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CLAT PG 2019 Solutions (Set A)

Question 1. Which one of the following is not formally considered as

an amendment to the Constitution under Article 368?
(A) Creation of new states
(B) Change in the Preamble
(C) Change in the Part IV A
(D) Change in Part XII

Answer. A

Solution. The answer is (A) Creation of new states.

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution lays down the procedure for amending
the Constitution. However, Article 4 of the Constitution provides that laws
made by Parliament under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment
of new States) and Article 3 (relating to formation of new States and
alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States) effecting
amendments in the First Schedule or the Fourth Schedule and
supplemental, incidental and consequential matters, shall not be deemed to
be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.

This means that the creation of new states is not formally considered as an
amendment to the Constitution under Article 368. However, it is still a very
important change to the Constitution, as it creates new political entities and
alters the existing power-sharing arrangements.

The other three options are all formally considered as amendments to the
Constitution under Article 368:
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● Change in the Preamble: The Preamble is an important part of the

Constitution, as it sets out the basic principles and objectives of the
Constitution. Any change to the Preamble is therefore considered to
be a significant amendment.
● Change in Part IV A: Part IV A of the Constitution deals with
Fundamental Duties. Fundamental Duties are the moral obligations of
every citizen to help promote the wellbeing of the nation. Any change
to Part IV A is therefore considered to be an important amendment.
● Change in Part XII: Part XII of the Constitution deals with Finance,
Property, Contracts and Suits. This Part contains important provisions
relating to the government's financial powers and the rights of
citizens. Any change to Part XII is therefore considered to be an
important amendment.

Question 2. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of
Parliament?
(A) Speaker
(B) President
(C) Vice President
(D) Nominee of the Chief Justice of India.

Answer. A

Solution. The answer is (A) Speaker.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two
Houses of Parliament. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker
of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting. If both the Speaker and the
Deputy Speaker are absent, then the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
presides over the joint sitting.

Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are rare, but they may be
convened to resolve deadlocks between the two Houses on certain
matters, such as the election of the President or the Vice President, or to
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consider certain bills, such as a money bill or a bill that has been passed by
one House but rejected by the other House.

The President, Vice President, and Chief Justice of India do not preside
over joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament.

Question 3. Which of the following category of judges is not

mentioned in the Constitution?
(A) Acting Judge.
(B) Additional Judge
(C) Adhoc Judge
(D) Puisne Judge

Answer. D

Solution. The correct answer is option (D) Puisne Judge

Question 4. The right to vote in elections in India is a:

(A) Fundamental right
(B) Constitutional right
(C) Statutory right
(D) Customary right

Answer. B

Solution. The right to vote in elections in India is a Constitutional right. It is

provided for in the Constitution of India under Article 326, which grants the
right to vote to every citizen who is not disqualified by law. Therefore, the
answer is: (B) Constitutional right
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Question 5. The fundamental right to form co-operative societies is

provided under:
(A) Article 19 (1) (C)
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 51 A (j)

Answer. A

Solution. The fundamental right to form co-operative societies is provided

under: (A) Article 19 (1) (C)

Article 19(1)(c) of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to form

associations or unions, which includes the right to form co-operative
societies.

Question 6. The Ordinance making power of the President under the

Indian Constitution is:
(A) An Executive power
(B) A legislative power
(C) Quasi-legislative power
(D) Quasi executive power

Answer. A

Solution. The correct answer is option (A) An Executive power

Question 7. The concurrent power to impose tax has been provided

under:
(A) Article 246
(B) List III of Schedule VII
(C) Article 307
(D) Article 246 A
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Answer. D

Solution. The correct answer is option (D) Article 246 A

Question 8. The Goods and Services Tax Council is set up under :

(A) Article 263
(B) Article 269-A
(C) Article 279-A
(D) Article 281

Answer. C

Solution. The Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council) is set up
under Article 279-A of the Constitution of India.

The GST Council is a constitutional body that is responsible for making

recommendations to the Union and the States on the following matters:

● The goods and services that are to be subject to GST

● The rates at which GST is to be levied
● The principles that are to govern the place of supply of goods and
services
● The thresholds for the levy of GST
● The exemptions from GST
● Any other matter relating to GST

The GST Council is composed of the following members:

● The Union Finance Minister

● The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance
● The Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister
nominated by each State Government

The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.

The GST Council is a very important body because it plays a key role in the
implementation and administration of GST. The GST Council has made
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significant progress in making GST a reality in India, and it continues to

play an important role in ensuring the smooth functioning of GST.

Question 9. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent

Assembly?
(A) B N Rau
(B) B R Ambedkar
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) K M Munshi

Answer. A

Solution. The answer is (A) B N Rau.

Sir Benegal Narsing Rau was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent
Assembly of India. He was a renowned jurist and diplomat, and he played a
key role in the drafting of the Constitution of India.

Rau was born in 1887 in Mangalore, Karnataka. He studied law at the

Madras Law College and the University of Cambridge. After graduating
from Cambridge, he joined the Indian Civil Service in 1910.

Rau held several important positions in the Indian Civil Service, including
Legal Advisor to the Government of India and Constitutional Advisor to the
Viceroy of India. He was also a member of the Indian delegation to the
United Nations Conference on International Organization in 1945, which
drafted the Charter of the United Nations.

In 1946, Rau was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor to the

Constituent Assembly of India. The Constituent Assembly was responsible
for drafting the Constitution of India, and Rau played a key role in this
process.

Rau prepared a draft Constitution for the Constituent Assembly to consider.

The draft Constitution was based on his study of the constitutions of other
countries, as well as on the recommendations of various committees and
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commissions that had been set up to study different aspects of the

Constitution.

The Constituent Assembly deliberated on the draft Constitution for over two
years. Rau was present in the Constituent Assembly throughout its
deliberations, and he provided valuable advice to the members of the
Assembly.

The Constitution of India was finally adopted by the Constituent Assembly

on 26 November 1949. Rau played a key role in the drafting of the
Constitution, and he is rightly regarded as one of the founding fathers of the
Constitution.

Rau continued to serve the Government of India after the adoption of the
Constitution. He was India's representative to the United Nations Security
Council from 1950 to 1952. He was also appointed as a judge of the
Permanent Court of International Justice in 1952.

Rau passed away in 1953. He left behind a legacy of public service and
scholarship that continues to inspire people to this day.

Question 10. Which one of the following is the correct statement in

relation to the Collegium?
(A) Appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary
(B) Appointment and transfer of judges in the judiciary
(C) Appointment, transfer and removal of judges in the judiciary
(D) Appointment, transfer, recusal and removal of judges in the
judiciary

Answer. A

Solution. The answer is (A) Appointment and transfer of judges in the

higher judiciary.
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The Collegium system is a system of appointment and transfer of judges in

the higher judiciary of India. The Collegium is composed of the Chief
Justice of India and four other senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

The Collegium system was evolved by the Supreme Court of India in a

series of judgments, beginning with the First Judges Case in 1981. The
Supreme Court has held that the Collegium system is essential to maintain
the independence of the judiciary.

The Collegium system has been criticized by some people, who argue that
it is undemocratic and that it gives the judiciary too much power. However,
the Supreme Court has defended the Collegium system, arguing that it is
necessary to protect the independence of the judiciary.

The Collegium system is a unique feature of the Indian judiciary. It is a

system that has been developed over time by the Supreme Court itself, and
it has played an important role in maintaining the independence of the
judiciary.

Question 21. Reservation in promotions with consequential seniority

in favour of Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes is facilitated by:
(A) Art. 16 (4A)
(B) Art. 16(3)
(C) Art. 16 (4B)
(D) Art. 15 (3)

Answer. A

Solution. The answer is (A) Art. 16 (4A).

Article 16 (4A) of the Constitution of India enables the state to make

provisions for reservation in promotions with consequential seniority in
favor of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. This means that SC/ST
employees who are promoted to higher positions will also be given seniority
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over their general category counterparts who may have been promoted
earlier.

This provision was introduced by the 85th Amendment to the Constitution

in 1995. The purpose of this amendment was to ensure that SC/ST
employees are adequately represented in all levels of the government
bureaucracy.

Reservation in promotions with consequential seniority has been a

controversial issue. Some people argue that it is unfair to general category
employees who may be more qualified than their SC/ST counterparts.
However, others argue that it is necessary to ensure that SC/ST employees
are not discriminated against in the workplace.

The Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutionality of reservation

in promotions with consequential seniority. However, the Court has also laid
down certain guidelines for the implementation of this provision. For
example, the Court has held that reservation in promotions should not be
applied mechanically and that the state should consider the suitability of the
SC/ST employee for the promotion.

The Supreme Court has also held that reservation in promotions should not
lead to stagnation of general category employees. The Court has directed
the state to ensure that general category employees are promoted to
higher positions in a timely manner.

Overall, reservation in promotions with consequential seniority is a complex

issue with both pros and cons. It is a matter of debate whether this
provision is fair to all employees and whether it is effective in achieving its
goal of ensuring adequate representation of SC/ST employees in the
government bureaucracy.
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Question 22. Art. 141 of the Indian Constitution provides:

(A) Law declared by it is not binding on High Courts
(B) Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts
within the territory of India
(C) Advisory opinion may be given
(D) Appeals from the High Court

Answer. B

Solution. The answer is (B) Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be
binding on all courts within the territory of India.

Article 141 of the Indian Constitution states that the law declared by the
Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
This means that all courts, including the High Courts, are bound to follow
the law as interpreted by the Supreme Court.

This provision is important because it ensures that there is uniformity in the

application of the law throughout the country. It also helps to prevent
conflicting judgments from being passed by different courts.

However, there are some exceptions to the binding nature of Supreme

Court judgments. For example, the Supreme Court itself can overrule its
own judgments if it finds that they are wrong. Additionally, the Parliament
can enact a law to override a Supreme Court judgment.

Overall, Article 141 is a very important provision of the Indian Constitution

that helps to ensure the rule of law in the country.
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Question 23. Doctrine of legitimate expectation and wednesbury

principles were read by Supreme Court into:
(A) Art. 12
(B) Art.14
(C) Art. 23
(D) Art. 22

Answer. B

Solution. The correct answer is (B), Art. 14.

Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation

The doctrine of legitimate expectation is a legal principle that holds that

individuals have a right to rely on the promises or representations of public
authorities. It is based on the principle of fairness and the rule of law.

The Supreme Court of India has held that the doctrine of legitimate
expectation is implicit in Article 14 of the Constitution of India, which
guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.

Wednesbury Principles

The Wednesbury principles are a set of judicial review principles that are
used to assess the reasonableness of administrative decisions. They were
developed in the English case of Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd
v Wednesbury Corporation (1948).

The Supreme Court of India has held that the Wednesbury principles are
also implicit in Article 14 of the Constitution of India.

Conclusion

The Supreme Court of India has read the doctrine of legitimate expectation
and the Wednesbury principles into Article 14 of the Constitution of India.
This means that these principles can be used to challenge administrative
decisions that are arbitrary, unreasonable, or unfair.
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Question 24. A seven member bench of the Supreme Court

unanimously struck down clauses 2(d) of Art.323 A and Clause 3(d) of
Art 323B of the Constitution relating to tribunals which excluded the
jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court. The court held that
power of judicial review over legislative action is vested in the High
Court under Art.226 and in the Supreme Court under Art.32. This is an
integral part of the basic structure of the constitution. Name the case:
(A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(B) KihotaHollohon v. Zachilhu
(C) Nagaraj v. State of A.P.
(D) Rajendra Singh Rana v. Swami Prasad Maurya

Answer. A

Solution. The case you are referring to is (A) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of
India.

Question 25. The phrase ‘complete justice‘ is used in:

(A) Article 141
(B) Article 142
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145

Answer. B

Solution. The correct answer is option (B) Article 142

Article 142 provides discretionary power to the Supreme Court as it states
that the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such
decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in
any cause or matter pending before it.
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Question 26. The minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court

who are to sit to decide any case involving a substantial question of
law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be:
(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Seven
(D) Nine

Answer. B

Solution. The correct answer is (B), Five.

Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India states that the minimum number
of judges who are to sit to decide any case involving a substantial question
of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be five.

This is known as a Constitution Bench. Constitution Benches are set up to

decide important cases involving the interpretation of the Constitution. They
are typically composed of the most experienced and senior judges of the
Supreme Court.

Some of the landmark cases decided by Constitution Benches include:

● Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) - This case

established the doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution.
● Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980) - This case limited the
scope of Parliament's power to amend the Constitution.
● W.R. Grace & Co. v. Union of India (1992) - This case introduced the
concept of absolute liability for environmental pollution.
● S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) - This case laid down the
principles of judicial review of Presidential proclamations imposing
President's Rule in states.
● Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) - This case introduced the
concept of reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in
government jobs and educational institutions.
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Constitution Benches play an important role in safeguarding the

Constitution and protecting the fundamental rights of citizens.

Question 27. Which of the following duties was inserted by way of an

amendment in 2002?
(A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(C) To safeguard public property and abjure violence
(D) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education
to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and
fourteen years.

Answer. D

Solution. The correct answer is (D), Who is a parent or guardian to provide

opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward
between the age of six and fourteen years.

This duty was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 86th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. It is one of the 11 fundamental duties
that are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution.

The other duties listed in Article 51A are:

● To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

● To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions,
the National Flag and the National Anthem.
● To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national
struggle for freedom.
● To defend the country and render national service when called upon
to do so.
● To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst
all the people of India irrespective of religion, race, caste, language,
region or gender.
● To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
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● To protect and improve the natural environment including forests,

lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living
creatures.
● To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry
and reform.
● To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
● To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective
activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of
endeavour and achievement.

Fundamental duties are moral obligations on the citizens of the country.

They are not enforceable in a court of law, but they are important for the
harmonious development of the society.

Question 28. The Parliament of India consists of:

(A) Two Houses of Parliament
(B) President and Two Houses of Parliament
(C) President, Prime Minister and two Houses of Parliament
(D) President, Vice President and two Houses of Parliament.

Answer. B

Solution. The correct answer is (B), President and Two Houses of

Parliament.

The Parliament of India consists of two houses: the Lok Sabha (House of
the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The President of
India is the head of the legislature, but he/she does not have the power to
vote or initiate legislation.

The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament and is directly elected
by the people of India. The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the
Parliament and its members are elected by the state and union territory
legislatures.
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The Parliament of India has the power to make laws, approve the budget,
and impeach the President or judges of the Supreme Court and High
Courts. It also has the power to oversee the work of the government.

The Parliament of India is a bicameral legislature, which means that it has

two houses. This system is designed to prevent hasty or ill-considered
legislation from being passed. Both houses of the Parliament must approve
a bill before it can become a law.

The Parliament of India plays an important role in the Indian democracy. It

is the supreme legislative body of the country and it is responsible for
making laws that govern the lives of all Indians.

Question 29. The Goods and Services Tax Council shall make
recommendations to the Union and the States on a number of issues.
Special provisions to how many States the Council can make
recommendations?
(A) Six
(B) Eight
(C) Eleven
(D) Thirteen

Answer. C

Solution. The Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council) can make
special provisions to eleven states. These states are:

● Assam
● Arunachal Pradesh
● Jammu and Kashmir
● Manipur
● Meghalaya
● Mizoram
● Nagaland
● Sikkim
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● Tripura
● Himachal Pradesh
● Uttarakhand

These states have been granted special provisions under the GST regime
due to their unique geographical and economic conditions. For example,
Assam and Arunachal Pradesh are located in the Northeast region of India,
which is a relatively underdeveloped region. Jammu and Kashmir is a
special status state under the Constitution of India.

The GST Council is a constitutional body that was established in 2016 to

oversee the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
The Council is composed of the Union Finance Minister and the Finance
Ministers of all states and union territories.

The GST Council has the power to make recommendations to the Union
and the States on a number of issues related to GST, including the rates of
GST, the exemptions from GST, and the procedures for administering GST.
The Council's recommendations are binding on the Union and the States.

The GST Council has played an important role in ensuring the smooth
implementation of GST in India. The Council has made a number of
recommendations that have helped to simplify the GST regime and make it
more business-friendly.

Question 31. What is the total strength of the Supreme Court

including the Chief Justice of India?
(A) 27
(B) 29
(C) 31
(D) 32

Answer. C
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Solution. The correct answer is option (C) 31

The total strength of the Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice
of India is 31 but now has been increased to 34. This is the sanctioned
strength, which means that the Parliament has authorized the Supreme
Court to have up to 34 judges.

However, the current strength of the Supreme Court is 32, leaving two
vacancies to be filled.

The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019 increased

the sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court from 31 to 34. This was done
to meet the growing workload of the Court.

The Supreme Court is the highest court in India and it has the power to
hear appeals from all lower courts. The Court also has the power to issue
writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo
warranto. The Supreme Court is also the guardian of the Constitution and it
has the power to strike down any law that it finds to be unconstitutional.

The Supreme Court plays a vital role in the Indian democracy. It is the
highest court in the country and it is responsible for upholding the
Constitution and protecting the rights of citizens.

Question 32. In which case the doctrine of severability was extended

by the Supreme Court to constitutional amendments?
(A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(D) Kihota Hollahan v. Zachilhu

Answer. D

Solution. The correct answer is option (D) Kihota Hollahan v. Zachilhu

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Question 33. Among the following judges, against whom the motion
for removal were initiated in either House of Parliament?
(A) Justice Ramaswamy and Justice Dinakaran
(B) Justice Ramaswamy and Justice Soumitro Sen
(C) Justice Dinakaran and Justice Soumitro Sen
(D) Justice Ramaswamy and Justice Karnan

Answer. B

Solution. The correct answer is option (B) Justice Ramaswamy and

Justice Soumitro Sen

Question 34. Recently, the Supreme Court in Ram-Janmabhumi case:

(A) Has ordered mediation by a panel
(B) Has declined to decide on the case
(C) Has upheld the Allahabad High Court‘s decision
(D) None of the above

Answer. A

Solution. The correct answer is option (A) Has ordered mediation by a

panel

Question 35. The Constitution Day is celebrated on:

(A) 26th January
(B) 15th August
(C) 26th November
(D) 10th December

Answer. C

Solution. The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November in India.

The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India

on 26th November 1949, and it came into effect on 26th January 1950. To
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commemorate the adoption of the Constitution, the Government of India

declared 26th November as Constitution Day in 2015.

Constitution Day is a day to celebrate the Constitution of India and the

fundamental rights that it guarantees to all citizens. It is also a day to reflect
on the importance of democracy and the rule of law.

On Constitution Day, various events and programs are organized

throughout the country to raise awareness about the Constitution and its
importance. Schools and colleges hold special classes and discussions on
the Constitution. The Government of India also organizes various programs
to promote constitutional values and to encourage citizens to participate in
the democratic process.

Question 36. If the Anglo-Indian Community is adequately

represented, the President may nominate not more than __________
members to the Lok Sabha:
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) Four

Answer. B

Solution. The President may nominate two members to the Lok Sabha
from the Anglo-Indian community if it is not adequately represented in the
House (Article 331 of the Constitution of India).

This provision was introduced to ensure that the Anglo-Indian community

has a voice in the Lok Sabha, even if it is not able to elect its own
representatives. The Anglo-Indian community is a small minority
community in India, and it is often difficult for it to win elections on its own.

The President nominates members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian
community on the advice of the Government of India. The Government of
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India considers a number of factors when nominating members, such as

the community's representation in the Lok Sabha, the qualifications and
experience of the nominees, and their ability to represent the interests of
the community.

The Anglo-Indian community has been represented in the Lok Sabha since
the first general election in 1951. However, the number of Anglo-Indian
members in the Lok Sabha has declined over the years. In the 2019
general election, only one Anglo-Indian member was elected to the Lok
Sabha.

Question 37. In which case the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of
Prospective Over-ruling for the first time to resolve a constitutional
question?
(A) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(C) Shakari Prasad v. Union of India
(D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Answer. D

Solution. The Supreme Court applied the doctrine of Prospective

Overruling for the first time to resolve a constitutional question in the case
of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967).

The doctrine of Prospective Overruling states that a judicial decision can be

applied to cases that are decided after the decision is issued, but it cannot
be applied to cases that were decided before the decision was issued.

In the Golak Nath case, the Supreme Court held that the Parliament of
India did not have the power to amend the Constitution. The Court also
held that the doctrine of Prospective Overruling could be applied to
constitutional amendments.
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The Golak Nath decision was controversial, and it was overruled by the
Supreme Court in the case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(1973). The Kesavananda Bharati held that the Parliament of India did
have the power to amend the Constitution, but this power was not
unlimited.

The doctrine of Prospective Overruling is an important principle of

constitutional law. It helps to ensure that the Constitution can be amended
without affecting the rights of people who have relied on the Constitution as
it was before the amendment was made.

Question 38. How many judges of the Supreme Court were

superseded in the appointment of Justice A.N. Ray as the Chief
Justice of India?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) None

Answer. B

Solution. Three judges of the Supreme Court were superseded in the

appointment of Justice A.N. Ray as the Chief Justice of India. They were
Justice J.M. Shelat, Justice A.N. Grover, and Justice K.S. Hegde.

Justice Ray was appointed as the Chief Justice of India on April 25, 1973,
by the Indira Gandhi government. This appointment was controversial, as it
superseded the three senior-most judges of the Supreme Court at the time.

The appointment of Justice Ray was seen as an attack on the

independence of the judiciary. It also led to a split in the Supreme Court,
with some judges supporting the government's decision and others
opposing it.
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The controversy over Justice Ray's appointment eventually led to his

resignation on January 28, 1977. He was succeeded by Justice M.H. Beg,
who was also a controversial figure.

The supersession of the three senior-most judges of the Supreme Court in

the appointment of Justice Ray is one of the darkest chapters in the history
of the Indian judiciary. It is a reminder of the importance of protecting the
independence of the judiciary from political interference.

Question 39. The Directive Principles of State Policy were framed

based on the provisions of:
(A) Swiss Constitution
(B) Australian Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) None

Answer. C

Solution. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the

Constitution of India were framed based on the provisions of the Irish
Constitution.

The DPSP are a set of guidelines for the government to follow in order to
achieve a social, economic, and political order based on justice, equality,
and fraternity. They are not enforceable in a court of law, but they are
fundamental in the governance of the country.

The DPSP were inspired by the Directive Principles of Social Policy in the
Irish Constitution, which were adopted in 1937. The Irish Constitution was
one of the first constitutions in the world to include such a set of principles.

The DPSP in the Indian Constitution cover a wide range of topics,

including:

● The provision of a basic standard of living for all citizens

● The promotion of social justice and equality
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● The protection of the rights of minorities

● The development of a scientific temper and humanism
● The promotion of international peace and security

The DPSP have played an important role in shaping the development of

India since independence. They have guided the government in its policies
on social welfare, economic development, and education.

Here are some examples of how the DPSP have influenced Indian
government policy:

● The right to education is enshrined in the DPSP, and the government

has enacted laws such as the Right to Education Act, 2009, to ensure
that all children have access to free and compulsory education.
● The right to work is also enshrined in the DPSP, and the government
has implemented programs such as the Mahatma Gandhi National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) to provide
employment to people in rural areas.
● The DPSP also call for the promotion of social justice and equality,
and the government has enacted laws such as the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, to protect
the rights of these communities.

The DPSP are a key part of the Indian Constitution, and they play an
important role in ensuring that the government is accountable to the people
and that it works to promote the welfare of all citizens.

Question 40. The Chief Justice of India who passed away while in
office was:
(A) Justice A.N. Ray
(B) Justice Sabayasachi Mukharji
(C) Justice J.S. Verma
(D) Justice E.S. Venkataramiah

Answer. B
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Solution. Justice Sabayasachi Mukharji, the 20th Chief Justice of India,

passed away while in office on September 25, 1990. He was the second
Chief Justice of India to pass away while in office, the first being Justice
Harilal Jekisundas Kania in 1951.

Justice Mukharji was born on June 1, 1927, in Calcutta, India. He was

educated at the University of Calcutta and the Middle Temple in London.
He was called to the bar in 1949 and practiced law in Calcutta until 1968.

In 1968, Justice Mukharji was appointed as a judge of the Calcutta High

Court. He was elevated to the Supreme Court of India in 1983. He served
as the Chief Justice of India from December 18, 1989, until his death on
September 25, 1990.

Justice Mukharji was a highly respected jurist and a champion of human

rights. He was known for his independent and fearless judgments. He
delivered several landmark judgments, including the judgment in the case
of Minerva Mills v. Union of India, which upheld the basic structure of the
Constitution of India.

Justice Mukharji's death was a great loss to the Indian judiciary. He was a
brilliant jurist and a dedicated public servant. He is remembered for his
commitment to justice and his unwavering belief in the rule of law.

Question 41. Every promise and every set of promises, forming the
consideration for each other is known as
(A) Consideration
(B) Agreement
(C) Contract
(D) Reciprocal Promises

Answer. B
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Solution. Every promise and every set of promises forming the

consideration for each other is an 'agreement'.