JOINT SERIES 1

ALL SUBJECTS
KABARAK-SACHO-SUNSHINE JOINT MOCKS

Annual Joint Mock Trial contest within the clustered pool of National Schools
within the Republic of Kenya.All the Best to our KCSE 2024 Candidates.

SUBJECTS TESTED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography,
History, Home-science, Agriculture, Business & Computer Studies.

SERIES 1

For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000

MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
313/1 Christian Religious Education Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your Name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.
e) Each question carries 20 marks.
f) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

Candidates Score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided

1. a) State the benefits of learning Christian Religious education in secondary schools. (8 marks)

b) Explain the differences between Biblical causes of sin and Traditional African understanding

of evil. (7 marks)

c) Identify Ways in w h ich the Bible is misused in Kenya today. (5 marks)

2. a) Explain seven characteristics of the covenant between God and Abraham. (7 marks)

b) Outline the activities carried out by the Israelites on the night of the Passover. (6 marks)

c) What do Christians learn about the nature of God from the Exodus? (7 marks)

3. a) Explain four factors that led to the spread of idolatry in Israel during the time of Elijah.

(8 marks)

b) How did God manifest his power during Prophet Elijah’s ministry? (6 marks)

c) Give six reasons why Christians build churches. (6 marks)

4. a) Explain the role of prophets in the Old Testament. (7 marks)

b) Identify the social injustices condemned by prophet Amos in Israel. (7 marks)

c) How is the church promoting justice in the society today? (6 marks)

5. a) What did the Jews promise before Ezra the priest during the renewal of the covenant?

(7 marks)

b) Identify final reforms carried out by Nehemiah to restore worship of God in Judah. (6 marks)

c) Identify seven ways in which Christians observe the day of worship. (7 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6. a) Explain the roles performed by ancestors in traditional African communities. (8 marks)

b) Outline six requirements for a sacrifice to be offered. (6 marks)

c) Give three changes that have taken place in the traditional African understanding of property.

(6 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
313/2 Christian Religious Education Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your Name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.
e) Each question carries 20 marks.
f) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

Candidates Score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided

1. a) Outline Isaiah’s prophecy about the messiah on the suffering servant in Isaiah 53. (8mks)

b) Describe the message of angel Gabriel to Mary according to Luke 1:26-38 (6mks)

c) Outline six lessons on family relationships drawn from the incident when Jesus accompanied

his parents to the temple at the age of twelve. (6mks)

2. a) With reference to Luke 5:17-26, describe the healing of the paralytic man. (8mks)

b) State seven teachings of Jesus on true discipleship from the sermon on the plain. (7mks)

c) Give reasons why modern Christians should accept to suffer in Christ’s name. (5mks)

3.a) Describe the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman in Luke 7:36-50. (8mks)

b) Give six reasons why Jesus chose the twelve Disciples. (6mks)

c) Identify six ways in which Christians prepare themselves for the coming of God’s kingdom.

(6 mks)

4.a) Describe the New Testament teachings on unity of believers based on the image of the bride.

(8 mks)

b) How was the life of Peter transformed on the day of Pentecost? (6mks)

c) Outline Saint Paul’s teaching on how the gifts of the Holy Spirit should be used in the church

(6mks)

5.a) Explain the traditional African understanding of marriage. (7mks)

b) List six forms of abuse that children go through in child labour. (6mks)

c) Give seven criteria that Christians use to evaluate the use of leisure. (7mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6.a) Identify eight reasons why people engage in corrupt practices in Kenya today. (8mks)

b) In which ways are people punished in Kenya for causing social disorders? (6mks)

c) How can Christians today help to improve the Environment? (6mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
311/1 History and Government Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
i Write your Name, Admission number and stream.
ii Answer ALL questions in the answer sheets provided.
iii Answer ALL questions in section A, Three questions in the section B and Two questions in section
C.
iv Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION A B C TOTAL
1--17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (25 marks)
Answer all questions from this section.
1) Name the original inhabitants of Kenya during the colonial period. (1mark)
2) Identify one pre-historic site in Kenya where remains of Ramapithecus were found (1mark)
3) Give two environmental reason for the migration of the Luo community in Kenya (2 marks)
4) Name the two winds that were used by the early visitors to and from the East African
coast up to 1500 AD (2 marks)
5) Identify two social problems facing Nairobi as a modern urban Centre (2 marks)
6) Outline two political responsibilities of a Kenyan citizen (2 marks)
7) Identify any two groups in charge of monitoring the observation of human rights in Kenya.
(2 marks)
8) Give the main significance of the repeal of section 2A of the Kenyan constitution in 1991.
(1mark)
9) Name the treaty that marked the end of partition of East Africa (1mark)
10) State the main recommendation of the Lyttleton constitution of 1954 in Kenya. (1mark)
11) Which education commission in Kenya recommended the establishment of 8-4-4 system?
(1mark)
12) Give the main reason for convening the second Lancaster House Conference (1mark)
13) Who is the Chief Legal advisor of the National Government in Kenya (1mark)
14) Name the two categories of the members of National Assembly (2 marks)
15) What was the immediate cause of the declaration of state of emergency in Kenya on 20 th
October 1952? (1mark)
16) Name two types of land tenure systems/hand holdings in Kenya (2 marks)
17) Identify any two types of revenue funds created by 2010 constitution. (2 marks)

SECTION B (45marks)
Answer any three questions from this section
18) (a) Outline five social results of migration of the Bantu community (5 marks)
(b) Explain the political organization of the Somali community during the pre-colonial period
(10 mrks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
19) Give five sources of information on contact between East African Coast and outside world
(5 marks)
(b) Explain five impacts of Indian Ocean trade on the people of East African Coast
(10 mrks)

20) Outline three roles of the trade union movements in Kenya during the colonial period
(3 marks)
Explain six problems faced by early political parties in Kenya from 1919 – 1939 (12 marks)

21) (a) Identify three demands raised by the African Elected members organization (AEMO) to the
colonial secretary in 1957 (3 marks)
(b) Explain six social results of national philosophies in Kenya (12 mrks)

SECTION C (30marks)
Answer any two questions from this section
22) (a) State three rights of arrested persons (3 marks)
(b) Explain six factors promote national unity in Kenya (12 mrks)

23) (a) Outline three reasons that may lead to a by-election in Kenya (3 marks)
(b) Explain six roles of the National Assembly (12 mrks)

24) (a) State three advantages of Devolution in Kenya (3 marks)

(b) Explain six sources of revenue for county governments in Kenya. (12 mrks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
311/2 History and Government Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
i Write your Name, Admission number and stream.
ii Answer ALL questions in the answer sheets provided.
iii Answer ALL questions in section A, Three questions in the section B and Two questions in
section C.
iv Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION A B C TOTAL
1--17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (25 marks)
Answer all questions from this section.
1) Identify one unwritten source of information in History and Government. (1 mark)
2) Give two uses of stone tools by early people. (2 marks)
3) What planting method was used by European farmers before the agrarian revolution?
(1 mark)
4) What is the MAIN factor that stimulated the development of Trans-Atlantic trade? (1 mark)
5) State two reasons why the camel is referred to as ‘the ship of the desert’. (2 marks)
6) Identify two forms of messages that could be relayed by the use of drum beats in Ancient
times. (2 marks)
7) Mention one disadvantage of using coal as a source of energy. (1 marks)
8) Identify two metals that were used to replace stone tools in Africa. (2 marks)
9) State one problem which faced Athens. (1 mark)
10) State one way through which the Europeans maintained peace among themselves during the
partition of Africa. (1 mark)
11) Give two social reasons for the European scramble for Africa. (2 marks)
12) State two conditions that one had to fulfill to become assimilated to French West Africa.
(2 marks)
13) Give the main reason for the formation of the League of Nations. (1 mark)
14) Identify one member of the central powers that fought during the First World War. (1mark)
15) State the main function of the International court of Justice. (1 mark)
16) Name two founder leaders of Non-Aligned movement (NAM). (2 marks)
17) State two reasons why Zanzibar favoured a union with the mainland Tanganyika in 1964.
(2 marks)
SECTION B (45 MARKS)
Answer any THREE questions from this section.
18) (a)Outline three physical characteristics of Egyptian ape. (3 marks)
(b)Describe the culture of the early man during the Old Stone Age. (12 mrks)

19) (a)Give three features of agricultural practices in Britain before Agrarian revolution.(3 marks)
(b)Explain six measures that can be adopted to alleviate the food shortage in Africa.(12 mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
20) (a)State 3 economic activities of the Asante during the 19th century. (3 marks)
(b)Describe the social organization of the shona during the colonial period. (12 mrks)

21) (a)Give three reasons why the Maji Maji rebellion failed. (3 marks)

(b)Explain six reforms introduced by German administration after the Maji Maji rebellion.
(12 mrks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions from this section.
22) (a)State five reasons why Britain used indirect rule in Nigeria. (5 marks)
(b)Discuss five effects of indirect rule in Nigeria. (10 mrks)

23) (a)Give three political changes introduced by Mobutu Seseko which led to dictatorship in
D.R.C (3 marks)
b) Describe six social challenges that have faced Tanzania since independence. (12mrks)

24) (a)State five functions of the British House of Commons. (5 marks)

(b)Explain five factors that limit parliamentary supremacy in Britain. (10 mrks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
312/1 Geography Paper 1
Time: 2¾ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
(a) Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A.
(e) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from Section B.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. (a) Apart from the Sun and the planets, give two other heavenly bodies found in the solar
system. (2 marks)
(b) State three characteristics of the earth’s crust. (3 marks)
2. (a) Define the term weather. (2 marks)
(b) List two types of rainfall common in Kenya. (2 marks)
3. (a)Name two parts of Africa that experience equatorial climate. (2 marks)
(b)List three major climatic regions of Kenya. (3 marks)
4. (a) Give two categories of lakes formed due to earth movements. (2 mark
(b) State three conditions necessary for the formation of ox-bow lakes. (3 marks)
5. The diagram below shows an extrusive volcanic feature.

(a) Identify the parts marked E, F and G. (3 marks)

(b)Outline three ways in which a caldera may be formed. (3 marks)

SECTION B
(Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section)
6. Study the map of Kisumu East (1:50,000 sheet 116/2) provided and use it to answer the
following questions.
(a) (i)What is the four figure grid reference of the point where road B 2/1 reaches along the
western margin of the map extract? (2 marks)
Measure the length of Kisumu Municipality boundary. Give your answer in kilometres.
(2 marks)
(b) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (5 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(c) Citing evidence from the map, give three social services offered at Kisumu Town. (6 marks)
(i) Using a vertical scale of 1cm to represent 100m, draw an accurate cross section alongeasting 05
from northing 99 to northing 92. (4 marks)
(ii) On the cross section, mark and name:
A steep slope
A boundary
Road C 543/1
A railway line. (4 marks)
(iii) Calculate the vertical exaggeration of the cross section. (2 marks)

7. (a)(i)Define the term folding. (2 mark

(b) (i)Name five types of folds. (5 marks)
With the aid of well labelled diagrams, describe how Fold Mountains were formed. (10 marks)
(c) Explain four economic importance Fold Mountains to people. (8 marks)

8. (a)(i)Define the term earthquake. (2 marks)

(ii) The diagram below shows the occurrence of an earthquake. Name the parts marked A, B, and
C. (3 marks)

(b)(i)Apart from the movement of tectonic plates, outline four other natural causes of
earthquakes. (4 marks)
(ii) Explain two ways in which movement of tectonic plates causes earthquakes. (4 marks)
(c)State three differences between the intensity and magnitude of an earthquake. (6 marks)
(d)Explain three effects of earthquakes in built up areas. (6 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
9. (a)(i)What is a river? (2 marks)
(ii)List three types of river erosion. (3 marks)
(b)Explain four ways through which a gorge may be formed. (8 marks)
(c)Explain the following drainage systems.
(i) Accordant drainage. (2 marks)
(iii)Back tilted drainage. (2 marks)
(d)Suppose you were to carry out a field study along the lower course of a major river.
(i) State five reasons why it is important to conduct a pre-visit to the area of study. (5 marks)
(ii)State three follow –up activities that you would do after the study. (3 marks)

10. The diagram below shows some features that form ocean topography.

(a) (i) Identify the features marked X, Y and Z. (3 marks)

(ii) State three sources of salt in ocean water. (3 marks)
(b) Explain how the following factors influence the rate of wave erosion:
(i) Gradient of the coast. (2 marks)
(ii) Nature of coastal rocks. (2 marks)
Size of waves. (2 marks)
(c) Describe how a cave is formed at the coast. (5 marks)
(d) Explain four economic importance of coastal features. (8 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
312/1 Geography Paper 2
Time: 2¾ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
(a) Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A.
(e) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from Section B.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A;Answer all the questions in this section.
1. (a)List the two types of environment. (2 marks)
(b)Explain how Geography is related to economics. (2 marks)
2. (a)Name two main indigenous breeds of beef cattle reared in Kenya. (2 marks)
(b)State three ways in which government policy influences agriculture in Kenya. (3 marks)
3. The diagram below some national parks in East Africa. Name the parks marked A, B, C and D.
(4 marks)

4. (a)Give two main projects through which land was reclaimed in the Netherlands. (2 marks)
(b)State four benefits that resulted in the reclamation of the Yala swamp in Kenya. (4 marks)
5. (a)State three physical factors favouring coffee farming in Brazil. (3 marks)
(b)Give three similarities between coffee farming in Kenya and in Brazil. (3 marks)

SECTION B
6. Study the photograph below and use it to answer the following questions.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(a) (i) Identify the type of photograph provided. (1 mark)
(ii) Give two reasons for your answer in (a)(i) above. (2 marks)
(iii) Identify the main activity shown on the photograph. (1 mark)
(b)(i)Draw a rectangle 15 cm by 10 cm to represent the area covered by the photograph. (1 mark)
(ii) On the rectangle, sketch and label five human made features. (5 marks)
(c)(i)State five reasons why river transport is poorly developed in Africa. (5 marks)
(ii)Explain five measures taken to solve transport and communication problems in
Africa. (10 mrks)

7. (a)(i)Define the term mining. (1 mark)

(ii)Give four factors that the occurrence of minerals. (4 marks)
(b) Explain three ways in which mining activities cause pollution. (6 marks)
(c) Describe the stages involved in gold processing in South Africa (6 marks)
(d) Explain four problems facing the gold mining industry in South Africa (8 marks)

8. (a)What is unfavourable balance of payments? (2 marks)

(b)Name three major imports to Kenya from the Far East Asia. (3 marks)
(c)Explain four benefits of international trade to Kenya. (8 marks)
(d)(i)State four objectives of ECOWAS. (4 marks)
(ii)Explain four problems facing regional trading blocs in Africa. (8 marks)

9. (a)(i)What is a Census? (2 marks)

(ii) State four reasons why a census is important to Kenya (4 marks)
(b) Explain four positive effects of high population growth to a country. (8 marks)
(c) Explain three causes of a reduced fertility rate in Kenya (6 marks)
(d) State five differences between Kenya’s population and that of Sweden. (5 marks)

10. (a)(i)Define the term urbanization. (2 marks)

(ii)List the three functional zones of an ideal urban centre. (3 marks)
(b)Explain four physical factors that influence settlement. (8 marks)
(c)Explain four factors that have led to the growth of Rotterdam as a large port. (8 marks)
(d)State four similarities in the functions of Nairobi and New York cities. (4 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
101/1 English Paper 1
(Functional Skills, Cloze Test and Oral Skills)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
b) Answer all questions in this question paper.
c) All your answers should be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
d) Contains six printed pages.
e) All answers should be written in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 20
2 10
3 30
Total 60

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)
1. Since last year third term, your class form 4 Green’s academic performance has been drastically
going down. This has raised a lot of worries in the entire school, and it was one of the issues
that came up during the release of the first examinations results of this term. After that meeting,
the School Principal summoned you as the Class Prefect to his office and requested you to lead
a class committee to find out the reasons for such a performance. Write a report that you would
present to him in two weeks’ time underlining the causes for this performance by your class
and the recommendations that you suggested. (20 marks)
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CLOZE TEST (10 MARKS)
Read the passage below and fill each blank space with an appropriate word
The National Health Insurance 1……………………once again in the eye of 2.................storm
after it paid Kshs 336.3 million to a law 3… ..................... that had not been prequalified to bid
4…………………..tenders with health providers in the 5….......... scandal unearthed by Auditor-
General, Nancy Gathungu. Curiously, the drafting fully paid for by the 6…............was not part of
the NHIF approved 7… ....................plan for 2018/2019- the period within
8………………………..the payment was done. This is 9…....................... to the Public
Procurement and Assets Disposal Act 2015. No money had been 10… ............... to pay for legal
service and therefore, it went against Public Finance Management (PFM) Act.

ORAL SKILLS (30 MARKS)

a) Read the narrative below and answer the questions that follow
One afternoon, a big wolf waited in the dark forest for a little girl to come along carrying a basket
of food. Finally, the little girl did come along and she was carrying the basket of food. “Are you
carrying the basket to your grandmother?” asked the wolf. The little girl answered, “Yes I am.”
So the wolf asked the girl where her grandmother lived. When the girl told him he disappeared
to the woods. When the little girl opened the door of her grandmother’s house, she noticed there
was somebody in bed with a night cap and a night gown.
She realized that it was the wolf, so the little girl took a dagger from her basket and stubbed the
wolfdead.

Questions:
If you were narrating this story, how would you ensure your audience remains glued to it?
(2 marks)
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
ii) How would you say the words of the wolf in your narration? (2 marks)
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iii.)How would you prepare yourself to tell the story effectively? (3 marks)
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b.) Provide a word pronounced in the same way as each of the ones below (4 marks)
Bald –

Manna –

Colonel –

iv.)Liar –

c.)Insert the following words in the corresponding column to show whether it has a /θ/ /ʃ/ /Ʒ/
or /ð/ sound according to the underlined sound. Examples of words with those sounds have
been given. (4 marks)
Tenth, Sugar, Special, Father, Garage, Mathematics, Leisure, Themselves

/θ/ path /ʃ/ shirt /Ʒ/ pleasure /ð/ that

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d.)A leader of a Theatre Group is visiting your school to arrange for the staging of Literature Sets
Books. You have been appointed by the class to negotiate for favorable entry fee for your class
and you are meeting the leader for the first time. Explain 4 negotiation skills that you would
employ to ensure successful negotiations. (4 marks)
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e) Mary cannot bear children

Identify the above genre. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Give the two possible meanings of the above (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Give one function of the above genre. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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f.) Study the following situations and write down what you would say in each case.(3 marks)

i) When walking along the corridor, you accidentally bump into somebody out of your own
clumsiness.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii.)You are engaging in a conversation and you catch yourself interrupting the other person
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

You want to introduce a point during a discussion which contradicts what the other person has said.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Indicate the appropriate intonation at the end of each sentence. (4 marks)

Have all the students been registered? …………………………………...
Stop wasting time. …………………………………….
That was superb! …………………………………….
There is hope for Cancer patients. …..…………………………………

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
101/2 English Paper 2
(Comprehensive, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to students
a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
c) Answer all questions in the spaces provided
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.

Question Maximum Student’s Examiner’s

Score Score Initials
COMPREHENSION 20
EXCERPT 25
ORAL 20
LITERATURE
GRAMMAR 15
TOTAL 80

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QUESTION 1: COMPREHENSION
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (20marks)
The career market is full of opportunities. Gone are the days when we had ‘either … or’ career
choices. The times when women, for example, chose between only nursing, teaching and
secretarial work are long gone. The explosion in communication technology, and the liberalization
and globalizations of the world economy, has ensured that there is no longer a dearth of career
choice. Today, colleges and universities offer a wide range of training opportunities to high school
graduates. This has made choosing a career an involving process. It has also given rise to the need
for career counseling.
When choosing a career, whether you have the help of a career counselor or not, there are several
factors that you should consider. These include your abilities or talents, your interests, your
priorities, and the available opportunities in the job market.
The skills required in a particular career and the ability to gain them though education must be
considered when choosing careers. Becoming a doctor, for instance, requires extensive education
and training, and many years of educational commitment. In addition to the compulsory subjects,
the academic background required for this career is good grades in chemistry and biology at
secondary school level. If your ability in these subjects is just average, you would be
overstretching your luck to enroll for a Bachelor of Medicine course. In the past, students have
chosen to pursue training in engineering, even when their ability to handle physics and
mathematics was low. This, in many cases, has made them drop out of the class mid-course. The
waste of time and resources would have been avoided if they had considered a career that did not
require the ability to handle mathematics and physics well.
There are times when people have been driven to choose a particular career because of the salary
and prestige associated with jobs in that field. At times, the desire to take certain courses comes
from within the individual, but most times, individuals feel pressured by peers or family to take
certain courses. Joining a career in which you have no interest is a recipe for a dull life since you
will spend most of your working hours doing something you do not like. Your career does not
necessarily have to be your passion, but it should not bore you to death either. You can work out
your interests by identifying the subjects you enjoy most at school, or the topics that are of interest
to you and for which you take the initiative to read on your own.
It is true that many young people are attracted more by the social mobility that the job might provide
than by their interest in the career. However, research has found that money does not play as big
a role in job satisfaction as many people think. Of course we all have to make a living, but if you
do not like your job, it does not matter how much you get paid to do it. What does matter is how
well a career choice matches your values. If you value variety, collaboration and creativity, for
example, you would not find job satisfaction in a career where you are working alone and doing
the same thing every day.
The availability of jobs in a particular field should also be a factor in choosing a career. This should
be considered alongside the skills and education sought in a given field. Most times, highly

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 competitive fields require more education but may not pay well. When there are many applicants
for a particular position, unique personality traits become added benefit. However, in fields where
there are fewer applicants than the positions available, the pay may be more and the job may
require less education.
Nevertheless, one should not be discouraged by the scarcity of employment positions because
institutions of higher learning now emphasize that they are not simply training people to get out
and look for jobs. They are training people to get out and create jobs.
Therefore, the availability of job opportunities is not necessarily limited to the presence of
employers. It also encompasses opportunities for self-employment which everyone is free to
explore.

QUESTIONS
What has created the necessity for career counseling? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Why do you think the writer cites engineering in the passage? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

What do you think should be the most important factor in choosing a career? Give reason for your
answer. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

What evidence is given in support of the statement “Money does not play a big a role in job
satisfaction”? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Why is one’s ability an important factor in career choices? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Identify the tone used by the writer in the passage. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

a) The career market is full of many opportunities. (Begin: There … ) (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Your career does not necessarily have to be your passion. (Re-write adding a question tag)
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Make notes on factors to consider when choosing a career. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (3 marks)
Dearth …………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Social mobility ………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Collaboration …………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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QUESTION 2: EXCERPT
Read the following excerpt and answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)
‘Yes, I did,’ he answered.
‘Then you saw the letter from AGDA, didn’t you? I will return to it shortly. First tell me this: what
other items did you see in your brief case?’ ‘I saw a copy of way Omega, the development
strategy that Nobel laureates have crafted to end Africa’s misery, and that Africa heads of state
are now expected to adapt at their summit. ‘Go on.’

‘I also saw a copy of Path Alpha, the development strategy that AGDA believes is a superior
alternative to Way Omega, and that it hopes to slip in to replace Way Omega. ‘Good. AGDA
wants you to be fully familiar with both of those documents. Continue.’

‘I also saw some leaflets, pamphlets and brochures from AGDA.’ ‘Skip those. What else?’

‘Well, I then saw this mobile phone which I am using right now.’ ‘Excellent. Keep that mobile
phone on at all times, day and night, rain or shine. From now on, I will be calling you often,
even unexpectedly, but only hotel phone, it is completely secure, which means I can talk to you
on it freely.

‘So, you will tell me your real name now?’ Pastor Chiamaka asked. ‘My real name, my real name-
why?’ Shouted the caller, angry all of a sudden. ‘Well, ‘why?’ Pastor Chaimaka shouted back,
also angrily, answering fire with fire. ‘If I don’t have your real name, how can I even begin to
ask for you were a need to do so arise?’

‘Were a need to do so arise, I would contact you, ‘’the caller told him. ‘Ah, you can contact me,
but I can’t contact you? What is the matter? Are you afraid I might surpurise you?
‘Shut your mouth!’ Snapped the caller.
‘What did you say?’ Pastor Chiamaka asked.

(Extracted for Examination Purposes)

QUESTIONS.
1. Say what happens immediately before this excerpt. (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 2. What are the character traits of Pastor Chiamaka as brought out in this excerpt? (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Identify and illustrate two stylistic techniques used in this excerpt. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. ‘Shut your mouth!’ Snapped the caller. Change into indirect speech. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. You will tell me your real name now. Add a question tag. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Discuss any two social concerns that are brought out in this excerpt. (4mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. From elsewhere in the text. Discuss how Chamaka critiques the government of the day.
(2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 8. What is Chamaka’s Attitude towards the guide? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the excerpt. (5mks)
i. Familiar

ii. Misery

iii. Laureates

iv. Pamphlets

v. Brochures

QUESTION 3: ORAL LITERATURE

Read the following oral narrative and then answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
Wanjiru was the most beautiful girl in all hills. She had milk-white teeth which made the men stop
and look whenever Wanjiru and other girls of the hills were teasing each other about their new
friends. Many young men came to ask Wanjiru hand in marriage but Wanjiru would not accept
any ugly man. She said that all these young men were not handsome enough for her.
One day a young man came to court Wanjiru. He was very handsome indeed. And when Wanjiru
heard that he had come to ask for her hand in marriage, she loved him and was only too ready to
accept him. Her parents had no objection because they also admired this handsome young man.
But nobody knew that this handsome young man was an ogre in disguise.
Marriage preparations went ahead. The young man brought the dowry and was given Wanjiru to
take to his home. He looked very happy to have such a beautiful bride. Nobody escorted them
because the young man said that it was not necessary. He did not want his identity to be
discovered. They were soon home and Wanjiru was happy to see so many people around. But on
a second look she found that these were not people but ogres. This made her very worried and
wondered what her fate would be. Now when she was told to go inside the hut that had been
prepared for her, she refused, saying that she would sit outside near the entrance because that is
where brides were supposed to sit in her part of the country. Her husband gave her a stool and told
her she would sit where she pleased. “I shall surely be in great trouble unless I think quickly, for
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 these ogres will certainly want to eat me,” she thought as she became more worried. All the young
people she refused to marry came to her mind. “It will be a great shame when they learn that I
married an ogre for his beauty”. They would laugh and say that she could even marry a hyena if
he was handsome enough. There was no time to lose. She had to get away from the ogre’s home.
She stood and took the same path that they followed from her home. And when her husband saw
that she was going away, he followed singing.
Thecethecethecethece!
Where do you go now?
Thecethecethecethece!
Wanjiru come back
Not today but tomorrow I shall eat you.
Wanjiru sang loud and long
People of the nine hills
Who sold me to an ogre?
An ogre that will eat me
And my own father
You sold me to an ogre
An ogre that will eat me,
Listen to the ogre sing!
The ogre sang and the girl sang again. For a long time the two sang and sang until Wanjiru saw the
ogre was very near. She climbed to the top of the tallest tree near her path. And when the Ogre
saw that he could not get hold of the girl, he stood at the foot of the tree and continued with this
song. Wanjiru sang even more feverishly. Soon however, her brother heard and recognized
Wanjiru’s voice. It was then he came and pierced through the back of the ogre until he was dead.
Then he said to his sister. “Come down. Let us go home.”

He was very angry, for they had sold Wanjiru in his absence. To be duped by an ogre into giving
away Wanjiru was unforgivable. He scolded his father, “How could you and your people sell
Wanjiru in my absence? I swear by my mother’s clothes that neither myself nor anybody else will
ever sell Wanjiru again. “Only you son who will have the authority of selling your sister again”,
the father responded. And so it was like that when the time for selling Wanjiru came. The tale
ends there.

QUESTIONS
Identify and illustrate any two features of oral narratives evident in the above narrative. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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What made men stop and look at Wanjiru and why wouldn’t she accept any of them? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

From the first paragraph, how would you describe the character of Wanjiru? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Many young men came to ask Wanjiru’s hand in marriage but Wanjiru would not accept any ugly
man. (Rewrite this sentence in the passive). (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Give a proverb that summarizes the moral lesson learnt from this narrative. (1 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

What are the functions of the song in this narrative? (2 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Give a social activity of people from which this narrative is derived. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

‘I swear by my mother’s clothes that neither myself nor anybody else will ever sell Wanjiru again’
(Underline the indefinite pronoun in the sentence above) (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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What is Wanjiru’s attitude towards men? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the narrative. (2 marks)
Court
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Feverishly
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

To which audience is this narrative best suited and why? (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

QUESTION 4: GRAMMAR
Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given. Do not change the
meaning. (3 marks)
They were so exhausted that they could not stay awake. (Rewrite using “too”)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
It is bad manners to smoke in a crowded place. (Rewrite using a gerund)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

“How much money do you owe me?” demanded the creditor from the debtor. (Rewrite in the
passive voice)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Complete the following sentences with a phrasal verb starting with the word in brackets.
(3 marks)
The teacher ……………….. the errant student. (tell)
Please ……………….. that all the chairs are in good condition. (see)
She looked carefully at the document but couldn’t ……………….. what it meant. (make)

Fill in the blank spaces using the correct form of the word in brackets. (3 marks)
The criminal’s ……………….. behavior in court angered the judge. (scandal)
The students ……………….. assistance from the police after the attack. (seek)
The ……………….. of the staff has been a matter of concern. (sober)

Insert the most appropriate prepositions in the blank space. (3 marks)

Traffic was moving ……………….. a snail’s pace.
Please refrain ……………….. smoking in the auditorium.
Some people are keen ……………….. working in a team.

Supply the appropriate question tags in the blank spaces. (3 marks)

We needn’t worry about tomorrow, …………………...?
Let me have a taste, ……………………..?
They’ll come early in the morning, …………………..?

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
101/3 English Paper 3
(Creative writing and Essays from the Set Texts)
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
c) Answer all questions in the spaces provided in blue ink.
d) All your questions must written in spaces provided in this paper
e) Students must answer all questions in English
For examiner’s use only
Question Maximum Student’s Examiner’s
Score Score initials
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total 60

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Creative composition (20 marks)
Write a composition beginning:
It seemed like a very ordinary day. In fact, I assumed it would be uneventful. But how wrong I
was…
Or
Write a story to illustrate the saying:
Every cloud has a silver lining.

The compulsory Set Text (20 marks)

John Lara: The Samaritan
Those that band together just out of self-interest will inevitably fail. Making reference to John
Lara's The Samaritan, write an essay to support this statement.

Optional Set Texts (20 marks)

Answer any one of the following three questions.
Either
(a) The Short Story
Godwin Shiundu (Ed): A Silent Song and other Stories
Drawing illustrations from Leonard Kaberia’s A Silent Song prove that our actions have more
impact than what we say.
Or
(b) Drama
Adipo Sidang: Parliament of Owls
Poor choices have a negative impact on our life. How accurate is this assertion, given that it makes
reference to Adipo sidang's play Parliament of Owls?
Or
(c) The novel
Kazuo Ishiguro: An Artist of the Floating World
With illustrations from An Artist of the Floating World, show why Ono is so upset by his
grandson’s pretend games and how this proves that there is a generational gap.

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
102/1

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 1
INSHA
MUDA: SAA 1¾

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
c) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya tatu zilizobakia.
d) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400
e) Kila insha ina alama 20
f) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
20
Jumla 40

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 MASWALI

1. Rafiki yako anayesomea katika shule jirani amefukuzwa shule kwa sababu ya ukosefu wa

nidhamu.Mwandikie barua ukimshauri kuhusu umuhimu wa kuwa na nidhamu shuleni.

2.Teknolojia ya kisasa ina faida na madhara kwa vijana wetu.Jadili.

3.Andika kisa kitakachoonyesha ukweli wa methali : Asiyesikia la mkuu huvunjika guu.

4.Andika insha itakayoishia kwa:

…Ilinichukua muda mrefu kuyaamini niliyoyaona.

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
102/2

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 2
LUGHA
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

Maagizo
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali yote.
d) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
e) Usitoe ukurasa wowote kutoka kwenye kijitabu hiki.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
Jumla 80

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UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Shule Yangu Ya Upili
Majio yangu katika shule hii ya upili hayakutokea kwa bahati nasibu bali kwa mipango kabambe
niliyoianza tangu nikiwa shule ya vichekechea.Nikiwa sitetereki hata kwa wazazi wangu
waliponisihi nijiunge na shule nyingine za karibu nikawa sisikii la mwadhini wala la mteka maji
msikitini.Nikawa na ragba ya mkanja nikingoja siku ya kujiunga na shule yenyewe.Kweli majuto
ni mjukuu na huja kinyume.
Nilizaliwa katika aila yenye nafasi iliyotopea na kubobea katika ukwasi uliodhihirika kutokana na
mitaa tulikoselelea kwa muda kabla ya baba kuaamua kununua nyumba yake mwenyewe huko
upande wa Karen hivyo tukagura kutoka Lunda.Wakatiwa likizo tukawa tunaruka hadi pwani
ambako mama yangu alikuwa amemiliki jumba lililokuwa katika ufuo wa bahari lililojengwa
katika kipande kisichopungua ekari tatu alilotunukiwa wakati wa nikahi yao na wakwe wa baba
yangu.
Wavyele wangu wakawa wanaendesha magari meusi ya kifahari ingawa sikuwahi kumwona mama
akichangamka kuendesha magari yake ya maana,kila macheo ya siku za kazi gari lililoendeshwa
na dereva ambaye alimstahi mama hadi akawa anamfungulia mlango wa gari na kuufunga baada
ya mama kujitoma katika tumbo la gari lilimjia na kumrejesha kwa wakati.Nikajiunga na shule
ya msingi ya kibinafsi ambako nilishughulikiwa kama kikembe.Wengi wa wale tuliosoma nao
walikuwa wa tabaka langu na walikuwa wametoka katika kila sehemu nchini Kenya.
Hayawi hayawi huwa na siku ya kuripoti ikafika.Alfajiri,dereva mmoja akatumwa kwenda hadi
Kisumu ili atulaki na kutusafirisha kutoka uwanja wa ndege hadi shule ya upili ambayo ilikuwa
yangu ya rohoni.Nasi tukaelekea hadi uwanja wa ndege ili turuke hadi Kisumu.Safari yetu kutoka
kitongoji cha kifahari hadi Airport ilikuwa njema,safari yetu tulipoabiri ndege ilikuwa bila
bughudha,safari yetu kutoka Kisumu mjini haikuwa na kasoro na tulienda kulingana na
mpango.Safari yetu ilikuwa mufti hadi tulipofika katika lango la shule ya kitaifa!Tulipotia ozi
tu!!....jamani......jamani nikafa moyo.Labda mama aliweza kubaini mabadiliko ya hisia
zangu,nilitamauka, nikawa mchege na kusema kweli niliyoyaona sikuamini.Mvua iliyokuwa
imepasua hapo awali ilikuwa imeacha vitua vya maji kwenye vijia vya kutembea vilivyochakaa
na kubomoka bila yeyote kuja kuvikarabati.Majengo yalikuwa makongwe yaliyojengwa miaka
mia moja iliyopitana yalistahili kuitwa makavazi badala ya pahali pa kumkaribishia mwanafunzi
aliyepita kwa alama mia nne na thelathini na tano.Asiye na wake ana Mungu,nikapiga moyo
konde lazima nisajiliwe katika shule ya ndoto yangu.Ningewezaje kughairi wazo langu baada ya
siku hizo zote za maandalizi tena mbele ya wanuna walioniona kama kielelezo chao tangu
walipozaliwa.Nikasajiliwa!
Sikujua shule ya upili ya kitaifa yaweza kuwa hivi.Kweli mwanafunzi aweza kukosa viatu na
hatakushindwa kununua rangi ya kupaka viatu hivyo iwapo amenunuliwa na
wahisani?Nilimlaumu nina maana hakunieleza kuwa mtu anaweza kula chakula ambacho mbwa
wetu hawezi hata kukiangalia.Nilipoingia katika ukumbi wa chakula nilihisi kitefutefu nusura
nichafukwe na moyo. Makapi ya mboga na uchafu usioelezeka ulinikumba,kisha nikapewa
kisahani cha plastiki na kupakuliwa kipande cha ugali ambacho bado kilikuwa na unga na
kuachiwa hiari ya kukila au kukitupa.Wenzangu wakawa wanakirambatia chakula kwa kasi huku
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 mmoja wao alipoona jinsi nilivyokiangalia changu akanisihi nimpe chote na kukimaliza fyu.Wote
walikuwa na furaha kemkem na kuajabia utukufu wa shule iliyotukuka ya kitaifa ila mimi. Baada
ya mlo‘rojorojo’,tukaelekea darasani nilikopigwa na mghuma mkubwa. Tulikuwa wanafunzi
hamsini na watano katika darasa moja tu! Mwalimu mmoja akaja na kutukaribisha shuleni kisha
akatuarifu kuwa atakuwa mwalimu wa darasa letu.Nilipomsikia akinena nusura niishiwe na
stahamala,kimombo chake kilinishangaza,hasa matamshi yake yalipungukiwa na kudhihirisha
athari za lugha ya asili.Nilihisi kana kwamba ningemrekebisha lakini sikudhubutu.
Tukafululiza hadi bweni na nikajilaza kitandani chembamba huku mwingine nisiyemjua lakini
asiyejua kuwa kuna nguo maalum za kulala akalala uchi katika ghorofa ya juu ya kitanda
chetu.Mgeni njoo mwenyeji apone maana baada ya muda wadudu ambao sikuwahi kuwaona
aushini mwangu wakaanza kunishambulia. Nikaamka baada ya kumnasa mmoja wa wadudu hawa
na kuuliza mmoja wa wenzangu ni wapi wadudu hawa na kwa kutojali hata kidogo,akanieleza
kuwa hawana neno bali ni kunguni tu,Sikujua na kwa kweli mama hakuniambia kuwa kuna
wadudu wanaotafuna mtu na hunuka fye! Sikulala kwa hofu huku wenzangu wakiforota kwa njia
ya kunighasi.Sikuwahi kudhani kuwa watu wengi wanaweza kulala chumba kimoja huku changu
kikiwa na hamamu na vifaa vyote muhimu kikibaki bila mtu! Tulisomeshwa na walimu wasiojali
kana kwamba tunaelewa au la.
Hawakushughulika iwapo tulifanya kazi za ziada aula,ndio,hakujali chochote. Kilichonishangaza ni
kuwa wanafunzi waliojiunga nasi kutoka shule za umma wenye alama duni waliwapenda na
kuelewa haraka walichosomeshwa na hawakujali matamshi yao,labda hawakuyatambua.
Hatimaye tukafanya mtihani wa mwisho wa muhula wa kwanza.Nilishangaa ghaya iliponibainikia
kuwa aliyetuongoza alikuwa ghulamu mmoja mshamba niliyempuuza tu mvulana kutoka kijijini
ambacho singetambua katika ramani ya nchi ambaye hata vitu vya kimsingi vilimpiga
chenga.Nikafanya uchunguzi nikatambua mwenzangu alikuwa na alama mia mbili hamsini na tatu
akitoka katika darasa la nane. Nilifanikiwa kuwa nambari mia mbili hamsini na tatu kwa jumla ya
wanafunzi mia tatu! Tulipofunga kwa likizo ya Pasaka nikaamua kuchukua hatua nyingine:
Sitawahi kuhama kutoka shule hii ya upili wala kuwa zaidi ya nambari kumi!

Maswali
Thibitisha kauli kuwa msimulizi ana msimamo thabiti. (alama2)
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Tofautisha jinsi mwandishi alivyofunzwa katika shule ya kibinafsi na shule ya upili. (alama 2)
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Taja mambo matatu yanayotuonyesha kuwa msimulizi alilelewa katika aila ya kikabaila kulingana
na aya ya pili. (alama3)
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Andika masuala matatu yaliyomshangaza katika shule ya upili. (alama3)

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Andika tamathali mbili zilizotumika katika kifungu. (alama2)

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Eleza maana ya msamiati huu kama ulivyotumika katika kifungu. (alama3)

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SEHEMU B:UFUPISHO (ALAMA15)

Soma kifungu kisha ujibu maswali.
Ripoti za kila mara kuhusu uharibifu wa pesa za umma katika serikali za kaunti ni za
kusikitisha.Kuna mabilioni ya pesa za kulipa ushuru ambazo hufujwa katika serikali kuu,na hivyo
basi wananchi wanakosewa sana wanapoona mtindo huu ukiendelea pia katika serikali za
kaunti.Wakati katiba ilipopitishwa mwaka wa 2010,Wakenya wengi walikuwa na matumaini mno
kwamba ugatuzi ungewatatulia matatizo ambayo walikuwa wakipitia katika tawala
zilizotangulia,hasa katika maeneo yaliyotengwa kimaendeleo.

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Miaka tisa baadaye,kuna mafanikio ambayo yamepatikana ila hatua kubwa zaidi inaweza kupigwa
katika kuboresha maisha ya kila raia kama mianya inayotumiwa kufuja pesa za umma
itazibwa.Wizi huu unaojumuisha pia jinsi magavana wanavyobuni nafasi za kazi zisizo na maana
ambazo wakati mwingi hupeanwa kwa jamaa na marafiki wao,ni sharti ukomeshwe mara moja.
Kuna wananchi wengi ambao tayari wameanza kufa moyo kuhusu umuhimu wa ugatuzi ilhali ukweli
ni kwamba hatungependa kurejelea utawala ulio chini ya serikali kuu pekee.Changamoto za
ugatuzi zinazosababishwa na ulafi wa viongozi wachache zinatoa nafasi kwa wakosoaji wa
mfumo huu wa uongozi kushawishi wananchi na hata wahisani wasishughulike kuchangia katika
maendeleo ya kaunti zao.
Juhudi zozote zile za maendeleo haziwezi kufanikishwa bila ushirikiano kutoka kwa wananchi na
wahisani na hivyo basi ni jukumu la viongozi kuonyesha nia ya kutumia mamlaka waliyopewa
kwa manufaa ya raia.Tume ya maadili na kupambana na ufisadi (EACC) kufikia sasa imeonekana
kufanya kazi nzuri kwa kuwasaka na kuwashtaki magavana walio mamlakani na wengine
walioondoka,kwa kushukiwa kufuja mali za umma.Tungependa asasi zote zinazohusika na
masuala ya kupambana na uhalifu, pamoja na wadau wengine katika jamii wenye nia njema kwa
wananchi wasifumbie macho maovu yanayotendwa katika kaunti zetu.
Nchi hii inatawaliwa kwa misingi ya kisheria na hivyo basi hakuna sababu kumhurumia kiongozi
yeyote anayekiuka sharia anapokuwa mamlakani kwa msingi wa mamlaka aliyoshikilia.Ni kupitia
adhabu kali za kisheria pekee ambapo tutafanikiwa kukomesha uongozi mbaya kwani kama
wananchi watakuwa wakisubiri kuwaadhibu wahusika kwa kuwaondoa mamlakani
pekee,watakuwa wametoa nafasi ya ufujaji kwa viongozi wapya kila miaka mitano.
(Kutoka gazeti la Taifa Leo)

(a)Fupisha ujumbe wa aya tatu za kwanza kwa maneno 80. (alama8,1 yamtiririko)
Matayarisho
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 Jibu
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(b)Fupisha aya mbili za mwisho kwa maneno70. (alama7, 1 ya mtiririko)

Matayarisho
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Jibu
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SEHEMU C: SARUFI NA MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

Andika neno lenye muundo ufuatao; (alama 2)
Kikwamizo sighuna cha mdomo meno,irabu ya mbele juu,nazali ya midomo,kipasuo ghuna cha
midomo na irabu ya nyuma wastani.
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Tunga sentensi kwa kutumia kiwakilishi huru cha nafsi ya tatu umoja. (alama 2)
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Tambulisha vipashio vitatu vya lugha ya kiswahili. (alama 3)

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Tumia neno ‘vibaya’ kama; (alama 2)

Kivumishi
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Kielezi
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Tunga sentensi moja katika wakati ujao hali endelevu. (alama 2)

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Eleza matumizi ya ‘ni’ katika sentensi hii. (alama 2)

Ingieni darasani mara moja ili niwape zoezi ambalo ni rahisi.
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Ainisha vielezi vya namna katika sentensi hii. (alama 2)

Mzee huyu mkongwe alicheka kijinga huku akila haraka haraka.
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Tambua miundo mitatu ya ngeli ya LI-YA. (alama 3)

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Bainisha shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 3)

Kimani aliukata mti kwa kisu jana asubuhi.
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Andika kwa usemi wa taarifa: (alama 2)
Karani: Njoo nikutume kwa baba yangu.
Kamau: Sitaki kupita njia ya kwa babu.
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Nimenunua dawa ili iwamalize wadudu wanaotusumbua hapa kwetu nyumbani. (alama 2)
Anza: Wadudu
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Andika kwa ukubwa hali timilifu. (alama 2)

Mtego ulimnasa ndovu huyo.
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Bainisha vishazi katika sentensi fuatayo. (alama 2)

Ingawa alitia bidii masomoni,alifeli mtihani.
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Tambua aina mbili za sentensi ukizingatia uamilifu na utoe mfano mmoja kwa kila moja.(ala 2)
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Taja na utolee matumizi mawili ya mkwaju. (alama 2)

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Changanua sentensi hii kwa kutumia kielelezo cha visanduku. (alama 4)
Waswahili husema chema chajiuza kibaya chajitembeza.

Andika sentensi moja ukitumia kitenzi ulichopewa katika kauli ya kutendewa. (alama 1)
Ja
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Bunda ni kwa noti ,na bumba ni la nyuki ilhali _____________________________ ni kwa

karatasi. (alama 1)
Kamilisha methali hii. (alama 1)
Mfa maji
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SEHEMU D: ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

Kibiko: Hujambo dada Cheupe?
Cheupe: (akikohoa) Sijambo ndugu Kibiko.
Kibiko: Unaendelea namna gani?
Cheupe: Niko poa isipokuwa maumivu kidogo ya chest.
Kibiko: Usijali nitakupa pain relievers utakuwa sawa.
Cheupe: Asante sana,nashukuru.
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Maswali.
Eleza muktadha wa mazungumzo haya. (alama 2)
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Taja na ueleze sifa za lugha iliyotumika katika mazungumzo haya. (alama 8)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
102/3

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 3
FASIHI
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

Maagizo
(a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
(d) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
(e) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki;yaani:Riwaya,
Tamthilia,,Hadithi Fupi na Ushairi.
(f) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
20
20
20

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 SEHEMU A: HADITHI FUPI (LAZIMA)
D.W. Lutomia na Phibbian Muthama : Mapambazuko Ya Machweo Na Hadithi Nyingin
Lazima

Changanua mtindo kwenye kifungu. (alama 8)

Suala la kazi na bidi limeangaziwa kwa kina kwenye diwani ya mapambazuko ya machweo. Tetea
ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kurejelea hadithi zifuatazo:
Fadhila za punda
Mapambazuko ya machweo
Sabina (alama 12)
SEHEMU B: RIWAYA
Clara Momanyi: Nguu za Jadi.
Jibu swali la 2 au la 3
2. “atawatoa wananchi wa Matuo kutoka katika mchanga wa moto unaowaunguza.”
a) Weka dondoo hili katika muktadha wake_ (aL4)
b) Tambua mbinu ya uandishi katika dondoo hili. (aL2)
c) Kwa kurejelea riwaya nzima, Fafanua jinsi wahusika mbalimbali wanaunguzwa na serikali
(aL14)

3. Eleza jinsi Mtemi Lesulia amejenga usaliti katika riwaya ya Nguu za Jadi. (aL20)

SEHEMU C: TAMTHILIA
Timothy Arege: Bembea Ya Maisha
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. “Hata nikiitwa nitaondoka nikiwa nimeridhika.”
a)Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili . (alama 4)
b)Kwa hoja tano, eleza sifa za msemaji wa maneno haya . (alama 5)
c)Tambua mbinu moja ya lugha iliyotumika katika dondoo hili. (alama 1)
d) Wahusika mbalimbali kwenye tamthilia wamekubwa na majonzi na furaha. Thibitisha.
(alama 10)
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5. “...Tayari unakuwa umeonja seli.Hata wahudumu wenyewe hawana mlahaka mwema .amri na
vitisho kama askari.Unashindwa kama uuguze moyo ama ugonjwa.Katika wodi hewa iliyojaaa
harufu ya dawa imezagaa,vitanda vimesalimu amri mpaka shiti zikagura.Yaani hali nzima
haikupi matumaini ya kutoka ukiwa bora.matumaini yanadidimia .Tumaini lako unaliweka
katika sala. ”
(a) Tambua toni mbili katika kifungu hiki (alama 2)
(b) Tambua aina mbili za taswira katika dondoo hili (alama 2)
(c)Kando na taswira chambua vipengele vingine vya kimtindo (alama 6)
(d) Fafanua namna mandhari ya dondoo hili yalivyochangia kujenga tamthilia ya Bembea ya
Maisha. (alama 10)

SEHEMU D: USHAIRI.
Jibu swali la 6 au la 7
6. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali
Taifa ni Ushuru
Lau kama ingakuwa, madhali tuna uhuru
Watu kodi kutotowa, na kuifanya kufuru
Vipi nchi ingakuwa, taifa bila ndururu
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru

Hivi taifa kumea , nakuendelea mbele

Kwamba lajitegemea, haliwategei wale
Yataka kujitolea, ushuru bila kelele
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru

Wafanyikazi wa umma, mfano mwema walimu

Wauguzi mahashuma, daktari wahadimu
Bila hizi darahima, vipi wangalihudumu?
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru

Si vyema kuombaomba, kwa wageni kila mara

Huwa twajifunga Kamba, na kujitia izara
Adha zinapotukumba, kujitegemea bora
Taifa halingakuwa,bilashi bila ushuru

Miradi ya maendeleo, yahitaji darahima

Ndo tufikie upeo, ulio dunia nzima
Wadogo na wenye vyeo, bila kodi tutakwama
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru

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Ushuru si kwa wanyonge, wasokuwa na uwezo
Watozwe hata wabunge, na wengine wenye nazo
Yeyote asijitenge, kodi akalipa bezo
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru

Kwetu kutoa ushuru,ndiko kujitegemea

Pasiwepo na udhuru, usio wa kuelea
Huwa ni kama kiguru, asenao kutembea
Taifa halingakuwa, bilashi bila ushuru
Maswali
(a)Tambua hadhira inayolengwa katika shairi hili. (alama 1)
b)Huku ukitoa mfano,onyesha mbinu tatu ambazo mshairi ametumia kutosheleza uhuru wake.
(alama 3)
c)Bainisha aina tatu za urudiaji zinazojitokeza katika utungo huu. (alama 3)
d)Eleza muundo wa ubeti wa sita. (alama 4)
e)Andika ubeti wa nne katika lugha ya nathari/tutumbi (alama 4)
f)Kwa kutolea mfano,taja mbinu tatu za kimtindo zilizotumika katika shairi hili. (alama 3)
g)Weka shairi hili katika bahari yake ukirejelea : (alama 2)
i)Vipande
ii)Vina

7. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali

Sikilizeni wimbo huu:
Niliokuwa mtoto nilitwa chacha Kwa matamshi yangu ya sasa
Nilipokuwa mtu mzima niliitwa Manywele Nilipokuwa mwalimu nikaitwa Bure.

Huu utakuwa wimbo wako Utakapostaafu urudipo nyumbani Umelewa kangara na nyayo zako
Zikishindwa kulenga njia nyembamba vijijini. Utakuwa kichekesho cha watoto Watakaoukuita,
Ticha! Popote upitapo.

Kumbuka mwalimu utakapostaafu, Mijusi watataga mayai ndani ya viatu Vyako vilivyokwisha
visiginino.
Na ndani ya sidiria chakavu Zilizoshikizwa Kamba kwa pini
Mende watazaliana ndani ya chupa tupu Za marashi na za bia.

Na manyigu yatajenga ndani ya kofia Zilizosahaulika kutani

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Utakapokufa nge watazaliana Chini ya jiwe juu ya kaburi lako, Na mlevi fulani akipita atapenga
Na kupangusa vidole kwenye jiwe pweke
Mwanzo na mwisho wako ndio huo.

Lakini wakati ungali hai

Unaweza kubadilisha mkondo wa maji Lakini kwanza mzungumze. Wewe na mimi. Acha mioyo
yote izungumzwe
Baada ya kunyanyaswa Na kisha nusu mshahara.

Utafundisha tena nyimbo kuwasifu viongozi? Utafundisha tena ngonjera?

Utapeleka tena wanafunzi asubuhi Wakajipange barabarani kusubiri Mgeni afikaye saa kumi na
apitapo
Apunga tu mkono kuwatia kichaa cha shangwe
Na huku nyuma mwasambaa na njaa?
Tazama hilo runda madaftari mezani Utalimaliza kwa mshahara mkia wa mbuzi? Tuzungumze.
Ninyi na mimi.
Acha mioyo yetu izungumze
Mkiwa waoga na kujikunja kama jongoo Mtawekwa kwenye vijiti na kutupwa Nje ya ua, ndani
mtawaacha
Wacheza ngoma wakitunga nyimbo mpya

Sikilizeni walimu,
Anzeni kufundisha hesabu mpya
Mjinga mmoja kujumlisha na wezi ishirini Ni sawa na sifuri. Hapana utawala Fundisheni historia
historia mpya
Hapo zamani za sasa Hapakuwa na serikali.

Sikilizeni kwa makini Umoja hatuna

Twasambaratika kama nyumba Tulicho nacho ni woga,
Na kinachotuangusha ni unafiki. Lakini tusikate tamaa kama mbuni. Tukiupata umoja bado tunayo
silaha. Kura.
Maswali
Fafanua sifa za shairi huru zinazojitokeza katika shairi hili. (al. 5)
Eleza jinsi maudhui ya utamaushi yanavyojitokeza ukimrejelea nafsi-nenewa. (al. 4)
Nafsi-nenewa anapaswa kujilaumu kwa masaibu yake. Thibitisha. (al. 2)
(i) Bainisha nafsi-neni katika shairi hili. (al. 1)
Taja toni ya shairi hili. Toa mfano. (al. 2)
Eleza matumizi mawili mawili ya usambamba na jazanda katika shiri hili. (al. 4)
Eleza maana ya kufungu kifuatacho:
Mjinga mmoja kujumlisha na wezi ishirini ni sawa na sufuri. (al. 2)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SEHEMU E: FASIHI SIMULIZI
8. Soma utungo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali
1. Angole angole mwanangu

Mwanangu nakuchombeza

Nakuchombeza ulale

Ulale ukiamka

Nikupikie ubwabwa

Na mchuzi wa papa

Ukilia waniliza, wanikumbusha

Ukiwa wa baba na mama

2. Baba na mama watende

Ilimu kunikatizia

Ng’ombe, mbuzi kupokea

Kunioza dumu kongwe

Haliuki na halende

Kazi kupiga matonge

3. Likingia mvunguni

Lavunjavunja vikombe

Likilala kitandani

Languruma kama gombe

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
a) Bainisha kipera cha utungo huu. Thibitisha. (alama 2)
b) Eleza ujumbe unaofumbwa katika wimbo huu. (alama 5)
c) Tambua mbinu za kifani ambazo zimetumiwa kuwasilisha utungo huu. (alama 3)
d) Bainisha shughuli mojamoja ya kijamii na ya kiuchumi ambazo huendelezwa katika
jamii ya utungo huu. (alama 2)
e) Unakusudia kukusanya data kuhusu kipera hiki. Eleza manufaa manne ya kutumia
mahojiano. (alama 4)
f) Kipera hiki kinazidi kufifia katika jamii yako. Fafanua njia nne ambazo jamii ya
kisasa inaweza kutumia kukuza na kuendeleza kipera hiki. (alama 4)
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
443/1 Agriculture Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
 The paper consists of three sections A , B and C.
 Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
 Answer any two questions from section C in the spaces provided

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
A 115 30

16
17
B 20
18
19

C 20-22 40
TOTAL 90

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (30 marks)
1. State four reasons why agriculture is important to Kenya’s economy. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State four ways in which mulching conserves water. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. State four ways in which trees improve soil productivity. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. What is meant by the term integrated pest management? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. State four factors that influence soil formation. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State four causes of crop diseases. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State four ways in which a land title deed is important to a farmer. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. Give four agents of soil erosion. (2 marks)

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9. Give four reasons for intercropping in crop production (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. State four characteristics of extensive farming system. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. Outline four minimum tillage practices (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
12. Give four reasons why burning of land is discouraged. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. State four functions of Young Farmers Club (2 marks)

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14. Distinguish between a perfect and an imperfect market. (1 mark)

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15. State the meaning of the following terms as used in crop production.
(a) Crop rotation. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Pruning. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Rogueing. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION B (20 marks)
16. A farmer has a piece of land on which he can grow maize, cabbages and beans.
The expected yields and selling prices of the three crops are shown below.
Crop Yield (kg) Selling prices (ksh/kg)
Maize 4000 40
Cabbages 2800 60
Beans 3000 80

If the cost of producing any of the three crops is the same.

(a) Which crop should the farmer grow? Show your working. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) (i) State the farmer’s opportunity cost. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (b) (i) above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Give a reason why farmers always have to make a choice on the enterprise to
implement on the farm. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
17. A famer is advised to apply 60kg N, 20kg P2O5 and 30kg K2O per hectare. Calculate the
quantity of urea (46%N), single super phosphate (20%P2O5) and muriate of potash
(50% K2O) the farmer should apply on his 10 hectares land. (5 marks)

18. Below is a diagram showing a crop disease.

(a) Identify the crop disease. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State three control measures for the crop disease. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Name the category in which the crop disease is classified. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
19. The diagram below illustrates a nursery practice.

Identify the practice. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Describe the procedure followed in carrying out the practice illustrated. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

State two advantages of the practice illustrated above in crop production. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40 marks)

20 (a) Describe seven harmful effects of crop pests. (7 marks)
Describe eight safety measures a farmer should observe when using herbicides to
control weeds. (8 marks)
Describe the harvesting of coffee. (5 marks)

21(a) Explain five factors that can increase the demand for tea on a market. (10 marks)
(b) State four ways of improving labour productivity on the farm (4 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(c) The following information was obtained from Upendo Farm inventory on 1 st
January 2013.
ITEM VALUE(Ksh)
Layers 80,000
Beef cattle 240,000
Beans in store 40,000
Cash at hand 15,000
Land 550,000
Machinery 250,000
Buildings 310,000
Calves 75,000
On the same day the farm recorded the following;
ITEM VALUE(Ksh)
Wages payable 5,000
Interest payable 8,000
Bank loan 725,000
Milk sales on credit 12,000
Chicken sales on credit 6,000
Cash in bank 52,000
Purchase of fertilizer on credit 26,000
Taxes payable 3,000
Using the information provided prepare a balance sheet for Upendo Farm. (6 marks)

22. (a) Describe the field management practices for tomatoes. (10 marks)
(b) Explain ways in which the Kenyan Government can improve maize production to
ensure food security in the country. (10 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
443/2 Agriculture Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
 The paper consists of three sections A , B and C.
 Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
 Answer any two questions from section C in the spaces provided

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
A 116 30

17
18
B 20
19
20

C 21-23 40
TOTAL 90

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. Name four beef breeds of cattle. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State four observations on the behavior of chicks which would indicate that the
temperature in the brooder is too high. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Give four practices carried out on fish before preservation. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Outline four reasons for steaming up a gestating cow. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. List four factors considered when selecting eggs for marketing. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6. Give four disorders associated with calcium deficiency in livestock (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State four advantages of carrying out raddling in sheep management. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Give a reason why ruminant animals are able to digest grass. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Give the difference in meaning of the following terms as used in livestock.

(a)Quarantine and Isolation (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Zoonotic and notifiable diseases (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. List four effects of ticks on livestock bodies. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
11. State four factors that influence selection of construction materials. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Name three farm implements operated by the tractor’s P.T.O shaft. (11/2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State four reasons for debeaking in poultry production. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. Name three breeding diseases controlled through the use of artificial insemination.
(11/2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Give four characteristics of a good vaccine. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. State four advantages of Kenya top bar hive in bee keeping. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION B (20 MARKS)
17. The diagram below shows the udder of a cow. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

a) Name parts L and M. (2 marks)

L-
M-
b) State the hormone responsible for milk let down. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Define dry cow therapy. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Why milking should be done quickly and evenly. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. The diagrams below show some farm tools. Study them and answer the questions that
follow.

Name the tools. (2 marks)

A-
B-
C-
W-
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State the functional differences between tools K and W. (1mark)

What advantage does C have over A and B? (1 mark)

d). State one common maintenance practice carried out tool C and W. (1mark)

19. The diagram below shows two methods of handling livestock in the farm. Study them
and answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify the methods of handling livestock labelled L and M. (1 mark)

L..................................................................................................................................................
M.................................................................................................................................................
b) Give two occasions when it may be necessary to carry out the practice labelled L above.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Give two animal conditions under which method L above cannot be used. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. The diagram below represents conditions of the tyre.

E F G
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Which diagram represents the correct pressure in a tractor tyre? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Identify the mistakes with the other two tyres. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Give the correct measures taken for each tyre mentioned in (b) above. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer any two questions in this section
21.a) Explain five factors that affect milk composition in dairy farming. (5 marks)
b) State five signs of parturition in cattle (5marks)
c) State five maintenance practices of a fish pond (5marks)
d) Explain five factors considered when selecting livestock for breeding (5marks)

22.a)Describe the management of a sow during parturition. (10 marks)

b) Describe the lifecycle of a three host tick. (7 marks)
c) Outline three effects of endo-parasites to the host animals (3marks)

23. a) Describe a blue tick (Boophilus decolaratus) under the following sub-headings.
i) Diseases transmitted. (2marks)
ii) Preferred site of attachment. (3marks)
iii) Non-chemical control measures. (5marks)
b) Discuss mastitis disease under the following sub-headings:
i) Predisposing factors. (5marks)
ii) Control and treatment. (5marks

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
565/1 Business Studies Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS
a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions.
d) All answers should be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
e) Candidates should answer all the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

Marks

Question 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
marks

Total marks

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1) Outline four commercial services that are useful to a manufacturer (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2) Kamau operates a shop in a farming area. State four ways in which the farm community can
benefit from the business activity (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3) State four sources of energy that are naturally available in Kenya but not fully exploited
(4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4) Outline four ways in which the utility of a commodity is increased (4 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

5) Outline four reasons why production in the subsistence sector is usually low (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6) Use the cash book below to state the transactions that took place on 2nd, 5th and 7th of May
2010.
Cash Banks Cash Banks
Date Details Folio (shs) (shs) Date Details Folio (shs) (shs)
1-May Bal 100,000 250,000 2-May Creditors 30,000
3-May Rent 4,000
5-May Bank c₁ 20,000 5-May Cash c₁ 20,000
7-May James 11,000 6-May Drawing 12,000
8-May Bal c/d 104,000 211,000
120,000 261,000 120,000 261,000
8-May Bal b/d 104,000 211,000

Transaction;
2nd --
_________________________________________________________________________
_______________________
5th –
_________________________________________________________________________
_______________________
6th –
_________________________________________________________________________
_______________________
7th –
_________________________________________________________________________
_______________________

7) State four errors that do not affect the agreement of a trial balance (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
8) Highlight the reasons that have made the use of credit cards (plastic money) popular as means
of payment (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

9) Give four malpractices against which consumers may need protection (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

10) During a trader’s workshop, a speaker presented a speech on ethical issues in business.
Highlight some ethical issues that he may have raised, affecting business (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

11) List the four documents that should be prepared during the formation of a joint stock
company (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

12) State four expenses that are incurred in the process of distribution of goods (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
13) Given below are transactions to Buda traders for each of the transactions, indicate in the
column below the account to be debited and the account to be credited (4 Marks)
Transaction DR CR

(i) Paid salaries in cash

(ii) Withdraw cash from bank for office use

(iii) Paid telephone bill by cheque

(iv) Purchased office equipment on credit

from Eldoret Holdings

14) Highlight four ways in which Kenya is likely to benefit from preparing a proper development
plan (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

15) Highlight four principles of government expenditure (4 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

16) The following information was extracted from the books of Kiambu traders
Ksh.
Opening stock 160,000
Closing stock 200,000
Purchases 1,800,000
Margin 20%
Calculate Kiambu trader’s sales (4 Marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
17) Apart from the price mechanism, state other ways in which prices of goods and services are
determined (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

18) State the four forms of economic integration (4 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

19) State the type of insurance/assurance cover Mshamba should take in the following
circumstances.
Circumstance Type of Policy

(i) To cover against theft of his property at home

(ii) To take a short period cover in case one is participating

in motor car rally
(iii) To cover loss of cash or goods through theft by any of his
employees
(iv) To cover damage to his/her car, property in the car and
damage to other vehicles

20) Outline four assumptions that would make a two-sector economy to hold (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

21) Outline four causes of unemployment in Kenya today (4 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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22) State the journal that deals with each of the following types of transaction (4 Marks)
Types of transaction Journal

(i) Sale of fixed asset on credit

(i) Correction of errors

(i) Credit purchases

(i) Return of goods by customers

23) Highlight four factors a trader may consider when determining the appropriate means of
transport (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

24) Outline four qualities of a good sales person (4 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

25) Give four reasons why firms choose to remain small in an economy dominated by large
firms (4 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
565/2 Business Studies Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of 6 questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the spaces provided.
e) All questions carry equal marks
f) Non –programmable silent electronic calculator may be used.
g) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
20
20
20
20
20
TOTAL

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 QUESTIONS
1. (a) Explain Five factors that hinders entrepreneurial practices in Kenya today. (10mks)
(b) Outline Five differences between a public corporation and a private limited company.
(10mks)
2. (a) The following Trial balance was extracted from the books of laikipia Traders on 30 th
may 2023.
LAIKIPIA TRADERS
Trial Balance
As at 30th May 2023

Name of Account Dr (Shs) Cr (Shs)

Sales and purchases 21,000 221,000

Returns 4,000 8,000
Carriage inwards 3,500
Carriage outwards 4,200
Stock (1/05/2023) 10,000
Discount 7,000 9,600
Electricity 4,500
Wages 8,600
Premises 300,000
Debtors and Creditors 13,500 40,500
Cash at bank 47,800
Capital 145,000
Returns
424,100 424,100

Additional information:
Closing stock was valued at shs 7,000.
Prepare : i) Trading, profit and loss Account for the year ending 30th may 2023. (8mks)
(ii) balance sheet as at 30th may 2023.
(b) Highlight four documents that are sent to the seller by the buyer in home trade. (8mks)

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3. (a) The diagram given below shows changes in the supply curve.

S2 S1
Price

S2 S1

0 Quantity

Explain five factors that may have led to the change from S1S1 to S2S2. (10 mks)
(b) Explain five functions of commercial banks. (10mks)

4. (a) Explain five limitations of using billboards as medium of advertising. (10mks)

(b) Explain five significance of warehousing to the consumers. (10mks)
5. (a) The following balances were extracted from KIVU MERCHANTS books of accounts
on January 2017;
Motor vehicles 250, 000
Furniture 8, 000
Stock 37, 000
Debtors 20, 000
Cash at bank 15, 000
Cash in hand 5,500
ADC loan 100, 000
Creditors 12, 000
Capital 224, 000

The following transactions took place during the month.

January 1 deposited an additional shs.30, 000 from private sources into the business
bank account.
January 5 issued a cheque for shs. 8, 000 to ADC bank which was honoured by the
bank.
“ 10 sold goods whose cost was shs.3, 500 at shs.7, 000 and received the
proceeds by the cheque.
“ 15 bought a new motor vehicle worth shs.50, 000 having borrowed an
additional loan from ADC bank.
“ 17 took goods worth shs. 1,200 to be used by his family.

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 “ 20 sold one of the old motorvehicles whose book value was shs.27, 000 at shs. 22,000
on credit.
“ 25 received cash shs.15, 000 from a debtor.
“ 29 paid a creditor by cheque shs.8, 500
“ 30 bought more goods on credit worth shs. 3,200

Required: Prepare KIVU MERCHANT’S balance sheet as at 30th April 2017. (10mks)

(b) Outline five reasons why mobile phones (cell phones) have become popular means of
communication. (10mks)

6 (a) Explain five negative effects of inflation. (10mks)

(b) Explain five reasons why a country may experience balance of payments disequilibrium.
(10mks)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
231/1 Biology Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name and class in the spaces provided above.
b) Append your signature and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Spelling errors especially of biological terms shall be penalized
d) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
e) Candidates should answer the questions in English
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed
and no questions are missing

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDIATES SCORE

1 -29 80

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 Answer all questions in the spaces provided
1) A young scientist observed a bird laying her eggs in a nest and later the eggs hatched into
chicks. Name two characteristics shown by the chicks that show a chick is a living thing but
an egg is not. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2) In which two ways are the organelles chloroplast and mitochondria similar. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3) The illustration below shows a human eye that is defective.

(a) Identify the eye defect. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) How would this defect be corrected? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4) (a) What is homeostasis? (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State three processes in humans in which homeostasis is involved. (3mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5)
(a) In which phase of photosynthesis are carbohydrates formed? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) How is the dark stage of photosynthesis dependent to light stage? (2mrks).
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

6) Why are the cooling fans of value even in a closed room? (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

7) How can the colour of the skin affect the rate of heat loss or heat gain? 3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

8) List down three abiotic factors that would influence life in a lake. (3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

9) Distinguish between the terms asexual and sexual reproduction (2mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

10) (a) Define the term germination. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 (b) state the two types of germination in plants. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) when does growth start in plants. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

11) What is polyploidy. (1mrk)

Mating a horse with a donkey produces an infertile animal, a mule. Explain. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

12) A part of DNA strand has the following base sequence: G-G-C-C-T-A-T-C.
(a) what is the sequence of the complimentary strand? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

what will be the sequence of m-RNA transcribed from this part of DNA? (1mtk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

How does DNA differ from RNA? (3mrks)

DNA RNA

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13) A student made a set up shown below to study a physiological process

In which beaker did the dialysis tubing reduce in size? (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Account for your answer in a) above. (2mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

14) Give two reasons why lumbar vertebrae have long and broad transverse processes. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

15) Give two ways in which seed dormancy benefit a plant. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

16) State three precautions one should observe while conducting experiments in food test.
(3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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17) Use the diagram of the heart shown below to answer the questions that follow

From the diagram, give a reason to show that X is the left ventricle. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Name a class of organisms where all members have the heart structure above (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Why are the muscles found in the heart above said to be myogenic? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

18) State the role of the following in the nitrogen cycle. (2mrks)
Thiobacillus denitrificans.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Nitrococcus bacteria.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

19) The diagram below shows the structure of germinating pollen grain

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 Name the type of cell division that formed the parts labelled A. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

State the role of part labelled B? (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

20) The chart below is a summary of blood clotting mechanism in a man.

Platelets
Prothrombin

Y X

Thrombin

Z
Fibrinogen

Name;
The metal ion represented by Y. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

The end product of the mechanism represented by Z. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

21) 1The following is part of a kidney nephron

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22) i) Name the process represented by the arrows. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name the conditions necessary for the process named in (a) (i) above to take place.
(1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Identify with a reason vessel A. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Name any two blood components that are present in vessel (A) but are absent in vessel B.
(2mrks)

23) State the function of the following during pregnancy. (3mrks)

Amnion
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Amniotic fluid
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Umbilical cord

24) Below is a diagram of an organism.

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 Name the kingdom to which the organism belongs. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Give a reason for your answer in (a) (i) above. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Explain the process by which the food gets into the organism. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

25) State two characteristics features of members of division bryophyte. (2mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

26) i) Name the cartilage between the bones of the vertebral column (1mrk)

ii) State the function of the cartilage named in (a)(i) above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

27) Why do herbivores have large eyes on the side of their heads? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

28) Suggest three measures that can be taken to control infection of man by protozoan parasites.
(3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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29) In a family, all off springs have blood group AB. What are the possible blood groups of?
the parents? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

30) List the changes that take place during inhalation in the breathing cycle of a mammal in the
following: (3mrks)
Rib cage thoracic cavity

(b) Diaphragm

External intercostal muscles

31) Evolution is an ongoing process, state two pieces of evidence which suggest that evolution
is still taking place. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
231/2 Biology Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
 Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
 Question six is compulsory.
 Choose either question 7 or 8

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION NUMBER QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE SCORE
SECTION A 1-5 40
6 20
SECTION B 7 20
8 20
TOTALSCORE 80

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 QUESTIONS
1. The diagram below shows the exchange site between circulatory system and body cells.

a) State two adaptations of the capillaries. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) (i) Name the blood cells labeled B. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) State the gas that diffuses from B to the tissue cells. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) State two functions of the part labeled A. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) Name the blood vessel with the highest concentration of;

Oxygen. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Urea. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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2. The diagram below shows how blood glucose in mammalian body is regulated.

Pancrease secretes

Rise Hormone X Fall

Normal glucose level Normal glucose level

90mg/100ml 90mg/100ml

Fall rise

Less hormone X secreted

Hormone Y released

(a) Name the hormone X and Y (2mks)

X _______________________________________
Y _______________________________________

(b) State two ways by which hormone X lowers glucose level in the blood when it rises above
90mg/100ml (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Name the organ that produces hormone Y (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(d) Suppose there is deficiency of hormone X, state the disease the person would suffer from
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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(e) Explain how the disease mentioned in (d) above can be controlled. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. In human beings, a downward pointed frontal hairline (“windows peak”) is a heritable trait. A
person with windows peak always has at least one parent who has his trait; whereas persons
with frontal hairline may occur in families in which one or even both parents have windows
peak. Using B and b to symbolize genes for this trait.
a) Determination the f1 generation if a homozygous windows peak male parent is married to a
Homozygous frontal hairline female parent. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two causes of variations. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Name two examples of discontinuous variation. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. The drawing below represents a mature bread mould (rhizopus).Study it and answer the
questions which follow.

a) Name the structures labeled A, B and C. (3mks)

A......................................................................................................................................................
B ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
C.......................................................................................................................................................

b) Identify the type of asexual reproduction represented in the diagram (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Give one function of structure C. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) Define the term fertilization. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

e) Compare an ovum cell and a zygote. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. The diagram below shows three different types of neurons along a reflex.

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a) Identify the neuron labeled 1, 2 and 3 (3mks)
1..............................................................................................................................................
2..............................................................................................................................................
3............................................................................................................................................

b) Using arrow show the direction of impulse transmission on the diagram. (1mks)

c) Name the part of the spinal cord where the cell bodies of neuron 2 and 3 are located. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) Describe the transmission impulses across the part labeled P. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

SECTION B
Answer question 6(compulsory) in the spaces provided and either question 7 or 8 in the
spaces provided after 8.
6. During germination and growth of a cereal, the dry weight of endosperm, the embryo and the
total dry weight were determined at two day intervals. The results are shown in the table
below:
Time after planting (days)
Dry weight of endospermDry
(mg)
weight of embryo Total
(mg) dry weight (mg)
0 43 2 45
2 40 2 42
4 33 7 40
6 20 17 37
8 10 25 35
10 6 33 39

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a) Using the same axes, draw graphs of dry weight of endosperm, embryo and the total dry
weight against time.
(7marks)

b) What was the total dry weight on day 5 (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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c) Account for
i. Decrease in dry weight of endosperm from 0 to 10 (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii. Increase in dry weight of embryo from day 0 to day 10 (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii. Decrease in total dry weight from day 0 to day 8 (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iv. Increase in total dry weight after day 8 (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) State two factors within the seed and two outside the seed that cause dormancy
i. Within the seed. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii. Outside the seed (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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e) Give two characteristics of meristematic cells (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. Explain how abiotic factors affect plants. (20marks)

8. (a) Discuss eye accommodation. (10mks)

(b) Discuss the process of hearing in man. (10mks)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
231/3 Biology Paper 3
Time: 1¾ Hours

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

CONFIDENTIAL
EACH CANDIDATE SHOULD HAVE;
a) An Orange fruit
b) Scalpel
c) Small beaker
d) Straw
e) 2 test tubes
f) Measuring cylinder
g) Dropper
h) ACCES TO;
i) DCPIP SOLUTION
j) BENEDICT’S SOLUTION
k) LIME WATER
l) CLEAR COLOURED PHOTOGRAPHS

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
231/3 Biology Paper 3
(Practical)
Time: 1¾ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your Name, Class and Adm No. in the spaces provided above
b) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
c) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 3/4 hours reading the whole paper
carefully before commencing your work.
d) Candidates should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 18
2 07

3 15
TOTAL 40

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 1. (a) You are provided with specimen A
i) Name the fruit type that the specimen belongs to (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Give a reason (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) Make a transverse section on specimen A and label the parts. (4marks)

iv) State the type of placentation of fruit A (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) Squeeze out the juice from the two halves of specimen A into a small beaker. Using part
of the juice and the reagents provided only, test for the food substances in the juice.
(6marks)
Reagent Procedure Observation Conclusion

DCPIP

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 Benedict’s Solution

c) Transfer 5ml of lime water in to a test tube. Insert a straw in the lime water in the test
tube and blow air in it.
i) State the observation made (1mark)

ii) What was the aim of the experiment? (1mark)

iii) Account for the observation (1marks)

iv) What biological process produces the gas being tested in this experiment (1mark)

v) What physiological process is involved in the removal of the gas from the body.(1mark)

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 2. The photographs below were taken from a grassland ecosystem. Examine them carefully

i) Construct a food chain from the organism in the photographs above. (1mark)

ii) Name the trophic level occupied by the antelope giving a reason for your answer.(2 mks)

iii) Using observable feature only, name the class in which lion and antelope belong giving
a reason. (2 marks)
class
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Reason.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iv) With a reason, identify which of the three organisms has the highest biomass. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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 3. You are provided with photographs of specimen J, G and H.

Name the specimen labelled J, H, G. (3 marks)

Which part of the mammalian body were these specimens obtained. (1 mark)

Name the parts labelled as G1, G2 and H2. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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i) Name the type of joint formed at the proximal end of specimen H. (1 mark)

ii)Give a reason for your answer in d (i) above. (1 mark)

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State two functions of the part labelled G1. (2 marks)

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The photograph below are different views of a bone obtained from a mammal. Examine
them and answer the questions below.

Identify the bone. (1 mark)

Give reasons for your answer in f) (i) above. (1 mark)

Name the bone that articulates on the surface labelled F. (1 mark)

Identify the view of photograph X. (1 mark)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
233/1 Chemistry Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 Write your name and ADM NO in the spaces provided above.
 Answer All the questions in the spaces provided below each question.
 All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
 Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
 Electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1- 29 80

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 Answer all questions in the spaces provided
1. State two laboratory rules that should be followed to avoid contamination and wastage of
chemicals. (2 marks)
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2. Describe one method used to distinguish between sodium sulphate and sodium sulphite.
(2 mk
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3. A gaseous compound consists of 86% carbon and 14% hydrogen by mass. At s.t.p 3.2 dm3 of
the compound has a mass of 6 grams. Calculate:
a) Its empirical formulae ( C=12,H=1, MGV=at stp 22.4dm3 (2 marks)
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b) its molecular formulae (2 marks)

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4. The graph below shows amount of calcium carbonate and calcium chloride varying with time
in the reaction.
CaCO3 + 2 HCl CaCl2 + H20 + CO2

Amount Curve I
(g)

Curve II

Time(s)

a) Which curve shows amount of calcium chloride varying with time (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why the two curves become horizontal after given period of time (1 mark)
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c) Sketch on graph curve II would appear if the experiment was repeated using more dilute
hydrochloric acid solution (1 mark)

5. The thermal chemical equation for the reaction between X and Y are shown below.
2X2 (g) + Y2(g) ―—→ 2X2Y(g) ∆H= -197KJ/mol

a) Other than change in temperature, suggest two ways in which yield of X2Y can be increased
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) draw a well labeled energy level diagram for the forward reaction (2 marks)

6. The diagram below was used by a form two student at Kimuchul secondary school to prepare
and collect dry carbon IV oxide.

a) Name suitable solid p (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Complete the diagram above (3 marks)

7. The melting point of Nitrogen is -1960c while that of sodium is 980 c. In terms of structure
and bonding explain the difference in the melting point of Nitrogen and sodium (2 marks)
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8. The following tests were carried out on three separate portion of colourless solution P.
TEST OBSERVATION
i)Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to
Formation of effervescence
the first portion of solution P
ii)Addition of aqueous potassium No white precipitate
sulphate solution to the second portion
of solution P
iii)Addition of acqueous sodium White precipitate formed which dissolved in
hydroxide to the third portion to excess to form colorless solution
portion of solution P till in excess

a) From information in test(i),name two anions that are likely to be present in solution P(1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Identify cations that are likely to be present in solution P (1 mark)
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c) Write an ionic equation for the reaction which takes place in test (i) (1 mark)
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9. Describe how you would prepare crystals of potassium sulphate starting with 100cm3 of 0.5M
Potassium hydroxide (3 marks)
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10. use dot(.) and cross(x) diagram to show bonding in magnesium fluoride (Mg=12 , F=9)
(1 mark)

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11. An element R has a relative atomic mass 88. When a current of 0.5A were passed through
fused chloride of R for 32 minutes and 10 seconds, 0.44g of R were deposited at cathode.
Determine charge of ion Q (I F– 96500C) (3 marks)
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12. a) Define the term isomerism (1 mark)

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b. Draw and name two positional isomers of butanol (2 marks)

13. During the extraction copper and zinc from their ores, some processes include:
a) Crushing (1 mark)
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b) Mixing of the crushed one with oil and water and bubbling air through it.
i) Name the process (b) above (1 mark)
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ii) What is the purpose of(b) above (1 mark)

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14. Write an equation when the following compounds are heated
a) zinc nitrate (1 mark)
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b) silver nitrate (1 mark)

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15. The table below gives solubilities of potassium bromide and potassium sulphate at 00c and
400c.
Solubility g/100g H2O at
00c 400c
Potassium bromide 55 75
Potassium sulphate 10 12

When an aqueous mixture containing 60g of potassium bromide and 7g of potassium sulphate in
100g of water at 400c was cooled to 00c some crystals were formed.
a) identify the crystal (1 mark)
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b) Determine the mass of the crystal (1 mark)

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16. The set up below was used to carry out electrolysis of a molten bromide of metal X,XBr 2.

B
A
XBr2
a) write equations for reaction taking place at:
i) Anode : ……………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
ii) Cathode ……………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)

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b) Give reason why experiment should be carried out in fume chamber (1 mark)
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17. below are the standard electrode for electrodes X and Y

X2+ (aq )+ 2e __________________ X(s) -2.92 V
Y2+ (aq ) + 2e _____________________ Y(s) + 0.34 V
a) Identify the electrode which is the least reducing agent (1 mark)
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b) calculate the e.m.f of the cell formed when the two electrodes are connected (2 marks)
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c) write cell representation for the cell above (1 mark)

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18. a) Give two differences between a nuclear reaction and a chemical reaction (2 marks)
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b. complete the nuclear equation below (1 mark)

230 230

90Th ——→ 92 Pa + …………………………….

19. Explain why the boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of hexane (R.m.m of ethanol
46 while that of hexane is 86. (2 marks)
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20. The atomic number of element Q is 8 and that of P is 11.
a) Write down the formulae of compound formed between Q and P (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name the type of bond formed by compound given in (a) above .Explain. (2 marks)
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21. a) State charles’ law (1 mark)

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b. sketch a graph to represent Charles law (1 mark)

c. A gas occupied a volume of 250cm3 at -230c and atmosphere. Determine volume at 107 0c
when pressure kept constant. (2 marks)
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22. The structures shown below represent two cleansing agent A and B.
A B

R- COO  Na 
SO-3Na+

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(a) Name the type of cleansing agent A (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Which of the two cleansing agents is more suitable for washing in water containing
calcium chloride? Give a reason. (2 marks)
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23. a) Define the term enthalpy of formation of a compound. (1 mark)

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b)Use the information below to answer the questions that follow:

Equation Enthalpy of formation
(i) H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O(l) ∆H1= -286kJmol-1

(ii) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) ∆H2= -394kJmol-1

(iii) 2C(s) + 3H2(g) + ½ O2(g) C2H5OH(l) ∆H3= -277kJmol-

Calculate the molar enthalpy of combustion of ethanol. Given that:

C2H5OH (l) + 3O2 (g) 2CO2 (g) + 3H2O (l) (3mks)

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24. The chromatogram below shows the constituents of a flower extract. Study it and answer
the questions that follow
Y

Red
Yellow

a) Explain the different positions of red and yellow pigments. (2 marks)

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b) Describe how the solid yellow pigment can be obtained in the chromatogram (2 marks)
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25. When excess chlorine gas is bubbled through cold dilute sodium hydroxide solution, the
resulting solution acts as a bleaching agent.
(a)Write an equation for the reaction between chlorine gas and sodium hydroxide solution.
(1 mark)
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(b)Explain how the resulting solution acts as a bleaching agent. (2 marks)

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26. The table below gives some properties of four substances. Study it and answer the questions
that follow:
Substance M.P 0C B.P 0 C Electrical Conductivity

Solid Liquid

W 1723 2230 Poor Good

X 993 1695 Poor Poor

Y - 183 - 164 Poor Poor

Z 1083 2567 Good Good

(a) Which substance is suitable for making cooking pans? Explain. (11/2 marks)
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(b) Which substance is likely to have a giant atomic structure? Explain. (11/2 marks)
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27. 17g of Zinc carbonate was reacted with 50 cm3 of 4M nitric acid .Calculate the mass of Zinc
Carbonate that remained unreacted. (Zn = 65, C = 12, O = 16) (3 marks)
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28. A certain element Z forms an ion of type Z3-. If the element is in period 3.
(a) Write the electronic configuration of Z3-. (1 mark)
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(b) How do the sizes of Z and Z3- compare. Explain your answer. (2 marks)
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29.A sample of copper turnings was found to have contaminated with copper II oxide .
Describe how a sample of copper metal can be separated from the mixture. (2 marks)
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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
233/2 Chemistry Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
4. All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
5. Candidates should check to ascertain that each page s printed as indicated and that no
question is/are missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 11
2 9
3 12
4 9
5 10
6 10
7 10
8 9
TOTAL 80

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1. (a) The grid below represents part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that
follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements.

Which element will require the least amount of energy to remove one of the outermost
electrons? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii. Select the most reactive non- metal. (1mk)
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iii. Which of the elements has the greatest tendency of forming covalent? Explain (2mks)
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i
vWhat name is given to the family of elements to which elements O, T and V
. belong?(1mk)

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v An element W has atomic number 15. Indicate the position of W on the
. grid. (1mk)

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v
i
.Explain why the atomic radius of S is smaller than that of R. (1mks)
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vi. Explain why the atomic radius of Z is smaller than its ionic radius. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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(b) Study the information given in the table below and answer question that follow.

Formula of compound NaCl MgCl2 AlCl3 SiCl4 PCl5 SCl2

Boiling point 0C 1470 1420 Sublimes at 1800C 60 75 60
Melting point 0C 800 710 -70 -90 -80

Give two chlorides that are liquids at room temperature. Give a reason for your answer.
(2mks)
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Give a possible reason why AlCl3 has much lower boiling point than MgCl2 although both
Aluminum and Magnesium are metals. (1mks)
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2. The table below gives standard reduction potentials for some half cells.
Half-cell Half-cell equation Eθ /V
I Cr3+ (aq) + e- → Cr2+ (aq) -0.41
II Cd (aq) + 2e → Cd (s)
2+ - -0.4
III Na+ (aq) + e-→ Na (s) -2.71
IV Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu (s)
2+ - 0.34
V Pb (aq) + 2e → Pb (s)
2+ - -0.13
VI Br2 (aq) + 2e → 2Br (aq)
- - 1.07
VII 2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g) 0
VIII Fe (aq) + 2e → Fe(s)
2+ - -0.44V
IX O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + 4e → 4OH (aq)
- - +0.40V
X H2O2(aq) + 2H (aq) + 2e → 2H2O(l)
+ - +1.23V

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(i) Identify with reasons: (2mks)
I. The strongest oxidizing agent.
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II. The strongest reducing agent.

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ii) Draw an electrochemical cell from half-cells V and IV. (3mks)

Write the equation and calculate the electromotive force for the electrochemical cell
constructed from half-cells V and IV. (2 marks)
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Explain why it is not advisable to use aqueous sodium sulphate as the salt bridge
in the electrochemical cell formed between half-cells V and IV. (1mark)

Write the cell notation for an electrochemical cell made using half-cells V and VI. (1 mark)
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 3. a) Draw the structures of the following compounds.(2mks)
2 – methylbut-2-ene

heptanoic acid

b) Describe a physical test that can be used to distinguish between ethanol and ethene(2mks)
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c) Use the flow chart below to answer the questions that follow.

i) Name
I. The type of reaction that occurs in step VII. (1mk)
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II. Substance B (1mk)
.........................................................................................................................................................
................
What conditions and reagents are necessary to convert CH3CH2OH to CH3CH2COOCH2CH3
in step II
Conditions (1mk)
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Reagent (1mk)
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iii) Give the formula and name of substance C. (1mk)
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iv) Give the reagent and conditions necessary for the reaction in step IV. (2mks)
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v) i)Draw and name the structure of polymer P. (1mk)

ii) Name one use of the polymer P. (1mk)

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4. Several students prepared hydrogen gas using different reagent

Student 1: Used Zinc granules and dil. Nitric (V) acid
Student 2: Used Zinc granules and dilute sulphuric acid and a catalyst.
Student 3. Used calcium and dilute sulphuric(VI) acid.
Student 4: Used copper and dilute hydrochloric acid.

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(a) State and explain the observation made in the set-ups for;
(i) Student 2. (1mk)
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(ii) Student 3 (2mks)

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(b) Explain why no hydrogen was collect for set ups of student;
(i) 1 (1mk)
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(ii) 4 (1mk)
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(c) Name the catalyst used by student 2. (1 mk)

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(d) Write the equation for the reaction that took place in the set-up for student 2.
(1mk)
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(e) Explain why group 1 metals are not used to prepare hydrogen gas in the laboratory.
(1mk)
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(f) State two uses of hydrogen gas. (1 mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
….……………………………………………………………………………………………

(a). In an experiment to determine the heat of combustion of ethanol the following data was
collected.

Volume of water = 450cm3

Initial temperatures of water = 25oc Final temperature of water = 46.5oc

Mass of ethanol + lamp before heating = 125.5g
Mass of ethanol + lamp after heating = 124.0
Calculate:
(i). Heat evolved during the experiment (Density of water = 1g/cm3, specific heat capacity of
water
= 4.2kJ/kg-1k-1.(2 marks)
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(ii). Molar heat of combustion of ethanol. (2mks)

(C=12,O=16,H=1).
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(b). Write the thermochemical equation for the complete combustion of ethanol. (1 mark)
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The molar heat of combustion obtained from an experiment like the one above is usually lower
than the theoretical value. Explain. (2 marks)
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….................................................................................................................................................
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(d). The molar heat of combustion of hydrogen is given as -286Kj/mol-2

(i). Write the thermochemical equation for the reaction. (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................................................
(ii). Draw an energy level diagram for the reaction in d (i) above.(2 marks)

6. In an experiment to determine the solubility of potassium chlorate, the following results were
obtained.
Total volume of water added (cm3) 10 20 30 40 50
Mass of potassium chlorate (g) 5 5 5 5 5
Temperature at which crystals appear
80 65 55 45 30
(oc)
Solubility of potassium chlorate (g/100
H2O)

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(a)Complete the table to show the solubility of potassium chlorate at different temperatures. (3
marks)

(b). Plot a graph of mass of potassium chlorate per 100g water against temperature at which
crystals from. (3 marks)

(c). From the graph, determine:

(i). the solubility of potassium chlorate at 40oC. (1 mark)
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........

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(ii). The temperature at which the solubility of potassium chlorate is 35g/100g water. (1 mark)
.........................................................................................................................................................
(d). Explain the shape of the graph. (1 mark)
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(c). State one application of solubility and solubility curves. (1 mark)
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In the preparation of Copper carbonate, copper was burnt in air and the product collected.
Dilute sulphuric acid was added and the mixture filtered and cooled. Sodium carbonate was
added to the filtrate and the content filtered. The residue was washed and dried to give a green
powder.
a) Give the chemical name of the product formed when copper burns in air (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write a chemical equation for the formation of product. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) (i) Name filtrate collected after sodium carbonate was added (1mk)
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(ii) Name the green powder. (1mk)
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d) Write chemical equation for the reaction between product in (a) and acid. (1mk)
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e) Write an ionic equation to show the formation of the green powder (1mk)
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f) Write an equation to show what happened when green powder is strongly heated. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(g) Using a diagram, describe how a salt can be obtained from the filtrate in c(i) above.
(3mks)

8. The diagram below is a flow chart for the extraction of copper. Study it and answer the
question that follow.

a) Give the name and formula of the major ore from which copper is extracted. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………….
b) Give the name of the process carried out in step II and III. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………….……………………………
…………………………………………

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c) Write equation for the reactions taking place in step III and IV. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Iron (ii) oxide is an impurity during extraction of copper. Write the equation for the reaction
to show how it is removed. (1mk)
………………………………………………………….…………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) i) Draw a well labelled diagram to show blister copper is purified to form pure copper.
(2mks)

ii) Write the ionic equation for the anode and cathode reaction during purification of copper.
(2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….…………………………………….……………………………………………

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
233/3 Chemistry Paper 3
Time: 2¼ Hours

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

CHEMISTRY CONFIDENTIAL
In addition to fillings found in each candidate must have the following
1. 60cm3 of solution A
2. 20cm3 of solution B
3. 20cm3 of solution C
4. 20cm3 of solution D
5. 60cm3 of solution E
6. Two 10ml measuring cylinder
7. 100ml beaker
8. 500ml distilled water in a wash bottle.
9. Burette
10. Thermometer
11. Stop watch
12. Six test tubes in rack
13. One boiling tube
14. Filter paper
15. Unsed indicator paper and access to pH chart
16. 0.5g of solid F
17. 0.5g of solid G
18. 0.5g of solid H
19. 20cm3 of dilute nitric (v) acid. (21MHMO3)

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Access
2MNaOH supplied with a dropper
2MNH4OH supplied with a dropper
Source of heat supplied with a dropper
0.1M Pb (NO3)2 supplied with a dropper
0.1M Ba (Na3)2 supplied with a dropper
10 volume H2O2 supplied with a dropper
Acidified potassium manganate VII

Preparation of solutions
Solution A prepared by dissolving 50g of KI and tapping it up to 1 litre.
Solution B is prepared by dissolving 5g of sodium thiosulphate in a given amount of water and
diluting to 1 litre.
Solution C prepared by dissolving 30cm3 of ethanoic acid in 1 litre volumetric flask then add
68g of sodium ethanoate followed by 700cm3 of distilled under shake the mixture then top it
up to 1 litre.
Solution D is prepared by placing 10 grammes of starch, make a paste then add to boiling water
to make 1 litre of solution.
Solution E is prepared by placing 60cm3 of 20 volumes hydrogen peroxide in 1 litre
volumetric flask then adding distilled water to the mask.

Solid F is about 0.5g CuO

Solid G is about 0.5g Fe powder
Solid H is about 0.5g malleic acid

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
233/3 Chemistry Paper 3
Time: 2¼ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
c) You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2¼
hours allowed time for the paper.
d) Use the 15 minutes to read through the question paper and note the chemicals you require
e) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
f) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Maximum
Question Candidate’s score
score
1 17
2 17
3 6
Total
40
score

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QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following:
Solution A potassium iodide solution
“ B sodium thiosulphate
“ C acidic solution
“ D Starch solution
“ E Hydrogen peroxide
Distilled water

You are required to determine the rate of reaction between solution A and solution B

Procedure
Step 1
Place 10cm3 of solution A using 10ml measuring cylinder into a 100ml beaker.
Add 2cm3 of solution B followed by 2cm3 of solution C. In same beaker, Add 5 drops of
solution D and finally 12cm3 of distilled water and shake the mixture.
Step 2
Using a burette, place 6cm3 of solution E into a test tube. Pour the measured 6cm3 of solution
E into beaker in step 1 above and immediately start the stop watch. Swirl the mixture and
place it on a white paper or tile. Observe the mixture and note the time taken for blue colour
to appear.
Record the time taken in table 2
Measure the temperature of the mixture and record table 2.
Step 3
Repeat the step 1 and 2 using the volumes of solution given in table for experiments 2, 3, 4, 5
and 6, record in table below.
Table 1
experiment Volumes of solutions (cm3) Volume of
number A B C D distilled
water
1 2 2 2 5 drops 12
2 4 2 2 5 drops 10
3 6 2 2 5 drops 8
4 8 2 2 5 drops 6
5 10 2 2 5 drops 4
6 12 2 2 5 drops 2

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a) Calculate the rate of reaction 1/time 5-1 for each of experiments and fill table 2 below.
Table 2
experiment Volumes of Temp of Time Rate
number solution A solution (sec) 1/t
(cm3) (0c) sec
-1

1 2
2 4
3 6
4 8
5 10
6 12

(8 marks)
b) Plot the graph of rate of reaction 1/time against volume of solution A. (3 marks)

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c) If the experiment was repeated using 5cm3 of potassium iodide solution A, determine;
i) Volume of distilled water that would be used. (1 mark)

ii) Time taken for blue colour to appear. (2 marks)

d) Explain how rate of reaction is affected by the volume of potassium iodide. (2 marks)

e) Explain why it is necessary to record the temperature each experiment. (1 mark)

QUESTION 2
You are provided with solid F. Carry out the following tests and record your observations and
inferences in the space provided.
a) Place all solid F into a boiling tube. Add about 10cm3 of dilute nitric (V) acid, warm the
mixture and then allow it to stand until all the solid dissolves. Add about 10cm3 of distilled
water to the solution and shake. Retain the solution for tests (b) and (c)
observations Inferences

(2 marks) (1 mark)

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b) Use 2cm3 portion of solution obtained in 2(a) for each of the following tests.
i) To first portion, add 3 drops of Barium Nitrate.
observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

ii) To the second portion, add 3 drops of lead (ii) Nitrate solution.
observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

iii) To the third portion, add drops of 2MNaOH until in excess.

observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

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iv) To the fourth portion, add few then excess drops of 2MNH4OH provided in the access
point.
observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

c) To the last portion in the boiling tube add all solid G provided. Shake the mixture for about
2 minutes. Filter the mixture into a boiling tube. Retain the filtrate for test below.
observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
i) To about 2cm3 of filtrate add few then excess drops of 2MNaOH.
observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
ii) To about 2cm3 portion of filtrate add 3 drops of hydrogen peroxide solution then excess
drops of 2MNaOH.
observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

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Question 3
You are provided with solid H carry out the following tests and record the observations and
inferences in the space provided.
a) Place all solid in a boiling tube then add about 10cm3 of distilled water use the mixture for
tests (i) and (ii) below.
observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

i) Using about 2cm3 of the mixture in a test tube, determine the pH using universal indicator
and pH chart.
pH Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

ii) To about 2cm3 of the mixture in a test tube, add 3 drops of potassium manganate VII
provided in the access.
pH Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
232/1 Physics Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
* Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
* Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
* This paper consists of two sections; A and B
* Answer all the questions in section A and B
* All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
* Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be
used.

For Examiner's Use Only

Section Question Maximum Candidate's

A 1 - 12 25
13 10
14 12
15 11
16 12
17 10
B
Total Score 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION I :
1. Figure 1 below shows a scale of a Vernier calliper.
4 5

0 10
a) Record the reading indicated. (1 mark)
................................................................................................................
b) Given that the instrument above had a zero error of negative 0.03cm. State the actual
reading. (1 mark)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

2. Figure 2 shows water drops on two surfaces. If the first is smeared with oil while the
second is clean.

smeared surface clean surface

Explain the difference in the shapes of the drops. (2 marks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

3. A U-tube manometer is used to measure the pressure of gas in a container as shown below.

(The liquid in the manometer is mercury of density 13.6g/cm3)

gas container

tap

210mm
180mm gas

Mercury

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Find the pressure of the gas in the container. (Take atmospheric pressure as 102,000N/m2 and
g = 10N/kg) (3 marks)

4. Sugar was put in a flask then water was added slowly until it was full then the flask was
corked. The figure below shows the observation at the beginning of the experiment and at the
end of the experiment.

Account for the empty space. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

5. In an experiment to measure the density of a liquid, a student filled a burette with a liquid to

the 0cm3 mark. The figure below shows a section of burette showing the level of the liquid
after 109g of the liquid had been run out.

36 cm

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Determine the density of the liquid. (3 marks)

6. A uniform metal rod of weight 50N is balanced as shown below.

string

40cm

70cm

Find the tension on the string. (3 marks)

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7. On the axis provided plot graphs of density against temperature for water and mercury when

they are heated from 00 to 100C (2 marks)

Density
kg/m

Temperature (°c)

8. The figure below shows a beaker containing ice at 00C. The beaker is placed on a bench.

Ice cubes

State and explain the changes in stability or beaker when ice melts to water. (2 marks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

9. Define elastic limit. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

10. Explain why it will feel cooler in a white car than a black one if both of them are left in
the sun for a long time. (1 mark)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

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1 1 The figure below shows a horse pipe of a cross-sectional area of 40cm3.
10cm²
40cm²
smaller pipes

10cm2

If the horse pipe is connected to two smaller pipes of cross section 10cm3. Calculate the
velocity of water in each of the two pipes. (3 marks)

12. The figure shows masses A, B and C. Placed at different points on a rotating table.

A BC

State two factors that determine whether a particular mass slides off the table or not.(2 marks)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

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 SECTION B
13. a) Define acceleration. (1 mark)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
b) The figure below shows a tape chart from paper tape pulled through a 50Hz ticker timer by
a trolley.

6
Distance (cm)

5
4
3
2
1
0
1 2
Time3
Calculate the acceleration of the trolley in cms -2 (3 marks)

c) The figure below shows a velocity-time graph for the motion of a certain body.

-1
V (ms ) C
B

0
t (s)

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Describe the motion of the body in the region.
i) OA (1 mark)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

ii) AB (1 mark)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

d) A particle starts from rest and accelerates uniformly in a straight line. After 4 seconds it is
20m from the starting point. Determine the acceleration of the particle. (3 marks)

e) Sketch a displacement-time graph for a body, falling through a fluid. (2 marks)

f) Distinguish between elastic and inelastic collision. (1 mark)

...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

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14. a) State the class of lever to which a fishing rod belongs. (1 mark)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

b) State two reasons why the efficiency of hydraulic machine cannot be 100%. (2 marks)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

c) A crane lifts a load through a vertical distance of 8m in 12 seconds.

i)Given that the work done by the crane was 96000J. Calculate the amount of load lifted.
(2 mks

ii) Calculate the power developed by the crane. (2 marks)

iii)Given that efficiency of the crane was 80% and it was operated using an electric motor.
Calculate the rating of the motor. (2 marks)

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d) The figure below shows how kinetic energy (K.E) at a ball thrown vertically upwards
varies with height.
P.E/K.E (J)

K.E

Height (m)
On the same axis, plot a graph of potential energy of the ball. (1 mark)

e) Sketch a labelled diagram to show how an arrangement of a single pulley may be used to
provide velocity ratio of 2. (2 marks)

15. Akinyi wanted to determine specific heat capacity of iron. She was to use - metal block,
thread, water, copper, calorimeter, stirrer, thermometer and cardboard cover, beaker and
source of heat.
A metal block is dipped in water and water heated to a certain temperature and then
transferred to a calorimeter containing some 50 grams of water.
I. State two precautions to be taken to minimize heat losses to the surroundings. (2 marks)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

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II. The following figure shows a beaker B placed on a little water on a wooden block and some
liquid ether (spirit) then poured into the beaker. Air is now blown into the ether with a foot
pump.
air

ether

water
wooden block

It was found after sometime, the water on the wooden block turned into ice. Explain. (3 marks)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

III. A lump of copper of mass 0.75kg is placed in an oven for some time and then transferred
quickly to a large block of ice at 0oC. When the temperature of the lump of copper reaches
0oC, 0.45kg of ice is found to have melted. Determine the temperature of the oven. (Take the
specific heat capacity of copper as 400J/kg/k and the latent heat of fusion of ice as 3.2 x
105J/kg) (4 marks)

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b) Give two reason why the actual temperature of the oven may be higher than the above value.
(2 marks)
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................

16. a) The figure below shows a graph of pressure against volume for a fixed mass of gas at
constant temperature.

T1
Volume (m³)
Sketch on the same axis, a graph for the same mass of gas with a temperature T2 lower than
T1. (1 mark)
b) The figure below shows a simple set up for Boyle’s law apparatus.

pressure gauge
air

scale

Describe how the apparatus may be used to verify Boyle’s law. (5 marks)

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c) The diagram below shows a measuring cylinder with an air bubble at the bottom.

mercury 0.6 m

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 bubble

Determine the volume of the air bubble just before the surface of mercury if the atmospheric

pressure is 76cmHg and volume of the bubble at the bottom is 10cm3 (3 marks)

d) Using the kinetic theory of gases. Explain how a rise in the temperature of a gas causes a
rise in the pressure of the gas if the volume is kept constant. (3 marks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

17. a) State Archimedes principle. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

b) Why is the hydrometer made of:

i) wide bulb containing air (1 mark)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

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ii) a narrow stem (1 mark)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

c) A piece of metal weighs 4N in air and 2N when totally immersed in water. Determine the
relative density of metal.(Density of water: 1000 kg/m3 (3 marks)

d) The figure below shows a buoy B, volume 5m3 and mass 2 tons. It is held in position in sea

water of density 1030kg/m3 by a light cable fixed to the bottom so that 3/5 of the volume
buoy is below the surface of the sea water. Calculate the tension on the cable. (3 marks)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
232/2 Physics Paper 2
(THEORY)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a) Write your Name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two Sections; A and B.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(e) All workings must be clearly shown.
(f) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1 – 13 25
14 10
15 13
B 16 12
17 8
18 12
Total Score 80
 SECTION A: (25 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided:
1. State two conditions under which a pinhole camera may form an image on its screen which has
the same size as the object. (2mks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

2. The figure shows a ray of light incident along the normal. The mirror is rotated at an angle of
15º in a clockwise direction without changing the position of the incident ray,

Determine the angle between the reflection ray and the incident ray. (2mks)

3. A steel is to be magnetized by electrical method as shown below. Identify the pole P and Q of
the resulting magnet. (1mk)

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 P: _________________________________________________________________________

Q: _________________________________________________________________________

4. A small chain is often seen hanging at the back of a petrol carrying lorry. State and explain its
significance. (2mks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

5. The figure below shows two waveforms representing the same wave motion.

Determine the velocity of the wave. (3mks)

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6. An object O is placed in front of a concave mirror and on the principal axis, as shown in the
figure below. Complete the light ray diagram to locate the position of the image. (3mks)

C F

7. Arrange the following radiations in order of increasing wavelengths. (1mk)

Infrared, blue light, ultraviolet, radiowaves, -rays.
................................................................................................................

8. The figure below shows a block diagram of a p-n junction diode.

On the same diagram, show how a cell may be connected so that it is reverse biased. (1mk)

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9. A girl standing at a distance claps her hands and hears an echo from a tall building 2 seconds
later. If the speed of sound in air is 340m/s, determine how far the building is. (3mks)

10. What do you understand by polarization as used in a simple cell? (1mk)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

11. State how the defect mentioned in question 10 above is minimized in a simple cell. (1mk)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

12. A current-carrying conductor AB is in a magnetic field as shown in the figure below.

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 (a)Indicate the direction of force F acting on the conductor. (1mk)
(b)State two factors that determine the direction of the force F. (2mks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

13.You are given three resistors of values 5, 8 and 12. Show in a circuit diagram how you
would connect them so as to give:
(a)An effective resistance of 9.8. (2mks)

(b)The least effective resistance. (1mk)

SECTION B: (55 MARKS)

Answer question in this section in the spaces provided.
14.(a)Define refractive index. (1mk)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

(b)The critical angle of a certain material medium is 43.2º. Determine the refractive index of the
material. (2mks)

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 (c)(i)What do you understand by the term accommodation? (1mk)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

(ii) The diagram below shows a certain defect of vision. Name the defect. (1mk)

................................................................................................................

(iii)On the figure below show how the defect can be corrected. (2mks)

(d) An object is placed 40cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 20cm; determine the
position of the image. (3mks)

15.(a)(i)State Lenz’s a law of electromagnetic induction. (1mk)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
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(ii) A bar magnet is moved into a coil of insulated copper wire connected to a centre-zero
galvanometer, as shown in the figure below.

i.Show on the diagram the direction of induced current in the coil. (1mk)
ii.State and explain clearly what is observed on the galvanometer when the S-pole of the magnet is
moved into and then withdrawn from the coil. (4mks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

(b) A transformer has 800 turns in the primary and 40 turns in the secondary winding.
The alternating e.m.f connected to the primary is 240V and the current is 0.5A.
(i) Determine
I. The secondary e.m.f (2mks)

II. The power in the secondary if the transformer is 95% efficient. (2mks)

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(ii) Explain how energy losses in a transformer are reduced by having:
I. A soft-iron core. (2mks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

II. A laminated core. (1mk)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

16. (a)(i)Distinguish between thermionic emission and photoelectric emission. (2mks)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

(ii)State one factor which affects the rate of each of the above types of emission.
Thermionic emission. (1mk)
................................................................................................................
Photoelectric emission. (1mk)
................................................................................................................

(b)Sodium has a work function of 2.3eV. Given that: Planck’s constant h = 6.63  10
-34JS, velocity of light in vacuum, C = 3.0  108m/s, 1 electron-volt (1eV) = 1.6  10-19 C and mass
of an electron, me = 9.1  10-31kg, calculate:
(i) Its threshold frequency. (2mks)

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(ii) the maximum velocity of the photoelectrons produced when the sodium is illuminated by
light of wavelength 5.0  10-7m. (4mks)

(iii) The stopping potential V, with the light of this wavelength. (2mks)

17.(a)State two advantages of using a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (C.R.O) as a voltmeter over the
ordinary voltmeter. (2mks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
(b)An X-ray operates at 30000V and the current through it is 2mA. Given that the charge of an
electron is 1.6  10-19C, h = 6.63  10-34JS, speed of light, C = 3.0  108m/s,
Calculate:-
(i) The maximum kinetic energy of the electrons when hitting the target. (2mks)

(ii) The number of electrons hitting the target per second. (2mks)

(iii) The minimum wavelength of the X-rays emitted. (2mks)

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18.(a)A radioactive carbon-14 decays to nitrogen by beta particles as shown below.
14C   N  0 e
6 7 y

Determine the values of  and y. (2mks)

(b)The graph below shows the activity (disintegrations per minute) of a sample of carbon-14
against the time in years.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(i)From the graph determine the half-life of carbon-14. (2mks)

(ii) A mass of 100g of carbon-14 decays and the mass taken after 15000 years. Determine the
mass that remains. (3mks)

(c) The figure below shows the cross-section of a diffusion cloud chamber used to detect radiation
from radioactive sources.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(i) State the function of the following:
I. Alcohol. (1mk)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

II. Solid CO2. (1mk)

................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

(ii) Explain briefly how the diffusion cloud chamber can be used to detect and identify alpha
particles. (3mks)
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
232/3 Physics Paper 3
Time: 2½ Hours

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
232/3 Physics Paper 3
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
 Mathematical tables and non-programmable calculators may be used.
 This paper consists of section A and section B.
 Attempt all the questions in the spaces provided.
 ALL working MUST be clearly shown.

FOR EXAMINERS USE

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
1 18
2 22
TOTAL 40

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1. QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following apparatus
 Ammeter
 A voltmeter
 A wire mounted on a millimeter scale
 A switch
 A new dry cell
 A micrometer screw gauge
 6 Connecting wires
 A jockey

Proceed as follows
a) Measure the diameter d of the mounted wire at three different points
d1= ____________________________________ mm
d2=____________________________________ mm (½mk)
d3=____________________________________ mm
Average d = ____________________________________ mm (½mk)
b) Set up the apparatus as shown in the circuit diagram.

Close the switch and tap the mounted wire with jockey as shown in the circuit. Ensure that both
meters show positive deflection, open the switch.
c) Tap the wire at L= 20cm, close the switch, read and record in the table the ammeter and
voltmeter reading.
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d) Repeat the procedure in (c) for other values of L shown in the table and complete the table.
L(m) V(Volts) I(A) R=V/I
0.2
0.3
0.4
0.5
0.6
0.7
0.8
(6mks)
e) Plot a graph of R against L (m). (5mks)

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f) Determine the slope of the graph. (3mks)

𝐿
g) Given that R= p where A is the cross-sectional area of the wire and p is a constant for the
𝐴

material of the wire, determine the value of the constant p. (3mks)

2. QUESTION 2
Part 1
You are provided with the following;
 A spiral spring
 A complete stand
 7 masses of 20g each
 A stop watch
 2 small pieces of wood for clamping

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Proceed as follows
a) Clamp the spiral spring so as to hang from the clamp as shown in the figure below

b) Hang a 40g mass from the spring and displace the mass slightly downwards so that it executes
vertical oscillations as shown

c) Measure and record in the table the time for 10 oscillations.

d) Determine the periodic time T in the table.

e) Repeat the experiment for other values of mass m shown in the table. Complete the table below.

Mass (m)g 40 60 80 100 120 140

Mass m (kg)
Time for 10
osc(s)
Period T(s)
T2 (s2)

(6mks)
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f) Plot a graph of T2 (s2) against mass m(kg). (5mks)

g) Determine the slope of the graph. (2mks)

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 𝟒𝝅𝟐 𝒎
h) Given that the equation of the graph is T2=
𝒘

Determine the value of w. (3mks)

Part II
You are provided with a glass block, 4 optical pins, a soft board, one plain paper.
a) Place the rectangular glass block on a sheet of paper fixed on the soft board with one of its
longest face uppermost. Mark the outline ABCD as shown in the figure. Remove the glass block
and draw a line EF to represent a ray of light making an angle of incidence i=300 with the
longest side BC of the block.

b) Stand pins p1and p2 on this line as far as possible. Replace the block and mark the emergent ray
by looking into the side AD of the block and placing pins p3 and p4 in line with images of p1
and p2 as seen through the glass block. Remove the block and the pins and draw ray EFGH as
shown in the figure below.

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a) Draw the normal at G as shown.

b) Measure angle B (1mk)

B = ……………………………………………………………

𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝟑𝟎𝟎
c) Given that k=
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝑩

Calculate the value of k. (2mks)

d) The main paper used should be handed over together with this paper (correct use made of the
plain paper) (1mk)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
121/1 Mathematics Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO DANDIDATES
1. Write your name, index number and class.
2. The paper contains two sections: Section I and II
3. Answer ALL questions in section I and ONLY FIVE questions from section II.
4. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question.
5. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

GRAND TOTAL
SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 TOTAL

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 SECTION I (50 MARKS)
( Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided below each question)
12𝑥 2 +𝑎𝑥−6𝑎2
1. Simplify (3 marks)
9𝑥 2 −4𝑎2

2. Paul bought a refrigerator on hire purchase by paying monthly instalments of Ksh. 2000 per
month for 40 months and a deposit of Ksh. 12,000. If this amounted to an increase of 25% of the
original cost of the refrigerator, what was the cash price of the refrigerator? (3 marks)

3. Without using calculator, evaluate

1
1 2
2 1 2
7 2 2 1 1 −2 2
3 2
( [ 𝑜𝑓1 − ( 1 19) + ]) leaving the answer as a mixed fraction. (4 marks)
3 5 3 2 − 3
3 27

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4. During a certain month, the exchange rates in a bank were as follows;
Buying (Ksh.) Selling (Ksh.)
1 US $ 91.65 91.80
1 Euro 103.75 103.93
A tourist left Kenya to the United States with Ksh.1 000,000.On the air port he exchanged all the
money to dollars and spent 190 dollars on air ticket. While in US he spent 4500 dollars for
upkeep and proceeded to Europe. While in Europe he spent a total of 2000 Euros. How many
Euros did he remain with? (3marks)

5. A regular n-sided polygon has its interior angle equal to 4 times its exterior. Find n. (3 marks)

6. The ratio of the lengths of the corresponding sides of two similar rectangular petrol tanks is
3:5.The volume of the smaller tank is 8:1m3.Calculate the volume of the larger tank.(3 marks)

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7. A man walks directly from point A towards the foot of a tall building 240m away. After
covering 180m, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the building is
450.Determine the angle of elevation of the top of the building from A. (3 marks)

8. The G.C.D. and L.C.M. of three numbers are 3 and 1008 respectively. If two of the numbers are
48 and 72, find the least possible value of the third number. (3 marks)

9. Solve for x in the equation below without introducing logarithms

52𝑥−1 = 602𝑥−1 (3 marks)

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10. The table below shows masses of fifty students in a form one class.
Mass (kg) Frequency
25-30 6
30-35 10
35-40 24
40-45 7
45-50 4

a) State the modal class. (1mark)

b) Calculate to 3 d.p the median mass. (2 marks)

−𝟒 𝟓
11. Given that the position vectors of points P and Q are 𝒑 = ( ) and 𝒒 = ( ). M is a point on
−𝟐 𝟒
PQ such that PM:MQ = 2:1. Find the coordinates of M. (3 marks)

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12. Calculate the area of the shaded region. (3 marks)

13. Solve the simultaneous equations. (4 marks)

𝑝 1 𝑝−3 2
= , =
𝑞+1 4 𝑝+𝑞 3

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 1 1
14. The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 4:5. One day of the boys and of the girls were
3 5
3
absent. If 8 less pupils had been absent, of the school would have been present. Calculate the
4
number of pupils in the school on that day. (3 marks)

15. Tap A can fill a tank in 10 minutes; tap B can fill the same tank in 20 minutes. Tap C can
empty the tank in 30 minutes. The three taps are left open for 5 minutes, after which tap A is
closed. How long does it take to fill the remaining part of the tank? (3 marks)

16. A solid in a shape of a right pyramid on a square base of side 8cm and height 15cm is cut at
6cm height from the base. Find the volume of the frustrum formed. (3 marks)

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 SECTION II (50 MARKS)
(Answer ANY FIVE questions in the spaces provided)
17. The points AI B I C I are the images of 𝐴(4, 1), 𝐵 (0, 2)𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶(−2, 4) respectively under a
1 1
transformation represented by the matrix M = ( ).
1 3
(a) Write down the coordinates of AI B I CI (3 marks)

(b) AII B II C II are the images of AI B I C I under another transformation whose matrix is N =
2 −1
( ). Write down the co – ordinates of AII B II C II (3 marks)
1 2

(c) Transformation M followed by N can be replaced by a single transformation P. determine the

matrix for P. (2 marks)

(d) Hence determine the inverse of matrix P. (2 marks)

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18. The figure below shows a triangle OAB with O as the origin. OA=a OB = b, OM 2/5a and
ON = 2/3b.

a) Express in terms of a and b the vectors

(i) BM (1 mark)

(ii) AN (1 mark)

b) Vector OX can be expressed in two ways: OB + KBM or OA + hAN, where K and h are
constants.
Express OX in terms of:
i. a, b and k. (2 marks)

ii. a, b and h. (2 marks)

c) Find the values of k and h. (4 marks)

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19. In the figure below, O is the center of the circle. PQ is a tangent to the circle at N. Angle
NCD is 10∘ and angle ANP is 30∘

Giving reasons find;

a) Angle DON (2marks)

b) Angle DNQ (2marks)

c) Angle DBA (2marks)

d) Angle ONA (2marks)

e) Angle ODN. (2marks)

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20. The displacement h metres of a particle moving along a straight line after t seconds is given
3
by h=-2t3+ t2 + 3t.
2
a) Find its initial acceleration (3 marks)

b) Calculate;
i) The time when the object was momentarily at rest (3 marks)

ii) Its displacement by the time it comes to rest (2 marks)

c) Calculate the maximum speed attained (2 marks)

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21. A metal R is an alloy of two metals X and Y. Metal X has a mass of 70g and a density of
16g/cm3. Metal Y has a mass of 19g and a density of 4g/cm3.
(a) Calculate the density of the metal R. (4 marks)

(b) If metal R is divided into two equal parts and each half reinforced by adding metal X to get to
initial volume. Find the density of the new alloy. (4 marks)

(c)The two metals are mixed in a ratio of 4:1 respectively. What is the density of the alloy?
(2 marks)

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22. A trailer moving at a speed of 80km/h is being overtaken by a car moving at 100km/h in a
clear section of a road. Given that the bus is 21m long and the car is 4m long.
a) How much time (in seconds) will elapse before the car can completely overtake the bus?
(3 marks)

b) How much distance (in metres) will the car travel before it can completely overtake the bus?
(2 marks)

c) Given that as soon as the car completed overtaking the trailer, a bus heading towards the trailer
and the car and moving at a speed of 90km/h became visible to the car driver. It took exactly 18
seconds for the car and the bus to completely by pass each other from the moment they first saw
each other.
i. How far was the tail of the bus from the tail of the car at the instance they first saw each other
given that the bus is 12 metres long? (3 marks)

ii. How far a part was the trailer and the bus just immediately after the car and the bus had passed
each other? (2 marks)

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23. Every Sunday Alex drives a distance of 80km on a bearing of 0740 to pick up his brother John
to go to church. The church is 75km from John’s house on a bearing of S500E. After church
they drive a distance of 100km on a bearing of 2600 to check on their father before Alex drives
to John’s home to drop him off then proceeds to his house.
(a)Using a scale of 1cm to represent 10km, show the relative positions of these places.(4 marks)

(b) Use your diagram to determine:

(i) the true bearing of Alex’s home from their father’s house. (1 mark)

(ii) the compass bearing of the father’s home from John’s home. (1 mark)

(iii) the distance between John’s home and the father’s home. (2 marks)

(iv) the total distance Alex travels every Sunday. (2 marks)

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24. P and Q are two points on a geographical globe of diameter 50 cm. They both lie on a parallel
latitude 50o North. P has longitude 90o West and Q has longitude 90o East. A string AB has one
end at point P and another at point Q when it is stretched over the North pole. Taking  =
3.142;
(a) Calculate the length of the string. (3 marks)

(b) If instead the string is laid along the parallel of latitude 50 oN with A at point P, calculate the
longitude of point B. (3 marks)

(c) State the position of B if the string is stretched along a great circle of P towards the South
pole if point A is static at P. (4 marks)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
121/2 Mathematics Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO DANDIDATES
1. Write your name, index number and class.
2. The paper contains two sections: Section I and II
3. Answer ALL questions in section I and ONLY FIVE questions from section II.
4. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question.
5. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

GRAND TOTAL
SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 TOTAL

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 SECTION A (50 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. A piece of wire 10cm long is to be cut into two parts. If the parts are bent to form a square and a
circle respectively, find the length each of the two parts, and hence find the radius of the circle
formed, if the sum of their areas is minimum. (4 marks)

2. In 2023, the cost of processing a bag of wheat was Ksh 250, and this was divided between
electricity costs and labour in the ratio 2:3. In the year 2024, the cost of electricity doubled,
while the cost of labour increased by x%. Calculate the value of x given that the cost of
processing a bag of wheat in 2024 is 425. (2 marks)

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3. A triangle PQR is such that the equation of line PQ is 3y-2x - 11 =0, while that of line QR is 2y
- 3 = -3x. Find the coordinates of the point of intersection of the two lines. (3 marks)

4. Three quantities b, n and m are such that b varies directly as the product of m and n, and
inversely as the square root of the difference of n2 and m. Form an equation connecting b, n and
m. Express n in terms of b, m and k, where k is the constant of proportionality. (3 marks)

5. The locus of points 3 cm away from a point (m,m) passes through the point (2,5). Find the value
of m. (3 marks)

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6. Using a ruler and pair of compasses only, construct triangle MNP in which MN = 5cm, NP =
4.4cm and angle PNM = 450. Draw a circle passing through all the vertices of the triangle and
measure its radius. (3 marks)

7. The deviations from the mean of a set of data are given as -4, -1, x2, 1, x, and -2. Find the value
of x, hence find the standard deviation of the data, given that x is positive. (3 marks)

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8. Two parallel chords of length 4.6cm and 6.8cm are on the same side of a circle of radius r cm.
calculate the radius of the circle, correct to four significant figures, given that distance between
the two chords is 2cm. (3 marks)

9. A piece of land is in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD such that side AB=AD=50m, < DAB=
1000, < ABC = 870 and < ADC = 790Determine the length of barbed wire that would go around
the land to the nearest metre. (4 marks).

10. OABC is parallelogram in which OA =a and OC =c. Y is the mid-point of OC, and AY
meets OB at X. X divides line OB and AY in the ratio 3:4 and 1:2 respectively. Find OB in
terms of a and c. (3 marks)

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11. Simplify without using tables or calculators: (3 marks)
sin 4800 −cos 7650
tan 2250 −cos(−3300 )

12. Use the first four terms of the expansion (2𝑎 + 𝑏)8 to find the value of 2.058 correct to 4
significant figures. (3 marks)

13. Bazu owns a total more than 10 buses and matatus combined. There are four more matatus
than buses, and the buses are not more than 8 in number. By taking x to represent the number of
buses, write down all the inequalities for the information and hence state all possible solutions of
x. (3 marks)

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14. Two similar metallic cylinders have masses of 64g and 125g respectively. The smaller
cylinder has a volume of 21.56cm3. The larger cylinder is molded into a sphere of radius r. Find
the value of r correct to 3 decimal places. (3marks)

15. A ship is observed from the top of a cliff 200 m high in a direction N18 0E at an angle of
depression of 150. Thirty minutes later, the same ship is observed in a direction S720E at an angle
of depression of 100. Find the distance travelled in the 30 minutes assuming that the ship travelled
along a straight line. (4 marks)

16. A right pyramid VABCD has its vertex at V and a rectangular base ABCD. AB= 8cm,
BC=6cm and all the slant edges of the pyramid are 10cm. Find the angle between plane VBC
and plane VAD correct to two decimal places. (3 marks)

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 SECTION B (50 MARKS)
Answer only FIVE questions in this section in the spaces provided
17. The table below shows the income tax rate for a certain year
Income in Ksh. Tax rate(%)
p.m
1 – 11180 10
11181 – 21714 15
21715 – 32248 20
32249 – 42781 25
42782 and 30
above

In a certain month, Mr Zakayo paid a net tax of Ksh 26416. He was entitled to a monthly personal
relief of Ksh 1648. He also paid insurance premiums amounting to 18200 and was entitled to an
insurance relief at 15% of premiums paid, subject to a maximum of Ksh 2000 per month. He
also lived in a company house for which he paid a nominal rent of 5200 per month. Other
taxable allowances amounted to sh. 22400.

a) Calculate Mr Zakayo’s monthly gross tax (2 marks)

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b) Calculate Mr Zakayo’s total taxable income in that month (4 marks)

c) Calculate Mr Zakayo’s net monthly income. (4 marks)

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 𝑥(𝑥−2 )
18. The equation of a curve is given as 𝑦 = .
(𝑥−1)−1

a) Sketch the curve. (7 marks)

c) Determine the exact area bounded by the curve and the x-axis. (3 marks)

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19. Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 2.8cm at a speed of 25m/min.
a) Calculate the volume of water delivered by the pipe per minute in litres. (3 marks)

b) A cylindrical storage tank of depth 2.5m is filled by water from this pipe and at the same rate of
flow. Water begins flowing into the empty storage tank at 8:00am and is full at 2:00pm.
Calculate the area of the cross section of this tank in m2. (4 marks)

c) A family consumes the capacity of this tank in one month. The cost of water is sh. 150 per 1000
litres plus a fixed maintenance charge of sh. 200. Calculate this family’s water bill for a month.
(3 marks)

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20. The second, 4th and 7th terms of an AP form the first three consecutive terms of a GP.
a) Find the common ratio of the G.P (5 marks)

b) The first term of the GP if the common difference of the AP is 3 (2 marks)

c) The seventh and the fifth terms of the G.P form the first two consecutive terms of an AP. Find
the sum of the first 20 terms of the AP formed. (3 marks)

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21. Use a ruler and a pair of compasses only for all constructions in this question.
(a) Construct parallelogram ABCD such that <ABC = 67.50, BA = 7.8cm and CB = 5.6cm.
(3 marks)

(b) Construct a perpendicular from A to meet DC at E. Measure AE, hence find the area of the
parallelogram. (2 marks)

(c)On the same side of AB as C and D, construct the locus of points P such that < APB = 45 0
(2 marks)

(d) Identify by shading the unwanted region, the locus of points R such that AR > 2.8 cm, AR≤ RB
and <ARB ≥ 450. (3 marks)

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22. In a form 4 chemistry classes consisting of both boys and girls, 2/5 of the students are girls.
2/ of the boys and 7/ of the girls are right handed. The probability that a right-handed student
3 10
breaks a conical flask in any practical session is3/7 and the corresponding probability of a left-
handed student is 4/9, independent of the student’s gender.
a) Draw a tree diagram to represent the above information (2 marks)

b) Determine the probability that a student chosen at random from the class is left handed and does
not break a conical flask during a practical session in simplest form. (3 marks)

c) Determine the probability that a conical flask is broken in any chemistry practical session in
simplest form. (3 marks)

d) Determine the probability that a conical flask is not broken by a right-handed student in the
simplest form. (2 marks)

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23. A farmer wishes to grow two crops, maize and beans. He has 70 acres of land available for
this purpose. He has 240 man-days of labour available to work out the land and he can spend up
to sh. 180,000. The requirements of the crops are as follows:
Maize Beans
Minimum number of acres to be sown 10 20
Man – day per acre 2 4
Cost per acre in sh. 3,000 2,000
Profit per acre in sh. 15,000 10,000
a) If x and y represent the number of acres to be used for maize and beans respectively, write down
in their simplest form, all the inequalities which x and y must satisfy. (2 marks)

b) Represent the inequalities on the grid provided (5 marks)

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c) Profit per acre of maize and beans is sh. 15,000 and 10,000 respectively. Draw a suitable search
line on the graph and use it to find the number of acres to be used for maize and beans so as to
give maximum profit. (2 marks)

d) Find the maximum profit. (1 mark)

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24. The table below gives values of P with corresponding values of G.
P 90.1 223.3 371.2 693.3 4450.1 11000

G 60 105 147 226 780 1500

a) Using the data from the table above, draw a suitable straight line graph given that P and G are
connected by the equation log 𝑃 = nlog 𝐺 + log 𝐾 (5 marks)

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b) Use the graph to determine:
i) The values of k and n (3 marks)

ii) The value of P when G is 113 (1 mark)

iii) The value of G when P is 400 (1 mark)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
451/1 Computer Studies Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours
(THEORY)

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your Name and Index Number and Adm No in the spaces provided.
 This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B
 Answer ALL questions in section A
 Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from section B
 All answers should be written in the spaces provided in the question paper

For Examiners use only.

Section Question Candidates Score
A 1 – 15
16
17
B 18
19
20
Total Score

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 SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. Explain what is meant by the terms:- (4 marks)
i) FDD………………………………………………………………………………………………
……
ii) HDD………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
iii) CMOS…………………………………………………………………………………………
………
iv) TFT……………………………………………………………………………………………
………

2. Outline TWO application areas of Artificial Intelligence (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. State TWO ways of identifying an illegal copy of an Operating System (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. List any four publications that can be created using a Publishing application software (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Describe a speech synthesis system (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. Find the Value of T8 in the following binary equation: 11010-AB16=T8 (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State any TWO factors one would consider when selecting any data output device. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Input devices can be categorized according to how they are used to enter data namely keying
devices, pointing devices, scanning devices, speech recognition devices and other digital
devices. Give TWO examples each of the following devices.
(i) Scanning devices. (1 mark)
a)………………………………………………………(b)…………………………………………

(ii) Other digital devices. (1 mark)

a)………………………………………………………(b)…………………………………………

(iii) Pointing devices. (1 mark)

a)………………………………………………………(b)…………………………………………

9. Describe the following types of monitors (3 marks)

a) Cathode Ray Tube(CRT)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Liquid Crystal Display (LCD)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………
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c) Gas Plasma
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

10(a) State TWO functions of Read Only Memory (ROM) (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give two characteristics of ROM (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Explain the meaning of the following system characteristics. (2 marks)

i) Entropy
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Controls
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Discuss TWO computational errors giving example in each case. (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. Differentiate between WORM and a VIRUS. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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14.Differentiate sequential file organization from indexed sequential file organization. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Give any THREE functions of the central processing unit (CPU) (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (60 marks)

Answer questions 16(Compulsory) and any other three questions from this section.
16. a) Differentiate between Assembler and Interpreter as used in programming. (2 marks)
b) Give any THREE objectives that fourth génération programming languages were designed to
meet. (3mks)
c) On the Nairobi-Nakuru highway, the Kenya Police have put speed cameras at a certain point to
read the time a vehicle passes a point (A) on the road and then reads the time it passes a
second point (B) on the same road. (Points A and B are 200 meters apart). The speed of the
vehicle is calculated using:
𝟏𝟎𝟎
 Speed = (Km/ hr)
(𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆 𝒂𝒕 𝒑𝒐𝒊𝒏𝒕 𝑩−𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆 𝒂𝒕 𝒑𝒐𝒊𝒏𝒕 𝑨)

 The maximum allowed speed is 100 kilometers per hour.

 500 vehicles were monitored using these cameras over a 1-hour period.
(i) Write a pseudo code, which: (5 marks)
 Inputs the start time and the end time for the 500 vehicles that were monitored
 Calculates the speed for each vehicle using the formula above.
 Outputs the speed for each vehicle and a message if the speed exceeded 100 km/hour.
>=100km/hr “High Speed”
<100km/hr “Normal Speed”
PSEUDO CODE
(i) Draw a flow chart for the above pseudo code. (5 marks)

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17.(a) Distinguish between the following sets of terms as used in spreadsheets
(i) Worksheet and workbook. (2 marks)
(ii) Filtering and sorting. (2 marks)
(b) State one way in which a user may reverse the last action taken in a spreadsheet package.
(1mark)
(c)The following is a sample of a payroll. The worksheet row and column headings are marked
1,2,3…… and A,B,C……. respectively.
A B C D E F G H
1 NAME HOURS PAY BASIC ALLOWANCE GROSS TAX NET
WORKED PER PAY PAY DEDUCTION PAY
HOUR
2 WAITHERA 21 750
3 CHEPKOECH 28 850
4 CHUMBA 14 550
5 NKIROTE 20 1000
6 NANA 23.5 250
7 KIBET 25.5 500
8 AUMA 14 250
9 ATITWA 18 1500
10 MOCHAMA 35 350
TOTALS

Use the following expressions to answer the questions that follow

 Basic pay = Hours worked x pay per hour
 Allowances are allocated at 10% of basic pay
 Gross pay = Basic pay + allowances
 Tax deductions are calculated at 20% of gross pay.
 Net pay = Gross pay – tax deductions.
Write formulae using cell references for the following cells:
(i) D2………………………………………………………………………… (1mark)
(ii) E4……………………………………………………………………………. (1mark)
(iii) F10………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
(iv) G7………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
(v) H5………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)

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d) (i) State THREE ways of moving round a page in Desktop Publishing window. (3 marks)
ii) State TWO ways on how Information and Communication Technology (ICT) has been used to
reduce the spread of COVID 19 (2 marks)

18. a.(i) List down THREE advantages of ATM cards. (3 marks)

(ii) State FOUR components of an electronics Point of Sale. (2 marks)
b. Give THREE reasons why a manager may prefer to teleconference during meetings. (3 marks)
c. Menengai Company would like to introduce use of a new information system. State THREE
reasons why the company would like to introduce a new information system? (3 marks)
d. Once the whole system has been designed and constructed, it will need to be implemented.
Describe TWO system changeover strategies that are likely to be used. (4 marks)

19.a) Explain why an intranet is more secure when sharing files within an organization compared
to the internet. (1 mark)
b) The network setup below is formed by combining several LANS. Use it to answer the questions
(i) – (v) below.

C
B

(i) Identify the network device P and C. (1mark)

(ii) State the importance of the network device P and C ( 2 marks)
(iii) What is the name given to the combined topology in figure above? (1mark)
(iv) Identify the network topologies used in the above diagram (2marks)
(v)State TWO disadvantages of topology connected to device P. (2marks)

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 c) A company has three branches M,N and O , where M is the headquarter. The local area network
(LAN) at M is directly connected to LAN at N and directly connected to the LAN at O. Explain
two benefits of having LAN at N also directly connected to the LAN at O. (4 marks)

d) The government of Kenya ordered all broadcasting TV stations to switch from analog
transmission to digital TV transmission. State two benefits of digital transmission over analog
transmission (2 marks)

20. a) Describe the following computer memories. (2 marks)

i. Register:
ii. Cache:
b. Explain Real-time Processing data processing mode giving TWO areas where it can be used.
(5 marks)
c. Describe any TWO coding schemes used in Data representation (4 marks)
d. List FOUR devices controlled by the Operating System (2 marks)
e. Define a Laptop (2 marks)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
451/2 Computer Studies Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours
(PRACTICAL)

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Type your name and index number at the top right hand corner of each print out
(b) Write your name and index number on the CD-R / CD-RW provided
(c) Write the name and version of software used in each question on the answer sheet
(d) Answer ALL the questions
(e) Passwords should not be used while saving in the CD-R
(f) All answers MUST be saved in the CD-R / CD-RW
(g) Make print out of answers on the answer sheet provided

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Candidate’s Score

1
2

Total Score

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1. The Judiciary Service Commission would like to conduct interviews on different shortlisted
applicants.
Required.
(a) (i) Create the main document below as it appears and save it as JLetter. (21 marks)
JUDICIARY SERVICE COMMISSION,
P.O. BOX PRIVATE BAG-00100,
NAIROBI.
10th October, 2023.
<<First Name>> <<Second Name>>,
<<Postal Address>>,
<<City>>.
Dear <<Salutation>>,
RE: INVITATION TO AN INTERVIEW
This is to let you know that you have been shortlisted for an interview scheduled on <<date of
visit>> at <<venue>> from <<Time>> for the <<Title>> position.

Please come with your:

(a) Original Identity Card
(b) Original Academic Certificates
(c) EACC Compliance Certificate
(d) Certificate of Good Conduct
(e) HELB Clearance Certificate
(f) KRA Compliance Certificate
A successful candidate will be entitled to the salary scales as shown in the table below:
TITLE JOB GROUP BASIC SALARY(KSH)
ICT OFFICE TS III 102,050
CLERK TS I 63,480
ACCOUNTANT TS IV 90,345
TOTAL 255,875

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We look forward to your attendance.

Yours sincerely

Chris Nyachoti.
Director

(ii) Proofread the document (2 marks)

(iii) Format 1.5 Line spacing in the body section (2 marks)
(b) Create a Data source below for the candidates and save it as JRecipients (15 marks)
First Second Postal City Salutatio Date Of Time Venue Title
Name Name Address n Visit

Charles Omukuba P.O BOX Busia Sir 3rd 11:00 Golf ICT
12 November am Club Officer
, 2023 Hotel

Grace Kith P.O BOX Nairobi Madam 2nd 8:00 am Serena Clerk
102 November
, 2023 Hotel

John Pilau P.O BOX Mombasa Sir 4th 9:00 am Interco Account
38 November ntinenta ant
, 2023 l hotel

Peter Gakere P.O BOX Laikipia Sir 4th 9:00 am Interco Account
25 November ntinenta ant
, 2023 l hotel

Antony Kipchoge P.O BOX Bomet Sir 3rd 11:00 Golf ICT
57 November am Club Officer
, 2023 Hotel

Gladys Mutua P.O BOX Machako Madam 3rd 11:00 Golf ICT
27 s November am Club Officer
, 2023 Hotel

Gilbert Muriithi P.O BOX Meru Sir 2nd 8:00 am Serena Clerk
18 November
, 2023 Hotel

Janet Kati P.O BOX Turkana Madam 4th 9:00 am Interco Account
42 November ntinenta ant
, 2023 l hotel

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(c) Using mail merging, create a merged document and save it as JSC_Merged. (4 marks)
(d) Print the following documents
(e) JLetter (2 marks)
(f) JRecipients (2 marks)
(g) Kith’s and Kipchoge’s letters only (2 marks)

2. a) The MBORANU Hospital in your county would like to computerize their operations. They
have consulted you to create a database and save it as MBORANU Hospital. (2 marks)
b) Create the two tables below with the shown fields. (10 marks)
(i) PatientsDetails Table
Field Name Data Type Field Size
PNO Text 3
Patient Name Text 30
Age Number Long integer
Residence Text 15
City Text 10
Gender Text 2

(ii)MedicalRecords Table
Field name Data type Field size
PNO Text 3
Doctor Text 30
Diagnosis Text 50
Treatment Text 50
Bill Amount currency
Amount Paid currency
c) Set the Primary Key for each table (2 marks)
d) Using the appropriate fields create a relationship between the two tables. (4 marks)

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 e) Create forms for each table and save them appropriately. Use them to enter records into the
respective table. (10 marks)
PatientsDetails Table
PNO Patient Name Age Estate City Gender
001 John Kimanzi 19 Kinoo Kiambu M
002 Jane Wanjiru 37 Siaya Kisumu F
003 Jack Omondi 32 Mathare Nairobi M
004 Mary Kimani 42 Buruburu Nairobi F
005 Grace Banda 36 Donholm Nairobi F
006 Aaron Odhe 30 Mamba Mombasa M
007 Mary Otieno 29 Matuu Kitui F
008 Shah 34 Parklands Nairobi M
Vadgama
MedicalRecords Table
PNO Doctor Diagnosis Treatment Bill Amount
Paid
003 Isaac Omondi Malaria Quinine 500 500
006 Grace Achuman Depression Antidepressants 2500 2000
004 Francis Kimani Headache Paracetamol 200 200
002 Alex Kioko Appendicitis Operation 10000 2000
f) Create a query to display:
i. All patients whose names end with letter “i”. Save the query as Iquery (3 marks)
ii. All patients whose age is above 30 and come from Nairobi City. Save the query as Agequery
(3 marks)
g) Create a query to compute the balance of the bill amount and save it as Balquery(4 marks)
h) Create a report with the title “2023 MBORANU PATIENTS REPORT” used to display PNO,
Patient Name, Age, Doctor, Diagnosis, Treatment and Bill. Save the report as patients
report (6 marks)
i) Print
i. Patients_Details table (2 marks)
ii. Age query (2 marks)
iii. Patients report (2 marks)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
441/1 Home Science Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours
(THEORY)

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date in the examination spaces provided above
(c) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.
(d) Answer all questions in section A and B and any two from section C.
(e) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Sectio Questio Maximum Candidat
n n Score e’s
Score
A 1-20 40
B 21 20
C 22-24 40

Total score 100

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 SECTION A(40 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. State two uses of eggs in flour mixtures. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

2. Give two ways of preventing skin diseases. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

3. State two disadvantages of traditional house designs. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

4. State two qualities of travel wear. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

5. Give the importance of calcium in expectant women. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

6. Give two disadvantages of credit cards. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

7. Give two reasons why babies fed on infant formula may suffer from diarrhea. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

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8. Identify two precautions to take when cleaning glass utensils. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

9. State two advantages of convenience foods. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

10. Define ventilation. (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

11. State two reasons for ironing clothes (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

12. Mention two advantages of starching house hold articles. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

13. Name two vaccines that are given to a baby immediately after birth. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

14. Mention three areas/centres of work that make up the work triangle. (3 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

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15. Suggest two reasons for cleaning paraffin tank of a hurricane lamp occasionally. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

16. Differentiate between antiseptic liquid and disinfectant. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

17. Give two examples of self-neatening seams. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

18. State two reasons for including fruit salad in a meal. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

19. Give two uses of temporary stitches. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

20. List two points to consider when selecting a thimble. (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................

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 SECTION B (Compulsory)
21. You have been assigned some household chores by your mother.
Describe the procedure of carrying out the following tasks.

a) Making muddy contaminated water safe for drinking without using chlorine and storing it.
(8 marks)
b) Dry cleaning and finishing polyester tie. (6 marks)
c) Cleaning a melamine cup. (6 marks)

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer any TWO questions from this section in the space provided.
22. a) State three laundry work processes that are harmful to woolen fibres and in each case state
the harm caused. (6 marks)
b) Give the meaning of the following care symbols. (2 marks)

c) Outline the procedure of cleaning a kitchen refuse bin. (6 marks)

d) Suggest five factors to consider when shopping for goods and services. (6 marks)

23. a) Explain five considerations to make when furnishing a sitting room. (5 marks)
b) Explain three nutritional needs of an adolescent. (6 marks)
c) Explain five preparations to make on a fabric before cutting out. (5 marks
d) Complete the following diagram on the classification of man made textile fibre.(4 marks)

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(Indicate what the number given stands for)

Man made fibres

1 Synthetic fibres

polyester Nylon
2 viscose
rayon
3 4

24. a) State four ways of misusing medicine. (4 marks)

b) Giving reasons in each case, explain three changes that take place in dough during the frying of
mandazi. (6 marks)
c) With the aid of two labeled diagrams, describe how to make an overlaid seam. (7 marks)
d) Name three nutritional disorders associated with lifestyle. (3marks)

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
441/2 Home Science Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

HOME SCIENCE PAPER 2 (441/2)

CONFIDENTIAL
Schools should provide the following materials;
1. Plain light weight cotton fabric 65cm by 90cm
2. Sewing thread to match the fabric.

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 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
441/2 Home Science Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

441/2
HOME SCIENCE (CLOTHING AND CONSTRUCTION)
Paper 2
(PRACTICAL)
2 ½ hours

Instructions to the candidates.

1. This paper contains 3 printed pages.
2. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are as printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

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A pattern of a child’s dress is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and the
layout carefully before you begin the test.
Materials provided
1. Pattern pieces
A. Dress Back
B. Dress Front
C. Front Yoke
D. Sleeve
E. Sleeve Binding
F. Back Facing
G.Front Facing
2. Plain lightweight cotton fabric 65cm by 90cm wide.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. One large envelope.

THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the RIGHT HALF of a child’s dress to show the
following processes.
(a) Cutting out (161/2mks)
(b) Attaching the front yoke to the dress front using an overlaid seam. Neaten half of the seam
using overcasting stitches; (12mks)
(c) Joining the shoulder seam using an open seam (do not neaten) (4mks)
(d) Joining of the side seam using an open seam; (9mks)
(e) Preparing and attaching the sleeve; (27mks)
(i) Making an inverted pleat
(ii) Joining the underarm seam using an open seam (do not neaten)
(iii) Attaching the binding and holding it using slip hemming (slip hem half the binding)
(iv) Attaching of the sleeve onto the garment (do not trim or neaten)
(f) Attaching the facing on the neckline. (14mks)
(g) Presentation (71/2)
(h) At the end of the examination, firmly sew on your work, a label bearing your name and index
number. Remove needles and pins from your work then fold your work neatly and place it in an
envelope provided. Do not put scraps of fabric in the envelope.

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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2024 KASSU MOCK
JOINT SERIES 1
441/3 Home Science Paper 3
Time: 1¾ Hours

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Practical session: 1¼ hours

Planning test session: 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Read the test carefully.
b) Write your name and index number on every sheet of paper used.
c) Textbooks and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials.
d) You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session.
e) You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning session.
f)You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.

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THE TEST
You and your friend are on half term and are going for a picnic. Using the foodstuffs and
ingredients listed below prepare cook and pack a one course meal for the two of you include a
refreshing drink

Ingredients
- Tomatoes
- Dhania
- Rice/wheat flour/potatoes
- Spice of choice
- Onions
- Capsicum
- Sugar
- Pineapples
- Green leafy vegetables
- Garlic
- Beef/liver
- Salt
- Cooking oil

PLANNING SESSION: 30 MINUTES

Use separate sheets of paper for each task listed below and use carbon paper to make duplicate
copies then proceed as follows;
(i) Identify the dishes and write down their recipes
(ii) Write down your order of work
(iii) Make a list of food stuffs and equipment you will require.

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 THE END

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