Model Test Paper - 4 93

MODEL TEST PAPER

Time : 3½ hours.
4
Maximum Marks : 200

PHYSICS 6. The terminal velocity v of a spherical ball of

radius r falling through a viscous fluid varies
1. Which of the following is not dimensionless?
with r such that
(a) Relative density
(a) v/r = constant (b) vr = constant
(b) Relative velocity
(c) vr2 = constant (d) v/r2 = constant.
(c) Relative refractive index
(d) Relative permittivity 7. At NTP, water boils at 100°C. Deep down a
mine, water will boil at a temperature
2. Two projectiles A and B are projected with
(a) 100°C (b) > 100°C
angle of projection 30° for the projectile A and
(c) < 100°C (d) will not boil at all.
45° for the projectile B. If RA and RB are the
horizontal ranges for the two projectiles, then 8. The equation of a progressive wave is given by
(a) RA = RB (b) RA > RB t x π
(c) RA < RB y = 4 sin π  − +  . Which of the following
5 9 6 
(d) the information is insufficient to decide is correct? (Assume SI units)
the relation between RA and RB. (a) v = 5 cm s–1 (b) A = 0.04 cm
3. The additional kinetic energy to be provided to (c) l = 18 m (d) u = 50 Hz
a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet 9. A particle has two equal accelerations in two
of mass M to transfer it from a circular orbit of given directions. If one of the acceleration
radius R1 to another of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is
is halved, then the angle which the resultant
 1 1  1 1  makes with the other is also halved. The angle
(a) GmM  2 − 2  (b) GmM  − 
 R1 R2   R1 R2  between the accelerations is
1 1 1 1 1 (a) 120° (b) 90°
(c) 2GmM  −  (d) GmM  −  (c) 60° (d) 45°
 R1 R2  2  R1 R2 
4. Wires A and B are made from the same 10. The amount of work done in stretching a spring
material. A has twice the diameter and three from a stretched length of 10 cm to a stretched
times the length of B. If the elastic limits are length of 20 cm is
not reached when each wire is stretched by the (a) equal to the work done in stretching it from
same tension, the ratio of energy stored in A to 20 cm to 30 cm
that in B is (b) less than the work done in stretching it from
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 6 : 1 20 cm to 30 cm
5. At critical temperature, the surface tension of (c) more than the work done in stretching it
a liquid is from 20 cm to 30 cm
(a) zero (d) equal to the work done in stretching it
(b) infinity from 0 to 30 cm.
(c) the same as that at any other temperature 11. A body of mass m strikes a stationary body
(d) cannot be determined. of mass M and undergoes an elastic collision.
94 AIIMS EXPLORER

After collision, m has a speed one-third its 18. When the plane of the armature of an a.c.
initial speed. The ratio M/m is generator is parallel to the field, in which it is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 rotating,
12. A man throws the bricks to a height of 12 m (a) both the flux linked and induced e.m.f. in
where they reach with a speed of 12 m s–1. If the coil are zero
he throws the bricks such that they just reach (b) the flux linked with it is zero, while
that height, what percentage of energy will be induced e.m.f. is maximum
(c) flux linked is maximum while induced
saved? (g = 9.8 m s–2)
e.m.f. is zero
(a) 50% (b) 46% (c) 38% (d) 32%
(d) both the flux and e.m.f. have their
13. A can filled with water is revolved in a vertical respective maximum values.
circle of radius 4 m and the water just does not
19. In Young’s double slit experiment, the central
fall down. The time period of revolution will be
bright fringe can be identified
(a) 1 s (b) 10 s (c) 8 s (d) 4 s
(a) as it has greater intensity than the other
14. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform bright fringes
annular disc about one of the diameters is I. Its (b) as it is wider than the other bright fringes
moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular (c) as it is narrower than the other bright
to the annular surface and passing through its fringes
centre is (d) by using white light instead of
I I monochromatic light.
(a) 2 I (b) 2I (c) (d)
2 2 20. An optical fibre made of glass with a core
15. A body rolls down an inclined plane. If its kinetic of refractive index of 1.55 and is clad with
energy of rotational motion is 40% of its kinetic another glass with a refractive index of 1.51.
energy of translation, then the body is Launching takes place from air. What is the
(a) cylinder (b) ring value of critical angle for core-clad boundary?
(c) solid disc (d) solid sphere (a) 65° (b) 72° (c) 77° (d) 82°

16. Force acting upon a charged particle kept 21. Heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods
between the plates of a charge condenser is F. of the same material. The diameter of the rods
If one of the plates of the condenser is removed are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the lengths in the ratio
then the force acting on the same particle will 2 : 1. If the temperature difference between the
become ends be the same, then the ratio of the rates of
(a) zero (b) F/2 (c) F (d) 2F flow of heat through the two rods will be
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 8
17. The capacitance of arrangement of 4 plates of
22. Three moles of oxygen are mixed with two
area A at a distance d shown in figure, is
moles of helium. What will be the ratio of
d specific heats at constant pressure and constant
volume for the mixture?
A B
(a) 6.76 (b) 1.52 (c) 4.21 (d) 1.48
23. A tuning fork vibrating with a sonometer
2ε 0 A having 20 cm wire produces 5 beat s–1. The
(a) e0/d (b)
d beat frequency does not change if the length of
4ε 0 A the wire is changed to 21 cm. The frequency of
(c) 3 e0A/d (d)
d the tuning fork must be
Model Test Paper - 4 95

(a) 200 Hz (b) 210 Hz   

(b) E, B and v are collinear
(c) 205 Hz (d) 215 Hz      
24. The damping force of an oscillator is directly (c) E = v × B (d) E = B × v
proportional to the velocity. The unit of the 29. The earth’s magnetic field may be considered to
constant of proportionality is be due to a short magnet placed at the centre of
(a) kg m s–1 (b) kg m s–2 earth and oriented along magnetic south north
(c) kg s –1
(d) kg s direction. The ratio of magnitude of magnetic
25. Ultrasonics are used in SONAR with greatest field on earth’s surface at magnetic equator to
advantage because ultrasonics that at magnetic poles is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
(a) have low frequency
(b) have short wavelength 30. In the circuit shown in figure, what will be the
(c) are electromagnetic waves reading of the voltmeter?
(d) can be easily produced V 100 V 100 V

26. If dielectric constant and dielectric strength

be denoted by K and X respectively, then a R C
L
material suitable for use as a dielectric in a
capacitor must have 200 V, 100 Hz

(a) high K and high X (b) high K and low X

(c) low K and high X (d) low K and low X (a) 300 V (b) 900 V (c) 200 V (d) 400 V
27. The figure shows a parallel circuit, in which 31. What is the rms value of an alternating current
the wires have no resistance. As more identical which when passed through a resistor produces
resistors are added to the circuit, the resistance heat, which is thrice that produced by a current of
between A and B 2 A in the same resistor?
(a) 6 A (b) 2 A (c) 3.46 A (d) 0.65 A
R
32. Electromagnetic radiation of frequency u,
R of velocity c and wavelength l in air enters a
glass slab of refractive index m. The frequency,
A R B
wavelength and velocity of radiation in glass
slab will be
R
υ λ c
(a) , ,c (b) υ, λ,
µ µ µ
λ c υ λ c
(c) υ, , (d) , ,
µ µ µ µ µ
(a) increases and approaches a finite value 33. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to
(b) increases and approaches infinity that of holes in a semiconductor is 7/5 and the
(c) decreases and approaches zero ratio of current is 7/4, then the ratio of their
(d) decreases and approaches a non-zero value. drift velocities is
28. In a region there exist both uniform magnetic (a) 5/8 (b) 4/5 (c) 5/4 (d) 4/7
 
field B and electric field E . An electric charge 34. A forward biased diode is
moving in region experiences no force. This (a) 0 V –2V
implies that (b) – 4 V –3V
   (c) 3 V 5V
(a) E, B and v are coplanar (d) – 2 V +2V
96 AIIMS EXPLORER

35. A signal wave of frequency 12 kHz is modulated 40. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days.
with a carrier wave of frequency 2.51 MHz. The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2
The upper and lower sideband frequencies are when (2/3) of it has decayed and the time t1
respectively when (1/3) of it has decayed is
(a) 2512 kHz and 2508 kHz (a) 30 days (b) 50 days
(b) 2522 kHz and 2488 kHz (c) 60 days (d) 15 days
(c) 2502 kHz and 2498 kHz Directions : In the following questions (41-60), a
(d) 2522 kHz and 2498 kHz statement of assertion is followed by a statement
of reason. Mark the correct choice as :
36. The velocity of the a-particle emitted from
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and
uranium of atomic weight 238 is 1.4 × 107m s–1. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
The velocity of the remaining nucleus is (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
1.4 × 107 reason is not the correct explanation of
(a) × 4 m s −1 in the same direction assertion.
238
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
1.4 × 107
(b) × 4 m s −1 in the same direction (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
234
41. Assertion : For a given time interval, average
1.4 × 107
(c) × 4 m s −1 in the opposite direction velocity is single valued while average speed
234
can have many values.
1.4 × 107 Reason : Velocity is a vector quantity and
(d) × 4 m s −1 in the opposite direction
238 speed is a scalar quantity.
37. A bubble in glass slab (m = 1.5) when viewed 42. Assertion : If a rod having resistance 4 W is
from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from turned as half cycle, then its resistance along
other side, then thickness of slab is its diameter is 1.0 W.
(a) 3.75 cm (b) 3 cm Reason : On bending a rod, its length decreases
(c) 10.5 cm (d) 2.5 cm and hence resistance decreases.
38. The wavelength of radiation emitted is l0 when 43. Assertion : The energy of X-ray photon is
an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from 3rd greater than that of light photon.
to 2nd orbit. If in the hydrogen atom itself, the Reason : X-ray photon in vacuum travels faster
electron jumps from fourth orbit to second orbit, than light photon.
then wavelength of emitted radiation will be 44. Assertion : Refractive index of a medium
25 27 20 16 varies inversely as the temperature of the
(a) λ (b) λ (c) λ (d) λ
16 0 20 0 27 0 25 0 medium.
39. Consider two nuclei of the same radioactive Reason : Refractive index of a medium varies
nuclide. One of the nuclei was created in directly as the density of medium.
a supernova explosion 5 billion years ago. 45. Assertion : If ice cap of the pole melts, the day
The other was created in a nuclear reactor 5 length will shorten.
minutes ago. The probability of decay during Reason : Ice will flow towards the equator and
the next time is decrease the moment of in ertia of the Earth.
(a) different for each nucleus This increases the frequency of rotation of the
(b) nucleus created in explosion decays first Earth.
(c) nucleus created in the reactor decays first 46. Assertion : Equal masses of helium and
(d) independent of the time of creation. oxygen gases are given equal quantities of heat.
Model Test Paper - 4 97

The rise in temperature of helium is greater  

54. Assertion : If q is the angle between A and B ,
than that in the case of oxygen. then
Reason : The molecular mass of oxygen is  
A×B
more than the molecular mass of helium. tan θ =   .
A⋅B
47. Assertion : Two longitudinal waves given by    
equations : Reason : A × B is perpendicular to A ⋅ B.
y1 (x, t) = 2a sin (wt – kx), and 55. Assertion : A spaceship while entering the
y2 (x, t) = a sin (2wt – 2kx) earth’s atmosphere is likely to catch fire.
will have equal intensity. Reason : The temperature of upper atmosphere
Reason : Intensity of waves of given frequency is very high.
in same medium is proportional to the square 56. Assertion : The sun looks bigger in size at
of the amplitude only. sunrise and sunset than during day.
Reason : The phenomenon of diffraction bends
48. Assertion : When a pendulum is made to
light rays.
oscillate on the surface of the Moon, its time
period increases. 57. Assertion: Only a change in magnetic flux will
Reason : Moon is much smaller as compared maintain an induced current in the coil.
Reason: The presence of large magnetic flux
to Earth.
through a coil maintains a current in the coil if
49. Assertion : On a banked curved track, vertical the circuit is continuous.
component of normal reaction provides the
58. Assertion : The resistivity of a semiconductor
necessary centripetal force. increases with temperature.
Reason : Centripetal force is not always Reason : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate
required for turning. with larger amplitude at higher temperatures
50. Assertion : The logic gate NOT can be built thereby increasing its resistivity.
using diode. 59. Assertion : A thin stainless steel needle can lay
Reason : The output voltage and input voltage floating on a still water surface.
of the diode have 180° phase difference. Reason : Any object floats when the buoyancy
51. Assertion : Sky wave signals are used for long force balances the weight of the object.
distance radio communication. These signals are 60. Assertion : Heavy water is a better moderator
in general less stable than ground wave signals. than normal water.
Reason : The state of ionosphere varies from Reason : Heavy water absorbs neutrons more
hour to hour, day to day and season to season. efficiently than normal water.
52. Assertion : Charge never flows from a CHEMISTRY
condenser of higher capacity to the condenser
61. The behaviour of a real gas is usually depicted by
of lower capacity.
plotting compressibility factor Z vs P at a constant
Reason : Flow of charge is determined by the
temperature. At high temperature and high
charge.
pressure, Z is usually more than one.This fact can be
53. Assertion : Absolute zero temperature is also a explained by van der Waals’ equation when
zero energy temperature of gas molecules. (a) the constant a is negligible
Reason : At absolute zero temperature (b) the constant b is negligible
molecules of a gas come to rest, hence possess (c) both the constants a and b are not negligible
no energy of any form. (d) both the constants a and b are negligible.
98 AIIMS EXPLORER

62. The standard heat of combustion of Al is 66. For the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g), the
–837.8 kJ mol–1 at 25°C. If Al reacts with O2 values of Kp are 1.7 × 103 at 500 K and 1.7 × 104
at 25°C, which of the following releases 250 kJ at 600 K. Which of the following is correct?
of heat? (a) The proportion of NO2 in the equilibrium
(a) The reaction of 0.624 mol of Al. mixture is increased by decrease in pressure.
(b) The formation of 0.624 mol of Al2O3. (b) The standard enthalpy change for the
forward reaction is negative.
(c) The reaction of 0.312 mol of Al.
(c) Unit of Kp is atm–1.
(d) The formation of 0.150 mol of Al2O3.
(d) At 500 K, the degree of dissociation of
63. 100 mL of 0.1 N hypo solution decolourises N2O4 decreases by 50% by increasing the
iodine by the addition of x g of crystalline copper pressure by 100%.
sulphate to excess of KI. The value of ‘x’ is 67. Half litre of each of three samples of 10 volume,
(Molar mass of CuSO4·5H2O = 250 g/mol). 15 volume and 20 volume H2O2 are mixed and
(a) 5 g (b) 1.25 g (c) 2.5 g (d) 4 g equal volume of water is added. The volume
64. You want to prepare 3-methyloctane by Corey- strength of the resulting solution is
House synthesis. Which of the following pairs (a) 1.04 (b) 2.08 (c) 6.5 (d) 7.5
would be the worst to start with? 68. Alkali metal ion complexes are characterised
(a) [H3CCH2CH2CH2CH2 ]2CuLi and with chelating organic reagents such as
H3CCH2 CH Br salicylaldehyde and polyethers. Which of the
following is the correct order of equilibrium
CH3 formation for above complexes?
(b) [H3CCH2 CH ]2CuLi and
(a) Li+ > Na+ > K+ (b) K+ > Na+ > Li+
CH3 +
(c) Na > K > Li+ +
(d) Li+ > K+ > Na+
H3CCH2CH2CH2CH2Br 69. The reaction, Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
(c) [H3CCH2CH2CH2CH2CH ]2CuLi and (DG° = – 421 kJ) is thermodynamically feasible
CH3 due to negative value of DG°. Why does this
CH3CH2Br reaction not take place at room temperature?
(d) [H3CCH2CH2CH2CH2CHCH2 ]2 CuLi (a) Certain amount of activation energy is
CH3 essential for thermodynamically feasible
 and CH3Br reactions also.
65. The final products B and C formed in the (b) Due to high melting point of chromium
following sequence of reactions, oxide the reaction does not take place.
anhy. conc. HNO3 (c) Overall value of DG for the net reaction
FeBr3Br2 + conc. H2SO4
becomes positive.
(A) [B + C]


major minor (d) Molecules of Cr2O3 and Al are not
(can be separated by oriented properly.
fractional distillation)
are respectively 70. The element with the outer electronic
(a) both bromobenzene configuration, 3d54s2 will be expected to
(b) o-bromonitrobenzene and I. form coloured ions
p-bromonitrobenzene II. form complex compounds
(c) m-bromonitrobenzene and III. have a low melting point.
p-bromonitrobenzene Choose the correct statement(s).
(d) p-bromonitrobenzene and (a) Only I (b) Only I and II
o-bromonitrobenzene. (c) Only III (d) All of these
Model Test Paper - 4 99

71. Which of the following arrangements is correct 75. Out of the given statements, select the incorrect
on the basis of increasing p-character of hybrid one.
orbitals of the central atom? (a) NaClO4 is water soluble but KClO4 is not.
(a) ZnCl2 < SnCl2 < SO42– (b) Na3[Co(NO2)6] is water soluble but
(b) SnCl2 < ZnCl2 < SO42– K3[Co(NO2)6] is not.
(c) ZnCl2 < SO42– < SnCl2 (c) Na2CO3 is water soluble but CaCO3 is not.
(d) NaCl is water soluble but CaCl2 is not.
(d) SO42– < ZnCl2 < SnCl2
76. The increasing order of boiling points of the
following compounds is
(I) catechol (II) resorcinol
72. under acidic condition can give (III) hydroquinone (IV) phenol
(a) I < II < IV < III (b) I < II < III < IV
(c) IV < II < I < III (d) IV < I < II < III
77. Which of the following is not correct about the
(a) (b)
given reaction?
NaI(aq.)
CH2 CH2 + Br2
(a) The products formed are CH2BrCH2Br
and CH2BrCH2I.
(b) The reaction follows polar mechanism.
(c) (d) (c) The reaction occurs readily in solution
and is catalysed by inorganic halides.
(d) Only CH2ICH2I is formed.
73. For an ideal binary liquid solution with P°A > P°B 78. A beaker containing 20 g sugar in 100 g water
which relation between XA (mole fraction of A and another containing 10 g sugar in 100 g water
in liquid phase) and YA (mole fraction of A in are placed under a bell-jar and allowed to stand
vapour phase) is correct? [Assuming XB and YB until equilibrium is reached. The amount of water
are mole fractions of B in liquid and vapour which will be transferred from one beaker to
phase respectively.] other is
(a) XA = YA (a) 11.0 g (b) 20 g (c) 33.3 g (d) 066.7 g
(b) XA > YA 79. A solid element (symbol Y) conducts electricity
X A YA and forms two chlorides YCln (a colourless
(c) >
X B YB volatile liquid) and YCln–2 (a colourless solid).
(d) XA, YA, XB and YB cannot be correlated. To which one of the following groups of the
periodic table does Y belong?
74. A drop of solution (volume 0.05 mL) contains
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16
3.0 × 10–6 mole of H+. If the rate constant of
disappearance of H+ is 1.0 × 107 mol L–1 sec–1. 80. Identify the final product of the following
How long would it take for H+ in that drop to reaction.
disappear?
(a) 6 × 10–8 sec (b) 6 × 10–7 sec
–9
(c) 6 × 10 sec (d) 6 × 10–10 sec
100 AIIMS EXPLORER

(c) aluminium chloride

(a) (b) (d) alumina.
85. Arrange the following in increasing order of
their reactivity towards ring bromination.

(c) (d)

81. The e.m.f. of the following Daniell cell at 298 K

is E1.
Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01 M) || CuSO4 (1.0 M) | Cu (a) II < V < IV < III < I
When concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and (b) II < III < V < IV < I
that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. changed to (c) I < III < V < II < IV
E2. What is the relationship between E1 and E2 ? (d) I < IV < V < II < III
(a) E1 > E2 (b) E1 < E2 86. In the diazotisation of aryl amines with sodium
(c) E1 = E2 (d) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 nitrite and hydrochloric acid, an excess of
hydrochloric acid is used primarily to
82. In a pseudo first order hydrolysis of ester in
(a) suppress the concentration of free aniline
water, the following results were obtained.
available for coupling
t/s 0 30 60 90 (b) suppress hydrolysis of phenol
Ester/mol L–1 0.55 0.31 0.17 0.085 (c) ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous
What will be the average rate of reaction acid.
between the time interval 30 to 60 seconds? (d) neutralise the base liberated.
(a) 1.91 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 87. A metal crystallises into two cubic phases, face
(b) 4.67 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 centred cubic (fcc) and body centred cubic
(c) 1.98 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (bcc), whose unit lengths are 3.5 and 3.0 Å
(d) 2.07 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 respectively. What will be the ratio of densities
of fcc to bcc?
83. For [HgI3]– ion, geometry and magnetic (a) 1.259 (b) 2.513 (c) 0.892 (d) 1.862
behaviour are respectively 88. A substance which gives a canary yellow
(a) trigonal bipyramidal and paramagnetic precipitate when boiled with an excess of nitric
(b) trigonal pyramidal and diamagnetic acid and ammonium molybdate and yellow
(c) trigonal planar and paramagnetic precipitate with AgNO3 is
(d) trigonal planar and diamagnetic. (a) orthophosphoric acid
84. When metal X is treated with sodium (b) pyrophosphoric acid
hydroxide, a white precipitate (A) is obtained, (c) metaphosphoric acid
which is soluble in excess of NaOH to give (d) hypophosphoric acid.
soluble complex (B). Compound (A) is soluble 89. Iodoform gives a precipitate with AgNO3 on
in dilute HCl and form compound (C). The heating but chloroform does not because
compound (A) when heated strongly gives (a) iodoform is ionic
(D), which is used to extract metal. Compound (b) chloroform is covalent
‘D’ is (c) C I bond in iodoform is weak and
(a) aluminium hydroxide C Cl bond in chloroform is strong
(b) sodium aluminate (d) none of these.
Model Test Paper - 4 101

90. Which of the following reactions can give rise (a) III > II > I > IV (b) I > III > II > IV
to free radicals? (c) III > I > II > IV (d) IV > II > I > III
94. White phosphorus on reaction with lime water
gives calcium salt of an acid (A) along with a
I.
gas (X). Which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) (A) on heating gives (X) and O2.
II. (b) The bond angle in (X) is less than that in
case of ammonia.
(c) (A) is a dibasic acid.
III. (d) (X) is more basic than ammonia.
95. Identify the major products (X, Y and Z)
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III
formed in the given reactions.
(c) Only I and III (d) All of these
91. The limiting molar conductivities of HCl,
CH3COONa and NaCl are respectively 425,
90 and 125 mho cm2 mol–1 at 25°C. The molar
conductivity of 0.1 M CH3COOH solution is
7.8 mho cm2 mol–1 at the same temperature.
The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M acetic acid
X Y Z
solution at the same temperature is
(a) 0.10 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.15 (d) 0.03 (a) 2-Methoxy- 2-Methoxy- 2-Nitroanisole
toluene acetophenone
92. When a dilute aqueous solution of potassium
permanganate is run from a burette into a flask (b) 4-Nitro- 2-Methoxy- 2-Methoxy-
containing dilute aqueous oxalic acid and dilute anisole acetophenone toluene
sulphuric acid, the rate of reaction suddenly (c) 4-Methoxy- 4-Methoxy- 4-Nitroanisole
increases considerably as more potassium toluene acetophenone
permanganate is added. The best reason for this (d) 4-Methoxy- 2-Methoxy- 2-Nitroanisole
is that toluene acetophenone
(a) the manganese (II) ions produced catalyse
96. Although D-galactose rotates plane polarised
the reaction
light but its oxidation product, galactaric acid,
(b) the pH of the solution in flask increases
does not rotate because,
(c) the reaction is exothermic and the heat
(a) galactaric acid is a racemic mixture of
liberated increases the rate considerably
D-and L-isomer
(d) the sulphuric acid removes water and
(b) galactaric acid is a meso compound
so causes the reaction to proceed more
(c) both are correct reasons
rapidly to completion.
(d) none is the correct reason.
93. Select the correct order of number of unpaired
electrons in given complexes 97. In the following reaction sequence,
(I) A tetrahedral complex with d 6 ion R CH CH2 + H2SO4
(II) [Co(H2O)6)]2+ (R = C16H33)
(III)A complex compound with magnetic
moment 35 B. M.
(IV) A square planar complex with d7 ion 
102 AIIMS EXPLORER

The end product is a 101. Assertion : In BrF3, axial fluorine atoms are
(a) soap (b) fertiliser bent towards the equatorial fluorine.
(c) preservative (d) detergent. Reason : Repulsion of lone pairs on equatorial
fluorine is stronger as compared to on axial
98. Which of the following statements is correct fluorine.
when a chain transfer agent is added to vinyl
102. Assertion : SO2(g) and H2S(g) can be
polymerisation process? distinguished by lime water.
(a) Polymerisation occurs at the same rate Reason : SO2 acts as reducing as well as
whether chain transfer agent is present or not. oxidising agent but H2S is only reducing agent.
(b) The polymer formed has lower average 103. Assertion : Buffer system of carbonic acid
molecular mass. and sodium bicarbonate is used for the
(c) The polymer formed contains small precipitation of hydroxides of third group
amounts of chlorine. elements.
(d) All of these. Reason : It maintains the pH to a constant
value, about 6.4.
99. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric
chloride because 104. Assertion : Excessive use of chlorinated
synthetic pesticides causes soil and water
(a) the blood starts flowing in the opposite
pollutions.
direction
Reason : Such pesticides are non-
(b) the blood reacts and a solid is formed biodegradable.
which seals the blood vessel
105. Assertion : The enthalpy of reaction remains
(c) the blood is coagulated and the blood constant in the presence of a catalyst.
vessels are sealed Reason : A catalyst participating in the
(d) the ferric chloride seals the blood vessel. reaction, forms different activated complex
100. (Complex- A) ← Metal ion with → (Complex- B) and lowers down the activation energy, the
difference in energy of reactant and product
t 23 g , e1g d n configuration t 24g , e 0g
remains the same.
Complex-A and complex-B are respectively 106. Assertion : C6H5N2+Cl– couples with
(a) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Mn(CN)6]4– C6H5N(CH3)2 but not with 2,6-dimethyl-
(b) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ and [Mn(CN)6]4– N, N-dimethylaniline.
Reason : Due to steric inhibition of
(c) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Mn(CN)6]3– resonance, the p-position of the 2, 6-dimethyl-
(d) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ and [Mn(CN)6]3– N, N-dimethyl-aniline is not sufficiently
Directions : In the following questions (101-120), activated for coupling reaction.
a statement of assertion is followed by a statement 107. Assertion : Glucose and fructose give the same
of reason. Mark the correct choice as : osazone.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and Reason : During osazone formation
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. stereochemistry at C1 and C2 is destroyed and
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but rest of the structure remains same.
reason is not the correct explanation of 108. Assertion : Polyamides are best used as fibres
assertion. because of high tensile strength.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : Strong intermolecular forces (like
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. hydrogen bonding within polyamides) lead
Model Test Paper - 4 103

to close packing of chains and increase the Reason : Hydrogen sulphide is a weak acid.
crystalline character, hence, provide high 117. Assertion : Ionic radii of Ta and Nb are same.
tensile strength to polymers.
Reason : The lanthanide contraction cancels
109. Assertion : On heating a solid for a longer almost exactly the normal size increase on
time, radiations become blue and then white descending a group of transition elements.
as the temperature becomes very high.
118. Assertion : Both hypophosphoric acid
Reason : Radiations emitted go from a
and isohypophosphoric acid have same
higher frequency to lower frequency as the
composition H4P2O6 but their properties are
temperature increases.
different.
110. Assertion : Ortho-hydroxybenzoic acid is Reason : Due to different structural
much more acidic than benzoic acid. arrangement, their basicity, oxidation number
Reason : Anion formed from ortho-hydroxy of P atoms and reducing property are different.
benzoic acid is destabilised by hydrogen
bonding. 119. Assertion : A mixture of noble gases can be
separated by using coconut charcoal.
111. Assertion : Cycloalkenes decolourise the
Reason : Activated coconut charcoal adsorbs
purple colour of dilute and cold KMnO4 or red
different noble gases at different temperatures.
colour of bromine in carbon tetrachloride.
Reason : Cycloalkenes undergo the 120. Assertion : [Co(NO3)3(NH3)3] does not show
electrophilic addition reactions which are optical isomerism.
characteristic of alkenes. Reason : It has a plane of symmetry.
112. Assertion : Friedel–Crafts reaction between BIOLOGY
benzene and acetic anhydride in the presence 121. Aleurone layer is
of anhydrous AlCl3 yields acetophenone and (a) haploid (b) diploid
not polysubstituted products.
(c) triploid (d) tetraploid.
Reason : Acetophenone formed poisons the
122. A compound which is produced by an organism
catalyst, preventing further reaction.
that inhibits growth of other organism is called
113. Assertion : Nucleophilic substitution reaction (a) xenobiotics (b) antibiotic
on an optically active alkyl halide gives a (c) antibody (d) interferon.
mixture of enantiomers.
123. The world’s tallest flowering tree is
Reason : The reaction follows SN1 mechanism.
(a) Sequoia (b) Eucalyptus
114. Assertion : The rate of effusion of O2 is less (c) Pinus (d) Cedrus.
than that of N2.
Reason : Molecular size of nitrogen is smaller 124. Primary cell wall consists of a loose network
than oxygen. of cellulose microfibrils impregnated with a
matrix of
115. Assertion : The mobility of sodium ion is
(a) glycoprotein and flavoprotein
lower than that of potassium ion in aqueous
solution. (b) hemicellulose and flavoprotein
Reason : The ionic mobilities depend upon the (c) hemicellulose and pectin
radius of the hydrated ion. (d) flavoprotein and pectin.
116. Assertion : The ionisation of hydrogen 125. Edible part of apple is the
sulphide in water is low in the presence of (a) thalamus (b) mesocarp
hydrochloric acid. (c) epicarp (d) endocarp.
104 AIIMS EXPLORER

126. Phosphodiester bond is present in 136. Yeast and some filamentous fungi are main
(a) ATP (b) ADP sources of
(c) cAMP (d) none of these. (a) vitamin B complex (b) fertilisers
127. Which of the following is a DNA containing (c) minerals (d) none of these.
double shelled virus? 137. Pollination by bat is called
(a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B (a) ornithophily (b) chiropteriphily
(c) Hepatitis C (d) Hepatitis D. (c) malacophily (d) anemophily.
128. Transcription in case of eukaryotes takes place 138. Epidermis is derived from
in (a) phellogen (b) cambium
(a) nucleus (b) nucleolus (c) procambium (d) none of these.
(c) cytoplasm (d) ribosome. 139. In mangrove vegetation plants possess
129. Number of mitotic division required in a cell (a) taproot (b) stilt root
of root tip for formation of 128 cells is (c) pneumatophore (d) haustorial roots.
(a) 128 (b) 32
140. In Krebs’ cycle GTP is formed in
(c) 127 (d) 64.
(a) substrate level phosphorylation
130. Which of the following banding group is used (b) oxidative phosphorylation
in staining both plant and animal chromosome ? (c) non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(a) C-group (b) G-group (d) cyclic photophosphorylation.
(c) R-group (d) N-group
131. Most common yeast used in baking industry is 141.
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Sclerospora graminicola
(c) Sclerotina fuiticola
(d) Colletotrichum falcatum. In the diagram of types of placentation given
above ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ respectively represent
132. Which of the following is not a true subcellular (a) basal, axile, parietal and free central
organelle ? (b) free central, parietal, basal and axile
(a) Peroxisome (b) Ribosome (c) axile, basal, parietal and free central
(c) Chloroplast (d) Lysosome. (d) parietal, axile, free central and basal.
133. Golgi body is associated with
142. Which of the following cytoskeletal compo-
(a) packaging and storage of material nents of an eukaryotic cell play a major role in
(b) cell wall formation protoplasmic streaming?
(c) transport of enzyme (a) Microtubules (b) microfilaments
(d) all of the above (c) Intermediate filaments
134. Azolla increases soil fertility of (d) None of these
(a) maize (b) barley 143. Prostaglandins have no role in
(c) rice (d) wheat. (a) inflammatory and allergic reactions
135. The wood of Pinus is (b) blood clotting
(a) manoxylic (c) smooth muscle contraction
(b) polyxylic (d) conduction of nerve impulses.
(c) pycnoxylic 144. Simple cuboidal epithelium lines all the
(d) manoxylic and pycnoxylic. following structures except the
Model Test Paper - 4 105

(a) ovary (b) pancreatic ducts (c) both physical configuration as well as
(c) thyroid follicles (d) Fallopian tube. chemical structure
145. Malaria infection can be transmitted by (d) other properties..
(a) the bite of infected female Anopheles 154. Which of the following is incorrect ?
mosquito (a) The hair protein, keratin, is synthesised
(b) vertical transmission through placental from the amino acid methionine
defect (b) Phospholipids act as carriers of inorganic
(c) blood transfusion ions across the cell membrane
(d) all of these. (c) Dietary intake of PUFA increases the
146. Which of the following chromosomal disorders serum cholesterol level in our body
is the commonest in the newborns? (d) Cobalt is a constituent of vit. B12
(a) Edward’s syndrome 155. Which of the following is a fish?
(b) Patau’s syndrome (a) Flying fish (b) Jelly fish
(c) Down’s syndrome (c) Devil fish (d) Star fish
(d) None of these.
156. The tadpole fish is
147. Pick the odd-one out. (a) fish larva
(a) Nervous tissue : node of Ranvier (b) larva of an amphibian
(b) Ear : aqueduct of Sylvius
(c) an arthropod
(c) Bone : Volkman’s canal
(d) common name of a fish.
(d) Eye : canal of Schlemm
157. Memory cells are stored in
148. During digestion, before the action of lipase,
(a) spleen (b) lymph nodes
fat is emulsified by
(c) both (a) and (b)
(a) ergosterols (b) phospholipids
(d) a specialised area of brain tissue.
(c) lipoproteins (d) digitonin.
149. Closed circulatory system is not found in 158. The highly pathogenic influenza A (H5NI)
(a) octopus (b) tunicates virus infects
(c) echinoderms (d) squids. (a) poultry (b) ducks
(c) migratory birds (d) all of these.
150. Polyp phase is absent in the life cycle of
(a) Hydra (b) Hormiphora 159. Though sensitive to entire visible spectrum,
(c) Pennatula (d) Physalia. the cones in the human eye show maximum
sensitivity to
151. Which is not a symptom of hyperglycaemia? (a) blue colour (b) green colour
(a) Loss of weight
(c) red colour (d) all of these.
(b) Breakdown of muscle tissue
(c) High blood glucose level 160. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a
(d) Diplopia portion of human male reproductive system.
Select the correct set of the names of the parts
152. An inherited character and its detectable
labelled A, B, C, D
variant is termed as
(a) unit factor (b) trait
(c) genetic profile (d) genotypic character.
153. Heating may cause denaturation of enzyme or
protein mainly by damaging its
(a) physical configuration
(b) chemical structure
106 AIIMS EXPLORER

(a) A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, 165. Assertion : Cancer is contagious and cells can
C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland highly spread from one person to other.
(b) A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, Reason : Cancerous cells do not differentiate
C-Bulbourethral gland, D-Prostate cells.
(c) A-Ureter, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, 166. Assertion : Fruit juices taste bitter on being
D-Bulbourethral gland kept for some time.
(d) A-Ureter, B-Prostate, C-Seminal vesicle, Reason : Microorganisms of the air spoil it
D-Bulbourethral gland. quickly.
Directions : Questions 161-180 : The following 167. Assertion : Amphibians have evolved from
questions consists of two statements, one labelled fishes.
as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason. You Reason : Take the example of the fossil
are to examine these two statements carefully Archaeopteryx.
and decide if the Assertion and the Reason are 168. Assertion : Vascular cambium gives rise to
individually true and if so, whether the Reason lateral shoots.
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select Reason : Vascular cambium is considered as
your answers to these items using the codes given lateral meristem.
below:
169. Assertion : Person with blood group AB can
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
take blood from any other person.
Reason is the correct explanation of
Reason : Blood group incompatibility is due
Assertion.
to antigen -antibody reaction. Blood group AB
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
has no antibody and thus the antigen of the
Reason is not the correct explanation of
other group is not affected.
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 170. Assertion : Snakes exposed to gamma rays
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. become non poisonous.
Reason : Poisonous snakes have poison glands
161. Assertion : Hearing aids help the hearing
and a pair of poison fangs. They are affected by
impaired to hear.
gamma rays.
Reason: They make sound travel through skull
bones. 171. Assertion : Plants and animals are becoming
162. Assertion : Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, extinct at an alarming rate.
blue green algae with all the prokaryotic Reason : They are dying their natural death.
structures. 172. Assertion : In kingdom Monera, cell wall
Reason : They are green due to presence of bears unique polymers of amino sugars and
chloroplasts. amino acids called peptidoglycans.
163. Assertion : Plants also have hormones called Reason : Peptidoglycans is a derivative of
as phytohormones. phospholipids.
Reason : They increase the rate of reactions 173. Assertion : Metamorphosis in frog is said to
and thus always accelerate growth and other be progressive.
related changes.
Reason : Metamorphosis in frog is controlled
164. Assertion : Leguminous plants are best by thyroxine hormone.
preferred for rotation of crops.
Reason : They have root nodules which have 174. Assertion : All the arthropods and molluscs
nitrogen fixing bacterium Clostridium. have blue-coloured blood.
Model Test Paper - 4 107

Reason : Molluscs and arthropods have 184. ‘Golden girl’ is the biography of
haemocyanin in their RBCs. (a) P.T. Usha
175. Assertion : Castor seed is dicot endospermic (b) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
seed. (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Indira Gandhi.
Reason : Seed is with two cotyledons and 185. Megasthenes visited India during the reign of
unconsumed endosperm. (a) Chandragupta II
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
176. Assertion : In monocot stem, vascular bundles
(c) Ashoka (d) Harsha.
are arranged in a ring.
Reason : In monocot stem, stele is of dictyostele 186. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji
type. launched his first successful ‘Satyagraha’ in
(a) Chauri-Chaura (b) Dandi
177. Assertion : Tendons are very tough and (c) Bardoli (d) Champaran.
inelastic.
187. The Kaziranga wild life sanctuary is located at
Reason : Tendons join the muscles to the bone.
(a) Assam (b) Odisha
178. Assertion : Cockroach is unisexual and show (c) West Bengal (d) Gujarat.
sexual dimorphism.
188. Match List-1 (Books) with List II (Authors)
Reason : Male cockroach has only anal cerci and select the correct answer using the codes
while female cockroach has anal styles as well. given below the Lists :
179. Assertion : Cell theory states that new cells are List I List II
formed by division of pre-existing cell. A. My music, My life 1. Khushwant Singh
Reason : Cell theory is not satifactory B. Adha Gaon 2. Rahi Massom Raza
biological concept even today. C. Eternal India 3. Indira Gandhi
180. Assertion : When plant cells are placed in D. We Indians 4. Ravi Shankar
highly concentrated sugar or salt solution, they (a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
get plasmolysed. (c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Reason : Highly concentrated sugar or salt 189. Hiroshima day in Japan is remembered on
solution acts as hypotonic solution which leads (a) August 6 (b) August 16
to exosmosis. (c) October 7 (d) August 13.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND 190. Which of the following is not a computer
APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING language?
(a) BASIC (b) JAVA
181. Which of the following is not a Fundamental (c) SUMATRA (d) FORTRAN
Right?
(a) Right to equality (b) Right to property 191. Three figures (X), (Y), (Z) shows a sequence
(c) Right against exploitation of folding of a sheet of paper. Out of them,
(d) Right to freedom of speech and expression fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded
paper has been cut. Select a figure from the
182. Precursor of which one of the following
options which would most closely resemble
vitamins comes from b-carotene?
the unfolded form of fig. (Z).
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K
183. ‘Vande Mataram’ was taken from
(a) Raja tarangini (b) Anandamath
(c) Akbarnama (d) Adhyatma. X Y Z
108 AIIMS EXPLORER

there. From there, he went 100 metres to his

(a) (b) north before meeting his father in a street.
How far did the son meet his father from
starting point?
(a) 80 m (b) 100 m (c) 140 m (d) 260 m
197. In the given Venn diagram, big triangle
(c) (d)
represents artists, small triangle represents
scientists, square represents dancers and circle
192. Arrange the following in a meaningful represents doctors.
sequence. 1. Study 2. Job 3. Examination A
4. Earn 5. Apply D L H B
C

F G
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(c) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
193. Find the missing number from the options, if Which letter represents the artists who are
the same rule is applied in all the three figures. neither doctors nor scientists nor dancers?
(a) A (b) D (c) F (d) G
2 4 3
198. A train X starts from Meerut at 5 p.m. and
1 13 3 1 ? 5 1 17 5
reaches Ghaziabad at 9 p.m. while another
5 6 4 train Y starts from Ghaziabad at 7 p.m. and
(a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 29 reaches Meerut at 10.30 p.m. The two trains
will cross each other at
194. Select a figure from the options which will (a) 7.36 p.m. (b) 7.42 p.m.
continue the given series established by the (c) 7.48 p.m. (d) 7.56 p.m.
Problem Figures.
199. Select a figure from the options which will
Problem Figures
complete the pattern in Fig. (X).

?
A B C D E
(a) (b)

Fig. (X)

(c) (d) (a) (b)

195. Find the odd one out.

(a) Tortoise (b) Snail (c) (d)
(c) Turtle (d) Spider
196. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 200. A woman introduces a man as the son of the
metres in the east before turning to his right. brother of her mother. How is the man related
He went 20 metres before turning to his right to the woman?
again to look for his father at his uncle’s place (a) Son (b) Cousin
30 metres from this point. His father was not (c) Father (d) Husband