~wZmB© {_b Iwb JB© &
(34.1) ? 1
1 1
(34.2) ^maV Ho$ {H$Ýht Xmo àmapå^H$ CÚmoJn{V`m| Ho$ Zm_ {b{IE & + =1
2 2
(34.3) ^maV Ho$ ~hþV go ì`dgm`r A§J«oµOr gaH$ma Ho$ bmXo JE {Z`§ÌUm| Ho$
~mX ^r {H$g àH$ma AnZm H$m`© H$aVo aho ? ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 2

35. {XE JE CÕaU H$m nR>Z H$s{OE Am¡a CgHo$ ZrMo {XE JE àíZm| Ho$ CÎma {b{IE :

àmMrZ ^maV _| CËH¥$îQ> Obr` {Z_m©Um| Ho$ gmW-gmW Ob g§J«hU T>m±Mo ^r nmE OmVo
Wo & bmoJm| H$mo dfm© nÕ{V Am¡a _¥Xm Ho$ JwUm| Ho$ ~mao _| Jham kmZ Wm & CÝhm|Zo ñWmZr`
nm[apñW{VH$s` n[apñW{V`m| Am¡a CZH$s Ob Amdí`H$VmZwgma dfm©Ob, ^m¡_Ob, ZXr Ob

bmoJm| Zo Jwb AWdm Hw$b (npíM_r {h_mb`) O¡gr dm{hH$mE±, ZXr H$s Ymam H$m amñVm
~XbH$a IoVm| _| qgMmB© Ho$ {bE ~ZmB© h¢ & npíM_r ^maV, {deofH$a amOñWmZ _| nrZo H$m
Ob EH${ÌV H$aZo Ho$ {bE N>V dfm© Ob g§J«hU H$m VarH$m Am_ Wm &
(35.1) ^maV _| à`wº$ {H$E JE {H$Ýht Xmo na§namJV Ob g§J«hU Ho$ VarH$m| H$m CëboI
H$s{OE & 1

(35.2) amOñWmZ Ho$ bmoJ dfm©Ob H$m {H$g àH$ma Cn`moJ H$aVo h¢ ? 1

(35.3) dfm©Ob g§J«hU Ho$ {H$Ýht Xmo bm^m| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 2 1=2

32/5/1 16
 SECTION E
(Case-Based Questions) (3 4=12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow :

The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in 1854 and it went into
production two years later. By 1862, four mills were at work with
94,000 spindles and 2,150 looms. Around the same time, jute mills came
up in Bengal, the first being set up in 1855 and another one seven years
later, in 1862. In north India, the Elgin Mill was started in Kanpur in the
1860s, and a year later the first cotton mill of Ahmedabad was set up. By
1874, the first spinning and weaving mill of Madras began production.
(34.1) When was the first cotton mill set up in India ? 1
1 1
(34.2) Name any two early industrialists of India. + =1
2 2
(34.3) How did many Indian entrepreneurs survive despite tight
economic controls imposed by the British Government ? Explain. 2

35. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow :

In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures,

there existed an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system.
People had an in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and
developed wide ranging techniques to harvest groundwater, rainwater,
river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions
and their water needs. In hilly and mountainous regions, people built
diversion channels like the kuls and guls of Western Himalayas for
agriculture. Rooftop rainwater harvesting was very commonly practised
to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan.
(35.1) Mention any two methods of traditional water-harvesting used in
India. 1
(35.2) How do people of Rajasthan utilise rainwater ? 1
(35.3) Explain any two benefits of rainwater harvesting. 2 1=2

32/5/1 17 P.T.O.
36. {XE JE CÕaU H$m nR>Z H$s{OE Am¡a CgHo$ ZrMo {XE JE àíZm| Ho$ CÎma {b{IE :
~opëO`_ `yamon H$m EH$ N>moQ>m-gm Xoe h¡, joÌ\$b _| h_mao h[a`mUm amÁ` go ^r N>moQ>m &
BgH$s gr_mE± \ EH$
Ho$
g_mO H$s OmVr` ~wZmdQ> ~hþV O{Q>b h¡ & Xoe H$s Hw$b Am~mXr H$m 59 µ\$sgXr {hñgm
âbo{_e BbmHo$ _| ahVm h¡ Am¡a S>M ~mobVm h¡ & eof 40 µ\$sgXr bmoJ dobmo{Z`m joÌ _| ahVo
h¢ Am¡a \«|$M ~mobVo h¢ & eof EH$ µ\$sgXr bmoJ O_©Z ~mobVo h¢ & amOYmZr ~«ygoëg Ho$
80 µ\$sgXr bmoJ \«|$M ~mobVo h¢ Am¡a 20 µ\$sgXr bmoJ S>M ^mfm &
(36.1) ~opëO`_ H$s OmVr` g§aMZm H$mo ñnîQ>> H$s{OE & 1
(36.2) OmVr` eãX H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 1
(36.3) ~opëO`_ H$s gaH$ma Zo AnZr OmVr` g_ñ`m H$mo {H$g àH$ma hb {H$`m ? ñnîQ>
H$s{OE & 2

IÊS> M
(_mZ{MÌ H$m¡eb AmYm[aV àíZ) (2+3=5)

37. (H$) ^maV Ho$ {XE JE amOZr{VH$ aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (n¥ð> 23 na) _| Xmo ñWmZ A Am¡a B Ho$
ê$n _| Xem©E JE h¢ & {ZåZ{b{IV OmZH$mar H$s ghm`Vm go CÝh| nhMm{ZE Am¡a
CZHo$ ghr Zm_ CZHo$ g_rn ItMr JB© aoImAm| na {b{IE :
(i) dh ñWmZ Ohm± Jm±Yr 1

(ii) dh ñWmZ Ohm± ^maVr` amîQ´>r` H$m±J«og H$m A{YdoeZ {gVå~a, 1920 _| hþAm
Wm & 1

(I) ^maV Ho$ Bgr amOZr{VH$ aoIm-_mZ{MÌ na {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$Ýht H$mo

o$ Zm_ {b{IE : 3 1=3
(i) Q>ohar ~m±Y
(ii) ~moH$mamo H$mo`bo H$s ImZ|
(iii) nwUo gm°âQdo`a àm¡Úmo{JH$s nmH©$>
(iv) VyVrH$mo[aZ g_wÐr nÎmZ
32/5/1 18
36. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow :

Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state

of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and
Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the
population of Haryana. The ethnic composition of this small country is
ve per cent lives in the
Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people
live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of
the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent of
the people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch-speaking.
(36.1) Explain the ethnic composition of Belgium. 1
(36.2) . 1
(36.3) How did the Belgian Government solve their ethnic problem ?
Explain. 2

SECTION F
(Map Skill Based Question) (2+3=5)

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political
outline map of India (on page 23). Identify them with the help of
the following information and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them :
(i) The place where Gandhiji broke the salt law. 1
(ii) The place where the session of the Indian National Congress
was held in September, 1920. 1
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any
three of the following with suitable symbols : 3 1=3
(i) Tehri Dam
(ii) Bokaro Coal mines
(iii) Pune Software Technology Park
(iv) Tuticorin Sea port
32/5/1 19 P.T.O.
 : 37

5 1=5

(37.1) Cg ñWmZ H$m Zm_ {b{IE Ohm± Jm±Yr &

(37.2) Cg ñWmZ H$m Zm_ {b{IE Ohm± ^maVr` amîQ´>r` H$m±J«og H$m A{YdoeZ
{gVå~a, 1920 _| hþAm Wm &
(37.3) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE Ohm± Q>ohar ~m±Y pñWV h¡ &
(37.4) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE Ohm± ~moH$mamo H$mo`bm H$s ImZ| pñWV h¢ &
(37.5) nwUo gm°âQ>do`a àm¡Úmo{JH$s nmH©$ {H$g amÁ` _| pñWV h¡ ?

(37.6) Cg amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE Ohm± VyVrH$mo[aZ g_wÐr nÎmZ pñWV h¡ &

32/5/1 20
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 37. 5 1=5
Answer any five questions.
(37.1) Name the place where Gandhiji broke the salt law.
(37.2) Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was
held in September, 1920.
(37.3) Name the state where Tehri dam is located.
(37.4) Name the state where Bokaro coal mines are located.
(37.5) In which state is the Pune Software Technology Park located ?
(37.6) Name the state where Tuticorin sea port is located.

32/5/1 21 P.T.O.
32/5/1 22
àíZ g§. 37 Ho$ {bE For question no. 37

^maV H$m aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (amOZr{VH$)

Outline Map of India (Political)

B
A

32/5/1 23 P.T.O.
 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential SET 32/5/1
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination,2023
SUBJECT NAME :SOCIAL SCIENCE (SUBJECT CODE 087)
General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of the
candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of the
candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting
evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the examinations
conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead
to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing
this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc
may invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done according
to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and
religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or
knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks
be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to
understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have
their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the first day,
to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is
any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant
for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of
individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked. Evaluators
will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct and no marks are
awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for different
parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be
followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may
also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be retained
and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks 80 (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has to be used.
Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.

12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day and
evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects (Details are
given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly and
clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.

14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked as cross
(X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by the
candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board.
Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed
meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title page,
correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the prescribed
processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they
must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking
Scheme.
 SET-32-5-1
MARKING SCHEME
SOCIAL SCIENCE (SUBJECT CODE 087) MM-80
Q.No. Marks
VALUE POINTS

SECTION A 1X20=20
(Multiple Choice Question)
1.
(c) Economic System Pg.75 1
2.
(c) Bible Pg.109 1
3.
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel Pg. 35 1
4.
(b) She took part in the French revolution Pg.23 1
5.
(c) Commercial farming - use of higher doses of modern inputs Pg. 31 1
6.
197 (a) 1972 Pg.14 1
7.
(b) Mining Pg.6 1
8.
(b) Sinhala Pg.3 1
9.
(b) I, II, and IV Pg.15-16 1
10.
(d) As per the constitution, religion can never be separated from politics. 1

Pg.36
11.
(a) Both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are true and reason(R) is the correct 1
explanation of the Assertion (A) Pg.51

12.
(d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes Pg.64 1
13.
(d) 10060 Pg.9 1
14.
(c) 59% Pg.2 1
15.
(d) I and II Pg.11 1
16.
(d) Primary sector specially unorganized Pg.20 1
17.
(c) Organized sector Pg.30 1
18.
(d) The Reserve Bank of India Pg.48 1
19.
(d) United States of America Pg.58 1
20. (d) Access information instantly across countries Pg.63
1
SECTION B 4X2=8
(Very Short Answers type question )
21.
(2X1=2)
Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Explain.

(i) Poverty and hunger were common in Europe.

(ii) Cities were crowded and deadly diseases were widespread.
(iii) Religious conflicts were common.
(iv) Religious dissenters were persecuted.
(v) Any other relevant point .Pg.56
(Any two points to be explained )

22.
“Communalism is harmful for the nation”. Explain. (2X1=2)

(i) When beliefs of one religion are presented as superior to those of

other religions a

(ii) Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal
basis of social community.

(iii) Communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different

religions cannot live as equal citizens in a nation.

(iv) People of one religion do not have the same interest and aspirations
in every context

(v) Religious prejudices ,stereotypes of religious communities and belief in

the superiority of one's religions over other religions

(vi) Any other relevant point . Pg .36-37

(Any two points to be explained )

23. (a)“Energy saved is energy produced”. Support the statement.

(2X1=2)
 (i) There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of development.
(ii) Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy
resources are twin planks of energy conservation.
(iii) Judicious use of limited energy resources.
(iv) Reduce, reuse and recycling of resources.
(v) Stoppage of wastage of resources
(vi) Any other relevant point .
(Any two points to be explained ) Pg.55

OR

(b) Why is there a pressing need to use non –conventional energy

(2X1=2)
resources? Explain.
(i) Limited availability of resources
(ii) The growing consumption of energy has resulted in depletion of fossil fuels.
(iii) Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised
uncertainties.
(iv) Increasing use of fossil fuel has caused serious environmental problems.
(v) Urbanization and industrialization
(vi) Any other relevant point. Pg.54
(Any two points to be explained )

24.
Suggest any two ways to create more employment in the rural
(2X1=2)
sector.

(i) Improved irrigation facilities so that farmers harvest two or three crops in
one year,thus more people can be employed.
(ii) Provide better roads and improve transportation and storage, which will
benefit farmers so that people will be employed in these sectors.
(iii) Honey collection centers or vegetable and fruit processing units should be
set up.
(iv) More cottage industries and services should be promoted in rural areas
with soft loans and marketing support.
(v) More infrastructural and manufacturing facilities
(vi) Any other relevant point . Pg.27-28
 (Any two points to be explained )

5X3=15
SECTION C
Short Answer Type Questions

25. (a) Explain any three effects of Non Cooperation Movement on (3X1=3)
the Indian economy.
(i) Foreign goods were boycotted.
(ii) Liquor shops were picketed.
(iii) Foreign clothes burnt in huge bonfires.
(iv) Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods.
(v) People began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones.
(vi) Production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
(vii) Use of swadeshi goods
(viii) Import of foreign cloth halved.
Any other relevant point . Pg .34

(Any three points to be explained )

OR

(b) How was the Rowlatt Act opposed by the people of India? Explain
(3X1=3)
with three examples.

(i) Rallies were organized in various cities.

(ii) Workers strike in railway workshops.
(iii) Shops were closed down.
(iv) Lines of communication such as railways and telegraph were disrupted
(v) Any other relevant point. Pg . 31

(Any three points to be explained)

26. Explain the importance of pipelines as a means of transportation (3X1=3)

in India.
(i) It is not only used to transport water but also crude oil, petroleum
products, and natural gas.
(ii) Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into
slurry
(iii) It rules out Trans-shipment delays.
(iv) Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are
 minimal.
(v) Pipelines connect through Natural gas fields, fertilizer factories and big
thermal power plants.
(vi) Any other relevant point. Pg .75
(Any three points to be explained )

27. Describe the impact of flexibility in the labour laws on the workers (3X1= 3)
in India.

(i) Flexibility in labour laws has badly affected workers.

(ii) MNCs employ them on a temporary basis to cut costs.

(iii) They are not paid throughout the year.

(iv) During peak seasons, workers are made to work for long hours and night
shifts.

(v) Any other relevant point .Pg. 69

(Any three points to be described )

28. “Transparency is the most important feature of democracy“. Supports

(3X1=3)
the statement.
(i) Democracy provides means to examine the process of decision making,so it
is transparent.
(ii) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
(iii) Democracy ensures that decision-making will be based on certain norms
and procedures.
(iv) Democracy follows procedures and is accountable to the people.
(v) Democracy is a legitimate and accountable government.
Any other relevant point. Pg 65
(Any three points to be explained )

29. Which are the two sectors based on the ownership of resources? (½+½+1
Explain each of them. +1=3)

(i). Public Sector and Private Sector.

 (ii) Public Sector: The government owns most of the assets and provides all the
services.

Ex : -Railway or Post office are examples of Public Sector.

(iii) Private Sector- Ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the

hands of private individuals or companies.

Ex : Companies like Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO),

Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately owned companies.

(Any other example could be considered) Pg 33

SECTION D 4X5=20
Long Answer Type Questions

30. (5X1=5)
(a) Explain the process of unification of Italy.

(i) During middle of 19th century Italy was divided into 7 States, of which
only Sardinia – Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian Prince.
(ii) Giuseppe Mazzini made efforts to unite the Italian Republic. He had
formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’ for achieving his goal.
(iii) Count Cavour was the Chief Minister who led the movement to unify
Italy. He formed a tactful diplomatic alliance with France and defeated
the Austrian forces.
(iv) Giuseppe Garibaldi formed armed volunteers. In 1860, they marched into
South Italy and the kingdoms of two Sicilies and succeeded in driving out
the Spanish ruler.
(v) In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the King of United Italy.
(To be assessed as whole ) Pg 20

OR

(b)How did the French revolution play an important role in creating

the idea of the nation in Europe? Explain.
(i) The ideas of la patrie (the father land), le cition (the motherland
)emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights
under our constitution .
(5X1=5)
(ii) A new french flag, the tricolor, was chosen to replace the former
royal standard .
(iii) The estates general was elected by the body of active citizens and
renamed the national assembly.
(iv) New hymns were composed , oaths taken and martyrs
commemorated all in the name of the nation.
 (v) A centralized administrative system was put in place .
(vi) It formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory .
(vii) Internal custom duties and dues were abolished .
(viii) A uniform system of weights and measures were adopted .
(ix) Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and
written in Paris, became the common language of the nation .
(x) Any other relevant point. Pg 5

(Any Five points to be explained )

31.
(a) Explain the importance of manufacturing industries.
(5X1=5)
(i) The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of
manufacturing industries and is considered the backbone of the economy.

(ii) Helps to modernize agriculture

(iii) Reduces dependency on agriculture

(iv) Help to eradicate unemployment and poverty
(v) Reduces regional disparities by setting up industries in remote areas.
(vi) Earns foreign exchange
(vii) Brings overall prosperity
(viii) Any other relevant point Pg.58
(Any FIVE points to be explained)

OR

(b) Explain any five ways to reduce industrial pollution.

(i) Minimising use water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or (5X1=5)
more successive stages
(ii) Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements
(iii) Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and
ponds.
Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases
(a) Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening,
grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
(b) Secondary treatment by biological process
(c) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical
processes. This involves recycling of wastewater.
 (iv)Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry where there is a
threat to ground water resources also needs to be regulated legally.
(v)Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks
tofactories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers
andinertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of
coal in factories.
(vi)Machinery and equipment can be used and generators should be fitted with
silencers.
(vii) Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and
reduce noises.
(viii) Any other relevant point. Pg 66

(Any FIVE points to be explained )

32.
(a) Explain any five challenges faced by political parties in India. (5X1=5)
(i) Lack of internal democracy within parties.
(ii) Parties do not keep membership registers , do not hold organizational
meeting and do not conduct internal election regularly.
(iii) Dynastic succession.
(iv) Money and Muscle power.
(v) Lack of decision-making process.
(vi) Lack of meaningful choice to the voters.
(vii) Lack of ideological differences among parties.
(viii) Any other relevant point Pg.57-58
(Any FIVE points to be explained )

OR

(b) Explain any five major functions of the Political Parties.

(i) Parties Contest Elections

(ii) parties put forward different policies and programs and the voters
(5X1=5)
choose from them
(iii) They make laws.
(iv) Parties form and run government
(v) Function as opposition
(vi) Shape public opinion
 (vii) Provide access to government machinery and welfare schemes.
(viii) Any other relevant point Pg.48-49
(Any FIVE points to be explained )

33. (a) How does credit play a positive and negative role? Explain with
examples. (2½+ 2
½ =5)
Credit plays two roles-positive and negative

A. Positive role of credit:

(i) A large number of transactions in day to day activities involve credit.

(ii) The credit helps to meet the ongoing expenses of production

(iii) Credit plays a positive role when the borrower is able to return the loan
amount on time and also makes some profit with the use of that money.

(iv) It makes a person better off than before

(v) Any other relevant point

Any one point (1)

(vi)Any example could be given explaining the positive role of credit (1 ½ )

(Example of book: Salim, a shoe manufacturer took a loan from different

sources to complete the order of 3000 pair of shoes, in the end he delivered
the order, made profit and repaid the loan.(1+1 ½ =2 ½ )

B- Negative role of credit:

(i) Sometimes failure of the crop makes loan repayment impossible.

(ii) Sometimes credit is very painful as it pushes the borrower into such a
situation from which recovery is very difficult.

(iii) In this situation the borrower is not able to repay the loan

(iv) Many times caught into the situation of debt-trap.

(v) To repay loan one has to sell portion of one's land

(vi) Any example could be given explaining the negative role of credit

(vii) Any other relevant point

 Any point to be explained 1

(viii)Any example could be given explaining the positive role of credit. (1 ½ )

(Example of book-A small farmer Swapna took loan for crop cultivation but
due to some reason she faced the situation of crop failure. So she took
another loan for spraying pesticides but the production was not enough to
repay the loan. So she was caught in debt-trap.(1+1 ½ =2 ½ )

Pg.43-44)

OR

(b) What is collateral? Why is it a main reason to prevent the

(1+4= 5)
poor getting a loan from banks? Explain.

A- Collateral (1)

(i) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this as a guarantee
to lenders until the loans are repaid. Property such as land, deposits with
banks, livestock are some examples of collateral used for borrowing.
B- Why is collateral a main reason to prevent the poor getting a loan
from banks (4)
(ii) Absence of collateral with the poor.
(iii) Absence of documents with them.
(iv) Absence of formal sources of credit in rural area .
(v) Lack of education and awareness among them.
(vi) Any other relevant point Pg 44-45
(Any Four points to be explained )

SECTION E 3X4=12
(CASE BASED QUESTION)
34. CASE BASED QUESTION: COTTON MILL IN BOMBAY (PG-94)

(34.1) When was the first cotton mill set up in India. (1) 1+1+2=4
1854

(34.2) Name any two industrialists of India. (½+½=1)

Dwarkanath Tagore, Dinshaw Petit, G.D. Birla

(Any two)
 (34.3) How did many Indian entrepreneurs survive despitetight
economic controls imposed by the British government? Explain. (2)

(i) Many Indians had the sufficient capital to trade with other countries.

(ii) Many indians worked through trade network

(iii)They financed funds across cities.

(iv) They procured supplies and shipping consignment.

(v) Any other relevant point

Any two points to be explained.Pg. 94

35. (CASE BASED QUESTION: WATER HARVESTING SYSTEM

(Pg-26-27)
(35.1) Mention any two methods of traditional water-harvesting used in (1+1+2=4
)
India. (½ +½ =1)
(i)Inundation channels of Bengal.
(ii) Khadins of Rajasthan
(iii) Johads of Rajasthan
(iv) Any other relevant point

(35.2) How do people of Rajasthan utilize rainwater? (1)

(i) They have arranged underground tanks or tankas for storing water.
(ii) They have a well developed roof top rainwater harvesting system
(palarpani) and were built inside the main house or courtyard.
(iii) It is a reliable source of drinking water
(iv) It beats the summer heat as it would keep the room cool
(v) Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.

(35.3) Explain any two benefits of rainwater harvesting. (2)

(i) Rainwater harvesting is used to meet peoples and regions water needs.

(ii) Rain water can be used by building diversion channels used for agriculture .

(iii) They can be stored as drinking water particularly in Rajasthan

(iv) Rainwater harvesting is used to maintain water in tanks.

 (v) Rainwater harvesting is used to maintain room temperature through tanks
and ducting.

(vi) Any other relevant point Pg 25

(Any two points to be explained )

36. CASE BASED QUESTION- BELGIUM’S POWER SHARING (Pg-2-3) (1+1+2=

4)

(36.1) Explain the ethnic composition of Belgium. (1)

Total Belgium population- 59% live in the Flemish region and speak the
Dutch language. 40% live in the Wallonia region and speak French. The
remaining one percent of the Belgians speaks German.

(36.2) Explain the term ethnic . (1)

(i) The term ‘ethnic’ implies a social division based on shared culture.
People belonging to the same ethnic group believe in their common descent
because of similarities of physical type or of culture or both

(ii) Any other relevant point

Any one point

(36.3) How did the Belgian government solve their ethnic problem?
Explain. (2)
(i) Amended the constitution

(ii) Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the central
government.

(iii) Belgium established a community government for different linguistic

communities.

(iv) Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained )

37. SECTION F
(Map Skill Based)

37 (a) and (b) SEE ATTACHED MAP

(1+1=2)
(3X1=3)
1. History

2. Geography (Attempt any three)

(5X1=5)
For Visually Impaired Candidates .- ( Attempt any five)

(37.1) Name the place where Gandhi ji broke the Salt Law —Dandi

(37.2)Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held inSeptember

1920 -Calcutta

(37.3) Name the state where the Tehri Dam is located- Uttarakhand

(37.4)Name the state where Bokaro coal mines are located- Jharkhand

(37.5) In which state is the Pune Software Technology Park located?--Maharashtra

(37.6) Name the state where Tuticorin Seaport is located?---Tamil Nadu