Ques&Ans Re-Examniation NEET-2024 (Code-C1)

DATE : 23/06/2024 Test Booklet Code
C1
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456
Questions & Answers

Time : 3 hrs. 20 Min. for M.M. : 720
Re-Examination of NEET (UG)-2024

Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions
in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section-A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos-1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to
135 and 151 to 185). All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section-B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos- 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to
150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen)
in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered
by the candidate shall be evaluated.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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Attendance Sheet.
-1-
Re-Examination of NEET (UG)-2024 (Code-C1)
PHYSICS
SECTION-A

1. The magnetic potential energy, when a magnetic bar of magnetic moment m is placed perpendicular to the

magnetic field B is
mB
(1) − (2) Zero
2
(3) –mB (4) mB
Answer (2)
2. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 10 rpm. If the tension in the
string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed is:
(1) 20 rpm (2) 40 rpm
(3) 5 rpm (4) 10 rpm
Answer (1)
3. A metal cube of side 5 cm is charged with 6 μC. The surface charge density on the cube is
(1) 0.125 × 10–3 C m–2 (2) 0.25 × 10–3 C m–2
(3) 4 × 10–3 C m–2(4) 0.4 × 10–3 C m–2
Answer (4)
4. The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic material (all the symbols carry their usual meaning and ε is a small
positive number) is:
(1) µ < µ0 (2) 0 ≤ µr < 1
(3) –1 ≤ χ < 0 (4) 1 < µr < 1 + ε
Answer (4)
5. An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross-sectional tube XY (as shown in the figure) from end X to end
Y. If K1 and K2 are the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid at X and Y respectively, then the correct
option is :
(1) K1 = K2 (2) 2K1 = K2

(3) K1 > K2 (4) K1 < K2
Answer (3)
6. The escape velocity for earth is v. A planet having 9 times mass that of earth and radius, 16 times that of
earth, has the escape velocity of:
v 2v
(1) (2)
3 3
3v 9v
(3) (4)
4 4
Answer (3)
-2-
7. An electron and an alpha particle are accelerated by the same potential difference. Let λe and λα denote the
de-Broglie wavelengths of the electron and the alpha particle, respectively, then:
(1) λe > λα (2) λe = 4λα
(3) λe = λα (4) λe < λα
Answer (1)
8.
( )
An object moving along horizontal x-direction with kinetic energy 10 J is displaced through x = 3iˆ m by the

( )
force F = −2iˆ + 3 ˆj N . The kinetic energy of the object at the end of the displacement x is
(1) 10 J (2) 16 J
(3) 4J (4) 6J
Answer (3)
9. An object falls from a height of 10 m above the ground. After striking the ground it loses 50% of its kinetic
energy. The height upto which the object can rebounce from the ground is:
(1) 7.5 m (2) 10 m
(3) 2.5 m (4) 5m
Answer (4)
10. In the circuit shown below, the inductance L is connected to an ac source. The current flowing in the circuit is
I = I0sinωt. The voltage drop (VL) across L is
I0
(1) ωL I0sinωt (2) sin ωt
ωL
I0
(3) cos ωt (4) ωL I0cosωt
ωL
Answer (4)
11. A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery, the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor in nJ is
(1) 15 (2) 7.5
(3) 0.3 (4) 150

Answer (1)
12. A uniform wire of diameter d carries a current of 100 mA when the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire
d
is v. For a wire of diameter of the same material to carry a current of 200 mA, the mean drift velocity of
2
electrons in the wire is
(1) 4v (2) 8v
(3) v (4) 2v
Answer (2)
-3-
13. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V = (200 ± 4) volt and the current is measured as
I = (20 ± 0.2) A. The value of the resistance is:
(1) (10 ± 4.2) Ω (2) (10 ± 0.3) Ω
(3) (10 ± 0.1) Ω (4) (10 ± 0.8) Ω
Answer (2)
14. A step up transformer is connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V to operate at 11000 V, 88 watt. The current
in the secondary circuit, ignoring the power loss in the transformer, is
(1) 8 mA (2) 4 mA
(3) 0.4 A (4) 4A
Answer (1)
15. A particle is moving along x-axis with its position (x) varying with time (t) as x = αt4 + βt2 + γt + δ. The ratio of
its initial velocity to its initial acceleration, respectively, is:
(1) 2α : δ (2) γ : 2δ
(3) 4α : β (4) γ : 2β
Answer (4)
16. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass 5 kg about XY is 5 m as shown in figure. The radius of the
5x
sphere m , then the value of x is:
7
(1) 5 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 5
Answer (4)
17.
The I-V characteristics shown above are exhibited by a:

(1) Light emitting diode
(2) Zener diode
(3) Photodiode
(4) Solar cell
Answer (4)
-4-
18. The magnetic moment and moment of inertia of a magnetic needle as shown are, respectively, 1.0 × 10–2 A m2
10 –6
and 2
kg m2 . If it completes 10 oscillations in 10 s, the magnitude of the magnetic field is:
π
(1) 0.4 T (2) 4T

(3) 0.4 mT (4) 4 mT
Answer (3)
19. The capacitance of a capacitor with charge q and a potential difference V depends on :
(1) both q and V (2) the geometry of the capacitor
(3) q only (4) V only
Answer (2)
20. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Image formation needs regular reflection and/or refraction.
Statement II : The variety in colour of objects we see around us is due to the constituent colours of the light
incident on them.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)
21. A uniform metal wire of length l has 10 Ω resistance. Now this wire is stretched to a length 2l and then bent to
form a perfect circle. The equivalent resistance across any arbitrary diameter of that circle is :
(1) 10 Ω (2) 5Ω
(3) 40 Ω (4) 20 Ω
Answer (1)
22. The spectral series which corresponds to the electronic transition from the levels n2 = 5, 6,… to the level
n1 = 4 is
(1) Pfund series (2) Brackett series
(3) Lyman series (4) Balmer series
Answer (2)
-5-
23. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Houses made of concrete roofs overlaid with foam keep the room hotter during summer.
Reason R: The layer of foam insulation prohibits heat transfer, as it contains air pockets.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(4) Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Answer (2)
24. A particle executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude A has the same potential and kinetic energies at
the displacement
A
(1) 2 A (2)
2
A
(3) (4) A 2
2
Answer (3)
25. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment are 1.5 mm apart and the screen is placed at a distance of 1 m
from the slits. If the wavelength of light used is 600 × 10–9 m then the fringe separation is
(1) 4 × 10–5 m (2) 9 × 10–8 m
(3) 4 × 10–7 m (4) 4 × 10–4 m
Answer (4)
26. Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its

(1) high thermal expansion coefficient (2) high specific heat capacity
(3) low density (4) low boiling point
Answer (2)
27. The pitch of an error free screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale. While
measuring the diameter of a thick wire, the pitch scale reads 1 mm and 63rd division on the circular scale
coincides with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is:
(1) 1.63 cm (2) 0.163 cm
(3) 0.163 m (4) 1.63 m
Answer (2)
28. Let us consider two solenoids A and B, made from same magnetic material of relative permeability µr and
equal area of cross-section. Length of A is twice that of B and the number of turns per unit length in A is half
that of B. The ratio of self inductances of the two solenoids, LA : LB is
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:1
(3) 8:1 (4) 1:8
Answer (1)
-6-
29. When the output of an OR gate is applied as input to a NOT gate, then the combination acts as a
(1) NAND gate (2) NOR gate
(3) AND gate (4) OR gate
Answer (2)
30. Interference pattern can be observed due to superposition of the following waves:
A. y = a sinωt B. y = a sin2ωt
C. y = a sin(ωt – φ) D. y = a sin3ωt
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) B and C (2) B and D
(3) A and C (4) A and B
Answer (3)
31. hc
If φ is the work function of photosensitive material in eV and light of wavelength of numerical value λ =
e
metre, is incident on it with energy above its threshold value at an instant then the maximum kinetic energy of
the photo-electron ejected by it at that instant (Take h-Planck’s constant, c-velocity of light in free space) is (in
SI units):
(1) e + 2φ (2) 2e – φ
(3) e–φ (4) e+φ

Answer (3)
32. The electromagnetic radiation which has the smallest wavelength are
(1) X-rays (2) Gamma rays
(3) Ultraviolet rays (4) Microwaves
Answer (2)
33. The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system is described by

A. Pressure
B. Total heat
C. Temperature
D. Volume
E. Work done
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) A, B and E only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, C and D only
Answer (4)
-7-
34. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure with their wavelengths of transitions. Then:
(1) λ3 > λ2, λ1 = 2λ2 (2) λ3 > λ2, λ1 = 4λ2

(3) λ1 > λ2, λ2 = 2λ3 (4) λ2 > λ1, λ2 = 2λ3
Answer (4)
35. A box of mass 5 kg is pulled by a cord, up along a frictionless plane inclined at 30° with the horizontal. The
tension in the cord is 30 N. The acceleration of the box is (Take g = 10 m s–2)
(1) 2 m s–2 (2) Zero
(3) 0.1 m s–2 (4) 1 m s–2
Answer (4)
SECTION-B
36. If the ratio of relative permeability and relative permittivity of a uniform medium is 1 : 4. The ratio of the
magnitudes of electric field intensity (E) to the magnetic field intensity (H) of an EM wave propagating in that
medium is
 µ0 
 Given that = 120 π  :

 ε0 
(1) 30π : 1 (2) 1 : 120π
(3) 60π : 1 (4) 120π : 1
Answer (3)
37. The value of electric potential at a distance of 9 cm from the point charge 4 × 10–7 C is
 1 
Given = 9 × 109 N m2 C–2  :
 4πε0 
(1) 4 × 102 V (2) 44.4 V
(3) 4.4 × 105 V (4) 4 × 104 V

Answer (4)
2π
38. The displacement of a travelling wave y = C sin (at – x) where t is time, x is distance and λ is the
λ
wavelength, all in S.I. units. Then the frequency of the wave is:
2πλ 2πa
(1) (2)
a λ
λ a
(3) (4)
a λ
Answer (4)
-8-
39. An object of mass 100 kg falls from point A to B as shown in figure. The change in its weight, corrected to the
nearest integer is (RE is the radius of the earth):
(1) 49 N (2) 89 N
(3) 5N (4) 10 N
Answer (1)
40. Ax 2 A2
The potential energy of a particle moving along x-direction varies as V = . The dimensions of are:
x +B B
 3 2 12 –3   12 –3 
(1) M L T  (2) M L T 
 2 12 –4 
(3) M L T  (4) [ML2T–4]
Answer (3)

41.
( )
iˆ + 2 ˆj A cos ωt is a/an:
The two-dimensional motion of a particle, described by r =
A. parabolic path
B. elliptical path
C. periodic motion
D. simple harmonic motion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D only (2) A, B and C only
(3) A, C and D only (4) C and D only
Answer (4)
42. A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I0 is passed through a polaroid A, then through another polaroid B,
oriented at 60º and finally through another polaroid C, oriented at 45º relative to B as shown. The intensity of
emergent light is:
I0 I0
(1) (2)
16 4
I0 I0
(3) (4)
2 32
Answer (1)
-9-
43. Select the correct statements among the following :
A. Slow neutrons can cause fission in 235

92 U than fast neutrons.
B. α-rays are Helium nuclei.
C. β-rays are fast moving electrons or positrons.
D. γ-rays are electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths larger than X-rays.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A, B and C only (2) A, B and D only
(3) A and B only (4) C and D only
Answer (1)
44. Let ω1, ω2 and ω3 be the angular speed of the second hand, minute hand and hour hand of a smoothly running
analog clock, respectively. If x1, x2 and x3 are their respective angular distances in 1 minute then the factor
which remains constant (k) is
ω1 ω2 ω3
(1) = = = k (2) ω1x1 = ω2x2 = ω3x3 = k
x1 x2 x3
(3) ω1x12 =
ω2 x22 =
ω3 x32 =
k (4) ω12 x1 =
ω22 x2 =
ω32 x3 =
k
Answer (1)
45. The magnetic moment of an iron bar is M. It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc section of a circle
subtending an angle of 60° at the centre. The magnetic moment of this arc section is
3M 4M
(1) (2)
π π
M 2M
(3) (4)
π π
Answer (1)
46. The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire AB of 40 cm length fixed at both ends. In order to get zero
reading in the galvanometer G, the free end of J is to be placed from B at:
(1) 32 cm (2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm (4) 24 cm
Answer (4)
- 10 -
47. According to the law of equipartition of energy, the number of vibrational modes of a polyatomic gas of constant
Cp
γ= is (CP where CV are the specific heat capacities of the gas at constant pressure and constant volume,
Cv
respectively):
4 + 3γ
(1)
γ −1
3 + 4γ
(2)
γ −1
4 − 3γ
(3)
γ −1
3 − 4γ
(4)
γ −1
Answer (3)
48. The output Y for the inputs A and B of the given logic circuit is :
(1) A⋅B (2) A⋅B
(3) A+B (4) A+B

Answer (3)
49. The amplitude of the charge oscillating in a circuit decreases exponentially as Q = Q0e–Rt/2L, where Q0 is the
charge at t = 0s. The time at which charge amplitude decreases to 0.50 Q0 is nearly:
[Given that R = 1.5 Ω, L = 12 mH, In(2) = 0.693]

(1) 19.01 ms (2) 11.09 ms
(3) 19.01 s (4) 11.09 s
Answer (2)
50. The steady state current in the circuit shown below is :
(1) 0.67 A (2) 1.5 A

(3) 2A (4) 1A
Answer (3)
- 11 -
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. The correct decreasing order of atomic radii (pm) of Li, Be, B and C is
(1) Be > Li > B > C (2) Li > Be > B > C
(3) C > B > Be > Li (4) Li > C > Be > B
Answer (2)
52. Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B :

Rate [A] [B]
mol L–1 s–1
2 × 10–3 0.1 M 0.1 M
4 × 10–3 0.2 M 0.1 M
1.6 × 10–2 0.2 M 0.2 M
The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively, are
(1) 1, 0 (2) 0, 1
(3) 1, 2 (4) 2, 1
Answer (3)

Statement I: Propene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with the formula
.
Statement II: Oxidation of with hydrogen peroxide in presence of NaOH gives propan-2-
ol.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Answer (2)
54. Baeyer’s reagent is :

(1) Acidic potassium permanganate solution
(2) Acidic potassium dichromate solution
(3) Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium permanganate
(4) Hot, concentrated solution of potassium permanganate
Answer (3)
- 12 -
55. Which of the following molecules has "NON ZERO" dipole moment value?
(1) CCl4 (2) HI
(3) CO2 (4) BF3
Answer (2)
56. The major product X formed in the following reaction sequence is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
57. Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the colour change
at the end point?
(1) Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow
(2) Alkaline KMnO4, colourless to pink
(3) Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink

(4) Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour
Answer (3)
58. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(Atom/Molecule) (Property)
A. Nitrogen atom I. Paramagnetic
B. Fluorine molecule II. Most reactive element in group 18
C. Oxygen molecule III. Element with highest ionisation enthalpy in group 15
D. Xenon atom IV. Strongest oxidising agent
Identify the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer (4)
- 13 -
59. From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion.
(1) Rusting of iron object
(2) Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water
(3) Tarnishing of silver
(4) Development of green coating on copper and bronze ornaments
Answer (2)
60. Which of the following pairs of ions will have same spin only magnetic moment values within the pair?
A. Zn2+, Ti2+
B. Cr2+, Fe2+
C. Ti3+, Cu2+
D. V2+, Cu+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) C and D only (2) A and D only
(3) A and B only (4) B and C only
Answer (4)
61. At a given temperature and pressure, the equilibrium constant values for the equilibria are given below:
3A2 + B2  2A3B, K1
3 1
A3B  A 2 + B2 , K 2
2 2
The relation between K1 and K2 is :
K1
(1) K12 = 2K 2 (2) K2 =
2
1 1
(3) K1 = (4) K2 =
K2 K1
Answer (4)
62. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their solubilities in chloroform:
NaCl, CH3OH, cyclohexane, CH3CN
(1) NaCl < CH3CN < CH3OH < Cyclohexane
(2) CH3OH < CH3CN < NaCl < Cyclohexane
(3) NaCl < CH3OH < CH3CN < Cyclohexane
(4) Cyclohexane < CH3CN < CH3OH < NaCl
Answer (1)
63. Identify the incorrect statement about PCl5.

(1) PCl5 possesses two different Cl – P – Cl bond angles
(2) All five P – Cl bonds are identical in length
(3) PCl5 exhibits sp3d hybridisation
(4) PCl5 consists of five P – Cl (sigma) bonds
Answer (2)
- 14 -
64. Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when
5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until volume is
15 litres :
(1) Both the heat and work done will be greater than zero
(2) Heat absorbed will be less than zero and work done will be positive
(3) Work done will be zero and heat will also be zero
(4) Work done will be greater than zero and heat will remain zero
Answer (3)
65. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
is:
(1) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene (2) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene

(3) 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene (4) 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
Answer (1)
66. Which of the following set of ions act as oxidising agents?

(1) Ce4+ and Tb4+ (2) La3+ and Lu3+
(3) Eu2+ and Yb2+ (4) Eu2+ and Tb4+
Answer (1)
67. Select the incorrect reaction among the following:

HO
(1) CH3 COCl 
2
∆
→ CH3 COOH
(2)
(i) KMnO /OH–

(3) CH3 CH2OH 
4
⊕ → CH3 COOH
(ii) H3 O
CrO – H SO
(4) CH3 CH2CH2OH 
3 2 4
→ CH3 CH2COOH
Answer (2)
68. The UV-visible absorption bands in the spectra of lanthanoid ions are ‘X’, probably because of the excitation
of electrons involving ‘Y’. The ‘X’ and ‘Y’, respectively, are :
(1) Broad and f orbitals (2) Narrow and f orbitals
(3) Broad and d and f orbitals (4) Narrow and d and f orbitals
Answer (2)
- 15 -
69. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an:

(1) hexadentate ligand (2) ambidentate ligand
(3) monodentate ligand (4) bidentate ligand
Answer (1)
70. M
The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 mL of aqueous solution is :
20
(Molar mass of glucose : 180 g mol–1)
(1) 2.25 g (2) 4.5 g
(3) 0.44 g (4) 1.125 g
Answer (1)
71. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) The acidic strength of HX (X = F, Cl, Br and I) follows the order : HF > HCl > HBr > HI.
(2) Fluorine exhibits –1 oxidation state whereas other halogens exhibit +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation states
also.
(3) The enthalpy of dissociation of F2 is smaller than that of Cl2.
(4) Fluorine is stronger oxidising agent than chlorine.
Answer (1)
72. For the reaction in equilibrium
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g), ∆H = –Q

Reaction is favoured in forward direction by:
(1) use of catalyst
(2) decreasing concentration of N2
(3) low pressure, high temperature and high concentration of ammonia
(4) high pressure, low temperature and higher concentration of H2
Answer (4)
73. The major product D formed in the following reaction sequence is:
(1) (2)
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3CH2Cl

Answer (3)
- 16 -
74. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(Block/group in (Element)
periodic table)
A. Lanthanoid I. Ce
B. d-block element II. As
C. p-block element III. Cs
D. s-block element IV. Mn

(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer (3)
75. Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?
(1) C2O24− (2) SCN–
(3) NO2− (4) CN–
Answer (1)
76. The quantum numbers of four electrons are given below :
1
I. n=
4; l =
2; ml =
−2; s =
−
2
1
II. n = 3; l = 2; ml = 1; s = +
2
1
III. n = 4; l = 1; ml = 0; s = +
2
1
IV. n = 3; l = 1; ml = –1; s = +
2
The correct decreasing order of energy of these electrons is
(1) IV > II > III > I (2) I > III > II > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) I > II > III > IV
Answer (2)
77. The major product C in the below mentioned reaction is:

alc. KOH HBr aq. KOH
CH3 CH2CH2Br →∆
A  → B  ∆
→C
(1) Propan-1-ol (2) Propan-2-ol

(3) Propane (4) Propyne
Answer (2)
- 17 -
78. The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a positive carbylamine test
is :
(1) Aniline (2) Pyridine
(3) N-methylaniline (4) Triethylamine
Answer (1)
79. For an endothermic reaction:

(A) qp is negative.
(B) ∆rH is positive.

(C) ∆rH is negative.
(D) qp is positive.
Choose the correct answer from the options given, below:
(1) B and D (2) C and D
(3) A and B (4) A and C
Answer (1)
80. 1.0 g of H2 has same number of molecules as in:

(1) 14 g of N2 (2) 18 g of H2O
(3) 16 g of CO (4) 28 g of N2
Answer (1)
81. 1
Which of the following plot represents the variation of In k versus in accordance with Arrhenius equation?
T
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
82. A steam volatile organic compound which is immiscible with water has a boiling point of 250°C. During
steam distillation, a mixture of this organic compound and water will boil :
(1) above 100°C but below 250°C
(2) above 250°C
(3) at 250°C
(4) close to but below 100°C
Answer (4)
- 18 -
83. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Glycogen is similar to amylose in its structure.
Statement II : Glycogen is found in yeast and fungi also.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Answer (2)
84. The oxidation states not shown by Mn in given reaction is :
3MnO24− + 4H+ → 2MnO4− + MnO2 + 2H2O
A. +6
B. +2
C. +4
D. +7
E. +3
(1) D and E only (2) B and D only
(3) A and B only (4) B and E only
Answer (4)
5
Statement I: The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at RH cm–1 .
36
(RH = Rydberg constant)
Statement II: When the temperature of blackbody increases, the maxima of the curve (intensity of
wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (3)
- 19 -
SECTION-B
86. Identify D in the following sequence of reactions:
(1) n-propyl alcohol (2) isopropyl alcohol

(3) propanal (4) propionic acid
Answer (1)
87. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) PEt3 and AsPh3 as ligands can form dπ-dπ bond with transition metals
(2) The N – N single bond is as strong as the P – P single bond
(3) Nitrogen has unique ability to form pπ-pπ multiple bonds with nitrogen, carbon and oxygen
(4) Nitrogen cannot form dπ-pπ bond as other heavier elements of its group
Answer (2)
List-I List-II
(Test/reagent) (Radical identified)
A. Lake Test I. NO3−
B. Nessler’s Reagent II. Fe3+
C. Potassium sulphocyanide III. Al3+
D. Brown Ring Test IV. NH+4
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer (4)
List-I List-II
Molecule Bond enthalpy (kJ mol–1)
A. HCl I. 435.8
B. N2 II. 498
C. H2 III. 946.0
D. O2 IV. 431.0
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer (4)
- 20 -
90. The standard cell potential of the following cell Zn|Zn2+ (aq)|Fe2+(aq)|Fe is 0.32 V. Calculate the standard
Gibbs energy change for the reaction :
Zn(s) + Fe2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Fe(s)
(Given : 1 F = 96487 C)
(1) –61.75 kJ mol–1 (2) +5.006 kJ mol–1
(3) –5.006 kJ mol–1 (4) +61.75 kJ mol–1
Answer (1)
91. Match List-I will List-II:

List-I List-II
Solid salt treated with Anion detected
dil. H2SO4
A. effervescence of colourless gas I. NO2–
B. gas with smell of rotten egg II. CO32–

C. gas with pungent smell III. S2–
D. brown fumes IV. SO32–
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer (1)
92. The ratio of solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M KCl solution to the solubility of AgCl in water is:
(Given : Solubility product of AgCl = 10–10)
(1) 10–4 (2) 10–6
(3) 10–9 (4) 10–5
Answer (1)
93. On complete combustion, 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 0.2 g of CO2 and 0.1 g of H2O. The percentage
composition of carbon and hydrogen in the compound, respectively is:
(1) 4.07% and 15.02% (2) 18.18% and 3.70%
(3) 15.02% and 4.07% (4) 3.70% and 18.18%
Answer (2)
94. The following reaction method
is not suitable for the preparation of the corresponding haloarene products, due to high reactivity of halogen,
when X is :
(1) F (2) I
(3) CI (4) Br
Answer (1)
- 21 -
95. The alkane that can be oxidized to the corresponding alcohol by KMnO4 as per the equation
is, when:
(1) R1 = H; R2 = H; R3 = H (2) R1 = CH3; R2 = CH3; R3 = CH3
(3) R1 = CH3; R2 = H; R3 = H (4) R1 = CH3; R2 = CH3; R3 = H
Answer (2)
96. For the following reaction at 300 K

A2(g) + 3B2(g) → 2AB3(g)
the enthalpy change is +15 kJ, then the internal energy change is :
(1) 19988.4 J (2) 200 J
(3) 1999 J (4) 1.9988 kJ
Answer (1)
97. Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are 0.04 s–1 and 0.14 s–1, respectively; then, activation
energy of the reaction is :
(Given: log3.5 = 0.5441, R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1)
(1) 182310 J (2) 18500 J
(3) 18219 J (4) 18030 J
Answer (3)
98. Mass of glucose (C6H12O6) required to be dissolved to prepare one litre of its solution which is isotone with
15 g L–1 solution of urea (NH3CONH2) is (Given: Molar mass in g mol–1 C : 12, H : 1, O : 16, N : 14)
(1) 55 g (2) 15 g
(3) 30 g (4) 45 g
Answer (4)
99. [Mn2(CO)10] and [Co2(CO)8] structures have

A. Metal-Metal linkage B. Terminal CO groups
C. Bridging CO groups D. Metal in zero oxidation state
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Only A, B, C (2) Only B, C, D
(3) Only A, C, D (4) Only A, B, D
Answer (4)
100. Methyl group attached to a positively charged carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation due to
(1) –I inductive effect (2) electromeric effect
(3) hyperconjugation (4) mesomeric effect
Answer (3)
- 22 -
w
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. The regions with high level of species richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of 70% of the species
and habitat are identified as:
(1) Natural Reserves
(2) Sacred Groves
(3) Biodiversity Hotspots
(4) Biogeographical Regions
Answer (3)
102. Which of the following simple tissues are commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and pulp of pear?
(1) Sclereids
(2) Fibres
(3) Parenchyma
(4) Collenchyma
Answer (1)
103. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence, responsible for initiating replication. It is called as:
(1) Recognition sequence
(2) Cloning site
(3) Restriction site
(4) ori site
Answer (4)
Statement I: When many alleles of a single gene govern a character, it is called polygenic inheritance.
Statement II: In Polygenic inheritance, the effect of each allele is additive.
Answer (2)
- 23 -
105. Which of the following are required for the light reaction of Photosynthesis?
A. CO2 B. O2
C. H2O D. Chlorophyll
E. Light
(1) A, C, D and E only
(2) C, D and E only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, C and E only
Answer (2)

List-I List-II
A. Fleming I. Disc shaped sacs or cisternae near cell nucleus
B. Robert Brown II. Chromatin
C. George Palade III. Ribosomes
D. Camillo Golgi IV. Nucleus
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer (1)

List-I List-II
Type of Inheritance Example
A. Incomplete dominance I. Blood groups in human
B. Co-dominance II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum
C. Pleiotropy III. Skin colour in human
D. Polygenic inheritance IV. Phenylketonuria
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Answer (2)
- 24 -
108. Which part of the ovule stores reserve food materials?

(1) Nucellus
(2) Integument
(3) Placenta
(4) Funicle
Answer (1)
109. Which one of the following is not found in Gymnosperms?
(1) Sieve cells
(2) Albuminous cells
(3) Tracheids
(4) Vessels
Answer (4)
110. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?
(1) Wild-life sanctuary
(2) Botanical garden
(3) Biosphere reserve
(4) National park
Answer (2)

Statement I : The Indian Government has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity of
GM research.
Statement II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people.
Answer (1)
112. Pollen grains remain preserved as fossils due to the presence of :

(1) Epidermal layer
(2) Tapetum
(3) Exine layer
(4) Intine layer
Answer (3)
- 25 -
113. Identify the incorrect pair :

(1) Sphenopsida – Adiantum
(2) Pteropsida – Dryopteris
(3) Psilopsida – Psilotum
(4) Lycopsida – Selaginella
Answer (1)
114. Which of the following is the correct match?
(1) Gymnosperms : Cedrus, Pinus, Sequoia
(2) Angiosperms : Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Sequoia
(3) Bryophytes : Polytrichum, Polysiphonia, Sphagnum
(4) Pteridophytes : Equisetum, Ginkgo, Adiantum
Answer (1)
115. Given below are two statements regarding RNA polymerase in prokaryotes.
Statement I : In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing the process of elongation during
transcription.
Statement II : RNA polymerase associate transiently with ‘Rho’ factor to initiate transcription.
Answer (1)
116. Which of the following is a nucleotide?

(1) Uridine
(2) Adenylic acid
(3) Guanine
(4) Guanosine
Answer (2)
List-I List-II
A. Vexillary aestivation I. Brinjal
B. Epipetalous stamens II. Peach
C. Epiphyllous stamens III. Pea
D. Perigynous flower IV. Lily
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer (1)
- 26 -
List-I List-II
A. China rose I. Free central
B. Mustard II. Basal
C. Primrose III. Axile
D. Marigold IV. Parietal

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer (3)
119. Which of the following helps in maintenance of the pressure gradient in sieve tubes?
(1) Albuminous cells
(2) Sieve cells
(3) Phloem parenchyma
(4) Companion cells
Answer (4)
120. Mesosome in a cell is a :

(1) Membrane bound vesicular structure
(2) Chain of many ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(3) Special structure formed by extension of plasma membrane
(4) Medium sized chromosome
Answer (3)

List-I List-II
A. Abscisic acid I. Promotes female flowers in cucumber
B. Ethylene II. Helps seeds to withstand desiccation

C. Gibberellin III. Helps in nutrient mobilisation
D. Cytokinin IV. Promotes bolting in beet, cabbage etc

(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Answer (3)
- 27 -
List-I List-II
A. Genetically engineered Human Insulin I. Gene therapy
B. GM Cotton II. E. coli
C. ADA Deficiency III. Antigen-antibody interaction
D. ELISA IV. Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (4)
List-I List-II
A. ETS Complex I I. NADH Dehydrogenase
B. ETS Complex II II. Cytochrome bC1
C. ETS Complex III III. Cytochrome C oxidase
D. ETS Complex IV IV. Succinate Dehydrogenase

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Answer (2)
124. Cryopreservation technique is used for :

(1) Protection of environment
(2) Protection of Biodiversity hotspots
(3) Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile condition for a long period
(4) In-situ conservation
Answer (3)
- 28 -
125. Which of the following are correct about cellular respiration?

A. Cellular respiration is the breaking of C-C bonds of complex organic molecules by oxidation.
B. The entire cellular respiration takes place in Mitochondria.
C. Fermentation takes place under anaerobic condition in germinating seeds.
D. The fate of pyruvate formed during glycolysis depends on the type of organism also.
E. Water is formed during respiration as a result of O 2 accepting electrons and getting reduced.
(1) A, C, D, E only
(2) A, B, E only
(3) A, B, C, E only
(4) B, C, D, E only
Answer (1)

Statement I: In eukaryotes there are three RNA polymerases in the nucleus in addition to the RNA
polymerase found in the organelles.
Statement II: All the three RNA polymerases in eukaryotic nucleus have different roles.
Answer (3)
List-I List-II
A. Histones I. Loosely packed chromatin
B. Nucleosome II. Densely packed Chromatin
C. Euchromatin III. Positively charged basic proteins
D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA wrapped around histone

octamer

Answer (4)
- 29 -

Statement I: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell cycle resulting in the gain or loss of whole set
of chromosome in an organism is known as aneuploidy.
Statement II: Failure of cytokinesis after anaphase stage of cell division results in the gain or loss of a
chromosome is called polyploidy.
Answer (4)
129. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of

(1) Diakinesis
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Pachytene
Answer (4)
List-I List-II
A. Metacentric chromosome I. Chromosome has a terminal

centromere
B. Sub-metacentric chromosome II. Middle centromere forming two equal

arms of chromosome
C. Acrocentric chromosome III. Centromere is slightly away from the

middle of chromosome resulting into
two unequal arms
D. Telocentric chromosome IV. Centromere is situated close to its

end forming one extremely short and
one very long arm

(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer (4)
- 30 -
131. Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible for catalysing the linking together of two compounds.
Which of the following bonds is not catalysed by it?
(1) C – C
(2) P – O
(3) C – O
(4) C – N
Answer (1)
132. F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated from the internodal segments of tobacco stem when auxins was
supplied with one of the following except :
(1) Extract of Vascular tissues
(2) Coconut milk
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Yeast Extract
Answer (3)
133. Given below are some statements about plant growth regulators.
A. All Gas are acidic in nature.
B. Auxins are antagonists to Gas.
C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk.
D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango.
E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy.
Choose the correct set of statements from the option given below:
(1) A, C, D
(2) B, E
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D, E
Answer (1)
134. Identify the incorrect statement related to get electrophoresis.
(1) Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation
(2) Separated DNA can be extracted from get piece
(3) Fragment of DNA moves toward anode
(4) Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments
Answer (1)
- 31 -
135. Which of the following examples show monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many ovules?
A. Sesbania
B. Brinjal
C. Indigofera
D. Tobacco
E. Asparagus
(1) B and E only
(2) C, D and E only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A and C only
Answer (4)
SECTION-B
Statement I: In the lac operon, the z gene codes for beta-galactosidase which is primarily responsible for
the hydrolysis of lactose into galactose and glucose.
Statement II: In addition to lactose, glucose or galactose can also induce lac operon.
Answer (1)
137. The part marked as ‘x’ in the given figure is
(1) Endosperm
(2) Thalamus
(3) Endocarp
(4) Mesocarp
Answer (2)
- 32 -

Statement I: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the abaxial
epidermis.
Statement II: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated
cells, which are arranged vertically and parallel to each other.
Answer (2)
139. Which of the following are not fatty acids?

A. Glutamic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Lecithin
E. Aspartic acid
(1) C, D and E only
(2) A and B only
(3) A, D and E only
(4) B and C only
Answer (3)
140. Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem given below:
If T4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value at T1
10000
(1) J
10
10000
(2) 4 J
10
(3) 10,000 J
(4) 10,00,000 J
Answer (4)
- 33 -
141. Which one of the following products diffuses out of the chloroplast during photosynthesis?
(1) ADP
(2) NADPH
(3) O2
(4) ATP
Answer (3)
142. Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA
respectively with:
(1) Hind II, Hind II
(2) Hind II, Alu I
(3) Hind II, EcoR I
(4) Hind II, BamHI
Answer (1)
143. Which one of the following is not a limitation of ecological pyramids?
(1) Saprophytes are not given any place of ecological pyramids
(2) It assumes a simple food chain, that almost never exists in nature
(3) It accommodates a food web
(4) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
Answer (3)
144. The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt cotton kills the pest by:
(1) Creating pores in the midgut
(2) Damaging the respiratory system
(3) Degenerating the nervous system
(4) Altering the pH of body fluids
Answer (1)
List-I List-II
Organisms Mode of Nutrition
A. Euglenoid I. Parasitic
B. Dinoflagellate II. Saprophytic

C. Slime mould III. Photosynthetic
D. Plasmodium IV. Switching between photosynthetic
and heterotrophic mode
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-II, С-III, D-I
Answer (3)
- 34 -
146. Which of the following graphs depicts the effect of substrate concentration on velocity of enzyme catalysed
reaction?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (1)
147. When will the population density increase, under special conditions?
When the number of :
(1) Deaths exceeds number of births and also number of emigrants equals number of immigrants.
(2) Births plus number of immigrants equals number of deaths plus number of emigrants.
(3) Births plus number of emigrants is more than the number of deaths plus number of immigrants.
(4) Births plus number of immigrants is more than the sum of number of deaths and number of emigrants.
Answer (4)
148. When a tall pea plant with round seeds was selfed, it produced the progeny of :
(a) Tall plants with round seeds and
(b) Tall plants with wrinkled seeds.
Identify the genotype of the parent plant.
(1) TtRr
(2) TtRR
(3) TTRR
(4) TTRr
Answer (4)
- 35 -
List-I List-II
A. Biodiversity hotspot I. Khasi and jantia hills in Meghalaya
B. Sacred groves II. World Summit on Sustainable
C. Johannesburg South Africa III. Parthenium
D. Alien species invasion IV. Western Ghats
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer (1)
150. Observe the given figure. Identify the different stages labelled with alphabets by selecting the correct option.
(1) A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-Reduction

(2) A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-Regeneration
(3) A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-Regeneration
(4) A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-Regeneration
Answer (3)
- 36 -
NEET (UG)-2024 (Code-C1)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
List I List II
A. Predator I. Ophrys
B. Mutualism II. Pisaster
C. Parasitism III. Female wasp and fig
D Sexual deceit IV. Plasmodium
Chose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-II, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer (4)
List I List II
Location of Joint Type of Joint
A. Joint between humerus and I. Gliding joint
pectoral girdle
B. Knee joint II. Ball and Socket joint
C. Joint between atlas and axis III. Hinge joint
D Joint between carpals IV. Pivot joint
Chose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Answer (1)
153. Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton
A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins.
C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of the insect.
E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria.
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below:
(1) E → C → B → A → D (2) B→C→A→E→D
(3) A → E → B → D → C (4) B→E→C→A→D
Answer (4)
- 37 -
List I List II
A. Gene pool I. Stable within a generation
B. Genetic drift II. Change in gene frequency by

chance
C. Gene flow III. Transfer of genes into or out of
population
D Gene frequency IV. Total number of genes and their
alleles

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer (2)
155. Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by the sketch given in figure?
(1) Artificial selection

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation
Answer (4)
156. A person with blood group ARh– can receive the blood transfusion from which of the following types?
A. BRh– B. ABRh–
C. ORh– D. ARh–
E. ARh+
(1) D and E only (2) D only
(3) A and B only (4) C and D only
Answer (4)
157. Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving
double bonds, are known as :
(1) Transferases (2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Dehydrogenases (4) Lyases
Answer (4)
- 38 -
158. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
Evenet Stage of Prophase-I (Meiosis-I)
A. Chiasmata formation I. Pachytene
B. Crossing over II. Diakinesis
C. Synaptonemal complex formation III. Diplotene
D. Terminalisation of chiasmata IV. Zygotene

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer (1)
List-I List-II
A. Primary structure of protein I. Human haemoglobin
B. Secondary structure of protein II. Dispulphide bonds
C. Tertiary structure of protein III. Polypeptide chain
D. Quaternary structure of protein IV. Alpha helix and  sheet

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer (1)
List-I List-II
A. Epinephrine I. Hyperglycemia
B. Thyroxine II. Smooth muscle contraction
C. Oxytocin III. Basal metabolic rate
D. Glucagon IV. Emergency hormone

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Answer (3)
- 39 -
161. Which of the following statements is correct about the type of junction and their role in our body?
(1) Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
(2) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(3) Tight junctions help to perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(4) Gap junctions help to create gap between the cells and tissues.
Answer (2)
162. Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the tetracycline
resistance (tetR) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector.
(1) Bam HI and Sal I
(2) Sal I and Pst I
(3) Pst I and Pvu I
(4) Pvu I and Bam HI
Answer (1)
List-I List-II
A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias
B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon
C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine
D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-I, B-III C-II, D-IV
(3) А-II, В-ІІІ, C-I, D-IV
Answer (3)
Assertion A: During menstrual cycle, the ovulation takes place approximately on 14 th day.
Reason R: Rapid secretion of LH in the middle of menstrual cycle induces rupture of Graafian follicle and
thereby the release of ovum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) A is correct but R is not correct.
(2) A is not correct but R is correct.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Answer (3)
- 40 -
165. Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent evolution:
List-I List-II
A. Lemur I. Flying phalanger
B. Bobcat II. Numbat
C. Anteater III. Spotted cuscus
D. Flying squirrels IV. Tasmanian tiger cat

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) А-IV, В-ІІІ, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer (1)
List-I List-II
A. Cells are metabolically active and proliferate I. G2 phase
B. DNA replication takes place II. G1 phase
C. Proteins are synthesised III. G0 phase
D. Quiescent stage with metabolically active cells IV. S phase

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) А-І, В-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) Α-I, В-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (4)
List-I List-II
A. Migratory flamingoes and resident fish in South American lakes I. Interference competition
B. Abingdon tortoise became extinct after introduction of goats in their II. Competitive release
habitat
C. Chathamalus expands its distributional range in the absence of III. Resource Partitioning
Balanus
D. Five closely related species of Warblers feeding in different IV. Interspecific competition
locations on same tree

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) А-III, В-1, C-II, D-IV (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer (2)
- 41 -
168. Match List-I with List-II relating to microbes and their products:
List-I List-II
(Microbes) (Products)
A. Streptococcus I. Citric acid
B. Trichoderma polysporum II. Clot buster
C. Monascus purpureus III. Cyclosporin A
D. Aspergillus niger IV. Statins

(1) А-ІІ, В-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Answer (1)
List-I List-II
A. F1 Particles I. Chromosomes
B. Histones II. Cilia
C. Axoneme III. Golgi apparatus
D. Cisternae IV. Mitochondria

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer (2)
170. Match List-I with List-II relating to examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier:
List-I List-II
A. Copper releasing IUD I. Vaults
B. Non-medicated IUD II. Multiload 375
C. Contraceptive barrier III. LNG-20
D. Hormone releasing IUD IV. Lippes loop

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, В-III, С-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) А-II, В-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (4)
- 42 -
Statement I: Antibiotics are chemicals produced by microbes that kill other microbes.
Statement II: Antibodies are chemicals formed in body that eliminate microbes.
Answer (3)
172. Arrange the following parts in human Mammary gland, traversing the route of milk ejection.
A. Mammary duct B. Lactiferous duct
C. Mammary alveolus D. Ampulla
E. Mammary tubule
(1) D → C → E → A → B (2) C→E→B→A→D
(3) C → E → A → D → B (4) A→C→E→D→B
Answer (3)
173. Which of the following are correct about EcoR1?

A. Cut the DNA with blunt end
B. Cut the DNA with sticky end
C. Recognise a specific palindromic sequence
D. Cut the DNA between the base G and A when encounters the DNA sequence ‘GAATTC’
E. Exonuclease
(1) B, C, E only (2) A, D, E only
(3) A, C, D only (4) B, C, D only
Answer (4)
174. Which of the following is/are present in female cockroach?

A. Collateral gland B. Mushroom gland
C. Spermatheca D. Anal style
E. Phallic gland
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D only (2) B and E only
(3) A only (4) A and C only
Answer (4)
- 43 -
175. Math List-I with List-II:
List I List II
A. Malignant tumors I. Destroy tumors
B. MALT II. AIDS
C. NACO III. Metastasis
D -Interferons IV. Lymphoid tissue

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (1)
176. Open Circulatory system is present in:

(1) Palaemon, Nereis, Balanoglossus
(2) Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Salpa
(3) Anopheles, Limax, Limulus
(4) Pheretima, Musca, Pila
Answer (3)
177. In which of the following connective tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin?
A. Cartilage
B. Done
C. Adipose tissue
D. Blood
E. Areolar tissue
(1) D, C, D and E only
(2) A, D, C and E only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, C and D only
Answer (2)
178. Which of the following pairs is an incorrect match?

(1) Annelids and arthropods-Bilateral symmetry
(2) Sponges-Acoelomates
(3) Coelenterates and Ctenophores-Radial symmetry
(4) Platyhelminthes-Diploblastic organisation
Answer (4)
- 44 -
List-I List-II
A. Residual Volume I. Maximum volume of air that can be breathed in after forced
expiration
B. Vital Capacity II. Volume of air inspired or expired during normal respiration
C. Expiratory Capacity III. Volume of air remaining in lungs after forcible expiration
D. Tidal Volume IV. Total volume of air expired after normal inspiration

(1) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer (3)
List-I List-II
A. Living Fossil I. Elongated canine teeth
B. Connecting Link II. Vermiform appendix
C. Vestigial Organ III. Echidna
D. Atavism IV. Latimeria

(1) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer (1)
181. Match List-I with List -II
List-I List-II
A. Schwann cells I. Neurotransmitter
B. Synaptic knob II. Cerebral cortex
C. Bipolar neurons III. Myelin sheath
D. Multipolar neurons IV. Retina

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer (1)
- 45 -
182. Diuresis is prevented by:
(1) Renin from JG cell via switching off the osmoreceptors
(2) ANF from adrenal medulla
(3) Aldosterone from adrenal medulla
(4) Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis
Answer (4)
183. Following is the list of STD’s. Select the discases which are not completely curable.
A. Genital warts B. Genital herpes
C Syphilis D Hepatius-B
E Trichomoniasis

(1) A and D only (2) B and D only
(3) A and C only (4) D and E only
Answer (2)
184. What is the correct order (old to recent) of periods in Paleozoic era?
(1) Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous (2) Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian
(3) Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous (4) Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian
Answer (2)
185. ‘Lub’ sound of Heart is caused by the___________.

(1) closure of the semilunar values (2) opening of tricuspid and bicuspid values
(3) opening of the semilunar valves (4) closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
Answer (4)
SECTION-B
186. Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia.
List I List II
(Structures) (Features)
a. Mons pubis (i) A fleshy fold of tissue surrounding the vaginal opening
b. Clitoris (ii) Fatty cushion of cells covered by skin and hair
c. Hymen (iii) Tiny finger-like structure above labia minora
d Labina majora (iv) A thin membrane-like structure covering vaginal opening
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Answer (1)
- 46 -
187. Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder where chromosome number is not the exact copy of its haploid set
of chromosomes, due to :
(a) Substitution
(b) Addition
(c) Deletion
(d) Translocation
(e) Inversion
(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (d) and (e) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
Answer (4)

Statement I : RNA interference takes place in all Eukaryotic organisms as method of cellular defense.
Statement II : RNAi involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary single-stranded RNA
molecule that binds and prevents translation of mRNA
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Answer (1)
189. Identify the wrong statements :

(A) Erythropoietin is produced by juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
(B) Leydig cells produce Androgens
(C) Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide hormone is secreted by the seminiferous tubules of the testes
(D) Cholecystokinin is produced by gastrointestinal tract
(E) Gastrin acts on intestinal wall and helps in the production of pepsinogen
(1) (D) and (E) only
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (C) and (E) only
(4) (A) and (C) only
Answer (3)
- 47 -
190. Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR.
a. Annealing
b. Amplification (~1 billion times)
c. Denaturation
d. Treatment with Taq polymerase and deoxynucleotides
e. Extension
Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the options given below :
(1) c → a → d → e → b (2) a→b→e→d→c
(3) a → c → e → d → b (4) d→b→e→c→a
Answer (1)

Statements I: Concentrated urine is formed due to counter current mechanism in nephron.
Statement II: Counter current mechanism helps to maintain osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Answer (3)

Statement I: Concentrically arranged cisternae of Golgi complex are arranged near the nucleus with distinct
convex cis or maturing and concave trans or forming face.
Statement II: A number of proteins are modified in the cisternae of Golgi complex before they are released
from cis face.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (4)

List-I List-II
A. Parturition I. Several antibodies for new-born babies
B. Placenta II. Collection of ovum after ovulation
C. Colostrum III. Foetal ejection reflex
D. Fimbriae IV. Secretion of the hormone hCG
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer (1)
- 48 -
Assertion A: Members of subphylum vertebrates possess notochord during the embryonic period. The
notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult.
Reason R: Thus all chordates are vertebrates not all vertebrates are chordates.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below.
(2) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Answer (1)
195. The mother has A+ blood group the father has B+ and the child is A+. What can be the possibility of
genotypes of all three, respectively?
(A) IAIA | IBi | IBi (B) IAIA | IBi | IAi
(C) IBi | IAIA | IAIB (D) IAIA | IBIB | IAi
(E) IAi | IBi | IAi
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) C and D (2) D and A
(3) A and B (4) B and E
Answer (4)
196. What do ‘a’ and ‘b’ represent in the following population growth curve?
(1) ‘a’ represents exponential growth when responses are not limiting the growth; and ‘b’ represents logistic
growth when responses are limiting the growth.
(2) ‘a’ represents logistic grwoth when responses are not limiting the growth; ‘b’ represnrs exponential
growth when responses are limiting the growth.
(3) ‘a’ represents carrying capacity and ‘b’ shows logistic growth when responses are limiting the growth.
(4) ‘a’ represents exponential growth when responses are not limiting the growth and ‘b’ shows carrying
capacity.
Answer (1)
- 49 -
197. Select the correct statements regarding mechanism of muscle contraction.
A. It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via sensory neuron.
B. Neurotransmitter generates action potential in the sarcolemma.
C. Increased Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium with troponin on action filaments.
D. Masking of active site for actin is activated.
E. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to form cross bridge.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and E only (2) C, D and E only
(3) A and D only (4) B, D and E only
Answer (1)
198. Match List I with List II :
List - I List – II
A. Squamous Epithelium I. Goblet cells of alimentary

canal
B. Ciliated Epithelium II. Inner lining of pancreatic

ducts
C. Glandular Epithelium III. Walls of blood vessels
D. Compound Epithelium IV. Inner surface of Fallopian

tubes

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer (4)
199. Match List I with List II :
List - I List – II
A. B-Lymphocytes I. Passive immunity
B. Interferons II. Cell mediated immunity
C. T-Lymphocytes III. Produce an army of proteins

in response to pathogens
D. Colostrum IV. Innate immunity

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (3)
- 50 -
Assertion A: During the transportation of gases, about 20-25 percent of CO2 is carried by Haemoglobin as
carbamino-haemoglobin.
Reason R: This binding is related to high p CO2 and low p O2 in tissues.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Answer (3)
❑ ❑ ❑
- 51 -

Ques&Ans Re-Examniation NEET-2024 (Code-C1)

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DATE : 23/06/2024 Test Booklet Code

Questions & Answers

Re-Examination of NEET (UG)-2024

(1) K1 = K2 (2) 2K1 = K2

(1) 15 (2) 7.5

(3) 0.3 (4) 150

The I-V characteristics shown above are exhibited by a:

(1) 0.4 T (2) 4T

20. Given below are two statements:

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) A is false but R is true.

(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

26. Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its

(3) e–φ (4) e+φ

33. The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system is described by

(1) λ3 > λ2, λ1 = 2λ2 (2) λ3 > λ2, λ1 = 4λ2

(1) 4 × 102 V (2) 44.4 V

(3) 4.4 × 105 V (4) 4 × 104 V

43. Select the correct statements among the following :

A. Slow neutrons can cause fission in 235

B. α-rays are Helium nuclei.

C. β-rays are fast moving electrons or positrons.

D. γ-rays are electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths larger than X-rays.

(1) A⋅B (2) A⋅B

(3) A+B (4) A+B

[Given that R = 1.5 Ω, L = 12 mH, In(2) = 0.693]

50. The steady state current in the circuit shown below is :

(1) 0.67 A (2) 1.5 A

52. Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B :

53. Given below are two statements:

54. Baeyer’s reagent is :

(2) Alkaline KMnO4, colourless to pink

(3) Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink

58. Match List-I with List-II :

A. Nitrogen atom I. Paramagnetic

B. Fluorine molecule II. Most reactive element in group 18

C. Oxygen molecule III. Element with highest ionisation enthalpy in group 15

D. Xenon atom IV. Strongest oxidising agent

Identify the correct answer from the options given below :

63. Identify the incorrect statement about PCl5.

65. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

(1) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene (2) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene

66. Which of the following set of ions act as oxidising agents?

67. Select the incorrect reaction among the following:

(i) KMnO /OH–

69. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an:

71. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

72. For the reaction in equilibrium

N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g), ∆H = –Q

(3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3CH2Cl

74. Match List-I with List-II:

B. d-block element II. As

C. p-block element III. Cs

D. s-block element IV. Mn

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

75. Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?

(1) C2O24− (2) SCN–

(3) NO2− (4) CN–