Vision CSP22T32S FLT8

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3501 (2022)
Q 1.B
• The concept for the International Nitrogen Initiative (INI) had its initial beginnings at the First
International Nitrogen Conference, held in The Netherlands in 1998. After that the need for such an
organization was further articulated at the Second International Nitrogen Conference, in Maryland, USA
three years latter. The formation of the INI was formally announced at the Symposium, Meeting the
Nitrogen Management Challenge: Breaking the Links in the Nitrogen Cascade (associated with the
American Association for the Advancement of Science Annual Meeting) in 2003.
• Statement 1 is not correct: It was set up in 2003 under sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on
Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and from the International Geosphere-Biosphere Program (IGBP).
• Statement 2 is correct: The overall goal of the International Nitrogen Initiative is to optimize nitrogen’s
beneficial role in sustainable food production and minimize nitrogen’s negative effects on human health
and the environment resulting from food and energy production.
Q 2.B
• Recently, Russia has begun delivery of the S-400 air defence system to India. Considered one of the
most advanced and potent air defence systems in the world, S-400 Triumf has the capability to
protect against almost all sorts of aerial attacks, including drones, missiles, rockets and even fighter
jets. It is also capable of eliminating ground-based military installations. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
• The system, intended to act as a shield over a particular area, is a long-range surface-to-air missile system.
• Russia has been developing S-400 since 1993. Testing began in 1999- 2000 and Russia deployed it in
2007.
• According to the Washington-based Center for Strategic and International Studies think tank, its “mission
set and capabilities are roughly comparable to the US Patriot system” but unlike some Patriot interceptors,
“the S-400 does not currently employ hit-to-kill ballistic missile defence technology”.
• The system comes equipped with four types of missiles: short-range up to 40 km; medium-range up
to 120 km; long-range 48N6 going as far as 250 km, and very-long-range of up to 400 km and a
flight altitude of 180 km. These missiles have the capability to target beyond visual range (BVR)
targets. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
o It can simultaneously track up to 160 objects in a 600 km range, and target 72 objects in a 400 km
range, according to a study.
• S-400 detects an aerial threat approaching the air defence bubble (the area it has to protect), calculates the
trajectory of the threat, and fires missiles to counter it. It has long-range surveillance radars that sends
information to the command vehicle. On identifying the target, the command vehicle orders a missile
launch.
Q 3.D
• In the Budget for the year 2020-21, an announcement was made to set up the National Recruitment
Agency (NRA).
o National Recruitment Agency will be a society registered under the Societies Registration Act
(1860).
o It will be headed by a Chairman of the rank of the Secretary to the Government of India.
o It will have representatives of Ministry of Railways, Ministry of Finance/Department of Financial
Services, the SSC, RRB & IBPS.
1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• It is set up as an independent, professional and specialist organization. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
• It has been set up for conducting a computer-based online Common Eligibility Test (CET) for recruitment
to Non-Gazetted posts in government and public sector banks. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 4.D
• Seahorses are truly unique, and not just because of their unusual equine shape.
• Unlike most other fish, they are monogamous and mate for life.
• Rarer still, they are among the only animal species on Earth in which the male bears the unborn
young. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Male seahorses are equipped with a brood pouch on their ventral, or front-facing, side.
• When mating, the female deposits her eggs into his pouch, and the male fertilizes them internally.
• He carries the eggs in his pouch until they hatch, then releases fully formed, miniature seahorses into the
water.
• Seahorses are the flagship species of their habitats, which are also inhabited by seagrass beds,
mangroves, coral reefs and seaweeds. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In the marine food chain, they play an indispensable role of predating on bottom-dwelling organisms and
small shrimps, and are themselves preyed upon by various invertebrates, fish, sea turtles, seabirds and
marine mammals.
• Due to their strong link in the food chain, depleting their numbers may jeopardize the balance of coastal
ecosystems.
• All seahorse species found in India are protected under Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972 making their sale, purchase, or any other form of utilization of the species, or their parts and
derivatives, illegal and punishable under the law. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 5.B
• The Indian Penal Code is the official code which covers the substantive aspects of criminal law. It came
into force in the year 1860, during the British Raj. The Code of Criminal Procedure or the CrPC is the
main legislation that provides for the administration of the substantive criminal law (as given under IPC
and other criminal provisions). The CrPC was enacted in 1973 and came into force on April 1 1974.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Indian Penal Code is a substantive law. Substantive law is a law which defines the rights and
liabilities in civil law and crimes and punishment under the criminal law. However, the Code of
Criminal Procedure is procedural law. Procedural law is a law which lays down the set of procedures
for the enforcement of substantive law. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• While IPC defines the criminal offences along with the penalties for the same, CrPC states the
procedure for undertaking the criminal charge along with the conviction or acquittal of the
accused. The code of criminal procedure is a complementary law to the primary Indian Penal Code.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 6.D
• The festival of Phool Dei is celebrated in the Garhwal and Kumaun regions of Uttarakhand every
year in the flowering season (March-April) for about a month. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Children, particularly young girls, go into farms, forests and gardens after bathing and collect fresh
flowers to offer to the local deities as a welcome gesture for the onset of the spring season.
o This is the month when the entire Uttarakhand is covered with a blanket of colourful flowers, mainly
from peach, plum, apricot, cherry, almond, pear and apple trees.
o The red rhododendron flowers, locally called buransh (the state tree of Uttarakhand), is a spectacle in
the season.
o The yellow flowers of pheonly, scientifically known as Reinwardtia indica, is also common and used
widely during the occasion, as are mustard flowers.
• The Shirui Lily Festival celebrates the State Flower of Manipur and the event is a part of Manipur
Tourism’s efforts to develop and implement sustainable and responsible tourism in the State and also to
save and increase awareness about the endangered species of Manipur’s Shirui Lily found only in the
Shirui Hills. The festival was organized every year around April-May. Hence pair 2 is correctly
matched.
• One of the most popular tribal festivals celebrated across the Jharkhand region, Sarhul festival
marks the beginning of the New Year. It is celebrated by the Oraon, the Munda and the Ho tribes,
of the Jharkhand region. Another larger tribe of Jharkhand, the Santals also celebrate the festival
as the "festival of flowers". Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o Celebrated every year in the first month of the Hindu calendar, on the third day of the moon or the
fortnight of 'Chaitra', Sarhul marks the advent of the spring season or “Phaagun” and is celebrated till
the month of June.
o Sarhul means worship of trees. Being close to nature, these tribes start the Sarhul festival with the
worship of trees and other elements of nature.
Q 7.B
• Recently, India has planned to start construction of ten 'fleet mode' nuclear reactors over the next
three years, with the first pour of concrete for a 700 MW atomic power station in Karnataka's
Kaiga slated for 2023.
• Installed nuclear power capacity in India is 6,780 MW and the share of nuclear power in the total
electricity generation in the country is about 3.1 per cent. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Nuclear energy is clean and it provides pollution-free power with no greenhouse gas emissions. Contrary
to what many believe, cooling towers in nuclear plants only emit water vapour and are thus, not
releasing any pollutant or radioactive substance into the atmosphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Compared to all the energy alternatives we currently have on hand, many experts believe that nuclear
energy is indeed one of the cleanest sources. Many nuclear energy supporters also argue that nuclear
power is responsible for the fastest decarbonisation effort in history, with big nuclear players like France,
Saudi Arabia, Canada, and South Korea being among the countries that recorded the fastest decline in
carbon intensity and experienced a clean energy transition by building nuclear reactors and hydroelectric
dams.
• According to the US Office of Nuclear Energy, nuclear power has by far the highest capacity factor, with
plants requiring less maintenance, capable to operate for up to two years before refuelling and able to
produce maximum power more than 93% of the time during the year, making them three times more
reliable than wind and solar plants.
• The European Commission took a clear stance on nuclear power by labelling it a green source of energy
in its classification system establishing a list of environmentally sustainable economic activities. While
nuclear energy may be clean and its production emission-free, experts highlight a hidden danger of this
power: nuclear waste. The highly radioactive and toxic byproduct from nuclear reactors can remain
radioactive for tens of thousands of years. However, this is still considered a much easier environmental
problem to solve than climate change. The main reason for this is that as much as 90% of the nuclear
waste generated by the production of nuclear energy can be recycled. Indeed, the fuel used in a
reactor, typically uranium, can be treated and put into another reactor as only a small amount of energy in
their fuel is extracted in the fission process. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 8.B
• The term polycyclic organic matter (POM) defines a broad class of compounds that generally includes all
organic structures containing three or more fused aromatic rings. These structures can contain the
elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and sulfur. The most common subclass of POM is the
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs). They are a large group of organic compounds with two or
more fused aromatic (benzene) ring. Low-molecular-weight PAHs (two and three rings) occur in the
atmosphere predominantly in the vapour phase, whereas multi-ringed PAHs (five rings or more) are
largely bound to particles
• Statement 1 is not correct: Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are ubiquitous environmental
pollutants generated primarily during the incomplete combustion of organic materials (e.g. coal, oil,
petrol, and wood). They can originate from both natural sources such as open burning, as well
as anthropogenic sources like residential heating, coal gasification.
• Statement 2 is correct: Particle-bound PAHs are considered to be very hazardous to human health. They
have toxic, mutagenic and/or carcinogenic properties. PAHs are highly lipid soluble and thus readily
absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract of mammals. They are rapidly distributed in a wide variety of
tissues with a marked tendency for localization in body fat.
Q 9.D
• The various committees and commissions which have examined our electoral system, election
machinery as well as election process and suggested reforms are :
o Joint Parliamentary Committee on Amendments to Election Laws (1971–72).

o Tarkunde Committee was appointed in 1974 by Jaya Prakash Narayan (JP) during his “Total
Revolution” movement. This unofficial committee submitted its report in 1975.
o Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Reforms (1990)
o Vohra Committee on the nexus between crime and politics (1993)
o Election Commission of India Recommendations on Electoral Reforms (1998)
o Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998)
o Law Commission of India 170th Report on Reform of the Electoral Laws (1999)
o National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000–2002) It was headed by M.N.
Venkatachaliah
o Election Commission of India Report on Proposed Electoral Reforms (2004
o Second Administrative Reforms Commission of India Report on Ethics in Governance (2007). It was
headed by Veerappa Moily.
o Tankha Committee (Core Committee) was appointed in 2010 to look into the whole gamut of
the election laws and electoral reforms.
o J.S. Verma Committee Report on Amendments to Criminal Law (2013).
o Law Commission of India 244th Report on Electoral Disqualifications (2014).
o Law Commission of India 255th Report on Electoral Reforms (2015).
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 10.C
• Casuarina was introduced into mainland India in 1868 to meet increasing fuel wood demand by the then
Collector of Kanara in Bombay Presidency. It now occupies a sizeable area in south India because of its
ability to grow in wide range of soil and climatic conditions including moisture and nutrient limited
plantation sites.
• Casuarina is the most popular farm forestry in the coastal areas of states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil
Nadu, Odisha and Puducherry which accounts for total 80% total plantations.
• Casuarina is ideally suited for coastal areas and sandy loam soils though it also grows well in inland areas
and other soil types. It prefers good drainage but seasonal waterlogging for 3-4 week is
tolerated. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The preferred soil pH is 6.5 to 7 but it can withstand 4.5 to 9.5 and rainfall from 700 to 3500 mm per year.
Casuarina can be grown from 0 to 800 meters above sea level. It thrives under maximum temperature
from 37.5 to 47.5 C and minimum temperature from 7.5 to 17.5 C.
• The characteristics which make it a suitable species for wasteland development include adaptability to
wide range of habitats, fast growth, salt tolerant, drought resistant, ability to reclaim land and stabilize
sand dunes. The wood is suitable for paper pulp and useful raw material for the manufacture of paper for
writing, printing, and wrapping. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Casuarinas are monoecious (male and female flowers produced in the same individual) or
dioecious (male and female flowers produced in different individuals), and occasionally, both
conditions exist within one species. Flowers are unisexual, they are wind pollinated, and the multiple
fruits are known as cones and seeds as samara.
Q 11.C
• There were two home rule leagues launched:
o Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum.
o Annie Besant launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras.
• They had the common objective of achieving self-government in India. There was an informal
understanding between both the leagues wherein Tilak’s league worked in Maharashtra (except Bombay),
Karnataka, Berar and the Central Provinces. Besant’s league worked in the rest of the country.
• Tilak’s league had 6 branches. Besant’s league had 200 branches.
• The two leagues worked closely with one another. However, they did not merge to avoid friction between
both the leaders.
• The leagues organised demonstrations and agitations.
• There were public meetings in which the leaders gave fiery speeches.
• The turning point in the movement came with the decision of the Government of Madras in June 1917 to
place Mrs. Besant and her associates, B.P. Wadi and George Arundale, under arrest. Their
internment became the occasion for nation-wide protest. In a dramatic gesture, Sir S. Subramania Aiyar
renounced his knighthood. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Those who had stayed away, including many Moderate leaders like Madan Mohan Malaviya,
Surendranath Banerjea and M.A. Jinnah now enlisted as members of the Home Rule Leagues to
record their solidarity with the internees and their condemnation of the Government's action. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Q 12.C
• Among the newspapers and journals which disseminated patriotism in Bengal in the second half of the
nineteenth century, mention may be made of Somprakash (1858), Sikshadarpan (1864), Bangadarshan
(1873), Aryadarshan (1874), Sulabh Samachar (1870), Bambodhini (1863) etc.
o In 1868 Amrita Bazar Patrika was first published from Jessore. This newspaper, edited by Sisir
Kumar Ghosh played a crucial role in the creation of a nation-wide public opinion.
• Other provinces too, were not lagging far behind in this regard.
o In Western India, the Rast Goftar, the Native Opinion, the Indu Prakash, the Mahratta and the
Keshari published articles which brought to light the fundamental conflict between the interest of the
people of India and the British authorities. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
o In South India the Hindu, the Swadesamitran, the Andhra Prakashika and the Kerala
Patrika played an important role.
o The Advocate, the Hindustani, and the Azad in U.P and the Tribune, the Akbar-i-Am and the
Koh-i-noor in the Punjab also deserve mention. Hence pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
• In all these newspapers, the policies of the British Indian government were constantly criticised; the
Indian point of view was put forward, the people were asked to unite and work for national welfare, and
ideas of self-government, democracy, industrialisation etc. were popularised among the people.
Q 13.C
• Separation of Powers refers to model of governance where the executive, legislative and judicial
powers are not concentrated in one body but instead divided into different branches:
o Legislature – Make laws
o Executive – Implements laws
o Judiciary – Interprets laws
• Though not explicitly mentioned, 'separation of powers' is implied through the following constitutional
provisions:
o Article 50: State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive.
o Articles 122 and 212: Validity of proceedings in Parliament and the Legislatures cannot be called
into question in any Court and certain privileges with regard to speech in parliament.
o Article 121 : Judicial conduct of a Judge can’t be discussed in parliament.
o Article 53 and 154: President and Governor enjoy immunity from civil and criminal liability.
o Article 361: The President or the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of his office.
o Article 142 provides that “the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such
decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter
pending before it...". This provision gives scope for Judiciary powers overlapping with powers
of the Executive and not in line with 'separation of powers'.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 14.A
• The Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is
releases the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI).
• ICI measures combined and individual performance of production in selected eight core industries viz.
Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. The Eight
Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP).
• The weightage of the Index of Eight Core Industries is given below:
o Coal – Coal production (weight: 10.33 percent)
o Crude Oil – Crude Oil production (weight: 8.98 percent)
o Natural Gas - Natural Gas production (weight: 6.88 percent)
o Petroleum Refinery Products – Petroleum Refinery production (weight: 28.04 percent)
o Fertilizers – Fertilizers production (weight: 2.63 percent)
o Steel – Steel production (weight: 17.92 percent)
o Cement – Cement production (weight: 5.37 percent)
o Electricity – Electricity generation (weight: 19.85 per cent)
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 15.B
• Indo-Islamic architecture:
o Indo-Islamic architecture begins with the Ghurid occupation of India at the close of the 12 century
A.D. The most important factors common to both forms of architecture, especially in respect of
mosques and temples, were that to both styles, ornamental decoration was very vital and that the
open court in many cases was surrounded by colonnades.
o But the contrast was equally striking: the prayer chamber of the mosque was spacious, whereas the
shrine of the temple was comparatively small. The mosque was light and open, whereas the temple
was dark and closed. The difference between the lay-out of a temple and a mosque is explained by the
essential difference between the Hindu and Muslim forms of worship and prayer. A cell to house the
image of the deity, garbha-griha, and often small halls in front for the worshippers was regarded
adequate for a simple Hindu temple. But the Islamic form of worship, with its emphasis on
congregational prayer, requires a spacious courtyard with a large prayer hall, pointed towards Mecca,
as its western end that is, to the West of India.
o In the rear wall of the prayer-hall, the centre is occupied by a recess or alcove, called mihrab; and
indicates the direction of Mecca. A pulpit from where Khutba was read is mimbar, meant for the
imam who leads the prayer. A tower or minaret, originally intended for the muazzin to call the faithful
to the prayer, later assumed a mere architectural character. A gallery or compartment of the prayer
hall or some other part was screened off to accommodate the ladies who observed purdah. The main
entrance to a mosque is on the east, and the sides are enclosed by cloisters (liwans). The wall of the
mosque in the direction of Mecca is called Qibla liwan. A tank is provided for ablutions usually in
the courtyard of a mosque. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 16.C
• Declaration of Renunciation of Citizenship is made under Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955:
o An Indian Citizen of full age and capacity can renounce his Indian citizenship by making a
declaration to that effect and having it registered. But if such a declaration is made during any war
in which India is engaged, the registration shall be withheld until the Central Government
otherwise directs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Where a person ceases to be a citizen of India on renunciation of citizenship under section 8
(1), every minor child of that person shall thereupon ceases to be a citizen of India However,
such child may, within one year after attaining full age, can make a declaration in the prescribed form
and manner that he wishes to resume Indian citizenship. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 17.B
• The bonus brought by inflation to the borrowers is known as the inflation premium. The interest
banks charge on their lending is known as the nominal interest rate, which might not be the real cost of
borrowing paid by the borrower to the banks. Hence, option (b) is correct.
• To calculate the real cost a borrower is paying on its loan, the nominal rate of interest is adjusted with the
effect of inflation and thus the interest rate we get is known as the real interest rate. The real interest is
always lower than the nominal interest rate if inflation is taking place—the difference is the inflation
premium.
• The rising inflation premium shows depleting profits of the lending institutions. At times, to neutralise the
effects of inflation premium, the lender takes the recourse to increase the nominal rate of interest.
Q 18.C
• Matera Declaration declared at G20 Summit, Matera, Italy in June '21 calls for the need for much higher
investments in food security, nutrition, sustainable food systems, and territorial development. These
would be achieved by the adaptation of agriculture and food systems to climate change, as increased
climate variability and extreme weather events impact agriculture output and in turn drive global hunger.
• The declaration concurs with the UN's “Zero Hunger” goal set for 2030.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 19.D
• Twenty Fourth Constitutional Amendment Act was brought in response to the Golaknath ruling
(1967) of the Supreme Court which held that the Parliament does not have the power to take away
any fundamental rights through amendment to the Constitution. Amendments made:
o Affirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution including fundamental rights
by amending Article 13 and 368.
o Made it compulsory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
• Ninety Ninth Amendment Act 2014 replaced the collegium system of appointing judges to the Supreme
Court and High Courts with a new body called the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).
However, in 2015, the Supreme Court declared this Amendment Act as unconstitutional and void.
Consequently, the earlier collegium system became operative again.
• One Hundredth Amendment Act, 2014 gave effect to the acquiring of certain territories by India
and transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh (through the exchange of enclaves and
retention of adverse possessions) in pursuance of the Land Boundary Agreement of 1974 and its
Protocol of 2011. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 20.A
• Byanjana Dwadashi festival is celebrated by adherents of Vaishnavism in Odisha’s temple town of
Puri. The festival celebrates a variety of food (Byanjana in Odia) on the 12th day (Dwadashi) of the
Sukla Paksha or waxing phase of the moon in the month of Margashira (mid-December to mid-
January). Vaishnavites, through this festival, commemorate an episode of the Mahabharata where
Yashoda prepares a lot of delicacies and feeds Krishna. Krishna is not the only consumer of these
delicacies. His friends – the Gopala Balakas or cowherd boys — also eat with him. This episode was re-
enacted in the Vaishnava mutts of Puri by the medieval seer and mystic, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu after he
reached Puri around 500 years ago. This tradition of celebrating varieties of traditional food and sharing
them has been going on since then. All the ingredients used for the preparation of food are contributed by
devotees, The ingredients include locally available seasonal vegetables, fruits, roots, nuts, grains, pulses,
and greens. Devotees also offer milk and milk products, molasses, oil, and sugar. Hence option (a) is the
correct answer
• The ancient festival of Kanchoth is annually celebrated, mainly by the Nag followers, during the Shukla
Paksha of Magh month which usually falls in January or February. The festival is celebrated with
religious fervor across the Chenab valley region of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K). The 3-day festival is
celebrated by married women who pray for the long life of their husbands.
Q 21.A
• Union Health Minister launched the ICMR’s drone response and outreach in the north-east (i-
Drone). The delivery model is aimed at ensuring that life-saving vaccines reach everyone.
• This is for the first time that a ‘Make in India’ drone has been used in South Asia to transport
COVID vaccine over an aerial distance of 15 km in 12-15 minutes from the Bishnupur district
hospital to Loktak lake, Karang island in Manipur for administration at the primary health centre.
The actual road distance between these locations is 26 km.
• India is home to geographical diversities and drones can be used to deliver essentials to the last mile. This
would facilitate vaccine delivery to tough and hard-to-reach terrains. Currently, the drone-based
delivery project has been granted permission for implementation in Manipur and Nagaland.
• The ICMR conducted an initial study in collaboration with the IIT Kanpur to test the capacity of the
drones to carry and transfer vaccines safely.
• These studies provided promising results on the basis of which the Ministry of Civil Aviation, the
Directorate General of Civil Aviation and other regulatory authorities have granted permission to fly
drones beyond the visual line of sight.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer
Q 22.A
• Article 86(1) of the Constitution provides that the President may address either House of Parliament or
both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members. However, since
the commencement of the Constitution, there has not been any occasion when the President has
addressed either House or both Houses assembled together, under the provision of this article.
• Article 87 provides for the special address by the President. Clause (1) of that article provides that
at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and
at the commencement of the first session of each year, the President shall address both Houses of
Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons. Hence,
o Such an Address is called 'special address'; and it is also an annual feature. No other business is
transacted till the President has addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled together.
o This Address has to be to both Houses of Parliament assembled together. If at the time of
commencement of the first session of the year, Lok Sabha is not in existence and has been dissolved,
and Rajya Sabha has to meet, Rajya Sabha can have its session without the President's Address. This
happened in 1977, when during the dissolution of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha had its session on 28
February 1977 without the President's Address.
o In the case of the first session after each general election to Lok Sabha, the President addresses both
Houses of Parliament assembled together after the members have made and subscribed the oath or
affirmation and the Speaker has been elected.
• Clause(2) of article 87 of the Constitution requires that provision shall be made by the rules
regulating the procedure of either House for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters
referred to in the President's Address.
o Accordingly, rules 14 to 21 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha
make provisions for the discussion of the Address. Under rule 15, discussion on the matters
referred to in the President's Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a member
and seconded by another member.
o Under rule 17 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, discussion on
matters referred to in the President’s Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a
member and seconded by another member. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 23.A
• Life on Earth requires three things to thrive: a source of energy like sunlight, a liquid solvent like water,
and elements like carbon that can form complex molecules known as organics.
• Jupiter's icy moon Europa is believed to have all of these things. Slightly smaller than Earth's Moon,
Europa is covered with an ice shell roughly 20 kilometers (12 miles) thick. Beneath that lies a liquid
saltwater ocean up to 150 kilometers (100 miles) deep with more than twice the amount of water in
Earth's oceans
• NASA's Europa Clipper spacecraft will be launched in 2024 on a SpaceX Falcon Heavy rocket on a
mission to determine whether Europa can support life. Arriving in 2030, it is the first dedicated
mission to explore a world besides Earth with a global ocean, known as an ocean world.
o By determining whether Europa has the right conditions for life, Europa Clipper will help us
understand the prospects for life on other ocean worlds in our solar system and beyond.
o The mission will place a spacecraft in orbit around Jupiter in order to perform a detailed
investigation of Europa.
• The mission will send a highly capable, radiation-tolerant spacecraft into a long, looping orbit around
Jupiter to perform repeated close flybys of the icy moon.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 24.D
• As per section 158 of Representation of the People Act, 1951, the deposit made by a candidate contesting
a parliamentary or assembly seat shall either be returned to the person making it or his legal representative
or be forfeited to the appropriate authority.
• The deposit shall not be forfeited and will be returned as soon as practicable in the following cases:
o Candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates
o Candidate dies before voting starts
o Candidate won the election
o Candidate does not win but he/she secures more than 1/6 of the total valid votes cast in the
constituency
o Candidate wins the election but does not get 1/6 of the total valid votes
Q 25.D
• Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the Central government with a maturity of
one year or less. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• At present T-Bills are issued in three tenors, namely, 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days. Treasury bills are
zero-coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at
maturity.
• In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State
Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
Therefore, Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills
issued by the State Governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• RBI allowed foreign investors to invest in T-bills to bring foreign funds into the market. Currently,
short-term investments by a foreign portfolio investors (FPI) should not exceed 20 per cent of the total
investment of that FPI in either central government securities (including treasury bills) or state
development loans or corporate bonds.
• Recently, The Reserve Bank of India raised the investment limit for FPIs in government and corporate
bonds. The short-term investment limit has now been increased from 20 per cent to 30 per cent. Hence,
Q 26.C
• In 1934, with the formation of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP), the process of the consolidation of
the Left forces received a significant push forward. The Communists, too, got the opportunity, by
becoming members of the CSP, to work in an open and legal fashion. This consolidation of the Left acted
as a spur to the formation of an all-India body to coordinate the kisan movement, a process that was
already underway through the efforts of N.G. Ranga and other kisan leaders.
o The culmination was the establishment of the All-India Kisan Congress in Lucknow in April
1936 which later changed its name to the All-India Kisan Sabha.
✓ Swami Sahajanand, the militant founder of the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929), was elected
the President, and N.G. Ranga, the pioneer of the kisan movement in Andhra and a renowned
scholar of the agrarian problem, the General Secretary. The first session was greeted in person by
Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o A Kisan Manifesto was finalized at the All-India Kisan Committee session in Bombay and formally
presented to the Congress Working Committee to be incorporated into its forthcoming manifesto for
the 1937 elections.
o At Faizpur, in Maharashtra, along with the Congress session, was held the second session of the
All India Kisan Congress presided over by N.G. Ranga.
o Punjab was another centre of kisan activity. Here, too, the kisan sabhas that had emerged in the
early 1930s, through the efforts of Naujawan Bharat Sabha, Kirti Kisan, Congress and Akali
activists, were given a new sense of direction and cohesion by the Punjab Kisan Committee formed in
1937. The pattern of mobilization was the familiar one -Kisan workers toured villages enrolling kisan
sabha and Congress members, organizing meetings, mobilizing people for the tehsil, district and
provincial level conferences (which were held with increasing frequency and attended by an array of
national stars). The main demands related to the reduction of taxes and a moratorium on debts. The
target of attack was the Unionist Ministry, dominated by the big landlords of Western Punjab. Hence
o In Malabar, in Kerala, for example, a powerful peasant movement developed as the result of the
efforts mainly of CSP activists, who had been working among the peasants since 1934, touring
villages and setting up Karshaka Sanghams (peasant associations). The main demands around
which the movement cohered, were for the abolition of feudal levies, renewal fees or the practice of
policceluthu, advance rent, and the stopping of eviction of tenants by landlords on the ground of
personal cultivation.
Q 27.C
• British’s East India Company had entered the then Madras and entered a treaty with the native chieftains
of the land to choose the site of their choice to settle and trade.
• Originally an uninhabited land, Francis Day and his superior Andrew Cogan of the British East India
Company can be considered the founders of Madras, finally zeroed in on this coastal town and began
construction of St George Fort and houses for their residence on 23 April 1640. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
o By 1646, the settlement had reached 19,000 persons and with the Portuguese and Dutch populations at
their forts substantially more. This area became the Fort St. George settlement.
o While to the north of Fort St. George is George Town, a bustling commercial area of modern-day
Chennai.
o George Town has a history going back to the early years of Fort St George. Earlier, it was called
‘Black Town’, as it was essentially a settlement of dyers and weavers, and called also
Chennapattanam by the native settlers. Hence statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.
• Fort St George was called the White Town by the Britishers.
Q 28.B
• National Green Tribunals Act 2010 is an act of the Parliament of India which enables creation of NGT to
handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental issues.
• It was enacted under of Article 21, which India's constitutional provision citizens of assures the the
right to a healthy environment.
• The Tribunal’s orders are binding, and it has power to grant relief in the form of compensation & damages
to affected persons.
• The NGT has the power to hear all civil cases (not criminal) relating to environmental issues and
questions that are linked to the implementation of laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
• These include the following: 1. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;2. The Water
(Prevention & Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;3. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980; 4. The Air
(Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;5. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; 6. The Public
Liability Insurance Act, 1991; 7. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
• While passing Orders/decisions/awards, the NGT will apply the principles of sustainable development,
the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principles.
Q 29.D
• Recently, a group of Indian and international scientists have spotted a peculiar binary star that
shows heartbeat but no pulsations contrary to the norm of binary stars sporting both heartbeats as
well as pulsations. This star is called HD73619 in Praesepe (M44), located in the Cancer constellation,
one of the closest open star clusters to the Earth.
• Binary stars are of immense importance to astronomers as they allow the masses of stars to be determined.
A binary system is simply one in which two stars orbit around a common centre of mass, that is
they are gravitationally bound to each other. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The most common of the multiple star systems are binary stars, systems of only two stars together.
These pairs come in an array of configurations that help scientists to classify stars and could have impacts
on the development of life. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• In a binary star system, the brighter star is officially classified as the primary star, while the
dimmer of the two is the secondary. In cases where the stars are of equal brightness, the designation
given by the discoverer is accepted. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 30.B
• Hermann Bacher, a Jesuit from Switzerland who founded a people-led movement for watershed
development in Ahmednagar, died recently. He was Born and educated in Switzerland. Bacher or Baba
Bacher, as he was popularly known among the people, pioneered a social revolution in community
managed watershed development.
• He mobilise communities to take up the work of soil and water conservation. His approach was to stop the
flow of water and work on entire watershed areas, his philosophy was simple: make the running water
walk and stop the walking water, which ultimately would lead to recharge of underground aquifers.
• The hills surrounding Kolwade village in central Maharashtra's Ahmednagar district have been
named as Hermann Hills after late Jesuit priest Hermann Bacher who dedicated his life to water
conservation and the welfare of underprivileged communities in the state. Hence option ( b) is the
correct answer.
Q 31.D
• Recent context: The Multidisciplinary Drifting Observatory for the Study of Arctic Climate
(MOSAiC) was a year-long expedition into the Central Arctic launched in September 2019 and
completed in October 2020 aboard the German Research Vessel Polarstern.
• The expedition was led by Germany’s Alfred Wegener Institute (AWI), with key support from the
U.S.’s Cooperative Institute for Research in Environmental Sciences (CIRES) at the University of
Colorado Boulder, and the NOAA Physical Sciences Laboratory (PSL). Overall, 17 nations were
involved; the U.S. represents the second-largest national contribution.
• The primary goal of the MOSAiC project is to understand the climate processes in the Central Arctic so
that they can be more accurately integrated into regional and global climate models.
• The idea behind this expedition was to recreate the historic voyage of Norwegian polar researcher Fridtjof
Nansen, who undertook the first ice drift through the Arctic Ocean more than 125 years ago.
Q 32.C
• Thomson proposed that:
o An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.
o The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically
neutral. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Although Thomson’s model explained that atoms are electrically neutral, the results of experiments
carried out by other scientists could not be explained by this model.
• On the basis of his experiment, Rutherford put forward the nuclear model of an atom, which had
the following features:
o There is a positively charged center in an atom called the nucleus. Nearly all the mass of an
atom resides in the nucleus. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.
o The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.
o Drawbacks of Rutherford’s model of the atom
✓ The revolution of the electron in a circular orbit is not expected to be stable. Any particle in a
circular orbit would undergo acceleration. During acceleration, charged particles would radiate
energy. Thus, the revolving electron would lose energy and finally fall into the nucleus. If this
were so, the atom should be highly unstable, and hence matter would not exist in the form that we
know. We know that atoms are quite stable.
• In order to overcome the objections raised against Rutherford’s model of the atom, Neils Bohr put
forward the following postulates about the model of an atom:
o Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed inside the atom.
o While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy.
Q 33.A
• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to
regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections, to ensure free and fair elections.
• It has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the
principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and
spirit. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The MCC is operational from the date that the election schedule is announced till the date that results are
announced.
• The form of the MCC was first introduced in the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960. The Election
Commission issued the code for the first time in 1971 (5th Election) and revised it from time to time.
However, it has not been included in Representation of the People’s Act. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• The MCC is not enforceable by law.
Q 34.D
• A British economist named John Williamson coined the term Washington Consensus in 1989.
• The Washington Consensus refers to a set of free-market economic policies supported by prominent
financial institutions such as the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
• The ten principles originally stated by John Williamson in 1989, includes ten sets of relatively specific
policy recommendations:
o Fiscal discipline
o Redirecting public expenditure towards high economic potential and returns - primary health,
education, etc.
o Competitive exchange rates
o Privatisation
o Deregulation
o Secure property rights
o Tax reforms - widen tax base and lower marginal rates
o Interest rate liberalization
o Trade liberalization
o Liberalized FDI inflow.
• Hence, statement (d) is the correct answer.
Q 35.A
• The Hatigumpha Inscription of Kharavela is one of the few notable inscriptions which throw much light
on ancient Indian history.
• The Hathigumpha inscription is located near Bhubaneswar, Odisha in the Udaygiri-Khandagiri hills
which were known as Kumari Parvata and the Kumara Parvata respectively for their religious
sanctity in ancient times.
• The inscription records the historical events and the greats of the reign of Kalinga king Kharvela in
chronological order. Hence statement 1 is correct
• It throws light not only on political episodes but also on the religious, cultural, and social condition of
Kalinga during that glorious period. It is presented in Kavya style, and in the Brahmi script. Hence
• The contents of the Hatigumpha Inscriptions are taken as true records of Kharavela’s reign for the fact
that his inscription contained Jaina religious symbols on the side to prove that nothing but the truth had
been mentioned in it.
Q 36.A
• The year 1581 may be regarded as the most critical time in the reign of Akbar if his early struggle to
consolidate his power be not taken into account. There were many conflicts during that period which
includes the conquest of Kashmir, the conquest of Tatha, the missions to Deccan states, including the
Roshanai movement or the Raushnaiya movement.
• Roshanai was a sect established by a soldier named Bayazid Ansari who was called Pir Roshanai in
the frontier region. He was a charismatic and mysterious figure who mustered great support from
different Pakhtun tribes. In the beginning, it was a religious-cum-Sufi movement. Starting from
Kaniguram (South Waziristan) in the second half of the 16th century, the movement made considerable
headway in some of the Pakhtun tribes including Bangash, Afridi, Mohmand, Khalil, Yusufzai etc.
• After his death, his son Jalala became the head of the sect. The Roshanais rebelled against the Mughals
and cut the road between Kabul and Hindustan. Akbar appointed Zain Khan as commander of a strong
force to suppress the Roshanais and establish Mugbal control in the region. Sayid Khan Gakhar and Raja
Birbal were also sent with separate forces to assist Zain Khan. In one of the operations, Birbal was killed
with most of his forces (around 8 thousand). Subsequently, Zain Khan was also defeated but he could
survive to reach Akbar at the fort of Atak. Akbar was greatly shocked by the death of Birbal, one of his
favorite companions. Akbar appointed Raja Todar Mal with a strong force to capture the region. Raja Man
Singh was also asked to help with the task. The combined efforts of the two yielded success and the
Roshanais were defeated.
Q 37.D
• INS Arihant is India’s first nuclear-powered submarine. The ship submersible ballistic, nuclear
(SSBN) submarine was launched at the Indian Navy’s dockyard in Visakhapatnam, which is the
headquarters of India’s Eastern Naval Command. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Conventional diesel-electric submarines have to ascend to the surface each day to eject carbon dioxide
produced by the generator. Nuclear-powered submarines, on the other hand, can stay under water for
long durations without being detected. Arihant is expected to enhance the Indian Navy’s capability of
delivering nuclear weapons from all terrains. Arihant will be able to stay under water for long periods
undetected due to the nuclear-powered 80MW pressurised water reactor (PWR). Hence statement
2 is correct.
• Arihant will be capable of carrying all types of missiles and will have underwater ballistic missile
launch capability. It will carry 12 K-15 SLBMs that can be launched even under ice caps. Hence
• Arihant is fitted with a combination of two sonar systems – Ushus and Panchendriya. Ushus is state-of-
the-art sonar meant for Kilo Class submarines. Panchendriya is a unified submarine sonar and tactical
control system, which includes all types of sonar (passive, surveillance, ranging, intercept and active). It
also features an underwater communications system.
Q 38.C
• The Code on Wages, 2019 seeks to regulate wage and bonus payments in all employments where any
industry, trade, business, or manufacture is carried out. The Code replaces the following four laws: (i) the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936, (ii) the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, (iii) the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965,
and (iv) the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• According to the Code, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account the living
standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor wages for different geographical areas. Hence,
• The central or state government may fix the number of hours that constitute a normal working day. In
case employees work in excess of a normal working day, they will be entitled to overtime wage, which
must be at least twice the normal rate of wages.
• Under the Constitution, labor falls under the concurrent list, which means the Union government and
states have joint jurisdiction. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 39.B
• The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) is an 810km stretch (15-30 km wide) between the river Yamuna in
the west and the river Bhagmati in the east, comprising the Shivalik hills, the adjoining bhabhar areas and
the Terai flood plains.
• Terai is an ill-drained, damp (marshy) and thickly forested narrow tract to the south of Bhabar
running parallel to it. It is spread across the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, and
the low lying hills of Nepal.
• The landscape boasts of some of India’s most well-known Tiger Reserves and Protected Areas starting
from Corbett Tiger Reserve in west , Rajaji National Park, Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Valmiki Tiger
Reserve and Nepal’s Bardia Wildlife Sanctuary, Chitwan National Park, Sukhla Phanta Wildlife
Sanctuary and Kaziranga National Park in the East. Hence option (b) is correct answer.
• The Gugamal National Park area lies within the Satpura hill ranges also known as the Gavilgarh Hills.
The forest in area is rough & hilly region of Melghat is usual Southern arid deciduous jungle.
• In total, the landscape has 13 Protected Areas, nine in India and four in Nepal, covering a total area
of 49,500 km2, of which 30,000km2 lies in India. These forests are home to three flagship species, the
Bengal tiger, the greater one horned rhino and the Asian elephant.
• Apart from these, there are several other species of cats such as the rusty spotted cat, fishing cat, jungle
cat, leopard and leopard cat, as well as antelopes and deer such as the four horned antelope,
sambar, chital, hog deer and barking deer. Other wildlife includes the sloth and Himalayan black bear,
yellow-throated marten, Indian pangolin, Himalayan goral, Gangetic dolphin, gharial and crocodile.
Q 40.C
• The Expert Committee chaired by Mr. Kris Gopalakrishnan was constituted by the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology to study various issues relating to non-personal data
submitted its report in July, 2020.
• The Committee observed that non-personal data should be regulated to:
o enable a data sharing framework to tap the economic, social, and public value of such data, and
o address concerns of harm arising from the use of such data.
• Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) released a policy
proposal titled as, “Draft India Data Accessibility & Use Policy, 2022”. The policy objectives
mentioned in this draft are primarily commercial in nature. It aims to radically transform India’s
ability to harness public sector data.
• Hence, option (c) is correct answer.

Q 41.D
• The "Bombay Plan" (1944) is the name commonly given to a World War II-era set of proposals for the
development of the post Independence economy of India. Titled "A Brief Memorandum Outlining a Plan
of Economic Development for India", the signatories of the Plan were Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhoy Tata,
Ghanshyam Das Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, Sri Ram, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, Ardeshir Darabshaw Shroff, Sir
Purshottamdas Thakurdas, and John Mathai.
• The Bombay plan argued for comprehensive land reform, including cooperativization of production,
finance, and marketing. A key principle of the Bombay Plan was that the economy could not grow
without government intervention and regulation. Under the assumption that the fledgling Indian industries
would not be able to compete in a free-market economy, the Plan proposed that the future government
protect indigenous industries against foreign competition in local markets.
• The Bombay Plan, seriously took up the question of rapid economic growth and equitable distribution,
even arguing for the This plan too visualized far-reaching land reforms, a large public sector and massive
public and private investment. This plan too visualized far-reaching land reforms, a large public
sector and massive public and private investment.
Q 42.D
• The ‘Blue Flag’ is a certification that can be obtained by a beach, marina, or sustainable boating
tourism operator, and serves as an eco-label. The certification is awarded by the Denmark-based non-
profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which sets stringent environmental, educational,
safety-related and access-related criteria that applicants must meet and maintain. It is awarded annually to
beaches and marinas in FEE member countries.
• The Blue Flag programme was started in France in 1985 and in areas out of Europe in 2001. The
programme promotes sustainable development in freshwater and marine areas through four main criteria:
water quality, environmental management, environmental education and safety.
• Eight beaches in India have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’ certification by an eminent
international jury, which comprises members of the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Foundation for Environmental
Education (FEE) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
• The beaches selected for the certification are: Kappad (Kerala), Shivrajpur (Gujarat), Ghoghla (Diu),
Kasarkod and Padubidri (Karnataka), Rushikonda (Andhra Pradesh), Golden (Odisha) and
Radhanagar (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 43.C
• Recently, the ASI (Archaeological Survey of India) has declared the site and remains at Sadikpur Sinauli
in Uttar Pradesh's Baghpat district to be of National Importance. As per the ASI’s notification under
provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 the site would
now be maintained by the ASI and development works around it would be subject to Central rules. .
Various findings at the site include wooden coffin burials, chariots, copper swords, Royal burials were
discovered for the first time, Pottery -Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP) culture, etc
• Statement 1 is correct: The site was first excavated in 2003-04. It reveals a late Harappan period
necropolis- the largest known burial site in India datable to around the early part of the second
millennium BCE. The new findings are suggestive that horse-driven chariots were used by the OCP
people.
• Statement 2 is correct: It is located on the left bank of the River Yamuna. Carbon dating has confirmed
burials dated to 1900 BC i.e., 3800 years ago.
Q 44.B
• 3 important legally binding agreements were opened for signature during the United Nations Conference
on Environment and Development (UNCED), 1992:
• Convention on Biological Diversity
• Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
• United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
• Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is the international legal instrument for "the
conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components and the fair and equitable
sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources" that has been ratified by 196
nations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 mentions that it is considered necessary to provide for conservation,
sustainable utilisation and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilisation of genetic
resources and also to give effect to the Convention on Biological Diversity. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
Q 45.A
• The "Blue Blob", is an unusually cold patch of water in the Arctic which has halved the rate at
which Iceland's glaciers are melting, but a new study reveals that the effects of climate change will
catch up to the massive ice chunks if temperatures are not kept in check.
• The Blue Blob is an undefined area of the North Atlantic Ocean located south of Iceland and Greenland.
At its peak coldness, in 2015, the Blue Blob was 2.5 degrees Fahrenheit (1.4 degrees Celsius) colder than
the surrounding waters.
• Before the emergence of the Blue Blob, Iceland's glaciers were losing a staggering 11 gigatons of ice
every year due to melting. But since the cool patch emerged in 2011, that rate has more than halved to a
slightly less worrying 5 gigatons a year — even though the rest of the Arctic is warming four times faster
than anywhere else on Earth.
Q 46.D
• Under Article 80 of the Constitution, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is composed of not more than
250 members, of whom 12 are nominated by the President of India from amongst persons who have
special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social
service.
• The Tenth Schedule (added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act) contains the provisions with respect
to the disqualification of members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection.
• Under this law, a nominated member of the house becomes disqualified for being a member of the House
if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the
House. However, if a nominated member joins a party within a six months period, he is not
disqualified under the said law. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In the long history of the Rajya Sabha, its nominated members have periodically joined political
parties. Since 1952, 28 of 138 nominated members have joined either the Congress or the Bharatiya
Janata Party and given up their nominated status. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 47.B
• Recently, Chandigarh has unveiled its first pollen calendar, which can identify potential allergy
triggers and provide a clear understanding for clinicians as well as allergy sufferers about their
causes to help limit their exposure during high pollen loads.
• About 20-30% of the population suffers from allergic rhinitis/hay fever in India, and approximately 15%
develop asthma. Pollens are considered major outdoor airborne allergens responsible for allergic rhinitis,
asthma, and atopic dermatitis in humans.
• Pollen calendars represent the time dynamics of airborne pollen taxa in graphical form in a
particular geographical area. They yield readily accessible visual details about various airborne
pollen taxa present throughout the year, with their seasonality in a single picture. Pollen calendars
are location-specific, with concentrations closely related to locally distributed flora.
• Department of Community Medicine and School of Public Health, PGIMER, Chandigarh, examined the
seasonal periodicities of airborne pollen spectrum and developed the first Pollen Calendar for Chandigarh
city. This will help prepare early advisories and disseminate them through media channels to the citizens
so that they can use protective gear during the period when the concentration of allergic pollens will be
high. It is also a preventive tool for sensitive people to diminish exposure when the levels of aero-pollen
are high during specific periods.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 48.A
• As the threat from climate hazards rise, several global cities have altered their urban planning and
design approaches to incorporate nature-driven solutions as a counter to conventional
infrastructure practices by harnessing blue elements for instance, seas, rivers, lakes, wetlands, and
water utilities alongside the green such as trees, parks, gardens, playgrounds and forests.
• Blue-Green Infrastructure is a new approach refer to an urban planning approach in which design
of naturalistic or completely artificial infrastructures in the city is intended to allow the whole water
cycle to occur within the city. This can improve the delivery of water-related ecosystem services like
reducing pollution in the air, irrigating parks, providing local drinking water as well as preventing harms
like flooding and spread of contaminants (e.g. from cars). Hence option (a) is correct answer.
• These Blue-Green infrastructures include things like "bioretention cells" also known as "rain gardens",
which are small, specially constructed gardens where runoff from rain collects and contaminants and
sediments are filtered out into the soil; "bioswales" or depressions where water runs slowly and
contaminants and sediments collect and are filtered out into the soil or other structural material; water
reservoirs; restored rivers with wet meadows where they can meander; wetlands constructed for
bioremediation, by collecting contaminants in the tissues of the reeds; urban trees; small urban parks;
green roofs and green walls.
Q 49.B
• The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 has amended the Protection of Human Rights
Act, 1993. The Act provides for a National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), State Human Rights
Commissions (SHRC), as well as Human Rights Courts.
• Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the chairperson of the NHRC is a person who has been
a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The Amendment Act amends this to provide that a person who has
been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, or a Judge of the Supreme Court will be the chairperson
of the NHRC. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, provides for two persons having knowledge of human rights
to be appointed as members of the NHRC. The Amendment amends this to allow three members to be
appointed, of which at least one will be a woman. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, chairpersons of various commissions such as
the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and
National Commission for Women are members of the NHRC. The Amendment Act provides for
including the chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National
Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with
Disabilities as members of the NHRC. The Chairpersons for National Commissions for Minorities,
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Women were already the deemed Members of the Commission.
No provision has been made for the National Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities to be the deemed
member of NHRC. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 50.B
• A monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one buyer, the monopsonist. Like a
monopoly, a monopsony also has imperfect market conditions. The difference between a monopoly and
monopsony is primarily in the difference between the controlling entities. A single buyer dominates a
monopsonized market while an individual seller controls a monopolized market. Monopsonists are
common to areas where they supply most or all of the region's jobs. A single buyer generally has a
controlling advantage that drives its consumption price levels down. Monopsonies commonly experience
low prices from wholesalers and an advantage in paid wages.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer
Q 51.C
• The Indian Struggle for freedom was accompanied by moderate leadership, extremist leadership, and
revolutionary activities of Indian youth. They all fought with their methodologies to end the East India
Company rule. The British Government was also involved in the conspiracy to overcome the
revolutionary activities against their imperial rule.
• Peshawar Conspiracy Case (1922-1923):
o It was a trial against the Mujahirs, who had tried to sneak into India from Russia in order to start
a communist movement in India. There were five cases which continued from 1922 to 1927.
o The Indian Subcontinent British government was terrified by the idea of the spread of communism.
• Muzaffarpur Conspiracy Case, 1908:
o It was a revolutionary conspiracy by the Khudiram Bose and Praffula Chaki to kill the Chief
Presidency Magistrate DH Kingsford of Muzaffarpur. They threw bombs on a vehicle of DH
Kingsford but he escaped the attack and unfortunately, two British women were killed. Later on,
Khudiram Bose was arrested by the Indian British police officer Nandalal Banerjee, who was later

shot dead by Narendranath Banerjee. Prafulla Chaki committed suicide when he was about to be
arrested by the Police. Khudiram Bose was the youngest Indian who was hanged by the British.
• Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case 1924:
o In this case, newly emerged communists of India were execrated by the British Government. M N
Roy, Muzaffar Ahamed, S A Dange, Shaukat Usmani, Nalini Gupta, Singaravelu Chettiar, Ghulam
Hussain were caught by the Government and were trailed for conspiring against the Government.
They were charged:
✓ to deprive the King-Emperor of his sovereignty of British India, by complete separation of India
from imperialistic Britain by a violent revolution.”
✓ This case was not a people movement but a British movement to sack the upcoming communist
leaders of the time.
• Meerut Conspiracy Case, 1929-33:
o This was the immense political significance for the Indian working-class movement because it was a
conspiracy of British Government against the rise of Communism in India.
o During this case, 31 labor leaders included three Englishmen were arrested on the charge of
conspiracy.
o Muzafr Ahamed, S.A Dange, S.V Ghate, Dr. G Adhikari, P.C.Joshi, S.S.Mirajkar, Shaukat
Usmani, Philip Stratt etc. were arrested on the charge of conspiracy to overthrow the British
Government of India through strikes and other militant methods.
o It is interesting to note that the accused in the Meerut Case gained the sympathy of the nationalists.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 52.B
• Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution contain special provisions for twelve states viz.,
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim,
Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka.
• The intention behind them is to meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states or to
protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people of the states or to deal with the disturbed
law and order condition in some parts of the states or to protect the interests of the local people of the
states.
Q 53.C
• Nanotechnology is science, engineering, and technology conducted at the nanoscale, which is about 1 to
100 nanometers. A nanometer (nm) is one thousand millionth of a meter. A single human hair is about
80,000 nm wide, a red blood cell is approximately 7,000 nm wide.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 54.B
• There are different types of fundraising tools used by banks and large corporate firms. Two major tools
are Commercial Paper and a Certificate of Deposit.
• Commercial paper, often known as CP, is a short-term financial instrument used by businesses to
raise capital over a one-year period. It is an unsecured capital market tool that is offered as a receivable
note and was first launched in India in 1990.
• A Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a money market instrument which is issued in a dematerialised form
against funds deposited in a bank for a specific period. A CD, similar to a fixed deposit, is a written
statement that you have deposited money in a bank for a specific period of time and that the bank will pay
you interest depending on the value and tenure of your deposit.
o Hence, both CDs and CPs are short term money market instruments. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• There are two major differences between commercial paper and a CD, the first is who can issue them.
o A CD is issued by financial institutions and banks. Commercial papers are issued by primary
dealers, large corporations and All-India Financial Institutions. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
o The second difference is the minimum amount of deposit. A certificate of deposit requires a minimum
investment of ₹1 lakh and thereafter permits multiples of it. A commercial paper is issued for
investments of at least ₹5 lakhs and in multiples of ₹5 lakh, thereafter.
• All eligible participants should obtain the credit rating for issuance of Commercial Paper, from as
such credit rating agency as may be specified by the Reserve Bank of India from time to time, for the
purpose. The minimum credit rating shall be P-2 of CRISIL or such equivalent rating by other
agencies. On the other hand, there is no requirement of Rating while issuing CD. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
Q 55.A
• Rubber is a coherent elastic solid obtained from latex of a number of tropical trees. The first rubber
plantation in India were set up in 1895 on the hill slopes of Kerala.
• Conditions of growth:
o Rubber tree is a quick growing tall tree acquiring 20-30 metre height. It begins to yield latex in 5-7
years after planting. It requires hot and humid climate with temperature of 25 oC-35oC and annual
rainfall of over 200 cm. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year. Dry spell, and low
temperature are harmful. Daily rainfall followed by strong sun Is very useful. Deep well drained
loamy soils on the hill slopes at elevation ranging from 300 to 450 metres above sea level provide best
conditions for its growth. The yields decline at higher elevations and no rubber plantations are found
above 700 metre elevation. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• Distribution:
o Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber. Kottayam, kollam, Ernakulam, Kozhikode districts
produce practically all the rubber of this state.
o Tamil Nadu is the second largest producer. Nilgiri, Madurai, Kanniyakumari, Coimbatore and Salem
are the chief rubber producing districts.
o Karnataka is the third largest producer. Chikmagalur and Kodagu are main producing districts.
o Tripura is the fourth largest producer.
o Andaman and Nicobar Islands also produce small quantities of rubber.
Q 56.B
• Critical Tiger/wildlife habitats
o Critical wildlife/Tiger habitats (CWH) are defined under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. Hence,
o critical wildlife habitat means such areas of National Parks and Sanctuaries are required to be
kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o It is determined and notified by the Central Government in the Ministry of Environment and
Forests after an open process of consultation by an Expert Committee. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Criteria and Process for deciding Critical Tiger/wildlife habitats in tiger reserves / protected:
o Delineation of critical tiger/wildlife habitat (inviolate space/habitat) required for the sustenance of
viable populations of tiger and other wild animals in tiger reserves and protected areas vis-à-vis the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
o A minimum inviolate space of 800-1000 sq. km. should be maintained as the inviolate area to
support a viable population of tigers in tiger landscapes, based on tiger life-history parameters,
territory sizes, and populations viability analysis.
o For National Parks and Sanctuaries, other than Tiger Reserves, critical wildlife habitat areas
should be demarcated on the basis of species-area curves specific for each bio-geographical
area, as classified by the Wildlife Institute of India.

o Besides National Parks and Sanctuaries, identified corridors of significant wildlife values should also
be examined according to the above criteria for delineation as critical wildlife habitat.
Q 57.C
• The money supply is the total amount of money (currency+deposit money) present in an economy at a
particular point in time. The standard measures to define money usually include currency in circulation
and demand deposits. Money supply also refers to the total volume of money held by the public at a
particular point of time in an economy.
• Reserve Bank of India classifies factors determining money supply into the following categories:
o Government borrowing from the banking system: The Government also borrows from ordinary
commercial banks. When banks lend money to the Government, they create credit. For instance, for
the purchase of food grains by the Food Corporation of India, the banks give a large amount of loan to
the Government. The creation of deposits by the banks when they create a credit for the
Government leads to an increase in the money supply in the economy.
o Bank Credit to the Commercial or Private Sector: The private sector also borrows from the
banking system when its own resources are less than its total expenditure. This also adds to the money
supply with the public because when banks lend, they create credit. This also affects the money
supply in the same manner as the Government borrowing from the banking system.
o Changes in Net Foreign Exchange Assets: In the case of an adverse balance of trade, the country
will have to dispose of some of its foreign exchange assets. If there is a net adverse balance of
payments, rupees would flow into the Reserve Bank which pays out foreign exchange. This would
have the effect of reducing the Reserve Money (i.e. the high-powered money) in India and the
contraction of the money supply with the public. The opposite result would follow when there is a net
surplus in the balance of payments of a country.
o Government’s Currency Liabilities to the Public: Changes in money supply in the economy are
also brought about by Government’s currency liabilities to the public. Coins and one-rupee notes
represent Government’s currency liabilities to the public. If Government’s currency liabilities
increase, the money supply also increases.
o Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 58.A
• The mainstay of the economy under the Mauryas was agriculture, though trade was becoming
increasingly more important. The cultivators formed a majority of the population and taxes on agriculture
were the main source of revenue. Arthasastra provides the organisation of the economy of the empire in
detail and other sources for such information include pillars and rock edicts, Jataka stories, etc.
• Trade was carried on in different ways which were intrinsically linked to the methods of production and
its organisation. Primarily in north India craft production was organised on guild (sreni) lines. Though
they were prevalent in the pre-Mauryan period also but under the Mauryas guilds organised in different
towns, inhabiting particular sections of them. Like guilds, merchants also organised along the same lines.
Certain kinds of merchants were connected to particular artisan groups which made the distribution of
goods easier. The State administration under the Mauryas took up the organisation of trade and control on
production and distribution making it more efficient.
o Megasthenes mentions the superintendent of commerce whose duty was to fix prices of goods
and also to interfere if there was a glut in any commodity. He is also mentioned in the Arthasastra
as panyadhyaksa. Further, the office of the samsthadhyaksa looked after the markets and check
the wrong practices of the traders. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Due to the opening up of communication and efficient state administration, there was an increase in trade
activities of the state. The guilds continued to serve the very important purpose of cohesively organising
petty producers. However, they were not found to flourish in all parts of the Indian subcontinent
during this period. Particularly in the extreme South, even in the post-Mauryan period, it is difficult
to find mention of them. They were concentrated locally and also specialized in particular crafts there was
a strengthening of that particular trade. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Though revenue from agricultural land was the main source of revenue, however, it was not fully
controlled by the states. According to Arthashastra, there were state-owned lands known as sita or
crown land which is supervised by a sitadhyaksa or superintendent of agriculture. Agriculture in other
areas of the Mauryan State, known as janapada territories, was in all probability, carried on
privately. In the Jataka stories, there are frequent references to gahapatis and grambhojakas. They are said
to have employed hired laborers on land indicating their capacity to do so as a land-owning gentry. Hence
Q 59.C
• Central Information Commission was constituted under the Right to Information Act, 2005. According to
the act, the Central Information Commission shall consist of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
and a number of Central Information Commissioners not exceeding 10 as may be deemed necessary.
• Section 12(5) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information
Commissioners shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law,
science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and
governance.
• Section 12(6) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that Chief Information Commissioner or an Information
Commissioner shall not be a Member of Parliament or Member of the Legislature of any State or
Union Territory as the case may be, or hold any other office of profit or connected with any political
party or carrying on any business or pursuing any profession. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The act states that the members shall not be eligible for reappointment as such Information
Commissioners. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Q 60.C
• The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the setting up National
Land Monetization Corporation (NLMC) is a wholly-owned Government of India company with an initial
authorized share capital of Rs 5000 crore and paid-up share capital of Rs 150 crore. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• NLMC will undertake the monetization of surplus land and building assets of Central Public Sector
Enterprises (CPSEs) and other Government agencies. The proposal is in pursuance of the Budget
Announcement for 2021-22. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Board of Directors of NLMC will comprise senior Central Government officers and eminent
experts to enable professional operations and management of the company. The Chairman, non-
Government Directors of the NLMC will be appointed through a merit-based selection process.
• Recognizing the wide range of specialized skills and expertise required for asset monetization in real
estate market research, legal due diligence, valuation, master planning, investment banking, land
management, etc. It has been decided to hire professionals from the private sector, similar to other
specialized Government companies like the National investment and infrastructure Fund (NIIF) and Invest
India. NLMC will be a lean organization with minimal full-time staff, hired directly from the market on a
contract basis. Flexibility will be provided to the Board of NLMC to hire, pay and retain experienced
professionals from the private sector.
Q 61.D
• Estuaries are defined as semi-enclosed coastal bodies of water that have a free connection with the sea
and within which sea water is measurably diluted by fresh water. The fresh-water sources for most
estuaries are streams, rivers, and even groundwater for some areas.
• Most estuaries can be grouped into four geomorphic categories based on the physical processes
responsible for their formation:
o rising sea level;
o movement of sand and sandbars;
o glacial processes; and tectonic processes.
• Drowned river valley or coastal plain estuaries were formed by rising sea level during the last
interglacial period (about 15,000 years ago) which flooded river valleys that were cut into the landscape
when sea level was lower. Chesapeake Bay (Virginia and Maryland) and Galveston Bay (Texas) are
classical examples of this type of estuary.
• The movement of sand and formation of sandbars along the coastline can enclose bodies of water
and form lagoon-type or bar-built estuaries such as Laguna Madre, Texas.
• In colder climates, glaciers cut deep valleys in the landscape. When glaciers recede during warmer
climate periods, coastal waters fill the valley to form fjord-type estuaries, which are common in
New England and Alaska.
• Finally, earthquakes and faulting (the development of faults ) may cause the rapid sinking of coastal
areas below sea level to form tectonically produced estuaries such as San Francisco Bay, California.
Hence option (d) is correct answer.

Q 62.A
• Soil pH buffering
o Sandy soils acidify quicker because of the lower buffering capacity but the pH can be recovered faster
with the application of less lime compared to clay soils.
o The buffering capacity of a soil indicates the capacity of the soil to resist pH change. Hydrogen
ions in soil are present both in the soil solution and adsorbed onto the soil surfaces. pH measures the
concentration of hydrogen ions in the soil solution. Soils differ in the number of surface sites able to
accommodate hydrogen ions. Soils with large numbers of sites able to hold hydrogen ions are able to
resist change in the concentration of hydrogen ions in the soil solution and therefore have a high
buffering capacity. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o Soils with a high proportion of clay or organic matter have a larger number of surface sites able to
hold hydrogen ions and are able to resist a decrease in pH. However, once acidic, highly buffered
soils are able to resist an increase in pH. When hydrogen ions in the soil solution are neutralized by
lime, hydrogen ions from the soil surfaces are released into the soil solution to maintain equilibrium
and resist an increase in pH. Better buffered soils are slower to acidify but require more lime to lift pH
when they do acidify.
o Clays are generally better buffered than loams, which in turn are better buffered than sands.
Q 63.C
• Finn’s weaver bird:
o Finn’s weaver bird, numbering less than 500 in India, which until now was listed as “vulnerable” in
the IUCN Red List has been uplisted to the “endangered” category. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The bird prefers the Terai grasslands, found widely in Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh, but the
landscape in these states has undergone changes due to conversion for agriculture and
development. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o The Finn’s weaver is one of the four weaver bird species in India, primarily found in the Terai
grasslands that are characteristic of the landscape in Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. The Finn’s
Weaver prefers the Terai grassland with typical habitat composition. This kind of habitat provides
several ecosystem services, like livelihood opportunities to communities as well as harbors
rhinoceros, Asian elephants, tigers, the Asiatic wild buffalo, and the critically endangered Bengal
Florican.
o The bird population in north India is less than 150. Though in northeast India, its population has not
been accessed, the bird is confined to the Kaziranga National Park and the Orang National Park
in Assam.
• Threats at large
o The entire Terai landscape (Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh) has undergone changes due to its
conversion for agriculture as well as human interference, thus putting the bird at risk. The exploitation
of natural grasslands has caused the local extinction of the species in the most known locations.
Increasing livestock population is also responsible for the birds’ decline because there is the harvest of
grasses before they seed out as well as the clearance of large tall grasslands as foraging grounds.
o India’s increasing crow population is also a major threat to the existence of the Finn’s
Weaver. Globular structured nests built by the birds for nesting often on silk cotton trees are
destroyed by crows. These trees offer some degree of protection from terrestrial predators as a result
of their spiny trunks and branches, Bhargava’s report mentions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 64.B
• The Lodhi dynasty under the Delhi Sultanate was the first Afghan Pashtun Dynasty in India that ruled
from AD 1451 to 1526. This dynasty replaced the Sayyid Dynasty.
• Under the Lodi dynasty, architecture continued to take a back seat. Most of the architecture was confined
to the commissioning of tombs. There was a large proliferation of tomb buildings, with octagonal plans
reserved for royalty and square plans used for others of high rank, One of the most important features
of architecture during this period was the use of double domes. It consisted of a hollow dome inside
the top dome. Eg:- Sikander Lodi tomb.
• The reasons for the use of double domes were:
o To give strength to the structure.
o to lower the inner height of the dome.
• Tomb of Sikander Lodi: Located in Lodhi Gardens, New Delhi, this tomb was built in 1517-18 C.E. by
Ibrahim Lodhi over the remains of his father Sikandar Lodhi. The tomb lies on a square plan, within an
extensive walled enclosure. A few striking features of this tomb are its ornamentation using colored
tiles, its double dome, its spaciousness, and many more. The tomb of Sikandar Lodhi is regarded as a link
between the fortified and austere toms of the Tughlaqs and the well-planned garden tombs of the
Mughals. The tombs built during this phase were hard and bare, without any lavish decorations. Hence
o Although double domes had long been used in Persia, Iraq, and western Asia, Indian domes prior
to this time domes had a single shell of stonework.
• Among the six rulers of the Khilji dynasty, Alauddin Khilji laid the foundation of his capital, Siri, in
Delhi in 1303 A.D. He also commissioned a minar (Victory Tower) exceeding the Qutab Minar but the
same could not be completed. He also excavated a reservoir known as Hauz Khaz to meet the
requirement of Siri township. He also constructed a semi-circular gateway with a horseshoe-shaped arch
with lotus motifs. This gateway is popularly known as Alai Darwaja and has been considered, in the
history of Islamic Architecture a representative of a true arch. Hence statement 1 is not correct
Q 65.B
• Recently, the Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters awarded Abel Prize to Dennis Parnell Sullivan,
an American mathematician.
• The Abel Prize is a scientific prize, awarded within the discipline of mathematics. Hence, statement
1 is not correct.
• The Abel Prize is named in honour of the Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel (1802 – 1829). It
was established by the Norwegian Parliament (Stortinget) in 2002, which marked the 200th anniversary of
Abel’s birth. The Prize is awarded annually by the Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters on
behalf of the Norwegian government, more specifically the Norwegian Ministry of Education and
Research. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 66.B
• The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, Section 2(a) includes noise in the definition
of ’air pollutant’. Section 2(a) states that “air pollutant” means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance
including noise present in the atmosphere in such concentration as may be or tend to be injurious to
human beings or other living creatures or plants or property or environment.
• Earlier, noise pollution and its sources were addressed under the Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981. They are now, however, regulated separately under the Noise Pollution (Regulation
and Control) Rules, 2000.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) constituted a Committee on Noise Pollution Control. The
Committee recommended noise standards for ambient air and for automobiles, domestic appliances and
construction equipments, which were latern notified in Environment (Protection) Rules,1986. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
• Additionally, noise standards for motor vehicles, air-conditioners, refrigerators, diesel generators
and certain types of construction equipment are prescribed under the Environment (Protection)
Rules, 1986.These rules were framed to implement mandate of Environment Protection Act 1986.
• Noise emanating from industry is regulated by State Pollution Control Boards / Pollution Control
Committees (SPCBs / PCCs) for states / Union territories under the Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981.
Q 67.B
• Janata Government headed by Morarji Desai enacted the Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978.
Under this amendment, Right to Property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and
made only a legal right under Article 300A.
o Indira Gandhi served as Prime Minister during 1966-77 and 1980-84.
o Charan Singh served as Prime minister between 1979-80.
o Gulzarilalnanda served as Prime Minister 1964 and 1966.
Q 68.A
• What are trans fats?
o Trans fats, or trans-fatty acids, are a form of unsaturated fat. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o They come in both natural and artificial forms. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Natural, or ruminant, trans fats occur in the meat and dairy from ruminant animals, such as cattle,
sheep, and goats. They form naturally when bacteria in these animals’ stomachs digest grass.
o These fats occur when vegetable oils are chemically altered to stay solid at room temperature,
which gives them a much longer shelf life.
• Do they harm your heart?
o Artificial trans fats may increase your risk of heart disease.
o In a series of clinical studies, people consuming trans fats instead of other fats or carbs
experienced a significant increase in LDL (bad) cholesterol without a corresponding rise in
HDL (good) cholesterol. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Meanwhile, most other fats tend to increase both LDL and HDL.
o Similarly, replacing other dietary fats with trans fats significantly increases your ratio of total to HDL
(good) cholesterol and negatively affects lipoproteins, both of which are important risk factors for
heart disease.
Q 69.B
• Denmark and Norway (together till 1813) possessed colonial settlements in India.
o Tarangambadi or Tranquebar in Tamil Nadu, Serampore in West Bengal, and Nicobar Islands
were their possessions in India. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o On March 17, 1616 the King of Denmark, Christian IV, issued a charter and created the Danish East
India Company. This Company did not get any positive response from the Danish traders.
o Admiral Ove Gjedde led the first expedition to Ceylon in 1618. The Danes could not get any trade
contract in Ceylon. While they were returning in disappointment their main vessel was sunk by the
Portuguese at Karaikkal. Thirteen stranded sailors with their trade director Robert Crappe were taken
to the Nayak ruler of Thanjavur. Robert Crappe ably negotiated with the Thanjavur King and struck
an agreement. According to the agreement signed on 20 November 1620, the Danes received the
village of Tarangambadi or Tranquebar and the right to construct a Fort there.
• Despite their involvement in the Thirty Years War and the financial loss they suffered, the Danish
managed to set up a factory at Masulipatnam. Small trading posts were established at Pipli (Hoogly
River) and Balasore.
• Investors in Denmark wanted to dissolve the Danish East India Company, but King Christian IV resisted
it. Finally, after his death in 1648 his son Frederick abolished it.
• A second Danish East India Company was started in 1696. Trade between Denmark and
Tarangambadi resumed and many new trade outposts were also established. The Nayak king of Thanjavur
gifted three more villages surrounding Tarangambadi.
• The Danish settled in Andaman and Nicobar in 1755, but due to the threat of malaria, they abandoned
it in 1848.
• During the Napoleonic wars, the British caused heavy damage to their possessions. Serampore was sold
to the British in 1839 and Tranquebar and other settlements in 1845. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 70.B
• The term unorganized worker has been defined under the Unorganized Workers' Social Security Act,
2008 as 'a home-based worker, self-employed worker or a wage worker in the unorganized sector and
includes a worker in the organized sector who is not covered by any of the acts mentioned in Schedule-II
of Act i.e. the Employee's Compensation Act, 1923 (3 of 1923), the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (14 of
1947), the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948 (34 of 1948), the Employees Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952 (19 of 1952), the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (53 of 1961) and the
Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 (39 of 1972).
• As per the Ministry of Labour and Employment, the workers in the unorganized sector constitute
about 93% of the total workforce in the country and the majority of the workers are still without any
social security coverage.
• Hence, option(b) is the correct answer.
Q 71.A
• E-WASTE
o The discarded and end-of-life electronic products ranging from computers, equipment used in
Information and Communication Technology (ICT), home appliances, audio and video products and
all of their peripherals are popularly known as Electronic waste (E-waste).
o E-waste is not hazardous if it is stocked in safe storage or recycled by scientific methods or
transported from one place to the other in parts or in totality in the formal sector. The e-waste can,
however, be considered hazardous if recycled by primitive methods.

• Sources of e-waste and their health effects:
• Different diseases caused due to heavy metals:
Q 72.B
• Genome sequencing means deciphering the exact order of base pairs in an individual. Hence option (b) is
the correct answer.
• A genome is anorganism’s complete set of DNA. It includes all chromosomes, which houses DNA, and
genes (specific sections of DNA).• Human genome contains about 3 billion base pairs that spell out the
instructions for making and maintaining a human
Q 73.D
• Gross Domestic Saving consists of savings from the household sector, private corporate sector and public
sector.
o The public sector includes government administration, departmental undertakings, government
companies and statutory corporations.
o The private corporate sector comprises of non-government non-financial corporate enterprises.
o The rest is termed the household sector. Thus, the household sector, being residual in character,
includes a host of economic agents who engage in production/consumption activity.
• Among the three sectors, as in most other countries, the household sector in India too contributes the
bulk-more than two-thirds of the total savings. The government sector and the corporate sector
contribute to the balance, i.e. about one-third of total savings in the country. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.

• Gross Domestic Saving is GDP minus final consumption expenditure. It is expressed as a percentage
of GDP. An increase in consumption expenditure will result in a decline in domestic savings. Hence,
Q 74.A
• Lord Satyendra Prasanna Sinha was born at Raipur in March 1863. His father was a rich and aristocratic
Kayastha. After Lincoln's Inn he was called to the Bar in 1886 and returned to Calcutta. While there he
acquired a large practice and in 1903 became the Standing Counsel of the Government of India,
overriding the claims of an English Barrister.
• Prasanna Sinha was an active member of the Indian National Congress from 1896 to 1919 when along
with other moderates he left the organisation.
o In 1915 he was elected President of the Indian National Congress.
• At the Calcutta session of the Congress in 1896, he brought forward a proposal that no ruler of any Indian
State should be deposed without an open judicial trial.
• He was the first Indian to become the Advocate-General of Bengal in 1905, also the first Indian to
enter the Governor General's Executive Council in 1909 which for so long had been the preserve of
Englishmen.
• He returned to the Bar in 1910. He was knighted in 1914. In 1915, he was elected to preside over the
Bombay session of the Congress. As President, he delivered a closely reasoned address demanding an
authoritative statement from the British Government regarding the British policy towards India and this
led to the historic announcement by Edwin Montagu the Secretary of State for India, on August 20, 1917.
• He received the freedom of the City of London in 1917, took a place on the King's Counsel in 1918
(the first Indian to do so), and in 1926 was made a bencher of Lincoln's Inn.
• In 1919, he was raised to the peerage as Baron Sinha of Raipur and appointed Under-Secretary of State
for India. In both these capacities, he was the first and only Indian to attain such distinctions. He was
entrusted with piloting the Government of India Bill in the same year through the House of Lords.
• In 1920, he returned to India to take up the Governorship of the Province of Bihar and Orissa. He
held this position only for a short while and in 1921 was compelled to retire on grounds of health.
• Prassana Sinha was a liberal in outlook. Due to the influence perhaps of the Tagore family, he became a
supporter of the Brahmo Samaj. A moderate in politics, he was a firm believer in constitutional
methods. To him, India's political goal was "autonomy within the Empire, which should be reached not
by any sudden or revolutionary change, but by a gradual evolution and cautious progress." The recipient
of many honours, he was the perfect synthesis of the East and West and possessed a modesty which no
success could spoil.
Q 75.C
• Levels of Ecological Organization
o An ecosystem is all the living things in an area interacting with all of the abiotic parts of the
environment. Ecosystems can be studied at small levels or at large levels. Levels of organization in
ecology include the population, community, ecosystem, and biosphere.
o The levels of an organization are described below from the smallest to the largest:
✓ A species is a group of individuals that are genetically related and can breed to produce fertile
young. Individuals are not members of the same species if their members cannot produce
offspring that can also have children. The second word in the two word name given to every
organism is the species name. For example, in Homo sapiens, sapiens is the species name.
✓ A population is a group of organisms belonging to the same species that live in the same area and
interact with one another.
✓ A community is all of the populations of different species that live in the same area and interact
with one another. A community is composed of all of the biotic factors of an area.
✓ An ecosystem includes the living organisms (all the populations) in an area and the non-living
aspects of the environment (Figure below). An ecosystem is made of the biotic and abiotic factors
in an area.
✓ The biosphere is the part of the planet with living organisms (Figure below). The biosphere
includes most of Earth, including part of the oceans and the atmosphere. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer.

Q 76.A
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that is,
o Education
o Forests
o Weights and measures
o Protection of wild animals and birds
o Administration of justice; constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and
the high courts.
Q 77.D
• Gross national income (GNI) is defined as a gross domestic product, plus net receipts from abroad of
compensation of employees, property income, net taxes fewer subsidies on production.
• Compensation of employees receivable from abroad is those that are earned by residents who essentially
live inside the economic territory but work abroad (this happens in border areas on a regular basis), or for
people who live and work abroad for short periods (seasonal workers) and whose center of economic
interest remains in their home country.
• Gross National Income (GNI) is the income earned by Indian residents whether in India or abroad. (If an
Indian has gone abroad for less than 6 months then also, he is an Indian resident only). Hence, GNI does
not include the income earned by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).
• A country’s GNI will differ significantly from its GDP if the country has large income receipts or outlays
from abroad. Net factor income earned abroad is negative in the case of India. Hence, GNI is smaller
than GDP, because the foreign businesses’ profits that are repatriated to the country of origin are
counted against the country’s GNI but not against its GDP.
• GNP is calculated at market price by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics, and
Programme Implementation. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 78.B
• Recently, Union Agriculture Minister launched Horticulture Cluster Development Programme (CDP) to
ensure the holistic growth of horticulture.
• It is a central sector programme, implemented by the National Horticulture Board, starting with a pilot
phase in 12 horticulture clusters (out of total 53 clusters) covering nearly 10 lakh farmers from 11
States/UTs. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
• It will leverage geographical specialization and promote integrated and market-led development, making
Indian horticulture clusters globally competitive.
• The Ministry has also provided an enhanced allocation of ₹2250 Crore for the years 2021-22 for the
‘Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
Q 79.C
• A maximum residue limit (MRL) is the highest level of a pesticide residue that is legally tolerated in
or on food or feed when pesticides are applied correctly in accordance with Good Agricultural
Practice. The traces pesticides leave in treated products or those left by veterinary drugs in animals are
called "residues". Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• The MRL is not a toxicological parameter, but rather a trading standard set by national and
international authorities i.e. FAOs Codex Alimentarius to ensure that residues are controlled in world
food trade. WTO also used these standards for food import and export.
• The MRL is the pesticide residue level in a particular food following its production according to Good
Agricultural Practice (GAP).If a residue level exceeds the MRL the crop has not been grown according to
GAP and the product is not permitted to be sold, imported or exported.
• India, till date, has no record of detaining/rejecting any imported agricultural commodity cargo on account
of unacceptable pesticide MRLs under the World Trade Organisation’s SPS (sanitary and
phytosanitary measures) Agreement to protect human, animal and plant life/health.The reason is that
FSSAI has neither the necessary systems nor trained manpower to analyse pesticide residues (at ppm
levels) in imported foods upon their arrival at our ports.
• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) on April 9, 2021 has issued Draft
Guidance Document & Standard operating procedures for fixation of maximum residue limits (MRLs)
of pesticides in food commodities. The guidance for establishing MRLs on agricultural and food
commodities which is meant for the use of Industries dealing with agriculture including agro-chemicals /

pesticides, pesticide applicator manufacturers, agricultural commodities and products, and environmental
agencies.
Q 80.B
• The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. Instead it prescribed
that he holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be
determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.
• The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of a high court. Instead it prescribed that he
holds office until he attains the age of 62 years. Any questions regarding his age is to be decided by
the president after consultation with the chief justice of India and the decision of the president is
final.
• The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department1. He is the guardian
of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels–the Centre and
the state.
o He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can
resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president. He can also be
removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an
independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution. Articles
315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition,
appointment and removal of members along with the independence, powers and functions of the UPSC.
o The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they
attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their offices at any
time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of
their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
Q 81.D
• Thang-Ta--"The Art of the Sword and Spear"-- is the traditional martial art of Manipur in
Northeast India. It integrates various external weapons - the sword, spear, dagger, etc. - with the
internal practice of physical control through soft movements coordinated with the rhythms of breathing. It
is part of the great heroic tradition of Manipur. The heart of Thang-Ta is the "sword". The unarmed
aspect of Thang-Ta is named SARIT-SARAT. Traditionally, it is taught after competence in weapons
was gained. It uses footwork and handwork from the weapons forms, with a liberal dose of the native
wrestling style (MUKNA) thrown in. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Kathi Samu is an ancient and historical martial art that originated in Andhra Pradesh, India. Kathi
basically means sword and Kathi Samu is a martial art that is fighting with swords. Kathi Samu is an
ancient skill that was mastered by the royal armies of Andhra Pradesh. The fight usually takes place
between two people against each other with long and curved swords. The strict fight is known as ‘vairi’
and it plays a very important role in Kathi Samu which is called an actual sword fight. Hence pair 3 is
correctly matched.
• Mardani Khel is a weapon-based traditional martial art that is inherited by Marathas in
Maharashtra. There are a wide variety of items used here such as Lathi-Kathi (bamboo stick), Talwar
(curved sword), Dhala (round metal shield), Katyar (dagger), Bhala (javelin), Veeta (a corded javelin),
and a Dand Patta (knuckle guarded straight sword), etc. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched
Q 82.B
• The LEAF Coalition was launched by an initial group of governments (Norway, UK, US) and leading
companies (like Amazon, Nestle etc.) to mobilise finance for protection of tropical forest. Hence
• The LEAF (Lowering Emissions by Accelerating Forest finance) coalition aims to mobilize at least $1
billion in finance to support tropical and subtropical forest countries to move rapidly towards
reducing emissions from deforestation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is expected to become one of the largest public-private efforts that support countries in achieving their
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement and the Reducing Emissions
from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) mechanism.
• Reductions in emissions are to be made through programs that involve all key stakeholders, including
Indigenous peoples and local communities.

Q 83.B
• Brachiaria — the genus name of Urochloa — consists of about 100 documented species of grass of
which seven species used as fodder plants are of African origin. It hold the key to improving milk
yields of cows by 40% and caused substantial body weight gain in livestock, by as much as 50% in heifers
kept by small-scale farmers. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• It has a high biomass yield potential and is adaptable to low-fertility soil. Not only it will help to meet
rising demand for animal-sourced foods but will also benefit if the grass seed is commercialised.
• Though it is of African origin but the seed varieties currently used in African agriculture are all imported,
most from South America and South East Asia. In Cameroon that is often called “Africa in miniature”
farmers had been growing Brachiaria grass for over 50 years and simultaneously producing the seed for
domestic uses
Q 84.C
• The Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom of religion to not only individuals but also
religious groups in India. This is enshrined in Articles 25 to 28.
• Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience, the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion
to all citizens as well as aliens. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Article 25 - Freedom of conscience, the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate is subject to public
order, morality, health and other provisions relating to the Fundamental Rights. However, Article 26 -
Freedom to manage Religious Affairs is subject to public order, morality and health but not subject to
other provisions relating to the Fundamental Rights. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• As per pronouncement of Supreme Court, 'secularism' is basic structure of constitution. Further,
the neutrality of the state would be violated if religion is used for political purposes and advocated
by the political parties for their political ends. If state government mixes politics and religion, it will
be a fit case for application of Article 356 (President's Rule) of the Constitution against it. Hence
Q 85.B
• India witnessed three powerful kingdoms between 750 and 1000 CE: Pala empire, Pratihara empire, and
Rashtrakuta empire in south India.These kingdoms fought each other to establish their respective
hegemony.
• The Rashtrakuta empire dominated the Deccan for almost 200 years till the end of the 10th century and
also controlled territories in north and south India at various times, which lasted the longest. The society
at the time of Rashtrakutas became more stratified based on the caste system. The condition of women
seems to not have degraded in contemporary society. Women of the king’s household also attended the
court on festive occasions. Princesses were also appointed to government posts, such as the Rashtrakuta
princess Chandrobalabbe, a daughter of Amoghavarsha I, who administered the Raichur doab for
some time.
• Statement 1 is not correct: According to many writers, in the Rashtrakuta Empire, the ladies did not
veil their faces, which indicates the non-existence of the purdah system. Also, the women participated in
religious and administrative activities with men.
• Statement 2 is correct: The widow’s right to inherit the property of her husband was being
gradually recognized however widow marriages had gone out of fashion in the higher levels of society.
Q 86.B
• Recently, NTPC Ltd has become a signatory to the prestigious United Nations Global Compact’s
CEO Water Mandate.
• The CEO Water Mandate is a special initiative of the United Nations (UN) Secretary-General and the
UN Global Compact, implemented in partnership with the Pacific Institute.Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• These key partners work together as the CEO Water Mandate Secretariat.
• The Mandate was formed in 2007. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It was launched to mobilize business leaders to advance water stewardship, sanitation, and the
Sustainable Development Goals in partnership with United Nations, governments, peers, civil society,
and others. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Mandate develops tools and resources, convenes stakeholders, and facilitates meaningful partnerships
and on-the-ground collective actions that improve conditions in at-risk river basins around the world.

Q 87.C
• The International Comparison Programme (ICP) is one of the largest statistical initiatives in the
world. It is managed by the World Bank under the auspices of the United Nations Statistical Commission
and relies on a partnership of international, regional, sub-regional, and national agencies working under a
robust governance framework and following an established statistical methodology. Hence, statement 1
is not correct.
• The main objectives of the ICP are to:
o produce purchasing power parities (PPPs) and comparable price level indexes (PLIs) for participating
economies
o convert volume and per capita measures of gross domestic product (GDP) and its expenditure
components into a common currency using PPPs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India has participated in almost all ICP rounds since its inception in 1970. The Ministry of Statistics
and Programme Implementation is National Implementing Agency (NIA) for India, which has the
responsibility for planning, coordinating, and implementing national ICP activities. Hence, statement 3 is
not correct.
Q 88.B
• William Cavendish Bentinck succeeded Lord Amherst as Governor-General of India and took
charge of the Indian administration in July 1828.
o He began his career as an Ensign in the army but soon rose to the position of Lieutenant-Colonel. In
1796 he became a Member of Parliament. He fought with distinction against the forces of
Revolutionary and Napoleonic France in Northern Italy. In consideration of his military experience,
he was appointed Governor of Madras in 1803 to counter possible French designs in the Deccan.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
o He regularised and licensed the opium trade. In the future opium could be exported only through
the port of Bombay, which gave the Company a share in the profits in the shape of duties. Hence
o The Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit set up by Cornwallis were burdened with excessive
duties and usually arrears accumulated. The judicial procedure followed in these courts was
cumbersome and often resulted in delays and uncertainties.
✓ He abolished these courts, transferring their duties to magistrates and collectors under the
supervision of the Commissioner of Revenue and Circuit.
✓ For the convenience of the public of Upper Provinces (present-day U.P.) and Delhi, a separate
Sadr Nizamat Adalat and a Sadr Diwani Adalat were set up at Allahabad and the residents of
these areas were no longer under the necessity of traveling a thousand miles to file their appeals at
Calcutta. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 89.C
• The Persian Gulf also called the Arabian Gulf, shallow marginal sea of the Indian Ocean that lies between
the Arabian Peninsula and southwestern Iran. The sea has an area of about 93,000 square miles (241,000
square km). Its length is some 615 miles (990 km), and its width varies from a maximum of about 210
miles (340 km) to a minimum of 35 miles (55 km) in the Strait of Hormuz.
• It is bordered on the north, northeast, and east by Iran; on the southeast and south by part of Oman and
by the United Arab Emirates; on the southwest and west by Qatar, Bahrain, and Saudi Arabia; and on
the northwest by Kuwait and Iraq. Hence the correct answer is option (c).
• The term Persian Gulf (or Arabian Gulf, the name used by Arabs) sometimes is employed to refer not
only to the Persian Gulf proper but also to its outlets, the Strait of Hormuz and the Gulf of Oman, which
open into the Arabian Sea. This discussion, however, focuses primarily on the Persian Gulf proper.
• The Gulf region provides approximately 40% of the world export of crude oil and some 15% of the world
export of refined products.
Q 90.A
• Basavanna was an Indian 12th-century statesman, philosopher, poet, Lingayat saint, and a Hindu Shaivite
Social reformer during the reign of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty and during reign of King
Bijjala II in particular. He built the Anubhava Mantapa, often referred to as the ‘first parliament of the
world’ at Basavakalyana in Bidar. He spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known
as Vachanaas. He rejected gender or social discrimination, superstitions and rituals but introduced
Ishtalinga with an image of the Shiva Liṅga, to every person regardless of his or her birth, to be a constant
reminder of one’s bhakti (devotion) to Shiva. He championed devotional worship that rejected temple

worship and rituals led by Brahmins and replaced it with personalized direct worship of Shiva through
practices such as individually worn icons and symbols like a small linga. His followers came to be
known as the Lingayats. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 91.B
• Recently, India and the UAE have signed an agreement to increase bilateral merchandise trade to
$100 billion by 2030.
• UAE is India's third largest trading partner after (US and China) and second largest export destination.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• UAE has the highest number of Indian diaspora (3.5 Million) contributing high remittances to India.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Desert Eagle exercise is an exercise between Indian Airforce and UAE Airforce. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Q 92.A
• Context: A group of researchers at the University of Rochester, Intel Corporation, and the University of
Nevada in the U.S. have created a material that is superconducting at 15 degrees Celsius. The only caveat
is that it needs ultrahigh pressure of about 2.6 million atmospheres to achieve this transition, putting off
any thoughts of application to the future. (The pressure at the center of the Earth is 360 GPa, so it is 75%
of the pressure at the center of the Earth)
• Superconductors can conduct electricity with no resistance. Hence, they can carry a current indefinitely
without losing any energy. Two of the most important properties of superconductivity are zero resistance
diamagnetism. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• While most superconducting materials are metals, there are unusual exceptions. Some require extra
elements to be added to 'dope' the material and work in subtly different ways that defy existing theories.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 93.A
• The GST Council recently had recommended making certain rate changes for footwear and textiles to
correct the inverted duty structure.
• An inverted duty structure arises when the taxes on output or final product is lower than the taxes
on inputs, creating an inverse accumulation of input tax credit which in most cases has to be
refunded. In other words, the GST rate paid on purchases is more than the GST rate payable on
sales. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Taxpayers who face an inverted duty structure will always have Input Tax Credit (ITC) in their GST
electronic credit ledger even after paying off the output tax liability. This creates working capital issues
for the taxpayers, as crucial resources remain blocked in the form of ITC.
Q 94.B
• The Rehnumai Mazdayasan Sabha was founded in 1851 by Naoroji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, S. S.
Bengalee, and others in Bombay. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o It was an association to initiate social and religious reforms among the Parsis. Hence statement
1 is not correct.
o Its campaign was directed against the prevailing orthodoxy in the Parsi religion. It initiated the
modernization of Parsi social customs regarding the education of women, marriage, and the social
position of women in general.
o The movement was successful and Parsis emerged as the most modern and westernised section of
Indian society.
o Behramji Merwarji Malabari, a Parsi gentleman, was instrumental in bringing about the
passage of the Hindu Marriage Act (Age of Consent Bill) of 1891.
Q 95.C
• Groundswell Report:
o The Report was recently released by the World Bank. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o It examined how the impacts of slow-onset climate change, such as water scarcity, decreasing
crop productivity, and rising sea levels, could lead to millions of what it describes as “climate
migrants” by 2050. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Highlights and key findings of the report: The report considers three different scenarios with varying
degrees of climate action and development. These include:
o Most pessimistic scenario with a high level of emissions and unequal development: The report
forecasts up to 216 million people moving within their own countries across the six
regions analyzed. Those regions are Latin America; North Africa; Sub-Saharan Africa; Eastern
Europe and Central Asia; South Asia; and East Asia and the Pacific.
o In the most climate-friendly scenario, with a low level of emissions and inclusive, sustainable
development, the world could still see 44 million people being forced to leave their homes.
o In the worst-case scenario, Sub-Saharan Africa — the most vulnerable region due to desertification,
fragile coastlines, and the population’s dependence on agriculture — would see the most migrants,
with up to 86 million people moving within national borders.
o Climate change can force some 216 million people in six world regions to move within their own
countries by 2050, a recent report has stated. Hotspots of internal climate migration can emerge as
early as 2030 and continue to spread and intensify by 2050, the report added.
o It also found that immediate and concerted action to reduce global emissions and support green,
inclusive, and resilient development, could reduce the scale of climate migration by as much as 80
percent.
Q 96.B
• Cyclical unemployment is the main cause of high unemployment rates. It is caused by a downturn in the
business cycle. It is part of the natural rise and fall of economic growth that occurs over time. Cyclical
unemployment is temporary and depends on the length of economic contractions caused by a recession.
• Cyclical unemployment can become a self-fueling downward spiral. The newly unemployed have less
disposable income, lowering demand, and business revenue, thus leading to even more layoffs. It is a case
of reduced demand, so it generally leads to deflation. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• One example of cyclical unemployment is the loss of construction jobs during the 2008 financial crisis.
As the housing crisis unfolded, home builders stopped constructing new homes. As many as 2 million
construction workers lost their jobs.
• Because cyclical unemployment can spiral out of control, the federal government must usually step in to
stop it. The first and easiest response is with expansionary monetary policy. The Federal Reserve (the
Fed) can start lowering interest rates or use other innovative methods to influence the economy. If that's
not enough, then the government must use an expansionary fiscal policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 97.A
• The quinary sector is the part of the economy where the top-level decisions are made. This includes the
government which passes legislation. It also comprises the top decision-makers in industry, commerce
and also the education sector.
• Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and
existing ideas; data interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies. The highest level of
decision-makers or policy makers perform quinary activities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Profession under this category often referred as 'gold collar' professions, they represent another
subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives,
government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
• Pink-collar worker is one who is employed in a job that is traditionally considered to be women's work.
The term pink-collar worker was used to distinguish female-orientated jobs from the blue-collar worker, a
worker in manual labor, and the white-collar worker, a professional or educated worker in office
positions.
Q 98.B
• One of the mysteries of the new coronavirus is why it causes only mild disease in most people, but turns
fatal for others. In many cases, it seems the worst damage may be driven by a deranged immune response
to the infection, rather than the virus itself.
• In many of the sickest patients with COVID-19, their blood is teeming with high levels of immune system
proteins called cytokines.
• Scientists believe these cytokines are evidence of an immune response called a cytokine storm,
where the body starts to attack its own cells and tissues rather than just fighting off the virus.
• During a cytokine storm, various inflammatory cytokines are produced at a much higher rate than
normal. This overproduction of cytokines causes positive feedback on other immune cells to occur,
which allows for more immune cells to be recruited and results in an uncontrollable inflammatory
response by the immune system.
Q 99.D
• Sound waves are characterised by the motion of particles in the medium and are called mechanical waves.
Air is the most common medium through which sound travels.
• Waves come in two kinds, longitudinal and transverse. Transverse waves are like light or those on
water, with the surface going up and down, and longitudinal waves are like of those of sound,
consisting of alternating compressions and rarefactions in a medium. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium like air, water, steel etc. for its
propagation. It cannot travel through vacuum. Sound waves are mechanical waves whereas
microwaves (part of electromagnetic waves) are not mechanical waves. Therefore, sound waves require a
medium for their propagation whereas electromagnetic waves do not require a medium (can travel in
vacuum). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Q 100.A
• Religious festivals play an important part in the Jain community. They provide a focus for communal
celebration and an opportunity to show devotion and gain merit. Participation in these festivals is optional,
not obligatory. The major festivals of the Jains are related to the auspicious occasions of the life of great
masters of Jainism. These occasions are
o Descent in the mother's womb (garbhadharana, cjavana)
o Birth (Janma)
o Enunciation (diksa)
o Attainment of omniscience (Kevalajnana)
o Death and final emancipation of Jina.
• PRYUSANNA
o Pajjusna (also known as Pryusanna) is the most popular festival of the Jain. It is performed in the
month of Bhadrapad (August-September) with the aim of purification by forgiving and rendering
service with wholehearted effort and devotion. On the last day of this festival, the Jains distribute
alms to the poor and take out a procession with the image of Mahavir. During the festival annual
confession is made to remove all ill feelings.
• OLI
o It is a fasting ceremony that is observed by fasting twice a year. This is observed nine days each
during the month of Caitra (March-April) and Ashwin (September-October). During Diwali day the
Jains celebrate the nirvana of Mahavir by lighting lamps. The 'Jnana Pnchumi' is celebrated five days
after Diwali by the Jains by worshipping in temples and especially with the worship of scriptures in
manuscript form.
Copyright © by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or
transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise,
without prior permission of Vision IAS.

Vision CSP22T32S FLT8

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Vision CSP22T32S FLT8

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Vision CSP22T32S FLT8

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

VISIONIAS

1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Different diseases caused due to heavy metals:

• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

24 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

26 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

27 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

28 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

29 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Copyright © by Vision IAS

32 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

You might also like