OROMIA EDUCATION BUREAU

GRADE 12 CHEMISTRY MODEL EXAM FOR BOARDING AND NON-BOARDING

(SPECIAL) SCHOOLS, JUNE 2016/2024

TIME ALLOWED: 2:30 HOURS

GENERAL DIRECTIONS
THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS CHEMISTRY MODEL EXAM FOR GRADE 12. IN THIS
BOOKLET, THERE ARE TOTAL OF 80 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

THERE IS ONLY ONE BEST ANSWER FOR EACH QUESTION. CHOOSE THE BEST
ANSWER FROM THE GIVEN ALTERNATIVES AND WRITE THE LETTER OF YOUR
CHOICE ON THE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED.

YOU ARE ALLOWED TO WORK ON THE EXAM QUESTIONS FOR 2:30 HOURS ONLY.
WHEN TIME IS CALLED, YOU MUST IMMEDIATELY STOP WORKING ON THE
QUESTIONS AND PUT DOWN YOUR PEN/PENCIL AND WAIT FOR WHAT YOU
MIGHT BE TOLD TO DO.

ANY FORM OF CHEATING OR AN ATTEMPT TO CHEAT IN THE EXAM WILL RESULT

IN AN AUTOMATIC DISMISSAL FROM THE EXAM HALL AND CANCELLATION OF
YOUR SCORE.

PLEASE MAKE SURE THAT YOU HAVE WRITTEN ALL THE REQUIRED
INFORMATION ON THE ANSWER SHEET BEFORE YOU START TO WORK ON THE
EXAM.

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Grade 12 Chemistry Model Exam/2024 Page 1

 1. Which one of the following is NOT true about Bohr’s atomic theory?
A) Electrons revolve around the nucleus with definite velocity
B) The energy of an electron in certain orbit remains constant
C) Angular momentum of electron is quantized
D) The model was based on the wave properties of the electron
2. Which one of the following law states that a pure compound is always composed of the
same elements combined in a definite ratio by mass?
A) law of multiple proportions
B) law of conservation of mass
C) law of definite proportions
D) law of reciprocal proportions
3. The metal thallium occurs naturally as 30% thallium-203 and 70% thallium-205. Which
of the following is the atomic mass of thallium?
A) 60.9 C) 204.4
B) 143.5 D) 204.0
4. An element with electronic configuration of 1s22s22p5 corresponds to __________.
A) Period 3 C) Period 7
B) Group VII D) Group V
5. Which one of the following is NOT true about periodic properties of the elements?
A) Nuclear charge increases down the group
B) First ionization energy decreases down the same group
C) Electron affinity increases across a period from left to right
D) Metallic character increases across a period from left to right
6. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called _____________.
A) ionic bond C) oplar bond.
B) covalent bond D) dative bond
7. Which one of the following is NOT the property of covalent compounds? Covalent
compounds_________.
A) have relatively lower melting points
B) do not conduct electric current when molten
C) are insoluble in polar solvents such as water
D) are insoluble in non-polar solvents
8. Which one of the following contains localized valence electrons?
A) Cu C) C2H6
B) C6H6 D) H2O
9. Which one of the following force is responsible for the formation of ice during the
freezing of water?
A) dipole-dipole interaction C) ionic
B) covalent bond D) dative bon

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 10. How many grams of NH3 can be prepared from 77.3 grams of N2 and 14.2 grams of H2?
A) 93.9 g C) 47.0 g
B) 79.7 g D) 120.0 g
11. Which one of the following is TRUE about the limiting reagent? Limiting reagent is the
one that _________.
A) has the smallest molar mass C) is consumed completely
B) has the smallest coefficient D) is in excess.
12. Which one of the following is not a redox reaction?
A) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
B) O2 + 2H2 → 2H2O
C) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + 2H2
D) 2MnCl3 → 2MnCl2 + 2Cl2
13. Consider the reaction:
2A + B → 2C, with the rate equation: Rate = k[A]2[B]
Which one of the following is correct?
A) the order with respect to A is 1 and the order overall is 1
B) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 2
C) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 3
D) the order with respect to B is 2 and the order overall is 2
14. Iron and chlorine form two compounds, A and B. Compound A contains 1.27 g of
chlorine for each 1 g of iron whereas compound B contains 1.9 g of chlorine for each 1 g
of iron. What is the ratio of masses of chlorine in compound A to compound B?
A) 3:2 C) 1:2
B) 2:3 D)1:1
15. Upon reaction of 1.274 g of copper sulfate with excess zinc metal, 0.392 g copper metal
was obtained according to the equation:
CuSO4 (aq) + Zn(s) ⟶ Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)
What is the percent yield?
A) 69.2% C) 76.5%
B) 30.8% D) 77.3%
16. Which one of the following is a NOT property of gases? Gases ____________.
A) have no definite volume C) exert pressure in all directions
B) have low densities D) are incompressible
17. The kinetic theory of gases predicts that total kinetic energy of gas depends on ——–.
A) pressure C) volume
B) temperature D) mass
18. The volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure varies directly with the Kelvin
temperature. This is ————–.
A) Gay-Lussac law C) Boyle’s law
B) Charles’ law D) Combined Gas Law

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 19. Yanet has placed a few drops of food coloring in a mixture of water and vinegar to dye
hard-boiled eggs with mother in preparation for New Year. The food coloring changing
the color of the water is an example of _____.
A) diffusion C) osmosis
B) effusion D) equilibrium
20. The functional group contained in the compound CH2=CH2 is _________.
A) ester C) alkene
B) ketone D) Alkane
21. Which one of the following is the general formula of alkanes?
A) CnH2n-2 C) CnH2n
B) CnH2n+2 D) CnH2n+1
22. What is the IUPAC of the following compound?

A) 1-ethyl-3-methyl-1-hexene
B) 2-propyl-3-methyl-2-pentene
C) 2-propyl-3-methyl-2-butene
D) 3,4-dimethyl-3-heptene
23. Which of the following hydrocarbons exhibit geometrical isomerism?
A) 1-butene C) 1-pentene
B) 2-butene D) 3-hexene
24. Which one of the following can be obtained by fractional distillation of petroleum at 175
–275 oC?
A) Kerosene C) Petroleum ether
B) Diesel oil D) Gasoline
25. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE about chemical properties of alcohols?
A) Alcohols react with stronglyelectropositive metals to form alkoxides
B) Oxidation of primary alcohols in the presence of mild oxidizing agents yields ketone
C)Alcohols react with Carboxylic acids to form esters
D) Alcohols react with hydrogen halides to produce alkyl halides
26. Which one of the following is NOT oxide?
A) KOH C) NO2
B) P4O6 D) CO2
27. Which one of the following reaction DOES NOT represent the ionization of polyprotic
acids in aqueous solution?
A) HF(aq) → H+(aq) + F-(aq)
B) H3PO4(aq) ⇌ 3H+(aq) + PO43- (aq)
C) H2CO3(aq) ⇌ 2H+(aq) + CO32-(aq)
D) H2SO4(aq) → 2H+(aq) + SO42-(aq)

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 28. Which one of the following is the product of the reaction of KOH and SO3?
A) H2SO4 C) KO
B) K2S D) H2O
29. Which one of the following salt is used to prepare fertilizer?
A) NaCl C) BaSO4
B) NH4NO3 D) FeCl3
30. The capacity of a substance to transmit electricity is called ________.
A) electrical conductors C) strong electrolytes
B) electrical conductivity D) electrolytic cells
31. Which one of the following is NOT the purpose of the salt bridge in in Daniel cell?
A) maintain electrical neutrality between the two solutions
B) allow electrical contact between the two solutions
C) prevent mixing of the electrode solutions\
D) Prevent electrical contact between the two solutions
32. Which one of the following is TRUE about chemical industries? Chemical
industries__________.
A) use synthetic raw materials to produce the desired products
B) involve physical transformation of raw materials into finished products
C) consume large quantities of energy during the manufacturing process
D) use unsafe operation methods in their manufacturing processes
33. Which one of the following is non-electrolyte?
A) Molten NaCl C) Liquid nitrogen
B) CaCl2 solution D) CuSO4 solution
34. Which one of the following is correct?
A) Reduction takes place at anode
B) Oxidation takes place at cathode
C) Reduction is removal of electron
D) Oxidation is removal of electron
35. Consider the electrolysis of fused lead bromide given in the diagram below:

Which one of the following represents oxidation half reaction of the above cell?
A) Pb2+ + 2e- → Pb C) Br2 → 2Br+ + 2e-
B) 2Br- → Br2 + 2e- D) Pb → Pb2+ + 2e-

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 36. Which one of the following properties of matter is intensive property?
A) length C) boiling point
B) mass D) electrical resistance.
37. A science article refers to a temperature of 300.0 K. What is the equivalent Fahrenheit
temperature?
A) 17° F C) 549° F
B) 80.3° F D) 572° F
38. Suppose a grade 12 student, Merobika, is tasked with checking the accuracy and
precision of three different machines that are meant to dispense 296 mL of cough syrup
into storage bottles. She proceeds to use each machine to fill three bottles and then
carefully determines the actual volume dispensed, obtaining the results tabulated in Table
below.
Trials Dispenser 1 (mL) Dispenser 2 (mL) Dispenser 3 (mL)
1 284.1 293.9 296.1
2 284.0 287.8 296.0
3 283.9 296.0 296.1

Which of the following is TRUE based on the data in the Table above?
A) Dispenser 1 is more accurate
B) Dispenser 2 is more precise
C) Dispenser 3 is more precise
D) Dispenser 3 is more biased
39. Which of one of the following ray is NOT obtained from radioactive decay?
A) α-particles C) γ-rays
B) β-particles D) X-rays
40. The waves used by artificial satellites for communication is called___________.
A) microwaves C) radio waves
B) infrared waves D) x-rays
41. What is the wavelength of a light of frequency 4.47x1014 Hz?
A) 1.2 Mm C) 2.96x1021 m
B) 671 nm D) 2.96x10-12 m
42. One molecule of a substance absorbs one quantum of energy. What is the energy
involved when 1.5 moles of the substance absorb red light of frequency 7.5x1014 sec−1?
A) 4.49x105J C) 2.24x105J
7
B) 9.23x10 J D) 2.24x107J
43. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers is permissible?
A) n = 1, l =1, ml = 0 C) n = 0, l =0, ml = 0
B) n = 3, l = 2, ml = -3 D) n = 3, l = 1, ml = +2
44. How many 3d electrons are present in the Cr3+ ion? (Atomic number of chromium is 24)
A) 9 C) 6
B) 3 D) 5

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 45. Which of the following statements is wrong?
A) The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
B) The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential
of Na
C) The first ionization potential of Na is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
D) The third ionization potential of Mg is greater than the third ionization potential of Al
46. What would be the dissociation energy of the H-H bond for the reaction 4H(g) →
2H2(g), if the ΔH is – 869.6 kJ?
A) –869.6 kJ C) –434.8 kJ
B) +217.4 kJ D) +434.8 kJ
47. The nature of bonding in CCl4 and CaH2 is _________.
A) electrovalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
B) covalent in CCl4 and electrovalent in CaH2
C) electrovalent in CCl4 and covalent in CaH2
D) covalent in both CCl4 and CaH2

48. Which of the following compounds contain both ionic and covalent bonds?
A) CO C) Na2CO3
B) Cl2O D) BaCl2
49. Unknown compound is formed from element in group IVA of the periodic and element in
group VIA of the periodic table; the compound formed is likely to_____________.
A) have a high melting point C) have a high boiling point
B) dissolve in non-polar solvents D) dissolve in polar solvents
50. Which one of the following compound has sp3 hybridization?
A) C2H4 C) HCl
B) H2O D) NaF
51. The combustion of ethane is represented by the equation:
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
In this reaction:
A) the rate of formation of CO2 equals the rate of formation of water
B) water is formed at a rate equal to two-thirds the rate of formation of CO2
C) the rate of consumption of oxygen equals the rate of consumption of water
D) CO2 is formed twice as fast as ethane is consumed
52. The decomposition of carbon disulfide to carbon monosulfide and sulfur is first order
with k = 2.8 x 10-7s-1 at 1000oC.
CS2 → CS + S
What is the half-life of this reaction at 1000oC?
A) 5.0 x 107 s C) 3.8 x 105 s
B) 4.7 x 10-6 s D) 2.5 x 106 s
53. A possible mechanism for the reaction, 2A + B C + D, is:
A+A A2 fast, equilibrium
A2 + A→ A3 slow
A3 + B →A + C + D fast
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 According to the mechanism, the rate law will be:
A) Rate = k[A]2 C) Rate = k[A]
B) Rate = k[A][B] D) Rate = k[A]3
54. Consider the reaction given below:
C(s) + H2O → CO(g) + H2(g)
What is the effect of increasing pressure of the reaction?
A) shift in the reverse direction C) increase in the yield of hydrogen
B) shift in the forward direction D) no effect
55. Which of the following is the key step in the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process?
A) Burning of sulphur in air
B) Absorption of SO3 in H2SO4 to give oleum
C) Conversion of SO2 to SO3
D) Recycling of unreacted gases
56. The minimum number of variables required to describe each component in each phase of
the system is called__________.
A) mixture C) component
B) degree of freedom D) phase

57. Which one of the following is the functional group of ester?

A) R–COOH C) R–COO–R’
B) R–O–R’ D) R–CO–R’
58. Detergents are better than soaps because they are___________.
A) efficient in hard water C) environmentally friendly
B) naturally available D) basic
59. Which of the following is a definition of Bronsted-Lowery acids? Bronsted-Lowery
acids are substances that ______________.
A) donate proton C) donate pair of electron
B) accept proton D) accept a pair of electron
60. Consider the reaction given below.
HCl (aq) + H2O (l) → Cl- ( aq) + H3O+ (aq)
Which one of the following is the conjugate base of H3O+ in the above question?
A) Cl- C) HCl
+
B) H D) H2O
61. Which one of the following is the pH of 3.0 x 10-7 M solution of hydrochloric acid?
A) 6.5 C) -0.48
B) 7.48 D) 7.0
62. What is the percent dissociation of 0.50 M aqueous solution of HF? (Ka = 6.8 × 10-4)
A) 1.8% C) 3.6 %
B) 96.4% D) 4.6%
63. In a restoration project, a conservator prepares copper-plate etching solutions by diluting
concentrated nitric acid to 0.3 M HNO3. What is the pOH of this solution at 25 oC?
A) 0.52 C) 13.48
B) 7.52 D) 6.48
Grade 12 Chemistry Model Exam/2024 Page 8
 64. The shift in an ionic equilibrium caused by the addition of a solute that provides an ion
that takes part in the equilibrium is known as _________________________.
A. Common-ion effect B. Leveling effect
C. Buffer D. Conjugation
65. Which one of the following is the pH of a buffer solution containing 0.1 M CH3COOH
and a 0.1 M solution of CH3COONa.
A. 2.89 B. 5.04
C. 4.92 D. 3.89
66. Consider the following reaction:
3Br2 + 6CO32- + 3H2O → 5Br – + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
Which one of the following is TRUE about the above question?
A) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced
B) Bromine is reduced and water is oxidised.
C) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized
D) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized
67. Removal of oxygen from a compound is an example of ________.
A) oxidation C) reduction
B) oxygenation D) dehydrogenation
68. During the electrolysis of aqueous KCl solution using inert electrodes, gaseous hydrogen
is evolved at one electrode and gaseous chlorine at the other electrode. Which one of the
following reaction occurs at the cathode?
A) 2Cl- → Cl2 + 2 e- C) Cl2 + 2e- → 2Cl-
B) 2H2O → O2 + 4H++ 4e- D) 2H2O + 2e- → H2 + 2OH-
69. Which one of the following reaction repents the cathode half reaction during electrolysis
of copper (II) sulphate solution using copper electrodes?
A) Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e—
B) Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s)
C) 4OH-(aq) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) + 4e-
D) 2H2O(l) + O2(g) + 4e- → 4OH-(aq)
70. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Oxidation and reduction half-reactions occur at electrodes in electrochemical cells
B) All electrochemical reactions involve the transfer of electrons
C) All voltaic cells uses spontaneous redox reactions to generate electricity
D) All voltaic cells involve the use of electricity to initiate nonspontaneous chemical
reactions
71. Consider the reaction:
HNO3 + H3AsO3 (aq) → NO(g)+ H3AsO4 (aq) + H2O( l)
Which of the following is the balanced form of this chemical equation?
A) HNO3 + H3AsO3 (aq) → NO(g)+ H3AsO4 (aq) + H2O( l)
B) 2HNO3 + 3H3AsO3 (aq) → 2NO(g)+ 3H3AsO4 (aq) + H2O( l)
C) 2HNO3 + H3AsO3 (aq) → 2NO(g)+ H3AsO4 (aq) + H2O( l)
D) 2HNO3 + 3H3AsO3 (aq) → 2NO(g)+ 3H3AsO4 (aq) + 2H2O( l)

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 72. Which one of the following is renewable resource?
A) Petroleum C) Gold
B) Coal D) Natural rubber
73. What is the final product of Ostwald processes?
A) HNO3 C) NO2
B) NH3 D) NO
74. The molar mass of polymer polyvinyl chloride had a molar mass of 2.66 × 1010 g/mol.
What is the number of monomer units of this polymer?
A) 3192 C) 2128
B) 1064 D) 4256
75. Which one of the following is the natural polymer?
A) Polypropylene C) Starch
B) Polyethylene D) Perspex
76. Cellulose is structural polysaccharide found in plant cell walls. What type of linkage
connects its glucose units?
A) Alpha -1,4-glycosidic linkage C) Beta-1,4-glycosidic linkage
B) Alpha -1,6-glycosidic linkage D) Beta-1,6-glycosidic linkage
77. Which one of the following polymer is NOT synthesized by condensation
polymerization?
A) Teflon C) Bakelite
B) Nylon D) Protein
78. Which one of the following not the aim of green chemistry?
A) Producing adverse environmental impacts by innovative choice of materials
B) Developing processes based on renewable raw materials
C) Reducing the requirement for environmentally persistent solvents
D) Minimizing byproducts in chemical transformation
79. A substance whose concentration has increased due to human activity, ultimately having
detrimental effects on the environment is called ___________.
A) Pollution C) Emission
B) Pollutant B) Greenhouse gas
Objective: list the common greenhouse gases
80. Which of the following is NOT greenhouse gas?
A) Nitrogen C) Methane
B) Sulphur dioxide D) Carbon dioxide

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