FACULTY OF SCIENCE AND AGRICULTURE

SCHOOL OF PHYSICAL AND MINERAL SCIENCES

DEPARTMENT OF CHEMISTRY

2022 SCHB021 ASSIGNMENT 1 DUE DATE: 01/04/2022

MARKS: 40

1. Which of the options below represents ONE of the known limitations of the Valence
Bond Theory (VBT)? (2)
a. It does not give a qualitative interpretation of the thermodynamic or kinetic
stabilities of coordination compounds.
b. It does not give a quantitative interpretation of the thermodynamic or magnetic
stabilities of coordination compounds.
c. It does not give a quantitative interpretation of the thermodynamic or kinetic
stabilities of coordination compounds.
d. It does not give a qualitative interpretation of the thermodynamic or kinetic
abilities of coordination compounds.
e. It does not give a kinetic interpretation of the thermodynamic or qualitative
abilities of coordination compounds

2. What is the main consequence of the non-crossing Principle? (2)

 a. When two molecular orbitals of the same symmetry have similar energies, they
interact to raise the energy of the nether orbital and lower the energy of the
higher orbital.
b. When two molecular orbitals of the same symmetry have similar energies, they
interact to lower the energy of the nether orbital and elevate the energy of the
higher orbital.
c. When two molecular orbitals of the same symmetry have similar energies, they
interact to lower the energy of the lower orbital and elevate the energy of the
lower orbital.
d. When two molecular orbitals of the same symmetry have similar energies, they
interact to lower the energy of the higher orbital and elevate the energy of the
higher orbital.
e. None of the above

3. The two Group VB elements niobium and tantalum have the same atomic
radii. This is because of...: (2)
a. Lanthanide contraction; the filling of 4f orbitals through the lanthanide elements
causing a steady increase in the effective nuclear charge. This contraction
offsets the expected increase of second and third series of transition metals.
b. Scandide contraction; the filling of 4f orbitals through the Scandide elements
causing a steady increase in the effective nuclear charge. This contraction
offsets the expected increase of second and third series of transition metals.
c. Lanthanide contraction; the filling of 4f orbitals through the lanthanide elements
causing a steady decrease in the effective nuclear charge. This contraction
offsets the expected increase of second and third series of transition metals.
d. Scandide contraction; the filling of 4f orbitals through the Scandide elements
causing a steady decrease in the effective nuclear charge. This contraction
offsets the expected decrease of second and third series of transition metals.
e. None of the above
4. Using the information below, calculate the electronegativity of fluorine and select
the correct option: (2)

Bond dissociation energies Electronegativity

F–F = 153.1 kJ/mol χ(H) = 2.20
H−H = 436 kJ/mol
HF = 563.2 kJ/mol

a. 2.72
b. 1.67
c. 3.87
d. 5.89
e. 87.3

5. The ion Na+ and the atom Ne are isoelectronic. The ionisation energy of a gaseous
Ne atom was measured and found to be 2081 kJ/mol, while that of a gaseous Na+
ion was found to be 4562 kJ/mol. Which of the options below explain why these
values are not the same? (2)
a. The substances do not have the same number of protons, meaning the
outermost electron in Na+ feels a greater force of attraction towards the nucleus
compared to Ne. This makes the ionic radius of Na+ smaller than the atomic
radius in Ne, and thus more energy is required to further ionise Na+ than would
be needed to ionise Ne.
b. The substances have the same number of protons, meaning the outermost
electron in Na+ feels an identical force of attraction towards the nucleus as Ne.
This makes the atomic radius of Na+ smaller than the ionic radius in Ne, and
thus less energy is required to further ionise Na+ than would be needed
to ionise Ne.
c. The substances do not have the same number of electrons, meaning the
outermost electron in Ne feels a greater force of attraction towards the nucleus
compared to Na+. This makes the radius of Ne smaller than that in Na+, and
 thus more energy is required to further ionise Ne than would be needed
to ionise Na+.
d. The substances do not have the same number of protons, meaning the
outermost electron in Ne feels a greater force of attraction towards the nucleus
compared to Na+. This makes the ionic radius of Ne smaller than the atomic
radius in Na+, and thus more energy is required to further ionise Ne than would
be needed to ionise Na+.
e. None of the above

6. Determine the bond order of the HCl molecule. (2)

a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
e. 5

7. Determine a configuration for SF6 molecule. (2)

a. 1a121t16
b. 1a121t161e4
c. 1a121t141e4
d. 1a121t14
e. None of the above

8. Calculate the exchange energies of the d5 state of chromium. (2)

a. 6K
b. 7.5K
c. 5K
d. 10K
e. 15K
9. Each wavefunction, describing an atomic orbital, consists of two parts generally
denoted as: Ψxyz = Rn,l(r) Y(θ, φ). What component of the wavefunction
does Rn,l(r) describe, and what information on particles does it give? (2)
a. Radial function; it describes the probability of finding an electron at a given
distance from the nucleus.
b. Angular function; it describes the probability of finding a proton at a given
distance from the nucleus.
c. Angular function; it gives the shape of the orbitals and their orientation in
space.
d. Radial function; it gives the shape of the orbitals and their orientation in space.
e. None of the above

10. Calculate the ionization energy of a 6s electron of Gold from its stable electron
configuration. (2)
a. ─0.38 eV
b. ─1.4 Ev
c. ─5.17 eV
d. ─31.03 Ev
e. ─2Ev

11. Which of the options below states electronegativity as defined by Sanderson? (2)
a. Electronegativity is related to the average energy of the valence electrons in a
free atom.
b. Electronegativity is related to the average energy of the ground electrons in a
free atom.
c. This model underlies the concept of electronegativity equalization, which
suggests that protons distribute themselves around a molecule to compromisze
or to equalize the Mulliken electronegativity.

d. This model underlies the concept of electronegativity equalization, which

suggests that electrons distribute themselves around a molecule to minimize
or to equalize the Mulliken electronegativity.
 e. None of the above

12. Determine the number of unpaired electrons of HF molecule. (2)

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

13. Using Slater’s rules, calculate the effective nuclear charge of 3d and 4s
electron(s) of the more likely electronic configuration of chromium. (2)
a. 4s = 2.95 and 3d = 4.60
b. 4s = 3.70 and 3d = 7.85
c. 4s = 7.85 and 3d = 3.70
d. 4s = 4.60 and 3d = 2.95
e. 4s= 3.70 and 3d= 2.95

14. Which of the options below clearly describes the Heisenburg's Uncertainty
Principle? (2)
a. It is possible to specify the exact position and momentum of a particle,
simultaneously.
b. It is impossible to determine the exact position and moment of a particle,
simultaneously.
c. It is impossible to specify the exact position and momentum of a particle,
simultaneously.
d. It is impossible to determine the exact proportion and momentum of a particle,
simultaneously.
e. None of the above

15. Calculate the ionic resonance energy of HCl, given that: χH = 2.2 and χCl = 3.16.
(2)
 a. 92.4 kJ/mol
b. 88.6 Ev
c. 88.6 kJ/mol
d. 6.88 KJ/mol
e. 92.4 Ev

16. Select an option below that provides a reason why the increase in effective nuclear
charge for a 3p electron is smaller between P and S than between Si and P.
(2)
a. Moving from C to N, the additional electron occupies an empty 2p orbital
whereas on going from N to O, the additional electron must occupy a 2p orbital
that is already occupied by one electron. It therefore experiences stronger
electron–electron repulsion, and the increase in Zeff is not as great.
b. Moving from Si to P, the additional electron occupies an empty 2p orbital
whereas on going from P to S, the additional electron must occupy a 2p orbital
that is already occupied by one electron. It therefore experiences stronger
electron–electron repulsion, and the increase in Zeff is not as great.
c. Moving from Si to P, the additional electron occupies an empty 3p orbital
whereas on going from P to S, the additional electron must occupy a 3p orbital
that is already occupied by one electron; thus experiencing stronger electron–
electron repulsion and the increase in effective nuclear charge is not as great.
d. Moving from P to S, the additional electron occupies an empty 3p orbital
whereas on going from Si to P, the additional electron must occupy a 3p orbital
that is already occupied by one electron. It therefore experiences weaker
electron–electron repulsion, and the increase in effective nuclear charge is not
as great.
e. Moving from C to N, the additional electron occupies an empty 3p orbital
whereas on going from N to O, the additional electron must occupy a 3p orbital
that is already occupied by one electron. It therefore experiences stronger
electron–electron repulsion, and the increase in effective nuclear charge is not
as great.
17. All of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals increase going down the
group except: (2)
a. Atomic radius
b. First ionization energy
c. Ionic radius
d. Atomic mass
e. Atomic volume

18. Identify the ground-state electron configuration of the superoxide ion from the
options below. (2)
a. σ1s2σ*1s2σ2s2σ*2s2σ2p2π2p4π*2p4
b. σ1s2σ*1s2σ2s2σ*2s2σ2p2π2p4π*2p2
c. σ1s2σ*1s2σ2s2σ*2s2σ2p2π2p4π*2p1
d. σ1s2σ*1s2σ2s2σ*2s2σ2p2π2p4π*2p3
e. σ1s2σ*1s2σ2s2σ*2s2σ2p2π2p2π*2p4

19. How many radial nodes are there in 3d and 4f orbitals? (2)
a. 0 and 0
b. 0 and 1
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
e. 1 and 4

20. Which of the options below represents the correct pair of Frontier Orbitals of
NH4+? (2)
a. HOMO = 2a1 and LUMO = 1t2
b. HOMO = 2a2 and LUMO = 1t1
c. HOMO = 1t2 and LUMO = 2a1
d. HOMO = 1t1 and LUMO = 2a2
e. HOMO = 1t2 and LUMO = 1a1